NAME

NAME Institute
In front of Singhdurbar, Putalisadak
Tel: - 01- 5331144

MECEE BL
Model Entrance Exam 2080

(Set-XV)
Date: Falgun 26th, 2080 (Saturday) Duration – 3 hrs
Venue: NAME Time – 10:30 AM

INSTRUCTIONS
There are 200 multiple-choice questions, each having four choices of which only one
choice is correct.
. Fill ( ) the most appropriate one.
1. The types of cell junction which facilitates cell to cell communication is:
a) Gap Junction b) Desmosomes
c) Tight junction d) Adhering junction
2. Mast cells of connective tissue contain:
a) Heparin and Histamine b) Serotonin and Melanin
c) Heparin and Calcitonin d) Vasopressin and Relaxin
3. Intervertebral disc consists of shock absorber connective tissue known as:
a) Fibro cartilage b) Elastic cartilage
c) Hyaline cartilage d) Reticulo cartilage
4. The condition in which a number of nuclei is present in a muscle fiber is called as:
a) Syncytial b) Polyploid c) Polykaryon d) Endoduplication
5. During of the systole of heart:
a) Only atria contract
b) Only ventricles contract
c)Atria and ventricles contract separately
d)Atria and ventricles contract simultaneously
6. If liver becomes functionless, percentage of which increases in blood?
a) Uric acid b) Urea c) Ammonia d) Protein
7. Which of the following is antioxidant?
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin E
8. he diurnal rhythm is regulated by:
a) Adrenaline b) Melatonin c) Serotonin d) Vasopressin
9. ADH deficiency show following condition:
a) Poluria b) Polydypsia c) Glucosuria d) Both a and b
10. Miliary tuberculosis means:
a) TB affecting the lymph node
b) TB affecting the bone
c) TB affecting the lungs
d) Widespread dissemination of tubercle bacilli through the blood stream
11. Match the following:
List I List II
a. LSD 1. Papaver
b. Opium 2. Claviceps
c. Cocaine 3. Cannabis
d. Hashish 4. Erythroxylon
a) A=2, B=4, C=1, D=3 b) A=3, B=2, C=1, D=4
c) A=2, B=1, C=4, D=3 d) A=4, B=3, C=2, D=1
12. How many pairs of sympathetic ganglia is present in ANS?
a)11 b)22 c)44 d)31
13. Name the hormone that has no role in menstruation:
a) LH b) GH c) FSH d) TSH
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
14. In morula is composed of:
a) Blastomeres b) micromeres
c) macromeres d) micromeres and macromeres
15. When percentage saturation of Hb with O2 is plotted against Po2 the curve obtained is:
a) J-shaped b) hyperbola c) Sigmoid d) U-shaped
16. Bowman’s glands are present in:
a) Olfactory epithelium b) External auditory canal
c) Cortical nephrons only d) Juxtaglomerular nephrons only
17. Eustachian tube connects:
a) Pharynx to middle ear b) Middle ear to external ear
c) Left ventricle to right ventricle d) Left atrium to right atrium
18. Antibodies in human body are produced by:
a) Monocytes b) RBCs c) B- lymphocytes d) T- lymphocytes
19. ” Survival of fittest” was used by:
a) Darwin b) Spencer c) Lamarck d) Vries
20. Peripatus is connecting link between
a) Reptilia and aves b) Arthropoda and mollusca
c) Annelida and arthropoda d) Reptilia and mammals.
21. Which is true for Homo sapiens?
a) Protruded mouth b) Cranial capacity of 1250cc
c) Omnivorous d) Developed chin.
22. Father of modern applied ideas of evolution:
a) Linnaeus b) Empedocels c) Darwin d) Buffon
23. A cocoon of earthworm contains:
a) One fertilized egg b) Many fertilized egg
c) Two fertilized egg d) None
24. Nephridia collects nitrogenous waste from:
a) Blood b) Coelom c) Skin d) Both (a)and (b)
25. Female genital aperture in earthworm is found in:
a) 18th segment b) 14tgh segment c) 13th segment d) 12th segment
26. Sporogony in Plasmodium takes place in:
a) Stomach wall of mosquito b) RBC of man
c) Liver of man d) Salivary gland of mosquito
27. Stage in which hemozoin is liberated:
a) Sporozoite b) Merozoite c) Trophozoite d) Amoeboid
28. The type of teeth present in lower jaw of frog is:
a) Maxillary teeth b) Vomerine teeth c) Canine d) Devoid of teeth
29. The venous system of frog that differs from that of rabbit in presence of:
a) Hepatic portal system b) Renal portal system
c) Three venacava d) Hepatic vein
30. Vasa efferentia in frog opens in:

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
a) Bidder’s canal b) Pelvis c) Ureter d) Uriniferous
tubule
31. Amoeboid movement is also found in:
a) RBCs b) WBCs c) Paramecium d) Euglena
32. Which is not correct for sponges?
a) Internal fertilization b) External fertilization
c) Gemmule formation d) Gametes are formed from Archeocytes
33. Which of following is coelenterate?
a) Sea lily b) Sea pen c) Sea Lamprey d) Sea Horse
34. Unlike other trematodes,Schistosoma haematobium is dioecious and:
a) Male lives in the pelvic veins
b) Female lives in pelvic veins
c) Male lives in Gynaecophoric canal of female
d) Female live in Gynaecophoric canal of male
35. Excretory pore of Ascaris is present:
a) on the dorsal side b) behind the mouth
c) on the posterior end d) in the middle of the body
36. Which one is false matching pair?
a) Ambulaeral system – Octopus b) radula – Sea lily
c) Water canal system – Brittle star d) Aristotle's Lantern – Sea urchin
37. Siphoning type of mouthparts occurs in:
a) Houseflies b) Mosquitoes c) Bedbugs d) Butterflies
38. The distinguishing characteristics of the marsupials is the possession of:
a) Scaly tail b) Diaphragm
c) Pouch d) Four chambered heart
39. Latitudinal migration of bird occurs from:
a) South to north and vice versa
b) East to west and vice versa
c) Low altitude to high altitude and vice versa
d) East to north and vice versa
40. Prehensile tail is found in:
a) Chameleon b) Lizard c) Squirrel d) Dog squirrel
41. Tracheophyte does not include
a) ferns b) spike moss c) club moss d) cord moss
42. Putrefying bacteria act upon
a) fats b) carbohydrate c) proteins d) starch
43. Tobacco mosaic virus was first crystallized by
a) Stanley b) Ivanoski c) Louis Pasteur d) Smith
44. Mycoplasm lacks
a) ribosomes b) cell membrane c) genetic material d) cell wall
45. In Spirogyra, meiosis occurs in

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
a) after karyogamy b) after plasmogamy
c) formation of gametes d) before plasmogamy
46. Dolipore and clamp connections are found in
a) Basidiomycetes b) Phycomycetes c) Deuteromycetes d) Ascomycetes
47. Marchantia is bryophyte because it has
a) no roots and stems b) no vascular tissues
c) sporophyte depends on gametophyte d) spores are produced
48. Kidney shaped structure of fern is
a) prothallus b) sorus c) indusium d) annulus
49. In pollen grains of Pinus, the number of prothalial cell is
a) 1-celled stage b) 2-celled stage c) 3-celled stage d) 4-celled stage
50. The tendril structure of Vitis is modified
a) leaf b) root c) stem d) leaf tip
51. Delonix regia belong to the family
a) Liliaceae b) Solanaceae c) Fabaceae d) Brassicaceae
52. Minerals flow in an ecosystem is
a) open system b) unidirectional c) closed system d) bidirectional
53. The transfer of energy in the form of food from one trophic level to another is
a) food web b) food chain c) food pyramid d) food cycle
54. The upright pyramid of number is absent in
a) pond b) tree c) lake d) grassland
55. The community dynamics is
a) extinction b) evolution c) succession d) sere
56. Pond is a
a) shallow fresh water body b) deep fresh water body
c) shallow marine water body d) deep marine water body
57. Maximum enzymes are found in
a) mitochondria b) chloroplast c) lysosomes d) peroxisomes
58. Non-disjunction occurs during
a) Metaphase II b) Metaphase I c) Anaphase I d) Anaphase II
59. The cellulose is a
a) homopolymer of fructose b) homopolymer of galactose
c) heteropolymer of glucose d) homopolymer of glucose
60. In RNA, the sugar is
a) C5H10O4 b) C5H10O5 c) C4H10O4 d) C6H12O6
61. The phenotypic ratio 1: 4: 6: 4: 1 is related with
a) linkages b) polygenes c) pleiotropism d) multiple allelism
62. During DNA replication, the enzyme responsible for uncoiling of strands is
a) topoisomerase b) gyrase c) unwindase d) nuclease
63. Drosophila of the plant kingdom is
a) Pisum b) Rhizopus c) Penicillium d) Neurospora

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
64. The proteins present with genetic material of higher organisms are
a) mucoproteins b) glycoproteins c) basic proteins d) acidic proteins
65. A genetic code is responsible for
a) single protein b) single
c) always single stranded d) single amino acid
66. In which direction m-RNA is synthesized on DNA template?
a) 5’ → 3' b) 3' → 5‘ c) Both a and b d) Any direction
67. Soluble RNA is name given to
a) r-RNA b) m-RNA c) t-RNA d) hn-RNA
68. The percentage of AABB from selfing of AaBb is
a) 1/2 b) ¼ c) 1/16 d) 1/8
69. A radial vascular bundle is always
a) open b) closed
c) may be open or closed d) open and found in leaf
70. The increasing CO2 in atmosphere
a) increase active absorption b) decrease active absorption
c) increase passive absorption d) decrease passive absorption
71. The first product of photorespiration is
a) phosphoenol pyruvic acid b) phosphoglyceric acid
c) phosphoglycolic acid d) oxaloacetic acid
72. Which pigment is absent in chloroplast?
a) Chlorophyll-a b) Carotene c) Anthocyanin d) Xanthophyll
73. The number of ATP from single glucose molecule through complete oxidation is
a) 6 b) 2 c) 36 d) 24
74. The terminal electron and proton acceptor in non-cyclic photophosphorylation is
a) NADP b) CO2 c) FAD d) NAD
75. The cytokinin extracted from plants is
a) coconut milk b) zeatin c) dormin d) phytokinin
76. Remnant nucellus is
a) endosperm b) perisperm c) integument d) embryo sac
77. The mature pollen grain is
a) developed male gametophyte b) partially developed female gametophyte
c) partially developed male gametophyte d) first stage of male gamete
78. The segment of DNA can be cut by application of
a) unwindase b) helicase c) ligase d) endonuclease
79. Vaccines and antigens are similar in them
a) killing nature of agents of diseases
b) function to active immune system
c) suppressing nature of growth of foreign particles
d) activities on microbes
80. Tissues culture is not useful in

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
a) production of clones b) micropropagation
c) development new varieties d) mass propagation
81. An example of an oxide ore is
a) bauxite b) malachite c) zinc blende d) feldspar
82. The natural materials from which an element can be extracted economically are called
a) ores b) minerals c) gangue d) None of these
83. The most abundant element in the earth’s crust (by weight) is
a) Si b) Al c) O d) Fe
84. Froth floatation process is used for the metallurgy of
a) chloride ores b) amalgams c) oxide ores d) sulphide ores
85. Electromagnetic separation is used in the concentration of
a) copper pyrites b) bauxite c) cassiterite d) cinnabar
86. Nitrogen can be purified from the impurities of oxides of nitrogen and ammonia by
passing through
a) conc. HCl b) alkaline solution of pyrogallol
c) a solution of K2Cr2O7 acidified with H2SO4 d) a solution of KOH
87. Ammonium dichromate is used in some fireworks. The green-coloured powder blown
is
a) CrO3 b) Cr2O3 c) Cr d) CrO(O2)
88. Phosphine is not obtained by which of the following reaction
a) White P is heated with NaOH b) Red P is heated with NaOH
c) Ca3P2 reacts with water d) Phosphorus trioxide is boiled with water
89. When SO2 gas is passed through an acidified solution of K 2Cr2O7
a) the solution becomes blue b) the solution becomes colourless
c) SO2 is reduced d) green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed
90. FeCl3 solution on reaction with SO2 changes to
a) FeCl2 b) Fe2(SO4)3 c) Fe2(SO3)3 d) FeSO4
91. A considerable part of the harmful ultraviolet radiation of the sun does not reach the
surface of the earth. This is because high above the earth’s atmosphere there is a layer
of
a) CO2 b) hydrogen c) ozone d) ammonia
92. Bohr’s model could explain successfully
a) the spectrum of helium
b) the spectrum of species containing only one electron
c) the spectrum of multi-electron atoms
d) the spectrum of hydrogen molecule
93. The valence shell of transition elements consists of
a) nd orbitals b) (n-1) d orbitals c) ns, np, nd orbitals d) (n-1) d, ns orbitals
94. Green vitriol is
a) FeSO4.7H2O b) ZnSO4.7H2O c) CaSO4.2H2O d) CuSO4.5H2O
95. Which of the following ingredients imparts quick setting property of cement?
a) Silica b) Iron Oxide c) Sulphur d) Alumina

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
96. Which of the following possesses the highest melting point?
a) Chlorobenzene b) o-Dichlorobenzene
c) m-Dichlorobenzene d) p-Dichlorobenzene
97. The function of AlCl3 in the Friedel-Craft's reaction is:
a) to absorb water b) to absorb HCl
c) to produce electrophile d) to produce nucleophile
98. Which one of the following will undergo meta substitution on monochlorination?
a) Ethoxybenzene b) Chlorobenzene c) Ethyl benzoate d) Phenol
99. Which of the following deactivates benzene towards further substitution reaction?
a) —NHR b) —OH c) —COOR d) —OR
100. The order of stability of carbanions is:
a) CH3¯ > 1º > 2º > 3º b) 3º > 2º > 1º > CH3¯ c) 3º > 1º > 2º > CH3¯ d) 2º > 3º > 1º > CH3¯
101. An organic compounds C5H11X on dehydrohalogenation gives pentene-2 only. What is
halide?
a) CH3CH2CHXCH2CH3 b) (CH3)2CHCHXCH3
c) CH3CH2CH2CHXCH3 d) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2X
102. Which is optically active?
a) Isobutyric acid b) -chloropropionic acid
c) Propionic acid d) -chloropropionic acid
103. Steam distillation is used for the extraction of:
a) Mineral oils b) Fatty acid c) Heavy oils d) Essential oils
104. 2-methyl propene is isomeric with butene-1. They can be distinguished by:
a) Baeyer's reagent b) Ammoniacal AgNO3 c) Br2 solution d) O3, Zn/H2O
105. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is:
a) CH3CH2C  CCH2CH3 b) CH3CH2CH2C  CCH2CH2CH3
c) CH3CH2C  CH d) CH3CH = CHCH3
106. Power alcohol is a mixture of petrol and alcohol in the ratio:
a) 4 : 1 b) 1 : 4 c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 2
107. Ketones on reaction with NH2CONHNH2 form well defined crystalline compounds
called:
a) hydrazones b) Schiff's base c) Oximes d) Semicarbazones
108. The decreasing order of solubility of methanol(A), propionaldehyde(B),
benzaldehyde(C) and acetophenone (D):
a) A > B > C > D b) D > C > B > A c) D > A > B > C d) B > A > C > D
109. Reactivity of acids in esterification follows the order:
a) HCOOH > CH3COOH > RCH2COOH > R2CHCOOH > R3CCOOH
b) CH3COOH > HCOOH > R3CCOOH > R2CHCOOH > RCH2COOH
c) R3CCOOH > R2CHCOOH > RCH2COOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH
d) none of the above
110. Which of the following compounds gives carbylamine when heated with chloroform
and alcoholic potash?
a) Aldehyde b) Primary amine c) Secondary amine d) Phenol

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
111. Chlorination of toluene in the presence of light and heat followed by treatment with
aqueous NaOH gives:
a) o-cresol b) p-cresol c) 2, 4-dihydroxytoluene d) Benzoic
acid
112. A glyceride is:
a) a compound of glycerol with a metal
b) a molecular compound of glycerol with a metal salt
c) an ether formed by glycerol
d) an ester of glycerol with fatty acids
113. An antibiotic contains nitro group attached to aromatic nucleus. It is:
a) penicillin b) streptomycin c) tetracycline d) chloramphenicol
114. The correct order of electron affinities of B, C, N, O is
a) O > C > N > B b) B > N > C > O c) O > C > B > N d) O > B > C > N
115. One mole of SO3 was placed in a two litre vessel at a certain temperature. The following
equilibrium was established in the vessel 2SO 3(g) ⇌ 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
At equilibrium, the vessel was found to contain 0.5 mol of SO 3. The value of K would
be
a) 0.25 b) 0.125 c) 0.5 d) 1
116. Which of the following salts has maximum solubility?
a) CaF2 ; Ksp = 1.7  10−10 b) BaSO4 ; Ksp = 1.5  10−9
c) PbSO4 ; Ksp = 1.3  10−8 d) AgCl ; Ksp = 1.7  10−10
117. Which of the following is a Lewis base?
a) CO2 b) BF3 c) Al3+ d) CH3NH2
118. The electrical charge on colloidal particles is indicated by:
a) Brownian movement b) Electrophoresis
c) Ultramicroscope d) Tyndall effect
213
119. 83 Bi decays with emission of an -particle. The resulting nuclide emits a -particle.
The final nuclide formed is
209 208 208 209
a) 81 Tl b) 82 Pb c) 81 Tl d) 82 Pb
120. The value of Hsol of BaCl2(s) and BaCl2. 2H2O(s) are – a kJ and b kJ respectively. The
value of HHydration of BaCl2(s) is
a) b – a b) a + b c) – a – b d) a – b
121. Which of the following pair contains only extensive properties?
a) Enthalpy, refractive index b) Volume, temperature
c) Enthalpy, volume d) Viscosity, volume
122. The temperature at which the r. m. s. velocity of CO 2 becomes equal to that of nitrogen
at 21°C is
a) 273 K b) 187.1 K c) 187.1°C d) 400 K
123. When electrons are trapped in the crystal lattice in place of anion vacancy, the defect in
the crystal is known as
a) Frenkel defect b) Schottky defect c) F-center d) Dislocations

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
124. The number of H atoms present in 0.40 moles of H 2S (NA being Avogadro number)
would be
a) 0.8 NA b) 0.4 NA c) 0.2 NA d) 1.6 NA
125. Two oxides of a metal contain 50% and 40% of metal (M) respectively. If the formula of
first oxide is MO, the formula of 2nd oxide will be
a) MO2 b) M2O3 c) M2O d) M2O5
126. A graph of ln k us. 1/T has a slope equal to
Ea 2.303 Ea Ea Ea
a) 2.303 R b) R c) + R d) - R

Cr2O 7 + Fe2+ + H+ → Cr3+ +Fe3++H2O, the coefficients of Fe2+ and

2−
127. In the equation;
H+ are respectively:
a) 6, 7 b) 6, 14 c) 5, 7 d) 5, 14
128. The amount of electricity that can deposit 108 g of silver form silver nitrate solution is:
a) 1 amp b) 1 coulomb c) 1 Faraday d) 2 amp
129. Which of the following molecule is non-linear?
a) SeF2 b) HCN c) BeF2 d) H2O2
130. The correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of chlorine atom is

n l m
a) 2 1 0
b) 2 1 1
c) 3 1 1
d) 3 0 1
131. Planck's constant has the dimensions (unit) of
a) Energy b) Linear momentum
c) Work d) Angular momentum
132. The distance between two particles is decreasing at the rate of 6 m/sec. If these particles
travel with same speeds and in the same direction, then the separation increase at the
rate of 4 m/sec. The particles have speeds as
a) 5 m/sec ; 1 m/sec b) 4 m/sec ; 1 m/sec
c) 4 m/sec ; 2 m/sec d) 5 m/sec ; 2 m/sec
133. n small balls each of mass m impinge elastically each second on a surface with velocity
u. The force experienced by the surface will be
a) mnu b) 2 mnu c) 4 mnu d) mnu2
134. When work is done on a body by an external force, its
a) Only kinetic energy increases
b) Only potential energy increases
c) Both kinetic and potential energies may increase
d) Sum of kinetic and potential energies remains constant
135. A light and a heavy body have equal momenta. Which one has greater K.E
a) The light body b) The heavy body
c) The K.E. are equal d) Data is incomplete

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
136. The escape velocity for a rocket from earth is 11.2 km/sec. Its value on a planet where
acceleration due to gravity is double that on the earth and diameter of the planet is twice
that of earth will be in km/sec
a) 11.2 b) 5.6 c) 22.4 d) 53.6
137. If the potential energy of a spring is U on stretching it by 2 cm, then its potential energy
when it is stretched by 10 cm will be
a) U/25 b) 5U c) U/5 d) 25U
138. A particle is vibrating in a simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 4 cm. At what
is placement from the equilibrium position, is its energy half potential and half kinetic
a) 1 cm b) 2 cm c) 3 cm d) 2 2 cm
139. A square frame of side L is dipped in a liquid. On taking out, a membrane is formed. If
the surface tension of the liquid is T, the force acting on the frame will be
a) 2 TL b) 4 TL c) 8 TL d) 10 TL
140. Water is flowing through a horizontal pipe of non-uniform cross section. At the extreme
narrow portion of the pipe, the water will have
a) Maximum speed and least pressure b) Maximum pressure and least speed
c) Both pressure and speed maximum d) Both pressure and speed least
141. The absolute zero temperature in Fahrenheit scale is
a) – 273°F b) – 32°F c) – 460°F d) – 132°F
142. A brass disc fits simply in a hole of a steel plate. The disc from the hole can be loosened
if the system
a) First heated then cooled b) First cooled then heated
c) Is heated d) Is cooled
143. The amount of work, which can be obtained by supplying 200 cal of heat, is
a) 840 dyne b) 840 W c) 840 erg d) 840 J
144. First law thermodynamics states that
a) System can do work b) System has temperature
c) System has pressure d) Heat is a form of energy
145. The slopes of isothermal and adiabatic curves are related as
a) Isothermal curve slope = adiabatic curve slope
b) Isothermal curve slope =   adiabatic curve slope
c) Adiabatic curve slope =   isothermal curve slope
d) Adiabatic curve slope =  /2 × isothermal curve slope
146. Under steady state, the temperature of a body
a) Increases with time
b) Decreases with time
c) Does not change with time and is same at all the points of the body
d) Does not change with time but is different at different points of the body
147. A convex lens
a) Converges light rays b) Diverges light rays
c) Form real images always d) Always forms virtual images
148. The angle of minimum deviation measured with a prism is 30° and the angle of prism

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
is 60°. The refractive index of prism material is
a) 2 b) 2 c) 3/2 d) 4/3
149. A fish inside water 12cm below the surface looking up through the water sees the
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outside world contained in a circular horizon. If the refractive index of water is 3 , the
radius of the circle is

a) 36 5 cm b) 36 7 cm c) 12 5 cm d)
36
cm
3 7
150. Two lenses of power +12D and –2D are placed in contact. What will be the focal length
of the combination?
a) 10cm b) 12.5cm c) 16.6cm d) 8.33cm
151. As a result of interference of two coherent sources of light, energy is
a) Increased
b) Redistributed and the distribution does not vary with time
c) Decreased
c) Redistributed and the distribution changes with time
152. The penetration of light into the region of geometrical shadow is called
a) Polarisation b) Interference c) Diffraction d) Refraction
153. Two waves of frequencies 20 Hz and 30 Hz. Travels out from a common point. The phase
difference between them after 0.6 sec is
 3
a) Zero b) 2 c)  d) 4

154. Stationary waves are set up in air column. Velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s and
frequency is 165 Hz. Then distance between the nodes is
a) 2 m b) 1 m c) 0.5 m d) 4 m
155. If source and observer both are relatively at rest and if speed of sound is increased then
frequency heard by observer will
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Cannot be predicted d) Will not change
156. The minimum charge on an object is
a) 1 Coulomb b) 1 stat Coulomb
c) 1.6 × 10–19 Coulomb d) 3.2 × 10–19 Coulomb
157. The electric charge in uniform motion produces
a) an electric field only b) a magnetic field only
c) both electric and magnetic field d) neither electric nor magnetic field
158. Three capacitors of capacitances 3F, 9F and 18F are connected once in series and
Cs
another time in parallel. The ratio of equivalent capacitance in the two cases Cp will
 
be
a) 1 : 15 b) 15 : 1 c) 1 : 1 d) 1 : 3
159. The relaxation time in conductors
a) Increases with the increase of temperature

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
b) Decreases with the increase of temperature
c) It does not depend on temperature
d) All of sudden changes at 400 K
160. A galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by connecting
a) Low resistance in series b) High resistance in parallel
c) Low resistance in parallel d) High resistance in series
161. An energy source will supply a constant current into the load if its internal resistance is
a) Zero
b) Non-zero but less than the resistance of the load
c) Equal to the resistance of the load
d) Very large as compared to the load resistance
162. An electric bulb is rated 220 volt and 100 watt. Power consumed by it when operated on
110 volt is
a) 50 watt b) 75 watt c) 90 watt d) 25 watt
163. If two streams of protons move parallel to each other in the same direction, then they
a) Do not exert any force on each other
b) Repel each other
c) Attract each other
d) Get rotated to be perpendicular to each other
164. The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is
a) Directly proportional to the torsional constant
b) Directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil
c) Inversely proportional to the area of the coil
d) Inversely proportional to the current flowing
165. A line passing through places having zero value of magnetic dip is called
a) Isoclinic line b) Agonic line c) Isogonic line d) Aclinic line
166. To induce an e.m.f. in a coil, the linking magnetic flux
a) Must decrease b) Can either increase or decrease
c) Must remain constant d) Must increase
167. In a circuit containing an inductance of zero resistance, the e.m.f. of the applied ac
voltage leads the current by
a) 90º b) 45º c) 30º d) 0º
168. In Milikan’s experiment, an oil drop having charge q gets stationary on applying a
potential difference V in between two plates separated by a distance ‘d’. The weight of
the drop is
d q qV
a) qVd b) qV c) Vd d) d

169. The kinetic energy of an electron with de-Broglie wavelength of 0.3 nanometer is
a) 0.168 eV b) 16.8 eV c) 1.68 eV d) 2.5 eV
170. On increasing the number of electrons striking the anode of an X-ray tube, which one of
the following parameters of the resulting X-rays would increase

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
a) Penetration power b) Frequency c) Wavelength d) Intensity
171. In the Bohr's hydrogen atom model, the radius of the stationary orbit is directly
proportional to (n = principle quantum number)
a) n–1 b) n c) n–2 d) n2
172. If the biding energy of the deutrium is 2.23 MeV. The mass defect given in amu is
a) 0.009 b) 0.0012 c) 0.006 d) 0.0024
173. The half life period of radium is 1600 years. Its average life time will be
a) 3200 years b) 4800 years c) 2308 years d) 4217 years
174. In a semiconductor, the concentration of electrons is 8 × 10 14/cm3 and that of the holes is
5 × 1012cm3. The semiconductor is
a) P-type b) N-type c) Intrinsic d) PNP-type
175. A N-type semiconductor is
a) Negatively charged b) Positively charged
c) Neutral d) None of these
176. The electrical circuit used to get smooth dc output from a rectifier circuit is called
a) Oscillator b) Filter c) Amplifier d) Logic gates
177. PN-junction diode works as a insulator, if connected
a) To A.C. b) In forward bias c) In reverse bias d) None of these
178. The power generated in a windmill
a) is more in rainy season since damp air would mean more air mass hitting the blades
b) depends on the height of the tower
c) depends on wind velocity
d) can be increased by planting tall tress close to the tower
179. Name the fundamental particles which help create strong force between quarks?
a) Leptons b) Quarks c) Photons d) Gluons
180. According to the pulsating theory the expansion and contraction of the universe repeats
after every
a) 11 years b) 8 billion years c) 8 million years d) 80 billion years
181. An Ant climbs 30 feet at the beginning of each hour and rests for a while when he slips
back 20 feet before he again starts climbing in the beginning of the next hour. If he
begins his ascent at 10.00 a.m., at what time will he first touch a flag at 100 feet from the
ground?
a) 4 p.m. b) 5 p.m. c) 6 p.m. d) 6 am
182. Read the arrangement carefully and give the answer of following questions?
MMK$23DBE8HM4@5JF4%K1+WR#AA*415SK
How many such symbols are there which is not immediately preceded by a letter but
immediately followed by a number?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
183. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when
the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

184. A man buys a fan for Rs. 1000 and sells it at a loss of 15%. What is the selling price of
the fan?
a) 850 b) 1150 c) 860 d) 875
185. Rabin said to Nabin, "That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two
brothers of the daughter of my father's wife." How is the boy playing football related to
Rabin?
a) Son b) Brother c) Cousin d) Brother-in-law
186. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

1. Infant 2. Old 3. Adult 4. Adolescent 5. Child 6. Death

a) 5, 4, 3, 2, 6, 1 b) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6 c) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1, 6 d) 1, 5, 4, 3, 2, 6
187. Choose the odd one out.
a) BYX b) KPQ c) EVU d) FUT
188. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Page, Chapter and
Book?

a) b) c) d)
189. From his house, Yogesh went 15 km to the North. Then he turned west and covered 10
km. Then he turned south and covered 5 km. Finally turning to the east, he covered 10
km. How far and in which direction is he from his house?
a) East-5km b) West-15km c) North-10km d) South-5km
190. If mallonpiml means blue light
mallontifl means blueberry
arpantifl means raspberry
Code of which word would be lighthouse?
a) tiflmallon b) pimlarpan c) mallonarpan d) pimldoken
191. Which letter replaces the question mark?

a) T b) Y c) S d) H
192. What is two days after the day after the day before yesterday?
a) Tomorrow b) Today c) Yesterday d) The day after
tomorrow

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
193. A player holds 13 cards of four suits, of which seven are black and six are red. There are
twice no. of diamonds as spades and twice no. of hearts as diamonds. How many clubs
does he hold?
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 3
194. One day Prakash started late for office by 1 hour, so he increased his normal Speed by
5 km/hr so that he reaches on Time. Find the normal Time taken to reach his office if his
office is at a distance of 60 km from his house
a) 3 hrs b) 5 hrs c) 6 hrs d) 4 hrs
195. A pupil's marks were wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63. Due to that the average marks
for the class got increased by half (1/2). The number of pupils in the class is:
a) 10 b) 20 c) 40 d) 73
196. Identify the correct code between the figure (shapes) and letter then find the
corresponding code represented by 5 th figure?

a) F Z b) E Z c) F Y d) G X
197. Count the number of rectangles in the given figure.

a) 20 b) 18 c) 16 d) 15
198. Complete the given series: 58,73,90, 71, 50, 73,?
a) 95 b) 96 c) 98 d) 99
199. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
200. Given below are three different positions of a dice. Find the number of dots on the face
opposite the face bearing 3 dots.

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) none

Best of Luck
Result will be published on Sunday Log on to www.name.edu.np or
www.facebook.com/nameinstitute
Best of Luck

16
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)

NAME
NAME Institute
In front of Singhdurbar, Putalisadak
Tel: - 01- 5331144

MECEE BL
Model Entrance Exam 2080

(Set-XV)
Date: 2080/11/26

Hints and Solution

17
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)

Zoology
1. a)
2. a) Mast cells are modified basophils cells of blood which secretes heparin ,histamine and
serotonin
3. a) Hyaline cartilage is most abundant type of cartilage.Eg:costal cartilage,articular
cartilage.reticular cartilage and embryonic cartilage
Elastic cartilage-With elastic fibers .Eg:Epiglottis,Ear pinna,Eustachian tube
Fibro cartilage-strongest cartilage .Eg:intervertebral discs and pubic symphysis.
4. b)
5. c) One systole+One diastole=cardiac cycle
6. c) Main site for deamination and detoxification is liver.
7. d) Vitamin E>Vitamin C>VitaminA.
8. b) Pineal gland regulates both skin color and circadian rhythm with release of melatonin.
9. d) ADH is concerned with water absorption.
10. d)
11. c)
12. b)
13. b)
14. d) Blastomeres consists of macro and micromeres both.
15. c) Sigmoid curve-hemoglobin saturation
Hyperbolic curve- Myoglobin.
16. a) Bowman’s glands are present in olfactory membrane/Schneiderian membrane.
17. a)
18. c) B-Lymphocytes are responsible for humoral immunity.
T- Lymphocytes are responsible for cell mediated immunity.
19. b) Survival of fittest-First used by spencer
Natural selection-Darwin
Mutation theory-Hugo de vries.
20. c)
21. d)
22. d) Father of modern applied ideas of evolution :Buffon
Evolution term first used :Charles Bonnet
Father of concept of Evolution: Empedocels.
23. b) A cocoon of earthworm contains many fertilized eggs but only one zygote undergoes
further development while other serves as nurse cells.
24. d) Nephridia extracts water and excretory substances from both blood and coelom by
ultrafiltration.

1
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
25. b) In 14th segment,mid ventrally.
26. a) Sporogony-Stomach wall of mosquito
RBCs-Erythrocytic cycle
Liver-Pre-erythrocytic cycle
27. b) Schizonts give RBC merozoites which are released in blood along the hemozoin with
bursting of RBC.
28. d) Lower jaw is devoid of teeth.
29. b) Frog has two venous system : Renal portal system and Hepatic portal system.
30. a) Vasa efferentia arises from testis and joins Bidder’s canal in kidney and finally opens into
urinogenital duct.
31. b) Pseudopodia is commonly found in WBCs and Protozoans.
32. b) Fertilization is cross and internal only.
33. b) Sea lily-Antedon
Sea pen-Pennatula
Sea feather-Pennatula
Sea mouse- Aphrodite.
34. d)
35. b) Excretory pore is situated midventrally little behind the mouth.
36. d) Trochophore larva is found in Annelida and Mollusca.
37. d) Bitting,Chewing and Cutting type-Cockroach
Chewing and lapping type-Bees and Wasps
Pierching and sucking type-Bugs,Apids,Mosquitoes
Sponging type-Housefly
Siphoning type-Butterflies and Moths
38. c) Marsupials belongs to metatheria(pouched mammals).
39. a) Latitudinal migration.eg: Golden plover
40. a) Prehensile(grasping) tail has commonly syndactyly which is present in Chameleon.

Botany
41. d) Tracheophytes includes all plants having vascular tissues like ferns (club moss, spike
moss), gymnosperms and angiosperms.
42. c) The putrefying bacteria are protein decomposing bacteria. The process of breakdown of
protein into simplest molecules is called putrefaction.
43. a) WM Stanley (1935) first crystallized tobacco mosaic virus (TMV).
44. d) Mycoplasm have bacterial cell without cell wall and also called joker of plant kingdom.
45. a) Meiosis in zygote (zygotic meiosis) is common character of algae and fungi. In Spirogyra,
meiosis takes place after karyokinesis in zygospore.

2
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
46. a) Dolipore and clamp connections are present in cellular septa of members of
Basidiomycetes and few members of Ascomycetes.
47. c) Bryophytes have dependent sporophyte and independent gametophyte. Vascular tissues,
root, stem and leaf are also absent in algae and fungi.
48. c) Indusium is kidney shaped sterile structure present on sporophyll of fern which covers
sporangia or sorus.
49. d) The pollen grains of Cycas and Pinus dehiscence at the time of 3 celled and 4 celled stage
respectively.
50. c) The climbing tendrils of Vitis, Cucurbita are modified stems.
51. c) The Delonix regia belongs to pea family Fabaceae.
52. c) Flow of minerals in ecosystem is cyclic and closed. It starts from soil or atmosphere and
ultimately reaches to soil or atmosphere through mineralization.
53. b) Food chain is the transfer of energy in the form of food from one trophic level to other by
eating and being eaten by others from producer to decomposer.
54. b) Pyramid of number is always upright or erect in grassland, forest, pond, lake ecosystem
and inverted in tree ecosystem, unstable ecosystem and desert ecosystem, etc.
55. c) Succession is the progressive replacement of plant communities from pioneer to climax
community through seral community.
56. a) Pond is shallow fresh water aquatic ecosystem.
57. a) Maximum hydrolytic enzymes are found in organelles like lysosomes and sphaerosomes
and catabolic enzymes are found in mitochondria.
58. c) The process of non-separation of homologous chromosome during anaphase I is non-
disjunction and separation is disjunction.
59. d) Usually plant cell is made from cellulose which is homopolymer of glucose.
60. b) RNA is polymer of four types nucleotides. Each nucleotide composed of ribose sugar
(C5H10O5), phosphate group and nitrogen bases.
61. b) The polygenic inheritance of two genes produce 5 phenotypes determined by amount of
genes in the ratio of 1:4:6:4:1 (single character with several genes).
62. c) Unwindase is the enzyme involved in DNA replication for uncoiling of strands.
63. d) Drosophila of plant kingdom is Neurospora which is widely used in genetic researches.
64. c) Histone proteins are basic protein associated with DNA for packaging.
65. d) Genetic code is triplet set of nucleotides responsible for coding single amino acid.
66. a) The RNA polymerase reads the template DNA strand in the direction 3' to 5' direction. But
the messenger RNA is formed in the 5' to 3' direction. So, the correct option is '5′→3′'
67. c) Transfer RNA (tRNA) is also called soluble RNA due to scattering nature in cytoplasm.
68. c) Only single AABB will be produced from selfing of AaBa as in dihybrid cross out of 16
combinations.
69. b) In radial vascular bundles, both xylem and phloem elements are present on different radii
without cambium (closed) and found in roots.

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
70. d) The CO2 is anti-transpirant which decreases the rate of transpiration, so passive absorption will
be decreased when its concentration is increased.
71. c) Photorespiration is metabolic wastage of plants in which RuBP takes atmospheric O 2
instead of CO2 and produced phosphoglycolic acid (2C), so also called C 2 cycle.
72. c) Anthocyanin and anthoxanthin are the pigments found in vacuoles not in chloroplasts.
73. c) Complete oxidation of single glucose molecule produce 36 ATP (eukaryotes) or 38 ATP
(prokaryotes).
74. a) NADP is the terminal electron and proton acceptor during non-cyclic
photophosphorylation.
75. d) Natural kinetins (cytokinin) are found in endosperm of coconut (coconut milk) and maize
(zeatin) and also called phytokinin.
76. b) Nucellus may remain as it is even after fertilization and called perisperm.
77. a) After pollination, pollen grain divides further and becomes 3-celled stage representing
mature male gametophyte.
78. d) Nuclease enzymes are also called genetic scalpel or molecular scissors and used to cut
DNA segments.
79. b) Vaccines are special antigens which activate immune system for synthesis of antibodies
against specific pathological agent.
80. c) Tissue culture is widely used to produce clones, mass propagation and micropropagation.
Chemistry
81. a) Bauxite ore of aluminium is Al2O3.2H2O.
82. a) These are called ores.
83. c) Oxygen is the most abundant element in the earth’s crust.
84. d) Froth floatation process is used for the concentration of sulphide ores.
85. c) Electromagnetic separation is used in the concentration of cassiterite.
86. d) The oxides of nitrogen being acidic in nature are soluble in KOH which is an alkali.
87. b) (NH4)2Cr2O7 → + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
green
88. b) Red P does not react with NaOH to give PH3.
89. d) K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 + 3SO2 → K2SO4 + Cr2 (SO4)3 + H2O
Green
90. a) 2FeCl3 + SO2 + 2H2O → 2FeCl2 + H2SO4 + 2HCl
91. c) U.V rays are absorbed by O3
92. b) Bohr’s model could explain spectrum of hydrogen atom and hydrogen-like species such as
He+, Li2+, etc.
93. d) Since transition metals can lose electrons from (n – 1) d, ns orbitals hence they are valence
orbitals.
94. a) Green vitrol is FeSO4.7H2O.

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
95. d) Alumina provides quick setting of cement and lowers the clinkering temperature but if present in
excess lowers the strength.
96. d) p-Dichlorobenzene, being symmetrical, fits closely in the crystal lattice and hence will have
the highest melting point
97. c) To produce electrophile.
98. c)

99. c) Due to strong –R effect, –COOR is deactivating group, while all others are activating
groups. Recall that all m – directing groups are deactivating groups.
100. a) The +ve inductive effect of CH3 group on carbanions intensifies negative charge on C¯
centre and thus, 3º carbanion is more reactive.
101. a) Follow Saytzeff rule for elimination. 3-halopentane will give only pentene-2.
102. d) CH3CHClCOOH contains asymmetric carbon atom.
103. d) Essential oil are extracted by steam distillation.
104. d) Ozonolysis of these two produces different products.
105. c) Terminal alkynes are acidic
Na 1
CH3CH2C  CH → CH3CH2C = C.Na + 2 H2

106. a) Power alcohol is used to generate power.

107. d)
108. a) Solubility of organic compounds in water decreases with mol. wt. due to increasing
hydrophobic character of alkyl or aryl gps.
109. a) Notice + IE of alkyl group which intensifies the –ve charge on carboxylate ion and thus,
makes it more reactive. The acid therefore becomes more stable.
110. b) Only primary amines give carbylamine reaction.

111. d)

112. d) A glyceraldehyde is an ester of glycerol with fatty acids

113. d) Chloramphenicol
114. c) EA increases along the period. N having stable configuration has least EA.
115. b) 2SO3 ⇌ 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
1 0 0 Initial moles

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
0.5 0.5 0.25 Equilibrium moles
0.5/2 0.5/2 0.25/2 Active mass
[SO2]2[O2] (0.5/2)2(0.25/2)
K= [SO3]2 = (0.5/2)2 = 0.125

116. a) Ksp = 4s3 = 1.7  10-10, s =5.5  10-4

For others Ksp = s2
117. d) In CH3NH2 there is a lone pair of electrons on N. Al others are Lewis acids.
118. b) Colloidal particles move either towards cathode or towards anode under the influence of
applied electric field which is called Electrophoresis.

119. d)
213 ( 2 He
Bi ⎯−⎯
4
( −⎯
⎯)→81 Tl ⎯−⎯
209
0 e)
→ 82
2091
Pb
83

120. c) According to Hess’s law, Hhyd. of BaCl2(s) = Hsoln. (BaCl2)− Hsoln. (BaCl2 . 2H2O)
121. c) Properties of the system which depends upon the quantity of matter contained in it is called
extensive properties. Examples are: mass, volume, energy, heat, capacity, enthalpy, entropy, free
energy, etc.

122. b) uCO
2 = 3RT1 uN2 = 3RT2
44 28

3RT1 = 3RT2 or 3RT1 = 3RT2

44 28 44 28

T2 = T1  28 = 294  28 = 187.1 K
44 44
123. c) When electrons are trapped in the crystal lattice in place of anion vacancy, the defect in the
crystal is known as F – center.
124. a) H atoms in 0.4 mol of H2S = 2NA × 0.4 = 0.8 NA
125. b) Apply law of multiple proportions, the ratio of masses of oxygen which combine with same
mass of M will be 2 : 3. Hence the formula of 2 nd oxide will be M2O3.
126. d) From Arrhenius equation, k = Ae−E a /RT
1 1
In k = In A−  Ea  T  In k =  − Ea  T + InA
R  R 
127. b) The balanced equation is, Cr2O72- + 6Fe2+ + 14H+ → Cr3++6Fe3+ 7H2O
128. c) Ag+ + 1e→ Ag. Number of moles of electron = number of faradays.
129. d) H2O2 has an open book like structure with each O atom assuming sp 3 hybridisation.
130. c) The unpaired electron is chlorine is in 3p subshell. For 3p subshell, n = 3 and l = 1.

Physics

131. d) [h] = [Angular momentum] = [ML2T–1]

132. a) When two particles moves towards each other then

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
v1 + v2 = 6 ......... (i)
When these particles moves i n the same direction then
v1 – v2 = 4 ...... (ii)
By solving v1 = 5m/s and v2 = 1 m/s
→ 𝑑→𝑝
133. b) 𝐹 = = rate of change of momentum
𝑑𝑡
As balls collide elastically hence, rate of change of momentum of ball = n[mu –
(–mu)] = 2mnu i.e. F = 2mnu
134. c) When work is done on a body by an external force, it's both kinetic and potential energies
may increase.
P2 1
135. a) E = 2m if P = constant then E  m

vp gp Rp
136. c) ve = ge × Re = 2 × 2 = 2  vp = 2 × ve = 2 × 11.2 = 22.4 km/s

1 YA
137. d) U = 2  L l2  U  l2
 
U2 l22 102
U1 = l1 =  2  = 25  U 2 = 25U1 i.e. potential energy of the spring will be 25U
138. d) Let x be the point where KE = PE
1 1 a 4
Hence 2 m2(a2 – x2) = 2 m2x2  2x2 = a2  x = = = 2 2 cm
2 2
139. c) Force on each side = 2TL
(due to two surfaces)
 Force on the frame = 4(2TL) = 8TL
140. a) Av = constant
1
v  A , since A = min, v = max

1
P + 2 v2 = constant

Since v = max, P = least

F – 32 K – 273 F – 32 0 – 273
141. c) 9 = 5  9 = 5

 F = – 459.4ºF ≈ 460ºF
142. d) Since, the coefficient of linear expansion of brass is greater than that of steel. On
cooling, the brass contracts more, so, it get loosened.
143. d) W = JQ
 W = 4.2  200 = 840 J

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)

144. d) Heat always refers to energy in transit from one body to another because of
temperature difference.
145. c) For isothermal process PV = constant
dP –P
 dV = V = slope of isothermal curve
 
For adiabatic PV = constant
dP – P
 dV = V = slope of adiabatic curve slop

dP dP
Clearly, dVadiabatic = dVisothermal
   
146. d) In steady state there is no absorption of heat in any position. Heat passes on or is
radiated from its surface. Therefore, in steady state the temperature of the body
does not change with time but can be different at different points of the body
147. a) A convex lens Converges light rays
A + m 
sin
 2  sin45º
148. a) = sin(A/2) = sin30º = 2

h 12 12 × 3 36
149. d) r= = = = cm
2 –1 4 – 1
2 16 – 9 7
3
150. a) P = P1 + P2 = 12 – 2 = 10D
1 1 100
f = P = 10 m = 10 cm = 10cm

151. b) In interference energy is redistribution

152. c) It is caused due to turning of light around corners.
1
153. a) Beats period = 30 – 20 = 0.1 sec

2 2
 = T t = 0.1 × 0.6 = 2 × 6 = 12 or zero

154. b) v = 330m/s ; n = 165 Hz.

 v 330
Distance between two successive nodes = 2 = 2n = 2 × 165 = 1m

155. d) No change in frequency

156. c) 1.6 × 10–19 Coulomb. All other charges are its integral multiple.
157. c) A movable charge produces electric field and magnetic field both.
1 1 1 1 1
158. a) Cs = 3 + 9 + 18 = 2 F Cs = 2F

CS 2
Cp = 3 + 9 + 18 = 30F CP = 30 = 1:15

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
159. b) Because as temperature increases, the resistivity increased and hence the relaxation time
1
decreases for conductors r  
 
160. c) To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter a low value resistance is to be connected in
parallel to it called shunt.
E
161. d) I=R+r

E
I ≈ R so, R + r ≈ r i.e. internal resistance must be very large as compared to load resistance.

V2 220 × 220
162. d) Resistance of the bulb = P = 100 = 484
rotate

When connected with no V, the power consumed

V2 110 × 110
Pconsumed = R = 484 = 25W

163. b) For charge particles, if they are moving freely in space, electrostatic force is dominant over
magnetic force between them. Hence due to electric force they repel each other.
NiAB
164. b) = C    N (number of turns)
165. d) A line passing through places having zero value of magnetic dip is called Aclinic line.
166. b) To induce an e.m.f. in a coil, the linking magnetic flux can either increase or decrease.
167. a) In a pure inductor (zero resistance), voltage leads the current by 90 i.e.  / 2
qV
168. d) qE = mg  mg = d

h h2 (6.6 × 10–34)2
169. b) = E=  = 2 × 9.1 × 10–31 × (0.3 × 10–9)2 = 2.65 × 10
–18J = 16.8eV
2mE 2m
170. d) Greater the number of electrons striking the anode, larger is the number of X-ray photons
emitted.
on2h2
171. d) Bohr radius r = ;  r  n2
Zme2
2.23
172. d) m = 931 = 0.0024

1 1600
173. c) Average life = = = 2308 years
 0.693
174. b) Since ne > nh ; the semiconductor is N-type.
175. c) N-type semiconductors are neutral because neutral atoms are added during doping.
176. b) Filter circuits are used to get smooth dc. -filter is the best filter.
177. c) In reverse bias no current flows
178. c)
179. d) Gluons

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
180. d) According to the pulsating theory the expansion and contraction of the universe repeats
after every 80 billion years.

MAT
181. c) Net ascent of the Ant in 1 hour = (30 - 20) feet = 10 feet. So, an Ant ascends 70 feet in 7 hours
i.e. till 5 p.m. Clearly, in the next 1 hour i.e. till 6 p.m. the ant ascends remaining 30 feet to
touch the flag.
182. a) Only one such symbol is there in the given arrangement. It is 4@5.
183. d)
184. a) 1000×85%=850
185. b) Father's wife → mother. Hence, the daughter of the mother means sister and sister's
younger brother means brother. Therefore, the boy is the brother of Robin.
186. d) The correct order is :

Infant Child Adolescent Adult Old Death

1 5 4 3 2 6
187. b) In all other groups, the first and second letters occupy the same position (from the
beginning and the end respectively. The second letter is moved one step backward to
obtain the third letter.
188. d) Page is in Chapter and Chapter is in book.
189. c)

Therefore, it is clear that he is in the North from his house.

190. d) Corresponding word coding.
191. c) Sum of opposite letters=25
192. a) The day before yesterday was two days ago; the day after the day before yesterday was
yesterday; two days after that (yesterday) is tomorrow.
193. c) Let no. of spade= x, then diamonds=2x. diamonds+hearts=6⟹ diamonds =2 then
spades=1, Club= 7-1=6
194. a) Using the concept of d = vt.
195. c) Let there be x pupils in the class.
1 x
Total increase in marks = x × 2 = 2
 

10
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam set –XV (2080-11-26)
x x
 2 = (83 – 63)  2 = 20  x = 40

196. a) From figure analysis: Black circle=F, single star=X, three

star=Z.
197. a) 6+6-1+9
198. c) Pattern: +15,+17,-19,-21,+23,+25, …….
199. b)

200. c) From figure (i) and (ii), there is two faces common then rest faces are opposite of each other.

Best of Luck

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