Pharmacology practice

Pharmacology MCQs for practice for Pharmacy, AHS, DPT and nursing
students

The drug inhibits sodium and chloride transport in the cortical thick ascending limb and the early distal tubule:
a) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
b) Furosemide (Lasix)
c) Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)
d) Amiloride (Midamor)

. The drug can cause ototoxicity:

a) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
b) Furosemide (Lasix)
c) Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)
d) Amiloride (Midamor)

. The drug blocks the sodium/potassium/chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending loop of Henle:
a) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
b) Furosemide (Lasix)
c) Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)
d) Amiloride (Midamor)

The drug is one of the most potent diuretics:

a) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
b) Furosemide (Lasix)
c) Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)
d) Amiloride (Midamor)

. The drug is usually given in combination with a thiazide diuretic:

a) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
b) Furosemide (Lasix)
c) Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)
d) Amiloride (Midamor)

. All of the following statements regarding diuretics are true EXCEPT:

a) Furosemide (Lasix) can increase the likelihood of digitalis toxicity
b) Chlorthalidone (Hygroton) can decrease the excretion of lithium
c) Ibuprofen can increase the antihypertensive effect of chlorthalidone
d) Chlorthalidone has a longer duration of action than furosemide
.
The drug is the least potent diuretic:
a) Osmotic diuretics
b) Loop diuretics
c) Thiazide diuretics
d) Potassium-sparing diuretics
.
These agents must be given parenterally because they are not absorbed when given orally:
a) Osmotic diuretics
b) Loop diuretics
c) Thiazide diuretics
d) Potassium-sparing diuretics
. These drugs may be used in the treatment of recurrent calcium nephrolithiasis:
a) Osmotic diuretics
b) Loop diuretics
c) Thiazide diuretics
d) Potassium-sparing diuretics

Of the following senarios,which one offers the minimum bioavailability

a) I/M injection
b) I/V injection
c) First pass effect
d) Enzyme saturation

Oxidation is a

a) PhaseII metabolic reaction

b) Phase I metabolic reaction’
c) PhaseIII metabolic reaction
d) None of above

The apparent volume in which drug is distributed is called

a) Apparent volume of distribution

b) Renal volume of distribution
c) Blood volume of distribution
d) Steady state volume of distribution

Therapeutic index is

a) Median effective dose/ median lethal dose

b) Median lethal dose /median effective dose
c) Maximal effect/threshold effect
d) All of above

Drug metabolism of a drug in humans may result

a) More active metabolite

b) More water soluble metabolite

c) Less active metabolite

d) All of above

Plasma half-life of a drug rapidly metabolized by blood estrases will be

a) longer
b) shorter
c) intermediate
d) none of above

1. water soluble drugs have

a) Large volume of distribution
b) Small volume of distribution
c) Low metabolism
d) Low elimination

The maximum response produced by a drug is called

a) efficacy
b) membrane stabilizing ability
c) intrinsic activity
d) None of above

The rate and extent to which the drug is available in the blood is
a) Bioavailability
b) Therapeutic index
c) Efficacy
d) Potency

The drug which combines with a receptor and produces no response is

a) Agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Partial agonist
d) Inverse agonist

Bioavailability is effected by
a) First pass effect
b) Lipid solubility
c) Nature of formulation
d) all of above

CYP450 is a
a) Steroid
b) Hormone
c) Metabolizing Enzyme
d) Plasma binding protein

The binding power of a drug with a receptor is

a) Therapeutic index
b) Potency
 c) Efficacy
d) Affinity

The rate and extent to which the drug is available in the blood is called
a) Solubility
b) Bioavailability
c) Lipophilicity
d) Potency

When a drug binds with a receptor and initiates a response opposite to an agonist, it is
a) Agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Inverse agonist
d) Partial agonist

The study of dose response,potency,efficacy, therapeutic index of a compound is known

as;
a) Pharmacokinetics
b) Pharmacodynamics
c) Pharmacogenomics
d) Pharmacoeconomics

What is implied by «active transport»?

a) Transport of drugs trough a membrane by means of diffusion

b) Transport without energy consumption

c) Engulf of drug by a cell membrane with a new vesicle formation

d) Transport against concentration gradient

Tick the feature of the sublingual route:

a) Pretty fast absorption

b) A drug is exposed to gastric secretion

c) A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism

d) A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses

The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:

a) Single to a daily dose of an administrated drug

b) An administrated dose to a body weight

c) An uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation

d) The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma

If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:

a) Partial agonist

b) Antagonist

c) Agonist-antagonist

d) Full agonist

A competitive antagonist is a substance that:

a) Interacts with receptors and produces submaximal effect

b) Binds to the same receptor site and progressively inhibits the agonist response

c) Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue

d) Binds to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist

Give the definition for a therapeutical dose:

a) The amount of a substance to produce the minimal biological effect

b) The amount of a substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism

c) The amount of a substance to produce the required effect in most patients

d) The amount of a substance to accelerate an increase of concentration of medicine in an organism

What term is used to describe a more gradual decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking
days or weeks to develop?

a) Refractoriness

b) Cumulative effect

c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis

What term is used to describe a decrease in responsiveness to a drug which develops in a

few minutes?

a) Refractoriness

b) Cumulative effect

c) Tolerance

d) Tachyphylaxis

Tachyphylaxis is:

a) A drug interaction between two similar types of drugs

b) Very rapidly developing tolerance

c) A decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop

d) None of the above

AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM

Which one of the following is an indirectly acting reversible cholinergic agonist

a) Morphine
b) DFP
c) Serine
d) Neostigmine

Cholinergic drugs produce

a) Miosis

b) Mydriasis

c) Increase in intraocular pressure

d) Narrow angle glaucoma

Muscrinic receptors are

a) G-protein coupled receptors

b) Ion channel blocker

c) Nuclear receptors
 d) Enzyme linked receptors

Nm receptors are majorly located on

a) sympathetic nerve endings

b) vestibular apparatus

c) Neuromuscular end plates

d) None of above

Mechanism of action of methyldopa is

a) inhibition of reuptake of norepinephrine

b) Blocks the sympathetic receptors

c) Activates alpha 2 receptors

d) Activates sodium channels

Which one of the following is a alpha 1 blocker

a) bisoprolol

b) Physostigmine

c) Ascetylcholine

d) prazocin

A female pregnant patient recently diagnosed with moderate hypertension, what would be your choice of drug?

a) Captopril

b) Metoprolol

c) Spironolactone

d) Methyl dopa

Dobutamine is a

a) cholinergic drug
b) Adrenergic drug

c) Serotenergic drug

d) GABAergic drug

Acetylcholine is hydrolyzed by

a) COMT

b) MAO

c) Acetylcholine esterase

d) Vesicular monoamine transporter

Salbutamol indicated for bronchial asthma is a

a) Alpha2 agonist

b) Alpha 1 antagonist

c) Beta2 agonist

d) D2 antagonist

Application of cyclopentolate (anticholinergic drug) in eye may produce

a) Glaucoma
b) Mydriasis
c) Conjunctivitis
d) Irritation

A patient suffers postural hypotension frequently whenever he changes his position from
sitting to standing abruptly. Of his medication history which drug could be the underlying
cause?

a) Prazosin

b) Atrovastatin

c) Femotidine

d) Aspirin
Acetylcholine is metabolized to Choline and Acetyl-CoA by the enzyme

a) Acetyl choline esterase

b) Protease
c) Hydrolase
d) Transaminase

Treatment of choice for anaphylactic shock

a) Acetylcholine

b) Histamine

c) Adrenaline

d) Pilocarpine

Metoprolol is a

a) Beta blocker
b) Dopamine receptor agonist
c) Muscrinic antagonist
d) Alpha 2 agonist

Drug of choice for motion sickness

a) Hexamethonium

b) Pralidoxime

c) Scopolamine

d) Ephedrine
Bisoprolol is

a) Selective B1 blocker

b) Selective B2 blocker

c) Selective alpha 1 blocker

d) Selective alpha2 blocker

For Benign prostatic hyperplasia of Mr.zeeshan, his Urologist prescribes him with

a) Alpha1 blocker(Tamsulosin)

b) Beta1 agonist(Dobutamin)

c) Alpha 2 agonist(methyldopa)

d) Beta 1 antagonist(atenolol)

Direct effects on the heart are determined largely by:

a) Alfa1 receptor

b) Alfa2 receptor

c) Beta1 receptor

d) Beta2 receptor

Which of the following effects is related to direct beta1-adrenoreceptor stimulation?

a) Bronchodilation

b) Vasodilatation

c) Tachycardia

d) Bradycardia

Which of the following agents is a nonselective beta receptor agonist?

a) Norepinephrine

b) Terbutaline
 c) Isoproterenol

d) Dobutamine

Norepinephrine produces:

a) Vasoconstriction

b) Vasodilatation

c) Bronchodilation

d) Decresed potassium concentration in the plasma

Isoproterenol produces all of the following effects EXCEPT:

a) Increase in cardiac output

b) Fall in diastolic and mean arterial pressure

c) Bronchoconstriction

d) Tachycardia

sympathomimetic drug, which is used in a hypotensive emergency:

a) Xylometazoline

b) Ephedrine

c) Terbutaline

d) Phenylephrine

which one is topical?

a) tablet
b) Syrup
c) Eye drops
d) I/V injection

omeprazole, is indicated for

a) Peptic ulcer
b) ADHD
c) BPH
d) Parkinsons disease
Which one of the following is an anti-cancer drug
a) bisoprolol
b) phenylephrine
c) vincristine
d) Atropine
for throat infection, what would be your choice of drug for throat infection?
a) Captopril
b) Metoprolol
c) Spironolactone
d) cefexime
The binding capacity of a drug with a receptor is
a) Affinity
b) Bioavailability
c) Efficacy
d) Potency
Cell wall synthesis inhibitors inhibit
a) COMT
b) Beta hydroxylase
c) Transpeptidase enzyme
d) ACE
Lactulose is a
a) Anti dibetic
b) Anti ulcer
c) lexative
d) anti biotic
extreme diarrhea due to giardiasis, treatment would be
a) Yohimbine
b) Acetylcholine
c) flagyl
d) zodip
Heparin is an
a) Diuretic
b) Anti coagulant
c) Calcium channel blocker
d) Beta blocker
Bioavailability factor of IV administration is
a) 100%
b) 20%
c) 1%
d) 50%
For nausea and vomiting you will administer;
a) Alprazolam
b) Morphine
c) gravinate
d) Amphetamine
Which one of the following is a toxic effect of lexatives
a) Color blindness
b) Diarrhoea
c) ototoxicity
d) renal failure
Ranitidine is a
a) Alpha 1 receptor blocker
b) Alpha 2 receptor blocker
c) H2 receptor blocker
d) Beta 2 receptor blocker
Which one of the following is an anti biotic drug
a) pyridodtigmine
b) ciprofloxacin
c) Diltiazim
d) Amlodipine
Which one of the following is an ant acid
a) Magnesium hydroxide
b) Codeine
c) Methadone
d) atropine
Decreasing the bioavailability of other drugs is an adverse effect of
a) MAO inhibitors
b) Proton pump inhibitors
c) TCAs
d) Barbiturates
One of the adverse effect of anti-coagulants is
a) Liver toxicity
b) Renal toxicity
c) hyperglycemia
d) bleeding
Drug of choice for renal infection due to E.coli is
a) Atenolol
b) Amlodipine
c) Amphetamine
d) Sulphamethoxazole
Which one of the following is an alkylating agent
a) cyclophosphamide
b) pioglitazone
c) glyburide
d) Sitagliptin
Mechanisim of action of proton pump inhibitors involve
a) ACE enzyme
b) H+ / K+ atpase Pump
c) Calcium channels
d) Na channels
A highly lipophilic drug will have
a) Short plasma half life
b) Small Vd
c) Large vd
d) High plasma steady state concentration

ampicillin is a
a) Cholinergic drug
b) Anticholinergic drug
c) Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
d) Anti TB drug
Neomycin is an
a) Anti-diabetic
b) Anti-arrythmatic
c) Anti-biotic
d) Anti-anginal
which one of the following is major adverse effect of NSAIDS
a) hirustism
b) hyperprolactemia
c) gynaecomastia
d) Gastric ulcer
Mr .Ametabh is suffering from Diarrhea(giardiasis), his treatment includes
a) Acetylcholine
b) Histamine
c) Metronidazole
d) Pilocarpine
Domperidone mechanism of action
a) Histamine receptor blocker
b) DA2 receptor blocker
c) Acetylcholine receptor
d) Beta receptor blocker
Beta lactam antibiotics bind with
a) Monoamine
b) Penicillin binding protein
c) Hydroxylamine
d) Leukotriene
Triple therapy is used in the treatment of
a) Giardiasis
b) Amoebiasis
c) H.pylori induced peptic ulcer
d) Diarrhoea by shigella toxin
Femotidine is a
a) H2 receptor blocker
b) Proton pump inhibitor
c) M3 receptor blocker
d) Alpha 2 receptor blocker
A female patient visits a general practioner in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy
complaining throat pain,cough and fever.Throat examination reveals a strep
throat, the drug of choice for that pregnant female would be
a) Mobendazole
b) amoxicillin
c) chloramphanecol
d) sulphamthoxazole

Co-amoxyclave (Augmentin) is a unique combination of

a) amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
b) ampicillin and salbactam
c) doxycycline and sulphonamide
d) sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim1
A bacteriosidal drug
a) inhibit the growth of microorganisms
b) kill the microorganism
c) inhibit protein synthesis
d) inhibit mitochondria
Based upon their mechanism of action,Penicillins and cephalosporins belongs to
the class of anti biotics known as
a) DNA synthesis inhibitors
b) Protein synthesis inhibitors
c) Cell wall synthesis inhibitors
d) Dihydropteorate reductase inhibitors
Ceftriaxone is a
a) Sulfonamide
b) cephalosporin
c) fluoroquinolone
d) penicillin
A patient suffering from extreme nausea, he must be administered with injection
inj zantac
a) lasics
b) dicloran
c) Gravinate
d) Streptokinase
Ceftriaxone is a
a) 3rd generation cephalosporin
b) 5th generation cephalosporin
c) 2nd generation fluoroquinolone
d) 1st generation fluoroquinolone
Drugs increasing feces bulk are
a) diuretic
b) anti diabetic
c) bulk laxatives
d) hypnotic
Ranitidine is a
a) Proton pump inhibitor
b) H2 receptor blocker
c) Mucolytic agent
d) Leukotriene receptor blocker
Drugs tending to stimulate or facilitate evacuation of the bowels
a) diuretic
b) anti diabetic
c) lexative
d) hypnotic

Mucain suspension is a combination of aluminium hydroxide and magnesium

hydroxide and used as
a) antibiotic
b) antifungal
c) antimalarial
d) antacid

The maximum therapeutic response produced by a drug is called

a) Potency
b) Efficacy
c) Toxicity
d) Phobicity

Caster oil is used as

a) antiarrhythmic
b) diuretic
c) lexative
d) anti dot

Methotrexate is an
a) anti cancerous
b) anti constipation
c) hyperthyroidism
d) megaloblastic enzyme

Nicotinic receptors are

a) G-protein coupled receptors
b) Ligand gated ion channels
c) Nuclear receptors
d) Enzyme linked receptors
Prostaglandins act as
a) GIT epithelial irritant
b) vestibular apparatus irritant
c) Neuromuscular end plates stimulants
d) GIT epithelial protectant
Which one of the following is a macrolide
a) Erythromycin
b) Captopril
c) Methyldopa
d) cefexime
omeprazole, is indicated for
a) Peptic ulcer
b) ADHD
c) BPH
d) Parkinsons disease
Which one of the following is a H2 RECEPTOR blocker
a) bisoprolol
b) femotidine
c) captopril
d) Atropine
A female patient recently diagnosed gastric ulcer what would be your choice of
drug?
a) Captopril
b) Metoprolol
c) Spironolactone
d) omeprazole
Tablet bascupan is given for
a) Abdominal colic
b) Heart failure
c) Sciatica
d) Myasthenia gravis
Domperidone (Motilium) is an
a) Diuretic
b) Antiemetic
c) Calcium channel blocker
d) Beta blocker
a man from motion sickness and has severe nausea and vomiting . An anti emetic
that is useful for preventing his vomiting would be
a) cannabis
b) Morphine
c) gravinate
d) Amphetamine
Which one of the following is an adverse effect of aminoglycoside antibiotics
a) Color blindness
b) Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
c) ototoxicity
d) renal failure
Amphoterecin B inhibit the synthesis of fungal
a) teststerone
b) growth harmone
c) ergosterols
d) insulin
Which one of the following is an anti biotic drug
a) pyridodtigmine
 b) levofloxacin
c) Diltiazim
d) Amlodipine
Doxycycline is a
a) tetracycline
b) sulfonamide
c) fluoroquinolone
d) carbapenem
Fluoroquinolones are
a) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
b) DNA gyrase inhibitors
c) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
d) Methyl transferase inhibitors
One of the adverse effect of ciprofloxacin is
a) Liver toxicity
b) Renal toxicity
c) hyperglycemia
d) tendon rupture in old patients
Treatment of Tuberculosis
a) Atenolol
b) Amlodipine
c) Amphetamine
d) Isoniazide
Clopedogril is an
a) Anti platelet
b) Anti hyperlipidemic
c) Anti cholinergic
d) Antibiotic

What phenomenon can occur in case of using a combination of drugs?

a) Tolerance
b) Tachyphylaxis
c) Accumulation
d) Synergism
035. If two drugs with the same effect, taken together, produce an effect that is equal in magnitude to the sum of the effects of
the drugs given individually, it is called as:
a) Antagonism
b) Potentiation
c) Additive effect
d) None of the above
036. What does the term “potentiation” mean?
a) Cumulative ability of a drug
b) Hypersensitivity to a drug
c) Fast tolerance developing
d) Intensive increase of drug effects due to their combination
037. The types of antagonism are:
a) Summarized
b) Potentiated
c) Additive
d) Competitive
038. The term “chemical antagonism” means that:
a) two drugs combine with one another to form an inactive compound
b) two drugs combine with one another to form a more active compound
c) two drugs combine with one another to form a more water soluble compound
d) two drugs combine with one another to form a more fat soluble compound
039. A teratogenic action is:
a) Toxic action on the liver
b) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformation
c) Toxic action on blood system
d) Toxic action on kidneys
040. Characteristic unwanted reaction which isn’t related to a dose or to a pharmacodynamic property of a drug is called:
a) Idiosyncrasy
b) Hypersensitivity
c) Tolerance
d) Teratogenic action
041. Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is:
a) A type of hypersensitivity reaction
b) A type of drug antagonism
c) Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction to a drug
d) Quantitatively exaggerated response

Mechanisim of action warfarin involves

a) ACE enzyme
b) Vit K epoxidase
c) Calcium channels
d) Na channels
All CNS drugs are highly lipophilic drugs and will have
a) Short plasma half life
b) Small Vd
c) Large vd
d) High plasma steady state concentration
Vinca alkaloids are
a) Cholinergic drugs
b) Anticholinergic drug
c) Anti-cancerous drug
d) Antiadrenergic drug
Isoniazide, rifampicin and ethambutol are used as
a) Anti-diabetic
b) Anti-hypertensive
c) Anti-tuberclosis
d) Anti-anginal
which one of the following is major adverse effect of NSAIDS
a) hirustism
b) hyperprolactemia
c) gynaecomastia
d) Gastric ulcer
Terbinafin is used for
a) hyperthyroidism
b) fungal infections
c) pneunomonia
d) hyperplasia

Triple therapy is used in the treatment of

a) Giardiasis
b) Amoebiasis
c) H.pylori induced peptic ulcer
d) Diarrhoea by shigella toxin
A bacteriostatic drug
a) inhibit the growth of microorganisms
b) kill the microorganism
c) inhibit protein synthesis
d) inhibit mitochondria
Misoprostol is a
a) digestive enzyme
b) Cardiac enzyme
c) prostaglandin
d) proteolytic enzyme

Azithromycin is a
a) Sulfonamide
b) cephalosporin
c) fluoroquinolone
d) macrolide

What phenomenon can occur in case of using a combination of drugs?

a) Tolerance
b) Tachyphylaxis
c) Accumulation
d) Synergism
035. If two drugs with the same effect, taken together, produce an effect that is
equal in magnitude to the sum of the effects of
the drugs given individually, it is called as:
a) Antagonism
b) Potentiation
c) Additive effect
d) None of the above
036. What does the term “potentiation” mean?
a) Cumulative ability of a drug
b) Hypersensitivity to a drug
c) Fast tolerance developing
d) Intensive increase of drug effects due to their combination
037. The types of antagonism are:
a) Summarized
b) Potentiated
c) Additive
d) Competitive
038. The term “chemical antagonism” means that:
a) two drugs combine with one another to form an inactive compound
b) two drugs combine with one another to form a more active compound
c) two drugs combine with one another to form a more water soluble compound
d) two drugs combine with one another to form a more fat soluble compound
039. A teratogenic action is:
a) Toxic action on the liver
b) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformation
c) Toxic action on blood system
d) Toxic action on kidneys
040. Characteristic unwanted reaction which isn’t related to a dose or to a
pharmacodynamic property of a drug is called:
a) Idiosyncrasy
b) Hypersensitivity
c) Tolerance
d) Teratogenic action
041. Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is:
a) A type of hypersensitivity reaction
b) A type of drug antagonism
c) Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction to a drug
d) Quantitatively exaggerated response