PIPE ELEMENTS NO.

1
1. Is the most common dryer used which consist of rotating C. Automatic expansion valve
cylinder inside which the materials flow while getting in D. Capillary tube
contact with hot gas. ANSWER: D
A. Tower dryer 11. As a rule of thumb, for a specified amount of compressed
B. Centrifugal dryer air, the power consumption of the compressor decreases
C. Trey dryer by ______________ for each 3 deg C drop in the
D. Rotary dryer temperature inlet air to the compressor.
ANSWER: D A. 1 percent
2. Is the ratio of the mass of water-vapor in air and the mass B. 1.5 percent
of air if it is saturated is called: C. 2 percent
A. Humidity ratio D. 2.5 percent
B. Mass ratio ANSWER: A
C. Vapor ratio 12. Modern way of detecting air compressor leak is by using
D. Relative humidity A. Soup and water
ANSWER: D B. Air leak detector
3. The hands feel painfully cold when the skin temperature C. Acoustic leak detector
reaches D. Ammonia leak detector
A. 8 deg C ANSWER: C
B. 10 deg C 13. For foundation of stacks, the maximum pressure on the soil
C. 12 deg C is equal to the pressure due to the weight and the
D. 14 deg C ___________.
ANSWER: B A. Soil movement
4. The refrigerant used in steam jet cooling is: B. Wind movement
A. Steam C. Ground movement
B. R-11 D. Engine movement
C. Ammonia ANSWER: B
D. Water 14. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and
ANSWER: D surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter of at
5. The total heat of the air is a function of least
A. WB temperature A. 3 times the diameter of engine bolt
B. DP temperature B. 2 times the diameter of engine bolt
C. DB temperature C. 3 times the diameter of anchor bolt
D. WB depression D. 2 times the diameter of anchor bolt
ANSWER: A ANSWER: C
6. Boiling point of Freon-12 at atmospheric pressure is: 15. For multi stage compression of an ideal Brayton cycle, the
A. 21 deg F back ratio will
B. 15 deg F A. Increase
C. 5 deg F B. Decrease
D. 28 deg F C. Remains the same
ANSWER: A D. None of these
7. Which of the following is NOT a type of water cooled ANSWER: B
condenser in refrigeration? 16. Type of turbine that has a specific speed below 5.
A. Double pipe A. Impulse turbine
B. Double shell B. Propeller turbine
C. Shell and coil C. Francis turbine
D. Shell and tube D. Deriaz turbine
ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
8. Component of absorption refrigeration system in which the 17. A high discharge type of turbine
solution is cooled by cooling water. A. Impulse turbine
A. Rectifier B. Propeller turbine
B. Generator C. Francis turbine
C. Evaporator D. Deriaz turbine
D. Absorber ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D 18. Use to minimize the speed rise due to a sudden load
9. Cascade refrigeration cycle is often used in industrial rejection
process where objects must be cooled to temperature A. Needle valve
below: B. Wicket gate shut-off
A. -46 deg C C. Shut-off valve
B. -56 deg C D. Jet deflector
C. -66 deg C ANSWER: D
D. -76 deg C 19. Is the speed of a turbine when the head on the turbine is
ANSWER: A one meter
10. Type of refrigerant control designed to maintain a pressure A. Specific speed
difference while the compressor is operating. B. Rated speed
A. Thermostatic expansion valve C. Utilized speed
B. Using low side float flooded system D. Unit speed
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 1
ANSWER: D A. Increase
20. Is a fluid property which refers to the intermolecular B. Decrease
attraction by which the separate particles of the fluid arc C. Remains the same
held together. D. None of these
A. Cohesion ANSWER: A
B. Adhesion 30. By increasing the boiler pressure in Rankine cycle the
C. Surface tension moisture content at boiler exit will.
D. Hypertension A. Increase
ANSWER: A B. Decrease
21. Which of the following is NOT the cause of black smoke in C. Remains the same
diesel engine? D. None of those
A. Fuel valve open too long ANSWER: A
B. High compression pressure 31. Presently the highest steam temperature allowed at the
C. Carbon in exhaust pipe turbine inlet is about ______.
D. Overload on engine A. 340 deg C
ANSWER: B B. 520 deg C
22. Which of the following is not a method of starting a diesel C. 620 deg C
engine? D. 1020 deg C
A. Manual: rope, crank and kick ANSWER: C
B. Electric (battery) 32. Two most common gases employed in Stirling and Ericsson
C. Compressed air cycles are.
D. Using another generator A. Air and helium
ANSWER: D B. Oxygen and helium
23. Two-stroke engine performs ________ to complete one C. Hydrogen and helium
cycle. D. Nitrogen and helium
A. Suction and discharge stroke ANSWER: C
B. Compression and power stroke 33. In most common design of gas turbine, the pressure ratio
C. Power and exhaust stroke ranges from
D. Suction and exhaust stroke A. 10 to 12
ANSWER: B B. 11 to 16
24. A type of geothermal plant used when there is a presence C. 12 to 18
of brine extracted from underground D. 15 to 20
A. Dry geothermal plant ANSWER: B
B. Double-flash geothermal 34. In brayton cycle, the heat is transformed during what
C. Single flash geothermal plant process?
D. Binary geothermal plant A. Constant temperature
ANSWER: D B. Isentropic process
25. Is the most important safety device on the power boiler. C. Isobaric process
A. Check valve D. Isochoric process
B. Gate valve ANSWER: C
C. Safety valve 35. The fuel injection process in diesel engine starts when the
D. Globe valve piston ______
ANSWER: C A. Is at the TDC
26. During hydrostatic test, the safety valves should be B. Leaving TDC
A. Removed C. Approaches TDC
B. Open D. Halfway of the stroke
C. Closed ANSWER: C
D. Partially closed 36. If the cut-off ratio of diesel cycle increases, the cycle
ANSWER: A efficiency will
27. Where deaerating heaters are not employed, it is A. Decrease
recommended that the temperature of the feed water be B. Increase
not less than ______ C. Remains the same
A. 197 deg C D. None of these
B. 102 deg C ANSWER: A
C. 104 deg C 37. The fuel used in a power plant that is used during peak
D. 106 deg C periods.
ANSWER: A A. Gas
28. Is a reaction during which chemical energy is released in the B. Solid
form of heat. C. Liquid
A. Cosmic reaction D. None of these
B. Ethnic reaction ANSWER: C
C. Endothermic reaction 38. Typical compression ratio of Otto cycle is
D. Exothermic reaction A. 6
ANSWER: D B. 8
29. By reheating the steam in an ideal Ranking cycle the heat C. 10
rejected will. D. 12
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 1
ANSWER: B 48. Any device or portion of the equipment used to increase
39. If Joule Thomson coefficient is equal to zero, then the refrigerant pressure
process will become A. Pressure relief device
A. Isentropic B. Pressure-imposing element
B. Isenthalpic C. Pressure lift device
C. Isobaric D. Pressure limiting device
D. Isothermal ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D 49. The quantity of refrigerant stored at some point is the
40. If the fluid passed through a nozzle its entropy will: refrigeration system for operational, service, or standby
A. Increase purposes.
B. Decrease A. Pressure vessel
C. Remains the same B. Pumpdown charge
D. None of these C. Liquid receiver
ANSWER: C D. Accumulator
41. Refrigerant consisting of mixtures of two or more different ANSWER: B
chemical compounds, often used individuals as refrigerant 50. Secondary refrigerant is a liquid used for the transmission
for other applications. of heat, without a change of state, and having no flash point
A. Suspension or a flash point above ______ as determined from ASTM
B. Compound reaction A. 150 F
C. Blends B. 160 F
D. Mixing of refrigerant C. 180 F
ANSWER: C D. 200 F
42. Pairs of mating stop valves that allow sections of a system ANSWER: A
to be joined before opening these valves or separated after 51. A service valve for dual pressure-relief devices that allows
closing them using one device while isolating the other from the system,
A. Check valve maintaining one valve in operation at all times.
B. Gate valve A. Three-way valve
C. Safety valve B. Two-way valve
D. Companion valve C. One-way valve
ANSWER: D D. Four-way valve
43. An enclosed passageway that limits travel to a single path. ANSWER: A
A. Corridor 52. Tubing that is unenclosed and therefore exposed to
B. Hallway crushing, abrasion, puncture, or similar damage after
C. Lobby installation.
D. Tunnel A. Protected tubing
ANSWER: A B. Bare tubing
44. For immediate dangerous to life or health (IDHL), the C. Open tubing
maximum concentration from which unprotected persons D. Unprotected tubing
are able to escape within _____ without escape-impairing ANSWER: D
symptoms or irreversible health. 53. Refers to blends comprising multiple components of
A. 15 min different volatile that, when used in refrigeration cycles,
B. 1 min change volumetric composition and saturation
C. 20 min temperature as they evaporate (boil) or condense at
D. 30 min constant pressure.
ANSWER: D A. Zeolite
45. The volume as determined from internal dimensions of the B. Blending
container with no allowance for the volume of internal C. Composition
parts. D. Zeotropic
A. Internal allowance ANSWER: D
B. Internal gross volume 54. Is a premises or that of a premise from which, because they
C. Internal interference volume are disabled, debilitated, or confined, occupants cannot
D. Internal fits volume readily leave without the assistance of others
ANSWER: B A. Institutional occupancy
46. A waiting room or large hallway serving as a waiting room B. Public assembly occupancy
A. Terrace C. Residential occupancy
B. Rest room D. Commercial occupancy
C. Compound room ANSWER: A
D. Lobby 55. Is one in which a secondary coolant is in direct contact with
ANSWER: D the air or other substance to be cooled or heated.
47. A continuous and unobstructed path of travel from any A. Double indirect open spray system
point in a building or structure to a public way B. Indirect open spray system
A. Average of aggress C. Indirect closed system
B. Mean of aggress D. Indirected, verted closed system
C. Hallway of aggress ANSWER: B
D. Pathway of aggress 56. Refrigerant number R-744 is
ANSWER: B A. Butane
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 1
B. Carbon monoxide B. Condenser subcooler
C. Propane C. Desuperheating coils
D. Carbon dioxide D. Liquid receiver
ANSWER: D ANSWER: A
57. Refrigerant number R-1150 is 66. Which of the following is NOT a part of low pressure side in
A. Propylene refrigeration system?
B. Ethene A. Compressor
C. Ethane B. Condenser
D. Methyl formate C. Liquid line
ANSWER: B D. Suction line
58. Refrigerant R-40 is ANSWER: C
A. Chlorodifluoromethane 67. Which of the following is NOT a part of high pressure side
B. Difluoromenthane in refrigeration system?
C. Ammonia A. Compressor
D. Chloromethane B. Condenser
ANSWER: D C. Liquid line
59. When the air duct system serves several enclosed spaces, D. Suction line
the permissible quantity of refrigerant in the system shall ANSWER: D
not exceed the amount determined by using the total 68. Which of the following is NOT a part of condensing unit?
volume of those spaces in which the airflow cannot be A. Compressor
reduced to less than ____ of its maximum when the fan is B. Discharge line
operating C. Condenser
A. One-quarter D. Liquid line
B. One half-quarter ANSWER: D
C. Three-quarter 69. By subcooling the refrigerant in refrigeration system, the
D. One-fourth-quarter compressor power per unit mass will
ANSWER: A A. Increase
60. The space above a suspended ceiling shall not be included B. Decrease
in calculating the permissible quantity of refrigerant in the C. Remains the same
system unless such space is continuous and is part of the D. None of these
air return system ANSWER: C
A. Partition 70. Superheating the refrigerant in refrigeration system
B. Plenums without useful cooling, the refrigeration effect per unit
C. Separator mass will
D. Plate divider A. Increase
ANSWER: B B. Decrease
61. Which of the following is not a possible location of service C. Remains the same
valve? D. None of these
A. Suction of compressor ANSWER: C
B. Discharge of compressor 71. By subcooling the refrigerant in refrigeration system, the
C. Outlet of liquid receiver specific volume at compressor suction will
D. Outlet of condenser A. Increase
ANSWER: D B. Decrease
62. A coil in series with evaporator that is use to prevent the C. Remains the same
liquid refrigerant entering the compressor D. None of these
A. Accumulator ANSWER: C
B. Liquid superheater 72. Pressure loss due to friction at the condenser, the
C. Drier loop compressor power per unit mass will
D. Liquid suction heat exchanger A. Increase
ANSWER: C B. Decrease
63. A type of valve connected from discharge of compressor C. Remains the same
directly to suction that is normally closed and will open D. None of these
automatically only if there is high discharge pressure ANSWER: C
A. Check valve 73. Which of the following is NOT a type of air-cooled
B. Solenoid valve condenser?
C. King valve A. Shell and tube
D. Relief valve B. Natural draft
ANSWER: B C. Forced draft
64. Use to increase the capacity of condenser D. Induced draft
A. Water regulating valve ANSWER: A
B. Desuperheating coils 74. A type of refrigerant control typically used in household
C. Liquid-suction heat exchanger refrigeration
D. Condenser heating coils A. Thermostatic expansion valve
ANSWER: B B. Automatic expansion valve
65. Is use to subcooled the refrigerant from the condenser C. Capillary tube
A. Liquid subcooler D. High side float
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 1
ANSWER: C D. 700 F
75. Type of condenser that operates like a cooling water ANSWER: D
A. Air-cooled condenser 85. Refrigerant piping crossing an open space that affords
B. Evaporative condenser passageway in any building shall be not loss than ______
C. Shell and tube condenser above the floor unless the piping is located against the
D. Water cooled condenser ceiling of such space and is permitted by the authority
ANSWER: B having jurisdiction
76. The major problem of heat pump is A. 2.2 m
A. Refrigerant used B. 3.2 m
B. Outside air C. 4.2 m
C. Supply air D. 5.2 m
D. Frosting ANSWER: A
ANSWER: D 86. Methyl chloride shall not be in contact with
77. Dominant refrigerant used in commercial refrigeration A. Aluminum
system B. Zinc
A. R11 C. Magnesium
B. R22 D. All of these
C. R12 ANSWER: D
D. R502 87. Shall not be in contact with any halogenated refrigerants
ANSWER: D A. Aluminum
78. Cascade refrigerant system are connected in B. Zinc
A. Series C. Magnesium
B. Parallel D. All of these
C. Series-parallel ANSWER: C
D. Parallel 88. Are suitable for use in ammonia system
ANSWER: A A. Copper
79. Is use to heat up the solution partially before entering the B. Aluminum and its alloy
generator in absorption refrigeration system C. Plastic
A. Rectifier D. Cast iron
B. Absorber ANSWER: B
C. Regenerator 89. In a pressure-relief device is used to protect a pressure
D. Pump vessel having an inside dimension of 6 in or less, the
ANSWER: C ultimate strength of the pressure vessel so protected shall
80. The COP of actual absorption refrigeration system is usually be sufficient to withstand a pressure at least ____ the
A. Less than 1 design pressure
B. Less than 2 A. 2 times
C. Less than 3 B. 3 times
D. Less than 4 C. 4 times
ANSWER: A D. 5 times
81. Sight glass is often located at ANSWER: B
A. Discharge line 90. Seats and discs shall be limited in distortion, by pressure or
B. Liquid line other cause, to set pressure change of not more than ____
C. Between condenser and liquid receiver in a span of five years.
D. Suction line A. 1%
ANSWER: B B. 5%
82. Use to detects a vibration in current caused by the C. 10%
ionization of decomposed refrigerant between two D. 50%
opposite charged platinum electrodes ANSWER: B
A. Electronic detector 91. Liquid receivers, if used or parts of a system designed to
B. Halide torch receive the refrigerant change during pumpdown charge.
C. Bubble method The liquid shall not occupy more than ____ of the volume
D. Pressurizing when temperature of the refrigerant is 90F
ANSWER: A A. 80%
83. The ability of oil to mix with refrigerants B. 85%
A. Carbonization C. 90%
B. Purging D. 95%
C. Mixing ANSWER: C
D. Miscibility 92. The discharge line (B4) shall be vented to the atmosphere
ANSWER: D through a ____ fitted to its upper extremity.
84. Joints and all refrigerants-containing parts of a refrigerating A. Nozzle
system located in an air duct carrying conditioned air to and B. Convergent-divergent nozzle
from an occupied space shall be constructed to withstand C. Pipe
a temperature of ____ without leakage into the airstream. D. Diffuser
A. 550 F ANSWER: D
B. 600 F 93. Convert fossil fuels into the shaft work
C. 650 F A. Nuclear power plant
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 1
B. Gas turbine power plant C. Steam turbine
C. Dendrothermal power plant D. Passout turbine
D. Thermal power plant ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D 104. Which of the following is used for binary cycle power
94. Ultimate strength drops by 30% as steam temperature generation for high temperature application?
raises from ____ for unalloyed steel A. Mercury
A. 300 to 400 c B. Sodium
B. 400 to 500 c C. Potassium
C. 600 to 700 c D. All of these
D. 700 to 800 c ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B 105. Critical temperature of mercury is
95. Recent practice limits steam temperature to A. 1160 °C
A. 438 C B. 1260 °C
B. 538 C C. 1360 °C
C. 648 C D. 1460 °C
D. 738 C ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A 106. Critical pressure of mercury is
96. In a closed feed water heater, the feed water pass through A. 100 MPa
A. Inside the tube B. 108 MPa
B. Outside the tube C. 128 MPa
C. Inside the shell D. 158 MPa
D. Outside the shell ANSWER: B
ANSWER: A 107. Method used in converting heat directly to electricity by
97. Is use if extracted steam upon condensation gets subcooled magnetism
A. Trap A. Electromagnetic induction
B. Deaerator B. Magnetodynamic
C. Filter C. Magnetohydrodynamic
D. Drain cooler D. Thermoelectric
ANSWER: D ANSWER: C
98. Needs only single pump regardless of number of heaters 108. Which of the following is not a material used for
A. Open heater thermoelectric elements?
B. Closed heater A. Bismuth telluride
C. Mono heater B. Lead telluride
D. Regenerative heater C. Zinc telluride
ANSWER: B D. Germanium
99. Is also known as deaerator ANSWER: C
A. Open heater 109. A type of coal formed after anthracite
B. Closed heater A. Lignite
C. Reheat heater B. Bituminous
D. Regenerative heater C. Peat
ANSWER: A D. Graphite
100. Dissolve gases like _____ makes water corrosive react with ANSWER: D
metal to form iron oxide 110. Which of the following is lowest grade of coal?
A. O2 and N2 A. Peat
B. O2 and CO B. Lignite
C. O2 and CO2 C. Sub- bituminous
D. N2 and SO2 D. Bituminous
ANSWER: C ANSWER: B
101. A cycle typically used in paper mills, textile mills, chemical 111. Which of the following helps in the ignition of coal?
factories, sugar factories and rice mills A. Moisture
A. Cogeneration cycle B. Ash
B. Combined cycles C. Fixed carbon
C. By-products cycle D. Volatile matter
D. Cascading cycle ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A 112. Is the ratio of fixed carbon and volatile matter.
102. When process steam is basic need and power is byproduct, A. Air-fuel ratio
this cycle is known as B. Fuel ratio
A. Cogeneration cycle C. Combustion ratio
B. Combined cycle D. Carbon-volatile ratio
C. By-product cycle ANSWER: B
D. Cascading cycle 113. A suspension of a finely divide fluid in another.
ANSWER: C A. Filtration
103. A type of turbine employed where steam continuously B. Floatation
extracted for process heating C. Emulsion
A. Back-pressure turbine D. Separation
B. Gas turbine ANSWER: C
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 1
114. Contains 90% gasoline and 10% ethanol. B. 9.5
A. Gasohol C. 10.5
B. Gasonol D. 11.5
C. Gasothanol ANSWER: C
D. Gasethanol 125. What type of turbine that has a degree of reaction of ½?
ANSWER: A A. Impulse turbine
115. Process used commercially in coal liquefaction. B. Reaction turbine
A. Tropsch process C. Parsons turbine
B. Fisher process D. Deriaz turbine
C. Fisher-tropsch process ANSWER: C
D. Mitch-tropsch process 126. Tranquil flow must always occur
ANSWER: C A. Above the normal depth
116. Is an organic matter produced by plants in both land and B. Above the critical depth
water. C. Below the normal depth
A. Bio-ethanol D. Below the critical depth
B. Biomass ANSWER: B
C. Petroleum 127. Which of the following head loss coefficient among the
D. Biogradable following types of entrance?
ANSWER: B A. Bell mouth
117. In thermal power plant, induced draft fans are located at B. Square edge
the C. Reentrant
A. Exit of furnace D. It depends
B. Foot of the stack ANSWER: C
C. Above the stock 128. What waste treatment method involves of algae from
D. Top of the stack stabilization pond effluents?
ANSWER: B A. Sedimentation
118. Known as drum less boiler. B. Floatation
A. La Mont boiler C. Filtration
B. Fire tube boiler D. Microscreening
C. Force circulation boiler ANSWER: D
D. Once-through boiler 129. The number of nozzles will depend on the quantity of
ANSWER: D steam required by the turbine. If nozzles occupy the entire
119. Reduces the steam temperature by spraying low arc of the ring, the turbine is said to have:
temperature water from boiler drum. A. Partially full peripheral admission
A. Reheater B. One-half peripheral admission
B. Preheater C. Maximum peripheral admission
C. Desuperheater D. Full peripheral admission
D. Superheater ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C 130. Tandem compound units may also have two low-pressure
120. Carbon dioxide can be removed by: castings that produces:
A. Deaeration A. Single flow
B. Aeration B. Double flow
C. Evaporation C. Triple flow
D. Vaporization D. Quadruple flow
ANSWER: B ANSWER: C
121. Is often used to absorb silica from water. 131. A type of turbine used for driving pumps, fans, and other
A. Sorbent auxiliaries in power plant commonly operate at exhaust
B. Rectifier pressure approximating atmospheric.
C. Silica gel A. Tandem compound turbine
D. Magnesium hydroxide B. Passout turbine
ANSWER: D C. Cross-compound turbine
122. Presence of excess hydrogen ions makes the water D. Back pressure turbine
A. Acidic ANSWER: D
B. Alkalinity 132. A governor with 0% regulation is termed as:
C. Base A. Isochronous governor
D. Hydroxicity B. Synchronous governor
ANSWER: A C. Isenchronous governor
123. PH of water varies with D. Isobarnous governor
A. Pressure ANSWER: A
B. Temperature 133. The speed regulation for most turbine-generators is
C. Density adjustable from:
D. Volume A. 2 to 6%
ANSWER: B B. 4 to 8%
124. Ph value of ______ is usually maintained for boiler water to C. 6 to 10%
minimized corrosion. D. 8 to 12%
A. 8.5 ANSWER: A
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 1
134. Poppet valves of steam turbine are used for extraction C. Buttress
pressure of: D. Earth
A. 20 to 120 psig ANSWER: C
B. 20 to 150 psig 144. What is the volume of water which will drain freely from
C. 20 to 130 psig the aquifer?
D. 20 to 140 psig A. Specific yield
ANSWER: B B. Reservoir yield
135. When both bearings of steam engines are on one side of C. Safe yield
the of the connecting rod, the engine is referred to as: D. Secondary yield
A. Center-crank engine ANSWER: A
B. Side crank engine 145. What is the line defined by the water level in a group of
C. Under crank engine artesian wells?
D. Standard crank engine A. Water table
ANSWER: B B. Peizometric surface
136. When the valve in steam engine is in mid-position of its C. Specific yield
travel, it will cover the steam port by an amount known D. All of the above
A. Steam lap ANSWER: B
B. Partial lap 146. Select the one that is a positive indication of pollution of a
C. Full lap river.
D. Angular lap A. Acidity
ANSWER: A B. Oxygen content
137. A type of governor in steam engine that do not control the C. Chloride content
actual admission of steam to the cylinder but controls the D. Nitrite content
pressure of the steam. ANSWER: C
A. Flyball governor 147. The cooling water is made to fall in series of baffles to
B. Variable cut-off governor expose large surface area for steam led from below to
C. Throttling governor come in direct contact.
D. Shaft governor A. Spray condenser
ANSWER: C B. Surface condenser
138. By inter-cooling using two stage compressor of Brayton C. Jet condenser
cycle, the backwork ratio will: D. Barometric condenser
A. Increase ANSWER: D
B. Decrease 148. Show the variation of river flow (discharge) with time
C. Remains constant A. Hydrograph
D. None of these B. Hyctograph
ANSWER: B C. Mass curve
139. On dynamic similitude, the relation which represents the D. Flow duration curve
ratio of inertia force to pressure force is: ANSWER: A
A. Froude number 149. Is an open channel erected on a surface above the ground.
B. Cauchy number A. Canal
C. Euler number B. Tunnel
D. Reynolds number C. Pentstock
ANSWER: C D. Flume
140. What is the maximum velocity in a sewer flowing full? ANSWER: D
A. 0.6 m/sec 150. Type of turbine used up to 300 m head
B. 0.9 m/sec A. Impulse turbine
C. 1.2 m/sec B. Francis turbine
D. 1.8 m/sec C. Propeller turbine
ANSWER: A D. Deriaz turbine
141. A temporary structure constructed to exclude water from ANSWER: D
the side of the foundation during its excavation and 151. A turbine that has a diagonal flow
construction is called. A. Impulse turbine
A. Calsson B. Francis turbine
B. Retaining wall C. Propeller turbine
C. Coffer dam D. Deriaz turbine
D. Earth dam ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C 152. Oil is atomized either by air blast or pressure jet at about
142. Which is not a physical characteristic of water? A. 60 bar
A. Total suspended and dissolve solids B. 70 bar
B. Tubidity C. 80 bar
C. Color D. 90 bar
D. Hardness ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D 153. Type of solid injection that use single pump supplies fuel
143. Which dam is best for weak foundation? under high pressure to a fuel header.
A. Gravity A. Common rail injection
B. Arch B. Individual pump injection system
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 1
C. Distributor system ANSWER: C
D. Single rail injection 163. The hot-wire manometer is used to measure
ANSWER: A A. Pressure in gasses
154. Water flow in diesel engine that is caused by density B. Pressure in fluids
differential. C. Wind velocities at airports
A. Thermosiphon cooling D. Gas velocities
B. Thermostat cooling ANSWER: D
C. Pressure water cooling 164. The pitot static tube measures
D. Evaporative cooling A. The static pressure
ANSWER: A B. The gage pressure
155. Type of lubrication system in diesel engine in which oil from C. The total pressure
pump is carried to a separate storage tank outside the D. The dynamic pressure
engine cylinder and used for high capacity engine. ANSWER: A
A. Mist lubrication system 165. The terminal velocity of a small sphere setting in a viscous
B. Wet sump lubrication fluid varies as the
C. Splash system A. First power of its diameter
D. Dry sump lubrication system B. Inverse of fluid viscosity
ANSWER: D C. Inverse square of the diameter
156. Produces extreme pressure differentials and violent gas D. Inverse of the diameter
vibration. ANSWER: B
A. Vibration 166. Pressure drag results from
B. Detonation A. Skin friction
C. Explosion B. Deformation drag
D. Knocking C. Breakdown of potential flow near the forward
ANSWER: B stagnation point
157. In a spark ignition engine, detonation occurs near the D. Occurrences of wake
___________. ANSWER: A
A. End of combustion 167. The pressure coefficient is the ratio of pressure forces to:
B. Middle combustion A. Viscous forces
C. Beginning of combustion B. Inertia forces
D. Beginning of interaction C. Gravity forces
ANSWER: A D. Surface tension force
158. In a compression ignition engine, the detonation occurs ANSWER: B
near the ________. 168. Which instruments is used to measure humidity of the
A. End of combustion atmosphere continuously?
B. Middle of combustion A. Barograph
C. Beginning of combustion B. Thermograph
D. Beginning of interaction C. Hydrograph
ANSWER: C D. Thermo-hydrograph
159. Morse test is use to measure the _______ of multi-cylinder ANSWER: C
engine. 169. Entrance losses between tank and pipe or losses through
A. Break power elbows, fittings and valves are generally expresses as a
B. Indicated power function of
C. Friction power A. Kinetic energy
D. Motor power B. Pipe diameter
ANSWER: B C. Friction factor
160. Ignition delay can be minimized by adding _________ to D. Volume flow rate
decrease engine knocking. ANSWER: A
A. Ethel ether 170. The air that contains no water vapor is called
B. Ethyl chloride A. Zero air
C. Ethyl nitrate B. Saturated air
D. Ethyl oxide C. Dry air
ANSWER: C D. Humid air
161. For the submerge plane surface, the point on the surface ANSWER: C
where the resultant force acts is called the 171. In psychrometric chart, the constant-enthalpy lines
A. Center of buoyancy coincide with constant-temperature lines at temperature
B. Center of gravity A. Above 50⁰C
C. Center of pressure B. Below 40⁰C
D. Center of attraction C. Below 50⁰C
ANSWER: C D. Above 10⁰C
162. At any point in fluid at rest, the pressure is the same in all ANSWER: C
directions. This principle is known as: 172. The amount of moisture in air depend on its
A. Bernoulli principle A. Pressure
B. Archimedes principle B. Volume
C. Pascal’s law C. Temperature
D. Torricelli’s law D. Humidity
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 1
ANSWER: C C. Surface corrosion
173. The deep body temperature of healthy person is D. None of these
maintained constant at ANSWER: A
A. 27⁰C 183. Work is ____ between the system and the surroundings.
B. 37⁰C A. Work interaction
C. 47⁰C B. Energy interaction
D. 48⁰C C. Heat interaction
ANSWER: B D. None of these
174. Air motion also plays important role in ANSWER: B
A. Surroundings 184. Is a process during which the system remains in equilibrium
B. Cooling at all times
C. Human comfort A. Quasi-equilibrium
D. None of these B. Static equilibrium
ANSWER: C C. Dynamic equilibrium
175. During simple heating and cooling process has a ____ D. None of these
humidity ratio ANSWER: A
A. Increasing 185. In the absence of any work interactions between a system
B. Decreasing and its surroundings , the amount of net heat transfer is
C. Constant equal
D. None of these A. The change in total energy of a closed system
ANSWER: C B. To heat and work
176. The _____ follows a line of constant wet-bulb temperature C. Energy interactions
on the psychrometric chart. D. none of these
A. Evaporative cooling process ANSWER: A
B. Condensive cooling process 186. The constant volume and constant pressure specific heats
C. Direct cooling process are identical for
D. None of these A. compressible substance
ANSWER: A B. incompressible substance
177. A vapor which is not about to condensate is called a C. compressible gas
A. mixture of vapor and liquid D. none of these
B. critical vapor ANSWER: B
C. Superheated vapor 187. The velocity of fluid is zero at wall and maximum at the
D. None of these center because of the
ANSWER: C A. velocity effect
178. Passing from the solid phase directly into vapor phase is B. viscous effect
called C. temperature effect
A. Condensation D. none of these
B. Fusion ANSWER: B
C. Sublimation 188. For steady flow devices, the volume of the control volume
D. None of these is
ANSWER: C A. increase
179. Robert Boyle observed during his experiments with a B. decrease
vacuum chamber that the pressure of gases is inversely C. constant
proportional to their D. none of these
A. Temperature ANSWER: C
B. Pressure 189. Work done in turbine is ____ since it is done by the fluid.
C. Volume A. Positive
D. None of these B. Negative
ANSWER: C C. Zero
180. ____ is energy in transition D. None of these
A. Heat ANSWER: A
B. Work 190. Reheating process in Brayton cycle, the turbine work will
C. Power A. Increase
D. None of these B. Decrease
ANSWER: A C. Remains the same
181. Is the mode of energy transfer between a solid surface and D. None of these
the adjacent liquid or gas which is in motion, and it involves ANSWER: A
combine effects of conduction and fluid motion. 191. Which of the following is the chemical formula of ethanol?
A. Conduction A. C7H16
B. Convection B. C2H6O
C. Radiation C. C7H8
D. None of these D. C6H12
ANSWER: B ANSWER: B
182. Radiation is usually considered as 192. Which of the following is the chemical formula of heptane?
A. Surface phenomenon A. C7H16
B. Surface interaction B. C2H6O
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 1
C. C7H8
D. C6H12
ANSWER: A
193. Which of the following is the chemical formula of hexene?
A. C7H16
B. C2H6O
C. C7H8
D. C6H12
ANSWER: D
194. Which of the following is the chemical formula of toluene?
A. C7H16
B. C2H6O
C. C7H8
D. C6H12
ANSWER: C
195. As the air passes through a nozzle, which of the following
will increase?
A. Temperature
B. Enthalpy
C. Internal energy
D. Mach number
ANSWER: D
196. As the air passes through a diffuser, which of the following
will decrease?
A. Temperature
B. Enthalpy
C. Internal energy
D. Mach number
ANSWER: D
197. As the air passes through a nozzle, which of the following
will decrease?
A. Temperature
B. Enthalpy
C. Internal energy
D. Mach number
ANSWER: C
198. As the air passes through a diffuser, which of the following
will increase?
A. Density
B. Entropy
C. Mach number
D. Velocity
ANSWER: A
199. As the air passes through a diffuser, which of the following
will NOT be affected?
A. Density C. Mach number
B. Entropy D. Velocity
ANSWER: B
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 2
1. Enthalpy of an ideal gas is a function only of ________ D. Heat of compression
A. Entropy ANSWER: B
B. Internal energy 11. The theory of changing heat into mechanical work.
C. Temperature A. Thermodynamics
D. Pressure B. Kinematic
ANSWER: C C. Inertia
2. Which of the following is the most efficient thermodynamic D. Kinetics
cycle? ANSWER: A
A. Brayton 12. Average pressure on a surface when a changing pressure
B. Otto condition exist.
C. Carnot A. Back pressure
D. Diesel B. Partial
ANSWER: C C. Pressure drop
3. What is the law of thermodynamics? D. Mean effective pressure
A. Internal energy is due to molecular motion ANSWER: D
B. Entropy of the universe is increased by irreversible 13. Which of the following cycles consists two isothermal and
processes two constant volume processes?
C. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed A. Diesel cycle
D. Heat energy cannot be completely transformed into B. Ericsson cycle
work C. Stirling cycle
ANSWER: C D. Otto cycle
4. An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. What is the ANSWER: C
enthalpy change? 14. A control volume refers to what?
A. Always negative A. A fixed region in space
B. Always positive B. A reversible process
C. Zero C. An isolated system
D. Undefined D. A specified mass
ANSWER: C ANSWER: A
5. Name the process that has no heat transfer. 15. In the polytropic process, PVⁿ=constant, if the value of n is
A. Isothermal infinitely large, the process is
B. Isobaric A. Isobaric
C. Polytropic B. Isometric
D. Adiabatic C. Isothermal
ANSWER:D D. Polytropic
6. An ideal gas is compressed in a cylinder so well insulated ANSWER: B
that there is essentially no heat transfer. The temperature 16. If the temperature is held constant and the pressure is
of the gas. increased beyond the saturation pressure, then the
A. Decreases working medium must be:
B . Increases A. Compressed liquid
C. Remain constant B. Sub cooled liquid
D. Is zero C. Saturated vapor
ANSWER: B D. Saturated liquid
7. What is the SI unit of pressure? ANSWER: A
A. kg/cm² 17. Is one whose temperature is below the saturation
B. Dynes/cm² temperature corresponding to its pressure.
C. Pascal A. Superheated vapor
D. Psi B. Wet vapor
ANSWER: C C. Sub cooled liquid
8. The equation Cp=Cv+R applies to which of the following? D. Saturated liquid
A. Enthalpy ANSWER: C
B. Ideal gas 18. Number of molecules in a mole of any substance is a
C. Two phase states constant called________
D. All pure substances A. Rankine constant
ANSWER: B B. Avogadro’s number
9. In the flow process, neglecting kinetic and potential energy, C. Otto constant
the integral of VdP represents what? D. Thompson constant
A. Heat transfer ANSWER: B
B. Flow energy 19. If the pressure of a gas is constant the volume is directly
C. Enthalpy change proportional to absolute temperature.
D. Shaft work A. Boyle’s law
ANSWER: D B. Joule’s law
10. Mechanical energy of pressure transformed into energy of C. Charle’s law
heat. D. Kelvin’s law
A. Kinetic energy ANSWER: C
B. Enthalpy 20. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom or the
C. Heat exchanger number of electrons in the orbit of an atom.
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 2
A. Atomic volume C. Second law of thermodynamics
B. Atomic number D. Third law of thermodynamics
C. Atomic weight ANSWER: A
D. Atomic mass 30. Which of the following is commonly used as liquid
ANSWER: B absorbent?
21. In a P-T diagram of a pure substance, the curve separating A. Silica gel
the solid phase from the liquid phase is: B. Activated alumina
A. Vaporization C. Ethylene glycol
B. Fusion curve D. None of these
C. Boiling point ANSWER: C
D. Sublimation point 31. Mechanism designed to lower the temperature of air
ANSWER: B passing through it.
22. A water temperature of 18 °F in the water-cooled A. Air cooler
condenser is equivalent in °C to ________ B. Air defense
A. 7.78 C. Air spill over
B. 10 D. Air cycle
C. 263.56 ANSWER: A
D. -9.44 32. A device for measuring the velocity of wind
ANSWER: B A. Aneroid barometer
23. The latent heat of vaporized in joules per kg is equal to B. Anemometer
_______ C. Anemoscope
A. 5.4 x 10² D. Anemograph
B. 4.13 x 10³ ANSWER: B
C. 22.6 x 105 33. Heat normally flowing from a high temperature body to a
D. 3.35 x 10 low temperature body wherein it is impossible to convert
ANSWER: C heat without other effects.
24. From of energy associated with the kinetic energy of the A. First law of thermodynamics
random motion of large number of molecules B. Second law of thermodynamics
A. Internal energy C. Third law of thermodynamics
B. Kinetic energy D. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
C. Heat of fusion ANSWER: B
D. Heat 34. The temperature at which its vapor pressure is equal to the
ANSWER: D pressure exerted on the liquid.
25. If the temperature is held constant and the pressure is A. Absolute humidity
increased beyond the saturation pressure, then the B. Calorimetry
working medium must be: C. Boiling point
A. Saturated vapor D. Thermal point
B. Compressed liquid ANSWER: C
C. Saturated liquid 35. A nozzle is used to
A. Increase velocity and decrease pressure
D. Sub cooled liquid
B. Decrease velocity as well as pressure
ANSWER: B
C. Increase velocity as well as pressure
26. Is the condition of pressure and temperature at which a
D. Decrease velocity and increase pressure
liquid and its vapor are indistinguishable.
ANSWER: A
A. Critical point
36. The sum of the energies of all the molecules in a system
B. Dew point
where energies appear in several complex form.
C. Absolute humidity A. Kinetic energy
D. Relative humidity B. Potential energy
ANSWER: A C. Internal energy
27. When a substance in gaseous state is below the critical D. Frictional energy
temperature it is called _________ ANSWER: C
A. Vapor 37. The total energy in a compressible fluid flowing across any
B. Cloud section in a pipeline is a function of.
C. Moisture A. Pressure and velocity
D. Steam B. Pressure, density and velocity
ANSWER: A C. Pressure, density, velocity and viscosity
28. Superheated vapor behaves D. Flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum and
A. Just as gas internal energy
B. Just a steam ANSWER: D
C. Just as ordinary vapor 38. The ratio of the density of a substance to the density of
D. Approximately as a gas some standard substance.
ANSWER: D A. Relative density
29. Which of the following provides the basis for measuring B. Specific gravity
thermodynamic property of temperature? C. Specific density
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics D. Relative gravity
B. First law of thermodynamics ANSWER: B
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 2
39. Is one whose pressure is higher than the saturation 49. Which of the engine is used for fighter bombers?
pressure corresponding to its temperature. A. Turbojet
A. Compressed liquid B. Pulsejet
B. Saturated liquid C. Rockets
C. Saturated vapor D. Ramjet
D. Superheated vapor ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A 50. Exhaust gases from an engine posses
40. The changing of solid directly to vapor without passing A. Solar energy
through the liquid state is called B. Kinetic energy
A. Evaporation C. Chemical energy
B. Vaporization D, Stored energy
C. Sublimation ANSWER: B
D. Condensation 51. At critical point the latent enthalpy of vaporization is
ANSWER: C A. Temperature dependent
41. Weight per unit volume is termed as ________ B. Zero
A. Specific gravity C. Minimum
B. Density D. Maximum
C. Weight density ANSWER: B
D. Specific volume 52. What is the force which tends to draw a body toward the
ANSWER: C center about which it is rotating?
42. What is the SI unit of force? A. Centrifugal force
A. Pound B. Centrifugal in motion
B. Newton C. Centrifugal advance
C. Kilogram D, Centripetal force
D. Dyne ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B 53. When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at
43. The volume of fluid passing a cross-section of steam in unit every instant of its state, it is undergoing
time. A. Isobaric process
A. Steady flow B. Quasi-static process
B. Uniform flow C. Isometric process
C. Discharge D. Cyclic process
D. Continuous flow ANSWER: B
ANSWER: C 54. A pressure of 1 milli bar is equivalent to
44. What equation applies in the first law of thermodynamics A.1000 dynes/cm²
for an ideal gas in a reversible open steady state system? B.1000 cm of Hg
A. Q – W = U2 – U1 C.1000 psi
B. Q + VdP = H2 –H1 D.1000 kg/cm²
C. Q – VdP = U2 – U1 ANSWER: A
D. Q – PdV = H2 – H1 55. Work done per unit charge when changed is moved from
ANSWER: B one point to another
45. A pressure of 1 milli bar is equivalent to A. Equipotential surface
A. 1000 dynes/cm² B. Potential at a point
B. 1000 cm of Hg C. Electrostatic point
C. 1000 psi D. Potential difference
D. 1000 kg/cm2 ANSWER: B
ANSWER: A 56. How many independent properties are required to
46. When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous
every instant of its state, it is undergoing: compound?
A. Isobaric process A. 1
B. Quasi-static process B. 2
C. Isometric process C. 3
D. Cyclic process D. 4
ANSWER: B ANSWER: B
47. What is the force which tends to draw a body toward the 57. Which of the following relations defines enthalpy?
center about which it is rotating? A. h – u + p/t
A. Centrifugal force B. h = u + pV
B. Centrifugal in motion C. h = u + p/V
C. Centrifugal advance D. h = pV + T
D. Centripetal force ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D 58. Which of the following is true for water at a reference
48. What is the process that has no heat transfer? temperature where enthalpy is zero?
A. Reversible isometric A. Internal energy is negative
B. Isothermal B. Entropy is non-zero
C. Polytropic C. Specific volume is zero
D. Adiabatic D. Vapor pressure is zero
ANSWER: D ANSWER: A
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 2
59. On what plane is the mollier diagram plotted? B. ds = 0
A. p-V C. ds > 0
B. p-T D. ds < 0
C. h-s ANSWER: C
D. h-u 69. For which type of process does the equation dQ = Tds hold?
ANSWER: C A. Irreversible
60. The compressibility factor z, is used for predicting the B. Reversible
behavior of non-ideal gasses. How is the compressibility C. Isobaric
factor defined relative to an ideal gas? (Subscript c refers to D. Isothermal
critical value.) ANSWER: B
A. z=P/Pc 70. Which of the following is true for any process?
B. z=PV/RT A. ∆S (surrounding) + ∆S (system) > 0
C. z=T/Tc B. ∆S (surrounding) + ∆S (system) < 0
D. z=(T/Tc)(Pc/P) C. ∆S (surrounding) + ∆S (system) ≤ 0
ANSWER: B D. ∆S (surrounding) + ∆S (system) ≥ 0
61. How is the quality x of a liquid vapor mixture defined? ANSWER: D
A. The fraction of the total volume that is saturated vapor 71. Which of the following thermodynamic cycle is the most
B. The fraction of the total volume that is saturated liquid efficient?
C. The fraction of the total mass that is saturated vapor A. Brayton
D. The fraction of the total mass that is saturated liquid B. Rankine
ANSWER: C C. Carnot
62. What is the expression for heat of vaporization? D. Otto
A. hg ANSWER: C
B. hf 72. The ideal reversible carnot cycle involves four basic
C. hg – hf processes. What type of processes are they?
D. hf – hg A. All isothermal
ANSWER: C B. All adiabatic
63. What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible, C. All isentropic
isometric system? D. Two isothermal and two isentropic
A. Zero ANSWER: D
B. Positive 73. What is the temperature difference of the cycle if the
C. Negative entropy difference is ∆S , and work done is W?
D. Indeterminate A. W - ∆S
ANSWER: A B. W / ∆S
64. What is the equation for the work done by a constant C. ∆S / W
temperature system? D. ∆S – W
A. W = mRT In (V2-V1) ANSWER: B
B. W = mR (T2-T1) In (V2/V1) 74. Which of the following is not an advantage of a
C. W = MRT In (V2/V1) superheated, closed rankine cycle over an open Rankine
D. W = RT In (V2/V1) cycle?
ANSWER: C A. Lower equipment cost
65. What is true about the polytropic exponent n for a perfect B. Increased efficiency
gas undergoing an isobaric process? C. Increased turbine life
A. n> 0 D. Increased boiler life
B. n< 0 ANSWER: D
C. n = ∞ 75. Which of the following statements regarding Rankine cycle
D. n = 0 is not true?
ANSWER: D A. Use of a condensable vapor in the cycle increases the
66. How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic efficiency of the cycle.
process? B. The temperatures at which energy is transferred to and
A. Adiabatic: Heat transfer = 0 ,isentropic, Heat transfer = form the working liquid are less separated than in a
0 Carnot cycle.
B. Adiabatic: Heat transfer = 0 Isentropic: Heat transfer = 0 C. Superheating increases the efficiency of a Rankine
C. Adiabatic: Reversible, Isentropic: Not reversible cycle.
D. Both: Heat transfer = 0:Isentropic:Reversible D. In practical terms the susceptibility of the engine
ANSWER: D materials to corrosion is not a key limitation on the
67. During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is operating efficiency
true about the change in entropy? ANSWER: D
A. It is always zero 76. Which one of the following is standard temperature and
B. It is always less than zero pressure (STP)
C. It is always greater than zero A. 0 K and 1 atm pressure
D. It is temperature dependent B. 0 F and zero pressure
ANSWER: A C. 32 F and zero pressure
68. For an irreversible process, what is true about the change D. 0 ℃ and 1 atm pressure
in entropy of the system and surroundings? ANSWER: D
A. ds = dq/dt
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 2
77. A substance is oxidized when which of the following C. Force and time
occurs? D. Temperature and entropy
A. It turns red ANSWER: C
B. It loses electrons 87. Energy change are represented by all except which one of
C. It gives off heat the following:
D. It absorbs energy A. mCpdt
ANSWER: B B. -ʃ VdP
78. Which of the following is not a unit of pressure? C. Tds – PdV
A. Pa D. dQ/T
B. kg/m-s ANSWER: D
C. Bars 88. U + pV is a quantity called:
D. kg/m² A. Shaft work
ANSWER: B B. Entropy
79. Which of the following is the definition of joule? C. Enthalpy
A. Newton meter D. Internal energy
B. kg-m/s² ANSWER: C
C. Unit of power 89. In flow process, neglecting KE and PE changes, ʃvdP
D. Rate of change of energy represents which item below?
ANSWER: A A. Heat transfer
80. Which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli’s law for B. Shaft work
fluid flow? C. Enthalpy change
A. The principle of conservation of mass D. Closed system work
B. The principle of conservation of energy ANSWER: B
C. The continuity equation 90. Power may be expressed in units of
D. Fourier’s law A. ft - lb
ANSWER: B B. kW - hr
81. Equation of state for a single component can be any of the C. Btu
following except: D. Btu/hr
A. The ideal gas law ANSWER: D
B. Any relationship interrelating 3 or more state function 91. Equilibrium condition exist in all except which of the
C. Relationship mathematically interrelating following?
thermodynamic properties of the material A. In reversible processes
D. A mathematical expression defining a path between B. In processes where driving forces are infinitesimals
states C. In a steady state flow process
ANSWER: D D. Where nothing can occur without an effect on the
82. The state of a thermodynamic system is always define by system’s surrounding
its: ANSWER: C
A. Absolute temperature 92. In a closed system (with a moving boundary) which of the
B. Process following represents work done during an isothermal
C. Properties process?
D. Temperature and pressure A. W = 0
ANSWER: C B. W = P(V2-V1)
83. In any non quasi-static thermodynamics process, the C. W = P1V1 In (V2/V1)
overall entropy of an isolated system will D. W = (P2V2-P1V1)(1 – n)
A. Increase and then decrease ANSWER: C
B. Decrease and then increase 93. A substance that exists or is regarded as existing as a
C. Increase only continuous characterized by a low resistance to flow and
D. Decrease only the tendency to assume the shape of its container.
ANSWER: C A. Fluid
84. Entropy is the measure of: B. Atom
A. The internal energy of a gas C. Molecule
B. The heat capacity of a substance D. Vapor
C. Randomness or disorder ANSWER: A
D. The change of enthalpy of a system 94. A substance that is homogenous in composition and
ANSWER: C homogenous and invariable in chemical aggregation.
85. Which of the following statement about entropy is false? A. Pure substance
A. Entropy of a mixture is greater than that of its B. Simple substance
component under the same condition C. Vapor
B. An irreversible process increases entropy of the D. Water
universe ANSWER: A
C. Net entropy change in any closed cycle is zero 95. A substance whose state is defined by variable intensive
D. Entropy of a crystal at 0°F is zero thermodynamic properties.
ANSWER: D A. Pure substance
86. Work energy can be a function of all the following except: B. Simple substance
A. Force and distance C. Vapor
B. Power and time D. Water
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 2
ANSWER: B B. Specific volume
96. A system in which there is no exchange of matter with the C. Specific weight
surrounding or mass does not cross its boundaries. D. Specific gravity
A. Open system ANSWER: A
B. Closed system 106. The force of gravity on unit volume is
C. Isolated system A. Density
D. Nonflow system B. Specific volume
ANSWER: B C. Specific weight
97. A system that is completely impervious to its surrounding D. Specific gravity
or neither mass nor energy cross its boundaries. ANSWER: C
A. Open system 107. The reciprocal of density is
B. Closed system A. Specific volume
C. Isolated system B. Specific weight
D. Non flow system C. Specific gravity
ANSWER: C D. Specific heat
98. A system in which there is a flow of mass across its ANSWER: A
boundaries. 108. Avogadro’s number, a fundamental constant of nature is
A. Open system the number of molecules in gram mole This constant is
B. Closed system A. 6.05222x10²³
C. Isolated system B. 6.02252x10²³
D. Steady flow system C. 6.20522x10²³
ANSWER: A D. 6.50222x10²³
99. The properties that are dependent upon the mass of the ANSWER: B
system and are total values such as total volume and total 109. The ratio of the gas constant to Avogadro’s number is:
internal energy. A. Maxwell’s constant
A. Intensive properties B. Boltzmann’s constant
B. Extensive properties C. Napier’s constant
C. Specific properties D. Joule’s constant
D. State properties ANSWER: B
ANSWER: B 110. The absolute zero on the Fahrenheit scale is at
100. The properties that are independent of the mass of the A. -459.7 °F
system such as temperature, pressure, density and voltage. B. 459.7 °F
A. Intensive properties C. -273.25 °C
B. Expensive properties D. 273.15 °C
C. Specific properties ANSWER: A
D. State properties 111. Absolute temperature on the Fahrenheit scale are called:
ANSWER: A A. Degrees Rankine
101. The properties for a unit mass and are intensive by B. Degrees Kelvin
definition such as specific volume. C. Absolute Fahrenheit
A. Intensive properties D. Absolute celcius
B. Extensive properties ANSWER: A
C. Specific properties 112. The absolute zero on the celcius scale is at
D. Thermodynamic properties A.-459.7 °F
ANSWER: C B.459.7 °F
102. The condition as identified through the properties of the C.-273.25 °C
substance, generally defined by particular values of any D.273.15 °C
two independent properties. ANSWER: B
A. State 113. What is the absolute temperature in celsius scale?
B. Point A. Degrees Rankine
C. Process B. Degrees Kelvin
D. Flow C. Absolute Fahrenheit
ANSWER: A D. Absolute Celcius
103. The only base unit with a prefix kilo is ANSWER: B
A. Kilogram 114. The Fahrenheit scale was introduced by Gabriel Fahrenheit
B. Kilometer of Amsterdam, Holland in what year?
C. Kilojoule A.1592
D. Kilopascal B.1742
ANSWER: A C.1730
104. The force of gravity on the body.
D.1720
A. Weight
ANSWER: D
B. Specific gravity
115. The centigrade scale was introduced by Andres Celcius in
C. Attraction
what year?
D. Mass
A.1542
ANSWER: A
B.1740
105. The mass per unit volume of any substance.
C.1730
A. Density
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 2
D.1720 C. 1063 °C
ANSWER: B D. 1774 °C
116. The National Bureau of Standard uses, among others, the ANSWER: C
liquid vapor equilibrium of hydrogen at 126. The solid liquid equilibrium of platinum is at what
A. -196 °C temperature?
B. 196°C A. 630.5 °C
C. 253 °C B. 960.8 °C
D. 253 °C C. 1063 °C
ANSWER: A D. 1774 °C
117. The national Bureau of Standard uses among others, the ANSWER: D
liquid vapor equilibrium of nitrogen at 127. The solid liquid equilibrium of Tungsten is at what
A. -196 °C temperature?
B. 196°C A. 3730 °C
C. 253 °C B. 3370 °C
D. -253 °C C. 3073 °C
ANSWER: A D. 3037 °C
118. The liquid vapor equilibrium of oxygen is at what ANSWER: B
temperature? 128. The device that measures temperature by the
A. 197.82 °C electromotive force.
B. -197.82 °C A. Thermometer
C. 182.97 °C B. Thermocouple
D. -182.97 °C C. Electro-thermometer
ANSWER: D D. Thermoseebeck
119. The solid liquid equilibrium of mercury is at what ANSWER: B
temperature? 129. The emf is a function of the temperature difference
A. 38.87 °C between the junction a phenomenon called.
B. -38.87 °C A. Seebeck effect
C. 37.88 °C B. Stagnation effect
D. -37.88 °C C. Priming
ANSWER: B D. Electromotive force
120. The solid liquid equilibrium of Tin is at what temperature? ANSWER: A
A. -38.87 °C 130. The device that measure temperature by the electromotive
B. 38.87°C force called thermocouple was discovered by:
C. 231.9 °C A. Galileo
D. 231.9 °C B. Fahrenheit
ANSWER: C C. Celsius
121. The solid liquid equilibrium of Zinc is at what temperature? D. Seebeck
A. 231.9 °C ANSWER: D
B. 419.505 °C 131. When two bodies isolated from other environment are in
C. 444.60 °C thermal equilibrium with a third body, two are in thermal
D. 630.5 °C equilibrium with each other.
ANSWER: B A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
122. The liquid vapor equilibrium of sulfur is at what B. First law of thermodynamics
temperature? C. Second law of thermodynamics
A. 231.9°C D. Third law of thermodynamics
B. 419.505°C ANSWER: A
C. 444.60°C 132. The total entropy of pure substance approaches zero as the
D. 630.5°C absolute thermodynamics temperature approaches zero.
ANSWER: C A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
123. The solid liquid equilibrium of Antimony is at what B. First law of thermodynamics
temperature? C. Second law of thermodynamics
A. 630.5 °C D. Third law of thermodynamics
B. 419.505 °C ANSWER: D
C. 444.60 °C 133. If any one or more properties of as system change the
D. 231.9 °C system is said to have undergone a _______
ANSWER: A A. Cycle
124. The solid liquid equilibrium of silver is at what B. Process
temperature? C. Flow
A. 630.5 °C D. Control
B. 960.8 °C ANSWER: B
C. 1063 °C 134. When a certain mass of fluid in a particular state passes
D. 1774 °C through a series of processes and returns to its initial state
ANSWER: B it undergoes a:
125. The solid liquid equilibrium of gold is at what temperature? A. Revolution
A. 630.5 °C B. Rotation
B. 960.8 °C C. Process
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 2
D. Cycle A. Enthalpy
ANSWER: D B. Heat
135. The term given to the collection of matter under C. Internal energy
consideration enclosed within a boundary. D. Entropy
A. System ANSWER: A
B. Matter 145. It is the energy stored within the body
C. Environment A. Enthalpy
D. Atoms B. Heat
ANSWER: A C. Internal energy
136. The region outside the boundary or the space and matter D. Entropy
external to a system: ANSWER: C
A. Ex – system 146. A theoretically ideal gas which strictly follows Boyle’s law
B. Surrounding and Charle’s law of gases.
C. Matter A. Universal gas
D. Extension B. Perfect gas
ANSWER: B C. Combined gas
137. The true pressure measured above a perfect vacuum. D. Imperfect gas
A. Absolute pressure ANSWER: B
B. Gage pressure 147. In a confined gas, if the absolute temperature is held
C. Atmospheric pressure constant, the volume is inversely proportional to the
D. Vacuum pressure absolute pressure.
ANSWER: A A. Boyle’s law
138. The pressure measured from the level of atmospheric B. Charles law
pressure by most pressure recording instrument like C. Dalton’s law
pressure gage and open ended manometer. D. Avogadro’s law
A. Gage pressure ANSWER: A
B. Atmospheric pressure 148. In a confined gas if the absolute pressure is held constant
C. Barometer pressure the volume is directly proportional to the absolute
D. Absolute pressure temperature.
ANSWER: A A. Boyle’s law
139. The pressure obtained from barometer reading B. Charles law
A. Absolute pressure C. Dalton’s law
B. Gage pressure D. Avogadro’s law
C. Atmospheric pressure ANSWER: B
D. Vacuum pressure 149. The pressure exerted in a vessel by a mixture of gases is
ANSWER: C equal to the sum of the pressure that each separate gas
140. It is a form of energy associated with the kinetic random would exert if it alone occupied the whole volume of the
motion of large number of molecules. vessel.
A. Internal energy A. Boyle’s law
B. Kinetic energy B. Charles law
C. Heat C. Dalton’s law
D. Enthalpy D. Avogadro’s law
ANSWER: C ANSWER: C
141. The heat needed to change the temperature of the body 150. At equal volume at the same temperature and pressure
without changing its phase. conditions, the gases contain the same number of
A. Latent heat molecules.
B. Sensible heat A. Boyle’s law
C. Specific heat B. Charles law
D. Heat transfer C. Dalton’s law
ANSWER: B D. Avogadro’s law
142. The heat needed by the body to change its phase without ANSWER: D
changing its temperature. 151. A process in which the system departs from equilibrium
A. Latent heat state only infinitesimally at every instant.
B. Sensible heat A. Reversible process
C. Specific heat B. Irreversible process
D. Heat transfer C. Cyclic process
ANSWER: A D. Quasi-static process
143. The measure of the randomness of the molecules of a ANSWER: C
substance. 152. A process which gives the same state/conditions after the
A. Enthalpy system undergoes a series of processes.
B. Internal energy A. Reversible process
C. Entropy B. Irreversible process
D. Heat C. Cyclic process
ANSWER: C D. Quasi-static process
144. The heat energy transferred to a substance at a constant ANSWER: C
pressure process is ________
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 2
153. A thermodynamic system that generally serves as a heat B. 1 N-m/min
source or heat sink for another system. C. 1 N-m/hr
A. Combustion chamber D. 1 kN-m/hr
B. Heat reservoir ANSWER: A
C. Heat engine 163. Under ideal conditions, isothermal, isobaric, isochoric and
D. Stirling engine adiabatic processes are;
ANSWER: B A. Dynamic processes
154. A thermodynamic system that operates continuously with B. Stable processes
only energy (heat and work) crossing its boundaries; its C. Quasi-static processes
boundaries are impervious to the flow of mass. D. Static processes
A. Heat engine ANSWER: C
B. Steady flow work 164. Isentropic flow is
C. Stirling engine A. Perfect gas flow
D. Ericson engine B. Irreversible adiabatic flow
ANSWER: A C. Ideal fluid flow
155. A surface that is impervious to heat is D. Reversible adiabatic flow
A. Isothermal surface ANSWER: D
B. Adiabatic surface 165. Exhaust gases from an engine possess
C. Isochoric surface A. Solar energy
D. Isobaric surface B. Kinetic energy
ANSWER: B C. Chemical energy
156. One of the consequences of Einstein’s theory of relativity is D. Stored energy
that mass may be converted into energy and energy into ANSWER: B
mass the relation being given by the famous equation. E = 166. The extension and compression of a helical spring is an
mc².What is the value of the speed of light c? example of what process?
A. 2.7797 x 1010 cm/s A. Isothermal cycle
B. 2.9979 x 1010 cm/s B. Thermodynamic process
C. 1.7797 x 1010 cm/s C. Adiabatic process
D. 2.9979 x 1010 cm/s D. Reversible process
ANSWER: B ANSWER: D
157. In the polytrophic process we have pvⁿ = constant,if the 167. At critical point the latent enthalpy of vaporization is
value of n is infinitely large,the process is called. ________
A. Constant volume process A. Dependent on temperature
B. Constant pressure process B. Zero
C. Constant temperature process C. Minimum
D. Adiabatic process D. Maximum
ANSWER: A ANSWER: B
158. The thermodynamic cycle used in a thermal power plants
is:
A. Ericson
B. Brayton
C. Joule
D. Rankine
ANSWER: D
159. For the same heat input and same compression ratio ;
A. Both Otto cycle and diesel cycle are equally efficient
B. Otto cycle is less efficient than diesel cycle
C. Efficient depends mainly on working substance
D. None of the above is correct
ANSWER: C
160. A heat exchanger process where in the product of pressure
and volume remains constant called:
A. Heat exchanger process
B. Isentropic process
C. Throttling process
D. Hyperbolic process
ANSWER: D
161. Which of the following provides the basis for measuring
thermodynamic property of temperature?
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
ANSWER: A
162. 1 watt….
A. 1 Nm/s
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 3
1. Which of the following relating is not applicable in a free C. Joule cycle
expansion process? D. Carnot cycle
A. Heat supplied is zero ANSWER: C
B. Heat rejected is zero 10. Ericson cycle consists of the following four processes:
C. Work done is zero A. Two isothermal and two constant volume
D. Change in temperature B. Two isothermal and two constant isentropic
ANSWER: D C. Two isothermal and two constant pressure
2. The triple point of a substance is the temperature and D. Two adiabatic and two constant pressure
pressure at which: ANSWER: C
A. The solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium 11. A steam nozzle changes
B. The liquid and gaseous phase are in equilibrium A. Kinetic energy into heat energy
C. The solid, liquid and the gaseous phase are in B. Heat energy into potential energy
equilibrium C. Potential energy into heat energy
D. The solid does not melt the liquid does not boil and the D. Heat energy into kinetic energy
gas does not condense ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D 12. Which is not correct for calculating air standard efficiency?
3. According to Clausius statement A. All processes are reversible
A. Heat flows from hot substance to cold substance B. Specific heat remains unchange at all temperature
unaided C. No account of the mechanism of heat transfer is
B. Heat cannot flow from cold substance to hot substance cosidered
C. Heat can flow from cold substance to hot substance D. Gases dissociate at higher temperatures
with the aid of external work ANSWER: D
D. A and C 13. According to Pettlier Thomson effect;
ANSWER: D A. It is impossible to construct a heat engine that operates
4. A heat engine is supplied heat at rate of 30,000 J/s gives an in a cycle and receives a given quantity of heat from a high
output of 9kW.The thermal efficiency of the engine is temperature body and does an equal amount of work
_______ B. It is impossible to construct a device that operates in a
A. 30% cycle and produces no effect other than the transfer of
B. 43% heat from a cooler body to hotter body
C. 50% C. When two dissimilar metals are heated at one end and
D. 55% cooled at other, e.m.f. that is developed is proportional to
ANSWER: A difference of temperature at two ends
5. The RMS velocity of hydrogen gas at N.T.P is approximately D. Work can’t be converted into heat
_________ ANSWER: D
A. 3838 m/s 14. In actual gases the molecular collision is:
B. 1839 m/s A. Plastic
C. 4839 m/s B. Elastic
D. 839 m/s C. Inelastic
ANSWER: B D. Inplastic
6. Which of the following cycles has two isothermal and two ANSWER: C
constant volume processes? 15. The Beatle-Bridgeman equation of state is quite accurate in
A. Joule cycle cases of:
B. Diesel cycle A. All pressures above atmospheric pressure
C. Ericson cycle B. Densities less than about 0.8 times the critical density
D. Stirling cycle C. Near critical temperature
ANSWER: D D. None of the above
7. ”It is impossible to construct a heat engine that operates in ANSWER: B
a cycle and receives a given quantity of heat from a high 16. Which of the following statement about Van der Waals
temperature body and does an equal amount of work ” The equation is correct?
above statement is known as: A. It is valid for all pressures and temperatures
A. Gay Lussac’s law B. It represents a straight line on PV versus V plot
B. Kinetic theory C. It has three roots of identical value at the critical point
C. Kelvin – Planck’s law D. The equation is valid for dynamic gases only
D. Joule – Thomson’s law ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C 17. The Clapeyron’s equation is applicable to:
8. For steam nozzle, which of the following ratios will have the A.1 system in equilibrium
value less than unity? B. A change of state
A. (pressure at inlet)/(Pressure at outlet) C. A change of state when two phases are in equilibrium
B. Specific volume at inlet/(Specific volume at outlet) D. A change of state when water and water vapor are
C. Temperature of steam at inlet/(Temperature of steam involved
at outlet) ANSWER: D
D. None of the above 18. The vapor pressure is related to the enthalpy of
ANSWER: B vaporization by the;
9. A Bell Coleman cycle is a reversed A. Clausius – clay peyron’s equation
A. Stirling cycle B. Dalton’s law
B. Brayton cycle C. Raoult’s law
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 3
D. Maxwell’s equation C. Dry bulb temperature
ANSWER: A D. Wet bulb temperature
19. Solubility of gas in a liquid at small concentration can be ANSWER: B
represented by which law? 29. In a closed vessel when vaporization takes place, the
A. Henry’s law temperature rises, due to the rising temperature, the
B. Clasius - clay peyron’s equation pressure increases until an equilibrium is established
C. Dalton’s law between the temperature and pressure, The temperature
D. Raoult’s law of equilibrium is called:
ANSWER: A A. Dew point
20. A compound pressure gauge is used to measure: B. Ice point
A. Complex pressures C. Superheated temperature
B. Variable pressures D. Boiling point
C. Average pressures ANSWER: D
D. Positive and negative pressures 30. When hot soup was served in a cup during dinner an
ANSWER: D engineer was so eager to drink it. Since it was hot, he added
21. Which of the engine is used for fighter bombers? cubes of ice to cool the soup and stirred it. He noticed that
A. Turboprop dew starts to form on the outermost surface of the cup.
B. Turbojet What is this temperature equal to?
C. Ramjet A. Superheated temperature
D. Pulsejet B. Equal to zero
ANSWER: B C. Standard temperature
22. The thermal efficiency of gas vapor cycle as compared to D. Equal to air’s dew point temperature
steam turbine or gas turbine ANSWER: D
A. Greater than 31. Is a measure of the energy that is no longer available to
B. Less than perform useful work within the current environment.
C. Not comparable A. Absolute entropy
D. Equal B. Absolute enthalpy
ANSWER: A C. Fugacity
23. The process in which heat energy is transferred to a D. Molar value
thermal energy storage device is known as; ANSWER: A
A. Adiabatic 32. A graph of enthalpy versus entropy for steam.
B. Regeneration A. Mollier diagram
C. Inter cooling B. Moody diagram
D. Heat transfer C. Steam table
ANSWER: B D. Maxwell diagram
24. The absolute zero in celsius scale is; ANSWER: A
A. 100 33. The reaction of inertia in an accelerated body is called
B. 0 A. Kinetic reaction
C. -273 B. Endothermal reaction
D. 273 C. Kinematic reaction
ANSWER: C D. Dynamic reaction
25. What is the temperature when water and vapor are in ANSWER: A
equivalent with the atmospheric pressure? 34. A Mollier chart of thermodynamic properties is shown in
A. Ice point which of the following diagrams?
B. Steam point A. T – S diagram
C. Critical point B. P – V diagram
D. Freezing point C. h – S diagram
ANSWER: B D. p – h diagram
26. The temperature of a pure substance at a temperature of ANSWER: C
absolute zero is; 35. The following are included in the first law of
A. Unity thermodynamics for closed system EXCEPT
B. Zero A. Heat transferred in and of the system
C. Infinity B. Work done by or on the system
D. 100 C. Internal energy
ANSWER: B D. Kinetic energy
27. When the number of reheat stage in a reheat cycle is ANSWER: D
increased, the average temperature; 36. All processes below are irreversible except one, Which
A. Increases one?
B. Decreases A. Magnetization with hysteresis
C. Is constant B. Elastic tension and release of a steel bar
D. Is zero C. Inelastic deformation
ANSWER: A D. Heat conduction
28. A temperature measurement in an ordinary thermometer ANSWER: B
which has constant specific humidity 37. The combination of conditions that best describes a
A. Critical temperature thermodynamic process is given by which of the following?
B. Dew point temperature
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 3
I. Has successive states through which the system passes C. It is dependent on the path between states of
II. When reversed leaves no change in the system thermodynamic equilibrium
III. When reversed leaves no change in the system or the D. It represents values of p,v,t and s between states that
surroundings are path functions
IV. States are passes through so quickly that the ANSWER: D
surroundings do not change 46. A constant pressure thermodynamic process obeys:
A. Boyle’s law
A. I and II B. Charles law
B. I and III C. Amagat law
C. I and IV D. Dalton’s law
D. I only ANSWER: B
ANSWER:D 47. The first and second laws of thermodynamics are:
38. The sum of the energies of all the molecules in a system A. Continuity equations
where energies appear in several complex forms is the; B. Momentum equations
A. Kinetic energy C. Boiling temperature
B. Potential energy D. Equation of state
ANSWER: C
C. Internal energy
48. Represent the temperature an ideal gas will attain when it
D. Frictional energy
is brought to rest adiabatically
ANSWER: C
A. Absolute zero temperature
39. The Carnot refrigeration cycle includes all of the following
B. Stagnation temperature
process except:
C. Boiling temperature
A. Isentropic expansion
D. Critical temperature
B. Isothermal heating
ANSWER: B
C. Isenthalpic expansion
49. Gauge pressure and absolute pressure differ from each
D. Isentropic compression
other by.
ANSWER: C
A. The system units
40. The maximum possible work that can be obtained a cycle
B. Atmospheric pressure
operating between two reservoirs is found from
C. The size of the gauge
A. Process irreversibility
D. Nothing they mean the same thing
B. Availability
ANSWER: B
C. Carnot efficiency
50. Each of the following are correct values of standard
D. Reversible work
atmospheric pressure except;
ANSWER: C
A. 1,000 atm
41. The following factors are necessary to define a
B. 14,962 psia
thermodynamic cycle except
C. 760 torr
A. The working substance
D. 103 mm Hg
B. High and low temperature reservoirs
ANSWER: D
C. The time it takes to complete the cycle
51. All of the following are the properties of an ideal gas
D. The means of doing work on the system
except:
ANSWER: C
A. Density
42. All of the following terms included in the second law for
B. Pressure
open system except
C. Viscosity
A. Shaft work
D. Temperature
B. Flow work
ANSWER: C
C. Internal energy
52. Which of the following is not the universal gas constant?
D. Average work
A. 1545 ft-lb/mol-°R
ANSWER: D
B. 8.314 J/mol-K
43. The following terms are included in the first law of
C. 8314 kJ/mol-K
thermodynamics for open system except
D. 8.314 kJ/kmol-K
A. Heat transferred in and out of the system
ANSWER: C
B. Work done by or in the system
53. The following are all commonly quoted values of standard
C. Magnetic system
temperatures and pressure except:
D. Internal system
A. 32°F and 14.696 psia
ANSWER: C
B. 273.15 K and 101.325 kPa
44. The following terms are included in the first law of
C. 0°C and 760 mm Hg
thermodynamics for closed system except
D. 0°F and 29.92 in Hg
A. Heat transferred in and out of the system
ANSWER: D
B. Work done by or on the system
54. The variation of pressure in an isobaric process is;
C. Internal energy
A. Linear with temperature
D. Kinetic energy
B. Describe by the perfect gas law
ANSWER: D
C. Inversely proportional; to temperature
45. Which of the following statements about a path function is
D. Zero
not true?
ANSWER: D
A. On a p- v diagram, it can represent work done
55. For liquid flow the enthalpy is the sum of internal energy
B. On a t – s diagram, it can represent heat transferred
and _________
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 3
A. Entropy 65. The heat of vaporization involves the change in enthalpy
B. Work flow due to:
C. Pressure A. The change in phase from solid to gas
D. Temperature B. The change in phase from liquid to gas
ANSWER: B C. The energy released in a chemical reaction
56. A thermodynamic process whose deviation from D. The change in phase from solid to liquid
equilibrium is infinitesimal at all times is ________ ANSWER: B
A. Reversible 66. The heat of sublimation involves the change in enthalpy
B. Isentropic due to ______________
C. In quasi – equilibrium A. The change in phase from solid to gas
D. Isenthalpic B. The change in phase from liquid to gas
ANSWER: C C. The energy released in a chemical reaction
57. Which thermodynamics property best describe the D. The change in phase from solid to liquid
molecular activity of a substance? ANSWER: A
A. Enthalpy 67. A specific property
B. Entropy A. Defines a specific variable (e.g. temperature)
C. Internal energy B. Is independent of mass
D. External energy C. Is an extensive property multiplied by mass
ANSWER: C D. Is dependent of the phase of the substance
58. Stagnation enthalpy represents the enthalpy of a fluid ANSWER: A
when it is brought to rest _________ 68. A material’s specific heat can be defined as:
A. Isometrically A. The ratio of heat required to change the temperature
B. Adiabatically of mass by a change in temperature
C. Isothermally B. Being different for constant pressure and constant
D. Disobarically temperature processes
ANSWER: B C. A function of temperature
59. During stagnation process the kinetic energy of a fluid is D. All of the above
converted to enthalpy which result in an; ANSWER: D
A. Increase in the fluid specific volume 69. If a substance temperature is less than its saturation
B. Increase in the fluid in fluid pressure temperature, the substance is:
C. Increase in the fluid temperature and pressure A. Sub cooled liquid
D. Increase in the fluid temperature B. Wet vapor
ANSWER: C C. Saturated vapor
60. The properties of fluid at the stagnation in state are called D. Superheated vapor
_________ ANSWER: A
A. Stagnation property 70. If a substance temperature is equal to its saturation
B. Stagnation phase temperature, the substance is a _________
C. Stagnation state A. Sub cooled liquid
D. Stagnation vapor B. Wet vapor
ANSWER: D C. Saturated vapor
61. All of the following are thermodynamic properties except D. Superheated vapor
________ ANSWER: C
A. Temperature 71. If a substance’s temperature is greater than its saturation
B. Pressure temperature, the substance is a __________
C. Density A. Sub cooled liquid
D. Modulus of elasticity B. Wet vapor
ANSWER: D C. Saturated vapor
62. A liquid boils when its vapor pressure equals D. Superheated vapor
A. The gage pressure ANSWER: D
B. The critical pressure 72. Critical properties refer to
C. The ambient pressure A. Extremely important properties, such as temperature
D. One standard atmosphere and pressure
ANSWER: C B. Heat required for phase change and important for
63. A system composed of ice and water at 0°C is said to be energy production
;__________ C. Properties values where liquid and gas phase are
A. A multiphase material indistinguishable
B. In thermodynamic equilibrium D. Properties having to do with equilibrium conditions,
C. In thermal equilibrium such as the Gibbs and Helmholtz function
D. All of the above ANSWER: C
ANSWER: D 73. For a saturated vapor, the relationship between
64. The heat of fusion of a pure substance is: temperature and pressure is given by.
A. The change in phase from solid to gas A. The perfect gas law
B. The change in phase from liquid to gas B. Van der Waal’s equation
C. The energy released in a chemical reaction C. The steam table
D. The energy required to melt the substance D. A Viral equation of state
ANSWER: D ANSWER: C
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 3
74. Properties of a superheated vapor are given by D. Phase changes
A. The perfect gas law ANSWER: B
B. A superheated table 83. All of the following processes are irreversible except
C. A one to one relationship, such as the properties of A. Chemical reaction
saturated steam B. Diffusion
D. A viral equation of state C. Current flow through an electrical resistance
ANSWER: B D. An isentropic compression of a perfect gas
75. Properties of non-reacting gas mixture are given by: ANSWER: D
A. Geometric weighting 84. All of the following processes are irreversible except;
B. Volumetric weighting A. Magnetization with hysteresis
C. Volumetric weighting for molecular weight and density B. Elastic tension and release of a steel bar
and geometric weighting for all other properties except C. Inelastic deformation
entropy D. Heat conduction
D. Arithmetic average ANSWER: B
ANSWER: C 85. Which of the following state(s) is/are necessary for a
76. The relationship between the total volume of a mixture of system to be in thermodynamic equilibrium?
non-reaching gases and their partial volume is given by ; A. Chemical equilibrium
A. Gravimetric fractions B. Thermal equilibrium
B. Amagat’s law C. Mechanical equilibrium
C. Dalton’s law D. Chemical, mechanical and thermal equilibrium
D. Mole fraction ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B 86. Adiabatic heat transfer within a vapor cycle refers to
77. The relationship between the total pressure of a mixture of A. Heat transfer that is atmospheric but not reversible
non-reacting gases and the partial pressures of B. The transfer of energy from one steam to another in a
constituents is given by: heat exchanger so that the energy of the input streams
A. Gravimetric fraction equal the energy of the output stream.
B. Volumetric fraction C. Heat transfer that is reversible but not isentropic
C. Dalton’s law D. There is no such thing as adiabatic heat transfer
D. Mole fractions ANSWER: B
ANSWER: C 87. The work done in a adiabatic process in a system:
78. Which of the following is the best definition of enthalpy? A. Is equal to the change in total energy in a closed system
A. The ratio of heat added to the temperature increases in B. Is equal to the total net heat transfer plus the entropy
a system change
B. The amount of useful energy in a system C. Is equal to the change in total energy of closed system
C. The amount of energy no longer available to the system plus the entropy change
D. The heat required to cause a complete convention D. Is equal to the change in total energy of closed system
between two phases at a constant temperature plus net heat transfer
ANSWER: B ANSWER: D
79. Which of the following statement is not true real gases? 88. Based on the first law of thermodynamics which of the
A. Molecules occupy a volume not negligible in following is wrong?
comparison to the total volume of gas A. The heat transfer equals the work plus energy change
B. Real gases are subjected to attractive forces between B. The heat transfer cannot exceed the work done
molecules (e.g Van der Waals forces) C. The net transfer equals the network of the cycle
C. The law of corresponding states may be used for real D. The net heat transfer equals the energy change if no
gases works is done
D. Real gases are found only rarely in nature ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D 89. Assuming real processes the entropy change in the
80. The stagnation state is called the isentropic stagnation universe:
state when the stagnation process is; A. Must be calculated
A. Reversible as well dynamic B. Equals zero
B. Isotropic C. Is negative
C. Adiabatic D. Is positive
D. Reversible as well as adiabatic ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D 90. Which of the following types of flow meters is most
81. The entropy of a fluid remains constant during what accurate?
process? A. Venturi tube
A. Polytrophic stagnation process B. Pitot tube
B. Unsteady stagnation process C. Flow nozzle
C. Combustion process D. Foam type
D. Isentropic stagnation process ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D 91. What is referred by control volume?
82. All of the following processes are irreversible except A. An isolated system
A. Stirring of a viscous fluid B. Closed system
B. An isentropic deceleration of a moving perfect fluid C. Fixed region in space
C. An unrestrained expansion of a gas D. Reversible process only
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 3
ANSWER: C D. Potential energy into heat energy
92. What is the most efficient thermodynamic cycle? ANSWER: C
A. Carnot 102. The pitot tube is a device used for measurement of
B. Diesel A. Pressure
C. Rankine B. Flow
D. Brayton C. Velocity
ANSWER: A D. Discharge
93. How do you treat a statement that is considered a scientific ANSWER: C
law? 103. The continuity equation is application to
A. We postulate to be true A. Viscous, unviscous fluids
B. Accept as a summary of experimental observation B. Compressibility of fluids
C. We generally observed to be true C. Conservation of mass
D. Believe to be derived from mathematical theorem D. Steady unsteady flow
ANSWER: B ANSWER: C
94. An instrument commonly used in most research and 104. The work done by a force of R Newtons moving in a
engineering laboratories because it is small and fast among distance of L meters is converted entirely into kinetic
the other thermometers energy and expressed by the equation:
A. Mercury thermometer A. RL = 2mv²
B. liquid-in-glass thermometer B. RL = 2mv
C. Gas thermometer C. RL = ½ mv²
D. Thermocouple D. RL = ½ mv
ANSWER: D ANSWER: C
105. Gas being heated at constant volume is undergoing the
95. In an actual gas, the molecular collision are process of :
A. Plastic A. Isentropic
B. Elastic B. Adiabatic
C. Inelastic C. Isometric
D. Inplastic D. Isobaric
ANSWER: C ANSWER: C
96. Which of the following is used in thermal power plant? 106. Dew point is defined as.
A. Brayton A. The temperature to which the air must be cooled at
B. Reversed carnot constant pressure to produce saturation
C. Rankine B. The point where the pressure and temperature lines
D. Otto meet.
ANSWER: C C. The temperature which dew is formed in the air
97. The elongation and compression of a helical spring is an D. The pressure which dew is formed in the air
example of ANSWER: A
A. Irreversible process 107. What do you call the changing of an atom of element into
B. Reversible process an atom of a different element with a different atomic
C. Isothermal process mass?
D. Adiabatic process A. Atomization
ANSWER: B B. Atomic transmutation
98. Otto cycle consist of C. Atomic pile
A. Two isentropic and two constant volume processes D. Atomic energy
B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure processes ANSWER: B
C. Two adiabatic and two isothermal processes 108. What do you call the weight of the column of air above the
D. Two isothermal and two constant volume processes earth’s surface
ANSWER: A A. Air pressure
99. Brayton cycle has B. Aerostatic pressure
A. Two isentropic and two constant volume processes C. Wind pressure
B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure processes D. Atmospheric pressure
C. One constant pressure, one constant volume and two ANSWER: D
adiabatic processes 109. What keeps the moisture from passing through the
D. Two isothermal, one constant volume and one constant system?
pressure processes A. Dehydrator
ANSWER: B B. Aerator
100. A bell coleman cycle is a reversed C. Trap
A. Stirling cycle D. Humidifier
B. Joule cycle ANSWER: A
C. Carnot cycle 110. What condition exist in an adiabatic throttling proces?
D. Otto cycle A. Enthalpy is variable
ANSWER: B B. Enthalpy is constant
101. A steam nozzle changes C. Entropy is constant
A. Kinetic energy into heat energy D. Specific volume is constant
B. Heat energy into potential energy ANSWER: B
C. Heat energy into kinetic energy
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 3
111. The specific gravity of a substance is the ratio of its density 121. Which of the following gases can be used to measure the
to the density of; lowest temperature?
A. Mercury A. Nitrogen
B. Gas B. Helium
C. Air C. Oxygen
D. Water D. Hydrogen
ANSWER: D ANSWER: B
112. A compound pressure gauge is used to measure 122. The triple point of a substance is the temperature and
A. Complex pressure pressure at which:
B. Variable pressure A. The solid and liquid phase are in equilibrium
C. Compound pressure B. The solid and gaseous phase are in equilibrium
D. Positive and negative pressure C. The solid, liquid and gaseous phase are in equilibrium
ANSWER: D D. The solid does not melt, the liquid does not boil and the
113. Isentropic flow is gas does not condense
A. Perfect gas flow ANSWER: D
B. Ideal gas law 123. Which of the following relation is not application in a free
C. Frictional reversible flow expansion process?
D. Reversible adiabatic flow A. Heat rejected is zero
ANSWER: D B. Work done is zero
114. Under ideal conditions, isothermal, isobaric, isochoric and C. Change in temperature is zero
adiabatic processes are ; D. Heat supplied is zero
A. Dynamic processes ANSWER: C
B. Stable processes 124. Ericsson cycle has
C. Quasi-static processes A. Two isothermal and two constant pressure processes
D. Static processes B. Two isothermal and two constant entropy processes
ANSWER: C C. Two isothermal and two constant entropy process
115. One watt is: D. Two adiabatic.one constant volume and constant
A. 1 N-m⁄s pressure processes.
B. 1 N-m⁄min ANSWER: A
125. A stirling cycle has
C. 1 N-m⁄hr
A. Two adiabatic and two constant volume processes
D. 1 kN-m⁄s B. Two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes
ANSWER: A C. Two isothermal and two constant pressure processes
116. A temperature above which a given gas cannot be D. Two isothermal and two constant volume processes
liquefied: ANSWER: D
A. Cryogenic temperature 126. The temperature of the fluid flowing under pressure
B. Vaporization temperature through a pipe is usually measured by;
C. Absolute temperature A. A glass thermometer
D. Critical temperature B. An electric resistance thermometer
ANSWER: D C. A thermocouple
117. The effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given D. All of the above
temperature. ANSWER: D
A. Absorption 127. Specific heat capacity is an SI derived unit describe as
B. Emissivity A. J/kg
C. Conductivity B. W/Mk
D. Reflectivity C. kJ/ kg-K
ANSWER: B D. J/m
118. Which of the following occurs in a reversible polytrophic ANSWER: C
process? 128. Which of the following is mathematically a thermodynamic
A. Enthalpy remains constant property?
B. Internal energy does not change A. A point function
C. Some heat transfer occurs B. Discontinuous
D. Entropy remains constant C. A path function
ANSWER: C D. Exact different
119. The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is: ANSWER: A
A. Rotameter 129. When the expansion or compression of gas takes place
B. Manometer without transfer of heat to or from the gas process is called:
C. Venturi A. Reversible
D. Barometer B. Adiabatic
ANSWER: D C. Polytrophic
120. A pneumatic tool is generally powered by D. Isothermal
A. Water ANSWER: B
B. Electricity 130. Another name for the liquid valve is:
C. Steam A. Freon valve
D. Air B. Shut off valve
ANSWER: D C. King valve
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 3
D. Master valve expansion from an initial to final state, then the efficiency
ANSWER: C of the nozzle is:
131. A liquid whose temperature is lower than the saturation A. Ki/Ka
temperature corresponding to the existing pressure: B. (Ka-Ki)/Ka
A. Sub cooled liquid C. (Ka-Ki)/Ki
B. Saturated liquid D. Ka/Ki
C. Pure liquid ANSWER: D
D. Compressed liquid 141. The conversion section of a nozzle increases the velocity of
ANSWER: A the flow of the gas. What does it to do on its pressure?
132. The law that state “Entropy of all perfect crystalline solids A. Pressure becomes constant
is zero at absolute zero temperature: B. Pressure equals the velocity
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics C. It increases the pressure
B. First law of thermodynamics D. It decreases the pressure
C. Second law of thermodynamics ANSWER: D
D. Third law of thermodynamics 142. In closed vessel, when vaporization takes place, the
ANSWER: D temperature rises. Due to the rising temperature, the
133. What should be the temperature of both water and steam pressure increases until an equilibrium is established
whenever they are present together? between the temperature and pressure. The temperature
A. Saturation temperature for the existing pressure of equilibrium is called _____
B. Boiling point of water at 101.325 kPa A. Dew point
C. Superheated temperature B. Ice point
D. One hundred degrees centigrade C. Boiling point
ANSWER: A D. Superheated temperature
134. A manometer is an instrument that is used to measure: ANSWER: C
A. Air pressure 143. At steam point the temperatures of water and its vapor at
B. Heat radiation standard pressure are:
C. Condensate water level A. Extremes or maximum
D. Air volume B. Unity
ANSWER: A C. In equilibrium
135. What is the area under the curve of a temperature entropy D. Undefined
diagram? ANSWER: C
A. Volume 144. When hot soup was served in a cup during dinner, an
B. Heat engineer was so eager to drink it. Since it was hot, he added
C. Work cubes of ice to cool the soup and stirred it. He noticed that
D. Entropy dew start to form on the outermost surface of the cup, He
ANSWER: B wanted to check the temperature of the outermost surface
136. What do bodies at a temperature above absolute zero of the cup. What is this temperature equal to?
emit? A. Superheated temperature
A. Energy B. Equal to zero
B. Heat of convection C. Standard temperature
C. Thermal radiation D. Equal to air’s dew point temperature
D. Heat of compression ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C 145. What do you call a conversion technology that yields
137. In the absence of any irreversibilities, a thermoelectric electricity straight from sunlight without the aid of a
generator, a device that incorporates both thermal and working substance like gas or steam without the use of any
electric effects, will have the efficiency of a/an mechanical cycle?
A. Carnot cycle A. Power conversion
B. Otto cycle B. Stirling cycle conversion
C. Diesel cycle C. Solar thermal conversion
D. Rankine cycle D. Photovoltaic energy conversion
ANSWER: A ANSWER: D
138. Both steam engines and ericson engines are 146. Which of the following property of liquid extend resistance
A. Internal combustion engines to angular or shear deformation:
B. External combustion engines A. Specific gravity
C. Carnot engines B. Specific weight
D. Brayton engines C. Viscosity
ANSWER: B D. Density
139. Nozzles does not involve any work interaction. The fluid ANSWER: C
through this device experience: 147. What is the pressure at the exit of a draft tube in a turbine?
A. No change in potential energy A. Below atmospheric
B. No change in kinetic energy B. Above atmospheric
C. No change in enthalpy C. Atmospheric
D. Vacuum D. Vacuum
ANSWER: A ANSWER: C
140. If the actual kinetic energy of a nozzle is Ka and Ki is the
maximum value that can be attained by an isentropic
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 3
148. When change in kinetic energy of a compressed gas are 158. Cryogenic temperature ranges from:
negligible or insignificant, the work input to an adiabatic A. -150 °F to -359 °F
compressor is _______ B. -250 °F to -459 °F
A. Negligible C. -100 °F to -300 °F
B. Zero D. -200 °F to -400 °F
C. Infinity ANSWER: B
D. Equal to change in enthalpy 159. Steam at 2 kPa is saturated at 17.5 °C.in what state will the
ANSWER: D state be at 40°C if the pressure is 2.0 kPa?
149. What is the area under the curve of a pressure volume A. Superheated
diagram? B. Saturated
A. Non flow work C. Sub cooled
B. Steady work D. Supersaturated
C. Heat ANSWER: A
D. Power 160. Acceleration is proportional to force.
ANSWER: A A. Newtons law
150. In Stirling and Ericson cycle, regeneration can B. Archimedes’ principle
A. Increase efficiency C. Law of gravitation
B. Decrease efficiency D. Theory of relativity
C. Control efficiency ANSWER: A
D. Limit efficiency 161. Which of the following could be defined as simply push and
ANSWER: A pull?
151. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the A. Power
following principles? B. Inertia
A. Conservation of mass C. Work
B. Enthalpy entropy relationship D. Force
C. Entropy temperature relationship ANSWER: D
D. Conversation of energy 162. The true pressure measured above a perfect vacuum is:
ANSWER: D A. Absolute pressure
152. In two phase system, 30% moisture means B. Atmospheric pressure
A. 70% liquid and 30% vapor C. Gauge pressure
B. 70% vapor and 30% liquid D. Vacuum pressure
C. 30% liquid and 100% vapor ANSWER: A
D. 30% vapor and 100% liquid 163. If an initial volume of an ideal gas is compressed to one half
ANSWER: B its original volume and to twice its original temperature the
153. At 101.325 kPa, the boiling point of water is 100 °C. If the pressure:
pressure is decreased, the boiling temperature will: A. Doubles
A. Increase B. Halves
B. Decrease C. Quadruples
C. Remain the same D. Triples
D. Drop to zero ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B 164. When the expansion or compression of gas takes place
154. Which of the following is equivalent to 1hp in Btu/hr? without transfer of heat to or from the gas, the process is
A. 778 called:
B. 2545 A. Isometric process
C. 746 B. Isothermal process
D. 3.41 C. Isobaric process
ANSWER: B
D. Adiabatic process
155. What is the pressure above zero?
ANSWER: D
A. Gage pressure
165. A body radiates heat proportional to the fourth power of
B. Absolute pressure
its absolute temperature:
C. Vacuum pressure
A. Stefan - Boltzmann law
D. Atmospheric pressure
B. Planck’s law
ANSWER: A
156. One Newton - meter is equal to : C. Kirchhoff’s law
A. 1 Joule D. Maxwell’s law
B. 1 Btu ANSWER: A
C. 1 Calorie 166. All substance emit radiation, the quantity and quality of
D. 1 ergs which depends upon the absolute temperature and the
ANSWER: A properties of the material, composing the radiating body.
157. Which of the following is the instrument used to measure A. Stefan - Boltzmann law
fluid velocity? B. Planck’s law
A. Pitot tube C. Kirchhoff’s law
B. Orsat apparatus D. Maxwell’s law
C. Anemometer ANSWER: B
D. Viscosimeter
ANSWER: A
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 3
167. For bodies in thermal equilibrium with their environment
the ratio of total emissive power to the absorption is
constant at any temperature.
A. Stefan - Boltzmann law
B. Planck’s law
C. Kirchhoff’s law
D. Maxwell’s law
ANSWER: C
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 4
1. If the energy of the incident photon is less than the work A. Reynolds number
function : B. Froude number
A. Electron will ejected C. Mach number
B. More than one electron will be ejected D. Biot number
C. An electron will not be ejected ANSWER: D
D. Less than one electron will be ejected 11. Mass density of liquid ( p ) is given by which of the
ANSWER: C following?
2. For supersonic flow , the pressure of Fluid must decrease A. p = Mass volume
as the fluid Flow area of the duct B. p = metric slug / m²
A. Increases C. p = kg sec² / m⁴
B. Decreases D. all of the above
C. Remain the same ANSWER: D
D. None of these 12. The speed of sound in all fluid is most closely related to all
ANSWER: A of the following properties except
3. Density in terms of viscosity is A. Compressibility
A. Kinematic viscosity / dynamic viscosity B. Density
B. Dinamic viscosity / kinematic viscosity C. Bulk modulus
C. Kinematic viscosity x dynamic viscosity D. Thermal conductivity
D. None of the above ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B 13. Under which condition , thespecific wieght of water is 1000
4. Liquids and gases take the following characteristic(s) of kg/m³?
their contents. A. At normal pressure of 760 mm
A. Volume B. At 4°C temperature
B. Shape C. At mean sea level
C. Shape and volume D. All of the above
D. Neither shape nor volume ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B 14. All of the following can be characteristics of fluids
5. Alcohol finds use in manometers as : except___________.
A. It provides a suitable meniscus for the inclined tube A. Kinematic viscosity
B. Its density being less can provide longer length for a B. Surface tension
pressure difference , thus more accuracy can be obtained C. Bulk modulus
C. A and B above are correct D. hysteresis
D. Cheap and easily obtained ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C 15. Which of the following can be used to measure th flow of
6. Which of the following statements about a Newtonian fluid water in a pipe of diameter 3000 mm?
is most accurate? A. Venturimeter
A. Shear stress is proportional to strain B. Rotameter
B. Viscosity is zero C. Nozzle
C. Shear stress is multi-valued D . Pitot tube
D. Shear stress is proportional to rate of strain ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D 16. The liquid pressure at a given depth due to several
7. The normal stress is the same in all directions at a point in immiscible liquid is :
fluid : A. the average of the individual pressures
A. Independent of the motion of one fluid layer relative to B. The sum of the individual pressures
an adjacent layer C. independent of the individual pressures
B. When there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to D. unknown
an adjacent layer ANSWER: B
C. Only if the fluid id frictionless 17. The equation of continuity of flow is applicable if :
D. Only if fluid is frictionless and incompressible A. the flow is one dimensional
ANSWER: B B. the flow is steady
8. Which of the following is not a characteristics of fluid C. the velocity is uniform over cross-section
pressure ? D. all of the above conditions are together
A. It is the same in all directions at a point in the fluid ANSWER: D
B. Is acts normal to a surface 18. Uniform flow takes place when :
C. It is a shear stress A. conditions remain unchanged with time at any point
D. It is linear with depth B. rate of change of velocity of fluid is zero
ANSWER: C C. at every point of the velocity vector is identical in
9. The length of mercury column at a place at an altitude will magnitude and direction for any given instant
change with respect to that at ground in : D. the change in transverse direction is zero
A. A linear relation ANSWER: C
B. A parabolic relation 19. The continuity equation of an ideal flluid flow :
C. Will remain constant A. states that the net rate of in-flow into any small volume
D. First slowly and then steeply must be zero
ANSWER: D B. applies to irrotational flow only
10. All of the following dimensionless parameters are C. states that the energy remains constant along
applicable to fluid flow problems except the ________
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 4
streamline 29. Which of the following is relative to velocity?
D. states that energy is constant everywhere in the fluid A. The difference between two velocities
ANSWER: D B. Average velocity
20. A pitot tube can be used to measure fluid velocity as C. Sum of two velocities
described by the bernoulli’s equation and the relatiomship D. Vector difference between of two velocities
between : ANSWER: D
A. kinetic energy and static pressure 30. Which of the following is the highest head?
B. fluid pressure and height of the fluid A. 33 inch Hg
C. fluid pressure and impact energy B. 31.0 ft. water
D. Pressure and momentum C. 1.013 kg kg/cm
ANSWER: A D. 75.0 cm of Hg
21. In order to avoid vaporation in the pipe line ,the pipe line ANSWER: A
over the ridge in such a way that it is not more than : 31. For stable equilibrium of floating body is metacenter
A. 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient should lie :
B. 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient A. Below the center of the gravity
C. 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient B. Below the center of the buoyancy
D. 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient C. Above the center of the buoyancy
ANSWER: B D. Above the center of gravity
22. The stream function is a useful parameter in describing ANSWER: D
____________. 32. Center of pressure on a inclined plane lies
A. The conversation of mass _______________
B. The conversation of momentum A. At the centroid
C. the conversation of energy B. Above the centroid
D. the equation of state C. Below the centroid
ANSWER: A D. At metacenter
23. For high speed flows, the potential energy of the fluids are: ANSWER: C
A. positive 33. The line of action of the buoyant forces always acts through
B. negative the centriod of the_____________
C. negligible A. Submerged body
D. None of these B. Volume of the floating body
ANSWER: C C. Volume of the liquid vertically above the body
24. McLeod gauge used for low pressure measurement D. Displaced volume of the fluid
operates on the principle of ___________ ANSWER: D
A. Gas law 34. The hydraulic grade line of a pipeline denotes which of the
B. Boyle’s law following ?
C. Charles law A. Total energy
D. Pascal’s law B. Pressure energy
ANSWER: B C. Potential energy
25. A Kaplan turbine is D. The sum of pressure and potential energy
A. A high head mixed flow turbine ANSWER: D
B. An impulse turbine, inward flow 35. The energy grade line of a pipeline denotes which of the
C. A reaction turbine , outward flow following ?
D. Low head axial flow turbine A. Total energy
ANSWER: D B. Pressure energy
26. The most common method for calculating frictional energy C. Potential energy
loss for laminar flowing fluids in non circular pipes is : D. The sum of pressure energy and potential energy
A. The Darcy equation ANSWER: A
B. The Hegan- Poisevill equation 36. The presence of friction in the energy grade line will always
C. The Hazen-Williams equation cause the line to slope
D. The Swamee-Jin equation A. Down in the direction of the flow
ANSWER: A B. Upward in the direction of the flow
27. The parameter f in the expression for head-loss is C. Level (no slope)
A. The fraction of flow is totally turbulent D. There is no effect of friction on the energy grade
B. The Darcy friction factor ANSWER: A
C. The height of the roughness scale in turbulent 37. The pitot tube is a device used for measurement of
D. The static coefficient of friction A. pressure
ANSWER: B B. flow
28. Friction factor for both laminar and turbulent flows can be C. velocity
found plotted in a D. discharged
A. Steam table ANSWER: C
B. Psychrometric chart 38. Hydrometer is used to find out
C. Moody diagram A. Specific gravity of liquids
D. Mollier diagram B. Specific gravity of solids
ANSWER: C C. specific gravity of gases
D. Relative humidity
ANSWER: A
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 4
39. The fluid forces taken into consideration in the Navier ANSWER: D
Stokes equation are : 48. Which of the following is the basic of Bernoulli’s law for
A. Gravity, pressure and viscous fluid flow?
B. Gravity, pressure and turbulent A. Continuity equation
C. Pressure, viscous and turbulent B. Principle of conversation of energy
D. Gravity, viscous and turbulent C. Fourier’s law
ANSWER: A D. Principle of conversation of mass
40. Permissible velocity of water flowing through concrete ANSWER: B
tunnel, is generally 49. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a fluid
A. 4-5 m/s pressure ?
B. 10-12 m/s A. It is a shear stress
C. 13-16 m/s B. It is same in all directions at a point in the fluid
D. 20 m/s C. It acts normal to a surface
ANSWER: A D. It is linear with depth
41. Orifice refers to an opening ANSWER: A
A. With closed perimeter and of regular form through 50. Refers to the compresability of a fluid, the fractional
which water flows change in the fluid volume per unit change in fluid.
B. With prolonged sides having length of 2 to 3 diameters A. Viscosity
of opening in the thick wall B. Bulk modulus
C. With partially full flow C. Density
D. In hydraulic structures with regulation provision D. Pressure
ANSWER: D ANSWER: D
42. The value of coefficient of discharged in comparison to 51. A pitot tube can be used to measure fluid velocity as
coefficient of velocity is found to be ______________ described bt the Bernoulli equation and the relationship
A. more between :
B. less A. Kinetic energy and static pressure
C. same B. Fluid pressure and static pressure
D. More/less depending on flow C. Fluid pressure and impact energy
ANSWER: B D. Pressure and momentum
43. Weir refers to an opening ANSWER: A
A. Having closed perimeter and of regular form through 52. The ratio of th area to the wetted perimeter is known as
which water flows ______________
B. Having prolonged sides with length of 2 to 3 diameters A. Flow factor
of opening in the thick wall B. Hydaraulic radius
C. Having partially full flow C. Kutter’s C
D. In hydraulic structures with regulation provisions D. Value of k in Darcy –-Weisbach formula
ANSWER: C ANSWER: B
44. Which of the following paraments determine the friction 53. What is the coefficient of contraction?
factor of turbulent flow in a rough pipe? A. The ratio of the area of vena contracta to the area of
A. Froude number and relative roughness the orifice
B. Froude number and Mach number B. The ratio of actual discharged to the theoretical
C. Reynold’s number and relative roughness discharge
D. Mach number and relative roughness C. The ratio of the actual velocity to the theoretical
ANSWER: C velocity
45. Power transmitted through a pipe is maximum when the D. The ratio of the effective head to the actual head
loss of head due to friction is : ANSWER: A
A. One – half of the total head supplied 54. Where is vena contracta most likely located?
B. One – third of the total head supplied A. At the orifice
C. One – fourth of the total head supplied B At a distance approximately ½ the diameter of the
D. Equal to the total head supplied orifice
ANSWER: B C. At a distance approximately equal to the diameter of
46. In a nozzle if back pressure is same as inlet pressure ; then the orifice
_____________. D. At a distance approximately twice the diameter of the
A. No flow takes place orifice
B. Maximum flow takes place ANSWER: B
C. Flow becomes subsonic in diverging section 55. A substance that is able to flow and yields to any force
D. Flow becomes supersonic in converging as well as tending to change its shape without changing its volume
supersonic section such as water and air.
ANSWER: A A. Fluid
47. The flow on two sides of a normal shock wave is called B. Flux
___________. C. Gas oil
A. Sonic D. Water gas
B. Sub – sonic ANSWER: A
C. Supersonic
D. Supersonic on one side and sub – sonic on the other
side
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 4
56. The velocity of a fluid particle at the center of the pipe D. The number at which laminar flow changes into
section is __________ turbulent flow
A. Maximum ANSWER: A
B. Minimum 66. Which of the following statements about gauge pressure is
C. Average most correct? Gauge pressure are measured relative to
D. Logarithmic average __________
ANSWER: A A. Atmospheric pressure
57. For supersonic flow, the pressure of fluid must increase as B. A vacuum
the fluid flow area of the duct : C. Each other
A. Increases D. The surface
B. Decreases ANSWER: A
C. Constant 67. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is
D. None of these called ________
ANSWER: B A. Volumetric strain
58. Which is incorrect statement regarding apparent shear B. Volumetric index
forces. C. Compressibility
A. It can never be found in frictionless fluid regardless of D. Adhesion
its motion ANSWER: D
B. It can never be found when the fluid is at rest 68. Compressibility of a fluid relates the fractional change in
C. It depends upon cohesive forces fluid volume per unit change in fluid
D. It may occur owing to cohesion when the fluid is at rest A. Temperature
ANSWER: D B. Density
59. The time required for half a quantity of radioactive particles C. Pressure
to decay (disintegrate) is called its D. Viscosity
________________________ ANSWER: B
A. Average life 69. Property of a fluid whereby its own molecules are attracted
B Meridian life os known as ________
C. Time constant A. Adhesion
D. Half time B. Cohesion
ANSWER: D C. Surface Tension
60. Unit of viscosity is: D. Viscosity
A. 10 times poise ANSWER: B
B. 9.81 times poise 70. The term subsonic flow refers to a flowing gas with a speed:
C. 1/9.81 times poise A. Less than the local speed of sound
D. 1/10 times poise B. Equal to the speed of sound
ANSWER: A C. Greater than the speed of sound
61. For computation convenience , fluids are usually classed as: D. Much greater than the speed of sound
A. Rotational or irrotational ANSWER: A
B. Real or ideal 71. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all the
C. Laminar or turbulent directions if the fluid is :
D. Newtonian or non-newtonian A. Viscous
ANSWER: B B. Viscous and static
62. Which of the following is not a dimensionless parameter ? C. Inviscous and in motion
A. Kinetic viscosity D. Viscous and is in motion
B. Weber number ANSWER: D
C. Darcy-Weisbach friction factor 72. The statement that “ the hydorstatic pressure a flu8id
D. Froude number exerts on a immersed object or on container walls is a
ANSWER: A function only if fluid depth” is
63. Which of the following is not a characteristic of real fluids ? A. The perfect gas law
A. Finite viscosity B. D’Alembert’s paradox
B. Non-uniform velocity distributions C. The hydrostatic paradox
C. Compressibility D. Boyle’s law
D. Experience of eddy currents and turbulence ANSWER: C
ANSWER: D 73. Bernoulli’s equation is s/an ________
64. Which of the following is not the mass density of water? A. Momentum Equation
A. 62.5 lbm/ft³ B. Conservation of energy equation
B. 100 kg/m³ C. Conservation of mass equation
C. 1 g/cm³ D. Equation of state
D. 1 kg/ L ANSWER: B
ANSWER: B 74. An ideal fluid is one that :
65. The upper critical Reynolds number for pipe flow is : A. Is very viscous
A. Of no practical importance to designers B. Obeys Newton’s law of viscosity
B. Always used to design pipes for strength C. Is assumed in problems in conduit flow
C. The number at which turbulent flow changes over to D. Is frictionless and incompressible
laminar flow ANSWER: D
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 4
75. The relationship between pressure and altitude in the 84. The study of the practical laws of fluid flow and the
atmosphere is given by the : resistance of open pipes and channels.
A. Perfect gas law A. Fluid mechanics
B. Conservation of mass B. Hydraulics
C. Barometric height relationship C. Aerodynamics
D. First law of thermodynamics D. Thermodynamics
ANSWER: C ANSWER: B
76. The fact the buoyant force on a floating object equal to the 85. Which of the following turbine is different from the others?
weight of the water displaced is : A. Fourneyron turbine
A. Bernoulli’s law B. Francis turbine
B. Archimedes’ principle C. Kaplan turbine
C. The law of diminishing returns D. Pelton wheel
D. The conservation of mass ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B 86. Running away speed of a Pelton wheel gives :
77. Which of the following terms does not appear in the steady A. Actual operating speed
flow energy equation ( the extended Bernoulli’s equation)? B. No load speed
A. Kinetic energy C. Full load speed
B. Potential energy D. No load speed when governor mechanism fails
C. Friction losses ANSWER: D
D. Hysteresis losses 87. Which of the following turbine is different from the others?
ANSWER: D A. Pelton wheel
78. Neglecting the forces due ti inertia , gravity and frictional B. Banki turbine
resistance , the design of a channel can be made by C. Jonval turbine
comparing D. Kaplan turbine
A. Weber number ANSWER: D
B. Reynolds number 88. The characteristics length of the Reynold’s number used to
C. Froude’s number calculate the friction in noncircular full running pipes is
D. Prant’l number based on the ____
ANSWER: C A. Run length
79. The difference between stagnation pressure and total B. Pipe length
pressure is : C. Hydraulic diameter ( the equivalent diameter )
A. Due to height and difference D. Wetted circumference
B. Due to fluid kinetic energy ANSWER: C
C. None of the terms are interchangeable 89. The Hydraulic radius of noncircular pipe is :
D. Important only in supersonic flow A. The square root of the flow area
ANSWER: C B. The ratio of the area to the wetted perimeter
80. Fully turbulent flow in a pipe is characterized by all of the C. The radius of a pipe of equivalent area
following except : D. None of the above
A. A parabolic velocity profile ANSWER: B
B. A momentum exchange due to fluid masses rather than 90. The darcy equation can be used for all liquids and dlows
molecules except :
C. A maximum velocity at the fluid center line A. Water
D. A 1/7 velocity profile B. Alcohol
ANSWER: A C. Gasoline
81. The laminar friction factor of fluid flowing through a pipe is D. Air flowing supersonically
function of all of the following except : ANSWER: D
A. Fluid velocity 91. The Hazen – Williams formula for head loss due to friction
B. Pipe diameter is based upon :
C. Pipe roughness A. Rigorous mathematical derivation
D. Reynolds number B. Empirical data
ANSWER: C C. Semi – empirical data
82. The continuity equation is applicable to : D. Screndipity
A. Viscous unviscous fluids ANSWER: B
B. Compressibility of fluids 92. The extended Bernoulli’s equation includes all of the
C. Conservation of mass following terms except :
D. Steady unsteady flow A. Potential energy
ANSWER: C B. Kinetic energy
83. The rise or fall of head ‘h’ in a capillary tube of diameter ‘d’ C. Nuclear energy
and liquid surface tension ‘s’ and specific weight ‘w’ is given D. Friction losses
by : ANSWER: C
A. 4s/wd 93. An equipotential line is one that :
B. 4ds/w A. Has no velocity component tangent to it
C. 4wd/s B. Has uniformly varying dynamic pressure
D. 4ws/d C. Has no velocity component normal to it
ANSWER: A D. Exists in case of rotational flows
ANSWER: D
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 4
94. What is the use of a hydraulic jump ? 103. What is measured by a Pitot tube?
A. Increase the flow rate A. Volumetric discharge
B. Reduce the flow rate B. Mass flow
C. Reduce the velocity flow C. Pressure
D. Reduce the energy flow D. Velocity
ANSWER: D ANSWER: D
95. What do you call the lowest portion to storage basin from 104. What is the difference between the energy grade line and
where water is not drawn ? the hydraulic grade line?
A. Bottom storage A. Potential energy
B. Sub soil storage B. Pressure energy
C. Spring reserve C. Kinetic energy
D. Dead storage D. Friction losses
ANSWER: D ANSWER: C
96. The presence of friction in the hydraulic grade line will 105. Kinetic energy is not neglected in calculations of:
always cause the line to slope : A. High speed flow
A. Down in the direction of the flow B. Low speed flow
B. Upward in the direction of the flow C. Steady flow
C. Level ( no slope ) D. Equilibrium flow
D. There is no effect of friction on the energy grade line ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A 106. Discharge losses through orifice are due to:
97. The presence of a minor loss in the energy grade line will A. Friction losses
cause the line to slope : B. Minor losses
A. Down in the direction of the flow C. Both friction and minor losses
B. Upward in the direction of the flow D. Pressure losses
C. Vertically downward ANSWER: C
D. There is no effect of friction on the energy grade line 107. Which of the following is considerd as an important
ANSWER: A parameter in the study of compressible flow ?
98. What do you call the pressure which the fluid exerts on an A. Speed of fluid
immersed object or container walls ? B. Speed of sound
A. Normal pressure C. Speed of light
B. Standard liquid pressure D. Speed of fluid flow
C. Hydrostatic pressure ANSWER: B
D. Gage pressure 108. Is the velocity at which an infinitesimal small pressure wave
ANSWER: C travles through a medium.
99. Viscosity for a fluid is defined as the constant of A. Subsonic velocity
proportionaly between shear stress and what other B. Hypersonic velocity
variable ? C. Sonic velocity
A. The spatial derivative of velocity D. Monatomic velocity
B. The time derivative of pressure ANSWER: C
C. The time derivative of density 109. It is the ratio of the actual velocity of the fluid to the
D. The spatial derivative of density velocity of sound
ANSWER: A A. Mach number
100. What is the classification of the fluid flow if the fluid travels B. Froude number
parallel to the adjacent layers and the paths of the C. Sonic number
individual particles do not cross each other? D. Euler number
A. Steady flow ANSWER: A
B. Laminar flow 110. The flow is called sonic when Mach number is :
C. Uniform flow A. Equal to 1
D. Turbulent flow B. Less than 1
ANSWER: B C. More than 1
101. Which of the following refers to the measure of a fluid’s D. None of these
sensitivity to changes in viscosity with changes in ANSWER: A
temperature? 111. The following flow is sub – sonic when Mach no. is :
A. Viscosity index A. Greater than 1
B. Coefficient of viscosity B. Less than 1
C. Viscosity ratio C. More than 1
D. Viscosity factor D. None of these
ANSWER: A ANSWER: B
102. If the Mach number is greater than 1 but lesser than 5, what 112. The flow is supersonic when Mach no. Is :
is the standard classification of the travel? A. Greater than zero
A. Transonic travel B. Less than 1
B. Subsonic travel C. Greater than 1
C. Hypersonic travel D. None of these
D. Supersonic travel ANSWER: C
ANSWER: D
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 4
113. The flow is transonic when C. Below the centroid
A. M = 0 D. At the metacenter
B. M<1 ANSWER: C
C. M>1 123. At any instant , if the number of partices passing every
D. M = 1 cross-section of the stream is the same, the flow is said to
ANSWER: D be:
114. The pressure decreases as the temperature and velocity A. Steady flow
increases while the fluid velocity and Mach number: B. Uniform flow
A. Increases C. Continuous flow
B. Decreases D. Laminar flow
C. Remains constant ANSWER: A
D. None of these 124. The ratio of cross- sectional area of flow to the wetted
ANSWER: A perimeter is:
115. The Mach number is unity or one at the location of samllest A. Hydraulic lead
flow area, called the: B. Hydraulic section
A. Decreasing area C. Hydraulic mean depth
B. Throat D. Hydraulic gradient
C. Increasing area ANSWER: C
D. None of these 125. If A is the cross-sectional area of the flow and Pw is the
ANSWER: B wetted perimeter of a pipe, then what is the hydraulic
116. What happens to the velocity of fluid after passing the depth. H?
throat although the flow area A. Pw – A
A. Increases rapidly B. Pw / A
B. Decreases rapidly C. A / Pw
C. Remains constant D. Pw x A
D. None of these ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A 126. If Q is the volume in gallon ; D is height or elevation in ft,
117. Which of the following is an example of a Newtonian fluid? and m is weight in lbs per gallon , what is the desired energy
A. Motor oils to lift the water from lower to higher elevation?
B. Gas A. E = mD/Q
C. Paints B. E = mDQ
D. Clay slurries C. E = mQ/D
ANSWER: B D. E = QD/m
118. What is the critical pressure of water? ANSWER: B
A. 150 kg/cm³ 127. The flow of the convergent section of a nozzle is always
B. Less than 200 kg/cm² subsonic. If the flow is subsonic then Mach number is:
C. More than 200 kg/cm² A. Greater than unity
D. 100 kg/cm² B. Less than unity
ANSWER: C C. Near unity
119. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is D. Unity
called: ANSWER: B
A. Volumetric change
B. Volumetric index
C. Compressibility
D. Adhesion
ANSWER: D
120. The energy of a fluid flowing at any section in a pipeline is
a function of:
A. Velocity of flow only
B. Pressure only
C. Height above a chosen datum, density, internal energy,
pressure and velocity flow
D. Pressure , height above a chosen datum, velocity of
flow, density of fluid
ANSWER: C
121. If the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the
paths of individual particles do not cross, the fluid is said to
be:
A. Turbulent
B. Critical
C. Dynamic
D. laminar
ANSWER: C
122. Center of pressure on an inclined plane lies:
A. At the centroid
B. Above the centroid
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 5
1. After passing through a convergent-divergent nozzle the ANSWER: C
temperature of air will: 10. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle
A. Increase without useful cooling, which of the following will not be
B. Decrease affected? (use per unit mass analysis)
C. Remains the same A. Refrigerated effect
D. None of these B. COP
ANSWER: B C. Compressor power
2. After passing through a convergent-divergent nozzle the D. Mass flow rate
density of air will: ANSWER: C
A. Increase 11. By sub-cooling the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle
B. Decrease at condenser exit, which of the following will increase? (use
C. Remains the same per unit mass analysis)
D. None of these A. Refrigerated effect
ANSWER: B B. Specific volume at suction
3. After passing through a convergent-divergent nozzle the C. Compressor power
mach number of air will: D. Mass flow rate
A. Increase ANSWER: A
B. Decrease 12. By sub-cooling the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle
C. Remains the same at condenser exit, which of the following will decrease?
D. None of these (use per unit mass analysis)
ANSWER: B A. Refrigerated effect
4. By increasing the temperature source of Carnot cycle, B. Specific volume at suction
which of the following will not be affected? C. Compressor power
A. Efficiency D. Mass flow rate
B. Work ANSWER: D
C. Heat added 13. By increasing the vaporizing temperature in vapor
D. Heat rejected compression cycle, which of the following will increase?
ANSWER: D (Use per unit mass analysis)
5. By decreasing the temperature sink of Carnot cycle, which A. mass flow rate
of the following will not be affected? B. COP
A. Efficiency C. specific volume at suction
B. Work D. compressor work
C. Heat added ANSWER: B
D. Heat rejected 14. By increasing the vaporizing temperature in vapor
ANSWER: C compression cycle, which of the following will decrease?
6. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle (Use per unit mass analysis)
with useful cooling, which of the following will increase? A. Refrigeration effect
(use per unit mass analysis) B. COP
A. Condenser pressure C. evaporator temperature
B. Evaporator pressure D. Temperature difference between evaporator and
C. Quality after expansion compressor
D. Heat rejected from condenser ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D 15. By increasing the condenser pressure in vapor compression
7. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle cycle, which of the following will increase? (Use per unit
with useful cooling, which of the following will decrease? mass analysis)
(use per unit mass analysis) A. moisture content after expansion
A. Refrigerated effect B. compressor power
B. COP C. heat rejected from condenser
C. Compressor power D. mass flow rate
D. Mass flow rate ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C 16. If the pressure drop in the condenser Increases in a vapor
8. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle compression cycle, which of the following will increase?
without useful cooling, which of the following will (Use per unit mass analysis)
decrease? (use per unit mass analysis) A. mass flow rate
A. Heat rejected B. compressor power
B. COP C. heat rejected in the condenser
C. Compressor power D. specific volume of suction
D. Specific volume at suction ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B 17. If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a vapor
9. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle compression cycle, which of the following will decrease?
without useful cooling, which of the following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)
(use per unit mass analysis) A. Refrigeration effect
A. Heat rejected B. mass flow rate
B. COP C. heat rejected in the condenser
C. Compressor power D. compressor power
D. Specific volume at suction ANSWER: B
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 5
18. If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a vapor D. cycle efficiency
compression cycle, which of the following will not be ANSWER: D
affected? (Use per unit mass analysis) 27. Is the combination of base load and peaking load.
A. compressor power A. rated load
B. mass flow rate B. intermediate load
C. heat rejection in the condenser c. combine load
D. COP D. over-all load
ANSWER: A ANSWER: B
19. If the pressure drop in the evaporator increases in a vapor 28. Sum of the maximum demand over the simultaneous
compression cycle, which of the following will increase? maximum demand.
(Use per unit mass analysis) A. use factor
A. Refrigerating effect B. capacity factor
B. vaporizing temperature C. demand factor
C. heat rejected in the condenser D. diversity factor
D. COP ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C 29. Regenerative with feed heating cycle with infinite number
20. If the pressure drop in the evaporator increases in a vapor of feedwater heaters thus efficiency is equal to:
compression cycle, which of the following will decrease? A. Otto cycle
(Use per unit mass analysis) B. Stirling cycle
A. specific volume at suction C. Ericson cycle
B. compressor power D. Carnot cycle
C. heat rejected in the condenser ANSWER: D
D. COP 30. A type of turbine used in desalination of sea water.
ANSWER: D A. back pressure turbine
21. By lowering the condenser pressure in Rankine cycle, which B. passout turbine
of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis) C. peaking turbine
A. pump work D. reaction turbine
B. turbine ANSWER: A
C. heat rejected 31. States that when conductor and magnetic field move
D. cycle efficiency relatively to each other, an electric voltage is induced in the
ANSWER: C conductor.
22. By increasing the boiler pressure in Rankine cycle, which of A. Maxwell’s law
the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis) B. Kirchoff’s law
A. heat rejected C. Faraday’s law
B. pump work D. Newtons law
C. cycle efficiency ANSWER: C
D. moisture 32. Transfers heat directly to electrical energy by utilizing
ANSWER: A thermionic emissions.
23. By superheating the steam to a higher temperature in A. Thermionic motor
Rankine cycle, which of the following will decrease? (Use B. Thermionic generator
per unit mass analysis) C. Thermionic converter
A. moisture content at the turbine exhaust D. Thermionic cell
B. turbine work ANSWER: B
C. heat added 33. When 1 gram of coal is subjected to a temperature of about
D. heat rejected 105⁰C for a period of 1 hour, the loss in weight of the
ANSWER: A sample gives the:
24. By superheating the steam to a higher temperature in A. volatile matter
Rankine cycle, which of the following will increase? (Use B. ash
per unit mass analysis) C. Fixed carbon
A. moisture content at the turbine exhaust D. moisture content
B. pump work ANSWER: D
C. condenser pressure 34. When 1 gram of sample of coal is placed in a crucible and
D. cycle efficiency heated 950⁰C and maintain at that temperature for 7
ANSWER: C minutes there is a loss in weight due to elimination of:
25. By reheating the steam before entering the second stage in A. volatile matter and moisture
Rankine cycle, which of the following will decrease? B. ash
A. turbine work C. Fixed carbon
B. moisture content after expansion D. moisture content
C. heat added ANSWER: A
D. heat rejected 35. Consist of hydrogen and certain hydrogen carbon
ANSWER: B compounds which can be removed from coal by heating.
26. When Rankine cycle is modified with regeneration, which A. moisture content
of the following will increase? B. product of combustion
A. turbine work C. ash
B. heat added D. volatile matter
C. heat rejected ANSWER: D
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 5
36. By heating 1 gram of coal in an uncovered crucible until the B. incompressible fluids
coal is completely burned, the __ will formed. C. compressible refrigerant
A. volatile matter and moisture D. compressible fluids
B. ash ANSWER: D
C. Fixed carbon 47. In Striling process, the heat is added during
D. moisture content A. Isobaric process
ANSWER: B B. Isentropic process
37. Caking coal are used to produce coke by heating in a coke C. Isothermal process
oven in the absence of __ with volatile matter driven off. D. Heat process
A. air ANSWER: C
B. oil 48. Brayton cycle is known as
C. oxygen A. Carnot cycle
D. nitrogen B. Joule cycle
ANSWER: A C. Carnot cycle
38. Grindability of standard coal is D. Rankine cycle
A. 80 ANSWER: B
B. 90 49. It is applied to propulsion of vehicle because of certain
C. 100 practical characteristics.
D. 110 A. Diesel cycle
ANSWER: C B. Otto cycle
39. Major constituent of all natural gases is C. Carnot cycle
A. Ethane D. Brayton cycle
B. Methane ANSWER: D
C. Propane 50. Heat exchangers typically involve
D. Cethane A. no work interaction
ANSWER: B B. no heat interaction
40. Two types of fans are: C. no energy interaction
A. centrifugal and axial D. none of these
B. reciprocating and axial ANSWER: D
C. centrifugal and rotary 51. A device that is used to convert the heat to work is called
D. tangential and rotary A. Adiabatic
ANSWER: A B. Regenerator
41. Enthalpy of substance at specified state due to chemical C. Heat engines
composition. D. None of these
A. enthalpy of reaction ANSWER: C
B. enthalpy of combustion 52. The objective of a heat pump is to maintain a heated space
C. enthalpy of formation at
D. enthalpy of product A. Low temperature
ANSWER: C B. High temperature
42. A type of boiler used for duper critical pressure operation. C. Medium temperature
A. La Mont boiler D. None of these
B. Once through-circulation boiler ANSWER: B
C. Force circulation boiler 53. A device that violates the second law of thermodynamics is
D. Natural circulation boiler called
ANSWER: B A. perpetual motion machine of second kind
43. Economizer in a water tube boiler is heated by: B. perpetual motion machine of third kind
A. electric furnace C. perpetual motion machine of the first kind
B. electric current D. none of these
C. incoming flue gas ANSWER: A
D. outgoing flue gas 54. A process is called _____ if no irreversibilities occur outside
ANSWER: D the system boundaries during the process.
44. Receives heat partly by convection and partly by radiation. A. externally reversible
A. radiant superheater B. internally reversible
B. desuperheater C. reversible
C. convective superheater D. none of these
D. pendant superheater ANSWER: A
ANSWER: D 55. An energy interaction which is not accompanied by entropy
45. Regenerative superheater is a storage type of heat transfer is
exchangers have an energy storage medium called. A. energy
A. matrix B. heat
B. regenerator C. work
C. Boiler D. none of these
D. Recuperator ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A 56. A _____ is used in aircraft engines and some automotive
46. Stirling cycle uses a ____ as working fluids. engine. In this method, a turbine driven by the exhaust
A. incompressible gas
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 5
gases is used to provide power to compressor or blower at 65. In Brayton cycle, the ____ during constant pressure
the inlet. process.
A. discharging A. work is added
B. turbocharging B. heat is transferred
C. supercharging C. pressure is rejected
D. scavenging D. energy is added
ANSWER: B ANSWER: B
57. The only device where the changes in kinetic energy are 66. The two major application areas of gas turbine engines are
significant are the A. driving automotive engine and locomotives
A. compressor B. heating and generation
B. pumps C. aircraft propulsion and electric power generation
C. nozzles and diffusers D. none of these
D. none of these ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C 67. The use of regenerator in is recommended only when the
58. The distance between TDC and BDC in which the piston can turbine exhaust temperature is higher than the
travel is the compressor.
A. right extreme position A. exit temperature
B. displacement stroke B. inlet temperature
C. stroke of the engine C. mean temperature
D. swept stroke D. absolute temperature
ANSWER: C ANSWER: A
59. In compression-engine the combustion of air-fuel mixture 68. As the number of stages is increased, the expansion
is self-ignited as a result of compressing the mixture above process becomes
its A. isentropic
A. self developed temperature B. isothermal
B. mixing temperature C. isometric
C. self feed temperature D. polytropic
D. self ignition temperature ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D 69. Aircraft gas turbines operate at higher pressure ratio
60. The thermal efficiency of an ideal Otto cycle depends typically between
_______ of the working fluid. A. 6 to 8
A. the pressure ratio of the engine and the specific ratio B. 12 to 24
B. the temperature ratio of the engine and the specific C. 10 to 18
ratio D. 10 to 25
C. the moles ratio of the engine and the specific heat ratio ANSWER: D
D. the compression ratio of the engine and the specific 70. The first commercial high-pass ratio engines has a bypass
heat ratio ratio of
ANSWER: D A. 1
61. Using monoatomic gas, the thermal efficiency of Otto cycle B. 3
A. increases C. 5
B. decreases D. 7
C. remains constant ANSWER: C
D. none of these 71. The single-stage expansion process of an ideal brayton
ANSWER: A cycle without regeneration is replace by a multistage
62. In diesel engine, combustion process during combustion expansion process with reheating between the same
occurs during pressure limits. As a result of modification, thermal
A. isothermal process efficiency will:
B. constant pressure process A. Increase
C. isentropic process B. Decrease
D. adiabatic C. Remain constant
ANSWER: B D. none of these
63. If the cutoff ratio decreases, the efficiency of diesel cycle ANSWER: B
A. increases 72. Which of the following is/are the application of Brayton
B. decreases cycle
C. remains constant A. Propulsion system
D. none of these B. Automotive Turbine Engines
ANSWER: A C. Aircraft Turbine engines
64. If Ericson cycle , the regeneration process occur during D. all of these
______ process. ANSWER: D
A. constant volume 73. It used as working fluid in high-temperature application of
B. constant temperature vapor cycle?
C. constant pressure A. Helium
D. none of these B. Deuterium
ANSWER: C C. Mercury
D. Water
ANSWER: C
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 5
74. The superheat vapor enters the turbine and expands 83. In an obvious reason for incomplete combustion
isentropically and produces work by the rating shaft. The A. insufficient carbon
_________ may drop, during the process. B. insufficient air
A. density C. insufficient nitrogen
B. Viscosity of fuel D. insufficient oxygen
C. Temperature and pressure ANSWER: D
D. none of these 84. Higher heating value when H20 in the product of
ANSWER: C combustion is in
75. Only________ of the turbine work output is required to A. solid form
operate the pump B. vapor form
A. 0.01% C. gas form
B. 0.02% D. liquid form
C. 0.03% ANSWER: D
D. 0.04% 85. Device which transfer heat from low temperature medium
ANSWER: D to a higher temperature one is a
76. Superheating the steam to higher temperature decreases A. adiabatic
the moisture content of the steam at the_______ B. refrigerator
A. turbine inlet C. heat exchanger
B. compression inlet D. heat pump
C. compressor exit ANSWER: D
D. turbine exit 86. A rule of thumb is that the COP improves by ______ for
ANSWER: D each C the evaporating temperature is raised or the
77. Regeneration also provides a convenient means a condensing temperature is lowered.
dearating the feedwater to prevent A. 2 to 4%
A. boiler explosion B. 6 to 7%
B. boiler scale production C. 1 to 5%
C. boiler corrosion D. 6 to 10%
D. compressor damage ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C 87. Are generally more expensive to purchase and install than
78. Can be apply in Steam turbine cycle (Rankine), gas turbine other heating systems, but they save money in the long run.
cycle (Brayton) and combined cycle A. Refrigerator
A. Hydroelectric plant B. Adiabatic
B. Nuclear power plant C. Heat pumps
C. Cogeneration plant D. Humidifier
D. Tidal power plant ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C 88. The most widely used absorption system is the ammonia-
79. In a Rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet conditions. What water system, where ammonia is serves as a refrigerant
is the effect of lowering the condenser pressure the heat and H20 as the
rejected will.: A. cooling
A. increase B. heating
B. decrease C. heating and cooling
C. remains the same D. transport medium
D. none of these ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B 89. The efficiency of all reversible heat engines operating
80. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser between the same two reservoir________
pressures. What is the effect of superheating the steam to A. Differ
a higher temperature, the pump work input will: B. Are the same
A. increase C. Are Unequal
B. decrease D. None of the above
C. remains the same ANSWER: B
D. none of these 90. A process with no heat transfer is known as
ANSWER: C A. isobaric process
81. How do the following quantities change when the simple B. adiabatic process
ideal Rankine cycle is modified with? The heat rejected: C. isothermal process
A. increase D. isothermal process
B. decrease ANSWER: B
C. remains the same 91. The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density
D. none of these of:
ANSWER: B A. mercury
82. During a combustion process, the components which exist B. oil
before the reaction are called C. gas
A. reaction D. water
B. combustion ANSWER: D
C. reactants
D. product
ANSWER: C
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 5
92. This type of heat exchanger allows fluids to flow at right C. extract energy from the flow
angles to each other D. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
A. Series flow ANSWER: B
B. Parallel flow 102. This law states that ‘all energy received as heat by a heat-
C. Cross flow engine cannot be converted into mechanical work’
D. Counter flow A. 1st law of thermodynamics
ANSWER: C B. 2nd law of thermodynamics
93. The fact the total energy in any one energy system remains C. 3rd law of thermodynamic
constant is called the principle of_____ D. all of the above
A. Conservation of Energy ANSWER: B
B. Second Law of Thermodynamics 103. The intensity of pressure that is measured above absolute
C. Conservation of Mass zero is called
D. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics A. gage pressure
ANSWER: A B. absolute pressure
94. A process for which the inlet and outlet enthalpies are the C. vacuum pressure
same D. saturation pressure
A. isenthalpic ANSWER: B
B. enthalpy conservation 104. This is the ratio of the heat equivalent of the brake or useful
C. throttling horsepower developed by an engine and available on its
D. steady state crankshaft to the heat during the same time
ANSWER: C A. brake engine efficiency
95. The sum of energies of all the molecules in system, energies B. indicated thermal efficiency
that appear in several complex forms C. combined thermal efficiency
A. kinetic energy D. brake thermal efficiency
B. internal energy ANSWER: D
C. external energy 105. Flow work is equal to pressure times _______
D. flow work A. temperature
ANSWER: B B. entropy
96. A system that is completely impervious to its surrounding. C. internal energy
Neither mass nor energy cross its boundaries D. specific volume
A. open system ANSWER: D
B. closed system 106. This form of energy is due to the position or elevation of
C. adiabatic system the body
D. isolated system A. internal energy
ANSWER: D B. kinetic energy
97. A device used to measure small and moderate pressure C. potential energy
difference D. work
A. manometer ANSWER: C
B. bourdon gage 107. Another term for constant volume process
C. barometer A. isometric
D. piezometer B. isochoric
ANSWER: A C. isovolumic
98. A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation D. all of the above
temperature corresponding to its pressure. ANSWER: D
A. superheated vapor 108. Work done by the steam during a reversible adiabatic
B. saturated vapor expansion process in the turbine
C. super saturated vapor A. brake work
D. subcooled vapor B. ideal work
ANSWER: A C. actual fluid work
99. The energy or stored capacity for performing work D. combine work
possessed by a moving body, by virtue of its momentum. ANSWER: B
A. internal energy 109. The efficiency of carnot cycle depends upon the
B. work A. pressure
C. gravitational potential energy B. entropy
D. kinetic energy C. volume
ANSWER: D D. temperature
100. The thermodynamic process wherein temperature is ANSWER: D
constant and the change in internal energy is zero 110. Is the heat required in a constant pressure process to
A. isobaric process completely vaporize a unit-mass of liquid at
B. isometric process A. a given temperature
C. isothermal process B. latent heat vaporization
D. polytropic process C. enthalpy of vaporization
ANSWER: C D. all of the above
101. The function of a pump and compressor is to ANSWER: D
A. transfer heat from one fluid to another
B. increase the total energy content of the flow
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 5
111. It is a commonly used device for measuring temperature prevents excessive concentration of soluble impurities in
differences or high temperatures. the boiler
A. thermistor A. blow-down line
B. thermocouple B. boiler feedwater pump
C. bimetallic strip C. steam valve
D. mercury in glass D. none of the above
ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
112. The science and technology concerned with precisely 121. Is a feedwater preheating and waste heat recovery device
measuring energy and enthalpy which utilizes the heat of the flue gases
A. thermodynamics a. economizer
B. chemistry b. open heater
C. calorimetry c. closed heater
D. none of the above d. waterwalls
ANSWER: C ANSWER: A
113. The rate of doing work per unit time 122. It is a heat exchanger which utilizes the heat of the flue
A. torque gases to preheat the air needed for combustion
B. power A. economizer
C. force B. feedwater heater
D. moment C. reheater
ANSWER: B D. air preheater
114. It an ideal rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser ANSWER: D
pressure. What is the effect of superheating the steam to a 123. It is a system of furnace cooling tubes which can extend the
higher temperature to the cycle thermal efficiency? evaporative capacity of the water-tube boiler and at the
A. the cycle thermal efficiency will increase same time protect the furnace walls from high
B. the cycle thermal efficiency will decrease temperature.
C. the cycle thermal efficiency will remain constant A. reheater
D. none of the above B. waterwalls
ANSWER: A C. superheater
115. A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation D. feedwater heater
temperature corresponding to the existing pressure ANSWER: B
A. superheated vapor 124. It is based on the generation of 34.5 lbm/hr of steam from
B. saturated vapor water at 212F and equivalent to 33500 btu/hr
C. wet vapor A. one hp
D. none of the above B. one kw
ANSWER: A C. one Boiler Hp
116. It is the work done in pushing a fluid across a boundary, D. none of the above
usually into or out a system ANSWER: C
A. mechanical work 125. It prevents boiler pressure from rising above a certain
B. non flow work predetermined pressure by opening to allow excess steam
C. flow work to escape into the atmosphere when that point is reached,
D. electrical work thus guarding against a possible expulsion through
ANSWER:C excessive pressure.
117. A liquid that has a temperature lower than the saturation A. relief valve
temperature corresponding to the existing pressure. B. safety valve
A. subcooled liquid C. fusible plug
B. saturated liquid D. pressure switches
C. unsaturated liquid ANSWER: B
D. water 126. In a water tube boiler, the water will pass through _____
ANSWER: A A. inside the tubes
118. This type of boiler, the water passes through the tubes B. outside the tubes
while the flue gases burn outside the tubes C. inside the shell
A. water column D. outside the shell
B. try cocks ANSWER: A
C. gauge glass 127. It is the temperature to which the air becomes saturated at
D. all of the above constant pressure
ANSWER: C A. dry bulb temperature
119. It prevents damage to the boiler by giving warning of low B. wet bulb temperature
water C. dew point temperature
A. safety valve D. saturation temperature
B. fusible plug ANSWER: C
C. relief valve 128. In a ______ cooling tower, the air moves horizontally
D. try cocks through the fills as the water moves downward.
ANSWER: B A. cross flow
120. It has several functions. When necessary it empties the B. counter flow
boiler for cleaning, inspection, or repair. It blows out mud C. parallel flow
scale, or sediment when the boiler is in operation and D. double flow
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 5
ANSWER: A ANSWER: C
129. It is the subject that deals with the behavior of moist air 138. The temperature measured by an ordinary thermometer
A. psychrometer A. wet bulb temp
B. psychrometry B. dry bulb temp
C. refrigeration C. dew point temp
D. pneumatics D. wet – bulb depression
ANSWER: B ANSWER: B
130. It is the ration of the mass of water vapor in a certain 139. The mass of water interspersed in each kilogram of dry air
volume of moist air at a given temperature to the mass of A. enthalpy
hot water in the same volume of saturated air at the same B. humidity ratio
temperature C. specific volume
A. humidity ratio D. relative humidity
B. specific humidity ANSWER: B
C. humidity 140. This system combines two vapor compression units with
D. relative humidity the condenser of the low temperature system discharge its
ANSWER: D heat to the evaporator of the high temperature system
131. Air whose condition is such that any decrease in A. cascade systems
temperature will result in condensation of water vapor into B. multistage system
liquid. C. binary system
A. saturated air D. multi pressure system
B. unsaturated air ANSWER: A
C. saturated vapor 141. A process of increasing the humidity ratio at constant dry
D. moist air bulb temperature
ANSWER: A A. dehumidifying process
132. It is the warm water temperature minus the cold water B. cooling process
temperature leaving the cooling tower C. heating process
A. approach D. humidifying process
B. terminal difference ANSWER: D
C. cooling range 142. The ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor in the air to
D. LMTD the saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature
ANSWER: C of the air
133. The temperature where the relative humidity becomes 100 A. humidity ratio
% and where the water vapor starts to condense is known B. relative humidity
as _____ C. specific humidity
A. dry bulb temperature D. moisture content
B. dewpoint temperature ANSWER: B
C. wet bulb temperature 143. In an air conditioning process that involves heating without
D. saturated temperature changing the moisture content of air. The process is
ANSWER: B represented by a horizontal line in the psychrometric chart,
134. The surrounding air ____ temperature is the lowest from left to right
temperature to which water could possibly be cooled in a A. sensible cooling process
cooling tower B. sensible heating process
A. dry bulb C. humidifying process
B. wet bulb D. heating and dehumidifying process
C. dew point ANSWER: B
D. saturation temperature 144. It is an air conditioning process of increasing the humidity
ANSWER: B ratio without changing the dry-bulb temperature of air. The
135. Which is not a major part of the vapor compression process is represented in the psychrometric chart by a
system? vertical line, from up to down
A. compressor A. sensible cooling process
B. condenser B. sensible heating process
C. evaporator C. humidifying process
D. refrigerant D. heating and dehumidifying process
ANSWER: D ANSWER: C
136. This refers to the rate of heat transfer attribute only to a 145. The temperature at which the water vapor content of moist
change in dry-bulb temperature air begins to condense when air is cooled at constant
A. sensible heating or cooling pressure
B. humidification A. dew point temp
C. dehumidification B. wet bulb temp
D. cooling and dehumidifying C. dry bulb temp
ANSWER: A D. condensing temp
137. It is a binary mixture of dry air and water-vapor ANSWER: A
A. dry air 146. It is the index of performance of a refrigeration system
B. saturated vapor which is a dimensionless quantity
C. moist air A. coefficient of performance
D. wet mixture B. energy ratio
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 5
C. energy efficiency
D. performance ratio
ANSWER: A
147. It is simply the compression of the gas in two or more
cylinders in place of a single cylinder compressor
A. intercooled compression
B. multistage compression
C. efficient compression
D. performance compression
ANSWER: B
148. The transfer of energy from the more energetic in two or
more energetic particles of a substance to the adjacent less
energetic ones as a result of interaction between the
particles
A. heat transfer
B. radiation
C. conduction
D. convection
ANSWER: C
149. What is the simultaneous control of temperature,
humidity, air movement, and quantity of air in space?
A. refrigeration
B. psychrometry
C. air conditioning
D. humidification
ANSWER: C
150. The non-condensing component of the moist air
A. hydrogen
B. water vapour
C. nitrogen
D. dry air
ANSWER: D
151. The substance used for heat transfer in a vapor
compression refrigerating system. It picks up heat by
evaporating at a low temperature and pressure and gives
up this heat by condensing at a higher temperature and
pressure
A. water
B. air
C. ammonia
D. gas
ANSWER: C
152. What is the pressure of the refrigerant between the
expansion valve and the intake of the compressor in a multi
pressure refrigeration system?
A. high side pressure
B. discharge pressure
C. condensing pressure
D. low side pressure
ANSWER: D
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 6
1. A vertical turbine pump with the jump and motor closed 10. Which of the following is equivalent to 1lb?
coupled and design to be installed underground, as in the A. 5000 grains
case of a deepwell pump. B. 6000 grains
A. Horizontal split case pump C. 7000 grains
B. Booster pump D. 8000 grains
C. Submersible pump ANSWER: C
D. Vertical shaft turbines pump 11. The bypass factor for large commercial units
ANSWER: C A. Around 20%
2. An underground formation that contains sufficient B. Around 30%
saturated permeable material to yield significant C. Around 10%
quantities of water D. Around 50%
A. Aquifer ANSWER: C
B. Ground water 12. Sometimes called specific humidity
C. Wet pit A. Relative humidity
D. Well water B. Absolute humidity
ANSWER: A C. Humidity ratio
3. A timber, concrete or masonry enclosure having a D. Saturation ratio
screened inlet kept partially filled with water by an open ANSWER: C
body of water such as pond, lake, or steams. 13. For any given barometric pressure, the humidity ratio is a
A. Aquifer function of the
B. Ground water A. Critical temperature
C. Wet pit B. Dew point temperature
D. Well water C. Dry bulb temperature
ANSWER: C D. Wet bulb temperature
4. Water which is available from well, driven into water ANSWER: B
bearing subsurface strata (aquifer) 14. The humidity ratio corresponding to any given dew point
A. Aquifer temperature varies with the total barometric pressure,
B. Ground water increasing as the barometric pressure
C. Wet pit A. Increases
D. Well water B. Decreases
ANSWER: B C. Varies
5. Imparts velocity to the liquid, resulting from centrifugal D. Constant
force as the impeller is rotated. ANSWER: B
A. Impeller 15. The ratio of the mass of water vapor in the air per unit
B. Stuffing box mass of dry to the mass of water vapor requires for
C. Casing saturation of the same air sample
D. Shaft sleeve A. Relative humidity
ANSWER: A B. Absolute humidity
6. A means of throttling the leakage which would otherwise C. Humidity ratio
occur at the point of entry of the shaft into the casing. D. Saturation ratio
A. Impeller ANSWER: D
B. Stuffing box 16. A closed channel excavated through an obstruction such
C. Casing as a ridge of higher land between the dam and the
D. Shaft sleeve powerhouse is called
ANSWER: B A. Canal
7. Protect the shaft where it passes through the stuffing box. B. Headrace
A. Impeller C. Penstock
B. Stuffing box D. Tunnel
C. Casing ANSWER: D
D. Shaft sleeve 17. The small reservoir in which the water level rises or falls
ANSWER: D to reduce the pressure swings so that they are not
8. The ratio of the actual vapor density to the vapor density transmitted to the closed conduit is called
at saturation A. Penstock
A. Relative humidity B. Power reservoir
B. Absolute humidity C. Pressure tank
C. Humidity ratio D. Tunnel
D. Saturation ratio ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A 18. The regulation of the water in the form of a relatively small
9. An expression of the mass of water vapor per unit mass of pond of reservoir provided at the plant is called
dry air A. Pondage
A. Relative humidity B. Water storage
B. Absolute humidity C. Reservoir
C. Humidity ratio D. Lake
D. Saturation ratio ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 6
19. A structure used to relieve the reservoir of excess water A. 2000 psi
A. Spillway B. 4000 psi
B. Diversion channel C. 8000 psi
C. Butress dam D. 10,000 psi
D. Arch dam ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A 29. In a sensible heating process the final humidity ratio is:
20. The fluid pressure difference created by column of heated A. Increased
gas, as by7 chimney is called B. Decreased
A. Natural draft C. The same
B. Forced draft D. Cannot be determined
C. Induce draft ANSWER: C
D. Required draft 30. In an adiabatic saturation process the final relative
ANSWER: A humidity is:
21. The pressure rise from greater to a lesser vacuum, created A. Increased
in a gas loop between stream generator outlet and B. Decreased
chimney by means of a fan is called C. The same
A. Forced draft D. Cannot be determined
B. Induced draft ANSWER: A
C. Required draft 31. Cooling and dehumidifying process is commonly used for:
D. Balanced draft A. Summer air conditioning
ANSWER: B B. Ice making
22. Also known as Francis turbines or radial flow turbines C. Winter cooling
A. Impulse turbines D. Heat pumping
B. Tangential turbines ANSWER: A
C. Reaction turbines 32. An adiabatic saturation process is also known as:
D. Axial flow turbines A. Constant WB temperature process
ANSWER: C B. Constant DB temperature process
23. The turbine, draft tube and all related parts comprise C. Constant DP temperature process
what is known as D. Constant vapor temperature process
A. Powerhouse ANSWER: A
B. Forbay 33. For efficient operation, the condensing temperature
C. Setting should not be lower than
D. Surge chamber A. 5 C
ANSWER: C B. 17 C
24. When a forbay is not part of the generating plant’s design, C. 10 C
it will be desirable to provide a _________ in order to D. 20 C
relieve the effects of rapid changes in flowrate. ANSWER: A
A. Forbay 34. For efficient operation, the condensing temperature
B. Draft tube should not be more than
C. Surge chamber A. 5 C
D. Penstock B. 17 C
ANSWER: C C. 10 C
25. To keep the deflected jet out of the way of the incoming D. 20 C
jet, the actual angle is limited to approximately ANSWER: B
A. 90 deg. 35. The process of simultaneous heating and dehumidifying is
B. 135 deg. known as:
C. 165 deg. A. Sensible heating
D. 175 deg. B. Cooling and dehumidifying
ANSWER: C C. Sensible cooling
26. The minimum fluid energy required at the pump inlet for D. Chemical dehumidifying
satisfactory operation is known as ANSWER: D
A. NPSHR 36. The process in increasing the dry-bulb temperature
B. NPSHA without changing the humidity ratio is known as:
C. Velocity head A. Sensible heating
D. Friction head B. Cooling and dehumidifying
ANSWER: A C. Sensible cooling
27. Throttling the input line to a pump and venting or D. Heating and dehumidifying
evacuating the receiving tank ANSWER: A
A. Both increase cavitation 37. The process of simultaneous cooling and decreasing of
B. Both decrease cavitation humidity ratio is known as:
C. Both eliminate cavitation A. Sensible cooling
D. Both drive cavitation B. Cooling and humidifying
ANSWER: A C. Cooling and dehumidifying
28. Traditional reciprocating pumps with pistons and rods can D. Heating and dehumidifying
be either single-acting or double acting and are suitable ANSWER: C
up to approximately
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 6
38. The process of cooling without changing the humidity A. Increases
ratio is known as: B. Decreases
A. Sensible heating C. Remain the same
B. Cooling and dehumidifying D. Internal energy has no relation to the compression
C. Sensible cooling process
D. Heating and humidifying ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C 48. The measure of the amount of thermal energy transfer
39. The process of simultaneous heating and humidifying occurring within the evaporator per unit mass under
ratio is known as: stated conditions.
A. Sensible cooling A. Refrigeration capacity
B. Cooling and humidifying B. Heat capacity
C. Heating and humidifying C. Refrigeration effect
D. Heating and dehumidifying D. Heat absorptivity
ANSWER: C ANSWER: C
40. Which of the following cycle is bulky and involves toxic 49. The peak power that can be produced on an occasional
fluids hence it is unsuitable for home and auto cooling basis
A. Carnot refrigeration cycle A. Brakepower
B. Absorption cycle B. Intermittent rating
C. Vapor and compression cycle C. Continuous duty rating
D. Air refrigeration cycle D. Power rating
ANSWER: B ANSWER: B
41. Which of the following refrigeration cycle is practical 50. A value of a property that includes the effect of friction is
when large quantities of waste or inexpensive heat energy known as:
are available? A. Brake value
A. Reciprocating compressors B. Indicated value
B. Centrifugal compressors C. Friction value
C. Rotary compressors D. Actual value
D. Scroll compressors ANSWER: A
ANSWER: D 51. Forced draft fans are run at relatively high speeds in the
42. Condensers used in small and medium sized up to range of
approximately 100 tons refrigerators A. 1200 to 1800 rpm
A. Air-cooled condensers B. 1500 to 2000 rpm
B. Water cooled condensers C. 1000 to 1600 rpm
C. High side condensers D. 900 to 1500 rpm
D. Low side condensers ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A 52. Chimneys that rely on natural draft are sometimes
43. An evaporator in a refrigeration unit makes use of which referred to as
heat transfer modes? A. Natural chimney
A. Conduction B. Normal chimney
B. Convection C. Gravity chimney
C. Radiation D. Stack
D. All of the above ANSWER: C
ANSWER: D 53. For realistic problems, the achievable stack effect
44. Energy added to a vapor is known as a latent heat of probably should be considered to be
vaporization A. 75% of the ideal
A. Latent heat of vaporization B. Equal to the ideal
B. Sensible heat of vapor C. 80 % of the ideal
C. Superheat D. Half the ideal
D. B and C ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C 54. In a balanced system, the available draft is
45. The vaporization process that occurs at temperature A. Unity
below the triple point of a substance is called. B. 100
A. Evaporation C. Zero
B. Boiling D. Infinite
C. Sublimation ANSWER: C
D. Condensation 55. It is a device used for atomizing or cracking fuel oil and
ANSWER: C through which the fuel oil is injected into the working
46. As the pressure increases, the amount of work it can do cylinders of Diesel engines
increases and its enthalpy A. Atomizer
A. Increases B. Injector
B. Remained the same C. Fuel spray nozzle
C. Decreases D. Cracker
D. Pressure and enthalpy has no relation at all ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A 56. The device that transfer thermal energy from one fluid to
47. During the compression process, the internal energy of another
the refrigerant vapor A. Condenser
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 6
B. Feedwater C. Cooling duty
C. Evaporator D. Rating factor
D. Heat exchanger ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D 67. Evaporation loss can be calculated from the humidity ratio
57. Undergrounds system of hot water and / or steam increase and is approximately _________ decrease in
A. Hydrothermal resource water temperature
B. Geothermal resource A. 0.18% per C
C. Hot water resource B. 0.25% per C
D. High pressure water system C. 0.10% per C
ANSWER: A D. 0.30% per C
58. The process of returning spent geothermal fluids to the ANSWER: A
subsurface Is called 68. Water lost in small droplet and carried away by the air
A. Injection flow
B. Returning A. Range
C. Rejection B. Approach
D. Exhaustion C. Drift
ANSWER: A D. Bleed-off
59. The simultaneous demand of all customers required at ANSWER: C
any specified point in an electric power system is called 69. The ratio of total dissolved solids in the recirculating water
A. Demand to the total dissolved solids in the make-up water.
B. Electrical demand A. Ratio of concentration
C. Power demand B. Cooling efficiency
D. Load C. Coil efficiency
ANSWER: D D. Bypass factor
60. The electricity generating plants that are operated to ANSWER: A
meet the peak or maximum load on the system are called 70. A dry-cooling tower where steam travels through large
A. Peaking plants diameter “trunks” to a cross-flow heat exchanger where it
B. High-load plants is condensed and cooled by the cooler air
C. High demanding plants A. Direct condensing tower
D. Add-on plants B. Indirect condensing dry cooling tower
ANSWER: A C. Evaporative cooling tower
61. The capacity of a substance to transmit a fluid is called D. Atmospheric cooling tower
A. Fluidity ANSWER: A
B. Permeability 71. The minimum fluid energy required at the pump inlet for
C. Porosity satisfactory operation is known as
D. Smoothness A. NPSHR
ANSWER: B B. NPSHA
62. The ratio of the aggregate volume pore spaces in rock or C. Velocity head
soil to its total volume is called D. Friction head
A. Porosity ANSWER: A
B. Sphericity 72. The actual fluid energy at the inlet
C. Permeability A. NPSHR
D. Salinity B. NPSHA
ANSWER: A C. Velocity head
63. Cooling efficiency is typically D. Friction head
A. 75 to 80% ANSWER: B
B. 50 to 70% 73. Throttling the input line to a pump and venting or
C. 80 to 85% evacuating the receiver tank
D. 90 to 95% A. Both increase cavitation
ANSWER: B B. Both decrease cavitation
64. Forced draft towers can cool the water to within C. Both eliminate cavitation
A. 10 to12 F D. Both drive cavitation
B. 5 to 6 F ANSWER: A
C. 20 to 24 F 74. Traditional reciprocating pumps with pistons and rods can
D. 2.5 to 3 F be either single-acting or double acting and are suitable
ANSWER: B up to approximately
65. The higher the wet bulb temperatures A. 2000 psi
A. The higher the efficiency B. 4000 psi
B. The lower the efficiency C. 8000 psi
C. The efficiency is limited D. 10,000 psi
D. The efficiency is maximum ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B 75. Plunger pumps are only single-acting and are suitable up
66. Define the relative difficulty in cooling, essentially the to approximately
relative amount of contact area or fill volume required A. 2000 psi
A. Heat load B. 4000 psi
B. Tower load C. 8000 psi
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 6
D. 10,000 psi 85. The effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given
ANSWER: D temperature,
76. The ratio of the actual to the ideal heat transfer A. Absorptivity
coefficient. B. Conductivity
A. Fouling factor C. Emissivity
B. Sensible heat ratio D. Reflectivity
C. Cleanliness factor ANSWER: C
D. Biot number 86. What are the main components in a combined cycle
ANSWER: C power plant?
77. The ratio of the maximum to minimum mass steam flow A. Diesel engine and air compressor
rates at which the temperature can be accurately B. Steam boiler and turbine
contained by the desuperheater. C. Gas engine and waste heat boiler
A. Cleanliness factor D. Nuclear reactor and steam boiler
B. Capacity factor ANSWER: C
C. Turndown ratio 87. The size of a steam reciprocating pumps is generally
D. Fouling factor designed by a three-digits number size as 646. The first
ANSWER: C digit designates
78. With a reversible regenerator, the thermal efficiency of A. Stroke of the pump in inches
the Ericsson cycle is ______ to that of the Carnot cyle B. Inside diameter of the steam cylinder measured in
A. Less than inches
B. Greater than C. Percent clearance
C. Proportional D. Number of cylinder
D. Equal ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D 88. The power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid
79. The electron magnetic radiation emitted from the against a given head with no losses in the pump is called
daughter nucleus when an alpha particles leaves the A. Wheel power
patent atom B. Brake power
A. Neutron C. Hydraulic power
B. Position D. Indicated power
C. Gamma ray ANSWER: C
D. K-capture 89. Fluid that are pumped in processing work are frequently
ANSWER: C more viscous than water. Which of the following
80. Which of the following statement is a scheme for energy statement is correct?
storage? A. Reynolds number varies directly as the viscosity
A. Pumped hydro B. Efficiency of a pump increases as the viscosity increases
B. Magnetic energy storage C. Increased fluid friction between the pump parts and the
C. Thermal energy storage passing fluid increases useful work
D. All of the above D. Working head increases as the viscosity
ANSWER: D ANSWER: C
81. A reactor that employs fast or high energy neutrons and 90. The law that states “Entropy of all perfect crystalline solids
contains no moderator is called is zero at absolute zero temperature”
A. High energy reactor A. Zeroth law of thermodynamic
B. Fast reactor B. First law of thermodynamics
C. High speed reactor C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Turbo reactor D. Third law of thermodynamics
ANSWER: B ANSWER: D
82. A reactor that utilizes slow moving neutrons 91. An expression of the mass of water vapor per unit mass of
A. Slow reactor dry air
B. Intermediate reactor A. Relative humidity
C. Thermal reactor B. Absolute humidity
D. Slow speed reactor C. Humidity ratio
ANSWER: C D. Saturation ratio
83. The water bearing stratum of permeable san, rock, or ANSWER: C
gravel is called 92. Which of the following is equivalent to 1 lb?
A. Reservoir A. 5000 grains
B. Water source B. 6000 grains
C. Aquifer C. 7000 grains
D. Well D. 8000 grains
ANSWER: C ANSWER: C
84. The electricity generating units that are operated to meet 93. The locus of states that the same value of stagnation
the constant or minimum load on the system is called enthalpy and mass flux is called.
A. Constant load plants A. Fanno line
B. Baseload plants B. Reyleigh line
C. Invariable load plants C. Willian’s line
D. Steady load plants D. Mollier’s line
ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 6
94. Combining the conservation of mass and momentum
equations into a single equation and plotting it on the h-s
diagram yield a curve called
A. Fanno line
B. Reyleigh line
C. Willian’s line
D. Mollier’s line
ANSWER: B
95. Across the shock, the stagnation temperature of an ideal
gas
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. Proportional
ANSWER: C
96. Which of the following types of air dryers works by
absorbing moisture on a solid dessicant or drying material
such as activated alumina, silicon gel or molecular sieve?
A. Regenerative dryer
B. Spray dryer
C. Deliquescent dryer
D. Refrigerated dryer
ANSWER: C
97. When two bodies, isolated from other environment, are
in thermal equilibrium with a third body, the two are in
thermal equilibrium with each other.
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamic
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
ANSWER: A
98. The sum of the energies of all the molecules in a system
where energies appear in several complex forms is the
A. Kinetic energy
B. Internal energy
C. Potential energy
D. Friction energy
ANSWER: B
99. The Carnot refrigeration cycle includes all of the following
process except
A. Isentropic expansion
B. Isenthalpic expansion
C. Isothermal expansion
D. Isentropic compression
ANSWER: B
100. The maximum possible work that can be obtained a cycle
operating between two reservoirs is found from
A. Process irreversibility
B. Carnot efficiency
C. Availability
D. Reversible work
ANSWER: B
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 7
1. The following factors are necessary to define a 10. After the water passes through the turbine, it is discharges
thermodynamic cycle expect through the draft tube to the receiving reservoir known as
A. The working substance the
B. High and low temperature reservoirs A. Tail race
C. The time it takes to complete the cycle B. Tailwater
D. The means of doing work on the system C. Draft tube
ANSWER: C D. Setting
2. A temperature above which a given gas cannot be ANSWER: A
liquefied 11. The turbine, draft tube and all related parts comprise
A. Cryogenic temperature what is known as
B. Absolute temperature A. Powerhouse
C. Vaporization temperature B. Forbay
D. Critical temperature C. Setting
ANSWER: D D. Surge chamber
3. The geometrical electricity generating plants that employs ANSWER: C
a closed-loop heat exchange system in which the heat of 12. When a forbay is not part of the generating plant’s design,
the primary fluid is transferred to a secondary fluid, which it will be desirable to provide a ________ in order to
is thereby vaporized and used to drive a turbine generator relieve the effects of rapid changes in flowrate.
set A. Forbay
A. Binary cycle plant B. Draft tube
B. Dual cycle plant C. Surge chamber
C. Double cycle plant D. Penstock
D. Cascade cycle ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A 13. To keep the deflected jet out of the way of the incoming
4. The geothermal solution which contains appreciable jet, the actual angle is limited to approximately
amounts of sodium chloride or other salts is called A. 90 deg.
A. Sulfur dioxide B. 135deg.
B. Potassium silicate C. 165 deg.
C. Sea water D. 175deg.
D. Brine ANSWER: C
ANSWER: D 14. The spontaneous vaporization of the fluid, resulting in a
5. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of degradation of pump performance.
one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit at standard A. Cavitation
conditions. B. Vapor lock
A. BTU C. Available head
B. Calorie D. Net head
C. Joule ANSWER: A
D. Centigrade 15. A dry cooling tower where steam is condensed by cold
ANSWER: A water jets (surface or jet condenser)
6. The process that uses a stream of geothermal of hot water A. Direct condensing tower
or stream to perform successive task requiring temp is B. Indirect condensing dry cooling tower
called C. Evaporative cooling tower
A. Diminishing heat D. Atmospheric cooling tower
B. Decreasing heat ANSWER: B
C. Cascading heat 16. If the heat is being removed from water, the device is
D. Negative gradient process known as
ANSWER: C A. Chiller
7. The water formed by condensation of steam is called B. Cooler
A. Distilled water C. Air conditioner
B. Condensate D. Air cooler
C. Dew ANSWER: A
D. Condenser 17. Which of the following is the refrigerant “of choice” in
ANSWER: B uniting air conditioners?
8. A structure that removes heat from condensate is called A. R-22
A. Desuperheater B. R-123
B. Cooling tower C. R-11
C. Evaporator D. R-502
D. Condenser ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B 18. In new equipment, which of the following replace R-11?
9. In a typical hydroelectric generating plant using reaction A. R-12
turbines, the turbine is generally housed in a B. R-123
A. Powerhouse C. R-502
B. Penstock D. R-22
C. Forbay ANSWER: B
D. Setting 19. The mass flow rate produces by the compressor is
ANSWER: A
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 7
A. Proportional to the mass of the suction vapor that the A. Servomotor
compressor takes in at the suction inlet per unit time B. Indicator
B. Equal to the mass of the suction vapor that the C. Governors
compressor takes in at the suction inlet per unit time D. Speedometer
C. Less than the mass of the suction vapor that the ANSWER: C
compressor takes in at the suction inlet per unit time 29. The useful energy transfer in Btu/hr divided by input
D. Greater that the mass of the suction vapor that the power in watts. This is just the coefficient of performance
compressor takes in at the suction inlet per unit time expressed in mixed units.
ANSWER: B A. Energy efficient ratio
20. A boiler operated at pressure not exceeding 1.055kg/cm2 B. Coil efficient
gage steam, or water temperature no exceeding 121˚C. C. Bypass factor
A. Low pressure heating boiler D. Sensible heat ratio
B. Hot water supply boiler ANSWER: A
C. Miniature 30. If EER is the energy efficiency ratio, and COP is the
D. Power boiler coefficient of performance then
ANSWER: A A. EER = 3.41COP
21. The very hot steam that doesn’t occur with a liquid B. COP = 3.41EER
A. Pure steam C. EER x COP = 3.41
B. Saturated vapor D. 3.41EER x COP = 1
C. Critical steam ANSWER: A
D. Dry steam 31. Which of the following is a reversed Rankine vapor cycle?
ANSWER: D A. Carnot refrigeration cycle
22. The steam produced when the pressure on a geothermal B. Vapor refrigeration cycle
liquid is reduced C. Air refrigeration cycle
A. Low pressure steam D. Absorption cycle
B. High quality steam ANSWER: B
C. Sub pressure steam 32. The most common type of refrigeration cycle, finding
D. Flashed steam application in household refrigerators, air conditioners for
ANSWER: D cars and houses, chillers and so on.
23. The vent or hole in the Earth surface, usually in a volcanic A. Carnot refrigeration cycle
region, from which, gaseous vapors, or hot gasses issue B. Vapor refrigeration cycle
A. Fumaroles C. Air refrigeration cycle
B. Crater D. Absorption cycle
C. Hot spot ANSWER: B
D. Hot spring 33. Which of the following is a reserved Brayton cycle?
ANSWER: A A. Carnot refrigeration cycle
24. The earth interior heat made available to man by B. Vapor refrigeration cycle
extracting it from hot water or rocks. C. Air refrigeration cycle
A. Geological heat D. Absorption cycle
B. Geothermal heat ANSWER: C
C. Volcanic heat 34. A 100kg is at 0˚C is heated by supplying 2000KJ of heat to
D. None of these it. If the heat of fusion is 335kJ/kg how many kilograms of
ANSWER: B ice will melt into water?
25. Device that takes advantage of the relatively constant A. 8 kg
temperature of the Earth’s interior, using it as a source B. 10 kg
and sink of heat for both heating and cooling. C. 6 kg
A. Geothermal devices D. 3 kg
B. Geothermal generator ANSWER: C
C. Geothermal heat pumps 35. Determine the quantity of latent heat transferred to an
D. Geothermal turbines evaporator when 5 kg of water undergoes those changes
ANSWER: C from a liquid at 0˚C to ice at 0˚C.
26. The spring that shoots jets of hot water and steam into the A. 1,300 kJ
air is called B. 1,675 kJ
A. Geyser C. 1,450 kJ
B. Hot jet D. 1,800 kJ
C. Thermal jet ANSWER: B
D. Guyshen 36. Compute the rate of water transfer by melting an ice at a
ANSWER: A rate of 50 kg/hr.
27. What is the power seat width of a spray valve? A. 8 kJ/sec
A. 1/16 in. B. 10 kJ/sec
B. 1/32 in. C. 5 kJ/sec
C. 1/8 in. D. 12 kJ/sec
D. 1/4 in. ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A 37. 10 kg of water at 60˚C receives 42,000kJ of heat coming
28. A device which automatically governs or controls the from the surrounding. Assuming it is open to the
speed of an engine.
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 7
atmosphere, how many kilograms of water will be C. Tangential turbines
vaporized? D. Axial flow turbines
A. 18 kg ANSWER: A
B. 15 kg 47. Weight per unit volume is termed as:
C. 10 kg A. Specific gravity
D. 20 kg B. Specific density
ANSWER: A C. Weight density
38. As the liquid changes phase to vapor, its enthalpy D. Pressure
A. Increases ANSWER: C
B. Decreases 48. Measure of hotness or coldness of the body
C. Remains constant A. Pressure
D. Enthalpy has no relation to phase change B. Temperature
ANSWER: A C. Energy
39. Which of the following processes does not alter the kinetic D. Entropy
energy level of a substance? ANSWER: B
A. Fusion 49. The temperature at which the water vapor in the air
B. Adding sensible heat to a solid begins to condensed, or the temperature at which the
C. Adding sensible heat to a liquid relative humidity of air becomes 100%.
D. Superheating a vapor A. Flash point
ANSWER: A B. Boiling point
40. Condensers used for larger capacities refrigerators. C. Dew point
A. Air-cooled condensers D. Freezing point
B. Water-cooled condensers ANSWER: C
C. High side condensers 50. It consists of a wet and dry bulb thermometers mounted
D. Low side condenser on a strip of metal
ANSWER: B A. Manometer
41. Coolers and chillers for water generally operate with an B. Gyrometer
average temperature difference of C. Pyrometer
A. 3 to 11 °C D. Sling psychrometer
B. 5 to 8 °C ANSWER: D
C. 6 to 22 °C 51. A manometer is an instrument that is used to measure:
D. 10 to 16 °C A. Air pressure
ANSWER: A B. Condensate water level
42. To avoid freezing problems, entering refrigerant should be C. Heat radiation
A. Below -2 °C D. Air volume
B. Above -2 °C ANSWER: A
C. Equal to -2 °C 52. The relationship of water vapor in the air at the dew point
D. 0 °C temperature to the amount that should be in the air if the
ANSWER: B air were saturated at the dry-bulb temperature is:
43. Suction lines should not be sized too large, as reasonable A. Partial pressure actual dew point
velocity is needed to carry oil from the evaporator back to B. Percentage humidity
the compressor. For horizontal suction lines, the C. Relative humidity
recommended minimum velocity is D. Run faster
A. 3.8 m/s ANSWER: A
B. 6.1 m/s 53. All of the following statements about wet bulb
C. 7.1 m/s temperature are true, EXCEPT
D. 4.8 m/s A. Wet bulb temperature equals adiabatic saturation
ANSWER: A temperature
44. Type of turbine used for low heads, high rotational speeds B. Wet bulb temperature is the only temperature
and larger flow rates necessary to determine grains water per lb of dry air
A. Axial flow turbines C. Wet bulb temperature lies numerically between dew
B. Reaction turbines point and dry bulb temperature for unsaturated systems
C. Radial flow turbines D. Wet bulb temperature equals both dry-bulb and dew
D. Impulse turbines point temperature at 100% relative humidity
ANSWER: A ANSWER: C
45. To keep the deflected jet out of the way of the incoming 54. Heat added to or removed from a substance that cause a
jet, the actual angle is limited to approximately change of temperature:
A. 135 deg. A. Absolute heat
B. 150 deg. B. Latent heat
C. 165 deg. C. Specific heat
D. 175 deg. D. Sensible heat
ANSWER: C ANSWER: D
46. Which of the following turbines are centrifugal pumps 55. The ratio of the actual to the ideal heat transfer
operating in reverse? coefficient.
A. Reaction turbines A. Fouling factor
B. Impulse turbines B. Sensible heat ratio
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 7
C. Cleanliness factor 64. A channel which leads water to a turbine is called
D. Biot number A. Canal
ANSWER: C B. Tailrace
56. The ratio of the maximum to minimum mass steam flow C. Penstock
rates at which the temperature can be accurately D. Headrace
contained by the desuperheater. ANSWER: D
A. Cleanliness factor 65. Sometimes called percentage humidity
B. Capacity factor A. Relative humidity
C. Turndown ratio B. Absolute humidity
D. Fouling factor C. Humidity ratio
ANSWER: C D. Saturation ratio
57. Used to described the act of blowing the exhaust product ANSWER: D
out with the air-fuel mixture 66. When measuring ____________ of air, the bulb of the
A. Supercharging thermometer should be shaded to reduce the effect of
B. Scavenging direct radiation
C. Honing A. Dry bulb temperature
D. Choking B. Wet bulb temperature
ANSWER: B C. Critical temperature
58. A form of supercharging in which the exhaust gases drive D. Saturation temperature
the supercharger ANSWER: A
A. Lugging 67. An ordinary thermometer whose bulb is enclosed in a
B. Honing wetted cloth sac or wick
C. Turbocharging A. Dry bulb thermometer
D. Blower charging B. Wet bulb thermometer
ANSWER: C C. Ordinary thermometer
59. The maximum speed of the turbine under no and no D. Mercury thermometer
governing action is called ANSWER: B
A. Runaway speed 68. To obtain an accurate reading with a wet bulb
B. Pre governing speed thermometer, the wick should be saturated with
C. Governing speed A. Clean air
D. No load governing B. Vapor
ANSWER: A C. Moist
60. Which of the following statements is false when gasoline D. Clean water
is used as diesel fuel. ANSWER: A
A. Gasoline does not ignite 69. The amount by which the wet bulb temperature is
B. Gasoline wears the fuel-injection pumps because of its reduced below the dry bulb temperature depends on the
low viscosity relative humidity of the air and is collective
C. Addition of lubrication oil to gasoline will just severe the A. Range
situation B. Approach
D. All of the above C. Drify
ANSWER: C D. Wet bulb depression
61. Which of the following is an advantage of hydro-plants? ANSWER: D
A. Hydro plants provide ancillary benefits like irrigation, 70. The measure of the relationship between the dry bulb and
flood control, aquaculture navigation etc. dewpoint temperature of the air and as such, it provides a
B. Modern hydro generators give high efficiency over convenient means of Dewpoint temperature of the air
considerable range of load. This helps in improving the when the dry bulb temperature is known
system A. Wet bulb temperature
C. Due to its great ease of taking up and throwing off the B. Saturation temperature
load, the hydro power can be used as the ideal spinning C. Humidity ratio
reserve in a system mix of the thermal, hydro and power D. Relative humidity
station ANSWER: A
D. All of the above 71. An index of the total heat (enthalpy) of the air
ANSWER: B A. Wet bulb temperature
62. The hole area behind the dam draining into a stream or B. Saturation temperature
river across which dam has been constructed is called C. Dry bulb temperature
A. Lake D. Dewpoint temperature
B. Forebay ANSWER: A
C. Catchment area 72. The sensible heat of the air is a function of the
D. Reserve potential A. Wet bulb temperature
ANSWER: C B. Dry bulb temperature
63. Dams constructed primarily to store flood waters called C. Dewpoint temperature
A. Storage dams D. Saturation temperature
B. Diversion dams ANSWER: B
C. Detention dam 73. The latent heat of the air is a function of the
D. None of the above A. Wet bulb temperature
ANSWER: C B. Dry bulb temperature
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 7
C. Dewpoint temperature gases would have if each occupied total mixture volume
D. Saturation temperature alone as the same temperature.
ANSWER: A A. Gibbs theorem
74. Which is not a viscosity rating? B. Dalton’s theorem
A. Redwood C. Boltzmann’s theorem
B. SSU D. Maxwell’s theorem
C. Centipoise ANSWER: A
D. Entropy Degrees API 84. A small enough particles suspended in a fluid will exhibit
ANSWER: D small random movements due to the statistical collision of
75. Percent excess air is the difference between the air actually fluid molecules on the particle’s surface. this motion is
supplied and the theoretically required divided by called _____.
A. the theoretically air supplied A. Boltzmann Motion
B. the actually air supplied B. Rectilinear Motion
C. the defiency of air supplied C. Kinetic Gas Motion
D. the sufficient air supplied D. Brownian Motion
ANSWER: A ANSWER: D
76. What is the apparatus used in the analysis of combustible 85. When two or more light atoms have sufficient
gases? energy(available only at high temperature and velocities)
A. calorimeter differential to fuse together to form a heavier nucleus the process is
B. calorimeter gas called _____.
C. calorimetry A. Fusion
D. calorimeter B. Fission
ANSWER: D C. The Photoelectric Effect
77. Percent excess air is the difference between the air actually D. The Compton Effect
supplied and the theoretical air divided by ANSWER: A
A. the sufficient air supplied 86. What is the residue left after combustion of a fossil fuel?
B. the deficiency air supplied A. Charcoal
C. the actual air supplied B. Ash
D. the theoretically air supplied C. Craper
ANSWER: D D. All if the choices
78. The viscosity of most commercially available petroleum ANSWER: B
lubricating oil changes rapidly above 87. What is formed during incomplete combustion of carbon in
A. 120 °F fuels?
B. 180 °F A. Carbon Dioxide
C. 150 °F B. Carbon Monoxide
D. 130 °F C. Nitrogen Oxide
ANSWER: B D. Oxygenated Fuel
79. When 1 mol carbon combines with 1 mol oxygen ANSWER: B
A. 2 mols carbon dioxide 88. A gas produced by the combustion of fuel oil and cannot be
B. 1 mol carbon dioxide found in the flue gases is:
C. 1 mol carbon and 1 mol carbon dioxide A. Oxygen
D. 1 mol carbon dioxide B. Nitrogen
ANSWER: B C. Hydrogen
80. What are the immediate undesirable products from the D. Carbon Dioxide
petroleum based lubricating oil when subjected to high ANSWER: C
pressure and temperature? 89. Which of the following chemical reactions in which heat is
A. gums, resins and acids absorbed?
B. sulfur A. Heat Reaction
C. soots and ashes B. Endothermic Reaction
D. carbon residue C. Exothermic Reaction
ANSWER: A D. Combustion Reaction
81. What kind of bonding do common gases that exist in free ANSWER: B
state as diatomic molecules experiences? 90. A chemical reaction in which heat is given off.
A. ionic bonds A. Heat Reaction
B. covalent bonds B. Endothermic Reaction
C. metallic bonds C. Exothermic Reaction
D. nuclear bonds D. Combustion Reaction
ANSWER: B ANSWER: C
82. An orsat’s apparatus is used for 91. A colorless, odorless mixtures of nitrogen and oxygen, with
A. Volumetric analysis of the flue gas traces of other gases water vapor and same impurities
B. Gravimetric analysis of the flue gas A. Air
C. Smoke density analysis of the flue gas B. Helium
D. All of the above C. Water Gas
ANSWER: A D. Nitrite
83. A theorem that states that the total property of a mixture ANSWER: A
of ideal gases is the sum of the properties that the indvidual
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 7
92. The transfer of air and air characteristics by horizontal
motion us called _____.
A. Convection
B. Air Transfer
C. Advection
D. Adhesion
ANSWER: C
93. Properties of non – reacting gas mixtures are given by:
A. Geometric weighting
B. Volumetric weighting
C. Volumetric weighting for molecular weight and density,
and geometric weighting for al other properties except
entropy
D. Arithmetic average
ANSWER: C
94. The process of separating two or more liquids by means of
the difference in their boiling point.
A. Engler Distillation
B. Fractional Distillation
C. Gas Scrubbing
D. Fractional Crystallization
ANSWER: B
95. The gaseous products of combustion of a boiler which
contains carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, oxygen,
nitrogen and water vapor is called _____.
A. Flue Gas
B. Producer Gas
C. Product Gas
D. Universal Gas
ANSWER: A
96. A substance whose burning with oxygen yields heat energy
such as coal, petroleum and natural gas.
A. air
B. fluid
C. fuel
D. gas
ANSWER: C
97. Stoichiometric ratio is
A. chemically correct air – fuel ratio by volume
B. chemically correct air – fuel ratio by weight
C. theoretical mixture of air for complete combustion
D. actual ratio of air to fuel for maximum efficiency
ANSWER: B
98. A type of radiation consisting of singly charged particles
that generate to intermediate distance.
A. Nuclear Radiation
B. Alpha Radiation
C. Beta Radiation
D. Gamma Radiation
ANSWER: C
99. The increase in velocity past the throat is due to the rapid
decrease in the :
A. Fluid Density
B. Fluid Specific Volume
C. Fluid Temperature
D. Fluid Pressure
ANSWER: A
100. In an oxidation – reduction chemical reaction, all of the
following occur except :
A. the exchange of electrons between elements
B. elements becoming more positive
C. elements becoming more negative
D. nuclear fusion
ANSWER: D
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 8
1. The residual oil left after the distillation of gasoline and 10. The tendency of a pure compound to be composed of the
kerosene from crude petroleum; yellow to brown oil, used same elements combined in a definite proportion by mass.
as a diesel fuel and for enriching water gas. A. Avogadro’s Law
A. Diesel Oil B. Boyle’s Law
B. Gasoline Oil C. The Law of Definite Proportion
C. LPG D. Le Chatelier’s Principle
D. Gas Oil ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D 11. How do you call the process of removing of impurities from
2. A fuel gas obtained by the destructive distillation of soft a gas by bubbling it through a liquid purifying agent?
coal is called _____. A. Gas Scrubbing
A. Gas Scrub B. Gas Purifying
B. Coal Gas C. Gas Liquefying
C. Alcogas D. Gas Bubbling
D. Water Gas ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B 12. What is the effect of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?
3. Removing of impurities from a gas by bubbling it through a A. absorb the exothermic heat of reaction
liquid purifying agent is called _____. B. provide the exothermic heat of reaction
A. Gas Scrubbing C. lower the activation energy
B. Gas Purifying D. provide the heat of sublimation
C. Gas Liquefying ANSWER: C
D. Gas Bubbling 13. The relationship between the concentration of products
ANSWER: A and reactants in a reversible chemical reaction given by
4. During the fusion process, mass is lost and converted to A. the ionization constant
energy according to: B. the equilibrium constant
A. the Heisenburg uncertainly principle C. the solubility product
B. the Compton’s law D. le chatelier’s principle
C. Einstein’s law ANSWER: B
D. the Second law of thermodynamics 14. What fuel gas obtained by the destructive distillation soft
ANSWER: C coal?
5. A finely divided carbon deposit by the smoke or flame is A. Gas Scrub
called _____. B. Coal Gas
A. Fly Ash C. Alcogas
B. Soot D. Water Gas
C. Residue ANSWER: B
D. All of the Choices 15. The process of splitting the nucleus into smaller fragments.
ANSWER: B A. Fusion
6. Rare gases such as helium, argon, krypton, xenon and B. Fission
radon that are non – reactive are called _____. C. The Photoelectric Effect
A. Non - Reactants D. The Compton Effect
B. Stop Gases ANSWER: B
C. Inert Gases 16. The ash that removed from the combustor after the fuel is
D. Residual Gases burn is the :
ANSWER: C A. Fly Ash
7. Kinematics and dynamics viscosity vary from each other B. Bottom Ash
only by a factor equal to the: C. Scraper Ash
A. Fluid Density D. Top Ash
B. Temperature ANSWER: B
C. Pressure 17. A mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide made bt
D. Specific Gas Constant passing steam over hot coke.
ANSWER: A A. Water Gas
8. The following properties are different for isomers of the B. Water Vapor
same chemical compound except: C. Hydrocarbon
A. density D. Air
B. melting point ANSWER: A
C. number of atoms in a mole of each isomers 18. All of the following are true of non – stoichiometric
D. specific heat reactions except
ANSWER: C A. there is an excess of one or more reactants
9. Atomic weights of the elements in the periodic table are B. the percentage yield measures the efficiency of the
not whole numbers because of: reaction
A. the existence of isotopes C. non – stoichiometric reactions are rare in the
B. imprecise measurements during the development of combustion process
the periodic table D. in combustion, air is often the excess reactant to assure
C. round – off error in calculating atomic weights complete combustion of fuel
D. the exchange of reference of the atomic mass unit from ANSWER: C
oxygen - 16 to carbon - 12 in 1961
ANSWER: A
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 8
19. It is the ratio of the volume at the end of heat addition to 29. Brayton cycle has:
the volume at the start of heat addition. A. Two isentropic and two constant volume processes.
A. Compression Ratio B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure processes.
B. Air - Fuel Ratio C. One constant pressure, one constant volume, and two
C. Volumetric Ratio adiabatic processes.
D. Cut - Off Ratio D. Two isothermals, one constant volume and a constant
ANSWER: D pressure processes.
20. Piston rings are made of: ANSWER: B
A. Alloy Steel 30. Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating engines even
B. Carbon Steel for same adiabatic compression ratio and work output
C. Copper because :
D. Cast Iron A. Otto cycle is highly efficient
ANSWER: D B. Brayton cycle is less efficient
21. Loss power is due to : C. Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines only
A. Poor Compression D. Large volume of low pressure air cannot be efficiently
B. Restricted Exhaust handle in reciprocating engines
C. Clogging of Air Cleaner ANSWER: D
D. Low Injection Pressure 31. Which cycle is generally used for gas turbine?
ANSWER: D A. Otto cycle
22. A branch system of pipes to carry waste emissions away B. Dual cycle
from the piston chambers of an internal combustion engine C. Carnot cycle
is called D. Brayton cycle
A. Exhaust Nozzle ANSWER: D
B. Exhaust Deflection Pipe 32. When r is the compression ratio, the efficiency of brayton
C. Exhaust Pipe cycle is given by:
D. Exhaust Manifold A. 1 – 1/r(k – 1)/k
ANSWER: D B. 1 – 1/r k – 1
23. The type of filter where the filtering elements is C. 1 – 1/r k
replaceable. D. 1 -1/r
A. Paper edge filter ANSWER: A
B. Metal edge filter 33. A generator is a gas turbine:
C. Pressure filter A. Reduces heat loss during exhaust
D. Filter with element B. Allows use of higher compression ration
ANSWER: B C. Improves thermal efficiency
24. When four events takes place in one revolution of a D. Allows use of fuels of inferior quality
crankshaft of an engine, the engine is called: ANSWER: C
A. Rotary engine 34. Which of the following compression is generally used for
B. Steam engine gas turbines?
C. Two stroke engine A. Lobe type
D. Four stroke engine B. Centrifugal type
ANSWER: C C. Axial flow type
25. Which of the following does not belong to the group? D. Reciprocating type
A. Air injection system ANSWER: C
B. Mechanical injection system 35. The constant pressure gas turbine works on the principle
C. Time injection system of:
D. Gas admission system A. Carnot cycle
ANSWER: C B. Bell – coleman cycle
26. Specific heat capacity is an SI derived unit described as : C. Rankine cycle
A. J/kg D. Brayton cycle
B. W/m-°K ANSWER: D
C. J/m³ 36. What type of gas turbine is use in air craft?
D. J/kg-°K A. Open cycle type
ANSWER: D B. Closed cycle type with reheating
27. A device whose primary function is to meter the flow of C. Closed type with reheating and regeneration
refrigerant to evaporator. D. Open cycle type with reheating, regeneration and
A. Sniffer valve intercooler
B. Equalizer ANSWER: A
C. Thermostatic expansion valve 37. In a gas turbine combined cycle plant, a waste heat boiler
D. Crossover valve is used to:
ANSWER: C A. Heat air from intercooler
28. The internal combustion never work in B. Gases from regeneration
A. Rankine cycle C. Recover heat from exhaust gases
B. Diesel cycle D. None of the above
C. Dual combustion cycle ANSWER: C
D. Otto cycle
ANSWER: A
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 8
38. Overall efficient of gas turbine is: 47. In order to increased the gas velocity gas turbines generally
A. Equal to carnot cycle efficiency have fixed nozzles. This is to allow the :
B. Equal to rankine cycle efficiency A. Compression of gases
C. Less than diesel cycle efficiency B. Condensation of gases
D. More than otto or diesel cycle efficiency C. Expansion of gases
ANSWER: C D. Evaporating gases
39. Which of the following turbine has least weight per bhp ANSWER: C
developed? 48. Combustion turbines or gas turbines are the preferred
A. Simple open cycle gas turbine combustion engines in application much above_____.
B. Open cycle gas turbine with inter–cooling, reheating A. 8 MW
and reheating B. 9 MW
C. Open cycle gas turbine with inter-cooling, reheating and C. 10 MW
regenerating D. 7 MW
D. Closed cycle gas turbine ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A 49. Large units gas turbine regularly operate:
40. Which of the following is/are advantage of closed cycle gas A. In 100 to 200 MW range
turbine over open cycle gas turbine? B. In 50 to 100 MW range
A. No containing or working substance with combustion C. Over 150 MW
gases D. Below 150 MW
B. Inferior quality fuel can be used ANSWER: A
C. Low maintenance cost 50. Small units gas turbine operate below
D. All of the above A. 20 MW
ANSWER: D B. 12 MW
41. The range of compression ratio in gas turbine is: C. 30 MW
A. 3 to 5 D. 24 MW
B. 5 to 8 ANSWER: C
C. 8 to 12 51. Heavy duty gas turbines typically have:
D. 12 to 20 Double shafts
ANSWER: B Single shafts
42. A constant volume combustion gas turbine operates on: Triple shafts
A. Ericson cycle Quadruple shafts
B. Joule cycle ANSWER: B
C. Brayton cycle 52. Which of the following is basically a jet engine that exhaust
D. Atkinson cycle into a turbine generator?
ANSWER: D A. Aeroderivative gas turbine
43. Heat exchanger used to provide heat transfer between the B. Industrial gas turbine
exhaust gases and the air prior to its entrance to the C. Brayton engine
combustion. D. Joule turbine
A. Evaporator ANSWER: A
B. Combustion chamber 53. Most aeroderivative combustion turbine procedure less
C. Regenerator than:
D. Heater A. 20 MW
ANSWER: C B. 30 MW
44. How does the value for work per unit mass flow of air in the C. 40 MW
compressor and influenced by the addition of a D. 50 MW
regeneration? ANSWER: C
A. Slightly increased 54. The compression ratio based on pressures in the
B. Unchanged compression stage in a gas turbine is typically :
C. Greatly decreased A. 11 to 16
D. Greatly increased B. 5 to 8
ANSWER: B C. 12 to 18
45. What is the ideal cycle for gas turbine work? D. 8 to 14
A. Brayton cycle ANSWER: A
B. Stag combined cycle 55. The compression ratio based on pressures of heavy duty
C. Bottom cycle turbine is in the range of ______ .
D. Ericsson cycle A. 14 to 15
ANSWER: A B. 19 to 21
46. Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating engines even C. 11 to 16
for same adiabatic compression ratio and work output D. 16 to 18
because: ANSWER: A
A. Brayton cycle is highly efficient 56. Aeroderivative combustion turbine have higher
B. Brayton cycle is for low speed engines only compression ratios typically:
C. Brayton cycle needs large air-fuel ratio A. 14 to 15
D. Large volume of low pressure air cannot be efficient B. 19 to 16
handled in reciprocating engines C. 11 to 16
ANSWER: D D. 16 to 18
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 8
ANSWER: B B. 30 to 32 %
57. Most heavy-duty combustion turbines have how many C. 40 to 42 %
compression range? D. 26 to 28 %
A. 14 to 16 ANSWER: A
B. 18 t o20 67. New combustion turbines on the cutting edge of
C. 10 to 12 technology ( Advance turbine system ) are able to achieve
D. 16 to 18 A. 38 to 38.5 %
ANSWER: D B. 36 to 36.5 %
58. The temperature of the gas entering the expander section C. 40 to 40.5 %
is typically : D. 34 to 34.5 %
A. 1200 C to 1290 C ANSWER: A
B. 1000 C to 1200 C 68. Aeroderivative turbines commonly achieve efficiencies up
C. 1500 C to 1480 C to :
D. 1300 C to 1390 C A. 42 %
ANSWER: A B. 38 %
59. The exhaust temperature which makes the exhaust an ideal C. 45 %
heat source for combined cycle is typically: D. 35 %
A. 540 C to 590 C ANSWER: A
B. 600 C to 650 C 69. Which of the following is the typical backwork ratio of gas
C. 300 C to 350 C turbine ?
D. 440 C to 490 C A. 50 to 75 %
ANSWER: A B. 40 to 65 %
60. Most combustion turbines have: C. 30 to 55 %
A. 2 to 3 expandable range D. 35 to 60 %
B. 3 to 4 expandable range ANSWER: A
C. 4 to 5 expandable range 70. Which of the following is an example of a regenerator ?
D. 1 to 2 expandable range A. A counter flow heat exchanger
ANSWER: B B. A cross flow heat exchanger
61. The exhaust flow rate in modern heavy duty turbines per C. A mixed flow heat exchanger
100 MW is approximately: D. A parallel flow heat exchanger
A. 240 to 250 kg/s ANSWER: B
B. 140 to 150 kg/s 71. Which of the following is an effect of having a regenerator?
C. 340 to 350 kg/s A. Less heat added
D. 440 to 450 kg/s B. Compressor work is reduced
ANSWER: A C. Turbine work is increased
62. The brayton gas turbine cycle is also known as : D. Compressor work is increased
A. Joule cycle ANSWER: A
B. Stirling cycle 72. A regenerator in a gas turbine has no effect in:
C. Ericsson cycle A. Compressor and turbine work
D. Atkinson cycle B. Heat added
ANSWER: A C. Thermal efficiency
63. Approximately how many percent of the turbine power is D. Combustor
used to drive the high efficiency compressor? ANSWER: A
A. 50 to 75 % 73. In a brayton cycle multiple stages of compression and
B. 60 to 85 % expansion will ____.
C. 45 to 70 % A. Increased thermal efficiency
D. 30 to 55 % B. Decrease thermal efficiency
ANSWER: A C. Limit thermal efficiency
64. Depending on the turbine construction details, the D. Control thermal efficiency
temperature of the air entering the turbine will be ANSWER: A
between: 74. In brayton cycle, reheating and intercooling will
A. 650 C to 1000 C __________.
B. 750 C to 1100 C A. Increased thermal efficiency
C. 550 C to 950 C B. Decrease thermal efficiency
D. 850 C to 1200 C C. Limit thermal efficiency
ANSWER: A D. Control thermal efficiency
65. Which of the following engines are typically used by ANSWER: A
turbojet and turboprop ? 75. In a brayton cycle, reheating and intercooling has no effect
A. Open combustion in :
B. Closed combustion A. Turbine work
C. Turbo combustion B. Thermal efficiency
D. High combustion C. Backwork ratio
ANSWER: A D. Network
66. The full load thermal efficiency of existing heavy duty ANSWER: A
combustion turbines in simple cycle is approximately :
A. 34 to 36 %
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 8
76. In a brayton cycle, intercooling has no effect in : B. jib crane
A. Turbine work C. locomotive crane
B. Thermal efficiency D. crawler crane
C. Backwork ratio ANSWER: D
D. Network 86. A mechanical contrivance for raising or lowering a load.
ANSWER: A A. Crane
77. As a requirement for permit application, for any installation B. Hoist
involving machine, mechanical equipment, general layout C. Rope
plan for each floor drawn should not be less than D. Chain
A. 1:200 ANSWER: B
B. 1:500 87. A horizontal arm for supporting a trolley or fall blocks which
C. 1:1000 does not change its inclination with the horizontal.
D. 1:100 A. Clevis
ANSWER: A B. Boom
78. Standard sheet sizes for mechanical plans and drawings C. Hood
shall be based on a width to length ratio of D. Jib
A. 1: sqrt (2) ANSWER: D
B. 1:sqrt(3) 88. One hand signal for crane movement arm extended, palm
C. 1:3 down, hold position rigidly.
D. 1:2 A. Stop
ANSWER: A B. Lower
79. For commercial and industrial buildings, work rooms C. Hoist
(referring to maintenance shop and machine room) shall be D. Swing Boom
at least _______ height from floor to ceiling. ANSWER: A
A. 3000 mm 89. Two hand signal for crane movement hold both arms
B. 2000 mm horizontally at sides fully extend and move upward &
C. 5000 mm return.
D. 4000 mm A. Stop
ANSWER: A B. Lower
80. For guyed steel stacks, the angle between the stack and guy C. Hoist
wire is usually D. Swing Boom
A. 30° ANSWER: C
B. 45° 90. In elevator systems, a device designed to stop a descending
C. 60° car or counterweight beyond its lowest limit of travel.
D. 75° A. Bumper
ANSWER: C B. Buffer
81. The extension of piston rod passing through a stuffing box C. Dumbwaiter
in the outside area of an engine cylinder, compressor D. Hoist Way
cylinder or pump cylinder. ANSWER: B
A. tail rod 91. The minimum factor of safety for suspension wire rods with
B. pin 1 500 feet per min (fpm) passenger elevator.
C. hub A. 7.6
D. sprocket B. 9.5
ANSWER: A C. 10
82. Type A sprocket has D. 11.9
A. one hub ANSWER: D
B. two side hubs 92. A closed vessel in which steam or vapor is generated at a
C. no hub pressure of more than 1.055 kg/cm2 gage by direct
D. bolted hubs application of heat.
ANSWER: C A. Portable Boiler
83. The reciprocating machine part within a cylinder is called B. Miniature Boiler
A. ram C. Locomotive Boiler
C. slide mandrel D. Power Boiler
B. plunger ANSWER: D
D. all of the above 93. Method of testing boiler integrity that uses x-rays to
ANSWER: D generate & record on film the imperfections or defects in
84. Fixed-mounted or movable hood guards covering the the boiler tube material & welds.
length of run of power chains. A. metallurgical replication
A. coupling guards B. ultrasonic thickness gauging
B. chain guards C. vacuum testing
C. belt guards D. radiographic testing
D. hood guards ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B 94. In the fire protection, class of fire in ordinary combustible
85. A boom type mobile crane mounted on endless tracks or materials such as cloth paper, rubber & many plastics.
thread belts. A. Class A
A. gantry crane B. Class B
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 8
C. Class C
D. Class D
ANSWER: A
95. An underground formation that contains sufficient
saturated permeable material to yield significant quantities
of water.
A. Aquifer
B. Water Table
C. Porous Layer
D. Well
ANSWER: A
96. Pipe color for acetylene.
A. Yellow
B. Green
C. Orange
D. Red
ANSWER: C
97. In metrology, it is a device used to determine whether the
part has been made to the tolerance required and does not
usually indicates a specific dimension.
A. Bevels
B. Dial Indicator
C. Gage
D. Trammel
ANSWER: C
98. In manufacturing, process of making molds for the plastic
and die casting industries.
A. Intraforming
B. Swaging
C. Infiltration
D. Hobbing
ANSWER: D
99. A copper-silicon alloy available in five slightly different
nominal compositions for applications which require high
strength, good fabricating, & fusing qualities.
A. Inconel
B. Monel
C. Everdur
D. Babbit
ANSWER: C
100. In instrumentation, it is a device whose function is to pass
on information in an unchanged form or in some modified
form.
A. Programmable Logic Controller (PLC)
B. Controller
C. Pilot Light
D. Relay
ANSWER: D
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 9
1. In refrigeration, how do you call a heat exchanger in which C. Carrene Scale
low-pressure refrigerant boils or vaporizes, thus absorbing D. Frigorie Scale
heat that was removed from the refrigerated area by the ANSWER: A
cooling medium (water)? 9. What is the amount of heat energy required to raise the
A. Evaporator temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit.
B. Cooler It is 1/180 of the heat required to raise the temperature of
C. Chiller one pound of water from 32 to 212 °F at constant
D. Flooded Evaporator atmospheric pressure of 14,696 psi absolute.
ANSWER: C A. Specific heat
2. In an air standard Otto cycle, the clearance volume is 12 % B. British thermal unit
of the displacement volume. What is the thermal C. Calorie
efficiency? D. Sensible heat
A. 57 % ANSWER: B
B. 58 % 10. How do you call the mixtures or substances that are used
C. 59 % in laboratory methods of producing a drop in temperature?
D. 60 % The most common example is the mixture of ice and salt.
ANSWER: C A. Calorific mixture
3. It is a type of refrigeration system where only part of the B. Frigorific mixture
circulated refrigerant is evaporated, with the remainder C. Water-ammonia mixture
being separated from the vapor and then recirculated. How D. Hygroscopic mixture
do you call this system? ANSWER: B
A. Absorption refrigeration system 11. It the maximum temperature of any gas or vapor at which
B. Vacuum refrigeration system it may be condensed into a liquid; above this temperature,
C. Vapor-compression refrigeration system it is impossible to condense regardless of the pressure
D. Flooded refrigeration system applied. How do you call this temperature?
ANSWER: D A. Saturation temperature
4. How do you call the ice formation on a refrigeration system B. Critical temperature
at the expansion device, making the device inoperative? C. Superheated temperature
A. Ice formation D. Dew point temperature
B. Freezing ANSWER: B
C. Freeze-up 12. Any refrigerant that exists as a liquid under normal
D. Pump-down atmospheric pressure and temperature must be vaporized
ANSWER: C in an evaporator under a pressure below atmospheric. This
5. In a lithium bromide solution absorption refrigeration is sometimes referred to as:
system, which of the following is the function of water? A. Halogenated refrigerant
A. Refrigerant B. Vacuum refrigerant
B. Coolant C. Freon refrigerant
C. Absorbent D. Halocarbon refrigerant
D. Analyzer ANSWER: B
ANSWER: A 13. It is any one of a group of refrigerants that have been
6. In the absorption refrigeration system, is a pressure vessel developed since about 1925 to overcome the irritating or
mounted above the generator through which the vapor toxic effects of refrigerants, such as ammonia and sulfur
leaving the generator pass. How do you call this dioxide and the high condensing pressures required with
component? carbon dioxide. How do you call these refrigerants?
A. Absorber A. Halogenated refrigerants
B. Rectifier B. Vacuum refrigerants
C. Analyzer C. Freon refrigerants
D. Reflux D. Halocarbon refrigerants
ANSWER: C ANSWER: A
7. In the absorption refrigeration system, it is the inlet part of 14. This refrigeration system component combines the
the condenser, cooled by a separate circuit of cooling water functions of a cooling tower and a condenser. It consists of
or strong aqua. It condenses a small part of the vapor a casing enclosing a fan or blower section, water
leaving the bubble column and returns it as a liquid to the eliminators, refrigerant condensing coil, water pan, float
top of baffle plate. This ensures that the vapor going to the valve, and spray pump outside the casing. How do you call
condenser is lowered in temperature and enriched in this component?
ammonia. What is this component? A. Water-cooled condenser
A. Reflux B. Atmospheric condenser
B. Rectifier C. Evaporative condenser
C. Analyzer D. Chiller
D. Absorber ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B 15. It refers to a factor used in calculating the over-all heat
8. Which of the following is a scale of temperature in which transfer through the tube walls of a condenser tube or
the melting point of ice is taken as 0o and the boiling point other heating surface. It includes the sum of the heat-
of water is 80°? transfer rate of the layer of dirt and foreign material that
A. Reaumur Scale builds up on the water side of the tube. What is this factor?
B. Genetron Scale A. Cooling factor
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 9
B. By-pass factor A. Thermodynamic
C. Contact factor B. Mechanical
D. Fouling factor C. Thermostatic
ANSWER: D D. Thermostatic
16. It is a refrigeration system evaporator which is arranged ANSWER: C
with a tank or a single drum (accumulator) located above 25. What is a characteristic feature of thermodynamic steam
the coil so that the inside of the evaporator is full of traps?
refrigerant. How do you call this type of evaporator? A. They pass condensate at steam temperature
A. Flooded evaporator B. They operate by holding back condensate until it has
B. Cooing coil evaporator cooled
C. Cooing coil evaporator C. They cannot be fitted outside
D. Cooing coil evaporator D. They can only be fitted on low pressure steam systems
ANSWER: A ANSWER: B
17. What is the standardized term used by the industry to 26. What are the main considerations for steam trap selection?
describe any device that meters or regulates the flow of A. Price
liquid refrigerant to an evaporator? B. Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and
A. Refrigerant control reliability
B. Expansion valve C. Connections
C. Expansion valve D. The trap must be the same size as the condensate drain
D. Expansion valve line
ANSWER: B ANSWER: B
18. Define a “control valve”. 27. Can temperature controlled applications be trapped?
A. The value set on the scale of the control system in A. Traps should not be fitted under any circumstances
order to obtain the required condition B. Only if there is no lift after the trap
B. The quantity or condition of the controlled medium C. If the pressure on the trap is always higher than
C. The flow or pressure of the steam (or fluid) being backpressure
manipulated D. Pumps should always be fitted to remove condensate
D. The valve of the controlled condition actually ANSWER: C
maintained under steady state conditions 28. Unless they are designed to flood, what is the important
ANSWER: D when removing condensate from heat exchangers?
19. A pneumatic temperature control is used on the steam A. Condensate is allowed to sub-cool before reaching the
supply to a non-storage heat exchanger that heats water trap
serving an office heating system. What is referred to as B. Condensate is removed at steam temperature
“manipulated variable”? C. Condensate should back-up into the steam pipe
A. The water being heated D. That the trap is fitted level with or above the heater
B. The air signal from the controller to the valve actuator outlet
C. The steam supply ANSWER: B
D. The temperature of the air being heated 29. How is flash steam produced?
ANSWER: C A. From condensate passing from high to low pressure
20. Which of the following valves is the one designed to allow systems
a fluid to pass through in one direction? B. From saturated steam
A. Globe valve C. From superheated steam
B. Float valve D. From steam mixed with high temperature air
C. Gate valve ANSWER: A
D. Check valve 30. Are steam traps required to pass air?
ANSWER: D A. Steam traps should not pass air under any
21. How do you classify a solenoid valve? circumstances
A. A thermal valve B. Only when the trap has passed all the condensate
B. A bellows valve C. Air should be removed as soon as it reaches the trap
C. A magnetic stop valve D. Only on high pressure steam system
D. A bi-metallic valve ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C 31. How do you call a system employing open sprinklers
22. What is a thermostat? attached to a piping system connected to a water supply
A. A temperature-operated switch through which is opened by the operation of a fire
B. A pressure-operated switch detection system installed in the same areas as the
C. A superheat-operated switch sprinklers?
D. A back pressure-operated switch A. Mechanical sprinkler
ANSWER: A B. Wet pipe system
23. Which of the following is the one of the main purposes of C. Automatic system
refractory in a boiler furnace? D. Deluge system
A. Help preheat the air for the furnace ANSWER: D
B. Help preheat the feed water 32. What is probably the first consideration when selecting a
C. Protect economizer from excessive heat control system?
D. Prevent excessive furnace heat losses A. What degree of accuracy is required?
ANSWER: D B. Is the control for heating or cooling?
24. Balance pressure traps are what type of steam trap? C. Is a two or three port valve required?
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 9
D. In the event of power failure, must the valve fail-open B. The heat output would be greater because steam at 3
or fail-closed bar g has a greater volume than steam at 7 bar g.
ANSWER: D C. Less weight of steam would be required because steam
33. When adding the refrigerant in a refrigeration system, it at 3 bar g has a higher enthalpy of evaporation than 7 bar
shall be charge into which of the following parts of the g.
system? D. The output would be reduced because the difference in
A. High pressure side temperature between the steam and product is reduced.
B. Low and high pressure side ANSWER: D
C. Low pressure side 42. For any particular tank temperature how does the heat loss
D. Compressor discharge line from the lid of a closed tank compare with that of bottom?
ANSWER: C A. They are approximately double those from the bottom
34. Why is a boiler feed tank heated to approximately 85 °C? B. Losses from the top are approximately double those
A. To reduce the energy required to raise steam from the bottom
B. To reduce the content of total dissolved solids in the C. Losses from the bottom are approximately double
water supplied to the boiler those from the top
C. To reduce the gas content of the water D. Losses from the top are approximately 4 times those
D. To reduce the content of suspended solids in the water from the bottom
ANSWER: C ANSWER: B
35. What is used to dry air? 43. What is the disadvantage of heating a tank by direct steam
A. A separator injection?
B. A steam trap A. It agitates the solution
C. A strainer B. Some of the enthalpy of water is used
D. A tee piece C. Steam traps are not required
ANSWER: A D. It dilutes the tank content
36. What causes water hammer in the boiler? ANSWER: D
A. Suspended water droplets 44. The existing 2000 TR chiller at a large hospital, where you
B. An air/water mixture are assigned as Engineer, must be replaced. Which of the
C. Strainers fitted on their sides following types most likely to be installed?
D. Slugs of water in the steam A. Screw chiller
ANSWER: D B. Reciprocating chiller
37. How does air enter a steam system? C. Scroll Chiller
A. Through joints, on shut down of the steam system D. Centrifugal chiller
B. With make-up water to the boiler feedtank ANSWER: D
C. With condensate entering the boiler feedtank 45. Refrigeration condensers are rated based upon their ability
D. Both A, B, & C to reject the total heat that comes from which of the
ANSWER: D following?
38. Why should strainers installed on steam lines be fitted on A. Compressor work and net refrigeration effect
their sides? B. Superheating
A. To prevent the build-up of water in the strainer body C. Subcooling
B. To trap more dirt D. Compressor work
C. To reduce the frequency of cleaning ANSWER: A
D. To provide maximum screening area for the steam 46. A published „U‟ value from a steam coil to a water based
ANSWER: A solution is given as 550 – 1300 W/m2- oC. When would be
39. The water turbine of a 5-MW hydro-power plant has a figure near the lower end of the range be used?
specific speed of 40 rpm and a discharge of 2020 lps. What A. When the steam is known to be of good quality
is the approximate diameter of the jet. B. For short coils
A. 191 mm C. For small diameter coils
B. 181 mm D. When scaling or fouling of the coil takes place
C. 171 mm ANSWER: D
D. 161 mm 47. Steam coils should enter and leave the top of a tank when:
ANSWER: A A. The tank contains a corrosive solution
40. What is the result of using a heat exchanger rating to B. When agitation of the tank solution is required
calculate its steam consumption? C. When steam locking the trap draining a base coil could
A. The true connected heat load may be different from the occur
rated figure. D. When good heat distribution is required
B. The rating does not take account of the temperature of ANSWER: A
the secondary medium 48. What range of “U‟ values would you apply for mild steel
C. The rating is based on a steam pressure of 1.0 bar jacket around a stainless steel tank containing a water and
D. The rating does not allow for condensate forming in the detergent solution?
heat exchanger A. 285 – 480
ANSWER: A B. 850 – 1700
41. A heat exchanger has a design rating based on a working C. 450 – 1140
pressure of 7 bar g. What would be the effect of supplying D. 285 – 850
the exchanger with steam at 3 bar g? ANSWER: C
A. The heat output would be greater because the enthalpy
of evaporation at 3 bar g is higher than at 7 bar g.
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 9
49. A tank is to be heated by direct steam injection. How will A. Space heat gain
the quantity of heat required compare with steam coil B. Space cooling load
heating? C. Space heating load
A. It depends on the temperature of the water being D. Space heat extraction rate
heated ANSWER: B
B. More heat will be required 57. An Engineer claims to have created a heat engine that
C. The same amount of heat will be required produces 15 kW of power for a 20 kW input while operating
D. Less heat will be required between energy reservoirs at 37 °C and 400 °C. Is the
ANSWER: C Engineer‟s claim valid?
50. Which of the following parameters has the greatest limiting A. Valid
effect on the thermal performance of an open, evaporative B. Probably
cooling tower? C. Not valid
A. Wet-Bulb temperature D. May be valid
B. Range ANSWER: C
C. Dry-Bulb temperature 58. There are 20 kg of exhaust gas formed per kg of fuel oil
D. Approach burned in the combustion of diesoline C16H32. What is the
ANSWER: A excess air percent?
51. Air enters a cooling tower at 10 oC DB and 9.5 oC WB A. 30.1 %
temperature. It leaves the tower saturated at 21 oC. Which B. 21.5 %
condition is a likely outcome of this? C. 29.16 %
A. Sublimation D. 30.6 %
B. Condensation ANSWER: C
C. Adsorption 59. A process that the body uses to convert energy in food into
D. Fog heat and work, or it is the process that determines the rate
ANSWER: D at which energy is converted from chemical to thermal
52. It is a space, or several rooms, or units of space having some form within the body.
sort of coincident loads or similar operating characteristics. A. Metabolism
It may or may not be an enclosed space, or it may consist B. Body food processing
of many partitioned rooms. How do you call this? C. Eating
A. Zone D. Blood circulation
B. Space ANSWER: A
C. Room 60. What is a body insulation that is usually described as a
D. Plenum single equivalent uniform layer over the whole body?
ANSWER: A A. Skin
53. In air conditioning, it indicates either a volume or a site B. Clothing
without a partition or a partitioned room or group of C. Blood
rooms. How do you call this? D. Water
A. Zone ANSWER: B
B. Space 61. What is the insulating value of clothing?
C. Room A. Btu unit
D. Plenum B. Calorie unit
ANSWER: B C. Clo units
54. It is an enclosed or partitioned space that is usually treated D. Frigorie Unit
as a single load. If conditioned, it often has an individual ANSWER: C
control system. What is this? 62. Which of the following is the value of clo units?
A. Zone A. 1 clo = 0.880
°F ×ft² ×Hr

B. Space 𝐵𝑡𝑢
°F ×m²
C. Room B. 1 clo = 100 𝑘𝑊
D. Plenum °F ×m²
C. 1 clo = 0.275
ANSWER: C 𝑊
°F ×m²
55. It represents the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat enters D. 1 clo = 190 𝐾𝑊
a conditioned space from an external source or is released ANSWER: A
to the space from an internal source during a given time 63. What is the basic index used to describe the radiant
interval. conditions in a space, it is the mean temperature of
A. Space heat gain individual; exposed surfaces in the environment?
B. Space cooling load A. Index temperature
C. Space heating load B. Mean radiant temperature
D. Space heat extraction rate C. Space temperature
ANSWER: A D. Dry bulb temperature
56. It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat must be ANSWER: B
removed from a conditioned space so as to maintain a 64. In order to avoid cavitation in a centrifugal pump, which of
constant temperature and acceptable relative humidity. Its the following is true?
sensible load component is equal to the sum of the A. Installation NPSH ≥pump NPSH
convective heat transfer from the surfaces of the building B. Installation NPSH ≤pump NPSH
envelope, furnishings, occupants, appliances, and C. Installation NPSH <pump NPSH
equipment. How do you call this? D. Installation NPSH should be negative
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 9
ANSWER: A removed by the chilled water flowing through the coil or is
65. What always accompanies an isentropic expansion of absorbed by the refrigerant inside the coil. What do you call
steam? this?
A. An increase in entropy A. Coil load
B. An increase in enthalpy B. Refrigerating load
C. A decrease in entropy C. Heating coil load
D. A decrease in enthalpy D. Cooling load
ANSWER: D ANSWER: A
66. Those substance that are particularly variable in the 74. It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat is added to the
moisture content that they can possess at different times. conditioned air from the hot water, steam, or electric
A. Wet materials heating elements inside the coil.
B. Gross materials A. Coil load
C. Hygroscopic materials B. Refrigerating load
D. Bone-dry-weight material C. Heating coil load
ANSWER: C D. Cooling load
67. The hygroscopic moisture content of a substance ANSWER: C
expressed as a percentage of the bone-dry-weight of the 75. What is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat is absorbed
material. by the refrigerant at the evaporator. For central hydronic
A. Moisture content systems, it is the sum of the coil load plus the chilled water
B. Bone-dry-weight piping heat gain, pump power heat gain, and storage tank
C. Regain heat gain. For most water systems in commercial buildings,
D. Gross weight the water piping and pump power heat gain is only about 5
ANSWER: C to 10 percent of the coil load. In an air conditioning system
68. What is the advantage of a pressurized deaerator over an using DX coil(s), it is equal to the DX coil load.
atmospheric deaerator? A. Coil load
A. A boiler feed tank is no longer required B. Refrigerating load
B. Less over all energy will be required to produce the C. Heating coil load
steam D. Cooling load
C. It can be fitted at ground level ANSWER: B
D. It removes more oxygen 76. It is a humidity sensor used to measure relative humidity,
ANSWER: D dew point, or absolute humidity of ambient or moving air.
69. In proximate analysis, the coal analysis is consisting of This device could be mechanical or electronic. How do you
moisture content, fixed carbon, ash, and which of the call this?
following? A. Hydrometer
A. Sulfur B. Psychrometer
B. Nitrogen C. Hygrometer
C. Hydrogen D. Barometer
D. Volatile matter ANSWER: C
ANSWER: D 77. It is a device designed to control the flow of steam, water,
70. How do you call the heating value of the fuel if the water in gas, or other fluids. It can be considered a variable orifice
the products of combustion is in the liquid state? positioned by an actuator in response to impulses or signals
A. Higher heating value from the controller. It may be equipped with either a
B. Proximate heating value throttling plug, V-port, or rotating ball specially designed to
C. Lower heating value provide a desired flow characteristic. How do you call this
D. Gravimetric heating value device.
ANSWER: A A. Automatic Valve
71. What is the rate, in Btu/h or W, at which heat must be B. Thermostat
added to the conditioned space to maintain a constant C. Automatic flow meter
temperature and sometimes a specified relative humidity? D. Pyrometer
A. Space heat gain ANSWER: A
B. Space cooling load 78. Assume that you are checking the water level in a boiler
C. Space heating load which is on the line in a power plant. Upon opening the
D. Space heat extraction rate gage cocks, you determine that the water level was above
ANSWER: C the top gage cock. Of the following actions, the best one to
72. Space heat extraction rate Qex, Btu /h (W), is the rate at take first in this situation would be to:
which heat is actually removed from the conditioned space A. Shut-off the fuel and air supply
by the air system. Its sensible heat rate component is equal B. Surface-blow the boiler
to the sensible cooling load only when the space air C. Close the steam outlet valve from the boiler
temperature remains constant. D. Increase the speed of the feed water
A. Space heat gain ANSWER: C
B. Space cooling load 79. It is a component in a hydro plant that absorbs water
C. Space heating load hammer during load fluctuations and serves as an auxiliary
D. Space heat extraction rate reservoir during high load demands. What is this
ANSWER: D component?
73. It is the rate, in Btu/h or W, of heat transfer at the coil. Its A. Spillway
cooling load component is the rate at which heat is B. Surge tank
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 9
C. Dam D. Flash point
D. penstock ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B 87. It is the temperature at which cooled oil will just flow under
80. It is a bituminous coal that contains plenty of hydrocarbons, specific test conditions; and it indicates the lowest
forming lumped masses when burned. This coal is ideal for temperature at which a lubricant can readily flow from its
forming carbonaceous gases for reduction of ore. What do container. How do you call this temperature?
you call this coal? A. Cloud point
A. Coking or coking coal B. Creep point
B. Peat coal C. Pour point
C. Free burning coal D. Flash point
D. Lignite coal ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A 88. It is a term indicating the measure of acidic components in
81. It is the temperature at which the oil vapors will continue oils; and was original intent to indicate the degree of
to burn when ignited. refining in new oils, and to follow the development of
A. Fire point oxidation in service, with its effects on deposit formation
B. Ignition temperature and corrosion. What is this?
C. Flash point A. Neutralization number
D. Creep temperature B. Total base number
ANSWER: A C. Total acid number
82. It is the temperature to which oil has to be heated until D. Neutralization number and total acid number
sufficient flammable vapor is driven off to flash when ANSWER: D
brought into momentary contact with a flame. How do you 89. How do you call a measure of alkaline components in oils,
call this temperature? especially those additives used in engine oils to neutralize
A. Fire point acids formed during fuel combustion?
B. Ignition temperature A. Neutralization number
C. Flash point B. Total base number
D. Creep temperature C. Total acid number
ANSWER: C D. Neutralization number and total acid number
83. It is the temperature to which oil has to be heated until ANSWER: B
sufficient flammable vapor is driven off to flash when 90. These are materials with low coefficients of friction
brought into momentary contact with a flame. How do you compared to metals, and they are used to reduce friction
call this temperature? and wear in a variety of applications. There are a large
A. Fire point number of such materials, and they include graphite,
B. Ignition temperature molybdenum disulfide, polytetrafluoroethylene, talc,
C. Flash point graphite fluoride, polymers, and certain metal salts. How
D. Creep temperature do you call these materials?
ANSWER: C A. Greases
84. The color of a lubricating oil is obtained by reference to B. Total base number
transmitted light; the color by reflected light is referred to C. Solid lubricants
as: D. Powder lubricants
A. Bloom ANSWER: C
B. Deflection 91. These are engine oil additives used to help keep the engine
C. Reflection clean by solubilizing and dispersing sludge, soot, and
D. Residue deposit precursors. How do you call these oil additives?
ANSWER: A A. Detergents
85. How do you call the material left after heating an oil under B. Oxidation inhibitors
specified conditions at high temperature, and is useful as a C. Dispersants
quality control tool in the refining of viscous oils, D. Corrosion inhibitors
particularly residual oils? ANSWER: C
A. Ash 92. How do you call these engine oil additives used to prevent
B. Carbon residue attack on sensitive bearing metals?
C. Color A. Detergents
D. Coke B. Oxidation inhibitors
ANSWER: B C. Dispersants
86. How do you call the material left after heating an oil under D. Corrosion inhibitors
specified conditions at high temperature, and is useful as a ANSWER: D
quality control tool in the refining of viscous oils, 93. These are engine oil additives used to prevent or reduce
particularly residual oils? Petroleum oils, when cooled, may deposits and corrosion by neutralizing combustion by-
become plastic solids, either from wax formation or from product acids. What are these additives?
the fluid congealing. With some oils, the initial wax crystal A. Detergents
formation becomes visible at temperatures slightly above B. Oxidation inhibitors
the solidification point. When that temperature is reached C. Dispersants
at specific test conditions, it is known as the D. Corrosion inhibitors
A. Cloud point ANSWER: A
B. Creep point 94. What is the molecular attraction of layers of an unlike
C. Pour point matters?
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 9
A. Adhesion D. 343 m/s
B. Advection ANSWER: A
C. Cohesion 103. The speed of sound is also called as:
D. Convection A. Sound velocity
ANSWER: A B. Subsonic velocity
95. How do you call these engine oil additives used to prevent C. Acoustic velocity
attack on iron and steel surfaces by condensed moisture D. Critical velocity
and acidic corrosion products, aggravated by low- ANSWER: C
temperature stop-and-go operation? 104. This is the velocity at which a small pressure wave moves
A. Detergents through a fluid. How do you call this velocity?
B. Oxidation inhibitors A. Sonic velocity
C. Dispersants B. Sonic velocity
D. Rust inhibitors C. Subsonic velocity
ANSWER: D D. Hypersonic velocity
96. How do you call these engine oil additives used to prevent ANSWER: A
attack on iron and steel surfaces by condensed moisture 105. Which of the following is the speed of light?
and acidic corrosion products, aggravated by low- A. 2.998 x 108 m/s
temperature stop-and-go operation? B. 2.998 x 1010 m/s
A. Detergents C. 2.998 x 109 m/s
B. Oxidation inhibitors D. 2.998 x 107 m/s
C. Dispersants ANSWER: A
D. Rust inhibitors 106. What can you say about entropy in the universe?
ANSWER: D A. Entropy is always increasing
97. How do you call these engine oil additives used to help B. Entropy is decreasing
enable adequate low-temperature flow, along with C. Entropy will zero at the end of time
sufficient viscosity at high temperatures? D. Entropy is stagnating
A. Viscosity-index improvers ANSWER: A
B. Pour point dispersants 107. Which of the following is the chemical formula of butane?
C. Oxidation inhibitors A. C2H5
D. Rust inhibitors B. C4H10
ANSWER: A C. C10H16
98. These oil additives are used to minimize wear under D. C3H6
boundary lubrication conditions, such as cam and lifter, and ANSWER: B
cylinder-wall and piston-ring surfaces. 108. If the sensible heat ratio is 0.75, what does it mean?
A. Anti-wear additives A. 75 % latent heat and 25 % sensible heat
B. Pour point dispersants B. 75 % latent heat and 25 % sensible heat
C. Oxidation inhibitors C. 25 % latent and sensible heat and 75 % latent heat
D. Rust inhibitors D. 75 % sensible and latent heat and 25 % sensible heat
ANSWER: A ANSWER: B
99. These are engine oil additives used to allow air to break 109. The hardness of ground water required as feed water for a
away easily from the oil. boiler is 0 – 10 ppm (part per million), which of the
A. Anti-wear additives following is the range of alkalinity requirement?
B. Defoamants A. pH 9 to pH 10
C. Oxidation inhibitors B. pH 10 to pH 11
D. Rust inhibitors C. pH 6 to pH 10
ANSWER: B D. pH 6 to pH 10
100. These engine oil additives are used to improve fuel ANSWER: B
efficiency by reducing friction at rubbing surfaces. How do 110. As used in the Revised PSME Code for Boilers and Pressure
you call these oil additives? Vessels, it is any boiler which does not exceed any of the
A. Anti-wear additives following limits: 405 mm inside diameter, 1065 mm overall
B. Oxidation inhibitors length of outside to outside heats at center, 1.85 m 2 of
C. Friction modifiers water heating surface, and 7.03 kg/cm2 maximum
D. Rust inhibitors allowable working pressure. What is this boiler?
ANSWER: C A. Power boiler
101. How do you call an opening where hot source of energy B. Miniature boiler
from the earth is harnessed? C. Portable boiler
A. Crater D. Locomotive boiler
B. Fumarole ANSWER: B
C. Hot water source 111. It is a closed vessel in which steam or other vapor (to be
D. Volcano opening used externally to itself) is generated by the direct
ANSWER: B application of heat used for power generation. How do you
102. At standard atmospheric conditions, what is the call this boiler?
approximate speed of sound? A. Power boiler
A. 336 m/s B. Oil-fired boiler
B. 633 m/s C. Portable boiler
C. 363 m/s D. Oil-fired boiler
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 9
ANSWER: A A. It stops the trap from freezing in cold weather
112. It is a closed vessel intended for use in heating water of for B. The trap can be use on larger backpressures
application of heat to generate steam or other vapor to be C. It significantly increases the cold start-up capacity of
used externally from it. What do you call this pressure the trap
vessel? D. The condensate orifice can be the same size for all
A. Boiler or steam generator pressure gauges
B. Unfired pressure vessel ANSWER: C
C. Fired pressure vessel 121. In a mechanical steam trap, what advantage does a bucket
D. Pressurized tank trap have over a float type?
ANSWER: A A. It is able to withstand waterhammer
113. What do you call a vessel in which pressure is obtained B. It can be used on higher pressure
from external sources, or from an indirect application of C. It can discharge air freely
heat? D. It cannot lose its water seal
A. Boiler or steam generator ANSWER: B
B. Unfired pressure vessel 122. A heat exchanger is designed to operate without
C. Fired pressure vessel waterlogging of the steam space. What is the usual choice
D. Pressurized tank of trap for its drainage?
ANSWER: B A. Thermostatic trap
114. It is any boiler or unfired pressure vessel constructed, B. Inverted bucket trap
installed, placed in operation but subject to annual C. Thermodynamic trap
inspection. What do you call this? D. Float trap with thermostatic air vent
A. Miniature boiler ANSWER: D
B. New boiler 123. What is a common cause of waterhammer in drying coils?
C. Existing installation A. Wet steam supplied to the coil
D. Portable boiler B. Too low a steam pressure onto the coil
ANSWER: C C. Condensate has to lift after the steam trap
115. It is a boiler that has been inspected and declared unsafe D. The coil falling in the direction of steam flow
to operate or disqualified, marked and marked indicating ANSWER: C
its rejection. How do you call this boiler? 124. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Second hand boiler A. Bimetallic steam traps are an ideal choice for rotating
B. Condemned boiler cylinders
C. Reinstalled boiler B. Rotating cylinders can not suffer from steam locking
D. Unfired boiler C. Strainers cannot be fitted to float traps which have a
ANSWER: B steam lock release
116. When new boilers are installed in either existing or new D. Strainers cannot be fitted to float traps which have a
buildings, a minimum height of at least ______ shall be steam lock release
provided between top of the boiler proper and ceiling. ANSWER: D
A. 1050 mm 125. Name the principle cause of waterhammer?
B. 1250 mm A. Water particles suspended in steam
C. 2130 mm B. Water allowed to build up in pipes
D. 2050 mm C. Water droplets carried along the insides of pipes
ANSWER: C D. Wet steam passing through steam traps
117. For power boilers, when the tensile strength of steel is not ANSWER: B
known, it shall be taken as 379 MPa and which of the 126. What effect does steam locking have on rotating
following for the wrought iron? machinery?
A. 379 N/mm2 A. None at all
B. 450 MPa B. It reduces the drying rate of drying cylinders
C. 310 MPa C. It increases the drying rate of drying cylinders
D. 521 N/mm2 D. It causes the steam trap to air bind
ANSWER: C ANSWER: B
118. Name one characteristic feature of mechanical steam 127. What do you call a boiler of which both the location and
traps. ownership have been changed after primary use?
A. They pass condensate at steam temperature A. Second hand boiler
B. They operate by sensing condensate temperature B. Miniature boiler
C. They can be fitted into any position C. Surplus boiler
D. They are not affected by increasing back pressure D. Reinstalled boiler
ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
119. In a mechanical steam trap, why is a float trap better at 128. It is a boiler removed from its original setting and re-
venting air than an inverted bucket trap? erected at the same location or erected at a location
A. A float can quickly adjust to the presence of air without change of ownership. How do you call this boiler?
B. A float is fitted with an automatic air vent A. Second hand boiler
C. A float trap does not vent air better than bucket trap B. Miniature boiler
D. The air vent orifice is adjustable on a float trap C. Surplus boiler
ANSWER: B D. Reinstalled boiler
120. In a mechanical steam trap, what added benefit does the ANSWER: D
automatic air vent offer to a float trap?
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 9
129. Each miniature boiler shall be equipped with which of the C. Metallurgic replication
following for the determination of water level? D. Optical testing
A. Safety valve ANSWER: C
B. Water gage glass 138. Which of the following is true regarding the relation of rk
C. Fusible plug and re for spark-ignition engine, where rk = compression
D. Pressure gages ratio while re = expansion ratio?
ANSWER: B A. rk > re
130. Each miniature boiler shall be equipped with which of the B. rk < re
following for the determination of water level? C. rk = re
A. Safety valve D. re is not considered in the spark-ignition engine
B. Water gage glass ANSWER: C
C. Fusible plug 139. It is the generic term given to a family of solid fuels with
D. Pressure gages high carbon content. How do you call this?
ANSWER: B A. Solid fuel
131. The maximum allowable working pressure of a non-code B. Anthracite
steel or wrought iron heating boiler of welded construction C. Coal
shall not exceed to which of the following pressures? D. Bituminous
A. 1 atmosphere ANSWER: C
B. 100 kPa 140. It is a boiler fuel created from the residue produced from
C. 1 Bar crude petroleum after it has been distilled to produce
D. 2 gage pressure lighter oils like gasoline, paraffin, kerosene, diesel or gas oil.
ANSWER: C What is this fuel?
132. What do you call a refrigeration system in which the A. Oil
refrigerant gas evolved in the evaporator is taken up in an B. Coke
absorber and released in a generator upon the application C. Kerosene
of heat? D. Peat
A. Absorption refrigeration system ANSWER: A
B. Cascade refrigeration system 141. What do you call a form of boiler fuel that is easy to burn,
C. Flooded refrigeration system with very little excess air?
D. Steam jet refrigeration system A. Coal
ANSWER: A B. Gas
133. What do you call a shut-off valve other than a valve for C. Oil
controlling the flow of refrigerant in a refrigeration system? D. Bunker
A. Fusible valve ANSWER: B
B. Check valve 142. The second law of thermodynamics says that whenever
C. Stop valve energy is exchanged or converted from one form to
D. Relief valve another, the potential for energy to do work will be
ANSWER: C _________.
134. What is a device, used in refrigeration system, having a A. Decreased
predetermined temperature fusible member for the relief B. Zero
of pressures? C. Increased
A. Fusible valve D. Stagnant
B. Check valve ANSWER: A
C. Stop valve 143. What is true about steam as it condenses?
D. Relief valve A. It does so at constant entropy and temperature
ANSWER: A B. It does so at constant enthalpy and reducing
135. It is a measure of the lack of potential or quality of energy; temperature
and once that energy has been exchanged or converted, it C. Both enthalpy and entropy reduce and temperature
cannot revert back to a higher level. What is this? remains constant
A. Specific heat D. Both enthalpy and entropy increase
B. Internal energy ANSWER: C
C. Entropy 144. It is an increase in fluid pressure in a long pipe caused by a
D. Molecular energy sudden velocity decrease, where the sudden decrease in
ANSWER: C velocity is caused by a valve closing.
136. What do you call the method used to evaluate all welds A. Aero dynamics
performed on pressure parts of boiler tube materials? B. Terminal velocity
A. Radiographic test C. Water hammer
B. Vacuum test D. Drag
C. Hydrostatic test ANSWER: C
D. Orsat analysis 145. It is an upward force that is exerted on an object (like flat
ANSWER: A plate, airfoil, rotating cylinder, etc.) as the object passes
137. It is a boiler testing method that is used to verify the through a fluid. What do you call this?
microstructure of the boiler tubes using optical A. Drag
microscopes. How do you call this method? B. Aero horsepower
A. Tube sampling C. Lift
B. Radiographic testing D. Terminal velocity
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 9
ANSWER: C A. Waves of the ocean
146. What is a frictional force that acts parallel but opposite to B. Thermal energy of ocean water
the direction of motion of fluid? C. Raw Sea water
A. Drag D. Rise and fall of tides
B. Aero horsepower ANSWER: D
C. Lift 156. Which of the following is an expression or equivalent of
D. Terminal velocity horsepower per ton of refrigeration?
ANSWER: A A. 4.715/𝐶𝑂𝑃
147. It is a term used by automobile manufacturers to designate B. COP X 4.715
the power required to move a car horizontally at 50 mi/hr C. 𝐶𝑂𝑃/4.715
against the drag force. What is this? D. 1/4.715𝑋𝐶𝑂𝑃
A. Mechanical horsepower ANSWER: A
B. Fuel power 157. It is the ratio of the amount of heat taken up by a substance
C. Aero horsepower to the temperature at which the substance exists. How do
D. Fluid power you call this?
ANSWER: C A. Internal energy
148. A manufacturer claims that it has a COP of 2.0 when cooling B. Internal energy
a food at 5 oC using ambient air at 30 oC as a heat sink. Is C. Flow energy
the claim of the manufacturer valid? D. Entropy
A. Yes ANSWER: D
B. No 158. Which of the following is a type of water turbine where a
C. Probably jet of water is made to fall on the blades or buckets and due
D. It needs experimental verification to the impulse of water the turbine starts moving?
ANSWER: A A. Reaction turbine
149. What can you say about the velocity of fluid at the center B. Francis turbine
of the pipe section? C. Steam turbine
A. Maximum D. Pelton wheel
B. Minimum ANSWER: D
C. Average 159. What do you call a fan in which the fluid is accelerated
D. Zero parallel to the fan axis?
ANSWER: A A. Axial centrifugal fan
150. Continuity equation is applicable to which of the following? B. Mixed flow centrifugal fan
A. Viscous and unviscous fluids C. Mixed flow centrifugal fan
B. Compressibility fluids D. Francis type fan
C. Conservation of mass ANSWER: A
D. Steady and unsteady flows 160. It represents the loss due to mechanical friction of the
ANSWER: C moving parts of the engine and expressed as horsepower.
151. Hygrometer is an instrument used to determine of which of How do you call this?
the following? A. Indicated Hp
A. Specific gravity of fluids B. Combined Hp
B. Specific gravity of gases C. Brake Hp
C. Specific gravity of liquids D. Friction Hp
D. Specific gravity of solids ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A 161. How do you call a device or engine which continually and
152. At critical point of a pure substance, what is the value of indefinitely discharged more energy than it receives?
latent heat? A. Carnot engine
A. Maximum B. Stirling engine
B. Zero C. Generating machine
C. Minimum D. Perpetual motion machine
D. Below zero ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C 162. In plotting the bHp versus speed in a wide open throttle
153. Which of the following is a function of a steam nozzle? test for a spark ignition engine, the bHp curve:
A. Converts kinetic energy into heat energy A. is a Straight line
B. Changes internal energy into kinetic energy B. tends to concave downward
C. Converts potential energy into heat energy C. has no characteristic shape
D. Changes enthalpic energy into kinetic energy D. tends to concave upward
ANSWER: D ANSWER: B
154. Generally steam turbines in power station operate at which 163. Upon entering the boiler room, you find the water out of
of the following speeds? the glass, the safety valve blowing off strong, and a fire
A. 3000 rpm under the boiler. Your first action would be to:
B. 4000 rpm A. Remove the fire with draft and damper open
C. 1000 rpm B. Cool the boiler down completely
D. 500 rpm C. Prevent priming by not raising the safety valve or making
ANSWER: B change in operating of engines or boiler
155. Tidal power is the power generated from which of the D. Cool the boiler down completely and prevent priming by
following? not raising the safety valve
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 9
ANSWER: A
164. The A.S.M.E. Boiler code for boiler shells requires a tensile
strength of which of the following, in psi?
A. 10000 to 20000
B. 55000 to 63000
C. 25000 to 45000
D. 70000 to 85000
ANSWER: B
165. The best time to blow a boiler down is:
A. Once a day when the load is lightest
B. Once a day under full load
C. When the chemical concentration is greatest
D. Once a shift
ANSWER: C
166. In performing a hydrostatic test on an existing power
boiler, the required test pressure must be controlled so
that it is not exceeded by more than:
A. 2%
B. 6%
C. 4%
D. 8%
ANSWER: A
167. The first step to take in planning a preventive maintenance
program is to:
A. Replace all electric wiring
B. Make an equipment inventory
C. Replace all pump seals
D. Repair all equipment which is not in operation
ANSWER: B
168. The first step to take in planning a preventive maintenance
program is to: Which of the following is the most important
consideration in a fire prevention program?
A. Train the staff to place flammable in fireproof containers
B. Know how to attack fires regardless of size
C. See that halls, corridors, and exits are not blocked
D. Detect and eliminate every possible fire hazard
ANSWER: D
169. Which of the following types of portable fire extinguisher is
recommended as most effective for putting out oil fires?
A. Pump tank type
B. Cartridge actuated type
C. Soda acid type
D. Foam type
ANSWER: D
170. Which of the following are the four stages of the warning
system designated by the high air pollution alert warning
system?
A. Initial, chronic, acute, penetrating
B. Forecast, alert, warning, emergency
C. Light, medium, heavy, extra heavy
D. Early, moderate, severe, toxic
ANSWER: D
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 10
1. The chemical most commonly used to speed sedimentation B. Gently and quickly rub the Freon 11 out of the eye
of sewage is known as: C. Uses a boric-acid solution to clean out the Freon 11 from
A. Lime his eye
B. Sulfuric acid D. Wash the eye by gently blowing the Freon 11 out of his
C. Copper sulfate eye with air
D. Methylene blue ANSWER: B
ANSWER: A 9. As compared to a power-driven triplex single-acting pump
2. Most of the bacteria in sewage are: of the same size and operating at the same speed, a steam-
A. Saprophytic driven duplex double-acting pump will:
B. Parasitic A. Pump more water per minute
C. Dangerous B. Give a more uniform discharge
D. Pathogenic C. Have a higher first cost
ANSWER: A D. Be more economical to operate
3. One of the two types of non-material nuclear radiation is: ANSWER: A
A. Gamma radiation 10. It is a device commonly used to cool condenser water in
B. Walton radiation Power and Refrigeration plants. The function of which is to
C. Transmutation radiation reject heat to the atmosphere by reducing the temperature
D. Betatron radiation of water circulated through condenser or other heat
ANSWER: A rejection equipment. What is this device commonly called?
4. Which of the following is not a qualification for an applicant A. Condenser
for ME board examination? B. Cooling tower
A. A certified plant mechanic C. Cooler
B. A certified plant mechanic D. Cooler
C. A holder of BSME degree ANSWER: B
D. A citizen of the Philippines 11. It is a type of dryer in which the gases of combustion pass
ANSWER: A through the spaces surrounding, or in other ways heating,
5. A thermo hydraulic feed water regulator is used to regulate the drying chamber, but the gases are not allowed in
the flow of water to a drum type boiler. The amount of contact with the material being dried. What is this dryer?
water input to the boiler is controlled in proportion to the: A. Direct-heat type dryer
A. Boiler load B. Indirect-heat type dryer
B. Setting of the feed pump relief valve C. Steam-heated type dryer
C. Amount of water in the outer tube that flashes into D. Rotary Dryer
steam ANSWER: B
D. Water level in the drum 12. In a refrigeration system, which of the following would
ANSWER: D cause a high suction pressure?
6. The standard capacity rating conditions for any A. Expansion valve not open wide enough
refrigeration compressor is: B. Expansion valve open too wide
A. 5 oF, 19.6 psig for the suction 86 oF, 154.5 psig for the C. King valve not open wide enough
discharge D. Dirty dehydrator
B. 5 oF, 9.6 psig for the suction 96 oF, 154.5 psig for the ANSWER: B
discharge 13. In the deep well installing or operation, the difference
C. 10 oF, 9.6 psig for the suction 96 oF, 144.5 psig for the between static water level and operating water level is
discharge called:
D. 5 oF, 19.6 psig for the suction 96 oF, 134.5 psig for the A. Suction lift
discharge B. Priming level
ANSWER: A C. Drawdown
7. In accordance with the air pollution control code, no person D. Clogging
shall cause or permit the emission of air contaminants from ANSWER: C
a boiler with a capacity of 500 million BTU sulfur dioxide 14. Which of the following is an characteristics of an impulse
content of more than: turbine?
A. 300 parts per million by volume undiluted emissions A. Steam striking blades on angle
measured at 15 percent excess air B. No steam reaction to velocity
B. 200 parts per million by volume of undiluted emissions C. Steam striking blades at zero angle
measured at 10 percent excess air D. Steam reversing direction
C. 200 parts per million by volume undiluted emissions ANSWER: C
measured at 15 percent excess air 15. Gas produced by the combustion of fuel oil and cannot be
D. 300 per million by volume undiluted emissions found in the flue gases is:
measured at 10 percent excess air A. Carbon dioxide
ANSWER: B B. Oxygen
8. Assume that one of your assistance was near the Freon 11 C. Hydrogen
refrigeration system when a liquid Freon line ruptured. D. Nitrogen
Some of the liquid Freon 11 has gotten into your assistant‟s ANSWER: C
right eye. Of the following actions, the one which you 16. Scale in boiler can:
should not take is to: A. Create low steam quality
A. Immediately call for an eye doctor specialist (medical B. Cause foaming
doctor) C. Overheat blow off line
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 10
D. Inhibit circulation and heat transfer B. 1 ½ times the position displacement of the pump
ANSWER: D C. 2 times the piston displacement of the pump
17. The effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given D. 2 ½ times the piston displacement of the pump
temperature: ANSWER: D
A. Absorptivity 25. Economical partial-load operation of steam turbines is
B. Conductivity obtained by minimizing throttling losses. This is
C. Emissivity accomplished by:
D. Reflectivity A. Reducing the boiler pressure and temperature
ANSWER: C B. Throttling the steam flow into the uncontrolled set of
18. To protect adequately the engine bearings, what type and nozzles
better arrangement of lubricating oil filter is most C. Dividing the first-stage nozzles into several groups and
practical? providing a steam control valve for each group
A. Full flow type filter installed between the lubricating oil D. Controlling the fuel flow to the steam generator
pump and bearings ANSWER: C
B. Splash lubricating system in the crank case 26. How do you compare superheated steam to that of
C. Duplex filter installed before the lubricating pump saturated steam at the same pressure?
D. Bypass filter with cleanable and replaceable elements A. Contains more heat energy
ANSWER: A B. Has a greater enthalpy of evaporation
19. When the expansion or compression of gas takes place C. Has a smaller specific volume
without transfer of heat to or from the gas, the process is D. Condenses at a higher temperature
called: ANSWER: A
A. Reversible 27. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
B. Polytrophic superheated steam?
C. Adiabatic A. It contains no water droplets
D. Isothermal B. It causes severe erosion in pipes
ANSWER: C C. It may cause uneven heating of a product
20. Which of the following is other name for the liquid valve? D. It has a temperature greater than 165 °C
ANSWER: B
A. Freon valve
28. Superheated steam at a pressure of 6 bar g:
B. king valve
A. Has a larger specific heat capacity than water
C. shut off valve
B. Has a dryness fraction of 0.99
D. Master valve
ANSWER: B C. Must not be used as a heat transfer medium
21. In accordance with recommended maintenance practice, D. Must not be used as a heat transfer medium
thermostats used in a pneumatic temperature control ANSWER: D
system should be checked: 29. Of the following, the main purpose of a sub-cooler in a
A. Weekly refrigerant piping system for a two-stage system is to:
B. Monthly A. Reduce the total power requirements and total heat
C. Bi-monthly rejection to the second stage
D. Once a year B. Reduce the total power requirements and return oil to
ANSWER: D the compressor
22. Of the following, the best method use to determine the C. Improve the flow of evaporator gas per ton and increase
moisture level in a refrigeration system is to: the temperature
A. Weigh the driver after it has been in the system for a D. Increase the heat rejection per ton and avoid system
period of time shutdown
B. Use a moisture indicator ANSWER: A
C. Visually check the sight glass for particles of corrosion 30. In large refrigeration systems, the usual location for
D. Visually check the sight glass for particles of corrosion charging the refrigeration system is into the:
ANSWER: B A. Suction line
23. A full-flow drier is usually recommended to be used in a B. Liquid line between the receiver shut-off valve and the
hermetic refrigeration compressor system to keep the expansion valve
system dry and to: C. Line between the condenser and the compressor
A. Prevent the products of decomposition from getting into D. Line between the high pressure cut-off switch and the
the evaporator in the event of motor burn-out expansion valve
B. Condense out liquid refrigerant during compressor off ANSWER: B
cycles and compressor start-up 31. The effect of a voltage variation to 90 percent of normal
voltage, for a compound wound DC motor, of the full load
C. Prevent the compressor unit form decreasing in capacity
current is:
D. Prevent the liquid from dumping into the compressor
crank-case A. Increase in the full load current approximately by 10%
B. Zero
ANSWER: A
C. A decrease in the full load current of approximately 10%
24. You are supervising the installation of a steam-driven
reciprocating pump. The pump’s air chamber is missing and D. A decrease in the full load current 20%
you have to replace it with one with several salvaged ones. ANSWER: A
The salvaged air chamber selected should have a volume 32. The main advantage of operating a steam engine or steam
equal to, most nearly,: turbine “condensing” is that it:
A. Half of the position displacement of the pump A. Increases the mean effective pressure in the prime
mover
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 10
B. Decrease the condensate temperature B. A reduction in boiler pressure and carryover of water
C. Permits the use of exhaust steam to drive auxiliary C. Occurrence of excessive TDS and carryover of water
equipment D. Balancing of boilers in a multi-boiler installation
D. Eliminates the need for separating non-condensable ANSWER: C
from the steam 42. What is the advantage of interruptible tariff?
ANSWER: A A. Quick and easy to change to heavy fuel oil when required
33. The automatic shut off valves for a water gage installed on B. Price of fuel
a high-pressure boiler must be: C. Price of interruptible gas lower than fixed supply
A. Horizontal swing-check valves D. Convenience of supply
B. Vertical swing-check valves ANSWER: C
C. Ball-check valves 43. At what pressure should a boiler safety valve be set?
D. Spring-loaded check valve A. Maximum working pressure
ANSWER: C B. Normal working pressure
34. The efficiency of a riveted joint is defined as the ratio of the: C. Hydraulic test pressure
A. Plate thickness to the rivet diameter D. Feed pump maximum pressure
B. Strength the riveted joint to the strength of a welded ANSWER: A
joint 44. What is the purpose of a bottom blowdown valve?
C. Strength of the riveted joint to the strength of the solid A. To control water level
plate B. To drain the boiler
D. Number of rivets in the first row of the joint to the total C. To maintain TDS
number of rivets on one side of the joint D. To remove sludge
ANSWER: C ANSWER: D
35. It corresponds to a heat absorption rate of 237.6 Btu/min 45. How often, as a minimum, should gauge glasses be tested?
(4.175 kW) with inlet and outlet pressures corresponding A. Once a shift
to saturation temperature of 23 oF (-5 oC) and 59 oF (15 oC), B. Once a day
respectively. How do you call this absorption rate? C. Twice a day
A. American Unit of refrigeration D. Once a week
B. British Unit of refrigeration ANSWER: B
C. European Unit of refrigeration 46. Why are two gauge glasses often fitted?
D. Standard Unit of refrigeration A. One is a check against the other
ANSWER: B B. One is a reserve
36. What is the advantage of an internal water level control C. It is a legal requirement
over an external one? D. To increase periods between maintenance
A. The external control is in a “dead” area ANSWER: C
B. It is less likely to scale up 47. Temporary hardness salts are reduced by:
C. It will respond more quickly to changes in water level A. Raising the water temperature
D. Daily testing of the level control chamber is not required B. Lowering the water temperature
ANSWER: D C. Raising the pH value
37. What is the purpose of testing gauge glasses? D. letting the water settle
A. To ensure the gauge cocks are operative ANSWER: A
B. To ensure there is sufficient water over the top fire tube 48. What is the effect of CO2 in a steam system?
C. To ensure the boiler water level is being properly sensed A. The formation of scale
D. To check the boiler 1st and 2nd low water level alarms B. The formation of sludge
ANSWER: A C. The formation of sludge
38. What is the effect of an overloaded boiler? D. Acidity
A. Water level rises and lock-out occurs ANSWER: C
B. Reduced steam production 49. Which of the following forms soft scale or sludge?
C. Water level drops and lock-out occurs A. Magnesium sulphate
D. Steam velocity reduces and separator efficiency drops B. Sodium bicarbonate
ANSWER: C C. Sodium carbonate
39. Why is slow, controlled warm-up of a steam system D. Calcium bicarbonate
essential? ANSWER: D
A. To make it easier to open the boiler main stop valve 50. Which of the following are principal dissolved solids that
B. To minimize undue stresses and eliminate damage are scale forming?
C. To permit separators to remove more water A. Carbonates and sulphates of sodium
D. To prevent stress on the boiler B. Calcium bicarbonate
ANSWER: B C. Carbonates and sulphates of magnesium
40. Which of the following is the main purpose of the steam D. Bicarbonate of sodium and magnesium
distribution manifold? ANSWER: C
A. It replaces the need for a separator after the boiler 51. What is the effect of temperature on calcium and
B. to remove air from the steam system magnesium sulphates?
C. To provide an extra separating function A. They separate out as soft scale and sludge
D. It is a requirement of the pressure systems regulations B. They precipitate out solution and form hard scale
ANSWER: C C. Foaming and carryover occurs
41. Priming of a boiler is: D. The TDS is increased
A. Getting a boiler prepared for start-up ANSWER: B
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 10
52. What is the treatment for scale forming salts in boiler 61. It is dust removal equipment that consists of a cylindrical
feedwater? tank structure provided with a tangential opening at one
A. They are chemically treated to modify the pH end for gas passage and a spray manifold at the center
B. The feedwater tank is raised to at least 85 °C which is made of a vertical pipe attached with spray nozzles
C. They are chemically treated to produce suspended solids where water is introduced at the bottom of this spray pipe.
D. They are removed by filtration means The gas revolves around the cylindrical body as it enters the
ANSWER: C scrubber, and comes in contact with the water spray, the
53. Which of the following types of alcohol is the most dust fly ash are then wetted and hence separated from the
frequently considered as fuel for internal combustion gas leaves the scrubber at the top.
engine? A. Cinder trap or catcher
A. Methyl alcohol B. Cyclone Separator
B. Ethyl alcohol C. Cyclonic Spray Scrubber
C. Isopropyl alcohol D. Electrostatic Precipitator
D. Alcogas ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B 62. What is a heat exchanger that allows cross contact
54. In a thermal plant, name the components of a self-acting between two media? This heat exchanger allows the
temperature control system. cooling water to flow by gravity over the outside of tubes
A. Control valve and actuator or plates.
B. Control valve, actuator and sensor A. Single-pass heat exchanger
C. Control valve, actuator, capillary tube and sensor B. Double-pass heat exchanger
D. Control valve, actuator and capillary tube C. Baudelot heat exchanger
ANSWER: C D. Shell-and-tube heat exchanger
55. What is the purpose of over temperature protection within ANSWER: C
the self-acting control system? 63. What is the recommended weight of the machine
A. To protect the valve from high temperature steam foundation?
B. To protect the liquid fill in the capillary from boiling A. 3 to 5 times the machine weight
C. To protect the control system from irreversible damage B. 4 to 6 times the machine weight
D. Control valve, actuator and capillary tube protect the C. 2 to 4 times the machine weight
application from overtemperature be D. 2 to 4 times the machine weight
ANSWER: C ANSWER: A
56. Why are three-port self-acting control valves used in an 64. It is a bituminous coal that contains plenty of hydrocarbons,
industrial steam of a thermal system? forming lumped masses when burned. This coal is ideal for
A. To mix or divert liquids especially water forming carbonaceous gases for reduction of ore. What do
B. To dump steam to waste under fault conditions you call this coal?
C. Where cooling applications are required A. Coking or coking coal
D. When large valves are required to meet large capacities B. Peat coal
ANSWER: A C. Free burning coal
57. How do you call a process in which superheated steam is D. Lignite coal
either restored to its saturated state, or its superheated ANSWER: A
temperature is reduced? 65. It is an engine in which the connecting rod is directly
A. Superheating connected to the piston wristpin. The side thrust caused by
B. Regenerative heating the angularity of the connecting rod is taken by the piston
C. Reheating bearing against the cylinder wall.
D. Desuperheating A. Opposed-piston engine
ANSWER: D B. Crosshead engine
58. What does MAWP stand for C. Trunk piston engine
A. Maximum attenuated working pressure D. 2-stroke engine
B. Maximum allowable working pressure ANSWER: B
C. Maximum allowable with pressure 66. It is an internal combustion engine wherein the ignition of
D. Minimum allowable working pressure the fuel is not accomplished solely by the heat developed
ANSWER: B from the compression of the combustion air supplied but
59. Name one disadvantage of a direct acting pressure partly or entirely by other heat sources, such as an
reducing valve. uncooled tube, plate, bulb, or an electric resistance coil.
A. It only has proportional control A. Spark-ignition engine
B. It has proportional and integral control but no derivative B. Compression-ignition engine
control C. Surface-ignition engine
C. It operates in an o/off fashion D. Dual combustion engine
D. An external power source is required for it to operate ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A 67. This is the condition in a geothermal plant wherein the
60. In order to avoid cavitation in a centrifugal pump, which of ground surface where the well is drilled is depressed or
the following is true? subsides due to depleting. What do you call this?
A. Installation NPSH ≥ pump NPSH A. Ground subsidence
B. Installation NPSH ≤ pump NPSH B. Chemical pollution
C. Installation NPSH < pump NPSH C. Thermal pollution
D. Installation NPSH should be negative D. Dissolved solids
ANSWER: A ANSWER: A
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 10
68. In the critical thickness of insulator concept for a cylinder, ANSWER: D
what does the Biot number indicate if its value is less than 76. In gas compressor, when the volumetric efficiency
1? increases, the piston displacement has:
A. Condition for optimum heat flow A. Not been changed
B. Addition of insulation will increase heat transfer rate B. Been increased
C. Additional insulation will decrease the heat transfer rate C. Been decreased
D. Heat transfer rate reaches a maximum D. Been insufficient data
ANSWER: B ANSWER: C
69. How do you call the ratio of the product of a convective 77. The ratio of its radiating power to that of a black body at
heat transfer coefficient and the critical radius of the same temperature
insulator to that of the thermal conductivity of the A. Transmissivity
insulator? B. Absorptivity
A. Biot number C. Reflectivity
B. Nusselt number D. Emissivity
C. Prandlt number ANSWER: D
D. Reynolds number 78. Fans used to withdraw air under suction, that is, the
ANSWER: A resistance to gas flow is imposed primarily upon the inlet.
70. This is a type of dryer that consists of a vertical shaft in A. Blowers
which the wet feed is introduced at the top and falls B. industrial fans
downward over baffles while coming in contact with the C. Exhauster
hot air that rises and exhaust at the top. This dryer is used D. Domestic fans
for drying palay, wheat, and grains. ANSWER: C
A. Rotary dryer 79. The phenomenon of rising water in the tube of small
B. Tower dryer diameter is called what?
C. Hearth dryer A. Surface tension
D. Tray dryer B. Water gage rise
ANSWER: C C. Capillary rise
71. How do you call those substances that are particularly D. Fluid column rise
variable in the moisture content that they can possess at ANSWER: C
different times? 80. Pitot tube is used to measure
A. Wet materials A. Height
B. Hygroscopic materials B. Viscosity
C. Gross materials C. Velocity
D. Bone-dry-weight material D. Density
ANSWER: B ANSWER: C
72. The bottom blow down on a boiler is used to: 81. During engine operation, to vary the air quantity and also
A. Remove mud drum water impurities to vary the air fuel mixture, this is used to pen and closed
B. Increase boiler priming the inlet manifold.
C. Reduce steam pressure in the header A. Throttle valve
D. Increase the boiler water level B. Choke valve
ANSWER: A C. Check valve
73. In a Brayton cycle or gas turbine cycle, what do you call the D. Gate valve
heat exchanger that passes exhaust heat to the ANSWER: A
compressed air, prior to combustion? 82. This is a type of reaction turbine usually with typical spiral
A. Reheater casing where water enters the runner radially at its outer
B. Heater periphery and changes direction (imparting energy to the
C. Recuperator runner) while flowing along the complex-shaped profiles to
D. Recuperator discharge axially. It is the most widely used type of
ANSWER: C hydraulic turbine for modern power generation purposes.
74. The heat rejected by the working substance to the A. Pelton Turbine
regenerator in the Stirling cycle is: B. Francis Turbine
A. Equal to the heat absorbed by the working substance D. Turgo Turbine
from the regenerator D. Kaplan Turbine
B. Equal to the heat absorbed by the working substance ANSWER: B
from the regenerator 83. It is an expanding tube connecting the outlet passage of a
C. Dependent on the value of temperature in the heat turbine with the tail water.
addition process A. Draft Tube
D. Measured during the constant temperature heat B. Forebay
rejection process C. Penstock
ANSWER: A D. Surge Chamber
75. How do you call a device that converts liquid refrigerant to ANSWER: A
vapour, with the help of the surrounding heat? 84. It is a hydroelectric plant in which excess water is pumped
A. Condenser to an elevated space during off-peak period and the stored
B. Compressor water will be used to drive hydraulic turbines during the
C. Expansion valve peak period to meet the peak demand.
D. Evaporator A. Run-of-River Plant
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 10
B. Storage Plant C. Wicket gate
C. Pumped Storage Plant D. Governor
D. None of the above ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C 94. These are movable vertical vanes that are actuated by the
85. It is a channel that conducts water away from the turbine. governor to control the flow of water and therefore the
A. Headrace Pipe energy supplied to the runner.
B. Forebay A. Spillway
C. Penstock B. Runner
D. Tailrace C. Headrace pipe
ANSWER: D D. Wicket gate
86. This is a grid or screen composed of parallel bars to catch ANSWER: D
floating debris. It prevents leaves, branches, and other 95. The speed of a hypothetical model turbine having the same
water contaminants from entering the penstock. configuration as the actual turbine, when the model would
A. Surge tank be of the proper size to develop 1 hp at a head of 1 ft.
B. Trash Rack A. Synchronous speed
C. Butterfly valve B. Specific speed
D. Weir C. Runaway speed
ANSWER: B D. Turbine speed
87. It is the term used that refers to water in the reservoir. ANSWER: B
A. Headwater 96. The difference in elevation between the headwater and the
B. Discharge tailwater or tailrace.
C. Tailwater A. Dynamic head
D. Stored water B. Net head
ANSWER: A C. Gross head
88. This is a propeller- type reaction turbine with both D. Effective head
adjustable guide vanes and runner blades. ANSWER: C
A. Kaplan Turbine 97. The ratio of the effective head to the gross head.
B. Pelton Turbine A. Mechanical efficiency
C. Turgo Turbine B. Penstock efficiency
D. Cross-flow C. Hydraulic efficiency
ANSWER: A D. Volumetric efficiency
89. It is basically hydroelectric power utilizing the difference in ANSWER: B
elevation between high and low tide to produce energy. 98. The ratio of the head utilized to the effective head.
A. Water power A. Mechanical efficiency
B. Tidal Power B. Penstock efficiency
C. Fluid Power C. Hydraulic efficiency
D. Wave Power D. Volumetric efficiency
ANSWER: B ANSWER: C
90. The power output of this plant depends on the water flow 99. Heads between 70 and 800 ft generally indicate this type of
in the river; at low river flows the output decreases turbine.
accordingly. A. Impulse turbine
The power output of this plant depends on the water flow B. Propeller turbine
in the river; at low river flows the output decreases C. Reaction turbine
accordingly. D. Pelton turbine
A. Pumped Storage Plant ANSWER: C
B. Run-of-River Plant 100. Heads below about 70 ft call for this type of turbine.
C. Storage Plant A. Impulse turbine
D. All of the above B. Propeller turbine
ANSWER: B C. Reaction turbine
91. The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a dam. D. Pelton turbine
A. Forebay ANSWER: B
B. Draft tube 101. The functions of this hydraulic turbine part are: (1) It
C. Penstock enables the turbine to be set above the tailwater level
D. Tailrace without losing any head thereby. and (2) It reduces the
ANSWER: C head loss at submerged discharge to increase the net head
92. A kind of fluid flow where in the fluid travels parallel to the available to the turbine runner.
adjacent layers and the paths of individual particles do not A. Spiral casing
cross or intersect. B. Draft tube
A. Turbulent flow C. Wicket gate
B. Laminar flow D. Butterfly valve
C. Critical flow ANSWER: B
D. Steady flow 102. It is a tank with free surface provided at the transition from
ANSWER: C the low-pressure headrace or tunnel to the penstock. It
93. It conducts the water around the turbine. protects the headrace pipe or tunnel from excessive
A. Spiral casing changes in pressure and supplying or storing water as
B. Draft tube required.
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 10
A. Surge tank B. hydraulic power
B. Draft tube C. indicated power
C. Butterfly valve D. none of the above
D. Spillway ANSWER: B
ANSWER: A 112. The velocity of fluid is zero at the wall and maximum at the
103. The rotating part of the turbine where the water imparts its center because of the
energy onto the turbine shaft. A. velocity effect
A. Runner B. temperature effect
B. Flywheel C. viscous effect
C. Impeller D. none of the above
D. Lobe ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A 113. The work termed for pumps, compressors, fans and
104. The formation and collapse of vapor bubbles that occurs blowers is negative since work
when the pump inlet suction pressure falls to or below the A. done by the fluid
vapor pressure of the liquid is called. B. rejected by the fluid
A. Priming C. done on the fluid
B. Cavitation D. none of the above
C. Foaming ANSWER: C
D. Net positive suction head 114. This is a type of water turbine where a jet of water is made
ANSWER: B to fall on the blades or buckets and due to the impulse of
105. A property of lubricating oil that measures the thickness of water the turbine will start moving.
the oil and will help determine how long oil will flow at a a. Steam turbine
given temperature is known as ________________. b. Francis turbine
A. Pour point c. Reaction turbine
B. Flash Point d. Pelton wheel turbine
C. Relative density ANSWER: D
D. Viscosity 115. A device used to prevent water hammer in turbine.
ANSWER: D A. Governor
106. A flow at low Reynold’s number with smooth steam lines B. Surge tank
and shear and conduction effects owing entirely to the C. guard
fluids molecular viscosity and conductivity. D. wicket gate
A. Turbulent ANSWER: B
B. Laminar 116. This is a vent or hole in the earth’s surface usually in
C. Critical volcanic region, from which steam, gaseous vapors, or hot
D. Non-viscous gases issue.
ANSWER: B A. Magma
107. The fact that the buoyant force on a floating object is equal B. Geyser
to the weight of displaced liquid is known as C. Fumarole
A. Bernoulli’s theorem D. Fault
B. Continuity equation ANSWER: C
C. Archimedes’ principle 117. The typical depth of a geothermal production well in
D. Law of Conservation of mass meters.
ANSWER: C A. 1000
108. The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid loop is to B. 3000
A. add energy to the flow C. 1500
B. extract energy from the flow D. 4000
C. add mass to the flow ANSWER: B
D. none of the above 118. A wind energy system transforms the ____ of the wind into
ANSWER: B mechanical or electrical energy that can be harnessed for
109. It connects the turbine outlet to the tailwater so that the practical use.
turbine can be set above the tailwater level. A. Potential Energy
A. draft tube B. Heat Energy
B. penstock C. Internal Energy
C. surge chamber D. Kinetic Energy
D. spillway ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A 119. It is the rhythmic rise and fall of the ocean waters.
110. It provides an efficient and safe means of releasing flow A. Tide range
water that exceeds the design capacity of the dam. B. Tide
A. draft tube C. Wave
B. penstock D. Water current
C. surge chamber ANSWER: B
D. spillway 120. The power available in the wind is proportional to the
ANSWER: D ________________ of its speed.
111. The power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid A. Cube
against a given head with no losses in the pump is called: B. Fourth Power
A. brake power C. Square
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 10
D. All of the above D. Methane
ANSWER: A ANSWER: D
121. It is the maximum tidal range. 129. It is the coal ash that exits a combustion chamber in the flue
A. Neap tides gas and is captured by air pollution control equipment such
B. Ebb tide as electrostatic precipitators, baghouses, and wet
C. Spring tide scrubbers.
D. Tidal wave A. Ash
ANSWER: C B. Fly Ash
122. Natural gas is considered _______________ when it is C. Bottoming Ash
almost pure methane. D. Refuse
A. Dry ANSWER: B
B. Saturated 130. Also known as brown coal, it is the lowest-rank solid coal
C. Wet with a calorific value of less than 8,300 Btu/lb on a moist
D. Superheated mineral-matter free basis.
ANSWER: A A. Bituminous coal
123. In this type of reactor, the water is heated by the nuclear B. Lignite
fuel and boils to steam directly into the reactor vessel. It is C. Peat
then piped directly to the turbine. The turbine spins, driving D. Anthracite
the electrical generator, producing electricity. ANSWER: B
A. Heavy Water Reactor 131. It means using the same energy source for more than one
B. Pressurized Water Reactor purpose, such as using the waste heat from an engine for
C. Boiling Water Reactor space heating.
D. All of the above A. Superposing
ANSWER: C B. Cogeneration
124. It is an air pollution control device that works by electrically C. Topping
charging the particles of fly ash in the flue gas and collecting D. Combined Cycle Plant
them by attraction to charged metal plates. ANSWER: B
A. Wet scrubber 132. The minimum amount of air required for the complete
B. Bag houses combustion of fuel.
C. Electrostatic Precipitator A. Stoichiometric Air
D. Cyclone Separator B. Actual Air
ANSWER: C C. Excess Air
125. This nuclear reactor component, which is made up of D. Percentage excess air
carbon and beryllium, slows down the fast neutrons that ANSWER: A
are born during the fission process. 133. The device or instrument used for measuring the calorific
A. Control Rods value of a unit mass of fuel is called:
B. Coolant A. calorimeter
C. Moderator B. Pyrometer
D. Reflector C. salinometer
ANSWER: C D. thermometer
126. These boron coated steel rods are used to regulate the rate ANSWER: A
of fission chain reaction. They are withdrawn from the core 134. When water (H2O) in the products of combustion is in the
to start the chain reaction and inserted all the way into the vapor or gaseous form, the heating value is known as:
core to stop it. A. Higher heating value (HHV)
A. Control Rods B. Heating value (HV)
B. Coolant C. Lower heating value (LHV)
C. Moderator D. Gross calorific value (GCV)
D. Reflector ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A 135. The percent excess air is the difference between the air
127. In general usage, the term “combined cycle power plant” actually supplied and the theoretical air required divided by
describes the combination of a gas turbine generator(s) A. the theoretically air supplied
(__________ cycle) with turbine exhaust waste boiler(s) B. the deficiency air supplied
and steam turbine generator(s) (Rankine cycle) for the C. total air supplied
production of electrical power. D. none of the above
A. Diesel Cycle ANSWER: A
B. Reheat Cycle 136. During a combustion process, the components which exist
C. Otto Cycle before the reaction are called ______
D. Brayton Cycle A. reactants
ANSWER: D B. flue gases
128. Natural gas is a fossil fuel formed when layers of buried C. products
plants and animals are exposed to intense heat and D. none of the above
pressure. It has been dubbed as the “fuel of the future” or ANSWER: A
“green fuel” and comprises mainly of _______________. 137. The minimum amount of air needed for the complete
A. Propane combustion of fuel is called ________
B. Ethane A. excess air
C. Butane B. combustion air
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 10
C. theoretical air B. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, ash and
D. none of the above moisture
ANSWER: C C. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, sulfur, nitrogen and ash
138. A gas which will not be found in the flue gases produced D. Fixed carbon, volatile matter, ash and moisture
from the complete combustion of fuel oil is ANSWER: D
A. carbon dioxide 147. Which element of fuel is not combustible?
B. oxygen A. Carbon
D. hydrogen B. Sulfur
D. nitrogen C. Hydrogen
ANSWER: C D. Oxygen
139. The higher heating value is determined when the water in ANSWER: D
the products of combustion is in 148. A device or an instrument used to record the cylinder
A. solid form pressure of an engine and piston travel in an X-Y graph,
B. liquid form where pressure forms the vertical axis and piston travel
C. vapor form forms the horizontal axis.
D. gas form A. Engine Indicator
ANSWER: B B. Pyrometer
140. The amount of heat liberated by the complete combustion C. Planimeter
of a unit weight or volume of fuel is known as: D. Dynamometer
A. heating value ANSWER: A
B. sensible heat 149. This diagram is used by the operating engineer to detect or
C. latent heat determine leaky piston packing, sticking piston, incorrect
D. work of compression valve timing, loose bearings, restricted and or outlet piping,
ANSWER: A etc.
141. An “ attemperator ” is another name for A. Timing diagram
A. Dry pipe B. P-h diagram
B. Superheater C. T-s diagram
C. Reheater D. Indicator diagram
D. Desuperheater ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D 150. The effective weight of the brake arm when the brake band
142. What is the fundamental indicator of good combustion? is loose.
A. Colorless smoke. A. Tare Weight
B. Releasing maximum nitrogen content of the B. Net Load
combustion with minimum oxygen, carbon dioxide and C. Gross Load
carbon monoxide content. D. Net Tension
C. Presence of minimum oxygen, maximum carbon dioxide ANSWER: A
and nil combustibles in the flue gas. 151. The power output of the generator.
D. Saturated clean smoke. A. Ideal Power
ANSWER: C B. Brake Power
143. It is a solidified mass of fused ash. C. Indicated Power
A. Sludge D. Electrical Power
B. Carbon residues ANSWER: D
C. Solidified ash 152. The amount of fuel needed to perform a unit of power.
D. Clinker A. Specific fuel consumption
ANSWER: D B. Heat Rate
144. Why does older types of economizers were constructed C. Steam rate
invariably of cast iron? D. Mass flow rate
A. Because cast iron resists corrosion better than mild ANSWER: A
steel and the pressures were comparatively low. 153. The ratio of heat converted to useful power to the heat
B. Because it is cheap. supplied.
C. Because cast iron is more abundant than any other type A. Mechanical efficiency
of steel. B. Generator efficiency
D. Because it’s thermal conductivity is very small and it C. Thermal efficiency
gives greater efficiency to the system. D. Engine efficiency
ANSWER: A ANSWER: C
145. It is an accessory often installed on modern boilers to 154. The ratio of the actual power of the engine to its ideal
preheat air for combustion before it enters the boiler power.
furnace. A. Mechanical efficiency
A. economizer B. Generator efficiency
B. reheater C. Thermal efficiency
C. air preheater D. Engine efficiency
D. forced-draft fan ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C 155. The ratio of the cylinder volumes after and before the
146. What components are included in the proximate analysis in combustion process.
solid fuel? A. Compression ratio
A. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and excess oxygen B. Cutoff ratio
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 10
C. Expansion ratio 165. The ideal cycle for the compression-ignition reciprocating
D. All of the above engines.
ANSWER: B A. Diesel cycle
156. The position of the piston when it forms the smallest B. Dual cycle
volume in the cylinder. C. Otto cycle
A. Crank End Dead Center Position D. Carnot cycle
B. Head End Dead Center Position ANSWER: A
C. Bottom Dead Center Position 166. The power developed in the engine cylinder as obtained
D. Clearance Volume from the pressure in the cylinder.
ANSWER: B A. Ideal power
157. The position of the piston when it forms the largest B. Brake power
volume in the cylinder. C. Indicated power
A. Crank End Dead Center Position D. Electrical power
B. Head End Dead Center Position ANSWER: C
C. Top Dead Center Position 167. The pressure and torque spent in overcoming friction of
D. Clearance Volume reciprocating and revolving parts of the engine and
ANSWER: A automobile before it reached the drive shaft.
158. When four events take place in one revolution of a A. Electrical losses
crankshaft of an engine, the engine is called: B. Brake power
A. rotary engine C. Indicated power
B. 2-stroke cycle engine D. Friction power
C. steam engine ANSWER: D
D. 4-stroke cycle engine 168. It is an instrument for determining brake power, usually by
ANSWER: B the independent measurement of force, time and distance
159. What is the model cycle for spark ignition engine? through which the force is moved.
A. Diesel cycle A. Planimeter
B. Otto cycle B. Anemometer
C. Brayton cycle C. Dynamometer
D. Carnot cycle D. Barometer
ANSWER: B ANSWER: C
160. Diesel engine fuel is rated in terms of: 169. It is the indicator used to determine the anti-knock
A. Cetane number characteristics of gasoline.
B. Power output A. Octane Number
C. Octane rating B. Compression Ratio
D. Net Calorific Value C. Cetane Number
ANSWER: A D. Viscosity
161. The distance that the piston can travel in one direction. ANSWER: A
A. Bore ` 170. Draws fuel from tank through the primary fuel filter. This
B. Clearance provides flow throughout the low portion of the fuel
C. Stroke system.
D. Displacement A. Fuel injection pump
ANSWER: C B. Valve lifter
162. The minimum volume formed in the cylinder when the C. Fuel transfer pump
piston is at the top dead center. D. Oil pan
A. Displacement volume ANSWER: C
B. Cylinder Volume
C. Clearance volume
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C
163. It is a fictitious pressure which, if it acted on the piston
during the entire power stroke, would produce the same
amount of net work as that produced during the actual
cycle.
A. Average pressure
B. Mean effective pressure
C. Maximum pressure
D. Minimum pressure
ANSWER: B
164. The ratio of constant pressure specific heat to the constant
volume specific heat.
A. Compression ratio
B. Cutoff ratio
C. Expansion ratio
D. Specific heat ratio
ANSWER: D
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 11
1. Acts as a balancer and provide momentum during dead C. mechanical efficiency
stroke in a cycle. D. engine efficiency
A. Flywheel ANSWER: C
B. Oil cooler 11. The efficiency of Otto cycle depends upon the
C. Crankshaft A. pressure ratio
D. After cooler B. compression ratio
ANSWER: A C. specific heat ratio
2. Are steel tubes with seat at both ends and bridges the D. cut-off ratio
motion from camshaft to rocker arm. ANSWER: B
A. Push rod 12. The maximum temperature of Diesel cycle will occur
B. Suction bell A. after isentropic compression
C. Valve lifter B. at the end of isobaric heating
D. Flywheel C. after isentropic expansion
ANSWER: A D. at the beginning of adiabatic compression
3. Passage of coolant from the engine block to the cylinder ANSWER: B
head. 13. The ratio of the average load to the peak load over a
A. Water jacket designated period of time.
B. Fuel transfer pump A. Demand Factor
C. Oil cooler B. Load Factor
D. Turbo charger C. Capacity Factor
ANSWER: A D. Diversity Factor
4. Are used to cool incoming air so that the volume of air ANSWER: B
available is increased. 14. The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the
A. After cooler system to the overall maximum demand of the whole
B. Waste gates system.
C. Radiator A. Demand Factor
D. Muffler B. Load Factor
ANSWER: A C. Capacity Factor
5. The difference between the maximum and minimum D. Diversity Factor
volume. ANSWER: D
A. Displacement Volume 15. The sum of the continuous ratings of all the equipment and
B. Top Dead Center outlets on the customer’s circuit.
C. Clearance Volume A. Reserve load
D. Differential Volume B. Peak load
ANSWER: A C. Maximum demand
6. These are used to seal the gasses within the cylinder and to D. Connected load
keep oil out. ANSWER: D
A. Piston Rings 16. The ratio of the duration of the actual service of a machine
B. Cylinder Liner or equipment to the total duration of the period of time
C. Combustion Chamber considered.
D. Piston Plug A. Operation factor
ANSWER: A B. Demand factor
7. Process where the heat is added in the Otto cycle. C. Utilization factor
A. constant temperature D. Capacity factor
B. constant entropy ANSWER: A
C. constant volume 17. The ratio of the brake mean effective pressure to the
D. constant pressure indicated mean effective pressure.
ANSWER: C A. Mechanical efficiency
8. Process where the heat is added in the Diesel cycle. B. Indicated engine efficiency
A. constant temperature C. Brake engine efficiency
B. constant entropy D. Brake thermal efficiency
C. constant volume ANSWER: A
D. constant pressure 18. The ratio of the combined engine efficiency to the brake
ANSWER: D engine efficiency.
9. It is used to reduce the friction of bearings and sliding A. Combined engine efficiency
surfaces in machines and thus diminish the wear, heat and B. Combined thermal efficiency
possibility of seizure of the parts C. Generator efficiency
A. Lubricant D. Brake engine efficiency
B. Wax ANSWER: C
C. Gasoline 19. The ratio of the average load to that of the peak load of a
D. Benzene plant is called:
ANSWER: A A. output factor
10. In a heat engine, the ratio of brake power to the indicated B. load factor
power is called: C. demand factor
A. thermal efficiency D. capacity factor
B. generator efficiency ANSWER: B
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 11
20. The ratio of the peak load to the connected load is known 29. It is that portion of the universe, an atom, a certain quantity
as: of matter, or a certain volume in space that one wishes to
A. output factor study.
B. load factor A. Heat
C. demand factor B. System
D. capacity factor C. Work
ANSWER: C D. Efficiency
21. The difference between the power plant installed capacity ANSWER: B
and the peak load is called: 30. It is the force of gravity per unit volume of a substance.
A. average load A. Density
B. reserve over peak B. Specific volume
C. connected load C. Specific weight
D. none of the above D. Specific gravity
ANSWER: B ANSWER: C
22. A series of processes during which the initial state point and 31. It is a kind of thermodynamic system whose mass does not
the final state point are the same. cross its boundaries.
A. Process A. Open system
B. Cycle B. Closed system
C. Change of state C. Steady flow system
D. All of the above D. Transient flow
ANSWER: B ANSWER: B
23. The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is equal to 32. Which law states that “the acceleration of a particular body
______________. is directly proportional to the resultant force acting on it
A. 1.00 and inversely proportional to its mass?
B. 0.90 A. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
C. 1.40 B. First Law of Thermodynamics
D. 1.30 C. Second law of Thermodynamics
ANSWER: A D. Newton’s Second Law of Motion
24. The relation PV=C represents a process or change of state, ANSWER: B
which is known as _________. 33. A substance that receives, transports and transfers energy.
A. Isometric process A. Reservoir
B. Isothermal process B. Engine
C. Isobaric process C. Working substance
D. Isentropic process D. Heat sink
ANSWER: B ANSWER: C
25. In the relation PVn= C, if the value of n= 0 the process is said 34. A system where energy and mass cross its boundaries.
to be __________. A. Open system
A. Isometric process B. Closed system
B. Isothermal process C. Isolated System
C. Isobaric process D. Transient flow system
D. Polytropic process ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C 35. The law of thermodynamics that deals with the law of
26. In a Carnot cycle, the heat rejection in the conservation of energy, which states that energy can
____________________ process. neither be created nor destroyed.
A. Isentropic expansion A. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
B. Isothermal expansion B. First Law of Thermodynamics
C. Isentropic compression C. Second law of Thermodynamics
D. Isothermal compression D. Third Law of Thermodynamics
ANSWER: D ANSWER: B
27. System in which the mass inflow and outflow are not equal 36. It states that in any mechanical mixture of gases and vapors
or vary with time and in which the mass within the system (those that do not combine chemically) the total pressure
changes with time. of the gaseous mixture such as moist air is equal to the sum
A. Steady flow system of the partial pressure exerted by the individual gases or
B. Unsteady state, unsteady flow system vapors.
C. Steady state system A. Joule’s Law
D. Steady flow, steady state system B. Amagat’s Law
ANSWER: B C. Dalton’s Law
28. A form of energy that is a sole function of temperature for D. Charles’ Law
perfect gases and a strong function of temperature and ANSWER: C
weak function of pressure for non-perfect gases, vapors, 37. It is a substance existing in the gaseous phase but relatively
and liquids. near its saturation temperature.
A. Internal energy A. Gas
B. Flow work B. Vapor
C. Enthalpy C. Air
D. Pressure energy D. Oxygen
ANSWER: A ANSWER: B
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 11
38. The point at which the saturated liquid and saturated vapor D. Brayton cycle
states are identical. ANSWER: D
A. Critical point 48. It is the most thermal efficient cycle consisting of two (2)
B. Saturated liquid-vapor point isentropic processes and two (2) isothermal processes.
C. Triple point A. Carnot cycle
D. Saturation Point B. Otto cycle
ANSWER: A C. Rankine cycle
39. The point at which heat transfer stops. D. Diesel cycle
A. Steady-flow ANSWER: A
B. Thermal equilibrium 49. How can the average temperature during heat rejection
C. Thermodynamic equilibrium process of a Rankine cycle be decreased?
D. Steady-state A. increase boiler pressure
ANSWER: B B. increase inlet turbine pressure
40. It is an instrument used for determining the specific gravity C. increase condenser pressure
of a solution. D. reduce turbine exit pressure
A. Barometer ANSWER: D
B. Calorimeter 50. What is commonly done to a vapor power cycle when the
C. Hydrometer turbine has excessive moisture?
D. Manometer A. frosting
ANSWER: C B. reheating
41. It refers to the temperature at which all molecular motion C. diffusing
ceases according to the kinetic theory of heat. D. dehumidifying
A. 0 K ANSWER: B
B. -273 °C 51. A form of energy that is transferred between two systems
C. 0 °R by virtue of temperature difference.
D. All of the above A. Heat
ANSWER: D B. Potential Energy
42. The area under the curve on a pressure-volume diagram C. Kinetic Energy
represents ____________. D. Electrical Energy
A. Steady Flow Work ANSWER: A
B. Net Work 52. A thermodynamic process with no heat transfer.
C. Nonflow Work A. Isentropic Process
D. Cycle Work B. Throttling Process
ANSWER: C C. Adiabatic Process
43. A boiler steam pressure gage should have a range of at least D. All of the above.
_______times the maximum allowable working pressure. ANSWER: D
A. 1.0 53. An energy interaction that is not caused by a temperature
B. 1.50 difference between a system and its surrounding.
C. 1.25 A. Work
D. 1.75 B. Convection
ANSWER: B C. Conduction
44. It is a valve designed to allow a fluid to pass through in one D. Heat
direction only. ANSWER: A
A. Gate valve 54. Changing of solid directly to vapor, without passing through
B. Quick-return valve the liquid state, is called
C. Globe valve A. Sublimation
D. Check valve B. Evaporation
ANSWER: D C. Condensation
45. An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. The enthalpy D. Vaporization
change is equal to _________. ANSWER: A
A. Zero 55. Rigid container is heated by the sun. There is no shaft work
B. Negative associated with the container. From the first law of
C. Positive thermodynamics, the resulting work is:
D. None of the above A. equal to the heat transfer
ANSWER: A B. equal to the change in internal energy
46. The _________________ is constant in an adiabatic C. equal to the volume times the change in pressure
throttling process. D. equal to zero
A. Pressure ANSWER: D
B. Internal energy 56. The net work output of a heat engine is always
C. Volume _______________________.
D. Enthalpy A. less than the amount of heat input
ANSWER: D B. more than the amount of heat input
47. It is the ideal cycle for a gas turbine plant. C. less than the amount of heat output
A. Carnot cycle D. none of the above
B. Diesel cycle ANSWER: A
C. Rankine cycle
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 11
57. The sum of all the energies of all the molecules in a system, C. Internal Energy
energies that appear in several complex forms. D. Flow Work
A. Enthalpy ANSWER: C
B. Kinetic Energy 67. A system that is completely impervious to its surrounding.
C. Internal Energy Neither mass nor energy cross its boundaries.
D. Potential Energy A. Open system
ANSWER: C B. Adiabatic system
58. It is a liquid whose temperature is below the saturation C. Closed system
temperature corresponding to its pressure. D. Isolated system
A. Saturated liquid ANSWER: C
B. Subcooled liquid 68. A device used to measure small and moderate pressure
C. Superheated liquid difference.
D. none of the above A. Manometer
ANSWER: B B. Barometer
59. A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is C. Bourdon gage
called a D. Piezometer
A. Perpetual motion machine of the second kind ANSWER: A
B. Perpetual motion machine of the third kind 69. A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation
C. Perpetual motion machine of the first kind temperature corresponding to its pressure.
D. None of the above A. Superheated vapor
ANSWER: C B. Saturated vapor
60. The efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating C. Super saturated vapor
between the same two reservoirs ________. D. Subcooled vapor
A. differ ANSWER: A
B. are unequal 70. The energy or stored capacity for performing work
C. are the same possessed by a moving body, by virtue of its momentum
D. none of the above A. Internal energy
ANSWER: C B. Work
61. A process with no heat transfer is known as C. Gravitational potential energy
A. isobaric process D. Kinetic energy
B. adiabatic process ANSWER: C
C. isothermal process 71. The thermodynamic process wherein temperature is
D. isometric process constant and the change in internal energy is zero.
ANSWER: B A. Isobaric process
62. The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density B. Isometric process
to the density of: C. Isothermal process
A. mercury D. Polytropic process
B. gas ANSWER: C
C. oil 72. The function of a pump or compressor is to
D. water A. transfer heat from one fluid to another
ANSWER: D B. increase the total energy content of the flow
63. This type of heat exchanger allows fluids to flow at right C. extract energy from the flow
angles to each other D. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
A. Series flow ANSWER: B
B. Cross flow 73. This law states that “all energy received as heat by a heat-
C. Parallel flow engine cannot be converted into mechanical work”.
D. Counter flow A. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
ANSWER: B B. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
64. The fact the total energy in any one energy system remains C. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
constant is called the principle of _______. D. All of the above.
A. Conservation of Energy ANSWER: B
B. Conservation of Mass 74. The intensity of pressure that is measured above absolute
C. Second Law of Thermodynamics zero is called:
D. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics A. Gage pressure
ANSWER: A B. Vacuum pressure
65. A process for which the inlet and outlet enthalpies are the C. Absolute pressure
same D. Saturation pressure
A. Isentropic ANSWER: C
B. Throttling 75. This is the ratio of the heat equivalent of the brake or useful
C. Enthalpy Conservation horsepower developed by an engine and available on its
D. Steady State crankshaft to the heat during the same time.
ANSWER: B A. Brake engine efficiency
66. The sum of energies of all the molecules in system, energies B. Indicated thermal efficiency
that appear in several complex forms C. Combined thermal efficiency
A. Kinetic Energy D. Brake thermal efficiency
B. External Energy ANSWER: D
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 11
76. Flow work is equal to pressure times ____________. D. none of the above
A. temperature ANSWER: A
B. internal energy 86. A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation
C. entropy temperature corresponding to the existing pressure.
D. specific volume A. Superheated Vapor
ANSWER: D B. Saturated Vapor
77. This form of energy is due to the position or elevation of C. Wet vapor
the body. D. None of the above
A. internal energy ANSWER: A
B. potential energy 87. It is the work done in pushing a fluid across a boundary,
C. kinetic energy usually into or out of a system.
D. work A. Mechanical work
ANSWER: B B. Flow Work
78. Another term for constant volume process. C. Nonflow Work
A. isometric D. Electrical work
B. isovolumic ANSWER: B
C. isochoric 88. A liquid that has a temperature lower than the saturation
D. all of the above temperature corresponding to the existing pressure.
ANSWER: D A. Subcooled liquid
79. Work done by the steam during a reversible adiabatic B. Unsaturated liquid
expansion process in the turbine. C. Saturated liquid
A. Brake Work D. Water
B. Ideal Work ANSWER: A
C. Actual Fluid Work 89. In this type of boiler, the water passes through the tubes
D. Combined Work while the flue gases burn outside the tubes.
ANSWER: B A. Water-tube boiler
80. The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon the B. Steam generator
A. pressure C. Fire-tube Boiler
B. volume D. Electric Boiler
C. entropy ANSWER: A
D. temperature 90. It shows the water level in the boiler drum.
ANSWER: D A. Water column
81. It is the heat required in a constant-pressure process to B. Gauge glass
completely vaporize a unit-mass of liquid at a given C. Try cocks
temperature. D. All of the above
A. latent heat vaporization ANSWER: B
B. enthalpy of vaporization 91. It prevents damage to the boiler by giving warning of low
C. hfg water.
D. all of the above A. Safety valve
ANSWER: D B. Relief valve
82. It is a commonly used device for measuring temperature C. Fusible plug
differences or high temperatures. D. Try cocks
A. Thermistor ANSWER: C
B. Bimetallic Strip 92. It has several functions. When necessary it empties the
C. Thermocouple boiler for cleaning, inspection, or repair. It blows out mud,
D. Mercury in glass scale, or sediment when the boiler is in operation and
ANSWER: C prevents excessive concentration of soluble impurities in
83. The science and technology concerned with precisely the boiler.
measuring energy and enthalpy. A. Blow-down line
A. Thermodynamics B. Steam valve
B. Chemistry C. Boiler feedwater pump
C. Calorimetry D. None of the above
D. None of the above ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C 93. It is a heat exchanger which utilizes the heat of the flue
84. The rate of doing work per unit of time gases to preheat the air needed for combustion.
A. Torque A. Economizer
B. Force B. Reheater
C. Power C. Feedwater heater
D. Moment D. Air preheater
ANSWER: C ANSWER: D
85. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser 94. It is a feedwater preheating and waste heat recovery device
pressure. What is the effect of superheating the steam to a which utilizes the heat of the flue gases.
higher temperature to the cycle thermal efficiency? A. Economizer
A. the cycle thermal efficiency will increase B. Closed heater
B. the cycle thermal efficiency will decrease C. Open heater
C. the cycle thermal efficiency will remain constant D. Waterwalls
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 11
ANSWER: A 103. Air whose condition is such that any decrease in
95. It is a system of furnace cooling tubes which can extend the temperature will result in condensation of water vapor into
evaporative capacity of the water-tube boiler and at the liquid.
same time protect the furnace walls from high A. Saturated air
temperature. B. Saturated vapor
A. Reheater C. Unsaturated air
B. Superheater D. Moist air
C. Waterwalls ANSWER: A
D. Feedwater heater 104. It is the warm water temperature minus the cold-water
ANSWER: C temperature leaving the cooling tower.
96. It is based on the generation of 34.5 lbm/hr of steam from A. Approach
water at 212 °F to steam at 212 °F and equivalent to 33,500 B. Cooling Range
Btu/hr. C. Terminal difference
A. One horsepower D. LMTD
B. One boiler horsepower ANSWER: B
C. One kilowatt 105. The temperature where the relative humidity becomes
D. None of the above 100% and where the water vapor starts to condense is
ANSWER: B known as _______________.
97. It prevents boiler pressure from rising above a certain A. dry-bulb temperature
predetermined pressure by opening to allow excess steam B. dewpoint temperature
to escape into the atmosphere when that point is reached, C. wet-bulb temperature
thus guarding against a possible explosion through D. saturation temperature
excessive pressure. ANSWER: B
A. Relief valve 106. The surrounding air ____________ temperature is the
B. Fusible plug lowest temperature to which water could possibly be
C. Safety valve cooled in a cooling tower.
D. Pressure switches A. Dry-bulb
ANSWER: C B. Dew-point
98. In a water-tube boiler, the water will pass through C. Wet-bulb
_______________. D. Saturation temperature
A. inside the tubes ANSWER: C
B. inside the shell 107. Which is not a major part of the vapor compression
C. outside the tubes system?
D. outside the shell A. compressor
ANSWER: A B. evaporator
99. It is the temperature to which the air becomes saturated at C. condenser
constant pressure. D. refrigerant
A. dry-bulb temperature ANSWER: D
B. dewpoint temperature 108. This refers to the rate of heat transfer attributable only to
C. wet-bulb temperature a change in dry-bulb temperature.
D. saturation temperature A. sensible heating or cooling
ANSWER: B B. dehumidification
100. In a _________________ cooling tower, the air moves C. humidification
horizontally through the fills as the water moves D. cooling and dehumidifying
downward. ANSWER: A
A. Crossflow 109. It is a binary mixture of dry-air and water- vapor.
B. Parallel flow A. Dry air
C. Counterflow B. Saturated vapor
D. Double-flow C. Moist air
ANSWER: A D. Wet mixture
101. It is the subject that deals with the behavior of moist air. ANSWER: C
A. Psychrometer 110. The temperature measured by an ordinary thermometer.
B. Refrigeration A. Wet-bulb temp.
C. Psychrometry B. Dry-bulb temp.
D. Pneumatics C. Dew-point temp.
ANSWER: C D. Wet-bulb depression
102. It is the ratio of the mass of water vapor in a certain volume ANSWER: B
of moist air at a given temperature to the mass of water 111. The mass of water interspersed in each kilogram of dry air.
vapor in the same volume of saturated air at the same A. enthalpy
temperature. B. specific volume
A. Humidity ratio C. humidity ratio
B. Humidity D. relative humidity
C. Specific humidity ANSWER: C
D. Relative Humidity 112. This system combines two vapor-compression units, with
ANSWER: D the condenser of the low-temperature system discharging
its heat to the evaporator of the high-temperature system.
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 11
A. Cascade systems D. Convection
B. Multi-stage system ANSWER: C
C. Binary system 121. What is the simultaneous control of temperature,
D. Multi-pressure system humidity, air movement, and quantity of air in space?
ANSWER: A A. Refrigeration
113. A process of increasing the humidity ratio at constant dry- B. Air-conditioning
bulb temperature. C. Psychrometry
A. Dehumidifying process D. Humidification
B. Cooling process ANSWER: B
C. Heating process 122. The non-condensing component of the moist air.
D. Humidifying process A. Hydrogen
ANSWER: D B. Nitrogen
114. The ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor in the air to C. Water vapor
the saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature D. Dry air
of the air. ANSWER: D
A. Humidity Ratio 123. The substance used for heat transfer in a vapor
B. Relative Humidity compression refrigerating system. It picks up heat by
C. Specific humidity evaporating at a low temperature and pressure and gives
D. Moisture content up this heat by condensing at a higher temperature and
ANSWER: B pressure.
115. It is an air conditioning process that involves heating A. Water
without changing the moisture content of air. The process B. Air
is represented by a horizontal line in the psychrometric C. Ammonia
chart, from left to right. D. Gas
A. Sensible cooling process ANSWER: C
B. Humidifying process 124. What is the pressure of the refrigerant between the
C. Sensible heating process expansion valve and the intake of the compressor in a multi
D. Heating and dehumidifying process pressure refrigeration system?
ANSWER: C A. High-side pressure
116. It is an air conditioning process of increasing the humidity B. Discharge pressure
ratio without changing the dry-bulb temperature of air. The C. Condensing pressure
process is represented in the psychrometric chart by a D. Low-side pressure
vertical line, from up to down. ANSWER: D
A. Sensible cooling process 125. A refrigerating machine that is classified as a one-ton
B. Humidifying process machine has the capacity to produce a cooling effect of:
C. Sensible heating process A. 3.517 kW
D. Heating and dehumidifying process B. 12,000 Btu/hr
ANSWER: B C. 211 kJ/min
117. The temperature at which the water vapor content of moist D. All of the above
air begins to condense when air is cooled at constant ANSWER: D
pressure 126. Axial fans are best suitable for application.
A. Dew Point Temperature A. Large flow, low head
B. Wet Bulb Temperature B. High head, large flow
C. Dry Bulb Temperature C. Low flow, high head
D. Condensing temperature D. Low flow, low head
ANSWER: A ANSWER: A
118. It is the index of performance of a refrigeration system 127. Which of the following axial fan types is most efficient?
which is a dimensionless quantity. A. Propeller
A. Coefficient of Performance B. Vane axial
B. Energy Ratio C. Tube axial
C. Energy Efficiency Ratio D. Radial
D. Performance Ratio ANSWER: B
ANSWER: A 128. Constant rotative speed of the hydraulic turbine runner
119. It is simply the compression of the gas in two or more under varying load is achieved by a ___________ that
cylinders in place of a single cylinder compressor. actuates a mechanism that adjust the gate openings.
A. Intercooled Compression A. Governor
B. Multistage Compression B. Runner
C. Efficient Compression C. Wicket gates
D. High Power Compression D. Draft tube
ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
120. The transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of 129. A pipe or conduit used to carry water from reservoir intake
a substance to the adjacent less energetic ones as a result to a reaction turbine is known as:
of interactions between the particles. A. Guide Vane
A. Heat transfer B. Wicket Gate
B. Radiation C. Draft Tube
C. Conduction D. Penstock
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 11
ANSWER: D D. Globe Valve
130. The efficiency of forward curved centrifugal fans compared ANSWER: D
to backward curved fans is_________ 139. Which pipe accessories do not belong to the group?
A. Higher A. Elbows
B. Same B. Unions
C. Lower C. Tees
D. None D. Strainers
ANSWER: C ANSWER: D
131. When selecting a pump for a given application, it is usually 140. ________________ pump are known as vortex and
desirable to use a pump that will operate near its BEP which periphery pumps.
stands for _________. A. Turbine (Regenerative) Pumps
A. Brake Effective Horsepower B. Vertical Turbine Pumps
B. Best Efficiency Point C. Diaphragm Pumps
C. Best Effective Point D. Sliding Vane Pumps
D. Break Even Point ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B 141. Which types of pump does not belong to the group:
132. When selecting a pump for a given application, it is usually A. Screw Rotary Pump
desirable to use a pump that will operate near its BEP which B. Diaphragm Pump
stands for _________. C. Direct Acting Steam Pump
A. Brake Effective Horsepower D. Centrifugal Pump
B. Best Efficiency Point ANSWER: D
C. Best Effective Point 142. _____________ impellers are generally preferred when
D. Break Even Point handling average waters, because it does no rust and
ANSWER: B machining it, making its surface smooth are easy.
133. Name the fan which is more suitable for high pressure A. Stainless Steel
application? B. Bronze
A. Propeller type fan C. Cast-Steel
B. Backward curved centrifugal fan D. Cast-iron
C. Tube-axial fans ANSWER: B
D. All of the above 143. A valve used to prevent backflow in the fluid pipe is called:
ANSWER: B A. Check Valve
134. A type of centrifugal pump impeller characterized by wide B. Globe Valve
passages for water and the ratio of outside impeller to C. Angle Valve
impeller eye diameter is about 1.5. D. Gate Valve
A. Francis type ANSWER: A
B. Mixed Flow type 144. ______________ is a single-stage or multistage centrifugal
C. Radial type pump with pumping element suspended from discharge
D. Axial type piping also known as deep well or bore hole pumps.
ANSWER: A A. Turbine (Regenerative) Pump
135. The seal that allows the impeller shaft of centrifugal pump B. Vertical Turbine Pump
to pass from outside of the pump to inside, while C. Screw Pump
maintaining an air tight seal. D. Sliding Vane Pump
A. Sleeve ANSWER: B
B. Mechanical Seal 145. ___________________ pumps are intended for handling
C. Wearing Ring thick pulps, sewage sludge, acid, or alkaline solutions,
D. Packing mixture of water and gritty solids that wear out metal
ANSWER: D pumps.
136. Stationary guide vanes of a centrifugal pump surround the A. Direct acting steam pumps
impeller converts velocity energy to pressure head. B. Vertical Turbine Pumps
A. Diffuser C. Lobe pumps
B. Impeller D. Diaphragm pumps
C. Volute Casing ANSWER: D
D. Impeller vanes 146. ___________________ is that part of a rotary pump
ANSWER: A mounted on the drive shaft; it is the principal pumping
137. If two identical centrifugal pumps are installed in parallel member.
the _______________ is doubled. A. Idle Rotors
A. Flow rate B. Stator
B. Head C. Rotor
C. Power D. Driver
D. Efficiency ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A 147. What is the relationship of the capacity of centrifugal
138. _________ are used isolate as well as regulates the flow. pump, Q to impeller diameter, D, when there are two
They have a high pressure drop even wide open. impeller diameters (one is original the other cut down
A. Check Valve diameter) in the same pump?
B. Gate Valve A. Q is directly proportional to the square of D.
C. Ball Valve B. Q is directly proportional to D.
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 11
C. Q is inversely proportional to D. D. vapor absorption
D. Q is inversely proportional to the square of D. ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B 157. Refrigerant with chemical formula CHClF2 is designated by:
148. What is the relationship of the horsepower of a centrifugal A. R134a
pump, P, to the impeller speed, N, is pump is at two B. R12
different rotative speeds? C. R11
A. P is inversely proportional to the cube of N. D. R22
B. P is inversely proportional to N. ANSWER: D
C. P is directly proportional to N. 158. Refrigerant with chemical formula CF3CH2F is designated
D. P is directly proportional to the cube of N. by:
ANSWER: D A. R134A
149. Hydraulic turbine suitable for low head: B. R12
A. Pelton wheel C. R11
B. Francis turbine D. R22
C. Kaplan turbine ANSWER: A
D. Turgo turbine 159. Which refrigerant does not belong to the group?
ANSWER: C A. ammonia
150. If two identical centrifugal pumps are installed in series, the B. propane
system flow rate _______________. C. methane
A. is doubled D. Isobutane
B. is halved ANSWER: A
C. remains the same 160. Carbon dioxide refrigerant is designated by:
D. zero A. R717
ANSWER: C B. R744
151. The formation ad collapse of vapor bubbles that occurs C. R600
when pump inlet suction pressure falls to or below the D. R718
vapor pressure of the liquid is called: ANSWER: B
A. sublimation 161. Piping, fittings and valves materials found suitable for use
B. oxidation in ammonia refrigerant are manufactured from:
C. water hammering A. Copper
D. cavitation B. Aluminum
ANSWER: D C. Iron and Steel
152. The process done in centrifugal pump by filling-up the D. Brass
suction line and pump casing with liquid to remove air or ANSWER: C
vapors from the waterways of the pump is called: 162. Which statement is correct with water-cooled shell and
A. priming tube type of condenser?
B. charging A. Refrigerant condensing inside tubes and water flowing
C. water hammering in the shell.
D. pumping B. Water flowing through passes inside tubes and the
ANSWER: A refrigerant condensing in the shell.
153. Which term does not belong to the group: C. Both refrigerant and water flowing through passes
A. gear pump inside tubes and refrigerant condensing.
B. screw pump D. A, B, and C are correct
C. vane pump ANSWER: B
D. diaphragm pump 163. In a vapour-absorption refrigeration system utilizing
ANSWER: D ammonia as refrigerant and the absorbent is:
154. A type of condenser combines the functions of a condenser A. Water
and cooling tower is called: B. Carbon dioxide
A. air-cooled condenser C. Lithium Bromide
B. water-cooled condenser D. Air
C. ground-cooling condenser ANSWER: A
D. evaporative condenser 164. The most common secondary refrigerant medium used in
ANSWER: D indirect refrigeration system such as in industrial ice plants
155. An expansion valve with a fluid-charged remote bulb that and cold storages.
maintains a constant degree of superheat in the evaporator A. Hydrocarbon
is called: B. Carbon dioxide
A. thermostatic expansion valve C. Air
B. capillary tube D. Brine
C. automatic expansion valve ANSWER: D
D. float valve 165. A constant restriction expansion device in refrigeration
ANSWER: A system which is merely a long tube with narrow bore is
156. A refrigeration system ideally suited for use in air-craft called.
because it is light in weight and requires less space is called: A. Thermostatic expansion valve
A. mechanical vapor-compression B. Automatic expansion valve
B. steam-jet C. Capillary tube
C. air cycle D. Float valve
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 11
ANSWER: C 174. Which statement is correct on the effect of suction vapor
166. Mixtures of refrigerants but which behave like pure superheating in a vapor compression system?
substance are called: A. superheating both increases specific compressor work
A. isomers and the refrigerating effect.
B. hydrocarbons B. superheating both decrease specific compressor work
C. azeotropes and the refrigerating effect.
D. CFC C. superheating increases specific compressor work and
ANSWER: C decreases the refrigerating effect.
167. In refrigeration compressor that has an electric motor and D. superheating decrease specific compressor work and
a compressor built into an integral housing is commonly increases the refrigerating effect.
called: ANSWER: A
A. hermetic compressor
B. combined compressor
C. Open type compressor
D. packaged compressor
ANSWER: A
168. Compounds with same chemical formula but different
molecular structure (such R134 & R134a) are called:
A. brominated
B. hydrocarbons
C. azeotropes
D. isomers
ANSWER: D
169. Which of the following refrigerants does not belong to the
group?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Ammonia
C. Water
D. Isobutane
ANSWER: D
170. An expansion valve used for a flooded type of evaporator
in a refrigeration system is called:
A. thermostatic expansion valve
B. capillary tube
C. automatic expansion valve
D. float valve
ANSWER: D
171. An atom in the refrigerant molecule considered responsible
for the depletion ozone layer in upper atmosphere
(stratosphere)
A. Cl atom
B. H atom/s
C. F-atom
D. C atom
ANSWER: A
172. A vapor compression system used for production of low
temperatures in which a series of refrigerants, with
progressively lower boiling points, are used in series of
single-stage units is called:
A. multipressure system
B. single-stage system
C. cascade system
D. series system
ANSWER: C
173. Which statement is correct on the effect of liquid
subcooling in a vapor compression system?
A. subcooling both increases flashing of the liquid during
expansion and the refrigerating effect.
B. subcooling increases flashing of the liquid during
expansion and increases the refrigerating effect.
C. subcooling both decreases flashing of the liquid during
expansion and the refrigerating effect.
D. subcooling decreases flashing of the liquid during
expansion and increases the refrigerating effect.
ANSWER: D
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 12
1. Which statement is correct on the effect of increasing ANSWER: D
condensing pressure in a vapor compression system? 9. A shutoff valve that is actuated by an electromagnetic coil
A. increasing condensing pressure both increases specific is called:
compressor work and the refrigerating effect. A. solenoid valve
B. increasing condensing pressure both decrease specific B. float valves
compressor work and the refrigerating effect. C. float switch
C. increasing condensing pressure increases specific D. holdback valve
compressor work and decreases the refrigerating effect. ANSWER: A
D. increasing condensing pressure decrease specific 10. Which of the following statement is not false?
compressor work and increases the refrigerating effect. A. One ton of refrigeration is also known as one ton of
ANSWER: C refrigerant.
2. Freezing method utilizes the combined effects of low B. The low pressure part of the refrigeration system is
temperature and high air velocity to produce a high rate of composed of the discharge line of the expansion valve to
heat transfer from product is called: the suction of compressor.
A. indirect contact freezing C. A system operating in a cycle and producing a net
B. immersion freezing
quantity of work from a supply system is known as
C. blast freezing
refrigerator.
D. spray freezing
ANSWER: C D. Multi staging of the compressor will increase the work.
3. A component installed a refrigeration system to ensure ANSWER: B
that no liquid enters the compressor and subcooled the 11. Refrigeration system of 2 tons capacity. Which of the
liquid from condenser to prevent bubbles of vapor from following statements is correct?
impending the flow of refrigerant through expansion valve A. The system has a COP of 2.
is called: B. The system has a refrigeration load of 400 Btu/min.
A. liquid-to-suction heat exchanger C. The system uses 2 tons of refrigerants.
B. flash chamber D. None of these is correct.
C. subcooler ANSWER: B
D. drier 12. It states that when two bodies are in thermal equilibrium
ANSWER: A with a third body. They are in thermal equilibrium with
4. Refrigerant used in steam-jet refrigeration is: each other and hence are at the same temperature.
A. ammonia A. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
B. carbon dioxide B. 2nd law of Thermodynamics
C. water C. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
D. air D. Boyle’s Law
ANSWER: C ANSWER: C
5. Which refrigerant is completely miscible with oil: 13. It states that the change of internal energy of an ideal gas
A. ammonia is a function of only the temperature change
B. carbon dioxide A. Charles’ Law
C. R12 B. Boyle’s Law
D. R134A C. Joule’s Law
ANSWER: C D. Zeroth Law
6. Ammonia is not used in domestic refrigeration and comfort ANSWER: C
air-conditioning because: 14. The energy or stored capacity for performing work
A. ammonia is highly soluble in water. possessed by a moving body, by virtue of its momentum.
B. ammonia is the cheapest refrigerant. A. Potential Energy
C. ammonia is flammable and toxic. B. Kinetic Energy
D. ammonia is non ozone depletion potential C. Internal Energy
ANSWER: C D. Flow Work
7. Refrigerants 22 (R22) which is an HCFC, has 1/20th the ANSWER: B
ozone depletion potential (ODP) of R11 and R12. Hence, it 15. The volume between the engine head and the piston when
can be continue to be used for quite sometime. However, the piston is at the top dead center
all these have global warming-potential (GWP). Because of A. Clearance volume
this, R22 will have to be phased out by year: B. Displacement volume
A. 2010 AD C. Volume of gas drawn in
B. 2030 AD D. Volume of exhaust gas
C. 2020 ANSWER: A
D. 2040 16. The process in which both the intake and exhaust valves are
ANSWER: B closed, and the air-fuel mixture is processed by the upward
8. Which of the statements is incorrect regarding the piston movement.
functions of the liquid receiver? A. Intake Stroke
A. stores unused refrigerant returning from condenser B. Compression Stroke
B. stores refrigerant to be evaporated by the expansion C. Power Stroke
valve D. Exhaust Stroke
C. provides a place to store refrigerant when pumping out ANSWER: B
the evaporator during maintenance operations. 17. Is a term expressing the combination of internal molecular
D. stores oil that is carried along with refrigerant. energy, expansion work and flow work.
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 12
A. Entropy D. all of the above
B. Enthalpy ANSWER: D
C. Internal Energy 27. The height of the surface of the water above the gage point
D. Mechanical Work A. pressure head
ANSWER: B B. velocity head
18. The combination of two refrigerants which cannot be C. dynamic head
separated by distillation process. D. static head
A. Hydrocarbon ANSWER: D
B. Isotopes 28. The head required to produced a flow of the water.
C. Azeotropes A. static head
D. Zeotropes B. pressure head
ANSWER: C C. velocity head
19. R-600 is what refrigerant? D. dynamic head
A. Methane ANSWER: C
B. Nonane 29. The dynamic pressure of the liquid at pump section less the
C. Butane corresponding to the temperature at the same point,
D. None of these converted to liquid.
ANSWER: C A. NPSH
20. The measure of the ability of a goal to withstand exposure B. specific head
to the environment elements without excessive crumbling C. pump operating head
A. crumbling coefficient D. suction head
B. weatherability ANSWER: A
C. cohensiveness 30. The algebraic difference of the discharge and suction
D. attrition coefficient heads.
ANSWER: B A. pump operating head
21. A type of coal that tends to break apart as it burns thereby B. TDH
exposing the unburned coal to the combustion air. C. A and B
A. loose coal D. NPSH
B. free burning coal ANSWER: C
C. non-cohensive coal 31. The transfer of the heat energy from exhaust gases to
D. aggregate compressed air flowing between the compressor and
ANSWER: B combustion chamber.
22. A type of coal that produced a fused coal mass as it burns. A. intercooling
A. plastic coal B. convection
B. caking coal C. regeneration
C. soft coal D. economics
D. high-moisture coal ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B 32. The removal of heat from compressed air between stages
23. A combustible coal content that produces a major of compression.
atmospheric pollutant consequently, it is important that A. regeneration
coal has a low percentage of this component. B. exhaustion
A. nitrogen C. heat evacuation
B. sulfur D. intercooling
C. carbon ANSWER: D
D. hydrogen 33. As a general rule, the cooling water side of the condenser
ANSWER: B should be schedule for inspection for every:
24. The sum of the pressure head and velocity head. A. month
A. static head B. 3 months
B. pressure head C. 6 months
C. velocity head D. year
D. dynamic head ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D 34. If the compressor runs continually, the cause might be the:
25. Which of the following statement is/are true regards to the A. high-pressure cutout switch is jammed shut
first law of thermodynamics for a change in state of a B. low pressure switch is jammed shut
control mass C. thermal bulb is not operating properly
A. since heat and work are path function Q-W must also D. scale trap is clogged
be a path function ANSWER: B
B. Q-W is an inexact differential 35. If the temperature in the icebox is too high, the trouble
C. A and B could be:
D. Q-W is a point function A. a clogged scale trap
ANSWER: D B. air in the system
26. Which of the following statements is/are true with regards C. automatic controls not functioning properly
to heat and work. D. insufficient cooling water to the condenser
A. heat and work are both transient phenomena ANSWER: C
B. both heat and work are boundary phenomena 36. If frost forms on the cylinders, the cause would be:
C. both heat and work are path function A. expansion valve not open wide enough
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 12
B. charging valve open too wide ANSWER: C
C. expansion valve open too wide 46. A gas in piston-cylinder set-up undergoes an expansion of
D. dehydrator not working properly such rate that PV1.2 =constant. Before the expansion
ANSWER: C process the pressure of the gas is 300 kPa and the volume
37. The most likely cause of high superheat would be: is 0.50 m3. If the final volume of the gas is 0.1 m3, calculate
A. too much refrigerant the work done by the gas
B. expansion valve open too wide A. 9.71 KJ
C. expansion valve closed in too much wide B. 11.0 KJ
D. back-pressure valve set too high C. 12 KJ
ANSWER: B D. 8 KJ
38. Short-cycling means that the machine: ANSWER: A
A. grounds out frequently 47. The phenomenon in which air enters a submerged suction
B. stops and starts frequently pipe from the water surface is called a:
C. runs too fast A. whirlpool
D. runs too slow B. vacuum
ANSWER: B C. vortex
39. If the cooling water to the condenser should suddenly fail: D. thixotropic
A. the solenoid valve will close ANSWER: C
B. the compressor will shut down 48. Where groundwater ( wells and springs) or surface water
C. the expansion valve will close (streams and takes) are used for feedwater, water hardness
D. an alarm will ring to notify the engineer of ___ and alkalinity of pH 10 to be ph should be considered
ANSWER: B A. 0-10 ppm
40. The memory lost when the operating power is removed B. 10-20 ppm
A. power memory C. 20-30 ppm
B. volatile memory D. 30-40 ppm
C. initial memory ANSWER: A
D. quick data 49. Which of the following is not a solid fuel?
ANSWER: B A. peat
41. Which of the following regions in a multi-stage turbine B. briquettes
where efficiency a highest? C. tar
A. High pressure region above 200 psi D. coke
B. Intermediate pressure region ANSWER: C
C. Low pressure most region 50. Canisters of helmets shall be removed immediately after
D. A and B having been used on sucking water from a public service
ANSWER: B main or private-use water system
42. Calculate the use factor of a 135 MW plant with a load A. horizontal split case pump
factor of 0.8 and a peak load of 120 MW if its operation is B. vertical shaft turbine pump
limited to 8500 hrs in a year C. booster pump
A. 0.90 D. submersible pump
B. 0.73 ANSWER: C
C. 0.70 51. A small fitting with a double offset, or shaped like the letter
D. 0.78 U with the ends turned out
ANSWER: B A. elbow tee
43. Calculate the net radiation heat flux exchange of two B. expansion loop
bodies with surface temperature of 25 deg C. The radiation C. spigot joint
heat transfer coefficient is 7.0 W/m2-k D. cross-over
A. 700 w/sq m ANSWER: D
B. 750 w/sq m 52. The condition in which droplets of water are carried by
C. 665 w/sq m steam in the boiler
D. 650 w/sq m A. priming
ANSWER: C B. breeching
44. Calculate the reserve factor for a power plant with a load C. carryover
factor of 0.7 average load of 50 MW and rated capacity of D. condensation
80 MW ANSWER: A
A. 2 53. At the start of the compression process of an air-standard
B. 1.5 diesel power cycle the pressure is 100kpa and the temp is
C. 1.12 15 deg C. for a mean effective pressure of 1362 kPa and
D. 1.6 compression ratio of 18 the heat of combustion developed
ANSWER: C is 1800 kJ/kg. what is the thermal efficiency of the cycle?
45. Maximum demand of 30 MW and 10 MW are connected to A. 65 %
a power plant with a peak load of 70 MW. What is the B. 59 %
diversity factor of the plant? C. 55%
A. 0.50 D. 68%
B. 0.70 ANSWER: B
C. 0.65 54. Exergy is always
D. 0.86 A. being produced
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 12
B. being destroyed D. none of the above
C. not changing ANSWER: C
D. none of the above 63. The interactions that occurs between a system and its
ANSWER: B surroundings as a system executes a process, which is the
55. A 5m thick flat plane ( k=60 w/ m k) is well insulated on its result of the system being at temperature different from
sides, while the top and bottom surfaces are maintained at the surrounding is
150 deg. Assuming a steady state heat conduction, A. mass transfer
calculate the temperature 4 m below the top surface. B. heat transfer
A. 100 deg C C. work transfer
B. 120 deg C D. none of the above
C. 94 deg C ANSWER: B
D. 80 deg C 64. An air pollutant which is the result of burning fuels oils
ANSWER: C A. ferrous oxide
56. A solid of diameter D=0.5 m and surface emissivity of 0.8 B. hydrogen nitride
contains electrons that dissipate 100 W of heat. If it does C. sulfur dioxide
not receive radiation from the surroundings, what is the D. aluminum oxide
surface temp? ANSWER: C
A. 300 deg C 65. Analysis of solid fuel to determine moisture, volatile
B. 280 deg C matter, fixed carbon, and ash expressed as percentage of
C. 230 deg C the total weight of the sample
D. 270 deg C A. viscometer
ANSWER: C B. proximate analysis
57. Which of the following is basically a jet engine that exhausts C. ultimate
into a turbine generator? D. pour point
A. aeroderivative gas turbine ANSWER: B
B. brayton engine 66. A gas analysis apparatus in which the percentage of oxygen,
C. industrial gas turbine carbon dioxide and neonoxide in the gas measured by
D. joule turbine absorption in separate chemical solutions
ANSWER: A A. orsat
58. It is referred to as the maximum continuous power B. proximate
available from a hydroelectric power plant even under the C. ultimate
most adverse hydraulic condition D. pour point
A. primary power ANSWER: A
B. continuous base power 67. The water added to boiler feed to compensate for the
C. continuous peak power water lost through blowdown, leakage, etc
D. firm power A. condensate
ANSWER: D B. make-up
59. Energy destruction is a result of C. sulfur
A. heat transfer D. economizer
B. work production ANSWER: B
C. process irreversibility 68. Gas flow caused by boiler’s pressure being less than boiler’s
D. none of the above furnace pressure
ANSWER: C A. induced draft
60. Working fluids used in refrigeration cycle decreases in B. infrared
temperature as they pass through the throttle valve. The C. injector
Joule Thompson coefficient of these fluids is D. inhibitor
A. negative ANSWER: A
B. zero 69. An automatic pressure-relieving device that opens in
C. positive proportion to the increase in pressure over its opening
D. none of the above pressure
ANSWER: C A. pressure gauge
61. The interaction that occurs between a system and its B. relieve valve
surroundings as the system executes a process, which is the C. ammeter
result of the system being at the temperature different D. calorimeter
from the surrounding, is ANSWER: B
A. mass transfer 70. A rotating device used to convert kinetic energy into
B. heat transfer mechanical energy
C. work transfer A. turbine
D. none of the above B. generator
ANSWER: B C. pump
62. Working fluids used in refrigeration cycle decreases in D. vacuum
temperature as the pass through the throttle valve. The ANSWER: A
Joule Thompson Coefficient of these fluids is 71. Air can be prevented from getting into the system by:
A. negative A. keeping all gland and stuffing boxes on the high-
B. zero pressure side tight
C. positive B. keeping the dehydrator clean at all times
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 12
C. keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the low- B. fire tube boiler
pressure side tight C. air tube boiler
D. running the refrigerant through an aerator D. marine water
ANSWER: C ANSWER: B
72. An excessively high head pressure could be caused by 81. During the emergency operation of the boiler, when there
A. solenoid valve shut off is no water in the gauge glass and steam comes out of the
B. insufficient cooling water to the condenser bottom trycock, the water level cannot be determined.
C. insufficient cooling water to the evaporator coils What preventive measure the operator does to save the
D. too much cooling water to the condenser boiler
ANSWER: B A. shutdown the boiler and do not add water
73. The solenoid valve is controlled by B. add water to compensate the water losss
A. the amount of liquid in the system C. increase the firing rate
B. the amount of gas in the system D. continue to operate the boiler and add water
C. the temperature in the condenser ANSWER: A
D. the thermal switch operated by the icebox temperature 82. The most important valve in the boiler operation and the
ANSWER: D last line of defense against disaster is known as
74. If the discharge side of the thermal expansion valve is A. pressure gauge
warmer than the B. compound gauge
A. expansion valve is working normally C. safety valve
B. expansion valve is not working normally D. gate valve
C. solenoid valve is not working normally ANSWER: C
D. scale trap is dirty 83. A common test and very important when a boiler is being
ANSWER: B repaired and or replaced before being back in operation or
75. If the pressure is too high in service is known as
A. the relief valve should open before the high pressure A. hydrostatic test
output B. water level test
B. the relief valve should open and let excess refrigerant C. test clamp
go to receiver D. acid test
C. the high-pressure output switch should operate before ANSWER: A
the relief valve 84. In heat transfer by conduction, due to symmetry the heat
D. close in on the suction valve flow as a point is perpendicular to the isothermal surface
ANSWER: C through the point. This mode of conduction is a
76. If a pressurized water reactor (PWR) characteristic of
A. the coolant water is pressurized to work as moderator A. non-isotropic
B. b the coolant water boils in the core of the reactor B. isotropic
C. the coolant water is pressurized to prevent boiling of C. insulators
water in the core D. conductors
D. no moderator is used ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C 85. Why should you avoid bending or twisting of fan blades in
77. Which of the following property of coal has major influence an air conditioning unit?
on the design and operation of a steam power plant A. It will not cause ice build up
A. density of coal B. It will wear out the motor bearings & cause noise
B. carbon content of coal C. It may not slice suction line
C. ash content of coal D. It decrease the volume flow of refrigerant
D. shape and size of coal ANSWER: B
ANSWER: C 86. The heat transferred radially across insulated pipe per unit
78. A boiler horsepower is equal to the evaporation of 3405lbs area
of 100 degrees C water per hr. how much steam in lb per A. remain constant
hour a 700 horsepower boiler can generate? B. inversely proportional to the thermal conductivity
A. 24150 lb / hr C. decrease from pipe wall to insulated surface
B. 21000 lb/ hr D. increase form pipe wall to insulated surface
C. 18000 lb/hr ANSWER: C
D. 30000 lb/hr 87. Under normal operating conditions, when a solid material
ANSWER: B to be dried is placed inside a batch tray dryer, the material
79. ___ is obtained by mixing and burning precisely the right is usually subjected
amount of fuel and oxygen so that products are left once A. under constant drying conditions
combustion is complete B. under variable drying conditions
A. perfect combustion C. under high temperature drying
B. burning combustion D. under low temperature drying
C. firing combustion ANSWER: A
D. burning combustion 88. A change of phase directly from vapor to solid without
ANSWER: A passing through the liquid state is called as
80. What type of boiler commonly used in industrial and heavy A. sublimation
commercial application due to less expensive to make low B. vaporization
pressure, easier to maintain and repair C. solidification
A. water tube boiler D. deposition
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 12
ANSWER: D 98. A patented device combining expansion and compression
89. In terms of heat transfer, the use of a cooling tower is said function in a single rotor permitting higher cycle
to be more efficient and more economical compared to an temperatures
ordinary heat exchanger since A. comprex
A. large volume of air is available and free B. compressor
B. temperature profiles of air and water can cross each C. expander
other D. single-shaft
C. large amount of water can be processed ANSWER: A
D. a cooling tower is much smaller and cheaper than a 99. A rough measure of the physical size of the equipment
heat heat exchanger which must handle the specified quantity of the fluid
ANSWER: B A. pressure ratio
90. It is a form of oxygen photochemicallly produced in nature B. fuel rate
A. ozone C. thermal efficiency
B. oxidizing agent D. air ratio
C. oxidation ANSWER: D
D. D02 100. The ratio of the highest main compressor discharge
ANSWER: A pressure as the lower main compressor inlet pressure
91. What is the chemical formula of ozone A. cycle pressure ratio
A. O3 B. cycle pressure level
B. D3O C. work ratio
C. O7 D. air ratio
D. O1 ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A 101. The ratio of the actual partial pressure exerted by tge water
92. In the upper atmosphere, ozone is made by ultraviolet light vapor in any volume of air to the partial pressure that
reacting with would be exerted by the water vapor in the air is saturated
A. Oxygen at the temperature of the air
B. Nitrogen A. relative humidity
C. Hydrogen B. absolute humidity
D. Water Vapor C. humidity ratio
ANSWER: A D. saturation ratio
93. The ozone concentration of parts per million (ppm) is ANSWER: A
generally considered maximum permissible for how many 102. In sensible heating the absolute humidity remains constant
hours of exposure? but the relative humidity
A. 8 hrs A. increases
B. 7 hrs B. remains constant
C. 4 hrs C. decreases
D. 3hrs D. zero
ANSWER: A ANSWER: C
94. How may moisture be removed from air? 103. The relative humidity becomes 100% and where the water
A. condensation vapor start to condense
B. adsorption A. dew point
C. A and B B. saturated point
D. none of these C. cloud point
ANSWER: C D. critical point
95. In cooling cycle, the dry bulb temp (db) of the air is lowered, ANSWER: A
what will happens to the relative humidity 104. Why should you avoid bending or twisting of fan blades in
A. increased an air conditioning unit?
B. decreases A. It will cause ice build-up
C. remains constant B. It will wear out the motor bearings and cause noise
D. increases or decreases depending on the temperature C. It may not slice suction line
at which it is cooled D. It decreases the volume flow of refrigerant
ANSWER: A ANSWER: B
96. What is the effect of superheating the refrigerant? 105. A type of refrigerant that will not damage the ozone layer.
A. it increases the coefficient of performance A. Hydrofluorocarbons (HCF’s)
B. it decreases the coefficient of performance B. R-22
C. it lowers the boiling point of the refrigerant C. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCHF’s)
D. it increases the suction pressure of the refrigerant D. R-12
ANSWER: A ANSWER: A
97. A turbine setting where one disadvantage is the difficulty 106. Which of the following is the type of refrigerant that
of lubricating the operating mechanism, with consequent damages Ozone layer?
relatively rapid water A. Hydrocholorofluorocarbons (HCHF’s)
A. siphon setting B. R-22
B. open fume setting C. R-12
C cast setting D. All of these
D. capacity setting ANSWER: D
ANSWER: B
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 12
107. Large-bulb alcohol thermometer used to measure air speed of the space was maintained constant, and yet some
or atmospheric condition by means of cooling. people became uncomfortable in the afternoon, why?
A. Kata thermometer A. The relative humidity had dropped
B. JJ Thompson Thermometer B. When a person spends a long time at a constant
C. Kelvin Thermometer temperature that person becomes uncomfortable
D. Wet Bulb Thermometer C. Radiant heat from others in the office made the space
ANSWER: A uncomfortable
108. The phenomenon that warm air rise and cold air settle is D. The complainers were not really uncomfortable, they
called were just bored
A. Stratification ANSWER: A
B. Setting Due 117. Equipment designed to reduce the amount of water vapor
C. Sedimentation in the ambient atmosphere;
D. Ventilation A. Blower
ANSWER: A B. Condenser
109. Which of the following components of the window air C. Dehumidifier
conditioning system cleaned annually? D. Cooling tower
A. Evaporator and condenser ANSWER: C
B. Fan blades and fan motor 118. A large paper plant uses its own cogeneration power plant
C. Motor and compressor to generate its electricity because.
D. All of these A. It permits the use of a more efficient generator
ANSWER: C B. The company can better control the voltage
110. A cooled heat exchanger that transfer heat from C. It does away with high power lines leading to the plant
compressed air to cooler air. D. It provides a more efficient conversion of fuel
A. Intercooler ANSWER: D
B. Refrigerator 119. The volumetric output of a centrifugal pump is reduced by
C. Economizer closing a valve part way on the intake side of the pump,
D. Aftercooler throttling the intake. The reduction of flow is accompanied
ANSWER: D by “popping” noises which seem to come from inside the
111. All the control stand, pitch of the turbine blades must be case.
adjusted manually by a. A. The impeller has broken
A. Sensor B. Dirt particles have got into the pump intake
B. Float Valve C. The intake valve flow seal is loose and vibrates
C. Gate D. The fluid is cavitating
D. Switch ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A 120. If a man touches two metals which were kept together at
112. Runner blades are adjusted automatically in synchronism room temperature, why would one metal feel colder that
with turbine wicker gates by a/an. the other?
A. Control Valve A. One has a high temperature coefficient
B. Governor B. One has a lower temperature
C. Oil Servomotor C. One has a high thermal conductivity
D. Manual Operation D. One has a high temperature
ANSWER: C ANSWER: C
113. What is supplied to the servomotor from the turbine 121. The ratio of the internal thermal resistance of a solid to the
governor oil system through the generator shaft and boundary layer thermal resistance is described by:
through a control valve. A. Biot Number
A. Water B. Nusselt Number
B. Air C. Prandtl Number
C. Steam D. Reynolds Number
D. Oil ANSWER: A
ANSWER: D 122. An instrument which is commonly used to measure the
114. Used to exhaust air from the casing for starting. most important characteristics of fuel oil which is viscosity
A. Ejectors is known as;
B. Deaerator A. Saybolt Viscosimeter
C. Injector B. Ph-Meter
D. Blower C. Acid Testmeter
ANSWER: A D. Gravity Meter
115. Advantage for propeller turbines of all types ANSWER: A
A. open flumes setting 123. In a refrigerator, this is a chamber for storing low-side liquid
B. siphon setting refrigerant in a system, which also serves as a surge drum.
C. cost setting A. Condenser
D. capacity setting B. Evaporator
ANSWER: B C. Compressor
116. An office air conditioning system drew in a quantity of hot D. Accumulator
air from outside, cooled it to 1 deg C, and mixed it with the ANSWER: D
internal air of a building. Care was taken to supply enough 124. The measure of a fluids resistance to flow (the internal
fresh air to eliminate objectionable odors. The temperature friction of a fluid) as temperature increase.
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 12
A. Density C. Adding oil of peppermint to the system and tracing the
B. Viscosity small
C. Specific Gravity D. Applying a scapy mixture to the condenser heads and
D. Temperature looking for bubbles
ANSWER: B ANSWER: B
125. A mechanical device used to burn solid fuel specifically 134. Air arrangement of headwater tubes located in the boiler
used in coal power plant. A. Economizer
A. Stroker B. Condenser
B. Boiler C. Evaporator
C. Staybolt D. Boiler
D. Condenser ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A 135. Scale in boiler can.
126. The chemically correct ratio of air fuel a mixture capable of A. Create low steam quality
perfect combustion with no unused air or fuel, B. Cause foaming
A. Fuel Point C. Over blow-off line
B. Pour Point D. Inhibit circulation and heat transfer
C. Stoichiometric Ratio ANSWER: D
D. Stack 136. The effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given
ANSWER: C temperature.
127. When a solid material is said to be “dry” it means that A. Absorptivity
A. The solid does not contain any moisture B. Emissivity
B. The solid still contains very small amount of moisture C. Conductivity
C. The solid contains equilibrium moisture D. Reflectivity
D. The weight of the solid is the same as the bone dry ANSWER: B
weight 137. In a cooling tower, the water is cooled mainly by;
ANSWER: B A. Condensation
128. A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air over its top B. Evaporation
surface. The heat that is first transferred to the air layer C. Convection
close to the block is by conduction. It is eventually carried D. Conduction
away from the surface by: ANSWER: C
A. Convection 138. A temperature above which a given gas cannot be
B. Radiation liquefied;
C. Conduction A. Cryogenic Temperature
D. Thermal B. Absolute Temperature
ANSWER: A C. Vaporization
129. When drying banana chips under the sun, the rate of drying D. Critical Temperature
is faster ANSWER: D
A. On a slightly breezy day 139. What part of heat exchangers that are classified as radiant
B. On a calm day convection and placed at the near of the furnace, where
C. On a cloudy day they receive the bulk of the radiation from the flame.
D. On a hot and windy day A. Radiant Superheaters
ANSWER: D B. Condenser
130. Reflector of a nuclear reactor are made up of C. Radiator
A. Boron D. Evaporators
B. Cast iron ANSWER: A
C. Beryllium 140. Which of the following is the major consideration while
D. Steel selecting the nuclear power plant?
ANSWER: C A. Safety
131. The function of a moderator in a nuclear reactor is B. Load center
A. To slow down the fast moving electrons C. Disposal of waste
B. To speed up the slow moving electrons D. Availability of water
C. To start the chain reaction ANSWER: C
D. To transfer the heat produced inside the reactor to a 141. A moderator is used to:
heat exchanger A. Slow down neutrons
ANSWER: A B. Slow down electrons
132. Which of the following is the most commonly used C. Accelerate neutrons
moderator? D. Direct flow of electron
A. Graphite ANSWER: A
B. Sodium 142. Which of the following material is not used as moderator?
C. Deuterium A. Graphite
D. Heavy water B. Beryllium
ANSWER: A C. Aluminum
133. Ammonia leaks in the condenser can be detected by: D. Light water
A. Smelling the discharge water ANSWER: C
B. Applying litmus paper to the circulating water discharge 143. In nuclear power plant which of the following is used to
slow down the fast neutron?
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 12
A. Reflector B. A perpetual machine of the second kind
B. Shield C. A perpetual machine of the first kind
C. Control Rod D. A perpetual machine of the third kind
D. Moderator ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D 153. The degrees of power interval in 4-stroke cycle of a six
144. Control rods for nuclear reactors are made of cylinder engine is
A. Graphite A. 60 degrees
B. Concrete B. 180 degrees
C. Cadmium C. 90 degrees
D. Lead D. 120 degrees
ANSWER: C ANSWER: D
145. The reactor in which fissionable fuel produced is more than 154. The portion of sunlight, rich in ultraviolet rays, which has a
the fuel consumed is known as strong effect on photographic plate.
A. Fast reactor A. Gamma rays
B. Breeder reactor B. X-rays
C. Thermal reactor C. Beta rays
D. None of the above D. Actinic rays
ANSWER: B ANSWER: D
146. Heavy duty gas turbines typically have 155. Which of the following does not illustrate the effect of
A. Double Shaft temperature or pressure on gas solubility?
B. Triple Shaft A. Air bubbles from on the sides of a warm glass of water
C. Single Shaft B. Soda pop is bottle under pressure
D. Quadruple Shaft C. Boiling frees water gases
ANSWER: C D. Air is more humid on rainy days
147. Which of the following statements is not a key feature of ANSWER: D
Fourier’s Heat Conduction. 156. Among the effluents that may be released from the
A. It is phenomenological hydrothermal reservoir which one is the most toxic?
B. It defines an important material property called thermal A. Carbon dioxide
conductance B. Hydrogen sulfide
C. It is vector expression indicating that the heat flux is C. Methane
normal and the direction of decreasing temperature.
D. Ammonia
D. Assume that the thermal conductivity is constant with
ANSWER: B
respect to temperature of the material
157. Newton said that a projectile if given enough horizontal
ANSWER: D
velocity will not fail to the earth. Instead, it moves along a
148. What is the color code of steam line in geothermal power
path around the earth. The 1st artificial satellite that
plant?
verified Newton’s statement is
A. Green
A. Apollo 1
B. Blue
B. Houston 1
C. Silver Gray
C. Sputnik 1
D. Red
D. None of these
ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C
149. What is absorbed by sulphites in boiler water treatment?
158. A refrigerant control valve that maintains a constant
A. Carbon dioxide
pressure in a evaporator
B. Oxygen
A. Bleed valve
C. Carbon monoxide
B. Angle valve
D. Impurities settled in mud drums
C. Automatic expansion valve
ANSWER: D
D. Ball check valve
150. A flow volume in which the fluids flow upward through a
ANSWER: C
tapered tube lifting a shaped weight to a position where
159. A rigid contains gas a 100 kPa and 10 degrees C. the gas is
the upward force just balances to weight.
heated until the temperature reaches 100 degree C.
A. Rotameter
Calculate the work done by the system.
B. Thermometer
A. 2
C. Viscometer
B. 0
D. Ammeter
C. 1
ANSWER: A
D. 1.5
151. An instrument that register total pressure and static
ANSWER: B
pressure in a used to determine velocity.
160. The compression ratio in an air-standard Otto cycle is 10.
A. Ammeter
At the beginning of the compression stroke the pressure is
B. Rotameter
120 kPa and the temperature is 15 degree C. Calculate the
C. Pitot Tube
pressure and the temperature at the end of the
D. Pour Point
compression process.
ANSWER: C
A. 4,000 kPa
152. A heat engine whose thermodynamic efficiency is greater
B. 3,500 kPa
than that of a Carnot device using the same energy
C. 3,014 kPa
reservoir is known as:
D. 3,200 kPa
A. A perpetual machine of the zeroth kind
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 12
ANSWER: C B. Blower
161. Find the thermal efficiency of an air-standard Otto power C. Compressor
cycle with a compression ratio of 7. D. Suction
A. 60% ANSWER: A
B. 50% 170. Low temperature heat exchanger that is used to absorb
C. 65% heat from the refrigerated space and transfer it to the
D. 54% refrigerant in its tubes so that it can be transported to
ANSWER: D another and released.
162. At the beginning of the compression stroke in an standard A. Condenser
Otto cycle. The pressure is 100 kPa and the temperature is B. Evaporator
15 degree C. the compression ratio is 8 and work is 1,017.7 C. Capillary Tube
kJ/kg. Determine the mean effective pressure. D. Compressor
A. 1,406 kPa ANSWER: B
B. 1,500 kPa 171. The substance employed as cooling effect to absorb heat
C. 1,350 kPa from the refrigerated space in called
D. 1,550 kPa. A. Condensate
ANSWER: A B. Feedwater
163. The compression ratio in an air standard diesel cycle is 20. C. Refrigerant
At the beginning of the compression process the pressure D. Moisture
and the temperature are 0.12 MPa and 15 degree C ANSWER: C
respectively. What is the pressure at the end of the 172. It is inversely proportional to the power required to grind
compression process? the coal to certain fitness
A. 8,500 kPa A. Pulverizing index
B. 7,955 kPa B. Fireness index
C. 8,300 kPa C. Grindability index
D. 8,200 kPa D. Inverse power coefficient
ANSWER: B ANSWER: C
164. The accounting of all energy units involved in a system a 173. The temperature where the ash becomes very plastic,
cycle of a piece of equipment somewhat below the melting point of the ash.
A. Thermodynamic solution A. Ash- softening temperature
B. Equilibrium condition B. Ash- plasticity temperature
C. Summation of energy units C. Ash – fluidity temperature
D. Heat Balance D. Ash – liquefaction temperature
ANSWER: D ANSWER: A
165. It refers to any arrangement whereby steam is bled from a 174. The amount of chemical energy in a given mass or volume
turbine more pressure for any purpose whatsoever of fuel.
A. Regeneration A. Heating value
B. Extraction B. Energy storage
C. Bled-off cycle C. Calorific value
D. Regenerative extraction cycle D. A and C
ANSWER: B ANSWER: D
166. Any arrangement whereby steam is bled from a turbine for
a purpose of thermal regeneration of the condensate to a
temperature level approaching that of the boiler water.
A. Regenerative
B. Extraction cycle
C. Bled-off steam cycle
D. Regenerative extraction cycle
ANSWER: A
167. The steam extraction from the turbine
A. Bled steam
B. Extraction
C. Extracted steam
D. A and C
ANSWER: D
168. The point of particular pressure where the steam is
extracted
A. Bleeder point
B. Extraction point
C. Bleeder
D. A and B
ANSWER: D
169. Vapor pumps that raise the pressure of the refrigeration to
a level that permits sufficient heat rejection to the
condensing medium.
A. Fans
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 13
1. Reheating process in Brayton cycle, the turbine work will 11. After passing through a convergent-divergent nozzle the
A. Increase temperature of air will:
B. Decrease A. Increase
C. Remains the same B. Decrease
D. None of these C. Remains the same
ANSWER: A D. None of these
2. Which of the following is the chemical formula of ethanol? ANSWER: B
A. C7H16 12. After passing through a convergent-divergent nozzle the
B. C2H6O density of air will:
C. C7H8 A. Increase
D. C6H12 B. Decrease
ANSWER: B C. Remains the same
3. Which of the following is the chemical formula of heptane? D. None of these
A. C7H16 ANSWER: B
B. C2H6O 13. After passing through a convergent-divergent nozzle the
C. C7H8 mach number of air will:
D. C6H12 A. Increase
ANSWER: A B. Decrease
4. Which of the following is the chemical formula of hexane? C. Remains the same
A. C7H16 D. None of these
B. C2H6O ANSWER: B
C. C7H8 14. By increasing the temperature source of Carnot cycle,
D. C6H12 which of the following will not be affected?
ANSWER: D A. Efficiency
5. Which of the following is the chemical formula of toluene? B. Work
A. C7H16 C. Heat added
B. C2H6O D. Heat rejected
C. C7H8 ANSWER: D
D. C6H12 15. By decreasing the temperature source of Carnot cycle,
ANSWER: C which of the following will not be affected?
6. As the air passes through a nozzle, which of the following A. Efficiency
will increase? B. Work
A. Temperature C. Heat added
B. Enthalpy D. Heat rejected
C. Internal energy ANSWER: C
D. Mach number 16. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle
ANSWER: D with useful cooling, which of the following will increase?
7. As the air passes through a diffuser, which of the following (Use per unit mass analysis)
will decrease? A. Condenser pressure
A. Temperature B. Evaporator pressure
B. Enthalpy C. Quality after expansion
C. Internal energy D. Heat rejected from condenser
D. Mach number ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D 17. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle
8. As the air passes through a nozzle, which of the following with useful cooling, which of the following will decrease?
will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
A. Temperature A. Refrigerated effect
B. Enthalpy B. COP
C. Internal energy C. Compressor power
D. Mach number D. Mass flow rate
ANSWER: C ANSWER: D
9. As the air passes through a diffuser, which of the following 18. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle
will increase? without useful cooling, which of the following will
A. Density decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
B. Entropy A. Heat rejected
C. Mach number B. COP
D. Velocity C. Compressor power
ANSWER: A D. Specific volume at suction
10. As the air passes through a diffuser, which of the following ANSWER: B
will NOT be affected? 19. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle
A. Density without useful cooling, which of the following will increase?
B. Entropy (Use per unit mass analysis)
C. Mach number A. Heat rejected
D. Velocity B. COP
ANSWER: B C. Compressor power
D. Specific volume at suction
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 13
ANSWER: C 28. If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a vapor
20. By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle compression cycle, which of the following will not be
without useful cooling, which of the following will not be affected? (Use per unit mass analysis)
affected? (Use per unit mass analysis) A. compressor power
A. Refrigerated effect B. mass flow rate
B. COP C. heat rejection in the condenser
C. Compressor power D. COP
D. Mass flow rate ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C 29. If the pressure drop in the evaporator increases in a vapor
21. By sub-cooling the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle compression cycle, which of the following will increase?
at condenser exit, which of the following will increase? (Use (Use per unit mass analysis)
per unit mass analysis) A. Refrigerating effect
A. Refrigerated effect B. vaporizing temperature
B. Specific volume at suction C. heat rejected in the condenser
C. Compressor power D. COP
D. Mass flow rate ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A 30. If the pressure drop in the evaporator increases in a vapor
22. By sub-cooling the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle compression cycle, which of the following will decrease?
at condenser exit, which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
(Use per unit mass analysis) A. specific volume at suction
A. Refrigerated effect B. compressor power
B. Specific volume at suction C. heat rejected in the condenser
C. Compressor power D. COP
D. Mass flow rate ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D 31. By lowering the condenser pressure in Rankine cycle, which
23. By increasing the vaporizing temperature in vapor of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
compression cycle, which of the following will increase? A. pump work
(Use per unit mass analysis) B. turbine
A. mass flow rate C. heat rejected
B. COP D. cycle efficiency
C. specific volume at suction ANSWER: C
D. compressor work 32. By increasing the boiler pressure in Rankine cycle, which of
ANSWER: B the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
24. By increasing the vaporizing temperature in vapor A. heat rejected
compression cycle, which of the following will decrease? B. pump work
(Use per unit mass analysis) C. cycle efficiency
A. Refrigeration effect D. moisture
B. COP ANSWER: A
C. evaporator temperature 33. By superheating the steam to a higher temperature in
D. Temperature difference between evaporator and Rankine cycle, which of the following will decrease? (Use
compressor per unit mass analysis)
ANSWER: D A. moisture content at the turbine exhaust
25. By increasing the condenser pressure in vapor compression B. turbine work
cycle, which of the following will increase? (Use per unit C. heat added
mass analysis) D. heat rejected
A. moisture content after expansion ANSWER: A
B. compressor power 34. By reheating the steam before entering the second stage in
C. heat rejected from condenser Rankine cycle, which of the following will decrease?
D. mass flow rate A. turbine work
ANSWER: A B. moisture content after expansion
26. If the pressure drop in the condenser Increases in a vapor C. heat added
compression cycle, which of the following will increase? D. heat rejected
(Use per unit mass analysis) ANSWER: B
A. mass flow rate 35. When Rankine cycle is modified with regeneration, which
B. compressor power of the following will increase?
C. heat rejected in the condenser A. turbine work
D. specific volume of suction B. heat added
ANSWER: C C. heat rejected
27. If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a vapor D. cycle efficiency
compression cycle, which of the following will decrease? ANSWER: D
(Use per unit mass analysis) 36. Is the combination of base load and peaking load.
A. Refrigeration effect A. rated load
B. mass flow rate B. intermediate load
C. heat rejected in the condenser C. combine load
D. compressor power D. over-all load
ANSWER: B ANSWER: B
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 13
37. Sum of the maximum demand over the simultaneous 46. By heating 1 gram of coal in an uncovered crucible until the
maximum demand. coal is completely burned, the __ will formed.
A. use factor A. volatile matter and moisture
B. capacity factor B. ash
C. demand factor C. Fixed carbon
D. diversity factor D. moisture content
ANSWER: D ANSWER: B
38. Regenerative with feed heating cycle with infinite number 47. Caking coal are used to produce coke by heating in a coke
of feedwater heaters thus efficiency is equal to: oven in the absence of __ with volatile matter driven off.
A. otto cycle A. air
B. stirling cycle B. oil
C. ericson cycle C. oxygen
D. carnot cycle D. nitrogen
ANSWER: D ANSWER: A
39. A type of turbine used in desalination of sea water. 48. Grindability of standard coal is
A. back pressure turbine A. 80
B. passout turbine B. 90
C. peaking turbine C. 100
D. reaction turbine D. 110
ANSWER: A ANSWER: C
40. States that when conductor and magnetic field move 49. Major constituent of all natural gases is
relatively to each other, an electric voltage is induced in the A. Ethane
conductor. B. Methane
A. Maxwell’s law C. Propane
B. Kirchoff’s law D. Cethane
C. Faraday’s law ANSWER: B
D. Newtons law 50. Two types of fans are:
ANSWER: C A. centrifugal and axial
41. Transfers heat directly to electrical energy by utilizing B. reciprocating and axial
thermionic emissions. C. centrifugal and rotary
A. Thermionic motor D. tangential and rotary
B. Thermionic generator ANSWER: A
C. Thermionic converter 51. Enthalpy of substance at specified state due to chemical
D. Thermionic cell composition.
ANSWER: B A. enthalpy of reaction
42. Is the largest group of coal containing 46-86% of fixed B. enthalpy of combustion
carbon and 20 to 40% volatile matter. C. enthalpy of formation
A. anthracite D. enthalpy of product
B. sub-anthracite ANSWER: C
C. Bituminous 52. A type of boiler used for duper critical pressure operation.
D. Sub-bituminous A. La Mont boiler
ANSWER: C B. Once through-circulation boiler
43. When 1 gram of coal is subjected to a temperature of about C. Force circulation boiler
105⁰C for a period of 1 hour, the loss in weight of the D. Natural circulation boiler
sample gives the: ANSWER: B
A. volatile matter 53. Economizer in a water tube boiler is heated by:
B. ash A. electric furnace
C. Fixed carbon B. electric current
D. moisture content C. incoming flue gas
ANSWER: D D. outgoing flue gas
44. When 1 gram of sample of coal is placed in a crucible and ANSWER: D
heated 950⁰C and maintain at that temperature for 7 54. Receives heat partly by convection and partly by radiation.
minutes there is a loss in weight due to elimination of: A. radiant superheater
A. volatile matter and moisture B. desuperheater
B. ash C. convective superheater
C. Fixed carbon D. pendant superheater
D. moisture content ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A 55. Regenerative superheater is a storage type of heat
45. Consist of hydrogen and certain hydrogen carbon exchangers have an
compounds which can be removed from coal by heating. A. matrix
A. moisture content B. regenerator
B. product of combustion C. Boiler
C. ash D. Recuperator
D. volatile matter ANSWER: A
ANSWER: D 56. Stirling cycle uses a ____ as working fluids.
A. incompressible gas
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 13
B. incompressible fluids gases is used to provide power to compressor or blower at
C. compressible refrigerant the inlet.
D. compressible fluids A. discharging
ANSWER: D B. turbocharging
57. In Stirling process, the heat is added during C. supercharging
A. Isobaric process D. scavenging
B. Isentropic process ANSWER: B
C. Isothermal process 67. The only device where the changes in kinetic energy are
D. Heat process significant are the
ANSWER: C A. compressor
58. Brayton cycle is known as B. pumps
A. Carnot cycle C. nozzles and diffusers
B. Joule cycle D. none of these
C. Carnot cycle ANSWER: C
D. Rankine cycle 68. The distance between TDC and BDC in which the piston can
ANSWER: B travel is the
59. It is applied to propulsion of vehicle because of certain A. right extreme position
practical characteristics. B. displacement stroke
A. Diesel cycle C. stroke of the engine
B. Otto cycle D. swept stroke
C. Carnot cycle ANSWER: C
D. Brayton cycle 69. In compression-engine the combustion of air-fuel mixture
ANSWER: D is self-ignited as a result of compressing the mixture above
60. Heat exchangers typically involve its
A. no work interaction A. self developed temperature
B. no heat interaction B. mixing temperature
C. no energy interaction C. self feed temperature
D. none of these D. self ignition temperature
ANSWER: D ANSWER: D
61. A device that is used to convert the heat to work is called 70. The thermal efficiency of an ideal Otto cycle depends
A. Adiabatic _______ of the working fluid.
B. Regenerator A. the pressure ratio of the engine and the specific ratio
C. Heat engines B. the temperature ratio of the engine and the specific
D. None of these ratio
ANSWER: C C. the moles ratio of the engine and the specific heat ratio
62. The objective of a heat pump is to maintain a heated space D. the compression ratio of the engine and the specific
at heat
A. Low temperature ratio
B. High temperature ANSWER: D
C. Medium temperature 71. Using monoatomic gas, the thermal efficiency of Otto cycle
D. None of these A. increases
ANSWER: B B. decreases
63. A device that violates the second law of thermodynamics is C. remains constant
called D. none of these
A. perpetual motion machine of second kind ANSWER: A
B. perpetual motion machine of third kind 72. In diesel engine, combustion process during combustion
C. perpetual motion machine of the first kind occurs during
D. none of these A. isothermal process
ANSWER: B B. constant pressure process
64. A process is called _____ if no irreversibilities occur outside C. isentropic process
the system boundaries during the process. D. adiabatic
A. externally reversible ANSWER: B
B. internally reversible 73. If the cutoff ratio decreases, the efficiency of diesel cycle
C. reversible A. increases
D. none of these B. decreases
ANSWER: A C. remains constant
65. An energy interaction which is not accompanied by entropy D. none of these
transfer is ANSWER: A
A. energy 74. If Erickson cycle , the regeneration process occurs during
B. heat ______
C. work A. constant volume
D. none of these B. constant temperature
ANSWER: C C. constant pressure
66. A _____ is used in aircraft engines and some automotive D. none of these
engine. In this method, a turbine driven by the exhaust ANSWER: C
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 13
75. In Brayton cycle, the ____ during constant pressure 84. The superheat vapor enters the turbine and expands
process. isentropically and produces work by the rating shaft. The
A. work is added _________ may drop, during the process.
B. heat is transferred A. density
C. pressure is rejected B. Viscosity of fuel
D. energy is added C. Temperature and pressure
ANSWER: B D. none of these
76. The two major application areas of gas turbine engines are ANSWER: C
A. driving automotive engine and locomotives 85. Only________ of the turbine work output is required to
B. heating and generation operate the pump
C. aircraft propulsion and electric power generation A. 0.01%
D. none of these B. 0.02%
ANSWER: C C. 0.03%
77. The use of regenerator in is recommended only when the D. 0.04%
turbine exhaust ANSWER: D
A. exit temperature 86. Superheating the steam to higher temperature decreases
B. inlet temperature the moisture content of the steam at the_______
C. mean temperature A. turbine inlet
D. absolute temperature B. compression inlet
ANSWER: A C. compressor exit
78. As the number of stages is increased, the expansion D. turbine exit
process becomes ANSWER: D
A. isentropic 87. Regeneration also provides a convenient means a
B. isothermal dearating the feedwater to prevent
C. isometric A. boiler explosion
D. polytropic B. boiler scale production
ANSWER: B C. boiler corrosion
79. Aircraft gas turbines operate at higher pressure ratio D. compressor damage
typically ANSWER: C
A. 6 to 8 88. Can be apply in Steam turbine cycle (Rankine), gas turbine
B. 12 to 24 cycle (Brayton) and combined cycle
C. 10 to 18 A. Hydroelectric plant
D. 10 to 25 B. Nuclear power plant
ANSWER: D C. Cogeneration plant
80. The first commercial high-pass ratio engines has a bypass D. Tidal power plant
ratio of ANSWER: C
A. 1 89. In a Rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet conditions. What
B. 3 is the effect of lowering the condenser pressure the heat
C. 5 rejected will.:
D. 7 A. increase
ANSWER: C B. decrease
81. The single-stage expansion process of an ideal brayton C. remains the same
cycle without regeneration is replace by a multistage D. none of these
expansion process with reheating between the same ANSWER: B
pressure limits. As a result of modification, thermal 90. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser
efficiency will: pressures. What is the effect of superheating the steam to
A. Increase a higher temperature, the pump work input will:
B. Decrease A. increase
C. Remain constant B. decrease
D. none of these C. remains the same
ANSWER: B D. none of these
82. Which of the following is/are the application of Brayton ANSWER: C
cycle 91. How do the following quantities change when the simple
A. Propulsion system ideal Rankine cycle is modified with? The heat rejected:
B. Automotive Turbine Engines A. increase
C. Aircraft Turbine engines B. decrease
D. all of these C. remains the same
ANSWER: D D. none of these
83. It used as working fluid in high-temperature application of ANSWER: B
vapor cycle? 92. During a combustion process, the components which exist
A. Helium before the reaction are called
B. Deuterium A. reaction
C. Mercury B. combustion
D. Water C. reactants
ANSWER: C D. product
ANSWER: C
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 13
93. In an obvious reason for incomplete combustion A. Series flow
A. insufficient carbon B. Parallel flow
B. insufficient air C. Cross flow
C. insufficient nitrogen D. Counter flow
D. insufficient oxygen ANSWER: C
ANSWER: D 103. The fact the total energy in any one energy system remains
94. Higher heating value when H20 in the product of constant is called the principle of_____
combustion is in A. Conservation of Energy
A. solid form B. Second Law of Thermodynamics
B. vapor form C. Conservation of Mass
C. gas form D. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
D. liquid form ANSWER: A
ANSWER: D 104. A process for which the inlet and outlet enthalpies are the
95. Device which transfer heat from low temperature medium same
to a higher temperature one is a A. isenthalpic
A. adiabatic B. enthalpy conservation
B. refrigerator C. throttling
C. heat exchanger D. steady state
D. heat pump ANSWER: C
ANSWER: D 105. The sum of energies of all the molecules in system, energies
96. A rule of thumb is that the COP improves by ______ for that appear in several complex forms
each C the evaporating temperature is raised or the A. kinetic energy
condensing temperature is lowered. B. internal energy
A. 2 to 4% C. external energy
B. 6 to 7% D. flow work
C. 1 to 5% ANSWER: B
D. 6 to 10% 106. A system that is completely impervious to its surrounding.
ANSWER: A Neither mass nor energy cross its boundaries
97. Are generally more expensive to purchase and install than A. open system
other heating systems , but they save money in the long B. closed system
run. C. adiabatic system
A. Refrigerator D. isolated system
B. Adiabatic ANSWER: D
C. Heat pumps 107. A device used to measure small and moderate pressure
D. Humidifyer difference
ANSWER: C A. manometer
98. The most widely used absorption system is the ammonia- B. bourdon gage
water system, where ammonia is serves as a refrigerant C. barometer
and H20 as the D. piezometer
A. cooling ANSWER: A
B. heating 108. A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation
C. heating and cooling temperature corresponding to its pressure.
D. transport medium A. superheated vapor
ANSWER: D B. saturated vapor
99. The efficiency of all reversible heat engines operating C. super saturated vapor
between the same two reservoir________ D. subcooled vapor
A. Differ ANSWER: A
B. Are the same 109. The energy or stored capacity for performing work
C. Are Unequal possessed by a moving body, by virtue of its momentum.
D. None of the above A. internal energy
ANSWER: B B. work
100. A process with no heat transfer is known as C. gravitational potential energy
A. isobaric process D. kinetic energy
B. adiabatic process ANSWER: D
C. isothermal process 110. The thermodynamic process wherein temperature is
D. isothermal process constant and the change in internal energy is zero
ANSWER: B A. isobaric process
101. The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density B. isometric process
of: C. isothermal process
A. mercury D. polytropic process
B. oil ANSWER: C
C. gas 111. The function of a pump and compressor is to
D. water A. transfer heat from one fluid to another
ANSWER: D B. increase the total energy content of the flow
102. This type of heat exchanger allows fluids to flow at right C. extract energy from the flow
angles to each other D. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 13
ANSWER: B C. calorimetry
112. This law states that ‘all energy received as heat by a heat- D. none of the above
engine cannot be converted into mechanical work’ ANSWER: C
A. 1st law of thermodynamics 122. The rate of doing work per unit time
B. 2nd law of thermodynamics A. torque
C. 3rd law of thermodynamic B. power
D. all of the above C. force
ANSWER: B D. moment
113. The intensity of pressure that is measured above absolute ANSWER: B
zero is called 123. It an ideal rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser
A. gage pressure pressure. What is the effect of superheating the steam to a
B. absolute pressure higher temperature to the cycle thermal efficiency?
C. vacuum pressure A. the cycle thermal efficiency will increase
D. saturation pressure B. the cycle thermal efficiency will decrease
ANSWER: B C. the cycle thermal efficiency will remain constant
114. This is the ratio of the heat equivalent of the brake or useful D. none of the above
horsepower developed by an engine and available on its ANSWER: A
crankshaft to the heat during the same time 124. A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation
A. brake engine efficiency temperature corresponding to the existing pressure
B. indicated thermal efficiency A. superheated vapor
C. combined thermal efficiency B. saturated vapor
D. brake thermal efficiency C. wet vapor
ANSWER: D D. none of the above
115. Flow work is equal to pressure times _______ ANSWER: A
A. temperature 125. It is the work done in pushing a fluid across a boundary,
B. entropy usually into or out a system
C. internal energy A. mechanical work
D. specific volume B. non flow work
ANSWER: D C. flow work
116. This form of energy is due to the position or elevation of D. electrical work
the body ANSWER: C
A. internal energy 126. A liquid that has a temperature lower than the saturation
B. kinetic energy temperature corresponding to the existing pressure.
C. potential energy A. subcooled liquid
D. work B. saturated liquid
ANSWER: C C. unsaturated liquid
117. Another term for constant volume process D. water
A. isometric ANSWER: A
B. isochoric 127. this type of boiler, the water passes through the tubes
C. isovolumic while the flue gases burn outside the tubes
D. all of the above A. water column
ANSWER: D B. try cocks
118. Work done by the steam during a reversible adiabatic C. gauge glass
expansion process in the turbine D. all of the above
A. brake work ANSWER: C
B. ideal work 128. It prevents damage to the boiler by giving warning of low
C. actual fluid work water
D. combine work A. safety valve
ANSWER: B B. fusible plug
119. The efficiency of carnot cycle depends upon the C. relief valve
A. pressure D. try cocks
B. entropy ANSWER: B
C. volume 129. It has several functions. When necessary it empties the
D temperature boiler for cleaning, inspection, or repair. It blows out mud
ANSWER: D scale, or sediment when the boiler is in operation and
120. It is a commonly used device for measuring temperature prevents excessive concentration of soluble impurities in
differences or high temperatures. the boiler
A. thermistor A. blow-down line
B. thermocouple B. boiler feedwater pump
C. bimetallic strip C. steam valve
D. mercury in glass D. none of the above
ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
121. The science and technology concerned with precisely 130. Is a feedwater preheating and waste heat recovery device
measuring energy and enthalpy which utilizes the heat of the flue gases
A. thermodynamics A. economizer
B. chemistry B. open heater
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 13
C. closed heater A. humidity ratio
D. waterwalls B. specific humidity
ANSWER: A C. humidity
131. It is a heat exchanger which utilizes the heat of the flue D. relative humidity
gases to preheat the air needed for combustion ANSWER: D
A. economizer 140. Air whose condition is such that any decrease in
B. feedwater heater temperature will result in condensation of water vapor into
C. reheater liquid.
D. air preheater A. saturated air
ANSWER: D B. unsaturated air
132. It is a system of furnace cooling tubes which can extend the C. saturated vapor
evaporative capacity of the water-tube boiler and at the D. moist air
same time protect the furnace walls from high ANSWER: A
temperature. 141. it is the warm water temperature minus the cold water
A. reheater temperature leaving the cooling tower
B. waterwalls A. approach
C. superheater B. terminal difference
D. feedwater heater C. cooling range
ANSWER: B D. LMTD
133. It is based on the generation of 34.5 lbm/hr of steam from ANSWER: C
water at 212 °F and equivalent to 33500 btu/hr 142. the temperature where the relative humidity becomes 100
A. One horsepower % and where the water vapor starts to condense is known
B. One kw as _____
C. One Boiler Horsepower A. dry bulb temperature
D. none of the above B. dewpoint temperature
ANSWER: C C. wet bulb temperature
134. It prevents boiler pressure from rising above a certain D. saturated temperature
predetermined pressure by opening to allow excess steam ANSWER: B
to escape into the atmosphere when that point is reached, 143. the surrounding air ____ temperature is the lowest
thus guarding against a possible expulsion through temperature to which water could possibly be cooled in a
excessive pressure. cooling tower
A. relief valve A. dry bulb
B. safety valve B. wet bulb
C. fusible plug C. dew point
D. pressure switches D. saturation temperature
ANSWER: B ANSWER: B
135. In a water tube boiler, the water will pass through _____ 144. Which is not a major part of the vapor compression
A. inside the tubes system?
B. outside the tubes A. compressor
C. inside the shell B. condenser
D. outside the shell C. evaporator
ANSWER: A D. refrigerant
136. It is the temperature to which the air becomes saturated at ANSWER: D
constant pressure 145. This refers to the rate of heat transfer attribute only to a
A. dry bulb temperature change in dry-bulb temperature
B. wet bulb temperature A. sensible heating or cooling
C. dew point temperature B. humidification
D. saturation temperature C. dehumidification
ANSWER: C D. cooling and dehumidifying
137. In a ______ cooling tower, the air moves horizontally ANSWER: A
through the fills as the water moves downward. 146. it is a binary mixture of dry air and water-vapor
A. cross flow A. dry air
B. counter flow B. saturated vapor
C. parallel flow C. moist air
D. double flow D. wet mixture
ANSWER: A ANSWER: C
138. It is the subject that deals with the behavior of moist air 147. the temperature measured by an ordinary thermometer
A. psychrometer A. wet bulb temp
B. psychrometry B. dry bulb temp
C. refrigeration C. dew point temp
D. pneumatics D. wet - bulb depression
ANSWER: B ANSWER: B
139. It is the ration of the mass of water vapor in a certain 148. The mass of water interspersed in each kilogram of dry air
volume of moist air at a given temperature to the mass of A. enthalpy
hot water in the same volume of saturated air at the same B. humidity ratio
temperature C. specific volume
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 13
D. relative humidity 157. The transfer of energy from the more energetic in two or
ANSWER: B more energetic particles of a substance to the adjacent less
149. This system combines two vapor compression units with energetic ones as a result of interaction between the
the condenser of the low temperature system discharge its particles
heat to the evaporator of the high temperature system A. heat transfer
A. cascade systems B. radiation
B. multistage system C. conduction
C. binary system D. convection
D. multi pressure system ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A 158. What is the simultaneous control of temperature,
150. A process of increasing the humidity ratio at constant dry humidity, air movement, and quantity of air in space?
bulb temperature A. refrigeration
A. dehumidifying process B. psychometry
B. cooling process C. air conditioning
C. heating process D. humidification
D. humidifying process ANSWER: C
ANSWER: D 159. The non-condensing component of the moist air
151. the ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor in the air to A. hydrogen
the saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature B. water vapour
of the air C. nitrogen
A. humidity ratio D. dry air
B. relative humidity ANSWER: D
C. specific humidity 160. What is the pressure of the refrigerant between the
D. moisture content expansion valve and the intake of the compressor in a multi
ANSWER: B pressure refrigeration system?
152. In an air conditioning process that involves heating without A. high side pressure
changing the moisture content of air. The process is B. discharge pressure
represented by a horizontal line in the psychrometric chart, C. condensing pressure
from left to right D. low side pressure
A. sensible cooling process ANSWER: D
B. sensible heating process
C. humidifying process
D. heating and dehumidifying process
ANSWER: B
153. It is an air conditioning process of increasing the humidity
ratio without changing the dry-bulb temperature of air. The
process is represented in the psychrometric chart by a
vertical line, from up to down
A. sensible cooling process
B. sensible heating process
C. humidifying process
D. heating and dehumidifying process
ANSWER: C
154. The temperature at which the water vapor content of moist
air begins to condense when air is cooled at constant
pressure
A. dew point temperature
B. wet bulb temperature
C. dry bulb temperature
D. condensing temperature
ANSWER: A
155. It is the index of performance of a refrigeration system
which is a dimensionless quantity
A. coefficient of performance
B. energy ratio
C. energy efficiency
D. performance ratio
ANSWER: A
156. It is simply the compression of the gas in two or more
cylinders in place of a single cylinder compressor
A. intercooled compression
B. multistage compression
C. efficient compression
D. performance compression
ANSWER: B
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 14
1. One of the reasons for insulating the pipes is: B. 6.7
A. They may not break under pressure C. 67
B. There is maximum corrosion D. 0.7
C. Capacity to withstand pressure is increased ANSWER: D
D. Heat loss from the surface is minimized 11. According to prevost theory of heat exchange?
ANSWER: D A. it is impossible to transfer heat from low temperature
2. The rate of radiant energy, that is emitted by a surface at source to high temperature source
any temperature and in small wavelengths is found from B. heat transfer by radiation needs no medium
the known rate of energy, that under the same C. all bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
conditions will be emitted from a black surface, by D. heat transfer in most of the cases occurs by
multiplying with the absorptivity. The above enunciation combination of conduction, convection and radiation
is called; ANSWER: C
A. Lambert’s law 12. Thermal conductivity of wood depends on which of the
B. Kirchhoff’s law following
C. Planck’s law A. moisture
D. Stefan Boltzmann’s law B. temperature
ANSWER: B C. density
3. Which of the following is generally used to measure that D. all of the above
temperature inside the furnace? ANSWER: D
A. Mercury thermometer 13. A fur coat on an animal will help the animal to remain;
B. alcohol thermometer A. warm in winter
C. ash thermometer B. cool in winter
D. optical pyrometer C. warm in summer
ANSWER: D D. warm in summer
4. All heat transfer processes: ANSWER: A
A. involve transfer of energy 14. The nature of flow of a fluid inside a tube, whether it is
B. involve temperature difference between the turbulent or laminar, can be ascertained by;
bodies A. Flow of velocity
C. obey first law of thermodynamics B. flow of current
D. obey second law of thermodynamics C. flow of density
ANSWER: B D. flow of water
5. What is thermal diffusivity? ANSWER: A
A. a mathematical formula 15. The statement that the emissivity and absorptivity of a
B. a physical property of the material surface is surrounded by its own temperature are the
C. a configuration for heat conduction same for both monochromatic and total radiation is
D. a dimensionless parameter called:
ANSWER: B A. Lambert’s law
6. Which of the following is a unit of thermal diffusivity? B. Kirchhoff’s law
A. m/hr C. D’ Alambart’s
B. kcal/m-hr D. Law of emissivity
C. kcal/m-hr-˚C ANSWER: B
D. m/hr-˚C 16. A reservoir that supplies energy in the form of heat is
ANSWER: A called:
7. Non- isotropic conductivity is shown by which of the A. source
following? B. sink
A. brass C. cold reservoir
B. copper D. heat reservoir
C. wood ANSWER: A
D. steel 17. In regenerator type heat exchanger, heat transfer occurs
ANSWER: C by:
8. For glass wool thermal conductivity changes from sample A. direct mixing of hot and cold fluids
due changes in; B. a complete separation between hot and cold fluids
A. structure C. flow of hot and cold fluid alternately over a surface
B. density D. generation of heat again and again
C. composition ANSWER: C
D. all of the above 18. Least value of Prandt’l number can be expected in case
ANSWER: D of
9. Which of the following is the S.I unit of thermal A. liquid metals
conductivity? B. sugar solution
A. W/m-hr-˚K C. salt solution
B. W/m ˚K D. water
C. KJ/m-hr-˚C ANSWER: A
D. M/m-hr-˚C 19. The boiling point of a solution is a linear function of water
ANSWER: B at the same pressure” The above statement is called
10. What is the value of the Prandt’l number for air? A. Dubring’s rule
A. 10 B. Petit and Dulong’s law
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 14
C. Fick’s rule 29. An electrically charged atom or radical which carries
D. Reynolds law electricity through an electrolyte is called:
ANSWER: A A. ion
20. Floating heads are provided in heat exchangers to B. isotope
A. increase pressure drop C. molecule
B. decrease the pressure drop D. hole
C. facilitate maintenance ANSWER: A
D. avoid deformation of tubes because of thermal 30. The energy of a body that can be transmitted in the form
expansion of heat.
ANSWER: D A. Heat energy
21. What do you call the first stage of crystal formation? B. Thermal energy
A. nucleation C. Entropy
B. foaming D. Internal energy
C. separation ANSWER: B
D. vortexing 31. In an isometric process, the heat transferred is equal to:
ANSWER: A A. change in enthalpy
22. In heat exchanger design, one transfer unit implies: B. change in entropy
A. one fluid which is exchanging with another fluid of the C. change in internal energy
same chemical composition D. work nonflow
B. the section of heat exchanger which will cause ANSWER: C
temperature drop of one degree centigrade 32. A substance that is able to absorb liquids or gases and is
C. the section of heat exchanger where heat transfer used for removing them from a given medium or region.
surface area has been one square meter A. Absorbent
D. condition when the change in temperature of one B. Cohesive
steam is numerically equal to the average driving force C. Adsorbent
ANSWER: D D. Adhesive
23. Dritus Boelter equation can be applied in case of fluid ANSWER: A
flowing in: 33. Radiant heat transfer is described by:
A. Transition region A. Newton’s law
B. turbulent region B. Fourier’s law
C. laminar region C. The logarithmic mean temperature
D. any of the above D. Kirchhoff’s law
ANSWER: B ANSWER: D
24. In sugar mills can just is evaporated in: 34. A reservoir that absorbs energy in the form of heat is
A. zigzag tube evaporators called.
B. long vertical tube evaporators A. source
C. short vertical evaporators B. sink
D. horizontal tube evaporators C. cold reservoir
ANSWER: B D. heat reservoir
25. A 1-2 heat exchanger refers to which of the following? ANSWER: B
A. single pass on shell side and double pass on tube side 35. When the entire heat exchanger is selected as control
B. single pass on tube side and double pass on shell side volume, heat becomes .
C. single liquid cools two liquid at different temperature A. unity
D. two tubes of cold fluid pass though one tube of hot B. zero
fluid C. undefined
ANSWER: A D. indeterminate
26. A correction of LMTD is essential in case of: ANSWER: B
A. parallel flow heat exchanger 36. Heat is conducted in the direction of:
B. counter current heat exchanger A. increasing temperature
C. cross flow heat exchanger B. decreasing temperature
D. none of the above. C. increasing and decreasing temperature
ANSWER: C D. constant temperature
27. Which of the following is used as entrainer in acetic acid ANSWER: B
– water separation? 37. The heat transfer term in the first law of thermodynamics
A. methyl alcohol may be due to any of the following except:
B. phosphorous A. conduction
C. butyl acetate B. convection
D. hexane C. radiation
ANSWER: C D. internal heat generation (e.g., chemical reaction)
28. A type of radiation consisting of singly charged particles ANSWER: D
that generate to intermediate distance. 38. All heat transfer processes require a medium of energy
A. Nuclear radiation exchange except:
B. Alpha radiation A. conduction
C. Beta radiation B. natural convection
D. Gamma radiation C. force convection
ANSWER: C D. radiation
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 14
ANSWER: D D. Heat loss from the is minimized
39. Thermal conduction is described by: ANSWER: D
A. Newton’ law 49. Heat transfer due to density differential
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference A. Convection
C. The Stefan – Boltzmann law B. Nuclear
D. Fourier’s law C. Conduction
ANSWER: D D. Radiation
40. Convection is described by which of the following laws? ANSWER: A
A. Newton’s law 50. The term “exposure” in radiological effects is used as a
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference measure of a gamma ray or an X-ray field in the surface
C. The Stefan – Boltzmann law of an exposed object. Since this radiation produces
D. Fourier’s law ionization of the air surrounding the object, the exposure
ANSWER: A is obtained as
41. Radiation heat transfer is described by A. number of ions produced per mass of air x coulombs
A. Newton’s law per kg
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference B. mass of air x surface area of an exposed object
C. Fourier’s law C. Mass of air over surface area of an exposed object
D. Kirchoff’s law D. number of ions produced per mass of air + coulombs
ANSWER: D per kg
42. The equivalent of ratio of emissive power to absorptivity ANSWER: A
for bodies in thermal equilibrium is described by: 51. The passing of heat energy from molecule to molecule
A. Newton’s law through a substance
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference A. conduction
C. Fourier’s law B. radiation
D. Kirchoff’s law C. conservation
ANSWER: D D. convection
43. The temperature potential between temperature at the ANSWER: A
two ends of a heat exchanger are given by: 52. The radiant heat transfer depends on:
A. the logarithmic mean temperature difference A. Temperature
B. The Stefan-Boltzmann law B. heat rays
C. Fourier’s law C. heat flow from cold to hot
D. Kirchoff’s law D. humidity
ANSWER: A ANSWER: B
44. The function of a heat exchanger is to: 53. What kind of heat exchanger where water is heated to a
A. increase the water temperature entering the boiler point that dissolved gases are liberated?
and decrease combustion requirements A. Evaporator
B. transfer heat from one fluid to another B. Condenser
C. increase the total energy content of the flow C. Intercooler
D. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow D. Deaerator
ANSWER: B ANSWER: D
45. The function of a super heater is to: 54. Heat transfer processes which include a change of phase
A. increase the water temperature entering the boiler of a fluid are considered .
and decrease combustion requirements A. convection
B. transfer heat from one fluid to another B. thermal radiation
C. increase the total energy content of the flow C. conduction
D. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow D. radiation
ANSWER: D ANSWER: A
46. What is the series of processes that eventually bring the 55. A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air its top surface.
system back to its original condition? The heat is first transferred to the air layer close to the
A. reversible process block is by conduction. It is eventually carried away from
B. irreversible process the surface by
C. cycle A. convection
D. isentropic process B. radiation
ANSWER: C C. conduction
47. A theoretical body which when heated to incandescence D. thermal radiation
would emit a continuous light- ray spectrum. ANSWER: A
A. Black body radiation 56. A body that is hot compared to its surroundings
B. Black body illuminates more energy than it receives, while its
C. Blue body surrounding absorbs more energy than they give. The
D. White body heat is transferred from one to another by energy wave
ANSWER: B motion. What is this mode of heat transfer?
48. Which of the following is the reason for insulating the A. Radiation
pipes? B. Conduction
A. They may not break under pressure C. Convection
B. There is minimum corrosion D. Condensation
C. Capacity to withstand pressure ANSWER: A
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 14
57. What is the heat transfer due to density differential? C. temperature
A. Convection D. ability to absorb radiation
B. Conduction ANSWER: B
C. Nuclear 67. Sublimation refers to:
D. Radiation A. the vaporization of a solid without first becoming
ANSWER: A liquid
58. What do you call the passing of heat energy from B. the melting of a solid
molecule to molecule through a substance? C. the vaporization of a liquid
A. Conduction D. the condensation of a gas into liquid
B. Conservation ANSWER: A
C. Radiation 68. In the process of freeze dying, ice goes directly into water
D. Convection vapor. What is the temperature at which this process can
ANSWER: A take place?
59. The transmission of heat from one place to another by A. Below the triple point of water
fluid circulation between the spots of different B. At the triple point of water
temperatures is called. C. Above the triple point of water
A. Convection D. Any of the above, depending on the pressure
B. Conversation ANSWER: A
C. Radiation 69. What usually happen when a vapor condenses into a
D. Conduction liquid?
ANSWER: A A. It evolves heat
60. Which of the following requires the greatest amount of B. it generates heat
heat per kilogram for a given increase in temperature? C. its temperature increase
A. Ice D. It boils with temperature less than 100 ˚C
B. Water ANSWER: A
C. Steam 70. In a cooling tower, the water is cooled mainly by:
D. Copper A. condensation
ANSWER: B B. convection
61. What do you call the effectiveness of a body as a thermal C. evaporation
radiator at a given temperature? D. conduction
A. Absorptivity ANSWER: C
B. Conductivity 71. How do you classify a body that has an emissivity factor
C. Emissivity of 0.7?
D. Reflectivity A. Gray body
ANSWER: C B. Black body
62. The natural direction of the heat flow between two C. White body
reservoirs is dependent on which of the following? D. Theoretical body
A. Their temperature difference ANSWER: A
B. Their internal energy 72. At what particular condition that no more heat can that
C. Their pressures be removed from a substance and the temperature can
D. Their state, whether solid, liquid ad gas no longer be lowered?
ANSWER: A A. Freezing point
63. Why are metals good conductors of heat? B. Absolute zero
A. Because they contain free electrons C. Critical point
B. Because their atoms are relatively far apart D. Ground zero
C. Because their atoms are electrons ANSWER: B
D. Because they have reflecting surfaces 73. What refers to the heat transfer wherein the heat is
ANSWER: A transferred from one point to another by actual
64. In natural convection a heated portion of a fluids moves movement of substance?
because: A. Conduction
A. its molecular motions becomes aligned B. Radiation
B. of molecular collisions within it C. Convection
C. its density is less than that of the surrounding fluid D. Absorption
D. of current in the surrounding fluid ANSWER: C
ANSWER: C 74. The ratio of the radiation of actual body to the radiation
65. In order to emit electromagnetic radiation, an object of a blackbody is known as ______.
must be at a temperature: A. emittance
A. above 0 ˚K B. reflectance
B. above 0 ˚C C. absorptance
C. above that of its surrounding D. transmittance
D. high enough for it to glow ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A 75. Which of the following is the usual geometric view factor
66. The rate at which an object radiates electromagnetic for a black body?
energy does not depend on its: A. Zero
A. surface area B. Infinity
B. mass C. One
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 14
D. Indeterminate A. Biot number
ANSWER: C B. Prandtl number
76. What happens to the heat transferred radially across C. Nusselt number
insulated pipe per unit area? D. Reynolds number
A. The heat will flow at constant rate. ANSWER: A
B. Decreases with the increase in thermal conductivity 85. It refers to the ratio of the rate of heat transferred by
C. Decreases from pipe wall to insulated surface conduction to the rate of energy stored.
D. Partially increases from pipe wall to insulated A. Reynolds number
surface. B. Fourier number
ANSWER: C C. Biot number
77. What do you call a change of phase directly from vapor D. Prandtl number
to solid without passing though the liquid state? ANSWER: B
A. Sublimation 86. A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air over its top
B. Solidification surface. The heat that is first transferred to the air layer
C. Vaporization close to the block is conduction. It is eventually carrier
D. Deposition away from the surface by:
ANSWER: D A. conduction
78. Which of the following is the Stefan-Boltzmann B. radiation
constant? C. thermal
A. 5.77 x 10 W/m-K D. convection
B. 7.67 x 10 W/m-K ANSWER: D
C. 4.78 x 10 W/m-K 87. It is the term used to describe the energy of a body that
D. 5.67 x 10 W/m-K can be transmitted in the form of heat.
ANSWER: D A. Enthalpy
79. What is the usual value of transmissivity for opaque B. Thermal energy
materials? C. Entropy
A. 0 D. Internal energy
B. Indetermine ANSWER: B
C. 1 88. Which of the following is the equivalent heat transferred
D. Infinity a gas undergoing isometric process?
ANSWER: A A. Change in enthalpy
80. A body whose emissivity is less than 1 is known as a real B. Change in entropy
body. What is the other term for real body? C. Change in internal energy
A. Gray body D. Work nonflow
B. White body ANSWER: C
C. Black body 89. What do you call a substance that is able to absorb liquids
D. Theoretical body or gases and is usually used for removing liquid (or gases)
ANSWER: A from a given medium or region?
81. What refers to an ideal body that absorbs all of the A. Absorbent
radiants energy that introduces on it and also emits the B. Liquefier
maximum possible energy when acting as a source? C. Adsorbent
A. White body D. Adhesive
B. Black body ANSWER: A
C. Gray body 90. In which direction that heat is transferred through
D. Red hot body conduction?
ANSWER: B A. Increasing temperature
82. The thermal resistance for one-dimensional steady B. Decreasing temperature
conduction heat transfer though cylindrical wall in the C. Increasing and decreasing temperature
radial direction is expressed in which of the following D. Constant temperature
functions? ANSWER: B
A. Linear 91. Which of the following statements is based on Prevost
B. Exponential theory of heat exchange?
C. Logarithmic A. All bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
D. Trigonometric B. The substance moves because of the decrease in its
ANSWER: C density which is caused by increase in temperature
83. The law which states that “the ratio of the emissive C. The substance moves because of the application of
powers to absorptivities are equal when the two bodies mechanical power such as that of a fan
are in thermal equilibrium is known as: D. Heat transfer in most of the cases occurs by
A. Stefan-Boltzmann Law combination of conduction, convection and radiation
B. Newton’s Law of Convection ANSWER: A
C. Fourier’s Law 92. Which of the following is the emissivity of white body?
D. Kirchhoff’s Law of Radiation A. zero
ANSWER: D B. 0.5
84. It refers to the ratio of the internal thermal resistance of C. 1
a solid to the boundary layer thermal resistance (or D. 0 < e < 1
external resistance of the body). ANSWER: A
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 14
93. The mechanism of heat transfer in which there is no ANSWER: A
medium (i.e. water, air, solid concrete) required for the 102. Which of the following is the measure of the relative
heat energy to travel is: effectiveness of momentum and energy transport by
A. Conduction diffusion in the velocity and thermal boundary layer?
B. Radiation A. Nusselt’s number
C. Convection B. Prandtl number
D. Diffusion C. Reynold’s number
ANSWER: B D. Dimensional measurement
94. The temperature potential between temperature at the ANSWER: B
two ends of a heat exchanger are given by: 103. Which of the following is the property of the solid that
A. the logarithmic mean temperature difference provides the measure of the rate of heat transfer to the
B. the Stefan-Boltzmann law energy storage?
C. Fourier’s law A. Thermal efficiency
D. Kirchoff’s law B. Thermal diffusivity
ANSWER: A C. Thermal conductivity
95. Which of the following best describe function of heat D. Thermal radiography
exchanger? ANSWER: B
A. Increase the water temperature entering the system 104. Two metals were kept together at room and it was found
B. Transfer heat from one fluid to another out that one is colder than the other. Which of the
C. Evaluate the total energy content of the flow following is the best reason why one metal is colder than
D. Evaluate heat to increase energy to the flow the other?
ANSWER: B A. The heat transfer coefficient of one metal is of higher
96. What refers to a form of energy associated with the B. One metal is of lower temperature as compared to the
kinetic random motion of large numbers of molecules? other
A. Heat C. One metal is of higher temperature as compared to
B. Heat of fusion the other
C. Entropy D. The thermal conductivity of one metal is high as
D. Internal energy compared to the other
ANSWER: A ANSWER: D
97. How much is the part of light that is absorbed by the body 105. In convection heat transfer, what happens to the heat
that transmits and reflects 80% and 10% respectively? transfer coefficient if the viscosity of the fluid decreases?
A. 10% A. The heat transfer coefficient also increases
B. 30% B. The heat transfer coefficient will decrease
C. 20% C. The heat transfer coefficient remains constant
D. 5% D. The heat transfer coefficient partially increases then
ANSWER: A decreases
98. In convection heat transfer, what happens to the heat ANSWER: A
transfer coefficient if the viscosity of the fluid increases? 106. A body that is hot compared to its surroundings
A. The heat transfer coefficient will increase illuminates more energy than it receives, while its
B. The heat transfer coefficient will decrease surroundings absorbs more energy than they give. The
C. The heat transfer coefficient remains constant heat transferred from one to another by energy of wave
D. None of the above motion. What is this mode of heat transfer?
ANSWER: B A. Radiation
99. How do you call a phenomenon wherein the heat is B. Conduction
transferred by motion of fluid under the action of C. Convection
mechanical device? D. Condensation
A. Forced convection ANSWER: A
B. Natural convection 107. What do you call theoretical body where absorptivity and
C. Forced conduction emissivity are independent of the wavelength over the
D. Thermal radiation spectral region of the irradiation and the surface
ANSWER: A emission?
100. In conduction heat transfer, what happens to the heat A. White body
transfer per unit time when the thermal conductivity B. Opaque body
decreases? C. Black body
A. The heat flow will increase D. Transparent body
B. The heat flow remains constant ANSWER: D
C. The heat flow will decrease 108. Which of the following is the structure designed to
D. The heat flow will partially increase and then will prevent the spread of fire having a fire resistance rating
decrease of not less than four hours?
ANSWER: C A. Fire escape
101. Which of the following is the driving force in heat B. Fire exit
transfer? C. Fire shield
A. Temperature gradient D. Fire wall
B. Thickness gradient ANSWER: D
C. Viscosity gradient
D. Dielectric gradient
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 14
109. Which of the following heat exchange device used to 118. Which of the following has the highest thermal
provide heat transfer between the exhaust gases and air conductivity?
prior to the entrance of a combustor? A. Mercury
A. Regenerator B. Gasoline
B. Economizer C. Water
C. Condenser D. Alcohol
D. Reheater ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A 119. Which of the following is the requirement of the
110. Which of the following transfer of heat is involved in the temperature of a body for it to emit radiation?
changing of boiling water (at 100 °C) to vapor at the same A. Above zero Celsius
temperature? B. Above zero Kelvin
A. Conduction C. Above of the temperature of the surroundings
B. Convection D. High enough for it to glow
C. Radiation ANSWER: B
D. Evaporation 120. Which of the following is the color of iron when it is
ANSWER: B heated to a highest temperature?
111. Which of the following is the science of low A. White
temperatures? B. Red
A. Cryogenics C. Orange
B. Thermo-kinetics D. Yellow
C. Thermodynamics ANSWER: A
D. Ergonomics 121. Which of the following is the reason why metals are good
ANSWER: A conductors of heat ?
112. Which of the following thermal state of the body A. Metals contain free electrons
considered as reference to communicate heat to the B. Metals have atoms the frequently collide one another
other bodies? C. Metals have reflecting surfaces
A. Temperature D. Atoms in metals are very far to each other
B. Pressure ANSWER: A
C. Internal energy 122. The rate at which heat flows through a slab of some
D. Entropy material does not depend on which of the following.
ANSWER: A A. The thickness of the slab
113. The true mean temperature difference is also known as: B. The area of the slab
A. the average mean temperature difference C. The temperature difference between two faces
B. the logarithmic mean temperature difference D. The specific heat of the material
C. the trigonometric mean temperature difference ANSWER: D
D. the exponential temperature difference 123. Which of the following is the primary function of a
ANSWER: B thermal radiator?
114. Which of the following can be a geometric view factor to A. To transferring the heat by using moving liquids
a gray body? B. To transfer heat from hot to cold body by using a
A. Greater than one forced-draft fan
B. Less than one C. To transfer heat by allowing molecules to vibrate one
C. Equal to one to another
D. Greater than zero but less than one D. To transfer heat with or without a medium
ANSWER: D ANSWER: D
115. The heat transfer by conduction occurs in which of the 124. What is the reason why styrofoam is a good insulating
following? material?
A. Only in liquids A. Because it contains many tiny pockets of air
B. Only in solids B. Styrofoam is a white object
C. Only in liquids and gases C. The structure of styrofoam is very unstable and heat
D. In solids, liquids and gases cannot flow
ANSWER: D D. Styrofoam structure is very dense
116. Which of the following reasons why one gram of steam ANSWER: A
at 100˚C causes more serious burn than 1 gram of water 125. What usually happens to the surrounding when water
at 100˚C? vapor condenses?
A. Steam is less dense than boiling water A. It warms the surrounding
B. The steam has higher specific heat B. The surrounding temperature decreases
C. Steam contains more internal energy C. It neither warm nor cold the surrounding
D. Steam is everywhere thus it strikes greater force D. The surrounding will be dehumidified
ANSWER: C ANSWER: A
117. What usually happens when vapor condenses into 126. The rate of radiation does not depend on which of the
liquid? following?
A. It absorbs heat A. Temperature of the radiating body
B. It rejects heat B. The emissivity of the radiation surface
C. Its temperature increases C. The area of the radiating body
D. Its temperature decreases D. The thickness of the radiating body
ANSWER: B ANSWER: D
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 14
127. Which of the following is not a good conductor of heat? 136. What happens to the thermal conductivity of diatomic
A. Metals gases if the temperature is increases?
B. Rocks A. The thermal conductivity will also increases
C. Glass B. The thermal conductivity decreases
D. Asbestos C. The thermal conductivity remains constant
ANSWER: D D. The thermal conductivity partially increases then
128. Which of the following is not a unit of the rate of heat decreases.
transfer? ANSWER: A
A. Watt 137. What device is used to measure the amount of infrared
B. Btu per hour radiation in each portion of a person’s skin that is
C. Cal/s emitted?
D. Btu/Hp-hr A. Thermograph
ANSWER: D B. Thermometer
129. The thermal conductivity does not depend on which of C. Pyrometer
the following? D. Potentiometer
A. Chemical composition ANSWER: A
B. Physical state or texture 138. The heat transfer by convection occurs in which of the
C. Temperature and pressure following?
D. Gravitational pull A. Only in gases
ANSWER: D B. Only in liquids
130. In Maxell’s theory for thermal conductivity of gases and C. Only in gases and liquids
vapors, which of the following is the value of “a” for D. Only in gases and solids
triatomic gases? ANSWER: C
A. 1.7 139. In convection heat transfer, what mechanism heat
B. 2.4 transfer where the fluid moves due to the decrease in its
C. 1.3 density caused by increase in temperature?
D. 2.4 A. Forced convection
ANSWER: A B. Natural convection
131. Which of the following conductivities where Sutherland C. Density convection
equation is used? D. Radial convection
A. Approaches infinity ANSWER: B
B. Decreases except for ferrous metals 140. For pure metals, what happens to the thermal
C. Almost constant except for ferromagnetic materials conductivity if the temperature is extremely high?
D. Increases except for steel A. Approaches infinity
ANSWER: B B. Decreases except for ferrous metals
132. For pure metals, what happens to the thermal C. Almost constant except for ferromagnetic materials
conductivity if the temperature is extremely high? D. Increases except for steel
A. Approaches infinity ANSWER: C
B. Decreases except for ferrous metals
C. Almost constant except for ferromagnetic materials
D. Increases except for steel
ANSWER: C
133. Which of the following liquids that has the highest
thermal conductivity?
A. Gasoline
B. Glycerin
C. Water
D. Alcohol
ANSWER: C
134. Which of the following is not a heat exchanger?
A. Condenser
B. Boilers
C. Evaporators
D. Water hammer
ANSWER: D
135. Which of the following heat exchangers where fluid flow
in the same direction and both are of changing
temperatures?
A. Parallel flow
B. Cross flow
C. Counter flow
D. Mixed flow
ANSWER: A
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 15
1. Which of the following could be used to check a leak in an B. back into the compressor
ammonia system? C. into a bucket of water
A. Litmus paper D. into the atmospheric line
B. Halide torch ANSWER: C
C. Sulfur stick 11. Thermal expansion valves are usually of the:
D. A and C A. diaphragm
ANSWER: D B. magnetic type
2. Ammonia leaks in the condenser can be detected by: C. bellows type
A. smelling the discharge water D. A and C
B. applying litmus paper to the circulating water discharge ANSWER: D
C. adding oil of peppermint to the system and tracing and 12. When checking zinc plates in a condenser, one should:
looking for bubbles A. install all new plates
D. applying a soapy solution to the condenser heads and B. clean the plates and renew worn out ones
looking for bubbles C. ground each plate to the shell
ANSWER: B D. paint the plates with red lead
3. A sulfur stick burning in the presence of ammonia will give ANSWER: B
off a _______. 13. The scale trap is located between the:
A. dense yellow smoke A. compressor and oil separator
B. dense white smoke B. expansion valve and evaporators coils
C. dense red smoke C. King (liquid) valve and expansion valve
D. dense green smoke D. evaporator coils and compressor
ANSWER: B ANSWER: C
4. An ammonia leak will turn litmus paper __________. 14. When the evaporator coils are located in the icebox, the
A. blue system is known as:
B. green A. indirect system
C. red B. direct system
D. yellow C. high-pressure system
ANSWER: C D. low-pressure system
5. In an ammonia system the oil gauge must be kept: ANSWER: B
A. closed except when checking oil level 15. The purge valve is located:
B. open at all times A. on the receiver discharge
C. close when machine is shut down B. in the highest part of the system
D. open when machine is shut down C. in the lowest part of the system
ANSWER: A D. on the evaporators coils
6. Valves and piping in an ammonia system are made of: ANSWER: B
A. brass 16. The solenoid valve is:
B. bronze A. a pressure-controlled stop valve
C. iron B. a temperature-controlled stop valve
D. copper C. a Freon-controlled check valve
ANSWER: C D. none of the above
7. The relief valve on an ammonia machine is located : ANSWER: B
A. on the discharge pipe from the condenser 17. The thermal expansion valve is located between the:
B. on the discharge pipe from the compressor A. solenoid valve and the evaporator coils
C. in the compressor head B. charging valve and the solenoid valve
D. A and B C. receiver and the king valve
ANSWER: C D. king valve and the solenoid valve
8. When purging an ammonia condenser into a bucket of ANSWER: A
water, one can tell when the air is out and ammonia starts 18. The purpose of the scale trap is to:
to come through by the A. dissolved scale and dirt in the system
A. smell of the ammonia being liberated from the water B. remove insoluble gases from the refrigerant
B. color of the water turning green C. remove dirt, scale and metal chips from the refrigerant
C. color of the water turning bluish D. control the amount of scale going to the compressor
D. change of bubbling sound of air to the crackling sound ANSWER: C
of ammonia 19. The oil separator (trap) is located between the :
ANSWER: D A. compressor discharge valve and the condenser
9. The crossover connection in an ammonia system can be B. receiver and the expansion valve
used to ______. C. receiver and the king valve
A. hot-gas defrost D. condenser and the receiver
B. pump air out of the system ANSWER: A
C. add refrigerant to the system 20. The charging connection in a refrigerating system is located
D. reduce the pressure on the discharge side of the A. before the receiver
condenser B. between the condenser and the receiver
ANSWER: A C. between the receiver and the king valve
10. How is an ammonia system purged so that operator will not D. between the king valve and the solenoid valve
be overcome by the fumes? ANSWER: D
A. into a bucket of lube oil
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 15
21. The dehydrator is located between the 31. The bulb for the thermal expansion valve is located
A. condenser and receiver A. near the evaporator coil outlet
B. receiver and the expansion valve B. in the middle of evaporator coils
C. condenser and the king valve C. near the evaporator coil inlet
D. receiver and the king valve D. on the bottom row of evaporator coils
ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
22. The charging valve is located between the: 32. The elements of a thermostat switch are usually of the
A. king valve and the expansion valve ______.
B. evaporator coils and the compressor A. pilot-valve type
C. compressor and the receiver B. bimetal type
D. receiver and the condenser C. diaphragm type
ANSWER: B D. valve type
23. The solenoid valve is located between the ______ ANSWER: B
A. thermal expansion valve and the evaporator 33. The expansion valve is located between the
B. scale trap and the thermal expansion valve A. compressor and condenser
C. king valve and the scale trap B. evaporator and compressor
D. automatic and manual expansion valves C. receiver and evaporator
ANSWER: B D. condenser and receiver
24. A device used to keep moisture from passing through the ANSWER: C
system is called : 34. The oil separator is located between the
A. humidifier A. condenser and dehydrator
B. dehydrator B. compressor and condenser
C. aerator C. evaporator and compressor
D. trap D. solenoid valve and thermal expansion valve
ANSWER: B ANSWER: B
25. The relief valve is located on the : 35. Zinc rods are found in the
A. discharge side on the condenser A. salt-water side of condenser
B. outlet of the evaporator coils B. compressor crankcase
C. receiver tank C. prevent gas from getting to crankcase
D. discharge side of the compressor D. all of the above
ANSWER: D ANSWER: A
26. The dehydrator is used : 36. A double-trunk piston is used to
A. to remove moisture from the system A. prevent oil from mixing with the refrigerant
B. when adding refrigerant to the system B. absorb some of the side thrust
C. to remove air from the system C. prevent gas from getting to crankcase
D. A and B D. all of the above
ANSWER: D ANSWER: D
27. Which of the following is another name for the liquid valve? 37. Which of the following gasket materials should be used on
A. Freon valve a Freon system?
B. king valve A. Asbestos
C. shutoff valve B. Metallic
D. master valve C. Rubber
ANSWER: B D. A and B
28. If no gaskets are used in the piping joints of a Freon system, ANSWER: D
the 38. Many pressure gauges on a Freon system have two dials or
A. wielded joints graduations on one gauge. The two dials represent
B. finished joints A. suction and discharge pressure
C. ground joints B. pressure and temperature
D. soldered joints C. liquid and gas pressure
ANSWER: C D. cooling water inlet and outlet temp
29. A device for holding open the suction valve and drawing gas ANSWER: B
from the suction manifold and returning it to the suction 39. A double-pipe condenser has
line without compressing is called _______. A. two pipes for cooling water and one for refrigerant
A. relief valve B. a small pipe inside a larger pipe, the cooling water
B. suction by-pass passing through the small pipe and the refrigerant
C. cylinder unloader through the large pipe
D. discharge line by-pass C. two piping system side by side, one with cooling water
ANSWER: C and one with refrigerant
30. The solenoid valve can be typed as a ________. D. none of the above
A. bellow valve ANSWER: B
B. bimetallic valve 40. When there is a Freon leak, the torch will burn :
C. thermal valve A. orange
D. magnetic stop valve B. green
ANSWER: D C. blue
D. white
ANSWER: B
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 15
41. Large leaks in a Freon system cannot always be detected B. congealed oil the system
with a halide torch because it changes color with the C. water in the system
slightest amount of Freon present. A large leak can be D. any of the answer
detected easier by applying ANSWER: D
A. sheets of litmus paper to all joints and watch for color 50. Excess frost on the evaporator coils
change A. does not affect the system
B. a soapsuds solution, mixed with a little glycerin to hold B. takes load off compressor
the solution together, and watch for bubbles C. reduces efficiency of the plant
C. a thin layer of mineral oil to all joints and watch for D. keeps the icebox cooler
bubbles ANSWER: C
D. a lighted candle at the joints and watch for leaky spots 51. Air circulation in the icebox is accomplished by the use of
blowing candle which of the following ?
ANSWER: B A. hollow sidewalls
42. The relief valve on a CO2 Machine is located B. diffuser fans
A. next to the king valve C. louver doors
B. in the compressor head D. air vents to deck
C. on the discharge pipe between the compressor and the ANSWER: B
discharge valve 52. The cooling-water side of the condenser should be opened
D. on the discharge pipe from the conde for inspection every
ANSWER: C A. six months
43. The discharge pressure of the compressor should be: B. two years
A. the pressure which corresponds to a temperature from C. year
5 °F below that of the condenser discharge D. three months
B. the pressure which corresponds to a temperature equal ANSWER: D
to that of the condenser discharge 53. Some causes of a noisy compressor are
C. the pressure which corresponds to a temperature from A. worn bearing, pins, etc.
5 °F to 15 °F higher than the condenser discharge B. slugging due to flooding back of refrigerant
D. none of the above C. too much oil on crankcase
ANSWER: C D. any of the above
44. The purpose of relief valves on refrigeration machines is to: ANSWER: D
A. by-pass the compressor when dehydrating 54. If the thermal expansion valve becomes inoperative, the
B. prevent overloading in the iceboxes iceboxes will have to be controlled the ______
C. prevent excessive pressure in case of stoppage on the A. king valve
discharge side of the system B. manual expansion valve
D. A and B C. manual solenoid valve
ANSWER: C D. solenoid valve
45. A leaky suction valve can usually be detected by ANSWER: B
A. a higher suction pressure 55. Sweating of the crankcase is caused by which of the
B. a fluctuating suction pressure gauge following ?
C. closing in on the suction valve having no effect on the A. too much oil in the system
suction pressure B. insufficient superheat
D. any of the above C. too much superheat
ANSWER: D D. expansion valve hung up
46. Too low suction pressure could be caused by ANSWER: A
A. too much oil in the system 56. Which of the following is the usual cause of slugging?
B. shortage of refrigerant gas A. too much refrigerant in the system
C. dirty scale traps B. too much oil in the system
D. any of the above C. expansion valve not operating properly
ANSWER: D D. too much cooling water to condenser
47. What do you call a system in which the evaporator coils are ANSWER: C
located in a brine solution and the brine is pumped through 57. What operates low-pressure cutout switch?
the inbox? A. bellows
A. an indirect system B. spring tension
B. a double-evaporator system C. a magnet
C. a direct system D. water pressure
D. a low-pressure system ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A 58. Which of the following must be checked up if an automatic
48. Before securing a compressor to do maintenance work on Freon system will not start up?
it, be sure to A. high-pressure cutout
A. purge the system B. reset mechanism
B. have spare parts ready C. low-pressure cutout
C. pump down the system D. all of the above
D. B and C ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D 59. Which of the following is the probable cause of hot suction
49. Obstruction of the valve is usually caused by line?
A. scale A. insufficient lubrication
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 15
B. too much refrigerant A. opening the purge valve
C. insufficient refrigerant B. increasing the amount of cooling water
D. expansion valve closed too much C. running the refrigerant through an aerator
ANSWER: C D. running the refrigerant through a deaerator
60. What do you call the device that is used as a low-pressure ANSWER: A
control and high-pressure cutout on a compressor 70. Short-cycling means that the machine
A. pressure controller A. runs to slow
B. controller switch B. stops and starts frequently
C. cutout C. runs too fast
D. cutout switch D. grounds out frequently
ANSWER: A ANSWER: B
61. If the solenoid valve closed by accident, the compressor 71. The suction pressure in a Freon system should be
would be stopped by which of the following? A. the pressure which corresponds with a temperature
A. automatic trip about 200 °F above the temperature of the icebox.
B. low-pressure cutout switch B. the pressure corresponds with a temperature about
C. low-water cutout switch 200 °F below the temperature of the icebox
D. high-pressure cutout switch C. the pressure which corresponds with a temperature
ANSWER: B equal to the temperature of the icebox
62. The purpose of the low-pressure cutout switch is to: D. none of the above
A. cutout the compressor at a set pressure ANSWER: B
B. maintain a preset suction pressure to the compressor 72. If any of the electrically controlled devices in a Freon
C. maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the system malfunction, which of the following valve will also
compressor automatically shut off?
D. cut compressor in and out at a preset pressure A. king valve
ANSWER: D B. Condenser cooling-water inlet valve
63. If the cooling water to the condenser suddenly fails? C. Expansion valve
A. an alarm will ring to notify the engineer D. Solenoid valve
B. the compressor will shut down ANSWER: D
C. the expansion valve will close 73. A leaky discharge valve can usually be detected by
D. the solenoid valve will close A. a drop in icebox temperature
ANSWER: B B. a discharge pressure lower than normal
64. The most likely cause of high superheat would be C. a fluctuating high-pressure gauge
A. too much refrigerant D. any of the above
B. expansion valve open too wide ANSWER: D
C. expansion valve closed too much 74. The dehydrating agent in a Freon system is usually
D. back-pressure valve set too high A. sodium chloride
ANSWER: C B. calcium chloride
65. What do you call the liquid researching the compressor C. activated alumina
through the suction? D. slaked lime
A. superheating ANSWER: C
B. overflowing 75. If the compressor short-cycles on the low-pressure cutout,
C. flooding back the trouble might be :
D. recycling A. too much frost on the evaporator coils
ANSWER: C B. dirty traps and strainers
66. The suction pressure switch is operated by which of the C. lack of refrigerant
following? D. any of the above
A. electronic current ANSWER: D
B. pressure on a bellows 76. If an electrically operated compressor failed to start, the
C. a relay cutout cause might be:
D. thermocouple A. a blown fuse
ANSWER: B B. burned out holding coils in solenoid valve
67. If he compressor short-cycles on the high-pressure cutout, C. an open switch
which of the following would you check? D. any of the above
A. a check for too much refrigerant in the system ANSWER: D
B. if plenty of cooling water is running through but it is not 77. The high-pressure side of the system is sometimes referred
picking up heat, the condenser tubes need cleaning to as the
C. be sure system is getting cooling water A. hot side
D. all of the above B. suction side
ANSWER: D C. cold side
68. A Freon unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under: D. cooling side
A. normal conditions ANSWER: A
B. heavy loads 78. If the compressor were to run continuously without
C. light loads lowering the temperature, the trouble would probably be:
D. all of the above A. leaky discharge valves
ANSWER: C B. insufficient refrigerant in the system
69. Air is remove from the system by C. leaks in the system
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 15
D. any of the above B. decrease the amount of cooling water to the condenser
ANSWER: D C. increase the amount of cooling water to the condenser
79. Which of the following would cause a high head pressure? D. remove some of the refrigerant from the system
A. suction valve not open enough ANSWER: B
B. too much cooling water 90. How is a CO2 system purged?
C. insufficient cooling water A. when is a CO2 comes out of the purge valve, frost will
D. icebox door left open from on a piece of metal held near the outlet
ANSWER: C B. through the king valve
80. If frost forms on the cylinders, the cause would be C. pumped out with a suction pump
A. charging valve left open D. the CO2 will come of the purge valve in liquid form
B. expansion valve not open wide enough ANSWER: A
C. expansion valve open too wide 91. If the head pressure is too high:
D. dehydrator not working properly A. the relief valve should open and let excess refrigerant
ANSWER: C pass to receiver
81. Which of the following would cause low head pressure? B. close in on the suction valve
A. insufficient cooling water C. the relief should open before the high-pressure cutout
B. too much cooling water D. the high-pressure cutout switch should operate before
C. insufficient refrigerant gas the relief value opens
D. B and C ANSWER: D
ANSWER: D 92. The system should be purged
82. Too high suction pressure could be cause by A. while starting up
A. leaky suction valves B. after the system has been shut down for a few hours
B. expansion valve bulb not working properly C. while system is operating
C. expansion value open too wide D. once a week
D. any of the above ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D 93. If the compressor had been running satisfactorily for a long
83. Which of the following would cause high head pressure? period of time but suddenly the compartment temperature
A. air in the condenser started to rise, the trouble must be
B. insufficient cooling water A. a refrigerant leak has developed
C. dirty condenser B. the expansion valve may contain frozen water
D. any of the above C. the solenoid valve has jammed shut
ANSWER: D D. any of the above
84. An excessively high head pressure could be caused by ANSWER: D
A. insufficient cooling water to the condenser 94. If the compressor had been running satisfactorily for a long
B. insufficient cooling water to the evaporator coils period of time but the oil level was rising slowly, one
C. solenoid valve shutoff should:
D. too much cooling water to the condenser A. check the dehydrator cartridge
ANSWER: A B. check to see if there is too much refrigerant in the
85. Which of the following would cause a high suction system
pressure? C. shut down the compressor and check the oil level with
A. expansion valve open too wide the machine stopped
B. dirty dehydrator D. drain out sufficient oil to bring it down to the proper
C. king valve not open wide enough running level
D. expansion valve not open wide enough ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A 95. The purpose of the trap is :
86. If a compressor runs continuously, the cause might be a A. to add oil to the compressor
A. clogged scale trap B. to remove oil from the refrigerating gas
B. defective thermal bulb C. to remove oil from the charging tank
C. stuck high-pressure switch D. none of the above
D. stuck low-pressure switch ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D 96. Too much oil in the compressor would :
87. Low suction pressure is caused by A. absorb too much refrigerant from the system
A. expansion valve causing flooding back B. deposit oil on the condenser tubes
B. solenoid valve not functioning properly C. damage the expansion valve
C. leaky compressor suction valves D. caused leakage through the shaft seals
D. air in the system ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B
88. How is a Freon system purged?
A. with a reefer pump
B. the same as an ammonia system
C. back to the extra supply tank
D. the same as a CO2 system
ANSWER: D
89. If the compressor discharge temperature is higher than the
receiver temperature :
A. add more refrigerant to the system
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 16
1. How do you call the water vapor content of air? 11. Which of the following is considered as comfort condition
A. moisture in air conditioning?
B. humidity A. cooled
C. dew B. filtered
D. vapor C. dehumidified
ANSWER: B D. all of the above
2. When air contains all of the water vapor it can hold, it is ANSWER: D
said to be 12. The drift loss in cooling towers is about:
A. simulated A. 1% only
B. loaded B. 12 to 15%
C. saturated C. 10 to 20%
D. moistured D. 30 to 40%
ANSWER: C ANSWER: C
3. What is the instrument used to register relative humidity? 13. Cooling tower are used for cooling water:
A. Hygrometer A. to be injected in circulating air
B. Hydrometer B. to be used for humidification
C. Perometer C. to be used for filtration of air
D. Manometer D. to be used for cooling the compressor
ANSWER: A ANSWER: D
4. Humidity is a measure of which of the following? 14. By which of the following processes heat mainly dissipates
A. water vapor content in cooling towers?
B. temperature A. conduction
C. latent heat B. convection
D. any of the above C. radiation
ANSWER: A D. evaporation
5. Air conditioning is the process of: ANSWER: D
A. keeping a place cool 15. Which one is commonly used liquid absorbent?
A. silica gel
B. removing heat from a specific area
B. activated alumina
C. maintaining the air at a required temperature and
C. ethylene glycol
humidity
D. any one of the above
D. A or C
ANSWER: C ANSWER: C
6. In an air-conditioning system, before the air is circulated to 16. In sensible heating cooling following parameter remains
the required area, it is: unchanged
A. cooled A. dry bulb temperature
B. filtered B. wet bulb temperature
C. dehumidified C. relative humidity
D. all of the above D. humidity ratio
ANSWER: D ANSWER: D
7. The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere 17. Heating and dehumidification can be obtained
begins to condense is known as the: simultaneously if air is passed through:
A. vapor print A. sprays of water kept at a temperature higher than the
B. dew point dew point temperature of the entering air
C. moisture point B. a solid adsorbent surface
D. none of the above C. a liquid absorbent spray
ANSWER: B D. any one of B and C
8. Saturation temperature is same as: ANSWER: D
A. dew point 18. Dirt and foreign materials normally build-up on the side of
B. vapor temperature the condenser tubes. To ensure adequate condenser
C. steam temperature capacity, a certain factor is used in circulating the overall
D. humidity heat transfer through the walls of the tubes including the
ANSWER: A heat transfer rate of the layers dirt ang foreign materials.
9. When the bypass factor is B, the coil efficiency for sensible What is this factor?
cooling of air is equal to: A. Booster Factor
A. 1 + B B. Factor of Safety
C. Fouling Factor
B. 1 – B
D. Compression Factor
C. 1 – B/B
D. 1 + B/B ANSWER: C
19. The engineer was tested to design the air conditioning
ANSWER: B
system for a ball room dance hall. Considering that this
10. The psychometric chart in air conditioning determines the
A. wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures involves a lot of activity from its users, the engineer would
B. psychometric temperature requirements design that will require:
C. saturation temperature and relative humidity A. Maximum attainable effective temperature
D. moist air conditions B. Constant effective temperature
ANSWER: D C. Higher Effective Temperature
D. Lower Effective Temperature
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 16
ANSWER: A D. Hydraulic Heating System
20. What is the value of the Mach no. throat of the converging- ANSWER: A
diverging nozzle? 30. The method of cooling which primarily used where ambient
A. Zero air temperature are high and relative humidity is used:
B. Two A. Swamp Cooling
C. One B. Evaporation Cooling
D. Ten C. Condensation Cooling
ANSWER: C D. Hydroionic Cooling
21. What do bodies at a temperature above absolute zero? ANSWER: A
A. It emits Energy 31. The other name for Swamp Cooling is:
B. It emits Thermal Radiation A. Evaporative Cooling
C. It emits Heat for Conduction B. Condensate Cooling
D. It emits Heat for Convection C. Wet Roof Cooling
ANSWER: B D. Excelsior Cooling
22. When the air is saturated, the wet bulb depression is: ANSWER: C
A. zero 32. Evaporative condenser is used to cool
B. indefinite A. condense vapor
C. unity B. condenser surface
D. 100% C. condensate liquid
ANSWER: A D. all of these
23. In window air conditioning unit which of the following is ANSWER: A
usually done by the owner? 33. A method of cooling which uses water as refrigerant.
A. Semiannual cleaning or replacement of filters Pressure on the water surface is reduced to lower its boiling
B. Annual cleaning of the evaporator, condenser fan temperature.
blades, fan motor, compressor and casing A. Steam Jet Cooling
C. Inspection of fan motors and lubricate them B. Evaporative Cooling
D. All of these C. Vortex Tube Cooling
ANSWER: A D. Pressurized Cooling
24. Fan motors in air conditioning units usually have: ANSWER: A
A. 2 or 3 speeds 34. Pallamadium Chloride may be used to measure the
B. 3 or 4 speeds presence of:
C. 1 or 2 speeds A. vapor
D. 4 or 5 speeds B. CO
ANSWER: A C. ammonia
25. Which of the following capacitors that can usually be found D. refrigerant
in an air conditioning unit? ANSWER: B
A. Starting capacitors 35. The amount of CO can be determined by the color of
B. Running capacitors palladium chloride. An amount of 30 ppm to 70 ppm will
C. Fan motor capacitors cause:
D. all of these A. Slight Darkening
ANSWER: D B. Grey Color
26. Which of the following troubles commonly occurs inside an C. Red Color
air conditioning unit? D. Black Color
A. Stuck Compressor ANSWER: A
B. Clogged Refrigerant Circuit 36. The term used to express the amount moisture in a given
C. Short circuit, open circuit, grounded motor winding sample of air. It is compared with the amount of moisture
D. All of these in a given sample of air.
ANSWER: D A. Humidity
27. The motor condition of an air conditioning unit can be B. Relative Humidity
checked with: C. Absolute Humidity
A. the continuity of light or with an ohmmeter D. Humidity Ratio
B. the flow of refrigerant in the receiver ANSWER: B
C. the discharge pressure in the compressor 37. How should the window type air conditioning unit be
D. All of these placed?
ANSWER: A A. Slant toward the inside of the home
28. An air conditioning system wherein the entire systems are B. Slant toward the outside of the home
mounted in the cabinet: C. Level
A. Console Air Conditioners D. Slant at approximately 15’ from the horizontal
B. Centralized Air Conditioners ANSWER: B
C. Package Type Air Conditioners 38. A dehumidifier is usually a small hermitic refrigerating
D. Multizone Split Ductless System system. It has both a condenser and an evaporator. Many
ANSWER: A older system use R-12 or R-500.The newer units use:
29. The use of water to carry heat occupied spaces A. R – 134a
A. Hydronic Heating System B. R – 145a
B. Water Boiling System C. R – 217a
C. Hydrokinetic Heating System D. R – 121a
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 16
ANSWER: A A. Carrene
39. The normal cut-out setting of a window unit thermostat is B. Cerrene
between: C. CCL group
A. 13 °C to 16 °C D. HCL group
B. 16 °C to 21 °C ANSWER: A
C. 17 °C to 22 °C 48. Which of the following refrigerants is popular in the
D. 10 °C to 12 °C industrial refrigerating system; also popularly absorption
ANSWER: A system of refrigerant.
40. Thermostat are used with most window units. They have A. R -717 (Ammonia)
differentials which vary between: B. R -600 (Butane)
A. 2 °C to 4 °C C. R – 611 (Methyl Formate)
B. 3 °C to 5 °C D. R – 504
C. 4 °C to 5 °C ANSWER: A
D. 1 °C to 2 °C 49. Which of the following is a function of air conditioning?
ANSWER: A A. Temperature and Humidity Control
41. In an air conditioning unit, the thermostat fails. The unit did B. Air Filtering, Cleaning, and Purification
not start. How do you test the operation of the thermostat? C. Air Movement and Circulation
A. Cover the air outlet and air inlet with a cloth. The air D. All of these
will recirculate into the unit and the temperature will ANSWER: D
quickly drop to the cut-out temperature 50. Oxygen is approximately what percent by weight in the
B. Cover the outlet and the air will not circulate and the atmosphere?
thermostat functions because no air movement. A. 23 %
C. Cover both the inlet and outlet so that the recirculating B. 27 %
air has the same temperature C. 77 %
D. Never cover any air passage so that the air can freely D. 73 %
move and thermostat functions well. ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A 51. Substances that have the ability to absorb moisture from
42. Which of the following dehumidifier is often used to reheat the air are called:
the air after moisture is removed? A. Desiccants
A. Evaporator B. Moisturizer
B. Chiller C. Dehygroscopic substances
C. Condenser D. Moisture absorber
D. Compressor ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C 52. When dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures are identical,
43. Which of the following refrigerant is added sometimes to the air
other refrigerant to improve oil circulation? A. saturated
A. R – 117 B. compressed
B. R – 777 C. humidified
C. R – 170 (Ethane) D. dehumidified
D. R – 270 ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C 53. In what form that water exists in air?
44. A refrigeration that deals with producing temperature of - A. Solid
157 °C or lower. B. Liquid
A. Low temperature refrigeration C. Vapor
B. Extremely low temperature refrigeration D. Saturated
C. Absolute zero refrigeration ANSWER: C
D. Cryogenics 54. When air is heated , what happened to its relative
ANSWER: D humidity?
45. Measurement of a device’s ability to remove atmospheric A. Increases
air from test air. B. Decreases
A. Atmospheric Dust Spot Efficiency C. Remain Constant
B. Atmospheric Dry Air Efficiency D. May increase or Decrease Depending on temperature
C. Test Air Efficiency ANSWER: B
D. Baudelot Air Efficiency 55. The Horizontal Scale (Abscissa) in the psychrometric Chart
ANSWER: A represents :
46. A liquid mixture having constant maximum and minimum A. Dry bulb temperature
boiling points. Refrigerants comprising this mixture do not B. Wet bulb temperature
combine chemically, yet the mixture provides constant C. Relative Humidity
characteristics. D. Humidity
A. Azeotropic Mixture ANSWER: A
B. Homogeneous Mixture 56. Most people are comfortable with the relative humidity of:
C. Conzeotropic Mixture A. 30 % to 70 %
D. Cyrogenic Mixture B. 10 % to 40 %
ANSWER: A C. 20 % to 30 %
47. Refrigerant in Group A1 (R-11). Chemical combination of D. 40 % to 80 %
carbon, chlorine, and fluorine. ANSWER: A
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 16
57. The temperature below which water vapor in the air will C. notify the engineer
start to condense: D. A and B
A. Condensing Temperature ANSWER: D
B. Dry Bulb Temperature 67. When securing a Freon system for repairs
C. Dew point Temperature A. pump down 1 or 2 pounds pressure
D. Wet Bulb Temperature B. pump down to a slight vacuum
ANSWER: C C. pump down to 10 to 15 pounds pressure
58. Which of the following is not used as method to measure D. remove all refrigerant from the system
air velocities? ANSWER: A
A. Hot wire Anemometer 68. When charging Freon system, all the valves should be in
B. Rotating Anemometer their normal position except the :
C. Swinging Vane Velocimeter A. solenoid valve
D. Open type Barometer B. purge valve
ANSWER: D C. king (liquid) valve
59. The oil level in the compressor should be checked D. expansion valve
A. just before starting the compressor ANSWER: C
B. after a long period of operation 69. The purpose of the receiver is to :
C. after an extended lay-up period A. cool the refrigerant gas
D. while the compressor is in operation B. separate the oil from the refrigerant
ANSWER: B C. store the refrigerant
60. The agent used in an indirect reefer system is D. condense the refrigerant
A. calcium chloride ANSWER: C
B. potassium chloride 70. The solenoid valve controls the
C. sodium chloride A. amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator coils
D. A or C B. amount of refrigerant going to the compressor
ANSWER: D C. amount of the refrigerant going to the evaporator
61. Air can be prevented from getting into system by D. pressure if the refrigerant going to the evaporator coils
A. running the refrigerant through an aerator ANSWER: B
B. keeping the dehydrator clean at all times 71. The purpose of the evaporator is to
C. keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the high- A. absorb latent heat of vaporization
pressure side tight B. absorb latent heat of fusion
D. keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the low- C. transfer latent heat of vaporization
pressure side tight D. transfer latent heat of fusion
ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
62. Which of the following would not cause high suction 72. The purpose of the dehydrator is to
pressure? A. add more refrigerant to the system
A. suction valve not adjusted properly B. remove oil from the refrigerant
B. expansion valve stuck open C. remove moisture from the crankcase oil
C. leaky suction valve D. remove moisture from the refrigerant
D. insufficient refrigeration ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A 73. The principle of mechanical refrigerant is
63. Water in the refrigerant is liable to A. the conversion of a liquid to a gas
A. freeze on the expansion valve seat and cut the flow of B. the absorption of temperature under heat, pressure,
refrigerant compression and expansion
B. clog the oil trap C. the compression of a liquid under temperature and
C. freeze in the king (liquid) valve expansion
D. emulsify the oil in the compressor D. the absorption of heat under temperature,
ANSWER: A compression pressure and expansion
64. The function of the expansion valve is to : ANSWER: D
A. regulate the amount of liquid refrigerant to the 74. A thermostat is a
expansion coils A. temperature-operated switch
B. change the gas refrigerant to a liquid B. pressure-operated switch
C. shut off the flow of refrigerant to the condenser C. superheat-operated switch
D. change the high-pressure liquid to a low-pressure liquid D. back-pressure-operated switch
ANSWER: A ANSWER: A
65. When heavy electrical currents are involved, the 75. The thermal expansion valve responds to the
thermostat will be operated by a : A. amount of superheat in the vapor
A. pressure pipe B. amount of superheat in the liquid
B. fusetron C. temperature in the evaporator coils
C. relay D. pressure in the evaporator coils
D. small circuit breaker ANSWER: A
ANSWER: C 76. The expansion valve on a Freon system controls the
66. Before securing a compressor to do maintenance work on A. superheat of the gas leaving the compressor
it, be sure to : B. back pressure in the evaporator
A. have gas mask handy C. temperature of the box
B. make arrangements to have perishables taken care of D. superheat of the leaving the evaporator
 PIPE ELEMENTS NO. 16
ANSWER: D 87. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the removal of
77. The purpose of the expansion valve by-pass is to: A. 288,000 Btu per 24 hrs.
A. increase the efficiency of the plant B. 28,000 Btu per 24 hrs.
B. increase the capacity of the evaporator C. 28,000 Btu per 24 hrs.
C. control the refrigerant to the evaporator in case the D. 280,000 Btu per 24 hrs.
automatic valves fail ANSWER: A
D. bypass the compressor 88. The boiling point of Freon-12 at atmospheric pressure is :
ANSWER: C A. +22 °F
78. The thermal expansion valve B. -22 °F
A. controls the amount of gas coming from the dehydrator C. +22 °C
B. controls the quantity of liquid refrigerant going to the D. -22 °C
evaporator coils ANSWER: B
C. controls the amount of gas going to the receiver 89. The boiling point of CO at atmospheric pressure is
D. removes trapped oil from the refrigerant A. -110 °F
ANSWER: B B. +110 °F
79. The function of the compressor is to C. -28 °C
A. pull the refrigerant gas through the system D. -28 °C
B. increase the pressure of the refrigerant ANSWER: A
C. discharge the refrigerant to the condenser 90. The boiling point of NH3 at atmospheric pressure is
D. all of the above A. +28 °C
ANSWER: D B. +28 °F
80. The solenoid valve is controlled by C. -28 °C
A. the amount of liquid in the system D. -28 °F
B. the amount of gas in the system ANSWER: D
C. the temperature in the condenser 91. Which of the following would you apply if a person got
D. the temperature in the icebox Freon in his eyes?
ANSWER: D A. clean water
81. Oil is added to a Freon compressor by B. soapy water
A. shutting down the machine and pouring in through the C. sodium bicarbonate
crankcase inspection plate opening D. sterile mineral oil
B. pumping in with an electric-driven pump ANSWER: D
C. pumping in with a hand pump 92. A double-seated valve allows the valve to be
D. pouring through oil hole in base A. packed only in the closed position
ANSWER: C B. packed in the wide open or closed position
82. When adding oil to a Freon system, one must be sure that C. operated as a suction or discharge valve
A. the condenser is shut down D. removed for replacement without shutting down
B. all air is removed from the pump and fitting ANSWER: B
C. there is not too high a suction pressure 93. The amount of CO2 or Freon in a cylinder is measured by
D. the discharge pressure is not too high A. pressure
ANSWER: B B. weight
83. To help a person who had been overexposed to ammonia C. volume
gas, one would : D. psi
A. apply cold compresses ANSWER: B
B. apply artificial respiration 94. The latent heat of fusion of ice is:
C. douse with cold water A. 500 Btu
D. wrap in warm blankets B. 188 Btu
ANSWER: B C. 144 Btu
84. Ammonia will corrode D. 970 Btu
A. brass ANSWER: C
B. copper 95. Latent heat
C. bronze A. can be measured with a pyrometer
D. all of the above B. cannot be measured with a thermometer
ANSWER: D C. changes as the refrigerant cools
85. A refrigerating unit of one (1) ton capacity can remove: D. can be measured with a thermometer
A. 100 Btu’s per min. ANSWER: B
B. 288 Btu’s per min.
C. 200 Btu’s per min.
D. 500 Btu’s per min.
ANSWER: C
86. The refrigerant with the lowest boiling point is
A. NH2
B. F12
C. CO2
D. F22
ANSWER: C