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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PPP-PTS-4341/092023/15

GENERAL STUDIES

ENVIRONMENT - 4
Time Allowed: One Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number carefully
without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the
Test Booklet.
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9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
S.

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
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TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
NO

has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
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answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
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question.
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1. Consider the following: Select the correct option using the code given
below:
1. Silicon dioxide (SiO2)
(a) 2 and 3 only
2. Calcium oxide (CaO)
3. Aluminium oxide (Al2O3) (b) 1 and 2 only

How many of the above chemicals are primarily (c) 1 and 3 only
present in the fly ash? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 5. Consider the following statements with respect
to notification released by a government
(c) All three concerning the Pollution Index:
(d) None 1. A new categorization of industries based
on their pollution load has been released
2. Consider the following pairs: by the Ministry of Environment, Forest
and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
Technologies Used for
2. The new criteria will prompt industrial
1. Gravitational To control air

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sectors willing to adopt cleaner
settling pollution
technologies, ultimately resulting in
2. Phytoremediation To control noise generation of more pollutants but in
pollution limit.
3. Electrostatic To control water 3. Red category of industries are normally
precipitators pollution be permitted in the ecologically fragile
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly area / protected area.
matched?
O
How many of the above statements is/are
(a) Only one correct?

(b) Only two (a) Only one

SC
(c) All three (b) Only two
(d) None (c) All three
(d) None
3. Which of the following statements regarding
the Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is
correct? 6. Consider the following:
GS

(a) It is the measure of oxygen equivalent 1. Bioremediation techniques are destruction

of the requirement of oxidation of total
organic matter present in water.
(b) The higher value of BOD indicates the
presence of higher amount of Dissolved
Oxygen in water.
(c) BOD is available to the biodegradable
materials only.
techniques to stimulate the growth of
microorganisms, using the contaminants
as a food and energy source.
2. Bio augmentation is the process in
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which microorganisms are imported
to a contaminated site to enhance the
degradation process.
S.

(d) All of the above statements are correct. 3. Bioleaching is the extraction of metals
from their ores through the use of living
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organisms.
4. Which of the following pairs regarding the
pollutants and their sources are correctly How many of the above statements is/are
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matched? correct?
1. Sulphur compounds : Oil Refineries (a) None
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2. Nitrogen compounds : Motor vehicle (b) Only one

exhaust
(c) Only two
3. Carbon compounds : Automobile
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exhaust (d) All three

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7. Which of the following is/are incorrect 10. Consider the following statements with respect
regarding Non-ionising radiations? to Black Carbon:
(a) They damage eyes which may be caused 1. Black Carbon (BC) has emerged as
by reflections from coastal sand, snow a major contributor to global climate
(snow blindness) directly looking towards change.
the sun during an eclipse. 2. It is highly effective in absorbing solar
(b) They have low penetrating power and energy and can absorb energy much more
affect the cells and molecules which times than Carbon Dioxide.
absorb them. 3. Lifetime of black carbon in the atmosphere
is only a few weeks.
(c) The actively dividing cells such as
Embryo are more prone to be damaged 4. It was first identified in the Arctic haze
from Non-ionizing radiations than the aerosols and the Arctic snow.
Ionizing radiations.
How many of the above statements is/are
(d) All of the above correct?
(a) Only one
8. Which of the following prerequisites with
(b) Only two

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regard to pollutants are necessary for bio
magnification in the food web? (c) Only three
1. Short Lived (d) All four

2. Solubility in fats
11. Which of the following statement regarding
3. Mobility O thermal pollution is incorrect?
4. Solubility in water (a) The change in temperature impacts
organisms by decreasing oxygen supply.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: (b) Thermal pollution decreases the
metabolic rate of aquatic animals.
SC
(a) 2 and 4 only
(c) It increases plant growth rates resulting
(b) 1 and 3 only in a shorter life span.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) It may result in a migration of organisms
to another more suitable environment.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

12. Consider the following statements regarding

9. Which of the following statements regarding Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE)
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the sewage management steps is/are correct? Regulation:

1. Primary treatment is done to remove Statement-I:
solid matters to prevent the grit from
causing damage to the equipment. These aim at lowering fuel consumption of
vehicles by lowering carbon dioxide (CO2)
CO
2. Aeration creates a suitable environment emissions.
for natural bacteria to digest the waste in
Statement-II:
water and form activated sludge.
S.

The norms are applicable for petrol and diesel

3. The tertiary treatment stage has the vehicles exempting LPG and CNG passenger
ability to remove up to 99 percent of the
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vehicles.
impurities from the wastewater.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
Select the correct answer using the code given
NO

of the above statements?

below:
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) 1 and 3 only correct and Statement-II is the correct
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explanation for Statement-I

(b) 2 only
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct and Statement-II is not the
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(d) 1 and 2 only correct explanation for Statement-I

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(c) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- Which of the statements above is/are correct?
II is correct
(a) 1 only
(d) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II (b) 2 only
is incorrect
(c) Both 1 and 2
13. The prerequisite for the occurrence of harmful (d) Neither 1 nor 2
algal bloom (HAB) are:
16. With reference to solid waste management
1. Sunlight
consider the following statements:
2. Fast-moving water
1. Incineration is the method of waste
3. Nitrogen management that reduces the volume
of waste up to 20 or 30% of the original
4. Phosphorus volume.
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. Pyrolysis is a method of solid waste
below: management whereby solid wastes are
chemically decomposed by heat in the

RE
(a) 1 and 3 only presence of oxygen.
(b) 2 and 4 only 3. Industries, crop farms, institutions, and
hospitals are some of the sources of solid
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
waste.
(d) 3 and 4 only
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
14. PRANA Portal recently launched by Union
O (a) All three
Environment ministry is associated with
which of the following? (b) Only one

(a) Tracking the progress of the National (c) Only two

SC
Clean Air Programme (NCAP) in order (d) None
to comply with India’s commitment
to ensure clean air and blue skies to
17. Consider the following statements:
everybody.
1. Temperature inversion, that causes air
(b) Easing flow of investment for development pollutants to dwell near the surface for
of infrastructure in India’s International a longer time leading to serious health
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Blue Flag Certified beaches.
(c) Preventing and tracking the man-animal
conflict in elephant corridor regions.
(d) Promoting spread of organic culture in
agriculture of sea-weed for consumption
purposes.
risks to all life forms, is a typical feature
of the summer season.
2. PM2.5, due to their small size, reaches
deeper into the respiratory system as
compared to PM10 or larger particles.
CO
3. The pollutants emitted by engines such
as Nitrogen oxides (NOx) and Volatile
Organic Compounds (VOC) in the
S.

15. With reference to Hazardous Waste presence of sunlight produce ozone as a

Management, consider the following secondary pollutant.
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statements:
How many of the above statements is/are
1. It constitutes any waste which because correct about the various effects of air pollution
NO

of characteristics, such as physical, at the global as well as local level?

chemical, biological, reactive, toxic, (a) All three
flammable, explosive, or corrosive, causes
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danger to health, or the environment. (b) Only one

2. India does not have dedicated guidelines (c) Only two

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18. Which of the following statements correctly 3. Loss of soil moisture and useful
describe the technologies that have helped microbes.
to reduce air pollution by replacing their
predecessors? 4. Reduced lung function.

1. Use of LED bulbs replacing the How many of the above are the possible
incandescent bulbs that consumed 4-5 impacts of stubble burning?
times more power for the same intensity
of the light. (a) Only one

2. The use of diesel engine tractors for (b) Only two

farming replacing the use of animals, as
(c) Only three
rearing livestock causes enteric methane
emission (EME) which makes up 30% (d) All four
of the total anthropogenic methane
emission.
21. Which of the following is not a technique that
3. Use of LPG for cooking food as compared can be used for the removal of pollutants from
to biogas fuel.
water?
Select the correct answer using the following

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(a) Reverse osmosis.
code:
(a) 1 only (b) Semiconductor photo catalysis.

(b) 1 and 2 only (c) Electrolysis.

(c) 3 only (d) Saponification

(d) 1, 2 and 3
O
19. With respect to the concept of Dead zones in
the oceans, consider the following statements:
22. Which of the following statements describe
the impact of environmental degradation on
food production.
SC
1. It is caused due to excessive nutrient 1. An increase in atmospheric CO2 is
pollution from human activities that beneficial for some crops to avoid the
deplete the oxygen required to support losses due to photo respiratory damages
the marine ecosystem. provided the greenhouse effect of CO2
2. These occur near inhabited coastlines, remains within the tolerance level.
where aquatic life is most concentrated.
2. Emissions from fossil fuel burning
3. There are many physical, chemical, and accelerate the formation of ground-level
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biological factors that combine to create ozone that diminishes the oxidative
dead zones. properties of the molecular oxygen and
How many of the above statements is/are prevents photo respiratory damage to the
correct? plants.
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(a) All three 3. A rise in ambient temperature also
(b) Only one disrupts the germination of many crops
as they require a certain duration of cold
S.

(c) Only two treatment (seed stratification) to break

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(d) None the seed dormancy.

Select the correct answer using the following

20. Consider the following:
NO

code:
1. Emission of Volatile Organic Compound
(a) 1 and 2 only
(VOC) and carcinogenic polycyclic
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aromatic hydrocarbons into the (b) 2 and 3 only

atmosphere.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. Increase in soil organic carbon and soil
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fertility. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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23. Consider the following statements: How many of the above factors is/are
responsible for ocean acidification?
1. Degradation of soil due to the storage
or dumping of untreated industrial (a) Only one
wastewater may lead to the pollution of (b) Only two
aquifers permanently.
(c) All three
2. The dust produced from the mining
(d) None
activities may render the top-soil
unusable for some time but they are easy
to remove since they do not enter the 26. Which of the following statements regarding
soil. UN Environment Programme (UNEP) is/are
correct?
3. Accidental oil spills affect soil fertility 1. It established Intergovernmental Panel
severely but due to its low permeability on Climate Change (IPCC) in 1988
in the soil, the deep soil layers remain along with the World Meteorological
unaffected. Organization.
How many of the above statements is/are 2. It hosts the secretariats of Bamako
correct about soil pollution and its ways to Convention and Carpathian Convention.

RE
reach the human system? 3. It publishes the Global Environment
Outlook report.
(a) Only one
Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) Only two below:
(c) All three (a) 1 only
(d) None (b) 2 and 3 only
O
(c) 1 and 2 only
24. Which of the following are the extra-terrestrial
causes of climate change? (d) 1, 2, and 3
SC
1. Fluctuation in the amount of energy 27. Consider the following statements in the
irradiated from the photosphere. context of Arctic Amplification:
2. Increase or decrease the number of 1. It refers to greater climate change near
sunspots. the arctic as compared to the rest of the
hemisphere or globe.
3. Variations in the earth’s orbital
characteristics around the sun. 2. Changes in albedo and ocean currents are
possible reasons for arctic amplification.
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4. Changes in the earth’s axial tilt.

3. As compared to Arctic, Antarctic warming
Select the correct answer using the code given has been similar to the global average.
below: How many of the above statements is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
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(a) None
(b) 3 and 4 only
(b) Only one
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
S.

(c) Only two

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) All three
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25. Consider the following:

28. The term “internal carbon price” relates to:
NO

1. Shallowing of Carbonate Compensation

(a) A system where emitters can trade
Depth (CCD)
emission units to meet their emission
2. Increase in oceans’ capacity to absorb targets.
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carbon dioxide (b) A price on carbon by defining an explicit

tax rate on GHG emissions or more
3. Thickening of shells in marine
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commonly on the carbon content of fossil

organisms fuels, i.e. a price per tCO2e.
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(c) A tool an organization uses internally How many of the above statements is/are
to guide its decision-making process in correct?
relation to climate change impacts, risks (a) Only one
and opportunities.
(b) Only two
(d) A funding approach where payments
(c) All three
are made after pre-defined outputs or
outcomes related to managing climate (d) None
change.
32. Cultivation of plants in agriculture sequesters
large amount of carbon, but at global scale
29. Select the most appropriate definition of agriculture is still source of atmospheric
‘Global Dimming’ a phenomenon often seen in carbon. Which of the following is/are the
news: correct reason (s) for this?
(a) It refers to the collective efforts of G20 1. Animal husbandry is a large source of
countries to reduce the global carbon atmospheric carbon such as methane and
carbon dioxide.
footprint.
2. Ploughing and flood irrigation like

RE
(b) It is an initiative of the UNEP aimed at practices cause release of the carbon
reducing the urban heat island effect by fixed in the soil.
propagating dim colours for high rises in
Select the correct answer using the codes given
urban areas. below:
(c) It is a drop in the amount of average (a) 1 only
solar energy reaching the earth’s surface
O (b) 2 only
due to a shield created by suspended air
particulate materials. (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) An initiative of the UNFCCC, to reduce (d) Neither 1 nor 2

SC
global burning of fossil fuels and shift to
cleaner sources of energy. 33. Which of the following is not a geoengineering
technique to counter climate change by
reducing atmospheric carbon at global scale?
30. Environmental Impact Assessment in India
gets its statutory backing from: (a) Albedo enhancement
(b) Rooftop solar-energy
(a) Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986
(c) Ocean fertilization
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(b) Forest Conservation Act, 1980

(d) Enhanced weathering
(c) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

(d) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
Act, 1981
31. Consider the following statement regarding
SLACC (sustainable livelihood and adaption
34. After successful global effort to limit the use of
chlorofluorocarbon (CFC), what are the major
CO
factors responsible for slowing down of the
stratospheric ozone (O3) recovery?
(a) Emission of Greenhouse gases (GHGs)
S.

like CO2 and CH4 in large amount.

to climate change):
(b) Scarcity of molecular oxygen due to high
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1. The SLACC project is supported by the chemical and biological oxygen demand
World Bank. by water bodies.
NO

2. National Institute of Rural Development (c) Increase in infrared waves in solar

incoming radiation than UV rays (needed
and Panchayati Raj is the implementing
for ozone production).
agency of this project.
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(d) Excessive telecommunication radio wave

3. Objective of SLACC is to support urban radiation, that caused destruction of
entrepreneurs to develop viable business ozone (O3) into molecular oxygen (O2) and
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solutions to mitigate climate change. atomic/free oxygen (O).

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35. Which of the following statements regarding How many of the above are the benefits of
carbon offsetting initiatives is/are correct? artificial reefs?

1. Air Carbon Exchange (ACX) is the (a) Only one

first exchange in Asia to list Certified (b) Only two
Emission Reductions (CER) held in the
Clean Development Mechanism registry. (c) Only three

2. Gold Standard Voluntary Emission (d) All four

Reductions (VER) is a certificate issued
by the United Nations to member nations 38. Consider the following statements regarding
for preventing one tonne of carbon dioxide UN REDD+ (Reducing emissions from
emissions. deforestation and forest degradation):

Select the correct answer using the code given Statement-I:

below: It is a knowledge and advisory platform on the
forest solutions been built upon the cooperation
(a) 1 only
among and Agriculture Organization of the

RE
(b) 2 only United Nations, United Nations Development
Programme and the United Nations
(c) Both 1 and 2 Environment Programme.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement-II:
It has set the target of reducing forest emissions
36. Climate change can affect agriculture through
by 10 gigatons per year from 2025.
their direct and indirect effects, what could be
its likely consequence/consequences?
O Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
1. The yields of some cereal crops like wheat
are likely to be increased due to increase (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
SC
in crop growth duration. correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
2. It can affect the survival and distribution
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
of pest populations and thus developing
are correct and Statement-II is not the
a new equilibrium between crops and
correct explanation for Statement-I
pests.
(c) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
3. Increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide II is correct
GS

has a fertilization effect on crops and thus

promotes their growth and productivity. (d) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: 39. Consider the following statements regarding
CO
(a) 1 and 2 only Global Warming Potential (GWP):

(b) 2 and 3 only 1. It is the heat absorbed by any greenhouse

gas in the atmosphere, as a multiple of
S.

(c) 1 and 3 only the heat that would be absorbed by the

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same mass of carbon dioxide.

(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Fluorinated gases have low global
NO

37. Consider the following: warming potentials (GWPs) relative to

other greenhouse gases.
1. Promoting marine biodiversity
3. The calculation of Global Temperature
DF

2. Coastal protection Potential is more complicated than that

for the GWP as it requires modelling
3. Increasing fish catch
of the climate system’s responds to
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4. Preventing trawling increased concentrations of GHGs.

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How many of the above statements is/are 2. National Adaptation Fund (NAF) was
incorrect? later renamed as National Adaptation
Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) in
(a) Only one
2015, to meet the cost of adaptation to
(b) Only two climate change for the State and Union
Territories.
(c) All three
(d) None Select the correct answer using the following
code:

40. Consider the following statements about (a) 1 only

Ground-level ozone:
(b) 2 only
1. It is an air pollutant and is harmful to
(c) Both 1 and 2
both human as well as vegetation.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. It is not emitted directly into the air, but
is created by chemical in the presence of
sunlight. 43. With reference to Coastal Fisheries Initiative,
consider the following statements:

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Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of the World Bank that
(a) 1 only
aims to ensure that coastal fisheries
(b) 2 only contribute to food security as well as
economic and social development.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. It is funded by the Global Environment
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 O Facility (GEF).

41. Consider the following pairs regarding the Which of the above statements is/are
Greenhouse Gas Removal techniques: incorrect?
(a) 1 only
SC
Techniques Procedure
1. Ocean Fertili- Adding nutrients to the (b) 2 only
sation ocean in selected locations to
increase primary production (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Enhanced Exposing large quantities (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Weathering of minerals that will react
with carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere 44. CRISP-M Tool, seen in news recently is a:
GS

3. Ocean Directly ameliorate ocean (a) New genome editing scissor

Alkalinity acidification
(b) Tool for integration of climate information
Enhancement
in Mahatma Gandhi NREGA
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly
CO
matched? (c) New state of the art data platform for
Ocean Data Management
(a) Only one
(d) Tool to facilitate the planning of new
S.

(b) Only two MGNREGA assets using Remote Sensing

and GIS-based information
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(c) All three

(d) None
45. Consider the following statements:
NO

42. Which of the following statements is/are 1. A wildfire is an unplanned fire that
correct about climate financing in India? burns in a natural area such as a forest,
DF

grassland, or prairie.
1. National Clean Energy Fund is funded
by international bodies like World Bank 2. The risk of wildfires increases in extremely
Green Energy Fund and Environment dry conditions, such as drought, and
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Cess collected from Indian taxpayers. during high winds.

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Which of the above statements is/are correct? 2. Its mandate is to promote the mandatory
use of carbon market mechanisms.
(a) 1 only
3. The Climate Neutral Now Initiative has
(b) 2 only
no participation fee.
(c) Both 1 and 2
4. A participant can stop participating at
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 any point in time.
How many of the statements above is/are
46. Regarding Forest and Climate Leaders’ incorrect?
Partnership (FCLP), consider the following
statements: (a) Only one

1. FCLP was launched at COP26 in (b) Only two

Glasgow. (c) Only three
2. Its aim to accelerate global progress to (d) All four
halt and reverse forest loss and land
degradation by 2030.
49. Consider the following statements:
3. The FCLP works with existing initiatives

RE
and organisations to deliver ambition in 1. The Accelerating to Zero coalition (A2Z)
3 Action Areas. was launched at COP27.

How many of the above statements is/are 2. It will work towards all sales of new cars
correct? and vans being zero emission globally by
2030 and by no later than 2025 in leading
(a) Only one markets.
(b) Only two
O 3. It builds off the foundation of the ‘Zero
(c) All three Emission Vehicles Declaration’ (ZEV
Declaration) generated at COP21.
(d) None
How many of the above statements is/are
SC
correct?
47. Consider the following statements:
(a) Only one
1. India’s historical contribution to
cumulative global GHG emissions is (b) Only two
therefore minuscule despite having a
share of 17% of the world’s population. (c) All three

2. India’s per capita annual emissions are (d) None

about a third of the global average.
GS

50. Which of the following are the environmental

3. India plans to harness its abundant
effects of stratospheric ozone depletion?
solar, wind, and hydro resources to scale
up renewable energy generation. 1. It causes damage to early developmental
stages of fish, shrimp, crab, amphibians,
How many of the statements given above is/
CO
and other marine animals.
are correct?
2. Alters both sources and sinks of
(a) Only one
greenhouse and chemically important
S.

(b) Only two trace gases.

(c) Only three
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3. UVB radiation affects the physiological

and developmental processes of plants.
(d) All four
How many of the above is/are the environmental
NO

48. With reference to Climate Neutral Now effects of stratospheric ozone depletion?
Initiative, consider the following statements: (a) Only one
DF

1. It was launched by the United Nations (b) Only two

Environment Programme (UNEP) to
increase climate action by engaging non- (c) All three
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Party stakeholders.
(d) None
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Space for Rough Work

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IAS Prelims - 2024

PPP-PTS-4341/092023/15

GENERAL STUDIES

ENVIRONMENT - 4

Answer Key

Q. 1 (c) Q. 11 (b) Q. 21 (d) Q. 31 (b) Q. 41 (c)

Q. 2 (a) Q. 12 (d) Q. 22 (c) Q. 32 (c) Q. 42 (d)

Q. 3 (c) Q. 13 (c) Q. 23 (a) Q. 33 (b) Q. 43 (d)

Q. 4 (d) Q. 14 (a) Q. 24 (d) Q. 34 (a) Q. 44 (b)

CO
Q. 5 (a) Q. 15 (a) Q. 25 (b) Q. 35 (a) Q. 45 (c)

Q. 6 (d) Q. 16 (c) Q. 26 (d) Q. 36 (b) Q. 46 (a)

S.

Q. 7 (c) Q. 17 (b) Q. 27 (d) Q. 37 (d) Q. 47 (c)

TE

Q. 8 (c) Q. 18 (a) Q. 28 (c) Q. 38 (d) Q. 48 (b)

NO

Q. 9 (c) Q. 19 (a) Q. 29 (c) Q. 39 (a) Q. 49 (a)

Q. 10 (d) Q. 20 (b) Q. 30 (a) Q. 40 (c) Q. 50 (c)

DF
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1. Correct Option: (c)  Biological Oxygen Demand is the amount

Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary Notes
Fly Ash
 Fly ash is the finely divided residue that
results from the combustion of pulverized
coal and is transported from the combustion
chamber by exhaust gases.
 It is produced from the combustion of coal
in electric utility or industrial boilers,
produced by coal-fired electric and steam
generating plants.
 It consists primarily of oxides of silicon,
aluminium, iron, and calcium.
 Magnesium, potassium, sodium, titanium,
and sulphur are also present to a lesser
of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in
decomposing the organic wastes present in
water.
 It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen
per litre of water.
 The higher value of BOD indicates low
Dissolved Oxygen content of water.
 BOD is limited to biodegradable materials
only; hence it is not considered a much
reliable method of measuring pollution
load in the water.
 Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is a slightly
better mode used to measure pollution load
in the water. COD is the measure of
oxygen equivalent to the requirement
of oxidation of total organic matter (i.e.
biodegradable and non-biodegradable)
present in water.
L2: Approachable

RE
degree.
4. Correct Option: (d)
L2: Approachable
Explanation:
2. Correct Option: (a)  All pairs are correctly matched
Supplementary Notes
Explanation:
O
 Pair 1 is correctly matched: Gravitational Pollutants and their sources
settling is used to control air pollution. It is  Nitrogen Compound
used to remove large diameter suspended Source: Motor vehicle exhaust
particles from a gas by using gravitational
 Effects:
SC
force.
 Irritation in eyes and lungs (NO and
 Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: N2O) atmospheric reaction
Phytoremediation is used to control soil
 Low productivity in plants
pollution. It uses microorganisms (bacteria
and fungi) to damage the environment into  Acid rain damages material (metals and
less toxic form. The microorganisms may be stone)
native to the polluted area or they may be  Sulphur compounds
invasive. Source: Power plants and refineries
GS

 Pair 3 is incorrectly matched:  Effects:

Electrostatic precipitators are the control
 Respiratory problems in humans (SO2
measure of air pollution. Works on the and H2S) volcanic eruptions
principle of electrostatic precipitation, in
Loss of chlorophyll in plants (chlorosis)
CO
which electrically charged particulates 
existing in the polluted gas are isolated  Acid rain
from the gas stream under the influence of  Hydrocarbons (benzene, ethylene)
S.

electrical field.
Source: Automobiles and petroleum
L3: Real Challenge industries
TE

 Effects:
3. Correct Option: (c)  Respiratory problem
NO

 Cancer causing properties

Explanation:
 Carbon compound (CO and CO2)
 Option (c) is correct
Source: Automobile exhaust, burning of
DF

Supplementary Notes wood and coal

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)  Effects:
.P

 Water pollution by organic wastes is  Respiratory problems

measured in terms of Biochemical Oxygen  Greenhouse effect
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Demand (BOD). L3: Real Challenge

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5. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The new criteria
will prompt industrial sectors willing to
adopt cleaner technologies, ultimately
resulting in generation of fewer pollutants.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Red category of
industries normally are not permitted in the
ecologically fragile area / protected area.
Supplementary Notes
Pollution Index
 The Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change (MoEFCC) has developed
the criteria of categorization of industrial
sectors based on the Pollution Index which is
a function of the emissions (air pollutants),
effluents (water pollutants), hazardous
wastes generated and consumption of
resources. The Pollution Index PI of any
industrial sector is a number from 0 to 100
and the increasing value of PI denotes the
increasing degree of pollution load from the
industrial sector.
 The new criteria will prompt industrial
sectors willing to adopt cleaner technologies,
O
ultimately resulting in generation of less
pollutants.
 ‘Range of Pollution Index ‘for the purpose of
categorization of industrial sectors is:
SC
 Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index
score of 60 and above - Red category
 Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index
score of 41 to 59 - Orange category
 Industrial Sectors having Pollution
Index score of 21 to 40 - Green category
 Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index
GS
score incl. & up to 20 - White category
 No Red category of industries shall normally
be permitted in the ecologically fragile area
/ protected area.
 There shall be no necessity of obtaining
the Consent to Operate for White category
of industries. An intimation to concerned
SPCB / PCC shall suffice
Some examples:
 White: Air conditioners, bicycles, CFL
lamps, Organic manure, etc.
 Green: Aluminium Utensils, Distilled
water, flour mills, Ayurvedic medicines,
 Orange: Dry cell battery, food processing,
glass manufacturing, and automobile
servicing
 Red: Lead acid battery, cement, oil & gas
extraction, pharmaceuticals,
L3: Real Challenge
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6. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes
Bioremediation
 Bioremediation techniques are destruction
techniques to stimulate the growth of
microorganisms, using the contaminants as
a food and energy source.
 These techniques have been successfully used
to remediate soils/sludge & groundwater
contaminated by petroleum hydrocarbons,
solvents, pesticides, wood preservatives,
and other organic chemicals.
 Oxygen, water & nutrients are added, and
the temperature and pH are controlled.
The rate at which microorganisms degrade
RE

the contaminants is influenced by: the specific
contaminants present, their concentrations,
the oxygen supply, moisture, temperature,
pH, nutrient supply, bio-augmentation, and
co-metabolism.
 Micro-organisms can be adapted to degrade
specific contaminants or enhance the
process.
In situ bioremediation
 Bioventing: supply of air and nutrients
through wells to contaminated soil to
stimulate the growth of indigenous bacteria.
It is used for simple hydrocarbons and can
be used where the contamination is deep
under the surface.
 Biosparging: Injection of air under
pressure below the water table to increase
groundwater oxygen concentrations and
enhance the rate of biological degradation
of contaminants by naturally occurring
bacteria.
 Bio augmentation: Microorganisms are
CO
imported to a contaminated site to enhance
the degradation process.
 Bioleaching: It is the extraction of metals
S.
from their ores through the use of living
organisms. This is much cleaner than the
TE
traditional heap leaching using cyanide.
Ex-situ bioremediation
NO
 Bioreactors: These are large vessels where
the contaminated material can be monitored
and conditions for bioremediation can be
DF
controlled. Biological organisms typically
have conditions where they operate best.
In bioreactors we can control the mixing
.P
rate, temperature, pH, and nutrient levels
to suit the organisms breaking down our
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contaminants.
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 Land farming: It involves spreading
contaminated soil into a lined bed (to
prevent leaching) and periodically applying
nutrients and mixing the soil to boost
biological activity.
 Bio piling: It places the contaminated soil
into piles that are well aerated and nutrients
are added to speed up bioremediation. In all
cases, the contaminant levels are monitored
to verify that bioremediation is taking
place and steps are taken to ensure that
contaminated material stays out of contact
with the environment.
L3: Real Challenge
7. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary Notes
Two types of radiations with regard to
the mode of their action on cells
 Radiation in the ultraviolet band and at
lower energies (to the left of ultraviolet) is
called non-ionizing radiation, while at the
higher energies to the right of the ultraviolet
O
band is called ionizing radiation.
Non-ionising radiations
 Examples include Radiofrequency (RF)
radiation, Microwaves, Infrared radiation,
SC
and Ultraviolet (UV).
 They have low penetrating power and
affect the cells and molecules which
absorb them.
 They damage eyes which may be caused
by reflections from coastal sand, snow
(snow blindness) directly looking
towards the sun during an eclipse.
GS
 They injure the cells of skin and blood
capillaries producing blisters and
reddening called sunburns.
Ionizing radiations
 They include X-rays, cosmic rays and
atomic radiations (radiations emitted by
radioactive elements).
 Ionizing radiations have high
penetration power and cause breakage of
macromolecules.
The molecular damage may produce short-

range (immediate) or long-range (delayed)
effects.
 Short-range effects include burns, impaired
metabolism, dead tissues and death of the
organisms.
Long-range effects are mutations that

increased the incidence of tumours
and cancer, shortening of life-span and
developmental changes.
4 PPP-PTS-4341/092023/15
 The mutated gene can persist in living
organisms and may affect their progeny.
 The actively dividing cells such as Embryo,
foetus, cells of the skin, intestinal lining,
bone marrow, and gamete forming cells are
more sensitive to radiations.
 Some species of animals and plants
preferentially accumulate specific
radioactive materials. For example, oysters
deposit 65Zn, fish accumulate 55Fe, and
marine animals selectively deposit 90Sr.
L2: Approachable
8. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary Notes
RE
Bio magnification
 Bio magnification refers to the tendency
of pollutants to concentrate as they move
from one trophic level to another. Thus it is
an increase in concentration of a pollutant
from one link in a food chain to another.
 In order for bio magnification to occur, the
pollutant must be:
 Long lived: If a pollutant is short-lived,
it will be broken down before it can
become toxic. Long life of a pollutant
allows it to sustain itself as it moves up
the food chain.
 Mobile: Immobility of a pollutant
restricts it to one position and thus
becomes unlikely to be taken up by
the organism thus hindering the bio
magnification.
 Soluble in fats: Pollutants that dissolve
in fats are retained for a long time as the
breakdown of such pollutants becomes a
bit complex.
 Biologically active: If a pollutant is not
biologically active, it may bio magnify but
CO
is not toxic to a great degree. Example:
DDT
Less soluble in water: If the pollutant
S.

is soluble in water, it has the possibility
to be excreted by the organism.
TE
 Example: Veterinary use of the non-
steroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID)
NO
drug diclofenac in South Asia has resulted
in the collapse of populations of vulture
species of the genus Gyps to the most
severe category of global extinction risk.
DF
Vultures are exposed to diclofenac when
scavenging on livestock treated with the
drug shortly before death. Diclofenac causes
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kidney damage, increased serum uric acid
concentrations, visceral gout, and death.
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L2: Approachable
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9. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes
Sewage Treatment Stages
 Primary treatment is done by pouring
the wastewater into big tanks for the
solid matter to settle at the surface
of the tanks. The sludge, the solid waste
that settles at the surface of the tanks, is
removed by large scrapers and is pushed
to the center of the cylindrical tanks and
later pumped out of the tanks for further
treatment. It is done to remove metals to
prevent the grit from causing damage
to the equipment. The remaining water is
then pumped for secondary treatment.
 The secondary treatment stage involves
adding seed sludge to the wastewater to
ensure that it is broken down further.
Air is first pumped into huge aeration tanks
which mix the wastewater with the seed
sludge which is basically a small amount of
sludge, which fuels the growth of bacteria
that uses oxygen and the growth of other
small microorganisms that consume the
remaining organic matter. This process
O
leads to the production of large particles
that settle down at the bottom of the huge
tanks.
 The tertiary treatment stage has the
SC
ability to remove up to 99 percent of
the impurities from the wastewater.
This produces effluent water that is close
to drinking water quality. Unfortunately,
this process tends to be a bit expensive as
it requires special equipment, well trained
and highly skilled equipment operators,
chemicals and a steady energy supply. All
these are not readily available.
GS
L3: Real Challenge
10. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes
Black Carbon
 Black Carbon (BC) has recently emerged
as a major contributor to global climate
change, possibly second only to CO2 as the
main driver of change. BC particles strongly
absorb sunlight and give soot its black
color.
 BC is produced both naturally and
by human activities as a result of the
incomplete combustion of fossil fuels,
biofuels, and biomass. Primary sources
include emissions from diesel engines, cook
stoves, wood burning and forest fires.
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 Reducing CO2 emissions is essential to avert
the worst impacts of future climate change,
but CO2 has such a long atmospheric
lifetime that it will take several decades for
CO2 concentrations to begin to stabilize after
emissions reductions begin. In contrast, BC
remains in the atmosphere for only a
few weeks, so cutting its emissions
would immediately reduce the rate of
warming, particularly in the rapidly
changing Arctic. Moreover, reduced
exposure to BC provides public health co-
benefits, especially in developing countries.
Technologies that can reduce global BC
emissions are available today.
 Being the strongest absorbent of light
amongst all the components of particulate
matter. It has the ability to reduce albedo
when deposited on snow. It thus warms the
region by reflecting less solar energy.
RE
Main Properties of Black Carbon
 It is directly emitted in the atmosphere as
fine particles (PM5.)
 It is highly effective in absorbing solar
energy and can absorb million times more
energy than Carbon Dioxide.
 It is formed of pure carbon in several linked
forms.
 It is emitted in two forms-anthropogenic
and soot. It is a major component of soot.
 Climatologically, it is highly active and is
known as a climate forcing agent. It adds
to global atmospheric heating by reducing
the albedo which is the property of snow
and ice to reflect sunlight.
 BC emissions are largely done from
automobile sources like diesel engines
and other vehicles. This comprises 52% of
total BC emissions. Other sources include
burning of biomass, residential processes,
industrial heating etc.
CO
 Largest contributors of BC in the world are
Asia, some parts of the African continent and
Latin America. China and India together
contribute 25-30% of the total global black
S.
carbon emissions. These emissions are more
intense in the source regions which include:
TE
Indo-Gangetic plains of India, Eastern
China, Southeast Asia and Indonesia,
NO
Equatorial Africa, Latin America etc. A
large part of people live in these hotspots.
 It was first identified in the Arctic haze
DF
aerosols and the Arctic snow.
 It comprises about 30% of the total
carbon component of soils. It serves a
.P
major reservoir of nutrients for tropical
soils.
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L3: Real Challenge
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11. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary Notes
Thermal pollution
 Thermal pollution is the rise or fall in
the temperature of a natural aquatic
environment caused by human influence.
 Thermal pollution is caused by either
dumping hot water from factories and power
plants or removing trees and vegetation that
shade streams, permitting sunlight to raise
the temperature of these waters, release of
cold water which lowers the temperature.
 The change in temperature impacts
organisms by decreasing oxygen
supply. Warm water contains less oxygen.
Elevated temperature typically decreases
the level of dissolved oxygen (DO) in water.
 So there is decrease in rate of decomposition
of organic matter. Green algae are replaced
by less desirable blue green algae.
 It also increases the metabolic rate of
O
aquatic animals, results in consumption
of more food in a shorter time than if their
environment were not changed.
 An increased metabolic rate may result
SC
in food source shortages, causing a sharp
decrease in a population.
 Primary producers are affected by warm
water because higher water temperature
increases plant growth rates, resulting
in a shorter life span and species
overpopulation.
This can cause an algae bloom which
GS
 L2: Approachable
reduces the oxygen levels in the water. The
higher plant density results in reduced light
intensity, decreases photosynthesis and
leads to an increased plant respiration rate.
This is similar to the eutrophication.
 It also effects ecosystem composition as
changes in the environment may also result
in a migration of organisms to another
more suitable environment which leads
to competition for fewer resources thereby
compromising food chains of the old and
new environments.
L1 : Elementary
12. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The norms are
applicable for petrol, diesel, and LPG and
CNG passenger vehicles.
6 PPP-PTS-4341/092023/15
Supplementary Notes
Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency
(CAFE) Regulation
 Carmakers from the Society of India
Automobile Manufacturers (SIAM) recently
requested Ministry for Road Transport to
postpone implementation of BS VI CAFE
Phase II regulations since the industry is
still recovering from the impact of COVID.
 CAFE norms aim at lowering fuel
consumption of vehicles.
 It is achieved by lowering carbon
dioxide (CO2) emissions.
 Corporate Average refers to sales-
volume weighted average for every auto
manufacturer.
 The norms are applicable for petrol,
diesel, and LPG and CNG passenger
RE
vehicles.
 Upgrading to stricter fuel standards is one
way to tackle air pollution.
 CAFE norms assume importance in the
light of their ability to reduce the carbon
footprint.
Stricter CAFE targets can also lead to

manufacturers moving to electric or strong
hybrid.
 Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE)
norms are embedded in BS-VI emission
regulations and are part of the government’s
efforts to reduce vehicular carbon footprint.
 CAFE norms require average corporate
CO2 emissions to be less than 130 gm/km.
In Phase II (2022 onwards), emissions need
to be further reduced to less than 113 gm/
km.
13. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
CO
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary Notes
S.
Harmful algal blooms
TE
 Nutrient pollution from human activities
makes the problem worse, leading to more
NO
severe blooms that occur more often.
 Under the right conditions, algae may grow
out of control — and a few of these “blooms”
produce toxins that can kill fish, mammals
DF
and birds, and may cause human illness or
even death in extreme cases. Other algae
are nontoxic, but eat up all of the oxygen in
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the water as they decay, clog the gills of fish
and invertebrates, or smother corals and
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submerged aquatic vegetation. Still others
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discolour water, form huge, smelly piles on
beaches or contaminate drinking water.
Collectively, these events are called harmful
algal blooms, or HABs.
Harmful algal blooms need:
 Sunlight
 Slow-moving water
 Nutrients (nitrogen and phosphorus)
L2: Approachable
14. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary Notes
PRANA Portal
 Recently Union environment minister
launched a portal called PRANA.
 PRANA Portal will be used to track the
progress of the National Clean Air
Programme (NCAP) in order to comply
with India’s commitment to ensure
clean air and blue skies to everybody.
 This portal was launched on the occasion
O
of ‘International Day of Clean Air for Blue
Skies’ in non-attainment cities (NAC).
 Non-attainment cities are those cities that
failed to meet the National air quality
standards in a five-year period.
SC
 With India’s efforts, 86 cities showed a
better air quality in 2019 and it increased
to 104 cities in 2020.
 Environment ministry and Central Pollution
Control Board (CPCB) seeks to achieve 20-
30 percent reduction in particulate matter
(PM10 as well as PM2.5) concentrations in
India by 2024.
GS
 In order to achieve the target, India has
prepared and is implementing city-specific
action plans to improve air quality in 132
NACs/Million Plus Cities.
 It targets city-specific air polluting sources
like soil & road dust, vehicles, MSW burning,
domestic fuel, construction material and
industries.
 PRANA portal will help in tracking physical
and financial status of city air action plan
implementation. It will also disseminate
information on air quality to the public.
L2: Approachable
15. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Environment
Ministry has already Formulated and
Notifies Hazardous Waste Management
Rules, 2016
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Supplementary Notes
Hazardous Waste Management
 The management of hazardous waste
is a process that includes the collection,
recycling, treatment, transportation,
disposal, and monitoring of wastes disposal
sites. In the current scenario of developing
countries, hazardous wastes are often
disposed of directly into the environment
posing health and environmental risk.
 Hazardous waste means any waste, which
because of characteristics, such as physical,
chemical, biological, reactive, toxic,
flammable, explosive, or corrosive, causes
danger to health, or the environment.
L2: Approachable
16. Correct Option: (c)
RE
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Pyrolysis is a
method of solid waste management whereby
solid wastes are chemically decomposed by
heat without the presence of oxygen.
Supplementary Notes
Solid-waste management
 Solid-waste management, the collecting,
treating and disposing of solid material that
is discarded because it has served its purpose
or is no longer useful. Improper disposal of
municipal solid waste can create unsanitary
conditions, and these conditions, in turn,
can lead to pollution of the environment and
outbreaks of vector-borne disease—that is,
diseases spread by rodents and insects.
 Incineration is the method that involves the
burning of solid wastes at high temperatures
until the wastes are turned into ashes.
Incinerators are made in such a way that
they do not give off extreme amounts of heat
when burning solid wastes.
 Pyrolysis is a method of solid waste
CO
management whereby solid wastes are
chemically decomposed by heat without
the presence of oxygen. It usually occurs
under pressure and at temperatures of up
S.
to 430 degrees Celsius. The solid wastes are
changed into gasses, solid residue of carbon
TE
and ash, and small quantities of liquid.
L3: Real Challenge
NO
17. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
DF
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Temperature
inversion is the phenomenon of inversion of
.P
the atmospheric temperature gradient that
occurs during the winter season that causes
the formation of smog and lets it stay longer
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near the surface.
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Supplementary Notes
Temperature Inversion
 Usually, the higher the altitude, the lower
the temperature of the air. Temperature
inversion is a meteorological phenomenon
that develops when cool air is trapped in the
ground under a layer of warm air.
 There are four types of temperature
inversions:
 A ground inversion occurs most often
on clear nights when the air close to the
ground is cooled by radiation.
 A turbulence inversion is created when a
layer of calm air lies above turbulent air.
As the turbulent layer brings warm air
down and cools its upper part through
what’s called vertical mixing, the layer of
calm air above eventually ends up being
warmer, thus causing an inversion.
 A subsidence inversion forms when
a large layer of air sinks due to high
pressure and heats up as a result.
 A frontal inversion develops when a cold
air mass undercuts a warm air mass and
keeps it on top.
O
Temperature Inversions and Smog
 The warmer air in a temperature inversion
acts as a lid, trapping pollutants near the
ground and making them unable to disperse
SC
until the weather changes. As a result, the
compounds end up reacting with each other
to form other pollutants such as ground-
level ozone, thus posing a serious risk to
human health.
 Temperature inversions are more common
during the winter in the northern
hemisphere due to high pressure, clear
GS
skies, and long nights, which allow heat to
dissipate easily from the ground. This leads
to a phenomenon called winter smog, which
is further exacerbated by homes burning
wood and coal for warmth.
PM10 vs PM2.5
PM10 and PM2.5 often derive from different
 
emissions sources, and also have different
chemical compositions. Emissions from the
combustion of gasoline, oil, diesel fuel or
wood produce much of the PM2.5 pollution
found in outdoor air, as well as a significant
proportion of PM10. PM10 also includes
dust from construction sites, landfills and
agriculture, wildfires and brush/waste
burning, industrial sources, wind-blown
dust from open lands, pollen, and fragments
of bacteria.
 PM may be either directly emitted from
sources (primary particles) or formed in the
atmosphere through chemical reactions of
8 PPP-PTS-4341/092023/15
gases (secondary particles) such as sulfur
dioxide (SO2), nitrogen oxides (NOX), and
certain organic compounds. These organic
compounds can be emitted by both natural
sources, such as trees and vegetation, as
well as from man-made (anthropogenic)
sources, such as industrial processes and
motor vehicle exhaust.
 Both PM2.5 and PM10 can be inhaled, with
some depositing throughout the airways,
though the locations of particle deposition
in the lung depend on particle size. PM2.5
is more likely to travel into and deposit on
the surface of the deeper parts of the lung,
while PM10 is more likely to deposit on the
surfaces of the larger airways of the upper
region of the lung. Particles deposited on
the lung surface can induce tissue damage
and lung inflammation.
Formation of Ground Ozone
RE
 Tropospheric, or ground-level ozone, is not
emitted directly into the air but is created
by chemical reactions between oxides
of nitrogen (NOx) and volatile organic
compounds (VOC). This happens when
pollutants emitted by cars, power plants,
industrial boilers, refineries, chemical
plants, and other sources chemically react
in the presence of sunlight.
 Ozone is most likely to reach unhealthy levels
on hot sunny days in urban environments,
but can still reach high levels during colder
months. Ozone can also be transported long
distances by wind, so even rural areas can
experience high ozone levels
L3: Real Challenge
18. Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Although
livestock produce EME, the contribution of
diesel engines to air pollution is far more
than livestock. The transition from Bull
CO
driven farming to engine-driven farming
was mostly due to the efficiency of the
engines.
S.
Statement 3 is incorrect: LPG offers a
cleaner solution for the household cooking
TE
fuel as compared to biomass burning and
helps to reduce indoor pollution. But when
it is compared to biogas, which is equally
NO
clean and renewable, while the use of LPG
adds net carbon into the atmosphere, LPG
falls short in this context.
DF
Supplementary Notes
LED bulbs vs Incandescent Bulbs
.P
 LEDs use much less energy than
incandescent bulbs because diode light
is much more efficient, power-wise, than
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filament light.
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 LED bulbs use more than 75% less energy
than incandescent lighting. At low power
levels, the difference is even larger. Bright
LED flood lamps to use only 11 to 12 watts
while creating a light output comparable to
a 50-watt incandescent bulb.
Benefits of using animals for Farming (although
efficiency is an extremely limiting factor)
 Animals are considered to be the backbone
of the rural economy in India. Draught
animals play a dominant role in our rural
economy. Apart from the manual labour,
the traditional cultivation in India was
based on the use of animal power for 97.6 %
of farmers (landowners) accounting for 77.2
percent of landholdings.
 India had the largest population of draught
animals in the world (Approx. 88Million).
This localized resource is an exhaustible
and available resource with farmers, yet to
be optimized properly.
 Animal data (In terms of present
Contribution to National Economy and
Climate):
 Contributes approx. 50 % of all the
power consumed in the farming sector in
O
India so approx. annual saving of diesel
is 23.75 MT equivalent to INR 21500
crore.
 Gives traction power to 50 million
SC
ploughs in villages.
 Gives employment to 20 million people
on a full-time/part-time basis in the
Bullock cart business.
 Transports approx.15% of the total of the
load (Tonnes-km) carried by the motor
transport sector in India.
In load terms, bullock carts carry more
GS

load than the total load transported by
railways.
 Provides approx. 100 million tons of dry
dung per year which is equivalent to INR
5000 crore /year.
 Saves 5 million tons of firewood per year
which is equivalent to INR 500 crore per
year.
 Provides by-products like skin, bone,
horn, and etc. worth INR 100 crore/
year.
 The present market value of draught
animals @ average 10,000 per pair is
INR 30000 crore.
 Gives dung for Bio-gas, cakes & Bio-
fertilizers.
 The backbone of rural economy & an
asset in bio-diversity terms.
L3: Real Challenge
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19. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes
Dead Zones
 Dead zones are hypoxic (low-oxygen)
areas in the world’s oceans and large
lakes, caused by “excessive nutrient
pollution from human activities coupled
with other factors that deplete the oxygen
required to support most marine life in
bottom and near-bottom water. In the 1970s
oceanographers began noting increased
instances of dead zones. There are many
physical, chemical, and biological
factors that combine to create dead
zones, but nutrient pollution is the
primary cause of those zones created
RE
by humans. Excess nutrients that run off
land or are piped as wastewater into rivers
and coasts can stimulate an overgrowth of
algae, which then sinks and decomposes
in the water. The decomposition process
consumes oxygen and depletes the supply
available to healthy marine life.
 Less oxygen dissolved in the water is often
referred to as a “dead zone” because most
marine life either dies, or, if they are mobile
such as fish, leave the area. Habitats that
would normally be teeming with life become,
essentially, biological deserts.
 These occur near inhabited coastlines,
where aquatic life is most concentrated due
to availability of food and nutritional
requirements. Dead zones occur in many
areas of the country, particularly along the
East Coast, the Gulf of Mexico, and the
Great Lakes, but there is no part of the
country or the world that is immune. The
second largest dead zone in the world is
located in the U.S., in the northern Gulf of
CO
Mexico.
L3: Real Challenge
S.
20. Correct Option: (b)
TE
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary notes:
NO
Stubble Burning
 Recently a study conducted in Punjab
by researchers at The Energy Resources
DF
Institute (TERI), All India Institute of
Medical Sciences (AIIMS), and the Punjab
Agricultural University showed that
.P
pollution from stubble burning significantly
reduced lung function and was particularly
W
harmful to women in rural Punjab.
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 Stubble burning is the act of setting fire to
crop residue to remove them from the field
to sow the next crop.
 To plant the next winter crop (Rabi crop),
farmers in Haryana and Punjab have to
move in a very short interval and if they are
late, due to short winters these days, they
might face considerable losses. Therefore,
burning is the cheapest and fastest way to
get rid of stubble.
Effects of Stubble Burning
 Pollution: Emits large amounts of toxic
pollutants in the atmosphere which contain
harmful gases like methane (CH4), Carbon
Monoxide (CO), Volatile Organic Compound
(VOC), and carcinogenic polycyclic aromatic
hydrocarbons. These pollutants disperse
in the surroundings, may undergo a
physical and chemical transformation, and
eventually adversely affect human health
by causing a thick blanket of smog.
 Soil Fertility: Burning husk on the ground
destroys the nutrients in the soil, making it
less fertile.
 Heat Penetration: Heat generated by
stubble burning penetrates the soil, leading
O
to the loss of moisture and useful microbes.
 Impact on Respiratory System:
Concentrations of PM2.5, the category of
unburnt carbon particles considered most
SC
harmful to respiratory health increase
during the crop residue burning period
resulting in a two to three-fold increase in
most of the respiratory symptoms including
wheezing, breathlessness on exertion, cough
in the morning, cough at night, skin rashes,
runny nose or itchiness of eyes, etc. across
all age groups (10-60 years).
GS
L3: Real Challenge
21. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct: All the other
techniques except saponification can be used
for the decontamination of polluted water.
Saponification is the formation of a metallic
salt of a fatty acid; such a salt is called
soap. The reaction involves the treatment
of free fatty acids and/or glycerides with a
base and may be considered a special case of
hydrolysis when a glyceride is reacted with
a base.
Supplementary Notes
Water Treatment Technologies
 Reverse Osmosis: Reverse osmosis (RO)
is a water purification process that uses
a partially permeable membrane to
10
separate ions, unwanted molecules, and
larger particles from drinking water.
In reverse osmosis, an applied pressure
is used to overcome osmotic pressure,
a colligative property, driven by chemical
potential differences of the solvent,
a thermodynamic parameter.
 Semiconductor photo catalysis: This
technology is based on the presence of
a semiconductor that can be excited by
light with an energy higher than its band
gap, inducing the formation of energy-rich
electron-hole pairs that can be involved in
redox reactions. Photo catalysis offers an
interesting approach to water purification,
offering the possibility of using sunlight
as a sustainable and renewable source of
energy.
 Electrolytic wastewater treatment:
Electrolytic wastewater treatment is rarely
RE
used in comparison to chemical treatment.
However, this treatment is convenient
and may be more efficient to produce high-
quality water. Electrodes with Aluminium
(Al), Iron (Fe), Steel (St), and graphite are
generally the best suited to electrochemical
water treatment. In the present review, the
applications of electrochemical treatment
as well as electrocoagulation (EC), electro-
flotation (EF), and electro-coagulation/
flotation (ECF) to the treatment of
wastewater and their operating parameters
(reactor design, current density, time, and
electrode type, and arrangement) affecting
these processes have been discussed. Among
the electrochemical processes, the EC
process should be the best choice, not only
because it can achieve more satisfactory
removal but also because the process is cost-
effective and simple in the technological
aspect.
 Activated carbon adsorption: Adsorption
is one of the most effective processes
of advanced wastewater treatment
CO
technologies, that industry and academic
researchers widely employed for the
removal of various pollutants. Activated
S.
carbon is one of the most widely investigated
adsorbents in the water treatment process.
TE
In recent years, the “adsorption” process
has become more popular as “biosorption”
which uses biomaterials as the adsorbent,
NO
for contaminated water treatment.
 Saponification: Saponification is the
formation of a metallic salt of a fatty acid;
DF
such a salt is called soap. The reaction
involves the treatment of free fatty acids
and/or glycerides with a base and may be
.P
considered a special case of hydrolysis when
a glyceride is reacted with a base.
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L1 : Elementary
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22. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: There are no
beneficial effects of ground ozone formation
that have been observed on the crops in
contrary to that, ozone causes a wide variety
of damage in crops including visible injury,
reduction in photosynthesis, alterations to
carbon allocation, and reduction in yield
quantity and quality.
Supplementary Notes
CO2 Fertilization Effect
 The CO2 fertilization effect or carbon
fertilization effect causes an increased
rate of photosynthesis while limiting leaf
transpiration in plants. Both processes result
from increased levels of atmospheric carbón
dioxide (CO2).
 Earth System Models (ESMs), Land System
Models (LSMs), and Dynamic Global
Vegetation Models (DGVMs) are used to
investigate and interpret vegetation trends
related to increasing levels of atmospheric
CO2.
 The carbon fertilization effect varies
O
depending on plant species, air and soil
temperature, and availability of water and
nutrients.
 Net primary productivity (NPP) might
SC
positively respond to the carbon fertilization
effect. Although, evidence shows that
enhanced rates of photosynthesis in plants
due to CO2 fertilization do not directly
enhance all plant growth, and thus carbon
storage.
Seed Stratification
Stratification is a process of pre-treating
GS

seeds in order to simulate natural conditions
that seeds would experience in the soil over
winter.
Pre-treating seeds help the seed “break

dormancy” and initiate the germination
process.
Stratification pre-treatments are applied

when the seed is being propagated in a
greenhouse setting or in a way/schedule that
is not aligned with the natural germination
cycle.
 Seeds and seed mixes that are sown outdoors
in the fall do not require stratification pre-
treatment.
Effect of Ground Ozone of Vegetation
and Crops
The damage and injury that ground-level

ozone (O3) causes vegetation has become
increasingly evident over the past half-
century with a large body of observational
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and experimental evidence demonstrating a
variety of effects at ambient concentrations
on crops, forests, and grassland species and
ecosystems.
 Global risk assessment modelling estimates
yield losses of staple crops between 3 to 16%
causing economic losses of between US$14
to 26 billion in the year 2000.
 Changes in anthropogenic emissions of
O3 precursors in recent decades have
modified O3 concentration profiles
(peaks versus background O3) and global
distributions with the Northern Hemisphere
seeing increases in O3 levels of between 1
and 5 ppb/decade since the 1950s and the
emergence of Asia as the region with the
highest O3 concentrations.
 In the future, O3 mitigation could focus on
methane (CH4) and nitrogen oxide (NOx)
emissions; these will differentially influence
RE
global and local/regional O3 concentrations
and influence daily and seasonal profiles.
 The consequent effects on vegetation
will in part depend on how these changes
in O3 profile alter the exceedance of
detoxification thresholds for plant damage.
L3: Real Challenge
23. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Mining dust
contains a variety of compounds hydrophobic
as well as hydrophilic depending on its
source. The hydrophilic components leach
into the soil with water very fast and
can reach up to the groundwater. While
the leaching process for the hydrophobic
components tends to be slower they too find
their ways into the soil with time.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Oil leaks can
happen during the storage and transport of
chemicals. This can be seen at most of the
CO
fuel stations. The chemicals present in the
fuel deteriorate the quality of soil and make
them unsuitable for cultivation. These
S.
chemicals can enter into the groundwater
through the soil and make the water
TE
undrinkable.
Supplementary Notes
NO
Main Causes of Soil Pollution
 Soil pollution is a complex phenomenon,
and it can be triggered by a variety of things
DF
and activities, from Industrial waste to the
excess use of chemical fertilizers. Every
cause is linked with another. Pinpointing
.P
at one particular cause is quite difficult.
However, the leading causes are listed
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below.
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Industrial Activity
 Industrial activity has been the biggest
contributor to the problem in the last
century, especially since the amount of
mining and manufacturing has increased.
Most industries are dependent on extracting
minerals from the Earth.
 Whether it is iron ore or coal, the by-
products are contaminated, and they are
not disposed of in a manner that cannot be
considered safe. As a result, the industrial
waste lingers in the soil surface for a long
time and makes it unsuitable for use.
Agricultural Activities
 The utilization of chemicals has gone up
tremendously since technology provided us
with modern pesticides and fertilizers. They
are full of chemicals that are not produced
in nature and cannot be broken down by it.
As a result, they seep into the ground after
they mix with water and slowly reduce the
fertility of the soil.
 Other chemicals damage the composition
of the soil and make it easier to erode by
water and air. Plants absorb many of these
pesticides, and when they decompose, they
cause soil pollution since they become a part
of the land.
O
Waste Disposal
 Finally, a growing cause for concern is how
we dispose of our waste. While industrial
waste is sure to cause contamination, there
SC
is another way in which we are adding to the
pollution. Every human produces a certain
amount of personal waste products by way
of urine and faeces.
 While much of it moves into the sewer
system, there is also a large amount that
is dumped directly into landfills in the
form of diapers. Even the sewer system
ends at the landfill, where the biological
GS
waste pollutes the soil and water. This is
because our bodies are full of toxins and
chemicals which are now seeping into
the land and causing pollution of soil.
Accidental Oil Spills
 Oil leaks can happen during the storage
and transport of chemicals. This can be seen
at most of the fuel stations. The chemicals
present in the fuel deteriorate the quality
of soil and make them unsuitable for
cultivation. These chemicals can enter into
the groundwater through the soil and make
the water undrinkable.
Acid Rain
 Acid rain is caused when pollutants present
in the air mix up with the rain and fall back
on the ground. The polluted water could
dissolve away some of the essential nutrients
found in soil and change the structure of the
soil.
L3: Real Challenge
12
24. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary Notes
Extra- Terrestrial causes of Climate
Change
 Solar Irradiance: There is a regular
fluctuation in the amount of energy
irradiated from the outer surface of the
sun or the photosphere, this alteration
brings changes in the temperatures and
precipitation. The changes in the net
amount of solar energy received on earth
may also change because of change in
relative distance between earth and sun.
 Sunspots: These are dark and cooler patches
on the sun which increase and decrease in
RE
a cyclical manner. When the number of
sunspots increases, cooler and wetter
weather and greater storminess
occur. A decrease in sunspot numbers
is associated with warm and drier
conditions.
 Millankovitch Oscillations: This theory
infers cycles in the variations in the earth’s
orbital characteristics around the sun, the
wobbling of the earth and the changes in the
earth’s axial tilt. All these alter the amount
of insolation received from the sun, which in
turn, might have a bearing on the climate.
 Orbital eccentricity of the earth: The
eccentricity of the earth orbit is between
0.001 & 0.054. Earth takes 95,000 years
to achieve its maximum eccentricity from
minimum. As eccentricity increases, days
of summer increase both in northern and
southern hemisphere.
 Obliquity or the axial tilt of Earth’s
rotational axis: The axial tilt or obliquity of
earth’s rotational axis is the angle between
the axis of revolution and the axis of rotation
CO
of the Earth. The significance of obliquity is
that it controls the latitudinal distribution
of solar radiant energy and intensity and
duration of different seasons. The change
S.
in the obliquity is directly related to the
temperature difference between summers
TE
and winters. Smaller is the obliquity;
smaller is the change in temperature
NO
between summers and winters.
 Axial precision or Precision of
equinoxes: It is slow and continuous
DF
change in the orientation of the rotational
axis of the earth due to effects of gravity
of the sun, the moon and of the nearby
.P
planets. Due to the effect of gravitational
forces on earth the direction of axis of
rotation changes and it forms a complete
W
conical motion. This is also referred to as
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wobbling of the rotational axis of the earth.
This cycle of axial precision is completed in
every 26,000 year. The length and warmth
of the season alter due to axial precision. It
is seen that due to axial precision winters in
northern hemisphere become much longer
and warmer while summers in southern
hemisphere becomes much longer and less
warm.
L3: Real Challenge
25. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary Notes
Ocean Acidification
 Increase in CO2 concentrations not only
leads to warmer oceans but also to more
acidic oceans.
 As the uptake of atmospheric carbon dioxide
by the ocean increases, the concentration of
hydrogen ions in the ocean increases, the
concentration of carbonate ions decreases,
the pH of the oceans decreases and the
known as ocean acidification.
O
oceans become less alkaline – this process is
 Carbonic acid reacts with carbonate
ions in the water to form bicarbonates.
SC
Ocean Acidification will convert more
carbonate ions (which are required for
shell-building by marine organisms)
into bicarbonates, the animals need
to expend more energy to build their
shells. As a result, the shells end up
being thinner and more fragile.
 In the long run, this reaction will allow
GS
the ocean to soak up excess carbon dioxide
because more acidic water will dissolve
more rock, release more carbonate ions,
and increase the ocean’s capacity to absorb
carbon dioxide
 Deep, cold ocean waters are naturally under
saturated with carbonate ions causing
the shells of most calcifying organisms to
dissolve.
 Surface waters are over saturated with
carbonate ions and do not readily dissolve
shells of calcifying organisms.
 The saturation horizon is the level below
which calcium carbonate minerals undergo
dissolution.
 Ocean acidification causes this horizon
to rise vertically in the water column so
more and more calcifying organisms will be
exposed to under saturated water and thus
vulnerable to dissolution of their shells and
skeletons.
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 The saturation horizon of calcite (relatively
less soluble mineral form found in the
shells of planktonic algae, some corals,
echinoderms, and some mollusks) occurs at a
greater ocean depth than that for aragonite
(more soluble form of calcium carbonate; it
is found in most corals, most mollusks)
 The current increased rate of
dissolution of atmospheric CO2 into the
ocean results in an imbalance in the
carbonate compensation depth (CCD),
the depth at which all carbonate is
dissolved.
 As the pH of the ocean falls, it results
in a shallowing of the CCD, thus
exposing more of the shells trapped
in the sediments to under saturated
conditions causing them to dissolve,
which will help buffer ocean acidification
but over a long time scale of a thousand
RE
years.
L2: Approachable
26. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes
UN Environment Programme
 In the recently concluded UN Environment
Assembly, 175 countries supported a
landmark resolution to end plastic waste by
forming an intergovernmental committee
to negotiate and finalize a legally binding
agreement by 2024.
 The high-level event, named UNEP@50, will
mark the 50th anniversary of the United
Nations Environment Programme which
was founded in 1972.
 Under UNEP@50, a year-long series
of activities and outreach events are
CO
being organized to mark UNEP’s 50th
anniversary. These events are being held
to recognize the progress made on global
S.
environmental matters and address the
upcoming planetary challenges.
TE
 The United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP) is responsible for
NO
coordinating responses to environmental
issues within the United Nations system.
 As a member of the United Nations
DF
Development Group, UNEP aims to help the
world meet the 17 Sustainable Development
Goals.
.P
 UNEP hosts the secretariats of several
multilateral environmental agreements and
W
research bodies, including:
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 Minamata Convention
 United Nations Convention on Biological
Diversity
 Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
Flora (CITES)
 Basel Convention
 Stockholm Convention
 Rotterdam Convention
 Montreal Protocol
 Vienna Convention
 Convention on Migratory Species
 Tehran Convention
 Bamako Convention
 Carpathian Convention
Climate & Clean Air Coalition (CCAC)

 In 1988, the World Meteorological
Organization and UNEP established
the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC). UNEP is also one of
several Implementing Agencies for the
Global Environment Facility (GEF) and the
O
Multilateral Fund for the Implementation
of the Montreal Protocol
 The following reports are published by
UNEP:
SC
 Actions on Air Quality
 Emissions Gap Report
 Global Environment Outlook
 The Rise of Environmental Crime
 Frontiers 2022: Noise, Blazes
Mismatches
GS
L3: Real Challenge
27. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes
Arctic Amplification
 Over the past 30 years, the Arctic has
warmed at roughly twice the rate as the
entire globe, a phenomenon known as Arctic
amplification.
 This means that global warming and climate
change are impacting the Arctic more than
the rest of the world.
Global temperatures from 2000–2009 were

on average about 0.6°C higher than they
were from 1951–1980. The Arctic, however,
was about 2°C warmer.
14
Reasons for this are:
 Change in Albedo: Albedo is a measure of
how much light that hits a surface is reflected
without being absorbed. When bright and
reflective ice (with more albedo) melts,
it gives way to a darker ocean (lowering
albedo); this amplifies the warming trend
because the ocean surface absorbs more
heat from the Sun than the surface of snow
and ice.
 Changing Ocean currents: Ocean
currents normally bring in warmer water
from the Pacific, and colder water exits out
of the Arctic into the Atlantic. But those
currents may be changing because more
melting ice is injecting the Arctic Ocean with
freshwater. The missing ice also exposes the
surface waters to more wind. This mixes
up colder freshwater at the surface and
warmer saltwater below, raising surface
RE
temperatures and further melting ice.
 Changing Weather: Ocean currents
drive the powerful polar jet stream, which
moves hot and cold air masses around the
Northern Hemisphere. This is a product of
the temperature differences between the
Arctic and the tropics. But as the Arctic
warms, the jet stream now undulates wildly
north and south. This has been injecting the
Arctic with warm air. Thunderstorms are
also much more likely to occur in the tropics
than the higher latitudes. The storms
transport heat from the surface to higher
levels of the atmosphere, where global wind
patterns sweep it toward higher latitudes.
The abundance of thunderstorms in tropics
creates a near-constant flow of heat away
and from the tropics towards the Arctic
 There is no Antarctic amplification.
Antarctic warming has been similar to
the global average, although some parts
are warming much faster. This is because,
Antarctica is surrounded by the vast
Southern Ocean, which is soaking up much
CO
of the atmosphere’s excess heat.
L3: Real Challenge
S.
28. Correct Option: (c)
TE
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
NO
Supplementary Notes
Internal Carbon Price
DF
 An internal carbon price is a value that
companies voluntarily set for themselves,
in order to internalise the economic cost
.P
of their greenhouse gas emissions. It can
be used both as risk management tool and
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as part of a company’s decarbonisation
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strategy. An internal carbon price can help
companies enhance their global strategies to
become more resilient to regulatory climate
policies and more favourable to emission
reductions.
Internal carbon pricing primarily takes
two forms:
 A shadow price: which represents a carbon
value (determined by the company) that is
incorporated into investment decisions and
applied to the greenhouse gas emissions
generated by projects;
 An internal carbon tax: a levy that
companies voluntarily apply to their
operations and that increases operating
costs depending on the resulting greenhouse
gas emissions; the company then uses the
proceeds of this tax as it sees fit. Internal
Carbon price is an internationally recognised
business tool that enables companies to
create resources which are invested in low
carbon technologies, which help reduce
future emissions and lower operating costs.
L3: Real Challenge
29. Correct Option: (c)
O 
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
SC
Supplementary Notes
Global Dimming
 Along with the phenomenon of global
warming, global dimming is also a
consequence of climate change and changing
atmospheric phenomenon.
An English scientist, Gerald Stanhill, during
GS

1985, first noticed a 22% drop in sunlight in
Israel as compared to his findings in 1950.
He termed it as global dimming.
 It is the drop in the amount of average
solar energy reaching the Earth’s
surface due to shielding caused by
suspended air particulate materials.
 Air polluting particles seeded water vapour
in the cloud are the major cause behind
global dimming.
 Global dimming can have some very
devastating impacts on us.
 The drought in Sub-Saharan Africa during
1970s and 1980s is considered to be caused
by global dimming. Because, cloudy regions
can adversely affect crop ripening, water
bodies, oxygen production and global
rainfall patterns.
L3: Real Challenge
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30. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary Notes
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)
 It started in 1976-77 when the Planning
Commission asked the Department of
Science and Technology to examine the
river-valley projects from an environmental
angle.
 Till 1994, environmental clearance from the
Central Government was an administrative
decision and lacked legislative support.
 On 27 January 1994, the then Union
Ministry of Environment and Forests,
under the Environmental (Protection)
Act 1986, promulgated an EIA notification
RE
making Environmental Clearance (EC)
mandatory for expansion or modernization
of any activity or for setting up new projects
listed in Schedule 1 of the notification.
 The Ministry of Environment, Forests and
Climate Change (MoEFCC) notified new
EIA legislation in September 2006.
According to Convention of Biological
Diversity, Environmental Impact
Assessment (EIA) is a process of evaluating
the likely environmental impacts of a
proposed project or development, taking
into account inter-related socio-economic,
cultural and human-health impacts, both
beneficial and adverse.
 United Nations environment Programme
(UNEP) defines Environmental Impact
Assessment (EIA) as a tool used to identify
the environmental, social and economic
impacts of a project prior to decision-
making. It aims to predict environmental
impacts at an early stage in project
planning and design, find ways and means
CO
to reduce adverse impacts, shape projects to
suit the local environment and present the
predictions and options to decision-makers.
S.
 By using EIA both environmental and
economic benefits can be achieved, such
TE
as reduced cost and time of project
implementation and design, avoided
NO
treatment/clean-up costs, and impacts of
laws and regulations.
L2: Approachable
DF
31. Correct Option: (b)
.P
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The project is
W
supported by the World Bank.
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 Statement 2 is correct: Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change
is the concerned ministry while National
Institute of Rural Development and
Panchayati Raj is the implementing agency
of this project.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The objective
of SLACC is to improve adaptive capacity
of rural poor engaged in farm-based
livelihood.
Supplementary Notes
Sustainable Livelihoods and Adaptation
to Climate Change
 India signed the Grant Agreement with
World Bank for Special Climate Change
fund Assistance for Sustainable Livelihoods
and Adaptation to Climate Change Project
in 2019.
 Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change is the concerned ministry while
National Institute of Rural Development
and Panchayati Raj is the implementing
agency.
 The objective of the Sustainable Livelihoods
and Adaptation to Climate Change Project
O
for India is to improve adaptive capacity
of the rural poor engaged in farm-based
livelihoods to cope with climate variability
and change.
The project has 3 components:
SC
 Planning, service provision and
implementation of climate change
adaptation component will support risk
assessment, planning, service provision
and implementation of climate adaptation
interventions. The key activities include:
(I) community-led risk assessment and
GS
participatory planning of climate adaptation
interventions; (ii) provision of strategic
climate change adaptation services through
knowledge assimilation and partnerships
with resource institutions; and (iii)
implementation of climate adaptation
interventions in agriculture by community
institutions (self-help groups/federations)
utilizing the Community Climate Adaptation
(CCA) grants upon approval of a community
adaptation plan.
 Scaling and mainstreaming community-
based climate adaptation component will
enable support and build capacity for the
implementation of climate adaptation
interventions, and to develop the strategy
for scaling up. Key activities include:
(I) capacity building of National Rural
Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) national
and state staff and creation of a cadre of
Community Resource Persons (CRPs); (ii)
building knowledge support system for
16
climate adaptation including policy inputs
for scaling-up of the community-based
climate adaptation approach within the
NRLM.
 Project management and impact evaluation
component will invest in: (i) establishment
of climate adaptation units staffed with
full-time professionals within the NRLM
and the State Rural Livelihoods Mission
(SRLMs) of the participating states; (ii)
establishment of a monitoring system and
evaluation arrangements (baseline, mid-
term and end-of-term).
L3: Real Challenge
32. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Both statements are correct
RE

Supplementary Notes
Carbon emission in Agriculture
 The global food system is responsible for
~21–37% of annual emissions, as commonly
reported using the 100-year Global Warming
Potential (more on this later).
 The composition of gases emitted by the
food system does not reflect the overall
global emissions balance, however, with
agricultural activity generating around half
of all anthropogenic methane emissions and
around three-quarters of anthropogenic
N2O.
 The non-CO2 gases methane and nitrous
oxide comprise a uniquely large share of
agricultural emissions.
 Animals are the source of atmospheric
carbon on earth. Rearing animals at large
scale tilts agriculture’s carbon budget more
towards being source. Soil organic material
is one of the major sinks for the carbon.
CO
Agricultural practices like ploughing and
flood irrigation disturb the soil frequently,
causing its rapid release.
S.
L2: Approachable
TE
33. Correct Option: (b)
NO
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary Notes
DF
Geoengineering
 Any engineering intervention that is
.P
implemented/proposed to mitigate/
accelerate climate change at global scale
W
will fall under geoengineering.
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 There is wide range of proposed
geoengineering techniques. Generally, these
can be grouped into two categories:
Solar Radiation Management (SRM) or
Solar Geoengineering
 SRM techniques aim to reflect a small
proportion of the Sun’s energy back into
space, counteracting the temperature rise
caused by increased levels of greenhouse
gases in the atmosphere which absorb
energy and raise temperatures.
Some proposed techniques include:
 Albedo enhancement: Increasing the
reflectiveness of clouds or the land surface
so that more of the Sun’s heat is reflected
back into space.
 Space reflectors: Blocking a small
proportion of sunlight before it reaches the
Earth.
 Stratospheric aerosols: Introducing
small, reflective particles into the upper
atmosphere to reflect some sunlight before
it reaches the surface of the Earth.
Greenhouse Gas Removal (GGR) or
Carbon Geoengineering

O
GGR techniques aim to remove carbon
dioxide or other greenhouse gases from
the atmosphere, directly countering the
increased greenhouse effect and ocean
SC
acidification. These techniques would have
to be implemented on a global scale to have
a significant impact on greenhouse gas
levels in the atmosphere.
Some proposed techniques include:
 Afforestation: Engaging in a global-scale
tree planting effort.
GS
 Biochar: ‘Charring’ biomass and burying it
so that its carbon is locked up in the soil.
 Bio-energy with carbon capture and
sequestration: Growing biomass, burning
it to create energy and capturing and
sequestering the carbon dioxide created in
the process.
 Ambient Air Capture: Building large
machines that can remove carbon dioxide
directly from ambient air and store it
elsewhere.
 Ocean fertilization: Adding nutrients to
the ocean in selected locations to increase
primary production which draws down
carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
 Enhanced Weathering: Exposing large
quantities of minerals that will react with
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and
storing the resulting compound in the ocean
or soil.
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 Ocean Alkalinity Enhancement:
Grinding up, dispersing, and dissolving
rocks such as limestone, silicates, or calcium
hydroxide in the ocean to increase its ability
to store carbon and directly ameliorate
ocean acidification.
Rooftop solar-energy aims to fulfil the
energy requirement at a local scale, it is not
considered as geoengineering technique.
L1 : Elementary
34. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary Notes
Stratospheric ozone layer depletion
 The term “ozone depletion” means more
RE
than just the natural destruction of ozone;
it means that ozone loss is exceeding ozone
creation.
 Putting additional ozone-destroying
compounds such as CFCs into the
atmosphere is like increasing the size of the
holes in our “bucket” of ozone. The larger
holes cause ozone to leak out at a faster rate
than ozone is being created. Consequently,
the level of ozone protecting us from
ultraviolet radiation decreases.
 During the last 15 years, an additional
mechanism was found in the areas over the
Antarctic and Arctic that rapidly destroys
ozone. Over the Earth’s poles during
their respective winters, the stratosphere
cools to very cold temperatures and polar
stratospheric clouds (PSCs) form.
 In the polar stratosphere, nearly all of
the chlorine is in the form of inactive or
“reservoir” gases such as hydrogen chloride
(HCl) and chlorine nitrate (ClONO2) that
do not react with ozone or each other.
However, chemical reactions of these
“reservoir” chlorine gases can occur on the
CO
polar stratospheric cloud particle surfaces,
converting the chlorine gases into very
reactive forms that rapidly destroy ozone.
S.
 This “polar chemistry” on the stratospheric
cloud particles has caused very large
TE
decreases in ozone concentrations over
Antarctica and the Arctic. In fact, ozone
levels drop so low in spring over Antarctica
NO
that scientists describe this loss as the
“Antarctic Ozone Hole.”
 CO2 affects temperatures in both the
troposphere and the stratosphere
DF
and formation of O3 is an exothermic
process. CH4 affects the levels of
reactive hydrogen oxides in the
.P
troposphere and stratosphere that can
react with ozone.
W
L2: Approachable
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35. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Gold Standard
Voluntary Emission Reductions (VER) is a
certificate issued by World Wide Fund for
Nature (WWF).
Supplementary Notes
Carbon Offsetting
 Carbon Offsetting is the prevention or
removal of Greenhouse Gases (more
commonly referred to as Carbon Emissions)
from the atmosphere, to compensate for
emissions created elsewhere.
 Carbon Offsetting works in practice via
projects around the world that prevent
or remove Greenhouse Gases, such as
tree planting, deforestation prevention/
protection, and renewable projects such as
Wind, Solar and Hydro Power.
 Third party standards ensure the project
is “additional”, meaning the project would
not have otherwise occurred if it was not
funded by the Carbon Credit purchases
themselves.
O
 In addition, the standards also ensure
the projects have secondary benefits (not
just offsetting emissions) – providing
employment, education, and a positive
SC
impact on the biodiversity and wildlife
within the region.
 There are many different third-
party standards, but the three
largest and most regulated are the
Verified Carbon Standard (VCS),
Gold Standard Voluntary Emission
Reductions (VER), and the United
GS
Nations Certified Emission Reductions
(CER) programmes. In particular, CER
projects are regulated by the United
Nations directly.
 Carbon markets facilitate the trading of
emission reductions. A carbon market
existed under Kyoto Protocol but is no
longer there because the Protocol itself
expired last year.
 The developing countries wanted their
unused carbon credits to be transitioned to
the new market.
 The Glasgow Pact (COP 26) allowed these
carbon credits to be used in meeting
countries’ first NDC targets. These cannot
be used for meeting targets in subsequent
NDCs. That means, if a developed country
wants to buy these credits to meet its own
emission reduction targets, it can do so till
2025.
18
 Recently, UNFCCC has joined hands
with the Air Carbon Exchange (ACX), the
world’s first fully digital carbon exchange,
to promote carbon offsetting via emission
reductions.
 The ACX, the Singapore-based
exchange, a central marketplace for
carbon credits, is the first exchange
in Asia to list CERs held in the CDM
registry - the database that holds
and tracks CERs, including their
retirement.
L2: Approachable
36. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The yields of
RE
major cereals crops especially like wheat is
likely to be reduced due to decrease in crop
growth duration, increased respiration,
and /or reduction in rainfall/irrigation
water supplies due to rise in atmospheric
temperature.
 Statement 2 is correct: Increase in
temperature can affect the survival and
distributions of pest populations and thus
developing new equilibrium between crops
and pests.
 Statement 3 is correct: Increase in
atmospheric carbon dioxide has a fertilization
effect on crops with C3 photosynthetic
pathway and thus promotes their growth
and productivity.
Supplementary Notes
Impact of climate change on agriculture
 Increase in ambient CO2 is beneficial since
this leads to increased photosynthesis in
several crops, especially crops with C3
mechanism of photosynthesis such as wheat
CO
and rice, and decreased evaporative losses.
 Despite this, the yields of major cereals crops
especially like wheat is likely to be reduced
S.
due to decrease in crop growth duration,
increased respiration, and /or reduction in
TE
rainfall/irrigation water supplies due to rise
in atmospheric temperature.
NO
 Increase in temperature can reduce crop
duration, increase crop respiration rates,
alter photosynthesis process, affect the
DF
survival and distributions of pest populations
and thus developing new equilibrium
between crops and pests, hastens nutrient
.P
mineralization in soils, decrease fertilizer
use efficiencies, and increase in evapo-
W
transpiration.
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 Climate change can affect agriculture
through their direct and indirect effects
on the crops, soils, livestock and pests.
Increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide
has a fertilization effect on crops with C3
photosynthetic pathway and thus promotes
their growth and productivity.
L3: Real Challenge
37. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary Notes
Artificial Reef
 Artificial reefs are intentionally placed
benthic structures built of natural or man-
made materials, which are designed to
protect, enhance, or restore components
of marine ecosystems.
 Their ecological structure and function,
vertical relief, and irregular surfaces vary
according to location, construction, and
degree to which they mimic natural habitats,
such as coral reefs.
An AR can serve several purposes –

O
recreational activities (surfing, scuba
diving, snorkelling, and tourism), disaster
management, coastal protection,
managing and promoting marine
SC
biodiversity, increasing fish catch, and
preventing trawling.
 Most artificial reefs are purposefully
designed and deployed using long-lasting
and non-toxic materials that provide a high
degree of surface and structural diversity.
 Today, we generally recognize several
main goals for artificial reefs:
GS
 Replace structure and habitat diversity
in places where it has been lost (due
to dredging, development, storms,
bleaching, etc.)
 Increase the size of reefs or available
structure to enhance local marine
resources and improve biodiversity
 Create artificial dive/snorkelling sites
to relieve tourism pressure on natural
reefs
 Create attractive or art inspired reefs to
increase awareness and communicate
reef issues to the general public
 It is important to recognize that artificial
reefs only work in areas where water quality
is still conducive to coral growth.
 In India, Zoological Survey of India (ZSI),
with help from Gujarat’s forest department,
is attempting for the first time a process to
restore coral reefs using biorock or mineral
accretion technology.
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 Biorock is the name given to the substance
formed by electro accumulation of
minerals dissolved in seawater on steel
structures that are lowered onto the sea
bed and are connected to a power source,
in this case solar panels that float on the
surface.
 The M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation
(MSSRF) and the Tamil Nadu Fisheries
Development Corporation (TNFDC) have
been installing artificial reefs to help fishers
in some of the villages in Tamil Nadu.
L2: Approachable
38. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: UN REDD+ has
set the target of reduction of 1 gigaton per
year from 2025.
RE
Supplementary Notes
UN REDD+
 The United Nations Collaborative
Programme on Reducing Emissions from
Deforestation and Forest Degradation in
Developing Countries (UN-REDD) is the
UN knowledge and advisory platform on
the forest solutions to the climate crisis.
 Its goal is to help realize forest solutions
to the climate emergency by avoiding
carbon emissions and fostering carbon
sequestration.
 In pursuing this international goal, UN-
REDD promotes approaches that ensure the
environmental integrity of carbon emissions
reductions while supporting non-carbon
benefits – from safeguarding biodiversity to
supporting local livelihoods and promoting
the rights of indigenous peoples.
UN-REDD was launched in 2008 and builds

on the convening capacity and technical
expertise of the Food and Agriculture
Organization of the United Nations
(FAO), the United Nations Development
CO
Programme (UNDP) and the United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP).
 UN REDD+ help 65 partner countries to
S.
advance the implementation of the Paris
Agreement, particularly Articles 5 and 6,
in order to reduce deforestation, promote
TE
sustainable land uses, advance international
cooperative approaches to climate mitigation
NO
and mobilize climate finance to turn the tide
on tropical deforestation.
 UN-REDD supports nationally led REDD+
processes and promotes the informed
DF
and meaningful involvement (FPIC) of
all stakeholders, including indigenous
peoples and local communities, in the
.P
implementation of REDD+ activities agreed
under the UNFCCC.
W
L2: Approachable
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39. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Many
fluorinated gases have very high global
warming potentials (GWPs) relative to
other greenhouse gases.
Supplementary Notes
Global Warming Potential (GWP)
 Global warming potential is the heat
absorbed by any greenhouse gas in the
atmosphere, as a multiple of the heat that
would be absorbed by the same mass of
carbon dioxide.
 The Global Warming Potential (GWP)
was developed to allow comparisons of the
global warming impacts of different gases.
Specifically, it is a measure of how much
energy the emissions of 1 ton of a gas will
absorb over a given period of time, relative
to the emissions of 1 ton of carbon dioxide
(CO2).
 The larger the GWP, the more that a given
gas warms the Earth compared to CO2 over
that time period. The time period usually
O
used for GWPs is 100 years.
 Carbon dioxide (CO2) has a GWP of 1 and
serves as a baseline for other GWP values.
• The larger the GWP, the more warming
the gas causes.
SC
 Many fluorinated gases have very high
global warming potentials (GWPs)
relative to other greenhouse gases.
Fluorinated gases are well-mixed in the
atmosphere, spreading around the world
after they’re emitted.
 For example, methane’s 100-year GWP is
GS
21, which means that methane will cause
21 times as much warming as an equivalent
mass of carbon dioxide over a 100- year time
period. Methane (CH4) has a GWP more
than 20 times higher than CO2 for a
100-year time scale.
 Alternate metric is the Global Temperature
Potential (GTP). While the GWP is a
measure of the heat absorbed over a
given time period due to emissions
of a gas, the GTP is a measure of the
temperature change at the end of that
time period (again, relative to CO2).
 The calculation of the GTP is more
complicated than that for the GWP, as it
requires modelling how much the climate
system responds to increased concentrations
of GHGs (the climate sensitivity) and how
quickly the system responds (based in part
on how the ocean absorbs heat).
L3: Real Challenge
20
40. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary Notes
Ground level or “bad” ozone
 Ozone (O3) is a gas that occurs both in the
Earth’s upper atmosphere and at ground
level. Ozone can be “good” or “bad” for the
health and the environment, depending on
its location in the atmosphere.
 Ground level or “bad” ozone is an air
pollutant that is harmful to breathe and it
damages crops, trees and other vegetation.
It is a main ingredient of urban smog.
 Ground-level ozone is not emitted directly
into the air, but is created by chemical
reactions between oxides of nitrogen (NOx)
RE
and volatile organic compounds (VOC) in
the presence of sunlight. Emissions from
industrial facilities and electric utilities,
motor vehicle exhaust, gasoline vapors, and
chemical solvents are some of the major
sources of NOx and VOC.
L2: Approachable
41. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 All pairs are correctly matched
Supplementary Notes
Greenhouse Gas Removal
(GGR) or Carbon Geoengineering
 GGR techniques aim to remove carbon
dioxide or other greenhouse gases from
the atmosphere, directly countering the
increased greenhouse effect and ocean
acidification. These techniques would have
to be implemented on a global scale to have
a significant impact on greenhouse gas
CO
levels in the atmosphere. Some proposed
techniques include:
 Afforestation. Engaging in a global-
S.
scale tree planting effort.
Biochar. ‘Charring’ biomass and
TE

burying it so that its carbon is locked up
in the soil.
NO
 Bio-energy with carbon capture
and sequestration. Growing biomass,
burning it to create energy and capturing
DF
and sequestering the carbon dioxide
created in the process.
 Ambient Air Capture. Building large
.P
machines that can remove carbon dioxide
directly from ambient air and store it
W
elsewhere.
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 Ocean Fertilisation. Adding nutrients
to the ocean in selected locations to
increase primary production which
draws down carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere.
 Enhanced Weathering. Exposing large
quantities of minerals that will react
with carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
and storing the resulting compound in
the ocean or soil.
 Ocean Alkalinity Enhancement.
Grinding up, dispersing, and dissolving
rocks such as limestone, silicates,
or calcium hydroxide in the ocean to
increase its ability to store carbon and
directly ameliorate ocean acidification.
L3: Real Challenge
42. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The funding for
the National Clean Energy Fund is raised
through carbon tax on the use of coal by
industries.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: National
Adaptation Fund (NAF) and National
O
Adaptation Fund for Climate Change
(NAFCC) are two separate funds established
in the year 2014 and 2015 respectively.
SC
Supplementary Notes
National Clean Energy Fund
 The Fund was created to promote clean
energy, funded through an initial carbon
tax on the use of coal by industries.
 Governed by an Inter-Ministerial Group with
the Finance Secretary as the Chairman.
GS
 Its mandate is to fund research and
development of innovative clean energy
technology in the fossil and non-fossil fuel-
based sectors.
National Adaptation Fund
 The fund was established in July 2014 with
a corpus of Rs. 100 crore to bridge the gap
between the need and the available funds.
 The fund is operated under the Ministry of
Environment, Forests, and Climate Change
(MoEF&CC).
National Adaptation Fund for Climate
Change (NAFCC)
 The National Adaptation Fund for Climate
Change (NAFCC) was established in August
2015 to meet the cost of adaptation to climate
change for the State and Union Territories
of India that are particularly vulnerable to
the adverse effects of climate change.
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 The government has set up a budget
provision of Rs.350 crores for the year
2015-16 and 2016-17, with an estimated
requirement of Rs. 181.5 crores for the
financial year 2017-18 for NAFCC.
 The projects under NAFCC prioritize the
needs that build climate resilience in the
areas identified under the SAPCC (State
Action Plan on Climate Change) and the
relevant Missions under NAPCC (National
Action Plan on Climate Change).
 Considering the existing arrangement with
NABARD as National Implementing Entity
(NIE) for Adaptation Fund (AF) under
Kyoto Protocol and its presence across the
country, NABARD has been designated
as National Implementing Entity (NIE)
for implementation of adaptation projects
under NAFCC by Govt. of India.
 Under this arrangement, NABARD would
RE
perform roles in facilitating identification
of project ideas/concepts from State
Action Plan for Climate Change (SAPCC),
project formulation, appraisal, sanction,
disbursement of fund, monitoring &
evaluation, and capacity building of
stakeholders including State Governments.
L2: Approachable
43. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary Notes
Coastal Fisheries Initiative - Challenge
Fund (CFI-CF)
 The World Bank Coastal Fisheries
Initiative – Challenge Fund (CFI-CF)
recently launched a competition to seek
collaborative solutions to reduce overfishing
by supporting coordination among fishers
and collaboration across seafood value
chains.
CO
 The CFI-CF Global Knowledge Competition
seeks innovative solutions that promote
the productive and sustainable use and
management of coastal fish stocks in Cabo
S.
Verde, Ecuador, Indonesia, and Peru.
TE
 The Coastal Fisheries Initiative (CFI) is
a collaborative, global effort funded by
the Global Environment Facility (GEF) to
NO
preserve marine resources and ensure that
coastal fisheries can continue to play their
crucial role in society, contributing to food
security, as well as economic and social
DF
development.
 The Challenge Fund, a child project of the
CFI Program led by the World Bank, aims
.P
to engage businesses and the financing
community in support of more productive
W
and sustainable coastal fisheries.
21
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 The Challenge Fund helps to make the
connection between fishing communities,
businesses, and investors, as well as the
government.
 The Challenge Fund focuses on concrete
business ideas and supports coalitions
in finding innovative, long-term
solutions to reach their common goals
in designing responsible investment
packages and identifying obstacles to their
implementation.
L2: Approachable
44. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary Notes
CRISP-M Tool
 Union Minister of Rural Development
& Panchayati Raj recently launched
Climate Resilience Information System
and Planning (CRISP-M) tool for Mahatma
O
Gandhi NREGA Scheme.
 The CRISP-M tool will help embed climate
information in the GIS-based planning
and implementation of Mahatma Gandhi
SC
NREGS.
L1 : Elementary
45. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
GS
Supplementary Notes
Wildfire
 A wildfire is an unplanned fire that burns in
a natural area such as a forest, grassland,
or prairie. Wildfires are often caused by
human activity or a natural phenomenon
such as lightning, and they can happen at
any time or anywhere. In 50% of wildfires
recorded, it is not known how they started.
 The risk of wildfires increases in extremely
dry conditions, such as drought, and
during high winds. Wildfires can disrupt
transportation, communications, power and
gas services, and water supply. They also
lead to a deterioration of the air quality, and
loss of property, crops, resources, animals
and people.
L2: Approachable
22
46. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: At COP26, over
140 world leaders committed to “halt and
reverse forest loss and land degradation
by 2030, whilst delivering sustainable
development and promoting an inclusive
rural transformation.” The Forest & Climate
Leaders’ Partnership was launched at the
Forests & Climate Leaders’ Partnership
Summit on Monday 7th November 2022 at
UNFCCC COP27 in Sharm El Sheikh.
 Statement 2 is correct: At this event,
leaders publicly set out their vision for the
new Partnership and how it will contribute
to the Glasgow Leaders’ Declaration on
Forests and Land Use goal to halt and
reverse forest loss and land degradation
by 2030 whilst delivering sustainable
RE
development and promoting an inclusive
rural transformation.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The Forest
& Climate Leaders’ Partnership (FCLP)
will work with existing initiatives and
organisations to deliver ambition in six
specific Action areas which underpin the
commitments set out at COP26.
Supplementary Notes
Forest and Climate Leaders’ Partnership
(FCLP)
 In 2021, at UNFCCC COP26, over 140
leaders, accounting for more than 90%
of the world’s forests, committed to work
together to halt and reverse forest loss and
land degradation by 2030, whilst delivering
sustainable development and promoting
an inclusive rural transformation in the
Glasgow Leaders’ Declaration on Forests
and Land Use.
 Supporting the GLD, an ambitious package
of initiatives was announced, which included
CO
the Forests, Agriculture Commodity Trade
(FACT) dialogue road map along with $19.2
billion of public and private finance to
S.
support countries to deliver on the headline
2030 political target. Delivery of the GLD
TE
would reduce emissions by 3.5Gt CO2/year
by 2030, 10% of the overall mitigation action
NO
needed to keep 1.5 alive.
 Action Area 1: International
Collaboration On The Sustainable Land
Use Economy And Supply Chains.
DF
 Action Area 2: Mobilising Public
And Donor Finance To Support
.P
Implementation.
 Action Area 3: Shifting The Private
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Finance System
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 Action Area 4: Power Forest Guardians
 Action Area 5: Strengthening And
Scaling Carbon Markets For Forests
 Action Area 6: Building International
Partnerships And Incentives To Preserve
High-Integrity Forests
L3: Real Challenge
47. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes
Low-Carbon Development Strategy
 India’s Long-Term Low-Carbon Development
Strategy is a visionary roadmap designed
to address the dual challenge of economic
growth and environmental sustainability.
The strategy, unveiled by the Indian
government, outlines a comprehensive
plan to transition towards a low-carbon
and sustainable future over the coming
decades.
 At its core, the strategy aims to significantly
reduce India’s carbon emissions while
O
fostering economic growth and social
development. It recognizes the importance
of aligning economic prosperity with
environmental protection, acknowledging
that India’s energy demand is bound to
SC
rise due to its growing population and
expanding economy. Therefore, the strategy
seeks to reshape the energy landscape
through a combination of renewable energy
expansion, energy efficiency measures, and
the promotion of clean technologies.
 India’s historical contribution to cumulative
global GHG emissions is therefore
GS
minuscule despite having a share of 17%
of the world’s population. India’s per capita
annual emissions are about a third of the
global average.
 Key elements of India’s Long-Term Low-
Carbon Development Strategy include:
 Renewable Energy: India plans to harness its
abundant solar, wind, and hydro resources
to scale up renewable energy generation.
Ambitious targets have been set to increase
the share of renewable energy in the energy
mix.
 Energy Efficiency: Implementing energy-
efficient technologies and practices across
various sectors, including industry,
transportation, and agriculture, is a priority
to reduce energy consumption.
 Sustainable Mobility: Promoting electric
vehicles and sustainable transportation
infrastructure to reduce emissions from the
transport sector.
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 Afforestation and Sustainable Agriculture:
Expanding forest cover and adopting climate-
resilient agricultural practices to sequester
carbon and enhance food security.
 Green Finance: Mobilizing financial
resources for green projects and investments
through innovative financing mechanisms.
 Adaptation and Resilience: Developing
strategies to adapt to the impacts of climate
change and enhance resilience in vulnerable
regions.
 India’s Long-Term Low-Carbon Development
Strategy reflects the country’s commitment
to addressing climate change while
ensuring a prosperous and equitable future
for its citizens. By embracing sustainable
development and green technologies, India
aims to become a global leader in the fight
against climate change while improving the
RE
quality of life for its people.
L3: Real Challenge
48. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Climate

Neutral Now Initiative is one of several
initiatives launched by the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC) secretariat to increase climate
action by engaging non-Party stakeholders
like sub-national governments, companies,
organizations, and individuals.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Climate
Neutral Now Initiative was launched in
2015 following a mandate to promote the
voluntary use of the Clean Development
Mechanism (CDM).
Supplementary Notes
Climate Neutral Now Initiative
The CDM allows emission-reduction
CO

projects in developing countries to earn
certified emission reduction (CER) credits,
each equivalent to one tonne of CO2.
S.
 These CERs can be traded and sold and used
by industrialized countries to meet a part of
TE
their emission reduction targets under the
Kyoto Protocol.
NO
 Thus, the Climate Neutral Now Initiative
promotes the voluntary use Clean
Development Mechanism (CDM), which is a
DF
carbon market mechanism.
 It encourages and supports organizations
and other interested stakeholders to act
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now in order to achieve a climate-neutral
world by 2050, as enshrined in the Paris
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Agreement.
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 https://www.pdfnotes.co/
 The initiative is not a certification scheme
for its participants. It has no participation
fee, and in addition to that, a participant
can stop participating at any point in time.
Climate neutrality is a three step process,
which requires individuals, companies and
governments to:
 Measure their climate footprint
 Reduce their emissions as much as
possible
 Offset what they cannot reduce with UN
certified emission reductions.
 Over time the need for offsets is going to
decline as energy systems become ever
more low carbon, healthy ecosystems
like forests expand and we arrive at a
climate neutral world in the second half
of the century.
L3: Real Challenge
49. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It will work
towards all sales of new cars and vans being
O
zero emission globally by 2040 and by no
later than 2035 in leading markets.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: It builds off the
momentous foundation of the ‘Zero Emission
Vehicles Declaration’ (ZEV Declaration)
SC
generated at COP26 and hosted by the UK
COP Presidency in collaboration with the
High-Level UN Climate Champions and the
Climate Group.
Supplementary Notes
Accelerating to Zero coalition (A2Z)
GS
 Accelerating to Zero (A2Z) Coalition was
launched at the conference of parties
(COP27) as the next step to secure more
ambitious commitments to zero-emission
vehicles transition aligned with the Paris
Agreement. The A2Z Coalition connects
the world’s leading organizations on zero-
emission transportation, creating a platform
to support understanding, developing, and
implementing ambitious zero-emission.
 The A2Z Coalition connects the world’s
leading organizations on zero-emission
transportation, creating a platform to
™™™™™
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support in understanding, developing, and
implementing ambitious zero-emission
transportation policies and plans, and
showcase leadership.
L3: Real Challenge
50. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary Notes
Ozone Deplition
 Phytoplankton form the foundation
of aquatic food webs. Phytoplankton
productivity is limited to the euphotic zone,
the upper layer of the water column in
which there is sufficient sunlight to support
net productivity. Exposure to solar UVB
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radiation has been shown to affect both
orientation and motility in phytoplankton,
resulting in reduced survival rates for these
organisms.
 Increases in UVB radiation could affect
terrestrial and aquatic biogeochemical
cycles, thus altering both sources and sinks
of greenhouse and chemically important
trace gases (e.g., carbon dioxide, carbon
monoxide, carbonyl sulfide, ozone, and
possibly other gases). These potential
changes would contribute to biosphere-
atmosphere feedbacks that mitigate or
amplify the atmospheric concentrations of
these gases.
 UVB radiation affects the physiological and
developmental processes of plants. Despite
mechanisms to reduce or repair these effects
and an ability to adapt to increased levels of
UVB, plant growth can be directly affected
by UVB radiation.
 Ozone layer depletion increases the
amount of UVB that reaches the Earth’s
CO
surface. Laboratory and epidemiological
studies demonstrate that UVB causes non-
melanoma skin cancer and plays a major
S.
role in malignant melanoma development.
In addition, UVB has been linked to the
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development of cataracts, a clouding of the
eye’s lens.
NO
L3: Real Challenge
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