NAME

NAME Institute
In front of Singhdurbar, Putalisadak
Tel: - 01- 5331144

MECEE BL
Model Entrance Exam 2081
Model: IV
(Day Shift)

(Set-B)
Date: Jestha 12th, 2081 (Saturday) Duration – 3 hrs
Venue: NAME Time – 11:00 AM

INSTRUCTIONS
There are 200 multiple-choice questions, each having four choices of which only one
choice is correct.
. Fill ( ) the most appropriate one.
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set- IV, (2081-02-12)

1. Cons syndrome is related to;

a) Adrenal cortex b) Pituitary gland c) Thyroid gland d) Pancreas
2. Islets of Langerhans secretes:
a) Thyroxine b) Insulin c) ADH d) Aldosterone
3. Make odd one out:
a) Cowpers gland b) Bartholian gland c) Prostate gland d) Seminal vesicles
4. Malphigian corpuscles lies in:
a) Cortex of ovary b) Medulla of ovary c) Cortex of kidney d) Medulla of kidney
5. Pyloric sphincter is present between
a) Stomach and duodenum b) Duodenum and jejunum
c) Jejunum and ileum d) Ileum and caecum
6. Which of the following occurs in glomerulus?
a) Micturation b) Ultrafiltration c) Reabsorption d) Tubular secretion
7. Which cranial nerve supplies to heart
a) III b) VII c) XI d) X
8. 'Intercalated disc'' are the characteristic feature of
a) Striated muscle b) Smooth muscle c) Cardiac muscle d) None
9. Ghon's foci is the characteristic of
a) Typhoid b) Tuberculosis c) Ascariasis d) Cancer
10. Payers patches are found in?
a) ileum b) stomach c) heart d) colon
11. What is the layer of granulosa cell that is present outside of zonapellucida of human ovum?
a) corona radiata b) cumulus oophorus c) graffian follicles d) theca cells
12. Volume of lungs that is not measured by spirometer is?
a) dead space volume b) residual volume
c) tidal volume d) IRV
13. Tricuspid valve is present in between?
a) right auricle & ventricle b) ventricles
c) left auricle & left ventricle d) aorta & left ventricle
14. Myelination of nerve fibers in CNS is done by which cells?
a) astrocytes b) Microglial cells c) schwanns cells d) oligodendrocytes
15. Organ of corti is present in?
a) scala vestibule b) scala media c) scala corti d) scala tympani
16. Which will supply large blood vessels?
a) vasa-recta b) vasa nervosum c) vasa vasorum d) endothelium
17. Which is not Sexually transmitted disease?
a) hepatitis A b) hepatitis B c) HIV-AIDS d) Hepatitis –C
18. Corpus albicans represents which phase of female cycle?
a) Estrogenic phase b) Secretory phase

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set- IV, (2081-02-12)

c) Proliferative phase d) Destructive phase

19. Which of the following was the transitional stage (connective link) between apes and humans?
a) Homo habilis b) Homo erectus
c) Australopithecus ramidus d) Australopithecus Africanus
20. Which one is correct matching pair?
a) Arachnida → No antenna, 3 pairs of legs
b) Insecta → 1 pair of antenna, 4 pairs of legs
c) Crustacea → 2 pairs of antenna, 5 pairs of legs
d) Myriapoda → 1 pair of antenna, no legs
21. True fishes have fins and gills. This is not a true fish?
a) Hippocamus – sea horse b) Exocoetus – flying fish
c) Carassius – gold fish d) Lepisma – silver fish
22. Which of the following is correct?
a) Peripatus → connecting link between annelida and mollusca
b) Balanoglossus → connecting link between echinodermata and chordata
c) Dipnoi → connecting link between amphibia and reptiles
d) Neopilina → connecting link between annelida and arthropoda
23. Mollusca possess …………. shell.
a) chitinous b) calcareous c) siliceous d) keratinized
24. One of the primary characters of chordates is
a) paired nerve cord b) solid ventral nerve cord
c) ganglionated nerve cord d) dorsal tubular nerve cord
25. Which jaw of frog has teeth?
a) Upper jaw b) Lower jaw
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
26. Secondary aquatic vertebrates respire through
a) lungs b) gills c) integument d) skin
27. Behavioral response of bilaterally symmetrical animals is
a) klinotaxis b) tropotaxis c0 telotaxis d) menotaxis
28. _____________ is the evolution from coacervates to simple cell structure.
a) Chemical evolution b) Biological evolution
c) Organic evolution d) Inorganic evolution
29. Study of acquired characters is called
a) Ctetology b) Cetology c) Sitology d) Mammology
30. Coelenterates that are umbrella shaped are called as
a) Medusa b) Polyp c) Taenia d) Aurelia
31. Which among the following is odd?
a) Urochordata b) Cephalochordata c) Vertebrata d) Agnatha
32. Sea urchin is
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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set- IV, (2081-02-12)

a) Antedon b) Echinus c) Opthiothrix d) Holothuria

33. One of the following characteristic is not found in nematode?
a) Elongated body b) Cell-consistency c) Solid mesoderm d) Pseudocoel
34. In patient suffering from malaria, the cells having schuffner's granules are
a) gametacytes b) infected liver cells
c) infected erythrocytes d) signet ring trophozoites
35. The difference between septal and pharyngeal nephridia in earthworm refers to
a) Straight lobe b) terminal duct c) funnel d) mode of action
36. Recurrence of high temperature in malaria at intervals is due to completion of:
a) Erythrocytic schizogony b) Sporogony
c) gamogony d) Exo-erythrocytic schizogony
37. Which one of the following is a chordate but not a vertebrate?
a) Scoliodon b) Hag fish c) Amphioxus d) Guitar fish
38. Bucco-pharyngeal respiration in frog
a) is increased when nostrils are closed
b) stops when there is pulmonary respiration
c) is increased when it is catching fly
d) stops when mouth is opened
39. Which of the following is more close to man?
a) old world monkey b) Dryopithecus c) Gibbon d) Orangutan
40. Blubber found in ------------------------order of Infra class eutheria:
a) lagomorpha b) cetacea c) dermaptera d) carnivora
41. Most primitive reproduction in life is
a) Binary fission b) Conjugation c) Oidia d) Budding
42. Credit for crystallisation of virus TMV goes to
a) Stanley b) Ivanoski c) Louis Pasteur d) Smith
43. Condition of having single flagellum at both ends is
a) peritrichous b) lophotrichous c) amphitrichous d) monotrichous
44. Meiosis occurs in the zygote of
a) Chlamydomonas b) Puccinia c) Funaria d) Dryopteris
45. Mucor resembles with Spirogyra in that both develop
a) no embryo b) archegonia c) hyphae d) mycelia
46. Protonema stage is found in
a) Ferns b) Mosses c) Liverworts d) Fungi
47. Heterospory ferns always produce
a) bisexual gametophyte b) homothallic sporophyte
c) dioecious gametophyte d) heterothallic sporophyte
48. 4-5 spiral bands of cilia are found in pollen grains of
a) Pinus b) Selaginella c) Cycas d) Pteris

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set- IV, (2081-02-12)

49. Tap root is modified in

a) sweet potato b) potato c) carrot d) onion
50. The essential part of flower is
a) stamen b) pistil
c) stamen or pistil or both d) both stamen and pistil
51. The turned carpel is common character of
a) Cruciferae b) Malvaceae c) Asteraceae d) Solanaceae
52. Dalbergia sissoo belong to the family
a) Solanaceae b) Liliaceae c) Leguminosae d) Brassicaceae
53. Biosphere refers to
a) plants of land and water b) area occupied by plants and animals
c) area occupied by animals d) plants of entire world
54. Which of the following is a world natural heritage site?
a) Dhorpatan Hunting Reserve b) Royal Chitwan National Park
c) Koshi Tappu wildlife Reserve d) Rara National Park
55. Most threatened species is
a) rare b) vulnerable c) endemic d) endangered
56. Xerophytic feature is
a) large leaf b) phylloclade c) epidermis d) mesophylls cells
57. Carbohydrates present in the plasmalemma in the form of
a) Starch b) Cellulose c) Hemicellulose d) Glycoprotein
58. The colour of beet root is due to the presence of water-soluble pigments in
a) Cytoplasm b) Intercellular spaces c) Nucleus d) Vacuoles
59. Microbodies associated with oxidation of amino acid and uric acid in animals are
a) glyoxysomes b) peroxisomes c) sphaerosomes d) lysosomes
60. Chromosomes are not involved in
a) Mitosis b) Meiosis c) Cytokinesis d) Amitosis
61. The decision of cell division in taken during
a) G1 phase b) G2 phase c) S phase d) M phase
62. The mitochondria and chloroplast are similar because both have
a) 80S ribosomes b) 55S ribosomes c) similar functions d) naked DNA
63. Terminator codon is
a) UGG b) UAG c) AUG d) GUG
64. Heterozygous organism for two genes shall be
a) RRYY b) RrYY c) RrYy d) RRRy
65. In Mendelian crosses the genes responsible for different characters separate through
a) Fusion b) Aggregation c) Segregation d) Distribution
66. Gene with multiple effects is
a) codominant b) pleiotropic c) epistatic d) supplementary

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set- IV, (2081-02-12)

67. Heterogenous tissues is

a) xylem b) phloem c) xylem and phloem d) secretory tissues
68. Bark includes
a) all tissues outside xylem b) all tissues outside phloem
c) all tissues outside cork cambium d) all tissues outside vascular cambium
69. A cell gets reduced in size when placed in solution, the solution is
a) Hypertonic b) Hypotonic c) Weak d) Saturated
70. Ascent of sap takes place through
a) Cambium b) Phloem c) Xylem d) Epidermis
71. Which one is not an electron carrier during the light reaction?
a) Ferredoxin b) Cytochrome c) Phytochrome d) Plastoquinon
72. Chlorophyll is found in
a) Stroma of chloroplast b) Grana of chloroplast
c) Covering of chloroplasts d) Dispersed form in the chloroplasts
73. Glycolysis is concerned with
a) generation of ATP b) electron transport system
c) formation of lactic acid d) formation of CO2
74. One turn of Krebs cycle produces
a) 1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 1 ATP b) 1 FADH2, 2 NADH and 1 ATP
c) 1 FADH2, 3 NADH and 1 ATP d) 2 FADH2, 2 NADH and 2 ATP
75. Which of the following is a cytokinin?
a) Phytochrome b) Leucine c) Ethylene d) Zeatin
76. Usually releasing pollen grain has……………. Gametes in angiosperms.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) no
77. Ubisch bodies are present in
a) embryo sac b) tapetum c) endothecium d) pollen grains
78. Emasculation is
a) removing stamens b) releasing pollen grains
c) removal of the anthers d) artificial pollination
79. Hepatitis vaccines belong to
a) first generation b) second generation
c) fourth generation d) third generation
80. IVF is production of
a) baby outside uterus b) child from another mother
c) embryo outside uterus d) child in test tube
81. Azimuthal quantum number of last electron of 11Na is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
82. In which of the following compound Cl exhibits more than one oxidation states ?
a) CaOCl2 b) CaCl2 c) Cl2O7 d) ICl3

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set- IV, (2081-02-12)

83. Which of the following is a Lewis base?

+
a) BF3 b) Na+ c) NH 4 d) CH3OH.
84. The solubility product Ksp of the sparingly soluble salt Ag2CrO4 is 4  10−12. The solubility of
the salt is
a) 1  10−12mol L−1 b) 2  10−6mol L−1 c) 10−6mol L−1 d) 10−4 mol L−1.
85. Two Faraday of electricity is passed through a solution of CuSO4. The mass of copper
deposited at the cathode is (at. mass of Cu = 63.5 amu)
a) 2g b) 127 g c) 0 g d) 63.5 g
86. If 0.44 g of a colourless oxide of nitrogen occupies 224 ml at 1520 mm Hg and 273°C, then the
compound is
a) NO2 b) N2O c) NO4 d) N2O2
87. In the froth flotation process of concentration of ores, the ore particles float because they:
a) are light b) are insoluble
c) have the surface which is not wetted easily d) have a constant electrical charge
88. Iron is obtained on large scale from Fe2O3 by
a) Reduction with CO b) Reduction with Al
c) Calcination d) Passing H2
89. After partial roasting the sulphide of copper is reduced by
a) cyanide process b) electrolysis
c) reduction with carbon d) self-reduction
90. Nitrogen can be purified from the impurities of oxides of nitrogen and ammonia by passing
through
a) conc. HCl
b) alkaline solution of pyrogallol
c) a solution of K2Cr2O7 acidified with H2SO4
d) a solution of KOH
91. Phosphine is not obtained by which of the following reaction?
a) White P is heated with NaOH b) Red P is heated with NaOH
c) Ca3P2 reacts with water d) Phosphorus trioxide is boiled with water
92. In the upper layers of atmosphere ozone is formed by the
a) action of ultraviolet rays on oxygen
b) action of electric discharge on oxygen molecules
c) combination of oxygen molecules
d) None of these
93. The products of addition polymerisation reaction is:
a) PVC b) Nylon c) Terylene d) Polyamide
94. Butan-2-one can be converted to propanoic acid by:
a) Tollen;s reagent b) Fehling's solution c) NaOH/I2/H+ d) NaOH/NaI/H+
95. If acetyl chloride is reduced in presence of BaSO 4 + Pd, the product formed is:

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set- IV, (2081-02-12)

a) CH3CHO b) CH3CH2OH c) CH3COOH d) CH3COCH3

96. To obtain unsaturated alcohols from unsaturated aldehydes the following reagent is used
forreduction:
a) Na amalgum/H2O b) dil. H2SO4 c) Zn/HCl d) LiAlH4
97. IUPAC name of C6H5COCl is:
a) benzyl chloride b) benzene chloroketone
c) benzene carbonyl chloride d) chloro phenyl ketone
98. The maximum number of alkene isomer for an alkene with molecules formula C 4H8 is:
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
P2O5
99. In the dehydration reaction CH3CONH2 ⎯⎯⎯→ CH3C  N, the hybridisation state of carbon
changes from:
a) sp3 to sp2 b) sp to sp c) sp2 to sp d) sp to sp3
100. Alkanes mainly shows reaction involving:
a) Carbonium formation b) ionic elimination
c) ionic formation d) heat/photo chemical substitution
101. When Iodoform is heated with silver powder, it forms
a) acetylene b) ethylene c) methane d) ethane
102. To prepare 2-propanol from CH3MgI, the other chemical required is:
a) HCHO b) CH3CHO c) C2H5OH d) CO2
103. A typical compound undergoes Cannizzaro's reaction and aldol condensation. It is
a) (CH3)2CHCHO b) HCHO c) C6H5CHO d) CH3CHO
104. Formation of acetophenone by the reaction of acetylchloride and benzene is an example of:
a) Aldol condensation b) Perkin's reaction
c) Claisen's condensation d) Friedal-Craft's reaction
105. F2C = CF2 is a monomer of:
a) buna-S b) buna-N c) nylon-6 d) Teflon
106. Which of the following is not ferromagnetic?
a) cobalt b) iron c) manganese d) nickel
107. When a lead storage battery is charged, it acts as
a) a primary cell b) an electrolytic cell
c) a galvanic cell d) a concentration cell
108. The volume of H2 gas at NTP obtained by passing 4 amperes through acidified H 2O for 30
minutes is:
a) 0.0836 L b) 0.0342 L c) 0.1672 L d) 0.836 L
109. The geometry IF7 is
a) heptagonal b) icosahedral
c) trigonal bipyramidal d) pentagonal bipyramidal
110. Which of the following process involves the cleavage of covalent bonds ?
a) Evaporation of water b) Sublimation of iodine
c) Formation of atomic hydrogen d) Melting of sodium metal
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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set- IV, (2081-02-12)

111. In the equation ;

2−
Cr2O 7 + Fe2+ + H+ → Cr3+ +Fe3++H2O
the coefficients of Fe2+ and H+ are respectively
a) 6, 7 b) 6, 14 c) 5, 7 d) 5, 14
112. If given sample of potassium chlorate is 80% pure, then 48 g of oxygen would be produced
from
a) 98.0 g of the sample b) 153.12 g of sample
c) 245 g of sample d) 122.5 g of sample
113. 300 ml of 3.0 M NaCl is added to 200 ml of 4.0 M BaCl 2 solution. The concentration of Cl– ions
in the resulting solution is
a) 7 M b) 1.6 M c) 1.8 M d) 5 M
114. Sodium carbonate crystals lose water molecules on exposure to atmosphere. The related
property is called
a) Deliquescence b) Fluorescence c) Efflorescence d) Luminescence
115. At certain temperature two volumes of A combines with five volumes of B to produce two
volumes of C. If atomicity of A and B is 2. The formula of compound C is
a) AB3 b) A2B5 c) AB5 d) A5B2
116. At what ratio of the partial pressures, pO 3 : pN2, will the masses of two gases, O2 and N2
contained in vessel be equal
a) 0.785 b) 8.75 c) 11.4 d) 0.875
117. The enthalpy of formation for C2H4(g), CO2(g) and H2O(  ) at 25°C and 1 atm pressure be 52,
−394 and −286 kJ mol−1 respectively. The enthalpy of combustion of C 2H4(g) will be
a) + 1412 kJ mol-l b)-1412 kJ mol-l c) + 141.2 kJ mol-l d) -141.2 kJ mol-l
118. Which of the following metals requires radiation of highest frequency to cause emission of
electrons?
a) Na b) Mg c) K d) Ca
119. Which does not react with cold water?
a) Mg3N2 b) CaC2 c) CoCl2 d)SiC
120. CO2 and N2 are non-supporters of combustion. However for putting out fires CO2 is preferred
over N2 because CO2
a) does not burn
b) forms non-combustible products with burning substances
c) is denser than nitrogen
d) is a more reactive gas
121. When sodium oxide is heated in a current of CO 2 at 360°C we get
a) sodiumformate b) sodium oxalate
c) sodium acetate d) sodium carbonate
122. Hypo is used in photography to
a) Reduce AgBr grains to metallic silver
b) Convert metallic silver to silver salt

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set- IV, (2081-02-12)

c) Remove under composed silver bromide as a soluble complex

d) Remove reduced silver
123. Oxygen will directly react with each of the following elements except
a) P b) Cl c) Na d) S.
124. The gases respectively absorbed by alkaline pyrogallol and oil of cinnamon are
a) O3, CH4 b) O2, O3 c) SO2,CH4 d) N2O, O3.
125. The ion that cannot undergo disproportionation is
a) ClO4– b) ClO3– c) ClO2– d) ClO–
126. Benzaldehyde can be obtained by the hydrolysis of:
a) benzyl chloride b) benzal chloride c) benzonitrile d) benzoic acid
127. Iodoform test is not given by:
a)ethanol b) benzophenone c)ethanal d)acetophenone
128. HVZ reaction is not given by:
a) CH3COOH b) (CH3)2CHCOOH c) (CH3)3 CCOOH d) both (a) and (b)
129. Strongest interparticle forces exists in:
a) elastomers b) thermoplastics
c) fibres d) thermosetting polymers
130. The addition of HBr on butene -2 in presence of peroxide follows the
a) electrophilic addition b) free radical addition
c) nucleophilic addition d) None of these
131. Which one of following have same dimension
a) Potential energy and force b) Torque and force
c) Torque and potential energy d) Planck’s constant and angular momentum
132. Given that A  B = 0 . Also A  C = 0 . What is the angle between B and C ?
a) 00 b)900 c) 1350 d)1800
133. A passenger travels along the straight line for the half the distance with velocity v 1 and the
remaining half distance with velocity v2. Then average velocity is given by
a) v1v2 b) v22/v12 c) (v1 +v2)/2 d) 2v1v2/(v1 + v2)
134. A projectile is fired at 300
with momentum P. Neglecting friction, the change in momentum
return to the ground will be
a) zero b) 30% c) 60% d) 100%
135. A man of mass 90 kg is sanding in an elevator whose cable broke suddenly. If the elevator
falls, the force exerted by the floor on the man is
a) 90 N b) 90 N c) 0 N d) any negative value
136. A ball of mass m moving with certain velocity collides against a stationary ball of mass m. The
two balls stick together during collision. If E be the initial kinetic energy, then the loss of KE
in the collision is
a) E b) E/2 c) E/3 d) E/4
137. A subjected to strain several times will not obey Hook’s law due to
a) Yield point b) permanent state c) elastic fatigue d) breaking stress

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set- IV, (2081-02-12)

138. Bernoulli’s principle is based on the law of conservation of

a) Mass b) momentum c) energy d) none of above
139. Soap helps in cleaning the cloths because
a) It reduces the surface tension b) It gives strength to solution
c) It absorbs dirt d) Chemical of soap changes
140. With rise in temperature coefficient of viscosity of gas
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Does not change
d) May increase or decrease depending upon the range of temperature
141. When a copper ball is heated, the largest percentage increase will occur in its
a) volume b) diameter
c) area d) may increase or decrease
142. 80 g of water at 30 0C are poured onto a large block of ice at 0 0C. The mass of ice melts is
a) 1600 g b) 30 g c) 150 g d) 80 g
143. The area under a curve on PV diagram
a) The condition of a system b) Work done on or by the system
c) Work done in cyclic process d) A thermodynamics process
144. What is the rms velocity for O2 to H2?
a) ¼ b) 4 c) 4 :1 d) 1: 4
145. An ideal gas is isothermally expanded its internal energy will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Increase or decrease depending upon the nature of the gas
d) Remain same
146. In which process, the rate of transfer of heat is maximum
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
d) In all these, heat is transferred with same speed
147. When vessel of depth 2d cm is half filled with liquid of refractive index µ 1 and the upper half
with a liquid of refractive index µ 2. The apparent depth of the vessel seem perpendicularly is
   1 1  1 1   1 
a)  1 2 d b)  +  d c)  +  2d d)   2d
 1 +  2   1  2   1  2   1 2 
148. When a thin convex lens is put in contact with a thin concave lens of same focal length, the
resultant combination has a focal length equal to
a) f/2 b) 2f c) 0 d) 

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set- IV, (2081-02-12)

149. A ray is incident at an angle of incident i on one surface of a prism of small angle A and
emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of the prism
is µ then the angle of incident is nearly equal to
a) A/µ b) A/2µ c) µ/A d) µA
150. Colors in the thin films are due to
a) Diffraction phenomenon b) Scattering phenomenon
c) Interference phenomenon d) Polarization phenomenon
151. Light of wavelength  is incident on a slit of width d. the resulting diffraction pattern is
observed in a screen at a distance D. The linear width of the principal maximum is then equal
to the width of the slit if D equals
a) d/ b) 2/d c) d2/2 d) 22/d
152. The critical angle of a transparent crystal is 45 0. Then its polarizing angle is
 1 
a)  = tan −1 ( 2) b)  = sin −1 ( 2) c)  = cos −1 
 2
 d)  = cos−1 ( 2)
153. Two sound waves having a phase difference of 600 have path difference of
a) 2 b) /2 c) /6 d) /3
154. The equation of travelling wave is y = a sin 2(ft – x/5) then the ratio of maximum particle
velocity to wave velocity is
a) a/5 b) 2 5a c) 2a/5 d) 2a / 5
155. A man is watching two trains, one leaving and the other coming in, with equal speed of 4 m/s.
If they sound their whistles, each of natural frequency of 240 Hz, the number of beats heard
by he man (velocity of sound in air = 320 m/s) will be equal (in Hz) to
a) 6 b) 3 c) zero d) 12
156. Three charges 2q, -q, -q are located at the vertices of an equilateral tringle. At the center of the
triangle
a) The field is zero but potential not zero b) The field is non-zero but potential is zero
c) Both field and potential are zero d) Both field and potential are non-zero
157. Two charges q1 and q2 are placed in vacuum at a distance d and the force acting between them
is F. If a medium of dielectric constant 4 is introduced around them the force now will be
a) 4F b) 2F c) F/2 d) F/4
158. The electric energy density between the plates of charged condenser is
a) q2/20A2 b) q/20A2 c) q2/20A d) q2/202A2
159. There is a current of 1.344 amp in a copper wire whose area of cross – section normal to the
length of wire is 1 mm2. If the number of free electrons per m3 is 8.4  1022 then the drift velocity
would be
a) 1.0 mm/s b) 1.0 m/s c) 0.1 mm/s d) 0.01 mm/s
160. When a wire of uniform cross-section a, length l and resistance R is bent into a complete circle,
the resistance between any two of diametrically opposite points will be
a) R/8 b) R/4 c) R/2 d) R
161. If the current flowing in a conductor changes by 1% then power will change by
a) 10% b) 1% c) 100% d) 2%

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set- IV, (2081-02-12)

162. The temperature of the thermocouple which is independent of the temperature of cold
junction is called
a) Neutral temperature
b) Temperature of inversion
c) Natural temperature as well as temperature of inversion
d) None of the above
163. An electron moves with uniform velocity v enters a region of uniform magnetic field. If v and
B are parallel to each other, then the electron
a) Continuous to move in same direction b) Moves in a direction perpendicular to B
c) Moves in a circular path d) Will not move
164. A straight wire 5 m long is placed parallel to an infinitely straight wire carrying current 5 A.
The distance between the two wires is 10 cm and the 5 m long wire is carrying current 2 A. The
force on the shorter wire is
0 1
a)  103 N b) 103 N c)  103 N d) 10-7 N
4 4
165. The property of retentivity of material is useful in the construction of
a) Transformers b) Electromagnets c) Permeant magnets d)Non-magnetic substance
166. An inductor may store energy in
a) Its electric field b) Its coils
c) Its magnetic field d) Both in electric and magnetic field
167. In an LCR series resonant circuit which one of the following cannot be the expression for the
Q-factor
L 1 L 1 R
a) b) c) d)
R CR CR LC
168. A beam of cathode rays is subjected to crossed electric (E) and magnetic fields (B). the fields
are adjusted such that the beams do not deflected. The specific charge of cathode rays is given
by
B2 2VB 2 2VE 2 E2
a) b) c) d)
2VE 2 E2 B2 2VB2
169. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) The current in photocell increases with increasing frequency
b) The photo current is proportional to the applied voltage
c) The photo current increases with intensity of light
d) The stopping potential increases with increases of incident light.
170. An electron of mass m, when accelerated through a potential V, has de-Broglie wavelength .
The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a proton of mass M accelerated through the same
potential difference will be
M m M m
a)  b)  c)  d) 
m M m M
171. In Bohr’s model of the H-atom the ratio between the period of revolution of an electron in the
orbit of n = 1 to the period of revolution of the electron in the orbit n =2 is

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set- IV, (2081-02-12)

a) 1:2 b) 2:1 c) 1:4 d) 1:8

172. The half life of radioactive substance is 140 days. After how much time 15 gm will decay form
16 gm of sample of it?
a) 140 days b) 280 days c) 420 days d) 560 days
173. If the radius of 13Al27 nucleus is established be 3.6 fermi, then the radius of 56Te125 nucleus is
nearly
a) 4 fm b) 5 fm c) 6 fm d) 8 fm
174. There is no hole in good conductors, because they
a) Are full of electron gas
b) Have large forbidden gap
c) Have no valance band
d) Have overlapping valance and conduction bands
175. The impurity atoms with which pure silicon should be doped to make a P-type semiconductor
are those of
a) Phosphorus b) boron c) antimony d) bismuth
176. Forbidden band gap in conductors, semi-conductors and insulators are EG1, EG2, and EG3
respectively. The relation among them is
a) EG1 = EG2 = EG3 b) EG1 < EG2 < EG3 c) EG1 > EG2 > EG3 d) EG2 < EG1 < EG3
177. What causes current to flow across a junction diode when it is forward biased?
a) Diffusion of charges b) Nature of material
c) Drift of charges d) Both drift and diffusion of charges
178. Which quark combination forms a proton?
a) uuu b) uud c) udd d) ddd
179. Approximately how long ago is it believed that the Big Bang occurred, leading to the universe's
formation?
a) 10 million years ago b) 4.5 billion years ago
c) 13.8 billion years ago d) 1 trillion years ago
180. S-waves (Secondary waves) are also known as:
a) Longitudinal waves b) Transverse waves
c) Surface waves d) Tsunami waves
181. There are six teachers. Out of them two are primary teachers, two are middle teachers and two
secondary teachers. They are to stand in a row, so as the primary teacher, middle teachers and
secondary teachers are always in a set. The number of ways in which they can do so, is
a) 36 b) 44 c) 45 d) 48
182. A man wears socks of two colours black and white. He has 10 black and 20 white socks in his
cupboard. If he has to take out the socks in the dark, find the minimum number of socks he
has to take out to have a matching pair?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
183. Thirty-six vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a single row. After the first car there is one
scooter. After the second car there are two scooters .After the third car there are three scooters
and so on. Find the number of scooters in the second half of the row.

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set- IV, (2081-02-12)

a) 10 b) 12 c) 15 d) 18
184. If "Good Noon" = 44, "Take on" = 42 then "Come out" = ?
a) 45 b) 34 c) 46 d) 43
185. The value of a land increases at the rate of 20% per annum. If its present value is Rs. 10,00,000,
what will be the value of land after 3 years?
a) Rs. 13,31,000 b) Rs. 33,75,000 c) Rs. 27,44,000 d) Rs. 17,28,000
186. 1,2,5,26,?
a) 577 b) 677 c) 777 d) 877
187. A can do a work in 120 days. B can do the same work in 150 days. They work together for 20
days. B leaves and A alone continues the work. After 12 days C joins A and work together for
48 days to finish the work. In how many days can C alone finish the work?
a) 120 days b) 240 days c) 60 days d) 180 days
188. Find odd one: 253, 181, 451, 632, 433.
a) 181 b) 451 c) 632 d) 433
189. Aa1ABab12ABCabc123…………. 136th ?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
190. Complete the given matrix.
25 16 20

64 4 16

121 16 ?

a) 22 b) 44 c) 36 d) none
191. M, V, ?, M, J, S, U
a) C b) D c) E d) F
192. Which one will replace the question mark ?

a) 25 b) 625 c) 125 d) 50
193. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
194. Arrange the words in Meaningful order: 1. Book 2. Pulp 3. Timber 4. Jungle 5. Paper
a) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4 b) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3 c) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 d) 5, 4, 3, 1, 2

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set- IV, (2081-02-12)

195. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
196. The last day of leap year century is
a) Sunday b) Monday c) Thursday d) Wednesday
197. Find the number of triangles in the figure below.

a) 58 b) 59 c) 60 d) 62
198. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the
transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
199. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
200. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Best of Luck
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Best of Luck

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