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Chapter 15 – Civil Liberties
Reading Comprehension Quiz
Multiple Choice Questions
1. ________ are the constitutionally protected freedoms of all persons against governmental restraint:
the freedoms of conscience, religion, and expression.
A. Civil rights
B. Civil liberties
C. Due process rights
D. Bill of Rights
E. Free exercise rights
Answer: B
Learning Objective: 15.1
Page Reference: 402
Skill: Understanding
2. Civil rights are

A. the constitutionally protected freedoms of all persons against governmental restraint: the freedoms of
conscience, religion, and expression.
B. the constitutional rights of all persons, not just citizens, to due process and the equal protection of the
laws the constitutional right not to be discriminated against by governments because of race, ethnic
background, religion, or gender.
C. granted by governments and may be subject to conditions or restrictions.
D. protected by in the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments.
E. Both B and D are correct
Answer: E
Page Reference: 402
3. According to the Constitution ex post facto laws cannot
A. increase the punishment for a crime after it was committed.
B. reduce the proof necessary to convict for a crime after it was committed.
C. decrease the punishment for a particular crime.
D. be applied to civil laws.
E. All of these are true of ex post facto laws
Answer: E
Page Reference: 403
4. The preferred position doctrine—which holds that freedom of expression is so essential to democracy
that governments should not punish persons for what they say, only for what they do—is an
interpretation of what amendment?
401
Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.
A. Second
B. Third
C. Fourth
D. Fifth
E. First
Answer: E
Page Reference: 408
5. Libel, obscenity, fighting words, and commercial speech are examples of ____________
A. prior restraint.
B. bad tendency test.
C. clear and present danger test.
D. non-protected speech.
E. preferred position doctrine.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 409–410
Skill: Application
6. To be subject to sanctions, fighting words must

A. create anger, alarm, or resentment.
B. be based on race, ethnicity, or religion.
C. incite acts of violence.
D. be based on gender.
E. Both B and D are correct
Answer: C
Page Reference: 410
7. The U.S. Constitution gives national and state governments the power to take private property from
the public, but requires them to provide just compensation for property so taken. What are we
referring to?
A. Eminent domain
B. Regulatory taking
C. Property rights
D. Land rights
E. Domain limitations
Answer: A
Page Reference: 413
8. ___________ mainly limits the executive and judicial branches because they apply the law and
review its application.
A. Procedural due process
B. Due process
C. Substantive due process
402
D. Miranda rights
E. International due process
Answer: A
Page Reference: 413
9. Roe v. Wade ruling dealt with the issue of

A. religious belief.
B. abortion rights.
C. press rights.
D. speech rights.
E. peaceful assembly rights.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 415
10. In the decision concerning Griswold v. Connecticut (1965), the Supreme Court relied on
A. principles relating to procedural due process.
B. the right to privacy as implied in the First, Third, Fourth, Fifth, Ninth, and Fourteenth Amendments.
C. specific references to the right to life as implied in the First, Fourth, Fifth, Ninth, and Fourteenth
Amendments.
D. the moral suasion of the general public.
E. the protection of the free exercise of religion under the First Amendment.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 414
Skill: Analysis
11. In ______________the Supreme Court struck down an initiative amending the Colorado constitution
that prohibited state and local governments from protecting homosexuals from discrimination
A. Bowers v. Hardwick
B. Gitlow v. New York
C. Miller v. California
D. Romer v. Evans
E. Griswold v. Connecticut
Answer: D
Page Reference: 417
12. To obtain a valid search warrant, the police must indicate under oath that they have what to justify it?
A. Reasonable cause
B. Legitimate cause
C. Proof
D. Probable cause
E. Likely cause
Answer: D
403
Page Reference: 417
13. In __________ the Supreme Court adopted a rule excluding from a criminal trial evidence the police
obtained unconstitutionally or illegally.
A. Terry v. Ohio
D. Mapp v. Ohio
Answer: D
Page Reference: 418
14. Which amendment protects persons from being compelled to testify against themselves in criminal
prosecutions?
A. Fourteenth
B. Fourth
C. First
D. Third
E. Fifth
Answer: E
15. The Supreme Court ruled that executing minors was a violation of what amendment?
A. Eighth
B. Fourth
C. Fifth
D. Third
E. Ninth
Answer: A
Page Reference: 421
True/False Questions
1. Gitlow v. New York was a revolutionary decision because it protected freedom of speech from
violations by state and local governments.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 403
2. Ex post facto law refers to producing a prisoner in court and explaining why he or she is being held.
Answer: FALSE
404
Page Reference: 403
3. Civil rights are the constitutional rights afforded to only citizens of the United States.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 402
4. The clear and present danger test is a means of interpreting the First Amendment.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 408
5. Preferred position doctrine holds that freedom of expression is so essential to democracy that
governments should not punish persons for what they say, only for what they do.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 408
6. Fighting words by their very nature inflict injury on those to whom they are addressed, or incite them
to acts of violence.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 410
7. When the government takes private property for public use, it must provide compensation.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 413
8. Due process is a constitutional requirement that governments proceed by proper methods and limit
the exercise of their power.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 413
9. The right to privacy is found in the First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 414
10. A criminal who pleads guilty to an offense that is lesser than the one with which he had been charged
is said to have engaged in plea bargaining.
405
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 420
11. The Fifth Amendment presents a complex area of the law that includes many possible exceptions to
the warrant requirement.
Answer: FALSE
Chapter Examination
1. Which Supreme Court justice observed, “The history of liberty has largely been the history of
observance of procedural safeguards.”
A. Justice Felix Frankfurter
B. Justice John Marshall Harlan
C. Justice Clarence Thomas
D. Justice Antonin Scalia
E. Justice Sandra Day O’Connor
Answer: A
Learning Objective: Opening Vignette
Page Reference: 401
2. Hamdan v. Rumsfeld underscored the fundamental nature of

A. due process.
B. ex post facto laws.
C. writs of habeas corpus.
D. the free exercise clause.
E. the establishment clause.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 402
3. All of the following are rights listed in the original Constitution EXCEPT
A. habeas corpus.
B. prohibition of ex post facto laws.
C. prohibition of titles of nobility.
D. protection against the impairment of contracts.
E. protection against defamation of character.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 402
406
4. Civil liberties are
A. the constitutionally protected freedoms of all persons against governmental restraint of the freedoms of
conscience, religion, and expression.
B. the constitutional rights of all persons, not just citizens, to due process and the equal protection of the
laws the constitutional right not to be discriminated against by governments because of race, ethnic
background, religion, or gender.
C. granted by governments and may be subject to conditions or restrictions.
D. stated in the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments.
E. Both B and C are correct
Answer: A
Page Reference: 402
5. ___________ are the constitutional rights of all persons, not just citizens, to due process and the equal
protection of the laws the constitutional right not to be discriminated against by governments because
of race, ethnic background, religion, or gender.
A. Civil rights
B. Civil liberties
C. Due process rights
D. Bill of Rights
E. Free exercise rights
Answer: A
Page Reference: 402
6. In the Fifth Amendment there is a clause limiting the power of the national government. It is called the
A. establishment clause.
B. free service clause.
C. due process clause.
D. civil disobedience clause.
E. free exercise clause.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 403
7. In what landmark case was the U.S. Constitution interpreted to protect freedom of speech from
abridgment by state and local governments?
A. Lemon v. Kurtzman
D. Roe v. Wade
E. Zelman v. Simmons-Harris
Answer: B
Page Reference: 403
407
8. Gitlow v. New York was a revolutionary decision because it protected
A. freedom of speech from violations by state and local governments.
B. freedom of speech from violations by the national government.
C. freedom to bear arms from violations by state and local governments.
D. freedom to bear arms from violations by the national government.
E. free exercise of religion by all religious denominations.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 403
9. The process by which provisions of the Bill of Rights are brought within the scope of the Fourteenth
Amendment and so applied to state and local government is known as
A. blanket incorporation.
B. retroactive incorporation.
C. proactive incorporation.
D. selective incorporation.
E. prescript incorporation.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 403
10. The due process clause, interpreted to mean that the states could not abridge the First Amendment
freedoms, is part of the
A. Third Amendment
B. Eighteenth Amendment
C. Fourteenth Amendment
D. Ninth Amendment
E. Second Amendment
Answer: C
Page Reference: 403
11. Rights in the original Constitution include all of the following EXCEPT
A. habeas corpus.
B. no titles of nobility.
C. the right to travel.
D. the right to bear arms.
E. no religious test oaths as a condition for holding a federal office.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 402
Skill: Analysis
12. The Bill of Rights was added to the U.S. Constitution

A. as a symbol of America’s English heritage.
B. to protect citizens from persecution by their state governments.
C. to win friends among enlightened nations abroad.
408
D. to keep the national government from infringing on individual rights.
E. All of the above
Answer: D
Page Reference: 403
Skill: Analysis
13. Originally, the Bill of Rights was intended to limit the power of ___________________
governments.
A. state
B. local
C. national
D. both the state and national
E. foreign
Answer: C
Page Reference: 403
14. The framers of the Constitution believed that certain individual rights needed to be spelled out in the
Constitution. Of particular importance were the rights of the accused. Which of the following
represent legal protections the framers thought were important?
A. Habeas corpus
B. Prohibition of ex post facto laws
C. Bills of attainder
D. All of the above
E. All of the above, except A
Answer: D
15. “Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise
thereof.” In what amendment can this phrase be found?
A. Fourteenth
B. Fourth
C. First
D. Third
E. Fifth
Answer: C
Page Reference: 404
16. What clause in the First Amendment states that Congress shall make no law respecting the creation of
a state religion?
A. establishment clause
B. free service clause
C. due process clause
D. civil disobedience clause
409
E. free exercise clause
Answer: A
Page Reference: 404
17. What clause in the First Amendment states that no government can compel us to accept any creed or
to deny us any right because of what we do or do not believe?
A. establishment clause
B. free service clause
C. due process clause
D. civil disobedience clause
E. free exercise clause
Answer: E
Page Reference: 406
18. What is an interpretation of the First Amendment that would permit legislatures to forbid speech
encouraging people to engage in illegal action?
A. Prior restraint
B. Bad tendency test
C. Clear and present danger test
D. Non-protected speech
E. Preferred position doctrine
Answer: B
Page Reference: 408
19. Which of the below holds that the government cannot interfere with speech unless the action that will
come of such speech leads to an evil or illegal act?
A. Prior restraint
Answer: C
Page Reference: 408
20. The clear and present danger test is an interpretation of which Amendment, holding that the
government cannot interfere with speech unless the action that will come of such speech leads to evil
or illegal act?
A. Second
B. Third
C. Fourth
D. Fifth
E. First
410
Answer: E
Page Reference: 408
21. What is an interpretation of the First Amendment that holds that freedom of expression is so essential
to democracy that governments should not punish persons for what they say, only for what they do?
A. Prior restraint
Answer: E
Page Reference: 408
22. What is it called when censorship is imposed before a speech is made or a newspaper is published?
A. Prior restraint
Answer: A
Page Reference: 408
23. When we speak of laws that apply to all kinds of speech and to all views, not just that which is
unpopular or divisive, we are referring to what?
A. Prior restraint
E. Content or viewpoint neutrality
Answer: E
Page Reference: 409
24. Libel is
A. spoken defamation of character.
B. valid only when it is applied to specific individuals in government.
C. subject to tests of truth.
D. written defamation of another person.
E. generally applied in cases in which private citizens criticize public officials.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 409
411
25. Which Supreme Court Justice said of obscenity: “I know it when I see it”?
A. Justice Potter Stewart
B. Justice John Marshall Harlan
C. Justice Clarence Thomas
D. Justice Antonin Scalia
E. Justice Sandra Day O’Connor
Answer: A
Page Reference: 409
26. In the court case of 44 Liquormart, Inc. v. Rhode Island (1996), the U.S. Supreme Court struck down
a law forbidding
A. the sale of alcohol to minors.
B. the sale of cold six-packs for immediate consumption.
C. advertising the price of alcoholic drinks.
D. consumption of alcoholic beverages while operating a vehicle.
E. the sale of alcohol on Sunday.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 410
27. “The quality or state of a work that taken as a whole appeals to a prurient interest in sex by depicting
sexual conduct in a patently offensive way and that lacks serious literary, artistic, political, or
scientific value.” What is this passage referring to?
A. Commercial speech
B. Fighting words
C. Libel
D. Free assembly
E. Obscenity
Answer: E
Page Reference: 409
28. Words that by their very nature inflict injury on those to whom they are addressed or incite them to
acts of violence refer to which of the following?
B. Fighting words
C. Libel
D. Symbolic speech
E. Obscenity
Answer: B
Page Reference: 410
412
29. Which of the following receives less First Amendment protection in order to discourage
misinformation?
B. Fighting words
C. Libel
D. Free assembly
E. Obscenity
Answer: A
Page Reference: 410
30. What type of speech are we talking about when we address the quality or state of a work that taken as
a whole appeals to a prurient interest in sex by depicting sexual conduct in a patently offensive way
and that lacks serious literary, artistic, political, or scientific value?
B. Fighting words
C. Libel
D. Free assembly
E. Obscenity
Answer: E
Page Reference: 409
31. A general definition of obscenity includes all of the following EXCEPT that it
A. lacks political or scientific value.
B. appeals to prurient interests.
C. lacks serious literary or artistic value.
D. offends women.
E. None of the above
Answer: D
Page Reference: 409
32. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) does all of the following EXCEPT
A. grant licenses for limited periods.
B. regulate the use of publicly owned airwaves.
C. impose fines when indecent language is used on public airways.
D. require that programming like Playboy be blocked by operators.
E. All of these are done by the FCC
Answer: D
Page Reference: 410
33. The Reno v. ACLU (1997) ruling dealt with First Amendment protection for the
A. Internet.
B. clergy.
413
C. press.
D. right of protest.
E. radio.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 411
34. Dr. Martin Luther King is most closely associated with

A. civil disobedience.
B. Internet freedom.
C. a crusade against bills of attainder.
D. shield laws.
E. Both A and D are correct
Answer: A
Page Reference: 412
35. Deliberate refusal to obey a law or comply with the orders of public officials as a means of expressing
opposition is an example of
A. civil disobedience.
B. freedom of expression.
C. a crusade against bills of attainder.
D. shield laws.
E. free choice.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 412
36. All of the following are forms of unprotected speech EXCEPT

A. libel.
B. obscenity.
C. symbolic speech.
D. commercial speech.
E. fighting words.
Answer: C
37. The bad tendency doctrine gives to __________ the power to decide what kinds of speech can be
outlawed.
A. courts
B. the people
C. legislatures
D. chief executives
E. bureaucrats
Answer: B
414
Page Reference: 408
38. Of all forms of government interference with expression, judges are most suspicious of those that
A. trespass on First Amendment freedoms.
B. limit freedom of speech of any kind.
C. impose prior restraints on publication.
D. impose a posteriori restraints.
E. All of the above
Answer: C
Page Reference: 410
39. To be subject to sanctions, fighting words must

A. create anger, alarm, or resentment.
B. incite acts of violence.
C. be based on gender.
D. be based on race, ethnicity, or religion.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 410
40. In response to the authority of the Church of England, the framers wrote the establishment clause.
What did this clause guarantee with regard to religion?
A. Separation of church and state
B. Government sponsorship of religion
C. Financial support by government of religion
D. Governmental involvement in religious matters
E. All of the above
Answer: A
Page Reference: 404
41. Justice Holmes’s clear and present danger test holds that government can
A. restrict speech that threatens national security.
B. restrict any speech of an inflammatory nature.
C. imprison political dissidents during time of war without following normal procedures.
D. engage in prior restraint of the press whenever.
E. All of the above
Answer: A
Page Reference: 408
415
42. Printed words that are known to be false and harmful to an individual’s reputation are an example of
A. slander.
B. libel.
C. obscenity.
D. blasphemy.
E. rabble-rousing.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 409
43. The burning of an American flag as a means of political protest has recently been ruled
A. a matter for local courts only.
B. an issue that does not come under the Court’s jurisdiction.
C. symbolic speech, which is protected by the First Amendment.
D. non-protected speech.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 408
44. In Miller v. California, the Court defined obscenity

A. on the basis of the community, given contemporary standards, finding something of prurient sexual
interest.
B. as something that depicts or describes in a patently offensive way sexual conduct specifically define by
the applicable law.
C. as a work that, taken as a whole, lacks serious literary, artistic, political, or scientific value.
D. A, B, and C are correct.
E. None of these; the Court has refused to define obscenity
Answer: D
Page Reference: 409
45. The government can lawfully prevent a political rally from taking place
A. under no circumstances: people have an unconditional right to express their views.
B. when the rally would cost government money because of the need for police protection.
C. when the views of those holding the rally are unpopular.
D. when it can demonstrate clearly that a non-preventable evil will result if the rally is held.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 412
Skill: Analysis
46. The Bill of Rights guarantees religious liberty for

A. Christians.
B. Muslims.
C. Jews.
416
D. atheists.
E. All of the above
Answer: E.
Skill: Application
47. According to the Lemon test, in order to be constitutional, a law or public act must
A. have a secular purpose.
B. have a primary effect that neither advances nor inhibits religion.
C. not result in excessive governmental entanglement with religion.
D. All of the above
E. All of the above except B
Answer: D
Page Reference: 406
Skill: Application
48. Freedom of religion is protected by all of the following EXCEPT

A. barring laws that would encourage an establishment of religion.
B. allowing free exercise of religion.
C. disallowing Americans to hold any religious belief they choose.
D. the Supreme Court’s desire to encourage the states to maintain a position of neutrality toward religion.
E. All of the above protect freedom of religion
Answer: C
Skill: Analysis
49. The free exercise clause of the First Amendment refers to

A. abortion rights.
B. religious rights.
C. voting rights.
D. assembly rights.
E. speech rights.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 406
50. The Supreme Court has ruled that flag burning

A. is not an imminent danger to public safety.
B. is symbolic speech.
C. cannot, although offensive, be prohibited.
D. All of the above
E. All of the above, except C
Answer: D
Page Reference: 408
417
51. Government prohibition of a speech or publication before it is made or published is referred to as
A. prior restraint.
B. judicial review.
C. sedition.
D. exclusion.
E. sequestering.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 408
52. Regarding the issue of obscenity, since the 1970s the Supreme Court has ruled all the following
EXCEPT
A. obscenity is a form of expression that cannot be restricted.
B. obscenity must be judged by contemporary community standards.
C. it is a crime for people to possess pornographic photographs of children in their own home.
D. cable channel operators cannot censor content on public access channels made available at no charge to
community groups.
E. All of the above have been ruled
Answer: A
Page Reference: 409
53. One limit on the freedom of assembly is

A. at the meeting, a person may only discuss the positive aspects of our government.
B. the meeting must remain peaceful.
C. people cannot discuss their religious beliefs with one another.
D. meetings can only be held during daylight hours.
E. None of the above is a limit
Answer: B
Page Reference: 412
Skill: Application
54. While the government may not censor what can be said, it can regulate protests and parades. It can
make regulations regarding
A. the time of the parade or protest.
B. the place of the parade or protest.
C. the manner of the parade or protest.
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Page Reference: 412
Skill: Application
55. An individual’s ability to own, use, rent, invest in, buy, and sell property is associated with
A. eminent domain.
418
B. regulatory taking.
C. property rights.
D. land rights.
E. domain limitations.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 412
56. A government creates landing and takeoff paths for airplanes over property adjacent to an airport,
making the land unsuitable for its original use (say, raising chickens) and making compensation
warranted. This is an example of what?
A. Eminent domain
B. Regulatory taking
C. Property rights
D. Land rights
E. Domain limitations
Answer: B
Page Reference: 413
57. The concept that private property cannot be taken for public use without just compensation is
A. eminent domain.
B. ex post facto law.
C. habeas corpus.
D. martial law.
E. regulatory taking.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 413
58. Eminent domain is defined as the right of government to

A. prohibit the development of private property.
B. legislate the way in which private property may be used.
C. impose environmental regulations on private property owners.
D. take private property for public use.
E. All of the above
Answer: D
Page Reference: 413
59. ___________ is a constitutional requirement that governments proceed by proper methods.

B. Due process
D. Miranda rights
419
Answer: A
Page Reference: 413
60. ___________ mainly limits the legislative branch because it enacts laws.
B. Due process
D. Miranda rights
Answer: C
Page Reference: 414
61. ___________ is a constitutional requirement that governments act reasonably and that the substance
of the laws themselves be fair and reasonable.
B. Due process
D. Miranda rights
Answer: C
Page Reference: 414
62. ___________ established rules and regulations that restrain government officials.
B. Due process
D. Miranda rights
Answer: B
Page Reference: 413
63. The Griswold v. Connecticut ruling dealt with elements of the First, Third, Fourth, Fifth, Ninth, and
Fourteenth Amendments to recognize
A. religious belief.
B. abortion rights.
C. privacy rights.
D. speech rights.
E. peaceful assembly rights.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 414
420
64. Under Roe v. Wade the Court held that a woman in her first three months of pregnancy had
__________ right to an abortion.
A. no
B. a court approved
C. a limited
D. an unrestricted
Answer: D
Page Reference: 415
65. In 2003, the U.S. Supreme Court struck down a ________ state law making homosexual sodomy a
crime.
A. Georgia
B. California
C. Massachusetts
D. Texas
E. Alabama
Answer: D
Page Reference: 417
66. While the Supreme Court has upheld the right of women to have an abortion, it has held that there is
no constitutional obligation for the ____________________ to pay for abortions.
A. government
B. husbands
C. boyfriends
D. health insurance
Answer: A
Page Reference: 415
67. Please indicate which of the following Supreme Court cases did NOT involve the issue of privacy.
A. Griswold v. Connecticut
B. Planned Parenthood of Pennsylvania v. Casey
C. Lawrence v. Texas
D. Mapp v. Ohio
E. All of the above cases dealt with privacy
Answer: D
Skill: Analysis
68. Which of the following activities is covered under the right to privacy?
A. Same-sex marriage
421
B. Physician-assisted suicide
C. Abortion
E. All of the above
Answer: C.
Page Reference: 415
Skill: Application
69. The right to privacy is specifically

A. found in the Tenth Amendment.
B. found in the Bill of Rights.
C. found in the main body of the Constitution.
D. not found in the main body of the Constitution or in its amendments.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 414
70. In ____________, the Supreme Court pulled together elements of the First, Third, Fourth, Fifth,
Ninth, and Fourteenth Amendments to recognize that personal privacy is one of the rights the
Constitution protects.
A. Lemon v. Kurtzman
D. Roe v. Wade
Answer: E
Page Reference: 414
71. In ______________the Supreme Court refused to extend constitutional protection to private relations
between homosexuals.
A. Bowers v. Hardwick
D. Romer v. Evans
Answer: A
Page Reference: 417
72. The Supreme Court also upheld, in_____________, a stop and frisk exception to the warrant
requirement when officers have reason to believe someone is armed and dangerous or has committed
or is about to commit a criminal offense.
A. Terry v. Ohio
422
D. Romer v. Evans
Answer: A
Page Reference: 418
73. Which amendment states the following: “The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses,
papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants
shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the
place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized?”
A. Fourteenth
B. Fourth
C. First
D. Third
E. Fifth
Answer: B
Page Reference: 417
74. Which amendment presents a complex area of the law that includes many possible exceptions to the
warrant requirement?
A. Fourteenth
B. Fourth
C. First
D. Third
E. Fifth
Answer: B
Page Reference: 417
75. Requirements that evidence unconstitutionally or illegally obtained be excluded from a criminal trial
refer to which of the following?
B. Exclusionary rule
C. Double jeopardy
D. Miranda rights
E. Due process
Answer: B
Page Reference: 418
76. The Supreme Court, in Miranda v. Arizona (1966), announced that suspects need to be notified of all
the following EXCEPT
A. the right to remain silent and that anything they say can and will be used against them.
B. the right to a fair trial.
423
C. the right to terminate questioning at any point.
D. the right to have an attorney present during questioning by police.
E. the right to have a lawyer appointed to represent them if they cannot afford to hire their own attorney.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 419
77. A(n) ___________ is concerned not with a person’s guilt or innocence but merely with whether there
is enough evidence to warrant a trial.
A. petit jury
B. impartial jury
C. grand jury
D. partial jury
E. appeals jury
Answer: C
Page Reference: 420
78. What Amendment also provides that no person shall be “subject for the same offense to be twice put
in jeopardy of life or limb?”
A. Fourteenth
B. Fourth
C. Fifth
D. Third
E. Ninth
Answer: C
Page Reference: 421
79. The __________Court made it easier to impose death sentences, cut back on appeals, and carry out
executions.
A. Warren
B. Rehnquist
C. Thomas
D. Scalia
E. O’Connor
Answer: B
Page Reference: 421
80. A search limited to a quick pat-down to check for weapons that may be used to assault the arresting
officer is known as what?
A. Ohio search
B. Lawrence search
C. Terry search
D. Warrantless search
424
E. Frisk search
Answer: C
Page Reference: 418
81. Protection against self-incrimination was originally developed to protect citizens against
A. double jeopardy.
B. eminent domain.
C. habeas corpus.
D. police brutality.
E. martial law.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 419
82. A true bill or indictment is associated with

A. a petit jury.
B. eminent domain.
C. plea bargaining.
D. a grand jury.
E. habeas corpus.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 420
83. An impartial jury must

A. consist of persons who represent a fair cross-section of the community.
B. be appointed by the prosecution.
C. consist of people that have a high school education.
D. be experts to consider testimony.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 420
84. A jury of 6–12 persons that determines the guilt or innocence in a civil or criminal action is called a
A. petit jury.
B. small jury.
C. grand jury.
D. impartial jury.
E. California jury.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 420
425
85. If a majority of the grand jurors agree that a trial is justified, they return a true bill, or
A. plea bargain.
B. indictment.
C. trial procedure.
D. Bill of Attainder.
E. trial approval.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 420
86. After indictment, prosecutors and the defense attorney usually discuss the possibility of a
A. plea bargain.
B. dismissal.
C. trial procedure.
D. mistrial.
E. no contest plea.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 423
87. The USA PATRIOT Act of 2001 did all of the following EXCEPT
A. expand the size of the court.
B. lower the requirement to approve warrants in cases of terrorism.
C. permit searches for foreign intelligence and evidence of terrorist activities.
D. restrict the access of foreign nationals within United States.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 429
1. Justice Felix Frankfurter observed: “The history of liberty has largely been the history of observance
of procedural safeguards.”
Answer: TRUE
Learning Objective: Opening Vignette
Page Reference: 401
2. Hamdan v. Rumsfeld underscored the fundamental nature of the writ of habeas corpus.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 402
3. According to the Constitution, ex post facto laws can be applied to civil laws.
Answer: FALSE
426
Page Reference: 403
4. Civil liberties are stated in the Fifth and Second Amendments.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 402
5. Civil rights are protected by the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 402
6. In Boumediene v. Bush, the Court said that Guantanamo Bay detainees did not have the right to
pursue habeas review in the federal courts.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 403
7. In Hamdan v. Rumsfeld (2006), the Court said that the president did not have the authority to try
enemy combatants by military commissions.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 402
8. It was not until the 14th amendment was adopted that there became a way to apply the Bill of Rights
to the actions of states.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 403
9. Gitlow v. New York resulted in the decision that freedom of speech is a basic right that no state may
deny.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 403
10. Selective incorporation of most provisions of the Bill Rights into the Fourteenth Amendment is
considered the most significant constitutional development that has occurred since the Constitution
was written.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 403
427
11. A due process clause is found in the Fifth Amendment and it limits the power of the national
government.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 403
12. Habeas corpus refers to the retroactive law making an act a crime, though it was not a crime when the
individual committed.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 402
13. The Bill of Rights places most personal liberty beyond the reach of government.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 403
14. Selective incorporation of the Bill of Rights into the Fourteenth Amendment in order to protect
individuals from state action would not have been supported by the framers of the Constitution.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 403
15. The due process clause is found in the Seventh Amendment.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 403
16. The distribution of religious and political pamphlets, leaflets, and handbills to the public is
constitutionally protected.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 404
17. In Miller v. California (1973), the court agreed on a constitutional definition of protected speech.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 409
18. Shield laws pertain to freedom of the press.

Answer: TRUE
428
Page Reference: 410
19. Speech is an absolute right.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 408
20. The preferred position doctrine is a means of interpreting the Second Amendment.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 408
21. Libel, obscenity, fighting words, and commercial speech are examples of what the preferred position
doctrine would protect citizens against.
Answer: FALSE
22. Commercial speech is NOT constitutionally protected.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 410
23. Prior restraint occurs when the speaker refuses to take part in some unconstitutional dialogue.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 408
24. In content or viewpoint neutrality we apply law to all kinds of speech and to all views, not just those
that are unpopular or divisive.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 409
25. Libel is spoken defamation of a person.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 409
26. In 44 Liquormart, Inc. v. Rhode Island, the U.S. Supreme Court struck down a law forbidding the
sale of alcohol to minors.
429
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 410
27. Commercial speech has been given more protections by the First Amendment due to recent
interpretations.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 410
28. A general definition of obscenity is that it lacks correct connotations with respect to a particular
object being addressed.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 409
29. Civil disobedience is breaking the law but in a nonviolent manner.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 412
30. According to the text, liberal justices usually support a strict separation of church and state, including
indirect aid, such as scholarships to private religious schools.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 406
31. The Court in New York Times Co. v. Sullivan severely limited state power to award monetary
damages in libel suits brought by public officials against critics of official conduct.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 409
32. Under the clear and present danger test, the government can restrict speech if someone uses his or her
speech to incite a riot.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 408
33. The long-term trend over the course of American history has been for the Supreme Court to place
more and more restrictions on free speech.
Answer: FALSE
430
Skill: Analysis
34. The Supreme Court has broadly held that “hate speech” cannot be silenced.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 410
35. The Supreme Court acts on the premise that although people are free to believe what they want, they
are not always free to act on their religious beliefs.
Answer: TRUE
36. The Lemon test has been consistently used by the Supreme Court in determining the separation
between government and religion.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 406
37. Supreme Court guidelines for constitutionally protected free expression includes the absolute right to
say whatever one wants to whomever, whenever.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 408
38. The Supreme Court has ruled that libel of public officials requires proof of actual malice, which has
been defined as “a knowing or reckless disregard for the truth.”
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 409
39. The Supreme Court has held that the exercise of free expression through the use of public assembly
cannot be restricted.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 412
40. The framers of the Constitution wanted to limit government so it could not endanger the right of the
people to use and enjoy their property.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 412
431
41. Kelo v. City of New London resulted in the decision that governments must compensate property
owners when they make the land unsuitable for its original use.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 413
42. Procedural due process refers to the methods by which a law is applied.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 413
43. The most important extension of substantive due process in recent decades has protected the right to
bear arms.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 414
44. The right to privacy was central to the ruling in Roe v. Wade.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 415
45. Homosexual marriages, physician-assisted suicide, and DNA testing by police are all constitutionally
protected under the concept of privacy.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 417
46. Police have to, under oath, indicate that they have just cause in order to obtain a search warrant.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 417
47. The Fifth Amendment holds the provision that persons shall not be compelled to testify against
themselves in criminal prosecutions.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 419
48. After indictment, prosecutors and the defense attorney usually discuss the possibility of a dismissal.
Answer: FALSE
432
Page Reference: 420
49. Illegal police searches are included under the exclusionary rule, which provides that certain evidence
cannot be used to convict a person in a criminal trial.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 418
50. The Rehnquist Court made it harder to impose death sentences.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 421
Short Answer Questions
1. What is the writ of habeas corpus?

Skill: Analysis
2. What do ex post facto laws do and what does the Constitution do to prevent them?
Skill: Analysis
3. What are civil liberties?

Skill: Analysis
4. Where is the due process clause stated and what does it do?
Skill: Analysis
5. When referring to selective incorporation we are speaking of what?

Skill: Analysis
6. What is the establishment clause?

Skill: Analysis
7. What is prior restraint? Provide an example.

Skill: Application
8. What is libel and can you show an example of it?

Skill: Application
433
9. What forms of speech are unprotected?
Skill: Application
10. Define and give an example of eminent domain.

Skill: Application
11. Define and give an example of regulatory takings.

Skill: Application
12. Define and give an example of property rights.

Skill: Application
13. What is procedural due process? How does it affect the development and enforcement of laws?
Skill: Analysis
14. Abortion and privacy rights are still to this day a touchy subject. What is the landmark case associated
with abortion? When can the state interests in protecting the unborn child be warranted?
Skill: Analysis
15. What is the exclusionary rule? What do critics think of it?

Skill: Evaluation
16. What is the Miranda Warning? What information must it include?

Skill: Analysis
17. What is an indictment?

18. What is double jeopardy?

Essay Questions
1. What is the Bill of Rights, what does it protect, and does it apply to state governments? What are civil
liberties and civil rights?
Skill: Analysis
434
2. In the First Amendment there are two important clauses. What are they? What are some of the tests
and cases that came from them?
Skill: Analysis
3. How do we distinguish among belief, speech, and action?

Skill: Evaluation
4. What are the constitutional tests of speech restrictions? Explain all three.
Skill: Analysis
5. How must laws be worded in order to avoid ambiguity? How does this affect prior restraint and
content or viewpoint neutrality?
Skill: Analysis
6. What are the different types of unprotected speech? Explain each.

Skill: Evaluation
7. How does the Constitution protect the rights of free assembly? Does the right to peaceful assembly
include the right to deliberately but nonviolently break the law?
Skill: Analysis
8. What are property rights? What are the various powers and limitations the government has when it
comes to property?
Skill: Analysis
9. What are the due process rights? Explain each of them.

Skill: Analysis
10. Privacy rights have recently became an extension of substantive due process rights. What is
substantive due process? What are the three aspects of privacy rights?
Skill: Analysis
11. How do privacy rights extend to sexual orientation?

Skill: Analysis
12. What are the rights of a criminal suspect? What are some of the requirements that the police must
meet to make sure these rights are not violated?
Skill: Analysis
435
13. What are fair trial procedures?
Skill: Evaluation
436
Chapter 16 – Civil Rights
1. Naturalized citizens are NOT required to demonstrate that they

A. are of good moral character.
B. are able to speak and write English.
C. know the principles of U.S. government.
D. have a sponsoring family.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 431
Skill: Application
2. Slavery was abolished and African Americans’ equal rights and voting rights were granted by the
_____ Amendments.
A. Eighteenth, Nineteenth, and Twentieth
B. Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth
C. Sixteenth, Seventeenth, and Eighteenth
D. Twelfth and Sixteenth
E. Fourth, Sixth, and Ninth
Answer: B
Page Reference: 433
3. Wyoming was the first state to

A. give women the right to vote.
B. desegregate schools.
C. pass a civil disobedience mandate.
D. provide health facilities for Native Americans.
E. ban white primaries.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 435
4. Upon passage of the Nineteenth Amendment, women

A. received equal pay.
B. put an end to legal discrimination.
C. received equal rights.
D. got the right to vote.
E. were allowed to own land.
Answer: D
437
Page Reference: 435
5. The Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka ruling found racial segregation in schools violated the
A. due process clause of the Tenth Amendment.
B. equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
C. equal protection clause of the Tenth Amendment.
D. due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
E. due process clause of the Fifth Amendment.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 433
6. A massive social, economic, and political movement focused on eliminating discrimination began on
December 1, 1955 when ____________________ refused to give up her seat to a white man on a bus
as the law required her to do.
A. Rosa Parks
B. Jane Sullivan
C. Margaret Banks
D. Connie Simmons
E. Elizabeth Cady Stanton
Answer: A
Page Reference: 434
7. During ________________, African Americans began to migrate to northern cities to seek jobs in
war factories.
A. World War I
B. World War II
C. the Civil War
D. the Industrial Revolution
E. the Great Depression
Answer: A
Page Reference: 433
8. Rights that are explicitly or implicitly guaranteed by the Constitution are referred to as
A. human rights.
B. civil rights.
C. protected rights.
D. fundamental rights.
E. Both A and B
Answer: D
Page Reference: 441
438
9. Strict scrutiny is a
A. standard developed by the courts to test the constitutionality of a law; when applied, a law is
constitutional as long as it meets a reasonable government interest.
B. test that has been applied when a law classifies based on sex; to be upheld, the law must meet an
important government interest.
C. clause in the Fourteenth Amendment that forbids any state to deny to any person within its jurisdiction
the equal protection of the laws.
D. clause in the Fifth Amendment Prohibiting state governments from depriving any person of life,
liberty, or property without due process of law.
E. test applied by the court when a classification is based on race; the government must show that there is
a compelling reason for the law and no other less restrictive way to meet the interest.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 440
10. An example of a quasi-suspect class that requires heightened scrutiny is

A. race.
B. age.
C. disability.
D. gender.
E. ethnicity.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 440
Skill: Application
11. Literacy tests and poll taxes were mechanisms to keep what minority from voting?
A. Asians
B. Mexicans
C. Native Americans
D. African Americans
E. All of the above
Answer: D
Page Reference: 442
12. In Smith v. Allwright the court deemed what unconstitutional?

A. Literacy tests
B. Poll taxes
C. White primaries
D. Unfair registration requirements
E. All of the above
Answer: C
Page Reference: 443
439
13. In Plessy v. Ferguson (1896), the Supreme Court endorsed the view that racial segregation did NOT
constitute discrimination if
A. there was no intent to discriminate.
B. it was a private act rather than an act of government.
C. equal accommodations were provided for the members of both races.
D. it was a result of de facto segregation.
E. All of the above
Answer: C
Page Reference: 445
14. In University of California Regents v. Bakke (1978), the Supreme Court ruled what unconstitutional?
A. Creating quotas
B. Admitting students based on sexual orientation
C. Only admitting students in the top 10% of their class
D. Requiring SAT scores for admission
E. Taking race into account when admitting students
Answer: A
Page Reference: 450
15. Segregation imposed by law is known as ___________ segregation.

A. de facto
B. restrictive covenant
C. discriminatory
D. de jure
Answer: D
Page Reference: 448
1. Dual citizenship refers to having citizenship from more than one country.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 431
2. Naturalization requires new citizens to swear to support and defend the Constitution.
Answer: TRUE
3. The women’s rights movement was originally aligned with the abolition movement.
Answer: TRUE
440
Page Reference: 435
4. Native Americans have the most successful history of integrating into mainstream America.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 439
5. Strict scrutiny is a test that has been applied when a law classifies based on sex; to be upheld, the law
must meet an important government interest.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 440
6. Although the equal protection clause only applies to states, the federal government interprets the due
process clause as imposing the same restraints on the national government as the equal protection
clause imposes on states.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 439
7. According to the Constitution, local governments have most of the power to regulate elections.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 442
8. An owner may refuse to sell or rent to a person based on physical handicap.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 446
9. Remedial actions designed to overcome the effects of discrimination against women and minorities is
known as affirmative action.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 450
10. The Supreme Court has declared all affirmative action programs in the United States unconstitutional.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 450
441
Chapter Examination
1. ___________ refer to the rights of all people to be free from irrational discrimination such as that
based on race, religion, gender, or ethnic origin.
A. Natural rights
B. Civil liberties
C. Affirmative actions
D. Civil rights
E. Naturalizations
Answer: D
Page Reference: 430
2. What are we referring to when we speak of rights of all people to dignity and worth?
A. Natural rights
B. Civil liberties
C. Affirmative action
D. Civil Rights
E. Naturalization
Answer: A
Page Reference: 430
3. ____________ is remedial action designed to overcome the effects of discrimination against

minorities and women.
A. Social Security
B. Repatriation
C. Affirmative action
D. Civil Rights
E. Naturalization
Answer: C
Page Reference: 430
4. Naturalization requires new citizens to do all of the following EXCEPT

A. be able to read, write, and speak English.
B. swear to support and defend the Constitution.
C. promise to bear arms on behalf of the United States when required by law.
D. agree to never renounce their new citizenship.
E. All of the above are required
Answer: D
Page Reference: 430
Skill: Application
442
5. All of the following are naturalization requirements EXCEPT what?
A. Be over age 21
B. Be lawfully admitted to the United States for permanent residence and have resided in the United
States for at least five years and in the state for at least six months
C. File a petition of naturalization with a clerk of a court of record (federal or state) verified by two
witnesses
D. Be able to read, write, and speak English
E. Possess a good moral character
Answer: A
Page Reference: 430
Skill: Application
6. The right to renounce one’s citizenship is called

A. expatriation.
B. naturalization.
C. renunciation.
D. abdication.
E. retaliation.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 431
7. ___________, as understood in the Fourteenth Amendment, means the place a person calls home.
A. Homestead
B. Dwellings
C. Hovels
D. Residences
E. Housing
Answer: D
Page Reference: 431
8. Residence, as understood in which amendment, means the place a person calls home?
A. Fourteenth
B. Fifteenth
C. Nineteenth
D. Fifth
E. Eight
Answer: A
Page Reference: 431
9. Our most important rights primarily flow from what type of citizenship?
A. Local
B. State
443
C. County
D. National
E. Town
Answer: B
Page Reference: 431
10. Aliens do NOT have the right to

A. a jury trial.
B. vote.
C. freedom of religion.
D. attend school.
E. emergency medical care.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 432
Skill: Application
11. Civil rights issues deal with whether or not certain classifications of people are treated equally by
government. Which of the following group of individuals does NOT fall into this classification
scheme?
A. African Americans
B. Women
C. Gays
D. Republicans
E. All of the above fit the scheme
Answer: D
Page Reference: 430
Skill: Analysis
12. The basic right of citizenship was NOT given constitutional protection until _______________.
A. 1868
B. 1820
C. 1955
D. 1979
E. 1900
Answer: A
Page Reference: 430
13. What act authorized the president to detain and expel citizens of a country with whom we are at war?
A. Enemy Alien Act of 1798
B. Sedition Act of 1900
C. Terrorism Act of 2004
D. Patriot Act of 2001
Answer: A
444
Page Reference: 432
14. Which of the following is a factor that underlies inequality?

A. Wealth
B. Race
C. Sexual orientation
D. Gender
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Page Reference: 430
Skill: Analysis
15. Which of the following rights and privileges may be restricted in their application to aliens in the
United States?
A. Religion
B. Welfare
C. Emergency medical care
D. All of the above
Answer: B
Page Reference: 432
16. As a result of the northern victory in the American Civil War, what amendments became part of the
Constitution?
A. Fourteenth and Fifteenth
B. Tenth, Eleventh, and Fourteenth
C. Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth
D. Tenth and Eleventh
E. All of the above
Answer: C
Page Reference: 433
17. During World War I (1914–1918), who began to migrate to northern cities to seek jobs in war
factories?
A. Women
B. Chinese
C. Mexicans
D. African Americans
E. Farmers
Answer: D
Page Reference: 433
445
18. What landmark ruling prohibited racially segregated public schools and subsequently struck down
most of the devices that state and local authorities had used to keep African Americans from voting?
A. Boumediene v. Bush
C. Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka
D. Romer v. Evans
Answer: C
Page Reference: 433
19. Harry S. Truman and _________ used their executive authority to fight segregation in the armed
services and the federal bureaucracy.
A. John F. Kennedy
B. Dwight D. Eisenhower
C. Theodore Roosevelt
D. Calvin Coolidge
E. Herbert Hoover
Answer: B
Page Reference: 433
20. Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. advocated a doctrine of

A. economic crisis.
B. nonviolent resistance.
C. armed resistance.
D. violent demonstrations.
E. just action of citizens.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 434
21. Rosa Parks refused to give up her seat on a public bus in the city of
A. Atlanta, Georgia.
B. Montgomery, Alabama.
C. Baton Rouge, Louisiana.
D. Washington, D.C.
E. Memphis, Tennessee.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 434
22. Lyndon B. Johnson was crucial to the passage of the

A. Civil Rights Act of 1964.
B. Voting Rights Act of 1965.
446
C. Civil Service Reform Act of 1978.
D. Civil Rights Act of 1957.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 434
23. Which state was the first to give women the right to vote?
A. New York
B. California
C. Wyoming
D. Kansas
E. Iowa
Answer: C
Page Reference: 435
24. Women won the right to vote with the ratification of what amendment?
A. Sixteenth
B. Thirteenth
C. Nineteenth
D. Fifteenth
E. Fourteenth
Answer: C
Page Reference: 435
25. In 2001 what state became the first big state to have a white minority?
A. Texas
B. Nevada
C. New Mexico
D. California
E. Louisiana
Answer: D
Page Reference: 437
26. The first Asians to come to the United States in significant numbers were
A. Chinese.
B. Japanese.
C. Koreans.
D. Vietnamese.
E. A and B
Answer: A
Page Reference: 437
447
27. All of the following are true about Native Americans EXCEPT
A. there are about 2 million people who designate themselves as Native Americans in census figures.
B. there is great diversity among and between Native American groups.
C. about 90% of Native Americans live on reservations.
D. states are precluded from taxing and regulating the tribes or extending state jurisdiction of their courts
over the tribes unless authorized to do so by Congress.
E. discrimination of the Native Americans continued as government programs tried to assimilate them to
American culture.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 439
28. Problems of Native Americans include all of the following EXCEPT

A. alcoholism.
B. lack of adequate health care facilities.
C. poverty.
D. diabetes.
E. inability to vote in state and federal elections.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 439
29. In the 1930s, African Americans resorted to which of these strategies to secure their rights?
A. Violence
B. Litigation
C. Public appeal
D. Persuasion
E. Prayer
Answer: B
Page Reference: 433
30. The civil rights movement produced which charismatic leader during the Montgomery, Alabama, bus
boycott of 1955?
A. James Baldwin
B. Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr.
C. Dick Gregory
D. Jesse Jackson
E. Malcolm X
Answer: B
Page Reference: 434
448
31. Half of all Hispanic Americans live in the two U.S. states of
A. California and Texas.
B. New York and Louisiana.
C. Florida and New Mexico.
D. Michigan and Arizona.
E. California and Florida.
Answer: A
32. During World War II, many citizens of which group were interned in prison camps?
A. African Americans
B. German Americans
C. Jewish Americans
D. Japanese Americans
E. Native Americans
Answer: D
Page Reference: 438
33. A(n) ________ is a tract of land given to the Native American tribal nations by treaty.
A. allotment
B. reservation
C. preserve
D. forest preserve
E. national park
Answer: B
34. The term Asian American describes approximately _________ people from many different countries
and ethnic backgrounds.
A. 15 million
B. 30 million
C. 10 million
D. 20 million
E. 25 million
Answer: C
Page Reference: 437
35. The 1994 California proposition that proposed a ban on medical, educational, and social services to
illegal immigrants was named
A. Proposition 11.
B. Proposition 13.
C. Proposition 200.
449
D. Proposition 187.
E. Proposition 128.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 436
36. _____________ and Dwight D. Eisenhower used their executive authority to fight segregation in the
armed services and the federal bureaucracy.
A. John F. Kennedy
B. Harry S. Truman
C. Theodore Roosevelt
D. Calvin Coolidge
E. Herbert Hoover
Answer: B
Page Reference: 433
37. Which of the following events was NOT a key moment in the Civil Rights Movement that led to the
passage of the Civil Rights Act in 1964?
A. The Southern Christian Leadership Conference was formed
B. Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. organized a march on Washington, D.C.
C. Rosa Parks refused to move to the back of the bus.
D. Media coverage of nonviolent protests turned public opinion against civil rights.
E. None of the above was a key moment
Answer: D
Skill: Analysis
38. Which of the following is NOT true of members of the Hispanic population in the United States?
A. Most speak only Spanish
B. They live primarily in California and Texas
C. Their political influence is not proportionate to their numbers
D. They have experienced discrimination in employment, housing, education and access to public
accommodations
E. None of the above. All are true of the Hispanic population in the United States.
Answer: A
Skill: Analysis
39. Overt discrimination against the Japanese in the early part of this century included
A. exclusion from labor organizations.
B. exclusion from neighborhood schools.
C. laws that denied the Japanese the right to own land
E. All of the above
Answer: E
450
Page Reference: 438
Skill: Application
40. Which president of the United States made civil rights legislation his highest priority?
A. Dwight D. Eisenhower
B. Lyndon B. Johnson
C. Richard M. Nixon
D. Gerald R. Ford
E. Bill Clinton
Answer: B
Page Reference: 434
41. The famous “I Have a Dream” speech was delivered by which of the following civil rights activists?
A. Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr.
B. Ralph Abernathy
C. Jesse Jackson
D. Clarence Thomas
E. Malcolm X
Answer: A
Page Reference: 434
42. Nearly one-third of Filipino Americans live in

A. New York.
B. Texas.
C. California.
D. Florida.
E. Arizona.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 438
43. The equal protection clause that forbids states from denying any person within its jurisdiction the
equal protection of the laws is stated in what amendment?
A. Sixteenth
B. Thirteenth
C. Nineteenth
D. Fifteenth
E. Fourteenth
Answer: E
Page Reference: 439
451
44. By interpretation, what amendment forbids the national government to deny to any person within its
jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws?
A. First
B. Fifth
C. Nineteenth
D. Fifteenth
E. Fourteenth
Answer: B
Page Reference: 439
45. The restraints of equal protection apply to

A. private individuals as well as governments.
B. actions of governments, not private individuals.
C. to commercial activities of large corporations.
D. actions of the federal government only.
E. All of the above
Answer: B
Page Reference: 439
46. In which amendment is the due process clause found?

A. Second
B. Third
C. Fourth
D. Fifth
E. First
Answer: D
Page Reference: 439
47. Which amendment prohibits state governments from depriving any person of life, liberty, or property
without due process of law?
A. Fourteenth
B. Thirteenth
C. Fourth
D. Fifth
E. First
Answer: A
Page Reference: 439
48. _____________ is a test applied by the court when a classification is based on race; the government
must show that there is a compelling reason for the law and no other less restrictive way to meet the
interest.
A. Rational basis
452
B. Strict scrutiny
C. Heightened scrutiny
D. Suspect class
E. Legitimate basis
Answer: B
Page Reference: 440
49. Rational basis is a

the equal protection of the law.
D. clause in the Fifth Amendment Prohibiting state governments from depriving any person of life,
Answer: A
Page Reference: 440
50. When it is believed that a law treats people differently because of their race, national origin, or
religion, the courts treat the case under the test of
A. rational basis.
B. strict scrutiny.
C. heightened scrutiny.
D. suspect class.
E. legitimate basis.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 440
51. Heightened scrutiny is a

the equal protection of the law.
D. clause in the Fifth Amendment prohibiting state governments from depriving any person of life,
Answer: B
453
Page Reference: 440
52. _____________ is a test that has been applied when a law classifies based on sex; to be upheld, the
law must meet an important government interest.
A. Rational basis
B. Strict scrutiny
D. Suspect class
E. Legitimate basis
Answer: C
Page Reference: 440
53. According to Table 16–2 the Civil Rights Act of 1957

A. makes it a federal crime to prevent persons from voting in federal elections.
B. bars discrimination in employment or in public accommodations on the basis of race, color, religion,
sex, or national origin, and created the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
C. authorizes the appointment of federal examiners to register voters in areas with a history of
discrimination.
D. prohibits job discrimination against workers or job applicants aged 40 through 65 and prohibits
mandatory retirement.
E. prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, or national origin in the sale or rental of
most housing.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 440
Skill: Analysis
54. According to Table 16–2 the Civil Rights Act of 1964

discrimination.
most housing.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 440
Skill: Analysis
55. According to Table 16–2 the Age Discrimination in Employment Act 1967
454
discrimination.
most housing.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 440
Skill: Analysis
56. Fundamental rights refer to

A. human rights.
B. civil rights.
C. protected rights.
D. rights explicitly or implicitly guaranteed by the Constitution.
E. Both A and B
Answer: D
Page Reference: 441
57. Which particular amendment’s equal protection clause is only one of the legal bases for civil rights
protections in the United States?
A. Sixteenth
B. Thirteenth
C. Nineteenth
D. Fifteenth
E. Fourteenth
Answer: E
Page Reference: 441
58. Which standard was developed by the courts to test the constitutionality of a law that differentiates
based on age?
A. Rational basis test
B. Due process test
C. Equal protection test
D. Strict scrutiny test
E. Habeas corpus test
Answer: A
Page Reference: 440
59. Which one of the following is unconstitutional as an age classification?

A. Driver licenses may not be issued to those under 16.
B. Alcohol may not be sold to those persons under 21.
C. A state policeman is retired at age 55.
D. An applicant for a teaching position (age 57) is rejected on the basis of age.
455
Answer: D
Page Reference: 440
Skill: Application
60. The heightened scrutiny test is applied to cases in which what kind of discrimination is alleged?
A. Racial
B. Age
C. Sexual orientation
D. Gender
E. Religion
Answer: D
Page Reference: 440
Skill: Analysis
61. Which of the following is NOT a guideline used by the Supreme Court to apply the equal protection
clause to legislation?
A. Separate but equal test
B. Rational basis test
C. Suspect classification test
D. Strict scrutiny test
E. Heightened scrutiny test
Answer: A
Page Reference: 440
Skill: Analysis
62. Which of the following statements is (are) FALSE with regard to equal rights in the United States?
A. Disadvantaged Americans have had to struggle for equal rights.
B. In legal terms, Americans have attained equal protection under the law.
C. Minorities in America only receive a small share of America’s opportunities.
D. Minorities receive their fair share of opportunities in America.
E. All of the above are correct
Answer: D
Page Reference: 439
63. The equal protection clause only applies to the actions of

A. political parties.
B. individuals.
C. governments.
D. citizen groups.
E. corporations.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 439
456
64. _____________ is a standard developed by the courts to test the constitutionality of certain laws.
When applied, a law is constitutional as long as it meets a reasonable government interest.
A. Rational basis
B. Strict scrutiny
D. Suspect class
E. Legitimate basis
Answer: A
Page Reference: 440
65. According to Table 16–2 the Fair Housing Act of 1968

discrimination.
most housing.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 440
Skill: Analysis
66. According to the Constitution, the _________ government(s) has (have) most of the power to regulate
elections.
A. national
B. state
C. local
D. interstate
E. national and local
Answer: B
Page Reference: 442
67. In what case did the Court deem white primaries unconstitutional?
A. Smith v. Allwright
D. Romer v. Evans
Answer: A
Page Reference: 443
457
68. In 1964, which amendment eliminated the poll tax?
A. Nineteenth
B. Twentieth
C. Twenty-Third
D. Twenty-Fourth
E. Thirtieth
Answer: D
Page Reference: 443
69. Legislation designed and enacted in 1965 that was to ensure that no person would be deprived of the
right to vote in any election for any office because of color or race was the
A. Civil Rights Act.
B. Voting Registration Act.
C. Voting Rights Act.
D. Election Reform Laws.
E. Equal Rights Amendment.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 444
70. Under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act, age, sex, and handicap may
A. be considered where occupational qualifications are absolutely necessary to the normal operation of a
particular business.
B. be considered when it involves veteran disabilities.
C. not be considered when hiring or in promotions.
D. be considered by private employers.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 446
71. Mechanisms to keep blacks from voting that are now illegal included
A. literacy tests.
B. poll taxes.
C. white primaries.
D. unfair registration requirements.
E. all of the above
Answer: E
72. In ______________, the Supreme Court endorsed the view that racial segregation did not constitute
discrimination if equal accommodations were provided for the members of both races.
458
B. Plessy v. Ferguson
D. Romer v. Evans
Answer: B
Page Reference: 445
73. ______________ were state laws that were used throughout the South requiring public facilities and
accommodations to be segregated by race.
A. Separate but equal laws
B. Equal segregation laws
C. Segregation reform laws
D. Jim Crow laws
E. Restrictive covenants
Answer: D
Page Reference: 445
74. The 1896 Supreme Court ruling that approved of “separate but equal” was
A. Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka.
B. Plessy v. Ferguson.
C. Roe v. Wade.
D. Dred Scott.
E. Lawrence v. Texas.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 445
75. _____________ is a provision in a deed to real property prohibiting its sale to a person of a particular
race or religion. Judicial enforcement of such deeds is unconstitutional.
A. Property rights
B. Eminent domain
C. Regulatory taking
D. Restrictive covenant
E. Prohibiting sales
Answer: D
Page Reference: 446
76. What court ruling determined that “separate but equal” is a contradiction in terms?
D. Romer v. Evans
459
Answer: C
Page Reference: 445
77. The Supreme Court has sustained the right of judges to order school districts to bus students to
overcome racial imbalance if and only if it is to remedy the consequences of
A. poor school performance by individual students.
B. unequal school quality.
C. de facto segregation.
D. de jure segregation.
E. Jim Crow laws.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 448
78. In what case did the Supreme Court rule the California plan unconstitutional because it created a
quota—a set number of admissions from which whites were excluded solely because of race?
A. University of California Regents v. Bakke
D. Romer v. California
Answer: A
Page Reference: 450
79. In what ruling did the Court strike down the University of Michigan’s undergraduate admission
policy as too mechanical and not narrowly tailored to give applicants “individualized consideration”
as Bakke required?
B. Grutter v. Bollinger
C. Gratz v. Bollinger
E. Griswold v. California
Answer: C
Page Reference: 450
80. In _____________ the Court ruled that the law school made “special efforts” to achieve racial and
ethnic diversity; but unlike the undergraduate program, it did not use a point system based in part on
race.
B. Grutter v. Bollinger
C. Gratz v. Bollinger
E. Griswold v. California
460
Answer: B
Page Reference: 450
81. What California proposition amends the state constitution to forbid state agencies to discriminate
against or grant preferential treatment to any individual or group on the basis of race, sex, color,
ethnicity, or national origin in public employment, public education, or public contracting, except
where necessary to comply with a federal requirement?
A. 100
B. 390
C. 325
D. 209
E. 106
Answer: D
Page Reference: 451
82. ____________________ consists of programs developed to provide equal opportunities in areas such
as employment and education to women, minorities, and members of traditionally disadvantaged
groups.
A. Affirmative action
B. A system of quotas
C. Reverse discrimination
D. Equal opportunity
Answer: A
Page Reference: 450
83. In the 1990s, Supreme Court decisions regarding affirmative action

A. outlawed it altogether.
B. narrowed its application.
C. supported unqualified use of the policy.
D. allowed the strengthening of the quota system.
E. All of the above
Answer: B
84. Supporters call remedies to overcome the consequences of discrimination against minority
populations
A. affirmative action.
B. reverse discrimination.
C. equality of results.
D. equality of opportunity.
461
Answer: A
Page Reference: 450
85. Opponents of affirmative action argue that the policy

A. results in reverse discrimination against white males.
B. soon becomes nothing more than a quota system, which violates the law.
C. should only apply to individuals who are personally discriminated against.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Page Reference: 450
Skill: Analysis
86. The economic situation of lower-income African Americans as compared to whites has
A. improved greatly in terms of wages but not employment.
B. improved greatly in terms of employment but not wages.
C. not improved very much since the 1960s.
D. improved in both the areas of wages and employment.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 452
1. Civil rights are rights of all people to be free from irrational discrimination such as that based on race,
religion, gender, or ethnic origin.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 430
2. When we speak of rights of all people to dignity and worth we are referring to civil liberties.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 430
3. Civil rights are remedial actions designed to overcome the effects of discrimination against minorities
and women.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 430
462
4. Expatriates are citizens that renounce their citizenship.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 431
5. Residence, as understood in the Fourteenth Amendment, means the place a person calls home.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 431
6. Most of our most important rights come from national citizenship.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 431
7. Equality of opportunity refers to the belief that there should be a level playing field for all individuals,
and this can be achieved through the provision of federal assistance to the poor and disadvantaged.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 430
8. The Slaughter-House Cases (1873) resulted in the decision that distinguished between the privileges
of U.S. citizens and those of state citizens.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 431
9. During World War I blacks began migrating to northern cities to seek jobs in war factories.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 433
10. Harry S. Truman and Dwight D. Eisenhower used their executive authority to fight segregation in the
armed services and the federal bureaucracy.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 433
11. Rosa Parks refused to give up her seat on a public bus in the city of Atlanta, Georgia.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 434
463
12. Lyndon B. Johnson was crucial in the passage of the Voting Rights Act of 1965.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 434
13. New York was the first state to allow women the right to vote.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 435
14. Women won the right to vote with the ratification of the Nineteenth Amendment.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 435
15. In 2001 Texas became the first state to have a white minority.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 437
16. The term “Asian American” describes approximately 10 million people from many different countries
and ethnic backgrounds.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 437
17. The first Asians to come to the United States were Japanese.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 437
18. Nearly one-third of Filipino Americans live in New York.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 438
19. Native Americans are NOT involved in politics because they lack proper schools and healthcare
facilities, which leads to unhealthy lifestyles and early deaths.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 439
464
20. Women’s suffrage is the right of women to receive equal treatment in all areas of government.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 435
21. Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. used nonviolent civil disobedience as a key strategy in his efforts to
secure civil rights for African Americans.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 434
22. One form of inequality common to states around the world is gender inequality.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 436
23. Korematsu v. United States resulted in the decision that overruled Abraham Lincoln’s use of military
courts to try civilians.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 438
24. The state is only required to protect the rights that are outlined in its constitutional amendments.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 439
Skill: Analysis
25. Strict scrutiny is a standard developed by the courts to test the constitutionality of a law; when
applied, a law is constitutional as long as it meets a reasonable government interest.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 440
26. The Civil Rights Act of 1957 makes it a federal crime to prevent a person from voting in a federal
election.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 440
27. Discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, or national origin in the sale or rental of most
housing is prohibited by the Fair Housing Act of 1968.
Answer: TRUE
465
Page Reference: 440
28. Rights that are explicitly or implicitly guaranteed by the Government are often referred to as
fundamental rights.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 441
29. The equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment declares that no state shall “deny to any
person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.”
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 439
30. The rule imposed by a restaurant to require jackets and ties for male customers does NOT violate the
Constitution.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 440
31. Age is a suspect classification.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 441
32. In many southern states, literacy tests were used to discriminate against African Americans who
wanted to vote.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 442
33. In Smith v. Allwright the Supreme Court deemed white primaries unconstitutional.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 443
34. In Plessy v. Ferguson (1896), the Supreme Court endorsed the view that racial segregation did NOT
constitute discrimination if equal accommodations were provided for the members of both races.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 445
466
35. In Smith v. Allwright, it was ruled that “separate but equal” institutions did NOT violate the
Constitution.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 445
36. California proposition 209 amends the state constitution to forbid state agencies to discriminate
against or grant preferential treatment to any individual or group on the basis of race, sex, color,
ethnicity, or national origin in public employment, public education, or public contracting, except
where necessary to comply with a federal requirement.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 451
37. Grutter v. Bollinger (2003) reaffirmed Bakke on the permissibility of affirmative action programs.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 450-451
38. One of the strongest arguments against affirmative action comes from individuals who believe that
affirmative action discriminates against white females.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 449-450
39. The Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka decision encouraged the women’s movement to continue
its struggle for civil rights.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 447
40. One of the most controversial debates surrounding affirmative action is whether the program
promotes or denies equality.
Answer: TRUE
41. Affirmative action is designed to discourage help to people who have been disadvantaged because
they belong to a certain group.
Answer: FALSE
467
1. Explain what affirmative action is.

Skill: Analysis
2. Explain naturalization and its two requirements.

Skill: Analysis
3. What is dual citizenship and right of expatriation?

Skill: Analysis
4. What are natural rights and civil rights?

Skill: Analysis
5. Define women’s suffrage. What was the first major victory for the cause?
Skill: Analysis
6. What are some of the discriminations Hispanics have faced?

Skill: Analysis
7. What are some of the discriminations Japanese Americans have faced?

Skill: Analysis
8. What some of the injustices that Native Americans have to deal with?
Skill: Analysis
9. What is the due process clause and how does it help apply the equal protection clause to the national
government?
Skill: Analysis
10. Explain the heightened scrutiny test.

Skill: Analysis
11. What are fundamental rights? Provide an example.

Skill: Application
12. How did the Civil Rights Act of 1964 alter laws concerning public accommodations?
468
Skill: Analysis
13. Explain the rational test.

Skill: Analysis
14. Explain the strict scrutiny test.

Skill: Analysis
15. What are three ways in which African Americans were kept from voting? Explain each.
Skill: Analysis
16. What is the significance of the Supreme Court case Plessy v. Ferguson?
Skill: Analysis
17. How did Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka (1954) change our understanding of segregation?
Skill: Analysis
Essay Questions
1. Evaluate the rights of U.S. citizens and the rights of aliens.

Skill: Evaluation
2. How is citizenship acquired? What are a least five requirements to become a U.S. citizen? What is
dual citizenship?
Skill: Analysis
3. Explain the Native American experience from the 1800s to present. What are some of the inequalities
that they have face and are still facing?
Skill: Analysis
4. Evaluate the state of racial equality from the 1830s to the 1930s. What role did the Supreme Court
play?
Skill: Evaluation
5. Explain why the slow response to racial inequalities led to civil disobedience and court rulings that
created legislation to combat these inequalities.
Skill: Analysis
6. Explain what the term “Asian American” entails. What are some of the forms of discrimination faced
by members of this ethnic group?
469
Skill: Analysis
7. How do the equal protection clause and the due process clause give the right to equal protection? Do
not forget to define what the equal protection clause and due process clause are.
Skill: Analysis
8. What are the three tests the Supreme Court uses to decide what is a constitutional and what is
unconstitutional?
Skill: Analysis
9. Explain the history of voting rights. How were blacks discriminated against? What where some of the
methods used to obstruct them from voting?
Skill: Analysis
10. What Supreme Court case declared white primaries unconstitutional? What other methods were
struck down as a result of this case? What happened in 1965?
Skill: Analysis
11. What did the Civil Rights Act of 1964 address? What about housing?
Skill: Analysis
12. Evaluate the struggle for integration in American school systems.

Skill: Evaluation
13. What is the controversy with affirmative action? What do proponents and opponents of such policies
argue? Why is it so important to have diversity?
Skill: Analysis
14. Why is civil rights legislation so important today?

Skill: Evaluation
470
Chapter 17 – Public Policy
1. Head Start programs for preschoolers are an example of what type of public policy?
A. Distributive
B. Reverse distributive
C. Redistributive
D. Cost-benefit
Answer: C
Page Reference: 461
Skill: Application
2. ____________________ is a specific course of action that government takes to address a problem.

A. Public policy
B. Negotiation
C. Arbitration
D. Introspection
E. Examination
Answer: A
Page Reference: 460
3. ____________________ policy is a policy that reduces benefits for all groups, such as imposing a tax
increase in society, to pursue a common goal or solve a common problem.
A. Joint
B. Utopian
C. Reverse distributive
D. Security
E. Regulatory
Answer: C
Page Reference: 461
4. The interaction of the people and their government, including citizens, interest groups, political
parties, and the institutions of government at all levels is known as
A. federalism.
B. public policy.
C. democracy.
D. politics.
E. pluralism.
471
Answer: D
Page Reference: 460
5. Redistributive policy in the United States tends to benefit

A. the rich.
B. individuals who are most active politically.
C. everyone equally.
D. the less fortunate.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 461
Skill: Analysis
6. What provides a daily record of all new and proposed federal government rules?
A. Congressional Record
B. Federal Register
C. Congressional Daily
D. Daily Federal Roster
E. Rules of Federal Government
Answer: B
Page Reference: 471
7. Which of the following is NOT a step in the policy making process?

A. Making rules for implementation
B. Choosing a tool for solving the problem
C. Deciding to act
D. Judicial review of proposed rules
E. Making assumptions about the world
Answer: D
8. A(n) _________________________ is a policy making instrument composed of a tightly related

alliance of a congressional committee, interest groups, and federal department or agency.
A. aluminum cage
B. iron triangle
C. glass house
D. titanium tryst
E. issue network
Answer: B
Page Reference: 467
472
9. What starts with the pre-problem stage?
A. Issue-attention cycle
B. Zero-sum game
C. Lobbying
D. Policy agenda
Answer: A
10. Political scientist Anthony Downs calls the stage where the problem moves into prolonged limbo
what?
A. Pre-problem stage
B. Alarmed discovery
C. Cost-benefit stage
D. Post-problem stage
E. Public-interest decline stage
Answer: D
Page Reference: 466
11. What type of policy makes a small-scale adjustment in an existing program?

A. Comprehensive
B. Punctuating
C. Incremental
D. Network
Answer: C
Page Reference: 466
12. Efforts to educate the public are an example of

A. material benefits.
B. tangible benefits.
C. symbolic benefits.
D. All of the above
Answer: C
Page Reference: 469
Skill: Application
13. Which of the following is NOT a stage in the issue-attention cycle?

A. Making rules for implementation
B. The gradual decline of intense public interest
C. The pre-problem stage
D. Alarmed discovery and euphoric enthusiasm on an issue
473
E. The realization that change will incur significant cost
Answer: A
14. A nongovernmental organization that seeks to influence public policy through research and education
is known as a(n)
A. institute.
B. think tank.
C. influence organization.
D. agenda-setter.
E. propaganda machine.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 464
15. Congress made it more difficult to create rules with the passage of the
A. Administrative Procedure Act of 1946.
B. National Deregulation Act of 1983.
C. Executive Reorganization Act of 1936.
D. Fair Practices in Regulation Act of 1997.
E. Proper Policy Process Act of 1975.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 471
1. The government turns to lobbying when it decides to solve a problem.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 460
2. Redistributive policies are often designed to impose sacrifices on all citizens in pursuit of a common
goal.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 461
3. Welfare is an example of a distributive policy.

Answer : FALSE
Skill: Application
474
4. Reducing college loan costs, increasing police patrols, and creating prescription drug coverage are
examples of politics.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 461
Skill: Application
5. Welfare, poverty programs, and Head Start for poor preschool children are examples of reverse
distributive policy.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 461
Skill: Application
6. The essential decision in setting the policy agenda is choosing the problem to be solved.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 463
Skill: Analysis
7. The issue-attention cycle begins with the realization that change will incur significant cost.
Answer: FALSE
8. Radical changes to public policy that occur only after the mobilization of large segments of society to
demand action are known as punctuating policy.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 466
9. A policy-making alliance that involves very strong ties among a congressional committee, an interest
group, and a federal department or agency is known as an issue network.
Answer: FALSE
Page reference: 467
10. The policy-making process always follows six key steps in the same order.
Answer : FALSE
475
Chapter Examination
1. When government decides to tackle a problem, it does so through

A. intervention.
B. elections.
C. public policy.
D. referenda.
E. constitutional convention.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 460
2. College students, businesses, environmental groups, and older Americans are examples of
A. the people.
B. politics.
C. outcomes.
D. government.
E. policies.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 460
Skill: Application
3. Reducing college loan costs, increasing police patrols, and creating prescription drug coverage are
examples of
A. the people.
B. politics.
C. outcomes.
D. government.
E. policies.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 460
Skill: Application
4. Politics is about interaction or process while policy is the __________ of that process.
A. input
B. development
C. policing
D. duration
E. product
Answer: E
Page Reference: 460
Skill: Analysis
476
5. In the 2008 presidential election campaign, Barack Obama told Joe the Plumber that his tax plan
would help “distribute the wealth” by increasing taxes on people making more than $250,000 a year.
This is an example of
A. communism.
B. redistributive policy.
C. anti-American behavior.
D. regressive policy.
E. paternalistic policy.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 461
Skill: Application
6. A policy that provides to one group of society while taking away benefits for another is known as
A. cost-benefit policy.
B. positive gains policy.
C. redistributive policy.
D. monetary policy.
E. social policy.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 461
7. Welfare, poverty programs, and Head Start for poor preschool children are examples of
_________________ policy.
A. redistributive
B. conservative
C. regulatory
D. regressive
E. paternalistic
Answer: A
Page Reference: 461
Skill: Application
8. Policy that takes away exactly as much in benefits as another group gains is sometimes called a
A. socialist trap.
B. cost-benefit tradeoff.
C. pay-as-you-go approach.
D. government ploy.
E. zero-sum game.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 461
9. In 2007 Congress passed a law creating new mileage standards for cars and light trucks. This
legislation raised the cost of manufacturing and those costs were expected to be passed on to
consumers. This is an example of what type of policy?
477
A. Reverse distributive
B. Monetary
C. Redistributive
D. Social
E. Security
Answer: A
Page Reference: 461
Skill: Application
10. When we compare and contrast policy proposals, such as electric cars that reduce the nation’s need
for oil but increase the demand for the electricity produced by coal-fired plants, we are using a(n)
A. energy promotion evaluation.
B. auto industry impact analysis.
C. cost-benefit analysis.
D. policy impact assessment.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 461
Skill: Application
11. National parks are an example of what type of public policy?

A. Distributive
B. Zero-sum
C. Redistributive
D. Reverse distributive
Answer: A
Skill: Application
12. What is a policy that reduces benefits for all groups?

A. Distributive
B. Zero-sum
C. Redistributive
D. Reverse distributive
Answer: D
Page Reference: 461
13. Voting, writing e-mails, contributing money to campaigns, and filing lawsuits are all examples of
A. the people.
B. politics.
C. outcomes.
D. government.
E. policies.
478
Answer: B
Page Reference: 460
Skill: Application
14. Lower prescription drug costs, higher profits, cleaner air, and safer neighborhoods are examples of
A. the people.
B. politics.
C. outcomes.
D. government.
E. policies.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 460
Skill: Application
15. Which of the following is a way in which government can convey a public policy to the nation?
A. Official proclamation
B. News bulletins
C. Press conferences
D. Laws passed by Congress and signed by the president
E. Elections
Answer: D
Page Reference: 460
Skill: Analysis
16. Social Security, air traffic control, national defense, and education spending are examples of
_________________ policy.
A. pejorative
B. unrewarded
C. redistributive
D. regulatory
E. distributive
Answer: E
Skill: Application
17. A public policy that provides benefits to all groups in society is called
A. pork barrel spending.
B. welfare policy.
C. distributive policy.
D. monetary policy.
E. reverse distributive policy.
Answer: C
479
18. Politics is concerned with
A. what the government gets from the people.
B. who gets what, when, where, and how from government.
C. free and open elections.
D. maintaining the power and influence of elected officials.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 460
19. The first step in the policy-making process is

A. making rules for implementation.
B. choosing a tool for solving the problem.
C. deciding to act.
D. deciding who will deliver the goods or services.
E. making assumptions about the world.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 462
20. ____________________ is the second step in the process of making public policy.
A. Running the program itself
B. Setting the agenda
C. Choosing a tool for solving the problem
D. Deciding how much to do
E. Making rules for implementation
Answer: B
Page Reference: 462
21. The third step in the policy-making process is

A. choosing a tool for solving the problem.
B. deciding who will deliver the goods or services.
C. running the program itself.
D. deciding to act.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 462
22. ____________________ is the fourth step in the process of making public policy.
A. Making assumptions about the world
B. Deciding to act
C. Setting the agenda
D. Making rules for implementation
E. Deciding how much to do
480
Answer: E
Page Reference: 462
23. The fifth step in the policy-making process is

A. choosing a tool for solving the problem.
B. deciding how much to do.
C. making assumptions about the world.
D. setting the agenda.
E. running the program itself.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 462
24. ____________________ is the sixth step in the process of making public policy.
B. Choosing a tool for solving the problem
C. Deciding who will deliver the goods or services
D. Evaluating the program
E. Measuring outputs
Answer: C
Page Reference: 462
25. The seventh step in the policy-making process is

A. deciding who will deliver the goods and services.
B. measuring outputs.
C. making assumptions about the world.
D. deciding how much to do.
E. making rules for implementation.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 462
26. ____________________ is the final step in the process of making public policy.
A. Setting the agenda
B. Running the program itself
C. Reviewing decision making procedures
D. Deciding how much to do
E. Making assumptions about the world
Answer: B
Page Reference: 462
481
27. The list of issues that the federal government pays attention to is called the
A. federal docket.
B. policy agenda.
C. presidential priorities.
D. programs watch.
E. implementation items.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 463
28. The first stage in the issue-attention cycle is

B. the gradual decline of intense public interest.
C. the pre-problem stage.
D. deciding who will deliver the goods or services.
E. the realization that change will incur significant cost.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 464
29. ____________________ is the second stage in the issue-attention cycle.

B. Alarmed discovery and euphoric enthusiasm on an issue
C. Choosing a tool for solving the problem
D. The realization that change will incur significant cost
E. The post-problem stage
Answer: B
Page Reference: 466
30. The third stage in the issue-attention cycle is

A. alarmed discovery and euphoric enthusiasm on an issue.
C. running the program itself.
D. the realization that change will incur significant cost.
E. choosing a tool for solving the problem.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 466
31. ____________________ is the fourth stage in the issue-attention cycle.

A. The realization that change will incur significant cost
B. Deciding to act
C. Setting the agenda
D. The pre-problem stage
E. The gradual decline of intense public interest
482
Answer: E
Page Reference: 466
32. The final stage in the issue-attention cycle is

A. the post-problem stage.
C. setting the agenda.
D. the realization that change will incur significant cost.
E. running the program itself.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 466
33. Small adjustments to existing public policies are known as

A. comprehensive policy.
B. non-existent policy.
C. punctuated policy.
D. conservative policy.
E. incremental policy.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 466
34. The three elements of iron triangles are

A. interest groups, a federal agency, and a related congressional committee.
B. the legislature, executive, and judiciary.
C. think tanks, the public, and protesters.
D. state governments, local governments, and the federal government.
E. the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 467
35. National parks such as Yosemite, the Grand Canyon, and the National Air and Space Museum are
examples of what type of policy tool?
A. Federal spending
B. Providing goods and services directly
C. Regulation
D. Using taxes to regulate the economy and encourage certain behaviors
E. Environmental policy
Answer: B
Page Reference: 468
Skill: Application
483
36. A precise statement of how a law is implemented is called a(n)
A. evaluation report.
B. final project.
C. policy plan.
D. rule.
E. regulation.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 468
37. Efforts to study an issue, appoint a blue-ribbon commission, or highlight the need for future action are
examples of _______________ benefits.
A. enlisted
B. pretend
C. symbolic
D. federal
E. regulatory
Answer: C
Page Reference: 469
Skill: Application
38. Because of their role in battling problems such as poverty, illiteracy, hunger, and disease, charities are
often called
A. social-benefit organizations.
B. shadow welfare agencies.
C. defenders of the downtrodden.
D. policy preemptors.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 470
Skill: Application
40. Figure 17–4 illustrates that

A. the number of rules issued by the federal government has declined substantially since the mid 1980s.
B. making rules became much easier in the 1960s.
C. the number of pages in the Federal Register increased dramatically in the 1970s.
D. rules have become a less common approach by the government in the past decade.
E. the number of pages in the Federal Register has remained constant since the 1950s.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 472
Skill: Analysis
41. Who generally has the most influence over the construction of rules?
A. The House of Representatives
B. Interest groups
C. The Supreme Court
484
D. Citizens
E. The White House staff
Answer: B
Page Reference: 468
Skill: Analysis
42. When a bill is passed and signed into law it is sent to the appropriate department or agency in the
executive branch for
A. constitutional evaluation.
B. intent interpretation.
C. implied implementation.
D. regulatory review.
E. faithful execution.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 471
43. To allow for affected parties to express concerns and suggest amendments about possible rules, the
Administrative Procedure Act requires departments and agencies to post a
A. Notice of Proposed Rulemaking.
B. Notice of Intended Consequences.
C. Cost-Benefit Analysis Statement.
D. Statement of Regulatory Impact.
E. Notice of Legislative History.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 471
44. What does political scientist John Kingdon describe as taking place in a “primordial swamp?”
A. constitutional interpretation
B. judicial review
C. the policy-making process
D. the making of rules
E. voting
Answer: C
Page Reference: 473
45. Which is described as the list of issues that the federal government pays attention to?
A. Lobbying
B. Public policies
C. Policy agenda
D. Nondecisions
Answer: C
485
Page Reference: 463
46. What is an organization composed of scholars who study public policy known as?
A. Lobbies
B. Think tanks
C. Zero-sum games
D. Issue networks
Answer: B
Page Reference: 464
47. A tool the federal government uses to solve most public problems is
A. directly providing goods.
B. providing protection against risk.
C. spending money.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Page Reference: 468
48. Which of the following is a source of what political scientists call third-party government?
A. Charitable organizations
B. Local governments
C. Colleges and universities
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Page Reference: 470
49. The 1946 Administrative Procedure Act made creating a rule

A. more difficult.
B. easier.
C. more straightforward.
D. more popular.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 471
50. Successful implementation of the laws required more than how much money in 2008?
A. $15 billion
B. $3 trillion
486
C. $1 trillion
D. $30 billion
E. $600 million
Answer: B
Page Reference: 473
51. Making public policy is often a(n) ___________ process.

A. unpredictable
B. stable
C. planned
D. smooth
Answer: A
Page Reference: 473
Skill: Analysis
52. Choosing the problem to be solved is the essential decision in setting the
A. policy agenda.
B. policy context.
C. stage for a policy fight.
D. final step of the policy process in motion.
Answer : A
Page Reference: 463
Skill: Analysis
53. A decision NOT to move ahead with the policy process is known as
A. escapism.
B. agenda-setting.
C. abdication.
D. nondecision.
E. circling.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 462
54. Which of the following is NOT one of the tools used by the federal government to solve most public
problems?
A. Providing protection against risk
B. Spending money
C. Providing goods and services directly
D. Using taxes to regulate the economy and encourage certain behaviors
E. Asking the judicial branch for rulings on state government policies
Answer: E
487
Page Reference: 467
Skill: Analysis
55. Which of the following is NOT a source of what political scientists call third-party government?
A. Charities
B. Private businesses
C. Colleges and universities
D. Interest groups
E. State and local governments
Answer: D
Page Reference: 470
56. The total size of the Federal Register decreased in which of the following periods?
A. 1966–1971
B. 1936–1941
C. 1971–1976
D. 1961–1966
E. 1981–1986
Answer: E
Page Reference: 472
Skill: Analysis
57. How many steps are there in making public policy?
A. Three
B. Eight
C. Fourteen
D. Twenty-three
E. Five
Answer: B
58. The movement of public opinion toward public policy from initial enthusiasm for action to realization
of costs and a decline in interest is called a(n)
A. policy agenda.
B. issue flowchart.
C. policy progression.
D. issue-attention cycle.
E. policy making circle.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 464
59. When the federal government took action to create a comprehensive change with the creation of
Social Security it was an example of
A. punctuating policy.
488
B. welfare policy.
C. monetary policy.
D. regulatory policy.
E. incremental policy.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 466
Skill: Application
60. Policy making for veterans is tightly controlled by cooperation among the Department of Veterans
Affairs, the House and Senate Veterans Committees, and interest groups such as the American Legion
that represent veterans. This is an example of a(n)
A. think tank.
B. iron triangle.
C. policy web.
D. issue network.
E. agenda alliance.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 467
Skill: Application
61. A policy-making instrument composed of loosely related interest groups, congressional committees,
presidential aides, and other parties is called a(n)
A. iron triangle.
B. agenda alliance.
C. executive committee.
D. issue network.
E. policy web.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 467
62. The five basic tools of federal public policy include

A. giving tax breaks.
B. spending money.
C. providing protection against risk.
D. providing goods and services.
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Page Reference: 467
63. Benefits such as new roads, bridges, and schools, and higher pay or greater safety are examples of
_________________ benefits.
A. expensive
B. material
C. implicit
D. generated
489
E. elusive
Answer: B
Skill: Application
64. Figure 17–4 illustrates that the total size of the Federal Register increased the most in which of the
following periods?
A. 1981–1986
B. 1936–1941
C. 1971–1976
D. 1991–1996
E. 1946–1951
Answer: C
Page Reference: 472
Skill: Analysis
65. _________________________ is a policy that encourages or discourages certain behavior by
imposing a legally-binding rule.
A. Regulation
B. Pluralism
C. Protection
D. Structuring
E. Incentivizing
Answer: A
Page Reference: 468
66. The most difficult step in the policy-making process is

B. choosing a tool for solving the problem.
C. deciding to act.
D. deciding who will the deliver the goods or services.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 464
Skill: Analysis
67. Which of the following is NOT a way in which issues become part of the policy agenda?
A. Through congressional investigations
B. Through interest group pressure
C. Through events or crises
D. Through random drawings
E. Through coverage in newspaper or television stories
Answer: D
Page Reference: 464
490
68. Radical changes to public policy that occur only after the mobilization of large segments of society to
demand action are called
A. incremental policy.
B. dangerous policy.
C. punctuating policy.
D. public policy.
E. liberal policy.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 466
69. Direct payments to individuals, hospitals, corporations, and other nations are examples of what type
of policy tool?
A. Regulation
B. Social policy
C. Federal spending
D. Providing protection against risk
E. Using taxes to regulate the economy and encourage certain behaviors
Answer: C
Page Reference: 468
Skill: Application
70. Most federal government action on public policy is

A. punctuating.
B. comprehensive.
C. triangular.
D. judicial.
E. incremental.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 466
71. The federal government has a commitment to cover losses for many borrowers, such as students,
farmers, and small businesses, if they fail to repay their loans. This is an example of what type of
policy tool?
A. Monetary policy
B. Federal spending
C. Providing goods and services directly
D. Providing protection against risk
E. Using taxes to regulate the economy and encourage certain behaviors
Answer: D
Page Reference: 468
Skill: Application
491
72. Which of the following is the best way for citizens to ask the federal government for action on a
specific issue?
A. Voting
B. Joining interest groups
C. Writing letters
D. Confronting legislators at community meetings
E. All of the above
Answer: D
Page Reference: 474
73. Ralph Nader made his start as a political activist with his involvement on the issue of
A. food handling procedures.
B. automobile safety.
C. global warming.
D. abortion.
E. discrimination.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 474
1. Politics is a specific course of action that government takes to address a problem.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 460
2. Regardless of the form it takes, public policy tells the nation and world who is about to get what,
when, and how from the federal government.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 460
3. A public policy that provides benefits to all groups in society is called redistributive policy.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 460
4. Social Security, air traffic control, national defense, and education spending are examples of
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Application
492
5. A policy that provides to one group of society while taking away benefits from another is known as
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 461
6. Reverse distributive policy is often designed to impose sacrifices on all citizens in pursuit of a
common goal.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 461
7. Policy that takes away exactly as much in benefits as another group gains is sometimes called a zero-
sum game.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 461
8. The Social Security program uses current taxes to pay for current benefits.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 465
9. A decision NOT to move ahead with the policy process is known as nondecision.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 462
10. The list of issues that the federal government pays attention to is called the federal docket.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 463
11. A nongovernmental organization that seeks to influence public policy through research and education
is known as an educational institute.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 464
12. The movement of public opinion toward public policy from initial enthusiasm for action to realization
of costs and a decline in interest is called an issue-attention cycle.
Answer: TRUE
493
Page Reference: 464
13. There are twelve stages in the issue-attention cycle.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 466
14. Small adjustments to existing public policies are known as “baby-steps” policy.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 466
15. Punctuating policy refers to radical changes to public policy that occur only after the mobilization of
large segments of society to demand action.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 466
16. The federal government uses punctuating policy far more often than incremental policy.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 466
17. An iron triangle is a policy-making instrument composed of a tightly related alliance of a

congressional committee, interest groups, and federal department or agency.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 467
18. The three elements of iron triangles are the legislature, the executive, and the judiciary.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 467
19. A policy-making instrument composed of loosely related interest groups, congressional committees,
presidential aides, and other parties is called a policy web.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 467
494
20. Regulation is a policy that encourages or discourages certain behavior by imposing a legally-binding
rule.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 468
21. A precise statement of how a law is implemented is called a regulation report.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 468
22. Congress typically has the greatest influence over the construction of rules.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 472
23. A daily record of all new and proposed rules is kept in the Federal Register.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 472
24. The Administrative Procedure Act requires that departments and agencies must propose rules within
30 days of receiving approved legislation.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 473
25. The three sides of the iron triangle are: (1) a federal department or agency, (2) a set of loyal interest
groups, (3) a House and/or Senate authorizing committee.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 467
26. There are thirteen steps in the process of making public policy.
Answer: FALSE
27. The four sources of third-party government are executive branch agencies, congressional committees,
interest groups, and think tanks.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 470
495
1. Define politics and public policy.

2. Define distributive policy and give an example of such policy.

Skill: Understanding & Application
3. Define reverse distributive policy and give an example of this type of policy.
4. What is cost/benefit analysis and how is it used to evaluate policy proposals?

Skill: Analysis
5. Identify the three types of public policy.

Skill: Analysis
6. Define redistributive policy and give an example of a redistributive policy.

7. Identify the steps in the process of making public policy.

Skill: Analysis
8. Identify the step at which the policy-making process is most likely to stop and why.
Skill: Analysis
9. What are the ways in which issues become part of the policy agenda?
Skill: Analysis
10. Define think tank and explain its role in setting policy agendas.
Skill: Understanding & Evaluation
11. Define issue-attention cycle and identify the stages in the cycle.
12. Define iron triangle and give an example of one.

496
Skill: Understanding & Evaluation
13. Explain how the fact that the federal government retained a helium reserve until the 1990s illustrates
difficulties in making policy.
Skill: Evaluation
14. What is punctuating policy and under what conditions are we likely to see the government use it?
Skill: Analysis
15. What is an issue network? Give an example of one.

Skill: Analysis
16. Identify the five tools used by the federal government to solve most public problems.
Skill: Analysis
17. Identify the four sources of third-party government.

Skill: Analysis
18. What is the Federal Register and what is its role in the process of making rules?
Skill: Analysis
Essay Questions
1. Compare and contrast politics and public policy and explain the relationship between them.
Skill: Evaluation
2. Analyze the three types of public policy.

Skill: Analysis
3. What do you regard as the political challenges and benefits associated with the three types of public
policy?
Skill: Evaluation
4. Explain the relationship between how a problem becomes important to policy makers and the politics
of making decisions about the problem.
Skill: Analysis
5. “American public attention rarely remains sharply focused upon any one domestic issue for very
long.” Evaluate this statement, making sure to discuss the issue-attention cycle.
497
Skill: Evaluation
6. Define incremental and punctuating policy. Which is more often used by the federal government and
why?
Skill: Analysis
7. Compare and contrast iron triangles and issue networks.

Skill: Evaluation
8. Evaluate the process for making rules.

Skill: Evaluation
9. What is meant by nondecision? At what stage during the policy-making process does it occur and
why might it happen?
Skill: Analysis
10. What is an issue-attention cycle and how does it relate to the decision by policy makers whether or
not to act on a policy problem?
Skill: Analysis
11. Compare and contrast the five common tools used by the federal government to solve most public
problems.
Skill: Analysis
12. Who is Ralph Nader and how do his experiences illustrate the dynamics of setting the policy agenda?
Skill: Evaluation
498
Chapter 18 – Making Economic Policy
1. _______________ refers to attempts to manage the economy by controlling the money supply and
thus interest rates.
A. Monetary policy
B. Bank policy
C. Fiscal policy
D. Inflation policy
E. Regulatory policy
Answer: A
Page Reference: 480
2. Federal taxing and spending is considered _______ policy.

A. fiscal
B. laissez-faire
C. monetary
D. regressive
E. regulatory
Answer: A
Page Reference: 480
Skill: Application
3. An estimate of the total output of all U.S. economic activity is the

A. GDP.
B. GAO.
C. OMB.
D. VAT.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 481
4. A _______________ tax is a tax whereby people with lower incomes pay a higher fraction of their
income than people with higher incomes.
A. liberal
B. flat
C. regressive
D. socialist
E. progressive
499
Answer: C
Page Reference: 483
5. Which of the following is an example of mandatory spending?

A. Defense spending
B. Spending on Social Security
C. Foreign aid
D. Infrastructure projects
E. Research on renewable energy sources
Answer: B
Page Reference: 484
Skill: Application
6. The _________________ is an agency of Congress that analyzes presidential budget

recommendations and estimates the costs of proposed legislation.
A. Joint Committee on the Budget
B. Office of Management and Budget
C. Legislative Research Commission
D. Congressional Budget Office
E. Permanent Task Force on Revenue and Appropriations
Answer: D
Page Reference: 485
7. A loss of tax revenue due to federal laws that provide special tax incentives or benefits to individuals
or businesses is known as a(n)
A. appropriations limit.
B. tax expenditure
C. budget shortfall.
D. windfall profit.
E. tax haven.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 485
Skill Understanding
8. A general tax on sales transactions, sometimes exempting such items as food and drugs, is called a(n)
__________ tax.
A. sin
B. expenditure
C. sales
D. income
E. value-added
Answer: C
Page Reference: 486
500
Skill Understanding
9. The task of setting America’s monetary policy falls to the

A. Federal Reserve Board.
B. Office of Management and Budget.
C. Congressional Budget Office.
D. President’s Council of Economic Advisors.
E. Government Accountability Office.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 486
10. In times of recession, Keynes advocated

A. increased government spending.
B. tax cuts.
C. increased tariffs.
D. dramatic reductions in government programs.
E. All of the above
Answer: A
Page Reference: 487
11. The United States has for many years now has imported much more than it has exported. This means
that the country has been running
A. unfair trade practices.
B. international trade agreements.
C. trade deficits.
D. subsidization lapses.
E. budget deficits.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 488
Skill: Application
12. The international organization derived from the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
that promotes free trade around the world is the
A. United Nations.
B. World Protectionism Agency.
C. International Association of Trade Partners.
D. World Trade Organization.
E. Global Free Trade Regime.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 489
13. ______________________________ are federal laws that try to prevent a monopoly from
dominating an industry and restraining trade.
501
A. Antitrust legislation
B. Anti-dumping statutes
C. Restrictive trade legislation
D. Unlimited competition statutes
E. Regulatory practices legislation
Answer: A
Page Reference: 491
14. A company in which new employees must join a union within a stated time period is called a(n)
A. right to work corporation.
B. organized employee industry.
C. union shop.
D. monopoly.
E. open shop.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 492
15. The Walsh-Healey Act of 1936, the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, and the Occupational Safety
and Health Act of 1936 are all examples of
A. federal regulations to protect workers.
B. antitrust legislation.
C. labor injunctions.
D. trade agreements.
E. deregulation.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 492
Skill: Application
16. The type of policy that promotes cutback in the amount of federal regulation in specific areas of
economic activity is
A. deregulation.
B. anti-regulation.
C. deficit spending.
D. social responsibility.
E. stagflation.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 495
1. Raising taxes and cutting spending are examples of monetary policy.
Answer: FALSE
502
Page Reference: 480
Skill: Application
2. Fiscal policy is the government’s attempt to manage the economy by controlling taxing and spending.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 480
3. Value-added tax and sales tax are the same.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 486
4. A regressive tax is a tax in which poorer people pay a larger share of their income than wealthier
people.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 483
5. The economic theory that opposes governmental interference in economic affairs beyond what is
necessary to protect life and property is known as laissez-faire economics.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 487
6. The Federal Reserve System consists of 50 banks, one for each state.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 486
7. If a country exports $100 billion worth of goods and imports $120 billion worth of goods in a given
year, that country is said to have a trade deficit.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 488
Skill: Application
8. Paying agricultural subsidies to domestic farmers and imposing tariffs on imported steel are policies
more consistent with a free trade position.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 489
Skill: Application
503
9. According to the Constitution, the authority to regulate commerce between states and with foreign
nations is held by the U.S. Trade Office.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 490
10. The right to organize unions and bargain collectively was guaranteed by the Wagner Act.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 492
Chapter Examination
1. Government policy that attempts to manage the economy by controlling taxing and spending is
known as
A. public policy.
B. monetary policy.
C. budgetary policy.
D. regulatory policy.
E. fiscal policy.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 480
2. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of the normal business cycle identified by
economists?
A. Recovery
B. Recession
C. Contraction
D. Inflation
E. Expansion
Answer: D
Page Reference: 480
3. The two most common yardsticks for measuring the performance of the economy are
A. expansion and contraction.
B. inflation and unemployment.
C. fiscal and monetary policy.
D. trade deficits and national debt.
E. budget deficits and gross national product.
Answer: B
504
Page Reference: 480
4. A rise in the general price level (and decrease in dollar value) owing to an increase in the volume of
money and credit in relation to available goods is called
A. recession.
B. bankruptcy.
C. a budget deficit.
D. unemployment.
E. inflation.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 480
5. ____________________ refers to the number of Americans who are out of work but actively looking
for a job.
A. Hardship
B. Unemployment
C. Welfare
D. Inflation
E. Recession
Answer: B
Page Reference: 480
6. A combination of an increase in the number of workers looking for jobs and a rise in prices is called
A. good news.
B. unemployment.
C. stagflation.
D. regulation.
E. a tariff.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 480
7. In 2008, the United States experienced significantly rising prices at the same time that many people
were out of work. This is an example of
A. socialism.
B. regulation.
C. depression.
D. expansion.
E. stagflation.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 480
Skill: Application
505
8. Inflation is measured using
A. international exchange rates.
B. the gross domestic product.
C. the consumer price index.
D. the unemployment rate.
E. the annual growth rate.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 480
9. The value of all goods and services produced by an economy during a specific period of time such as
a year is called the
A. budget production.
B. growth rate.
C. economic output.
D. gross domestic product.
E. consumer price index.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 481
10. Which of the following economic policy-making powers is held by the president?
A. The power to borrow money
B. The power to regulate commerce with foreign countries
C. The power to negotiate treaties
D. The power to print money
E. All of the above
Answer: C
Page Reference: 480
11. The federal government has been involved in economic policy since the
A. end of the Revolutionary War.
B. New Deal of the 1930s.
C. end of the Civil War.
D. end of World War II.
E. beginning of the Gulf War.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 480
12. In its simplest terms, monetary policy involves managing the

A. supply of money.
B. federal deficit.
C. relationship between taxation and spending.
D. balance of trade.
506
E. All of the above
Answer: A
Page Reference: 480
13. Inflation is usually a more serious danger during periods of economic

A. expansion.
B. contraction.
C. uncertainty.
D. volatility.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 480
Skill: Analysis
14. A(n) _______________ tax is a tax on a specific kind of merchandise, such as tobacco.
A. flat
B. excise
C. progressive
D. property
E. import
Answer: B
Page Reference: 482
15. What is the primary source of revenue in the government budget?

A. Excise taxes
B. Corporate income taxes
C. Borrowing
D. Payroll taxes
E. Individual income taxes
Answer: E
Page Reference: 482
Skill: Analysis
16. Approximately _________ % of the federal government revenue for 2008 came from individual
income taxes.
A. 95
B. 20
C. 80
D. 40
E. 5
Answer: D
Page Reference: 483
Skill: Analysis
507
17. The _____________ Amendment, ratified in 1913, allowed the federal government to levy individual
income taxes.
A. Third
B. Sixth
C. Sixteenth
D. Twenty-Ninth
E. Twenty-Third
Answer: C
Page Reference: 482
18. When the federal government raises less money than it spends in a year it is called
A. recession.
B. inflation.
C. the national debt.
D. stagflation.
E. a budget deficit.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 483
19. When the government runs a budget deficit it must make up for the shortfall in revenues by
A. increasing spending.
B. borrowing.
C. cutting taxes.
D. increasing unemployment.
E. maintaining inflation.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 483
Skill: Analysis
20. According to the Constitution, ________________ “shall have Power to lay and collect Taxes,
Duties, Imposts, and Excises.”
A. Congress
B. the president
C. the states
D. the department of state
E. the U.S. trade representative
Answer: A
Page Reference: 483
21. Taxes on imports from other countries are known as

A. shipping fees.
B. excise taxes.
508
C. sin taxes.
D. executive agreements.
E. tariffs.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 483
22. A tax graduated so that people with higher incomes pay a larger fraction of their income than people
with lower incomes is called a _______________ tax.
A. regressive
B. flat
C. Republican
D. progressive
Answer: D
Page Reference: 483
23. A sales tax on items such as clothing and food purchases by all individuals is an example of
A. a regressive tax.
B. monetary policy.
C. inflation.
D. an excise tax.
E. deficit spending.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 483
Skill: Application
24. The national debt refers to

A. when the federal government raises less money than it spends in a given year.
B. the amount of money the federal government gives state governments.
C. the combination of inflation and lack of economic growth.
D. the amount of money collected in taxes by the federal government.
E. the total amount of money the federal government has borrowed.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 483
25. When Congress and the president cannot use their discretion to change the spending rates it is called
A. mandatory spending.
B. automatic spending.
C. irrational spending.
D. required spending.
E. defense spending.
Answer: A
509
Page Reference: 484
26. The _________________ is a presidential staff agency that serves as a clearinghouse for budgetary
requests and management improvements for government agencies.
A. Office of Management and Budget
B. Council of Economic Advisers
C. White House staff
D. Office of Administration
E. Cabinet
Answer: A
Page Reference: 484
27. The first step in the budget process, which actually begins almost two years prior to the relevant
budget, is
A. passage of appropriations bills by Congress.
B. the transmission of a budget proposal to Congress by the OMB.
C. congressional review of the president’s proposed budget.
D. the development of requests for funds by executive branch departments and agencies.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 484
28. Under the Constitution, _______________ has the authority for raising revenue and appropriating
funds.
A. the cabinet
B. the Congressional Budget Office
C. the president
D. the Office of Management and Budget
E. Congress
Answer: E
Page Reference: 485
29. During his administration, President George W. Bush was successful in getting Congress to pass tax
incentives that resulted in a loss of tax revenue for the federal government. This is an example of
A. socialist economics.
B. the national debt.
C. earmark spending.
D. a windfall profit.
E. a tax expenditure.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 485
Skill: Application
510
30. When you go to the store to purchase a new MP3 player or cell phone you typically must pay a tax in
addition to the listed retail price. This tax is an example of
A. a value-added tax.
B. a sin tax.
C. an excise tax.
D. a sales tax.
E. a tariff.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 486
Skill: Application
31. The fiscal year for the federal government begins on

A. January 1.
B. October 1.
C. July 1.
D. the day after election day in November.
E. April 15.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 484
32. The annual budget of the United States is drawn up by the

A. Office of Management and Budget.
B. Treasury Department.
C. General Accounting Office.
D. Congressional Budget Office.
E. Government Accountability Office.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 484
33. A(n) ____________ tax is a tax on increased value of a product at each stage of production and
distribution rather than just at the point of sale.
A. value-added
B. production
C. stage
D. sin
E. excise
Answer: A
Page Reference: 486
Skill Understanding
34. Individual income taxes are due on what date each year?
A. December 31
B. October 1
511
C. July 4
D. December 25
E. April 15
Answer: E
Page Reference: 485
Skill Understanding
35. The spending category that accounts for the largest percentage of the federal budget is
A. social programs, such as Social Security.
B. defense.
C. interest on the national debt.
D. transportation needs.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 484
36. A new tax takes in 25% of the income of people making more than $50,000 per year and 35% of the
income of people making less than $50,000 per year. Such a tax is considered to be
A. regressive.
B. progressive.
C. universal.
D. gradual.
E. stagnant.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 483
Skill: Application
37. The marginal rate of a new tax increases by 1% for every $10,000 increase in income. Such a tax is
considered
A. progressive.
B. universal.
C. gradual.
D. fair.
E. regressive.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 483
Skill: Application
38. The Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974

A. was designed to strengthen the role of Congress in the budget process.
B. became law after Congress overrode the veto of President Kennedy.
C. abolished the Congressional Budget Office.
D. eliminated all capital gains taxes.
E. included a provision requiring a two-thirds vote in both chambers for the passage of any future tax
expenditures.
512
Answer: A
Page Reference: 485
Skill Understanding
39. The system created by Congress in 1913 to establish banking practices and regulate currency in
circulation and the amount of credit available is called the
A. Banking Oversight Commission.
B. Monetary Policy Review Board.
C. Federal Reserve System.
D. Congressional Budget Office.
E. Securities and Exchange System.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 486
40. Which of the following is true regarding the Federal Reserve System?
A. It consists of 12 regional banks
B. It is the primary institution responsible for fiscal policy
C. It is composed of members of the House and Senate banking committees
D. Its Board of Governors is elected by governors of the ten states with the greatest number of chartered
banks
Answer: A
Page Reference: 486
41. The amount of interest banks charge for loans to each other is known as the
A. federal reserve requirement.
B. federal funds rate.
C. federal circulation rate.
D. federal banking provision.
E. federal monetary rule.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 486
42. Which of the following is a way in which the Federal Reserve System can influence the economy?
A. Raising income taxes
B. Cutting government spending on Social Security and Medicare
C. Directly changing the mortgage rate that private lenders charge borrowers for home loans
D. Entering trade agreements with foreign countries
E. Changing interest rates banks must pay for borrowing money
Answer: E
Page Reference: 486
Skill: Analysis
513
43. The economic theory that opposes governmental interference in economic affairs beyond what is
necessary to protect life and property is known as
A. trickle-down theory.
B. protectionism.
C. laissez-faire economics.
D. socialism.
E. Keynesianism.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 487
44. The economic theory arguing that government spending should increase during business slumps and
be curbed during booms is called
A. laissez-faire economics.
B. supply-side economics.
C. libertarian economics.
D. Keynesian economics.
E. free trade economics.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 487
45. The Federal Reserve banks serve all of the following functions EXCEPT
A. insuring bank deposits.
B. regulating banks.
C. determining money supply in the economy.
D. influencing interest rates.
E. All of the above are functions
Answer: A
Page Reference: 486
46. The economist who first urged that government should fill any gaps left by a deficit of private
spending and investment was
A. Adam Smith.
B. John K. Galbraith.
C. John M. Keynes.
D. Paul Samuelson.
E. Ronald Reagan
Answer: C
Page Reference: 487
47. The alternative to economic regulation is

A. socialism.
514
B. laissez-faire capitalism.
C. mercantilism.
D. Keynesian economics.
E. communism.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 487
48. The policy of erecting trade barriers to protect domestic industry is known as
A. deregulation.
B. protectionism.
C. free-trade economics.
D. monetary policy.
E. dumping.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 488
49. An imbalance in international trade in which the value of imports exceeds the value of exports is
called a(n)
A. exchange rate adjustment.
B. regulatory regime.
C. unfair tariff.
D. monopoly.
E. trade deficit.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 488
50. The primary reason for the persistent trade deficits of the United States is
A. the fact that the U.S. exports too little.
B. Democratic control of the White House for most of the period since 1971.
C. the failure of the Senate to ratify the North American Free Trade Agreement.
D. control of the World Trade Organization by Cuba and other communist countries.
E. excessive subsidization of American agricultural products by the government.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 488
Skill: Analysis
51. ___________ is the practice of selling products below the cost of manufacturing or below their
domestic price with the intention of driving other producers out of the market and then raising prices
to profitable levels.
A. Subsidizing
B. Deficit trading
C. Dumping
D. Protectionism
515
E. Deregulation
Answer: C
Page Reference: 488
52. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trades
A. is an agreement signed by the United States, Canada, and Mexico in 1992.
B. is a treaty signed by 50 of the most advanced democracies in the world establishing strict quotas on
imports from one another.
C. is an international trade organization with more than 130 members that seeks to encourage free trade
by lowering tariffs and other trade restrictions.
D. was ruled to be unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in the 1998 case, Exxon v. Office of the U.S.
Trade Representative
Answer: C
Page Reference: 489
53. The ______________________ was signed by the United States, Canada, and Mexico in 1992 to
form the largest free trade zone in the world.
A. Western Hemisphere Free Trade Agreement
B. Tri-Country Free Trade Agreement
C. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
D. Good Faith Trade Pact
E. North American Free Trade Agreement
Answer: E
Page Reference: 489
54. Which of the following is true regarding the North American Free Trade Agreement?
A. Its signatories are the United States, Argentina, and Brazil.
B. It was passed by Congress over the veto of President Clinton.
C. It has had virtually no impact on the economies of the participating countries.
D. It created the largest geographical free trade zone in the world.
E. It was negotiated and signed by Ronald Reagan.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 489
55. The process of private corporations moving jobs to other countries is known as
A. offshoring.
B. exporting.
C. packing up.
D. relocation.
E. treason.
Answer: A
516
Page Reference: 490
56. Critics of NAFTA worry about all BUT which of the following?
A. Mexican antipollution laws are lax.
B. Mexican workers accept low wages.
C. Mexican products are inferior.
D. U.S. companies will move to Mexico.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 489
Skill: Analysis
57. GATT is mainly concerned with

A. global warming.
B. antitrust legislation.
C. encouraging free trade.
D. U.S.-Mexican trade.
E. environmental protection.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 489
58. Which cabinet department is responsible for issuing patents and trademarks?
A. Commerce
B. Interior
C. Labor
D. Treasury
E. Transportation
Answer: A
Page Reference: 490
59. According to the Constitution, the authority to regulate commerce between states and with foreign
nations is held by
A. the president.
B. the secretary of state.
C. the International Court of Trade Agreements.
D. the Office of the U.S. Trade Representative.
E. Congress.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 490
517
60. Economic regulation generally refers to government
A. efforts to promote exports to other countries.
B. controls on the behavior of businesses in the marketplace.
C. attempts to stimulate the economy through taxing and spending decisions.
D. subsidies to particular industries such as agriculture.
E. All of the above
Answer: B
Page Reference: 491
61. The two types of regulatory agencies created by Congress are

A. joint committees and corporate task forces.
B. judicial evaluation boards and economist advisory groups.
C. unfair practices agencies and congressional regulatory committees.
D. oversight commissions and budgetary departments.
E. independent agencies and independent regulatory commissions.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 491
Skill: Application
62. Over the past century business regulation has

A. been handled by the Federal Reserve System.
B. increased in three major waves.
C. not occurred.
D. been primarily the responsibility of the president and his closest advisors.
E. been ruled by the Supreme Court to be unconstitutional under most circumstances.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 491
Skill: Analysis
63. Domination of an industry by a single company is known as

A. oligarchy.
B. dumping.
C. monopoly.
D. regulation.
E. corporatism.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 491
64. The Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890 and the Clayton Act of 1914 are examples of
A. deregulation.
B. tariff reduction statutes.
C. labor injunctions.
D. antitrust legislation.
E. collective bargaining.
518
Answer: D
Page Reference: 492
Skill: Application
65. A monopoly that controls goods and services, often in combinations that reduce competition, is
known as a
A. natural dominator.
B. labor injunction.
C. trust.
D. free trade agreement.
E. regulatory agency.
Answer: C
66. ____________________ refers to a company with a labor agreement under which union membership
is a condition of employment.
A. Closed shop
B. Monopoly
C. Trust
D. Right to work
E. Worker protection
Answer: A
Page Reference: 492
67. A ____________ is a court order forbidding specific individuals or groups from performing certain
acts (such as striking) that the court considers harmful to the rights and property of an employer or a
community.
A. collective bargaining agreement
B. shop mandamus
C. regulatory ruling
D. labor injunction
E. legislative mandate
Answer: D
Page Reference: 492
68. A method whereby representatives of the union and employer determine wages, hours, and other
conditions of employment through direct negotiation is known as
A. a labor injunction.
B. deregulation.
C. collective bargaining.
D. advantage seeking.
E. mediation.
Answer: C
519
Page Reference: 492
69. The _____________________________________ has the responsibility for overseeing the

information provided by companies to the public and investors about their stocks.
A. Office of the Trade Representative
B. Office of Management and Budget
C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
D. Securities and Exchange Commission
E. Congressional Budget Office
Answer: D
Page Reference: 493
70. A(n) ________________________ is required by federal law from all agencies for any project using
federal funds to assess the potential effect of the new construction or development on the
environment.
A. environmental impact statement
B. global warming assessment
C. environmental cost-benefit analysis
D. pay-as-you-go report
E. House Environment Oversight Committee evaluation
Answer: A
Page Reference: 494
71. The _____________________________________ was created by Congress to enforce the Clean Air
and Water Acts passed in the early 1970s.
A. Department of the Interior
B. Environmental Protection Agency
C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
D. Greenpeace Committee
E. Global Warming Commission
Answer: B
Page Reference: 494
72. Efforts by companies to improve their reputations by paying attention to their contributions to the
social good are known as
A. smoke screens.
B. regulatory assessment reports.
C. charitable organization contributions.
D. labor injunctions.
E. corporate social responsibility.
Answer: E
520
Page Reference: 495
73. The Environmental Protection Agency was founded in the

A. 1940s.
B. 1950s.
C. 1960s.
D. 1970s.
E. 1980s.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 494
74. An example of a practice that this act outlawed is charging different prices to different buyers in order
to destroy a weaker competitor.
A. Sherman Act
B. Clayton Act
C. Wagner Act
D. Walsh-Healey Act
E. Fair business Act
Answer: B
Page Reference: 492
Skill: Application
75. The Occupational Safety and Health Act is mainly concerned with
A. industrial safety.
B. nuclear power plants.
C. air and water pollution.
D. minimum hourly wages.
E. health care
Answer: A
Page Reference: 492
76. Which of the following is NOT an industry that has been a major target of deregulation since 1977?
A. Trucking
B. Banking
C. Education
D. Telecommunications
E. Airlines
Answer: C
77. In recent years, one of the most notable industries to be deregulated is

A. government spending.
521
B. publishing.
C. education.
D. health care.
E. transportation.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 495
78. No industry has undergone more extensive deregulation than the ____________________ industry.
A. transportation
B. energy
C. drug
D. computer
E. waste removal
Answer: A
Page Reference: 495
79. The deregulation of the _______________ industry has been one of the most visible to consumers.
A. airline
B. consumer electronics
C. oil and gas
D. publishing
E. automotive
Answer: A
Page Reference: 495
80. Deregulation began in the United States in the

A. 1990s.
B. 1950s.
C. 1930s.
D. 1970s.
E. 1940s.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 495
1. Monetary policy refers to government attempts to manage the economy by controlling taxing and
spending.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 480
522
2. The stages of the normal business cycle are expansion, contraction, recession, and recovery.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 480
3. The two most common yardsticks for measuring the performance of the economy are trade deficits
and the national debt.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 480
4. Unemployment refers to the number of Americans who are out of work but actively looking for a job.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 480
5. Inflation is measured using the gross domestic product.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 480
6. Inflation is a rise in the general level of prices.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 480
7. Expansion is the first stage of the business cycle.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 480
8. A business cycle has eight stages.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 480
Skill: Application
9. Fiscal policy depends on government spending and taxation to slow or speed up the economy.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 480
Skill: Analysis
523
10. Raising taxes and cutting spending are examples of monetary policy.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 480
Skill: Application
11. Raising interest rates and limiting the money supply are examples of fiscal policy.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 480
Skill: Application
12. Stagflation refers to a period in which there is simultaneously economic expansion and inflation.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 480
13. Usually, inflation increases when unemployment drops.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 480
14. In periods of rapid inflation, most people will seek to put as much money into savings as possible.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 480
Skill: Analysis
15. A recession is a general decline in the level of economic activity.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 480
16. The primary source of revenue in the federal budget is corporation taxes.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 483
Skill: Analysis
17. The federal government spends more money annually than all state and local governments combined.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 481
18. A budget deficit occurs when the federal government raises less money than it spends in a year.
Answer: TRUE
524
Page Reference: 483
19. Most federal government spending is discretionary.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 484
Skill: Analysis
20. Defense spending is an example of mandatory spending.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 484
Skill: Application
21. A progressive tax is designed so that people with higher incomes pay a larger fraction of their income
than people with lower incomes.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 483
22. The national debt refers to the amount of money the federal government gives state governments.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 483
23. Before Congress enacted the Budget and Accounting Act of 1921, each executive agency dealt with
Congress on its own, requesting that the legislature appropriate funds for its activities with little or no
presidential coordination.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 484
24. The Office of Management and Budget is a presidential staff agency that serves as a clearinghouse for
budgetary requests and management improvements for government agencies.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 484
25. The fiscal year for the federal government begins on April 15.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 484
525
26. A value-added tax is a tax on increased value of a product at each stage of production and distribution
rather than just at the point of sale.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 486
27. The U.S. government levies excise taxes on real estate.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 482
Skill: Application
28. Most sales taxes in the United States are considered regressive.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 483
29. The Constitution places all taxing, borrowing, and spending powers in the hands of Congress and the
legislative branch.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 485
30. In the end, Congress has the last word on the president’s budget proposal.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 485
31. Monetary policy is handled primarily by the Federal Reserve System.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 486
32. The amount of interest banks charge for loans to each other is known as the federal reserve
requirement.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 486
33. The core element of monetary policy is the idea that prices, incomes, and economic stability reflect
growth in the amount of money that circulates through the economy at any one time.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 486
526
34. Members of the Federal Reserve Board are appointed to 14-year terms by the vice president.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 486
35. An imbalance in international trade in which the value of imports exceeds the value of exports is
called a trade deficit.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 488
36. Dumping is the practice of selling products below the cost of manufacturing or below their domestic
price with the intention of driving other producers out of the market and then raising prices to
profitable levels.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 488
37. The World Trade Organization was derived from NAFTA to promote free trade.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 489
38. The policies of the Department of Agriculture tend to result in lower prices for basic agricultural
commodities.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 488
Skill: Analysis
39. Eliminating quotas on imported grain and lifting regulations on imported cheese are policies more
consistent with a free trade position.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 488
Skill: Application
40. The practice of moving a business from the United States to other countries with cheaper labor costs
is known as “offshoring.”
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 490
527
41. The two types of regulatory agencies created by Congress are independent agencies and independent
regulatory commissions.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 491
42. Domination of an industry by a single company is known as corporatism.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 491
43. Collective bargaining is a method whereby representatives of the union and employer determine
wages, hours, and other conditions of employment through direct negotiation.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 492
44. The Environmental Protection Agency was created by Congress to enforce the Clean Air and Water
Acts passed in the early 1970s.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 494
45. The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 requires that most workers employed under contracts with the
federal government be paid at least the average wage for that job.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 492
46. Regulation is defined as any method the government uses to alter the natural workings of the open
market to achieve a social goal.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 491
47. Deregulation is the policy of erecting trade barriers to protect domestic industry.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 495
528
1. Explain how increasing and decreasing taxes and increasing and decreasing government spending are
expected to affect the economy.
Skill: Analysis
2. Identify the ways in which the framers structured governmental authority to protect capitalism.
Skill: Analysis
3. Identify the two most common ways of measuring the performance of the economy and explain the
theoretical relationship between them.
Skill: Analysis
4. Define progressive and regressive taxes and give examples of both.

5. Identify the three basic tools the Federal Reserve System has for influencing the economy.
Skill: Analysis
6. Identify the six main sources of national governmental revenue and identify the changes that have
occurred with regard to their percentages of the federal budget since the 1900s.
Skill: Analysis
7. What is the Office of Management and Budget and what is its role in the federal budget process?
Skill: Analysis
8. Define tax expenditures and explain their significance as a type of fiscal policy.
Skill: Understanding & Analysis
9. Explain the structure, composition, and selection of the Federal Reserve System.
Skill: Analysis
10. Define and explain laissez-faire economics and Keynesian economics.

Skill: Understanding & Analysis
11. Identify trade practices that depress international trade and may contribute to trade deficits of the
United States.
Skill: Analysis
529
12. Explain what is meant by economic growth and how government promotes it using the example of
the Department of Agriculture.
Skill: Analysis
13. What is the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade and how does it impact international trade?
Skill: Analysis
14. What is the North American Free Trade Agreement and how and when did it come into being?
15. Identify three major areas in which federal regulations protect workers.
Skill: Analysis
16. Identify the two types of regulatory agencies that have been created by Congress and explain how
members of those agencies are selected.
Skill: Analysis
17. Define monopoly and explain what the government can and has done to regulate and/or prevent
monopolies.
Skill: Analysis
Essay Questions
1. Explain the two most common measurements in evaluating the performance of the economy and
discuss how the measures relate to one another.
Skill: Evaluation
2. Using the examples of progressive and regressive taxes, evaluate the following statement: In a broad
sense, all taxation implies decisions about who gets what, when, where, and how.
Skill: Evaluation
3. Outline the four major steps in the federal budget process.

Skill: Analysis
4. There is considerable disagreement over fairness of sales taxes. Discuss this debate. What is your
opinion in this matter?
Skill: Evaluation
5. Define monetary policy and explain how is it carried out in the United States.
530
Skill: Analysis
6. Evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of having monetary policy in the hands of the Federal
Reserve System rather than in the legislative or executive branches.
Skill: Evaluation
7. Evaluate laissez-faire economics and Keynesian economics as approaches to stimulating the

economy.
Skill: Evaluation
8. The United States has experienced persistent trade deficits. Why is this the case and is it a cause for
concern?
Skill: Evaluation
9. Identify trade practices that may be regarded as unfair. If U.S. exports are limited by such trade
practices, what should our government do in response?
Skill: Evaluation
10. The United States is a member of the North American Free Trade Agreement. What are the
advantages and disadvantages of this and other free trade agreements for the U.S.?
Skill: Evaluation
11. In what ways does Congress regulate business. Are congressional efforts in this regard sufficient?
Skill: Evaluation
12. How do federal regulations protect employees’ right to organize? Do you think that these labor laws
do too little, too much, or just enough to protect the right to organize? Explain.
Skill: Evaluation
13. Evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of deregulation in the context of the transportation
industry.
Skill: Evaluation
531
532
Chapter 19 – Making Social Policy

1. Compared to other western democracies, the United States developed social services later in part
because many people here
A. had a strong belief in the responsibility of the church to support poverty programs.
B. had a strong antipathy to socialist programs.
C. believed this was a land of rugged individualism.
D. failed to see the poverty around them.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 502
Skill: Analysis
2. Medicaid is an example of a
A. means-tested entitlement.
B. social security.
C. housing assistance.
D. senior citizen program.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 502
Skill: Application
3. Aid to the poor is called

A. entitlements.
B. means-tested entitlements.
C. social safety net.
D. public assistance.
E. social insurance.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 504
4. The first public assistance programs were actually created in the late 1800s when states established
aid programs to help
A. veterans.
B. poor single mothers and their children.
C. blind citizens.
D. widows.
E. war orphans.
533
Answer: B
Page Reference: 504
5. In absolute numbers, most poor people are

A. African Americans.
B. Hispanic Americans.
C. Asian Americans.
D. White Americans.
E. Native Americans.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 505
6. Social Security is funded by

A. income tax.
B. payroll taxes on employers and employees.
C. general taxes.
D. annual budget agreements in Congress.
E. block grants.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 507
7. Which of the following was NOT part of the Great Society?

A. Food Stamps
B. Head Start
C. Medicaid
D. Social Security
E. Medicare
Answer: D
Page Reference: 510
Skill: Application
8. Who was responsible for the expansion of social programs during the 1930s?
A. Theodore Roosevelt
B. Calvin Coolidge
C. Herbert Hoover
D. Franklin D. Roosevelt
E. Harry Truman
Answer: D
Page Reference: 505
534
9. The percentage of the American workforce now covered by Social Security is approximately
A. 35%.
B. 50%.
C. 75%.
D. 80%.
E. 90%.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 507
10. Which of the following is NOT an agency created by the New Deal?
A. Works Progress Administration
B. Civilian Conservation Corps
C. Federal Emergency Relief Administration
D. Head Start
Answer: D
Page Reference: 507
11. The most visible health care official in government is the

A. surveyor general.
B. solicitor general.
C. surgeon general.
D. health czar.
E. food and drug czar.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 512
12. Health care costs have _____ since 1970.

A. remained about the same
B. doubled
C. tripled
D. quadrupled
E. quintupled
Answer: D
Page Reference: 513
13. Despite passage of the Medicare program in 1965, the United States did NOT provide comprehensive
insurance to the rest of the insured until
A. 1975.
B. 1985.
C. 1995.
D. 2000.
535
E. 2010.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 514
14. Which of the following is NOT a main provision of the 2010 Patient Protection and Affordable
Health Care Act?
A. Most Americans will be required to buy health insurance starting in 2014 and will
be fined by the federal government if they do not do so.
B. Insurance companies will be prevented from denying coverage to people for any
reason, including preexisting conditions, such as high blood pressure, cancer, or
mental illness.
C. Insurance companies will have to extend coverage for young Americans up to
26 years of age under their parents’ insurance.
D. General Medicare benefits will be cut, but the special Medicare Advantage program for
higher-income beneficiaries will be increased.
E. Individual Americans will pay a tax on “Cadillac” insurance plans that offer broader
coverage at a much higher cost.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 514
Skill: Application
15. In the United States, public schools are primarily the responsibility of
A. the federal government.
B. the Federal Department of Education.
C. state and local governments.
D. states.
E. local governments.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 515
1. Aid programs restricted to one group of citizens only are called categorical aid.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 503
2. The many programs that the federal government provides to protect Americans against economic and
social misfortune are called the social safety net.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 503
536
3. Most scholars trace the federal government’s effort to protect citizens against economic and personal
hard times to the Great Society of the 1960s.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 503
Skill: Analysis
4. Public assistance in the United States today incorporates elements of job training, transportation
subsidies, housing subsidies, but not tax credits for low-income people.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 505
Skill: Application
5. Social security is financed from general taxes.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 507
6. President Johnson is responsible for the welfare reform initiative.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 510
7. You must be over 65 years old to be eligible for Supplemental Security Income.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 510
8. The surgeon general is the head of the Public Health Service.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 512
9. Since 1950, human resource spending has doubled.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 511
10. Under the Patient Protection and Affordable Health Care Act, Medicare benefits will be cut.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 514
537
Chapter Examination
1. Most western governments expanded their social programs long before the U.S. did because
A. they had more need of them.
B. they believed that people could not support themselves.
C. the U.S. believed that needy people were not working hard enough.
D. the U.S. had almost no needy people.
E. most of the western governments had no charities in place.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 502
Skill: Analysis
2. The first financial security systems in the United States were for
A. farmers.
B. orphans.
C. widows.
D. immigrants.
E. veterans.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 502
3. Veterans’ relief was the nation’s first

A. charitable work.
B. relief work.
C. entitlement program.
D. medical coverage program.
E. act as a new government.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 502
4. Programs such as unemployment insurance, disaster relief, or disability payments that provide
benefits to all eligible citizens are called
A. entitlements.
C. social safety nets.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 502
538
5. Means-tested entitlements are defined
A. as programs such as unemployment insurance, disaster relief, or disability payments that provide
benefits to all eligible citizens.
B. programs such as Medicaid and welfare under which applicants must meet eligibility requirements
based on need.
C. the many programs that the federal government provides to protect Americans against economic and
social misfortune.
D. aid to the poor.
E. programs in which eligibility is based on prior contributions to government, usually in the form of
payroll taxes.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 502
6. The United States government has approximately how many domestic funding programs?
A. 46
B. 487
C. 856
D. 975
E. 1,250
Answer: E
Page Reference: 503
7. What was the first type of help for the poor?

A. Educational assistance
B. Social security
C. Medicaid
D. Welfare
E. Medicare
Answer: D
Page Reference: 504
8. Aid programs restricted to one group of citizens only are called

A. categorical aid.
B. welfare.
C. entitlement aid.
D. individual aid.
E. grant aid.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 503
9. The social safety net is defined as

A. as programs such as unemployment insurance, disaster relief, or disability payments that provide
539
benefits to all eligible citizens.
based on need.
social misfortune.
D. aid to the poor.
payroll taxes.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 503
10. Federal domestic policy focuses on ____ broad goals

A. several
B. nine
C. many
D. two
E. three
Answer: D
Page Reference: 503
11. The first goal of federal domestic social policy is to protect citizens against social and economic
problems by creating
A. a social safety net.
B. employment for all citizens.
C. equal salaries for government workers.
D. affordable housing for everyone.
E. equal outcomes based upon effort.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 503
12. The second goal of federal social policy is to

A. raise the quality of life for all.
B. create employment for all citizens.
C. equalize salaries for all citizens.
D. supply affordable housing for everyone.
E. make voting rights a top priority.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 503
hard times to
A. the 1840s.
540
B. the 1880s.
C. the 1930s.
D. the 1950s.
E. the 1960s.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 503
Skill: Analysis
14. Public assistance is defined as

A. programs such as unemployment insurance, disaster relief, or disability payments that provide benefits
to all eligible citizens.
based on need.
social misfortune.
D. aid to the poor.
payroll taxes.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 504
15. Most public assistance programs are means-tested entitlement programs, which means that
A. written exams are required.
B. oral and written exams are required.
C. applicants must prove their poverty.
D. applicants’ financial records are closely examined by federal investigators.
E. any children in the family must be put in foster homes.
Answer: C
16. The poverty level standard changes with the size of the family and the cost of living. For 2008,
individuals who made just over $_______ and families of four who made just over $_______were
eligible for means-tested assistance.
A. 8000 and 18000
B. 9000 and 19000
C. 10000 and 21000
D. 6000 and 16000
E. 7000 and 17000
Answer: C
Page Reference: 505
17. Programs in which eligibility is based on prior contributions to government, usually in the form of
payroll taxes, are called
541
A. entitlements.
C. the social safety net.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 505
18. Social insurance is defined as

A. programs such as unemployment insurance, disaster relief, or disability payments that provide benefits
to all eligible citizens.
based on need.
social misfortune.
D. aid to the poor.
payroll taxes.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 505
19. Public assistance in the United States today incorporates elements of

A. job training.
B. transportation subsidies.
C. housing subsidies.
D. tax credits for low-income people.
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Page Reference: 505
Skill: Application
20. The federal government also provides what some critics label ________________ to favored
industries such as agriculture and corporate bailouts to businesses such as investment banks.
A. bailout programs
B. corporate welfare
C. middle class welfare
D. AFDC
E. Food Stamps
Answer: B
Page Reference: 505
Skill: Application
21. “Middle-class welfare” refers to

A. aid to college students in the form of college loans.
542
B. aid to home buyers in the form of tax deductions for home mortgages.
C. access to national parks and forests.
D. tax credits for college tuition payments.
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Page Reference: 505
22. As a percentage within their own population, a larger proportion of which of these groups is poor?
A. African Americans and Hispanic Americans
B. African Americans and white Americans
C. Hispanic Americans and white Americans
D. Asian Americans and Native Americans
E. White Americans and Native Americans
Answer: A
Page Reference: 505
Skill: Analysis
23. More women than men are poor in

A. the western states.
B. terms of absolute numbers and proportions.
C. in absolute numbers only.
D. by proportion only.
E. in the southern states.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 505
Skill: Analysis
24. The “feminization of poverty” refers to

A. poor women who are feminists.
B. women who help the poor.
C. feminist women who help the poor.
D. the growing numbers of poor women.
E. the tendency for men to help poor women.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 505
25. Many federal assistance programs are partnerships with state governments because
A. states and local governments have the administrative agencies to stay in touch with recipients of aid.
B. states have been responsible for protecting their citizens against hardship since the United States was
formed.
C. states provide the bulk of the funds for aid programs.
D. Both A and B are correct.
Answer: D
543
Page Reference: 505
Skill: Analysis
26. In providing federal assistance, the most generous states in the country tend to be located in the
A. Northeast and West.
B. South and Midwest.
C. West and Southwest.
D. East and South.
E. North and South.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 505
27. In providing federal assistance, the least generous states are in the
A. South.
B. Northeast.
C. West.
D. North
E. Midwest.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 505
28. In 2007, the federal minimum wage was increased to

A. $5.25 per hour.
B. $5.75 per hour.
C. $6.75 per hour.
D. $7.25 per hour.
E. $8.50 per hour.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 506
29. Beneficiaries of the Social Security Act include

A. widows and widowers.
B. children of deceased or disabled persons.
C. retired persons.
D. disabled workers.
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Page Reference: 507
30. Social Security was designed primarily to benefit

A. the working poor.
544
B. single mothers.
C. ethnic or racial minorities.
D. older workers.
E. the disabled.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 506
31. In 1983, Congress made a number of changes to Social Security to deal with the pending shortfall
including
A. raising the retirement age at which one qualifies for Social Security benefits.
B. increasing Social Security taxes.
C. imposing the first ever tax on the Social Security payments to upper-income individuals.
D. imposing a one-time cut in the annual cost-of-living increase in benefits.
E. All of the above
Answer: A
Page Reference: 507
32. In 2008, Social Security and Medicare expenditures totaled how much?
A. $56 million
B. $755 million
C. $341 billion
D. $966 billion
E. $2 trillion
Answer: D
Page Reference: 507
33. The federal government began protecting women and children against poverty with which of the
following?
A. National School Lunch Act
B. Earned Income Tax Credit
C. Infancy and Maternity Protection Act
D. Aid to Families with Dependent Children
E. Federal Surplus Relief Corporation
Answer: C
Page Reference: 507
34. President Lyndon B. Johnson was successful in getting Congress to enact the Great Society’s social
programs. Which of the following was NOT a Great Society program?
A. Medicare
B. Social Security
C. Head Start
D. Medicaid
545
E. Food stamps
Answer: B
Page Reference: 510
35. The 1996 Welfare Reform Legislation included which of the following?
A. Providing welfare benefits to legal immigrants.
B. A 5-year time limit on benefits.
C. Required recipients to enter some kind of work training program within 2 months of receiving benefits.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
36. The stock market crashed in

A. 1900.
B. 1919.
C. 1929.
D. 1945.
E. 1939.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 505
37. The president responsible for the passage of Great Society legislation was
A. Franklin D. Roosevelt.
B. Harry Truman.
C. Lyndon B. Johnson.
D. Richard Nixon.
E. John F. Kennedy.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 510
38. The first 100 days of 1933 produced the most significant list of legislation ever passed in U.S. history,
including the creation of the
A. Federal Emergency Relief Administration (FERA).
B. Center for Disease Control (CDC).
C. Federal Emergency Management Administration (FEMA).
D. Works Progress Administration (WPA).
Answer: A
Page Reference: 507
Skill: Application
546
39. As part of the New Deal agenda, the federal government
A. made loans to states and localities to aid the poor.
B. cut interest rates.
C. invested billions in banks.
D. acquired several investment banks.
E. made loans directly to poor people.
Answer: A
40. Federal Emergency Relief Administration (FERA) was established to

A. aid in the care of children orphaned by natural disaster.
B. build bridges over flooded rivers.
C. give unemployed workers cash grants to get them through the summer.
D. give bankers actual paper money to put in bank vaults.
E. supply natural disaster relief to southern states.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 507
41. Beneficiaries of the Social Security Act include

A. widows and widowers.
B. children of deceased or disabled persons.
C. retired persons.
D. disabled workers.
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Page Reference: 507
Skill: Application
42. All employee taxes are matched by employers

A. according to a proportional plan.
B. dollar for dollar.
C. according to the amount of seniority each employee has.
D. two to one.
E. fifty cents of each dollar.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 507
43. The program that provides insurance for all reasonable hospital, medical, and prescription drug
insurance to individuals who are also entitled to Social Security is known as what?
A. Medicaid
B. Medicare
C. Social Security
547
D. FDIC insurance
E. Supplemental security income
Answer: B
Page Reference: 510
44. Public welfare assistance an individual may receive in a lifetime is limited to

A. three years.
B. five years.
C. eight years.
D. no limitation.
E. two months after job training begins.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 511
45. Since 1950 human resource spending has

A. stayed about the same.
B. doubled.
C. increased 150%.
D. tripled.
E. quadrupled.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 511
46. Which of the following is NOT a federal agency promoting health care?
A. PHS
B. FDA
C. CDC
D. NIH
E. EPA
Answer: E
Page Reference: 512
Skill: Application
47. What started as a one-room laboratory on Staten Island in 1887?

A. National Institutions of Health
B. Public Health Commission
C. Center for Infectious Disease
D. Food and Drug Administration
Answer: A
Page Reference: 512
548
48. Which of the following has NOT a problem associated with the rise in health care costs?
A. Employers are shifting more costs to employees
B. Stronger health and safety regulations on job sites
C. Increased life expectancy
D. Physicians are given incentives to use expensive technology
E. New technology
Answer: B
Page Reference: 513
Skill: Analysis
49. In 2000, the average life expectancy was

A. 65 years.
B. 69 years.
C. 75 years.
D. 79 years.
E. 85 years.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 513
50. The Patient Protection and Affordable Health Care Act reflects a ______ year effort to expand the
social safety net.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
E. 50
Answer: E
Page Reference: 514
51. In 2010, the federal government provided approximately _______ of financial aid that college
students receive.
A. $50 billion.
B. $70 billion.
C. $90 billion.
D. $1.1 trillion.
E. $1.5 trillion.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 516
52. Controlling crime is considered primarily a(n) ________________ matter.

A. ethical
B. regional
549
C. state and local
D. religious
E. federal
Answer: C
Page Reference: 516
Skill: Analysis
53. The federal government enforces its laws primarily through the
A. House of Representatives.
B. Department of Homeland Security.
C. Drug Enforcement Agency.
D. Department of Justice.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 516
54. In 2008, what percentage of bachelor’s degrees were earned by whites?

A. 55%
B. 65%
C. 70%
D. 75%
E. 80%
Answer: C
Page Reference: 517
55. The federal government’s top crime priority today is

A. the war on drugs.
B. securing the borders.
C. terrorism.
D. illegal immigration.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 518
56. The Department of Homeland Security was created during whose presidency?
A. Lyndon B. Johnson
B. Ronald Reagan
C. Bill Clinton
D. George H.W. Bush
E. George W. Bush
Answer: E
Page Reference: 518
550
57. The federal government became more involved in local education with the passage of the
__________________ Act in 2002.
A. Testing and Assessment
B. Head Start Plus
C. No Child Left Behind
D. Fundamental Education
E. All of the above
Answer: C
Page Reference: 516
58. Which of the following is NOT a provision of the 2001 USA PATRIOT Act?
A. The Act allows the use of “roving wiretaps.”
B. It allows detention of non-citizens for up to seven days without being charged with a crime
C. The Act gives the authority to conduct secret investigations of suspected terrorists.
D. It allows the suspension of habeas corpus for U.S. citizens.
E. All of the above are provisions of the Act
Answer: D
Page Reference: 518
Skill: Analysis
59. Head Start is a ___________ program designed to help children prepare for school.
A. state government
B. local government
C. federal government
D. private
E. biannual
Answer: C
Page Reference: 515
60. ____________________ policy is a major focus of American politics.

A. Social
B. Economic
C. International
D. All of the above
Answer: A
Page Reference: 518
551
1. Compared to other Western democracies, the United States developed social services later, in part
because many people here had a strong belief in the responsibility of the church to support poverty
programs.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 502
Skill: Analysis
2. Entitlements are defined as programs such as unemployment insurance, disaster relief, or disability
payments that provide benefits to all eligible citizens.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 502
3. Aid programs that are restricted to students only are called grant aid.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 503
4. The social safety net is defined as the many programs that the federal government provides to protect
Americans against economic and social misfortune.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 503
5. Federal social policy focuses on nine broad goals.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 503
6. The first goal of federal social policy is to protect citizens against social and economic problems by
creating a social safety net.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 503
7. The second goal of federal social policy is to create employment for all citizens.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 503
552
hard times to the 1880s.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 503
Skill: Analysis
9. The first public assistance programs were actually created in the late 1800s when states established
aid programs to help poor single mothers and their children.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 504
Skill: Analysis
10. Most public assistance programs are means-tested entitlement programs which mean that applicants
must prove their poverty.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 504
Skill: Analysis
11. The poverty level standard changes with the size of the family and the cost of living. For 2008,
individuals who made just over $10,000 and families of four who made just over $21,000 were
eligible for means-tested assistance.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 505
Skill: Analysis
12. Aid to the poor is called public assistance.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 504
13. The federal government also provides what some critics label corporate welfare to favored industries
such as agriculture and corporate bailouts to businesses like investment banks.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 505
14. “Middle-class welfare” refers to aid to college students in the form of college loans.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 505
15. As a percentage within their own population, a larger proportion of African Americans and Hispanic
Americans are poor.
Answer: TRUE
553
Page Reference: 505
Skill: Analysis
16. More women than men are poor in terms of absolute numbers and proportions.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 505
Skill: Analysis
17. Medicare was created in 1965 to provide basic health services for the poor and covers everything
from hospital care to family planning.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 510
18. The Infancy and Maternity Protection Act of 1921 act gave free school lunches to students.
Answer: FALSE
19. Supplemental Security Income was created to provide an extra measure of support for the elderly, the
poor, and the disabled.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 510
20. Medicaid is a public assistance program that provides health care to the poor.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 510
21. President Roosevelt is responsible for the New Deal.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 505
22. Like many other social welfare programs, the food stamps program was part of the Great Society plan.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 510
23. President Clinton is responsible for the Great Society initiative.

Answer: FALSE
554
Page Reference: 510
24. The federal government’s first involvement with education occurred in the 1960s.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 514
25. In 2008, the federal government provided roughly $90 billion of financial aid to college students.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 516
26. The nation has still NOT answered the basic question of whether the national government has a role in
providing basic social services to its citizens.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 511
Skill: Analysis
27. Americans are living longer than ever before.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 513
28. The most visible health care official in government is the surveyor general.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 512
29. In 2000, the average life expectancy was 69.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 513
30. In 2008, women exceeded the number of men who received bachelor’s degrees.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 517
31. The Department of Homeland Security was created during George W. Bush’s administration.
Answer: TRUE
555
Page Reference: 518
1. What are entitlements?

2. What is the difference between an entitlement and a means-tested entitlement?

Skill: Analysis
3. Define means-tested entitlements.

4. Define public assistance.

5. What is the social safety net?

Skill: Analysis
6. What is social insurance?

Skill: Analysis
7. List three programs brought about by the New Deal.

Skill: Application
8. Who qualifies to receive Social Security?

Skill: Analysis
9. Define and itemize Medicaid programs and benefits.

Skill: Analyze and Understanding
10. What is Medicare?

11. List three programs brought about by the Great Society.

12. How did Congress respond to the launch of Sputnik?

556
13. What does the No Child Left Behind Act require of States?
Skill: Analysis
14. What does GEAR UP do?

Skill: Analysis
15. What are three of the provisions of the PATRIOT Act?

Skill: Application
16. Describe what is happening regarding access to higher education in terms of race and gender.
Skill: Analysis
17. Why have some states sued the federal government over the No Child Left Behind Act?
Skill: Analysis
Essay Questions
1. Explain the difference between entitlements and means-tested entitlements.

Skill: Analysis
2. Compare and contrast the two types of social policy.

Skill: Evaluation
3. Identify three major contributions of the New Deal to social policy.

Skill: Analysis
4. Describe how social policy expanded in the 20th century under the New Deal and Great Society
programs.
Skill: Evaluation
5. Identify five major contributions of the Great Society to social policy.

Skill: Analysis
6. In your opinion, why did Lyndon Johnson propose the Great Society programs?
Skill: Evaluation
557
7. What has been the impact of welfare reform upon those receiving welfare?
Skill: Evaluation
8. Should the federal or state government encourage marriage as a form of welfare reform? Describe as
many sides of the issue as you can.
Skill: Evaluation
9. What are three reasons for the increased costs of health care coverage in the U.S.?
Skill: Analysis
10. What are some of the solutions for the increased costs of health care coverage in the U.S.?
Skill: Evaluation
11. In your opinion, what are the greatest social policy challenges of the 21st century?
Skill: Evaluation
12. Describe how the federal government affects education in the U.S.
Skill: Evaluation
13. How does the federal government deal with crime in the U.S.?
Skill: Evaluation
558
Chapter 20 – Making Foreign Defense Policy

1. ___________ is a theory of international relations that focuses on the hope that nations will act
together to solve international problems and promote peace.
A. Idealism
B. Isolationism
C. Realism
D. Internationalism
E. Multilateralism
Answer: A
Page Reference: 524
2. Realism is
A. the belief that nations engage in international problem solving.
B. a theory of international relations that focuses on the tendency of nations to operate from self-interest.
C. a theory of international relations that focuses on the hope that nations will act together to solve
international problems and promote peace.
D. a philosophy that encourages individual nations to act on their own when facing threats from other
nations.
E. the belief that nations must engage in international problem solving.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 524
3. Multilateralism is
A. the desire to avoid international engagement altogether.
B. the belief that nations must engage in international problem solving.
nations.
E. a philosophy that encourages individual nations to act together to solve international problems.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 526
4. ___________ is a theory based on creating enough military strength to persuade other nations not to
attack first.
A. Preemption
559
B. Hard power
C. Soft power
D. Theory of deterrence
E. Realism
Answer: D
Page Reference: 527
5. What type of trade relations exists between the United States and China?
A. Free trade
B. Export only trade
C. Import only
D. Normal trade
E. Fair trade
Answer: D
Page Reference: 529
Skill: Application
6. The Kyoto Protocol (1997) deals with the issue of

A. trade to aggressive nations.
B. AIDS in Africa.
C. greenhouse gas emissions.
D. Bosnian genocide.
E. economic growth in poorer countries.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 530
7. ___________ honored its part of the “Road Map to Peace” agreement starting in 2005 by dismantling
all settlements, thereby turning over complete control of these territories to the ____________
Authority.
A. Iran and Iraqi
B. Iran and Pakistani
C. Israel and Palestinian
D. Iraq and Kuwaiti
E. Iraq and Pakistani
Answer: C
Page Reference: 529
8. Even though chemical weapons were outlawed after World War I, how many countries have said that
they have developed chemical weapons?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 10
D. 7
560
E. 9
Answer: E
Page Reference: 527
9. __________________ is responsible for the diplomatic realm of foreign and defense policy.
A. The State Department
B. The Central Intelligence Agency
C. National Security Council
D. Defense Department’s Defense Intelligence Agency
E. Department of Defense
Answer: A
Page Reference: 532
10. The Defense Department’s Defense Intelligence Agency

A. is responsible for the diplomatic realm of foreign and defense policy.
B. gathers and analyzes information that flows into various parts of the U.S. government from all over the
world.
C. combines the intelligence operations of the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps.
D. serves directly under the president and is intended to help integrate foreign, military, and economic
policies that could compromise the safety of the borders of the United States.
E. has existed for more than half a century, its leaders are still working to ensure both strategic vision and
practical coordination among the military services.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 534
11. The Central Intelligence Agency

world.
E. has existed for more than half a century, its leaders are still working to ensure both strategic vision and
practical coordination among the military services.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 534
12. Founded in 1947, the _____________ is the president’s most important source of advice on foreign
policy within the White House
A. Department of Homeland Security
B. Central Intelligence Agency
C. secretary of state
561
D. National Security Council
E. AARP
Answer: D.
Page Reference: 532
13. Which of the following is NOT a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council?
A. United States
B. Japan
C. France
D. Russia
E. China
Answer: B
Page Reference: 537
14. Which war caused the most U.S. fatalities?

A. World War II
B. Civil War
C. Vietnam War
D. World War I
E. Iraq War
Answer: A
Page Reference: 539
15. Economic sanctions is an example of

A. soft power.
B. hard power.
C. defensive power.
D. offensive power.
E. isolationism.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 538
Skill: Application
1. Realism is the belief that nations can work together to solve common problems.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 524
2. Multilateralism encourages individual nations to act together to solve international problems.

Answer: TRUE
562
Page Reference: 526
3. The Bush Doctrine is a policy adopted in 2001 that asserts America’s right to attack any nation that
has weapons of mass destruction that might be used against U.S. interests.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 526
4. “The Road Map to Peace” required Palestine to dismantle settlements and turn complete control over
to Israel in these territories.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 529
5. The trade policy that exists between the U.S. and Canada is a type of normal trade policy.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 529
6. In April 2006, Iran announced that it would end its nuclear power program.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 528
7. The secretary of state administers the State Department.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 533
8. The Foreign Service is a group of highly trained army officers.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 533
9. Japan is NOT a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 537
10. The Civil War resulted in the most number of American soldiers being killed of any war in U.S.
history.
563
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 539
Chapter Examination
1. ___________ is a theory of international relations that focuses on the tendency of nations to operate
from self-interest.
A. Idealism
B. Isolationism
C. Realism
D. Internationalism
E. Multilateralism
Answer: C
Page Reference: 524
2. Idealism is
A. the belief that nations engage in international problem solving.
B. a theory of international relations that focuses on the tendency of nations to operate from self-interest.
nations.
E. the belief that nations must engage in international problem solving.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 524
3. Unilateralism is
nations.
Answer: D
4. Internationalism is
564
nations.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 525
5. Isolationism is
B. the belief that nations must engage in international problem solving
nations.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 525
6. ___________ is a philosophy that encourages individual nations to act together to solve international
problems.
A. Unilateralism
B. Isolationism
C. Realism
D. Internationalism
E. Multilateralism
Answer: E
Page Reference: 526
7. ___________ is the belief that nations must engage in international problem solving.
A. Unilateralism
B. Isolationism
C. Realism
D. Internationalism
E. Multilateralism
Answer: D
Page Reference: 525
8. ___________ is the desire to avoid international engagement altogether.

A. Unilateralism
B. Isolationism
C. Realism
565
D. Internationalism
E. Multilateralism
Answer: B
Page Reference: 525
9. The Bush Doctrine would mostly be supported by a person with what type of policy view?
A. Unilateralism
B. Isolationism
C. Realism
D. Internationalism
E. Multilateralism
Answer: A
Page Reference: 526
10. People who disagree with the Bush Doctrine might subscribe to this type of policy view?
A. Unilateralism
B. Isolationism
C. Realism
D. Internationalism
E. Multilateralism
Answer: E
Page Reference: 526
11. Which philosophy encourages individual nations to act on their own when facing threats from other
nations?
A. Unilateralism
B. Isolationism
C. Internationalism
D. Multilateralism
E. Isolationism
Answer: A
Page Reference: 525
12. Which policy asserts America’s right to attack any nation that has weapons of mass destruction that
may be used against U.S interests?
A. Powell Act
B. Rumsfeld Doctrine
C. Truman Doctrine
D. Bush Doctrine
E. Eisenhower Doctrine
Answer: D
566
Page Reference: 526
13. What is the assumption that the U.S. can attack first when it believes another nation constitutes a very
serious threat?
A. Preemption
B. Defensive power
C. Hard power
D. Deterrence
E. Multilateralism
Answer: A
Page Reference: 526
14. Using diplomacy to influence other nations is an example of

A. preemption.
B. theory of deterrence.
C. soft power.
D. hard power.
E. isolationaism.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 526
Skill: Application
15. Planners for the war in Iraq assumed that U.S. troops would
A. be resented by a large segment of the Iraqi population.
B. have to be increased in number after the initial victory.
C. find weapons of mass destruction.
D. be forced to serve numerous tours of duty.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 526
Skill: Analysis
16. Soft power is

A. a reliance on economic and military strength to solve international problems.
D. a policy of taking action before the United State is attacked rather than waiting for provocation.
E. a reliance on diplomacy and negotiation to solve international problems.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 527
567
17. Which of the following is NOT considered a type of WMD?
A. Chemical weapons
B. Biological weapons
C. Conventional weapons
D. Nuclear weapons
E. All of the above are considered WMDs
Answer: C
Page Reference: 526
Skill: Application
18. ___________ is a philosophy that encourages individual nations to act together to solve international
problems.
A. Preemption
B. Hard power
C. Soft power
D. Multilateralism
E. Realism
Answer: D
Page Reference: 526
19. Preemption is
D. a policy of taking action before the United States is attacked rather than waiting for provocation.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 526
20. Hard power is

D. a policy of taking action before the United State is attacked rather than waiting for provocation.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 527
21. ___________ is a reliance on economic and military strength to solve international problems
A. Preemption
B. Hard power
568
C. Soft power
D. Deterrence
E. Realism
Answer: B
Page Reference: 527
22. The theory of deterrence is

B. a theory that is based on creating enough military strength to persuade other nations not to attack first.
D. a policy of taking action before the United States is attacked rather than waiting for provocation.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 527
23. The war in ___________ was a major action against a nation that clearly harbored terrorism.
A. Palestine
B. Afghanistan
C. Iraq
D. Iran
E. Darfur
Answer: B
Page Reference: 528
Skill: Application
24. What is the name of the terrorist organization headed by Osama bin Laden?
A. Red Brigade
B. Republican Guard
C. Red Crescent
D. Al-Qaeda
E. Al-Saddam
Answer: D
Page Reference: 528
25. According to your book, which two nations continue to have conflicts along each other’s borders
despite the push for peace?
A. Iran and Iraq
B. Iran and Pakistan
C. Israel and Palestine
D. Iraq and Kuwait
E. Iraq and Pakistan
Answer: C
569
Page Reference: 529
26. The United States supports and has a free trade policy for free trade but the U.S. does NOT have
A. a commitment to globalization.
B. an extensive free export policy on all goods.
C. a policy for free movement of goods across national borders.
D. a policy on unrestricted export of goods that could make nuclear weapons.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 529
27. The year the U.S., Israel, and Arab nations embraced “The Road Map to Peace” was
A. 1998.
B. 2002.
C. 1996.
D. 1992.
E. 2004.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 529
28. The attention the United States placed on Iraq during the Bush administration distracted from the war
in
A. Israel.
B. Afghanistan.
C. Iran.
D. Korea.
E. Vietnam.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 531
29. Which of the following objectives was NOT articulated in support of the decision to invade Iraq in
the spring of 2003?
A. The promotion of democracy
B. The defeat of terrorism
C. The end of U.S. dependence on foreign oil
D. The control of weapons of mass destruction
E. All of the above were articulated in support of the invasion
Answer: C
Page Reference: 531
Skill: Analysis
570
30. Which item is currently on the foreign and defense policy agenda of the United States?
A. Controlling weapons of mass destruction
B. Fighting terrorism
C. Reducing global warming
D. Promoting free trade abroad
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Page Reference: 527
31. The effort to control weapons of mass destruction started with nuclear disarmament talks between the
United States and ___________.
A. Iraq
B. Iran
C. North Korea
D. Japan
E. the Soviet Union
Answer: E
Page Reference: 527
32. Volunteers of which organization are expected to serve in another nation for two years on community
development projects?
A. Volunteers for Peace
B. Americorps
C. Peace Corps
D. United Nations
Answer: C
Page Reference: 532
33. Which of the following cities were NOT the targets of terrorist bomb attacks between 2001 and 2005?
A. London
B. Madrid
C. Moscow
D. Berlin
E. All of the above were targets
Answer: D
Page Reference: 528
Skill: Application
34. The United States has normal trade relations with which of the following countries?
A. Japan
B. Cuba
C. China
571
D. Iraq
E. Israel
Answer: C
Page Reference: 529
35. What international treaty was signed in 1997 by 55 nations promising to lower their greenhouse
emissions?
A. Project Green
B. Kyoto Protocol
C. Emission Treaty
D. Global Warming Initiative
Answer: B
Page Reference: 530
36. The following are true of the Peace Corps EXCEPT

A. participants serve in another nation for two years.
B. participants teach math and science.
C. participants partake in community development projects.
D. it require a college degree or specific international experience.
E. 10% of the volunteers are 50 and over.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 532
Skill: Analysis
37. Who gives consent to treaty ratification in the United States?

A. The president, by executive order
B. The House and the Senate jointly, by majority vote
C. The House, by two-thirds vote
D. The Senate, by two-thirds vote
E. Congress by two-thirds vote
Answer: D
Page Reference: 532
38. The secretary of state does all of the following EXCEPT

A. administer the State Department.
B. works closely with the CIA on issues relation to information about for countries that could negatively
affect the U.S.
C. receives visits from foreign diplomats.
D. attends international conferences.
E. serves as the administration’s chief coordinator of all governmental actions that affect our relations
with other nations.
Answer: B
572
39. The National Security Council

world.
E. has existed for more than half a century, and its leaders are still working to ensure both strategic vision
and practical coordination among the military services.
Answer: D
40. The State Department

world.
E. has existed for more than half a century, and its leaders are still working to ensure both strategic vision
and practical coordination among the military services.
Answer: A
Page Reference: 533
41. Which of the following is NOT a member of the intelligence community?

A. Energy Department of Intelligence
B. Homeland Security’s Department’s Directorate of Information Analysis and Infrastructure Protection
C. Federal Bureau of Investigation
D. National Reconnaissance Office
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Page Reference: 534
Skill: Application
42. __________________ combines the intelligence operations of the Army, Navy, Air Force, and
Marine Corps.
573
Answer: D
Page Reference: 534
43. State Department policy priorities include all BUT which of the following?
A. Promoting protective tariffs
B. Protecting American citizens’ abroad
C. Negotiating treaties
D. Promoting U.S. commercial interests
E. Granting visas to foreign visitors
Answer: A
Page Reference: 533
44. The __________________ gathers and analyzes information that flows into various parts of the U.S.
government from all over the world.
A. State Department
Answer: B
Page Reference: 534
45. What committee serves as the principle military adviser to the president?
C. The Joint Chiefs of Staff
D. The Defense Department’s Defense Intelligence Agency
E. The Department of Defense
Answer: C
46. Which United Sates president warned that we must be wary of the military-industrial complex that
supports increased defense spending as a way to protect jobs?
A. Bill Clinton
B. Dwight D. Eisenhower
C. Lyndon B. Johnson
D. John F. Kennedy
E. Richard Nixon
Answer: B
Page Reference: 535
574
47. The Reorganization Act of 1986 gave power to
A. Congress.
B. the secretary of defense.
C. the National Security Council.
D. the chair of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
E. the secretary of state.
Answer: D
Page Reference: 535
48. The Joint Chiefs of Staff is composed of

A. representatives of the four armed services.
B. a joint United States Senate and House committee.
C. quasi-military organizations.
D. the president’s special aides.
Answer: A
49. The __________________serves directly under the president and is intended to help integrate
foreign, military, and economic policies that affect national security.
A. State Department
Answer: C
Page Reference: 532
50. The 9/11 Commission is

A. Unilateral.
B. Bipartisan.
C. Nonpartisan.
D. Conservative.
E. Liberal.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 534
51. Shortly before ____________________ ended, Congress replaced the draft with an all-volunteer
force.
A. the Vietnam War
B. World War II
575
C. the Korean War
D. the Persian Gulf War
E. World War I
Answer: A
Page Reference: 535
52. Most responsibility for the formation of foreign policy is held by the
A. Senate Foreign Relations Committee
B. House Committee on Foreign Affairs.
C. Commerce Department.
D. Judicial Branch.
E. Executive Branch.
Answer: E
Page Reference: 533
53. Conventional diplomacy, a ______________, can become ____________ when the United States
breaks diplomatic relations with another nation.
A. hard power and soft power
B. nonviolent action and violent
C. defensive power and offensive power
D. soft power and hard power
Answer: D
Page Reference: 537
Skill: Analysis
54. All of the following are permanent members of the U.N. Security Council EXCEPT which of the
following?
A. United States
B. Germany
C. France
D. Russia
E. China
Answer: B
Page Reference: 537
55. Foreign aid is an example of

A. soft power.
B. hard power.
C. defensive power.
D. offensive power.
Answer: A
576
Page Reference: 538
Skill: Application
56. Which is true about economic sanctions?

A. They are always effective.
B. Their record is mixed.
C. They never work.
D. They affect only leaders.
E. None of the above.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 538
57. What is a goal of public diplomacy?

A. To cast the enemy in a less favorable light among its supporters
B. To mold the image of a conflict
C. To clarify the ultimate goals of U.S. foreign policy
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Page Reference: 537
58. Military power is an example of

A. soft power.
B. hard power.
C. defensive power.
D. offensive power.
E. Both C and D are correct.
Answer: B
Page Reference: 538
Skill: Application
59. Which of the following is NOT true about foreign aid?

A. It goes to countries the United States deems to be of strategic importance to national security.
B. Most foreign aid is actually spent in the United States.
C. It is considered a soft power.
D. The United States spends more money on foreign aid than it does on Medicaid.
E. Both C and D are correct
Answer: D
Page Reference: 538
Skill: Analysis
60. Which war had the fewest casualties?

A. Afghanistan War
577
B. Persian Gulf War
C. Spanish-American War
D. War of 1812
E. Iraq War
Answer: B
Page Reference: 539
61. Which of the following is a specialized agency of the United Nations?

A. World Health Organization
B. World Trade Organization
C. World Bank
D. All of the above
Answer: A
Page Reference: 537
62. The imposition of economic sanctions is

A. generally effective in all cases.
B. seldom employed.
C. not usually popular among farmers and corporation.
D. generally described as an ideal alternative to war.
E. generally not effective in any cases.
Answer: C
Page Reference: 538
1. Realism is a theory of international relations that focuses on the tendency of nations to operate from
self-interest.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 524
2. Unilateralism is a theory of international relations that focuses on the hope that nations will act
together to solve international problems and promote peace.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 525
3. Idealism a philosophy that encourages individual nations to act together to solve international
problems.
Answer: FALSE
578
Page Reference: 524
4. Internationalism is the belief that nations must engage in international problem solving.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 525
5. The Bush Doctrine is a unilateral policy.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 526
Skill: Application
6. People who disagree with the Bush Doctrine may be proponents of multilateralism.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 526
Skill: Analysis
7. Preemption is a unilateral philosophy that emphasizes individual nations to act together to solve
international problems.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 526
8. Soft power is a reliance on diplomacy and negotiations to solve international conflict.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 527
9. The United States War in Iraq is an example of hard power.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 527
Skill: Application
10. Theory of deterrence involves the creation of excessive amounts chemical weapons to deter other
nations from invading.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 527
11. The war in Iraq is an example of preemption.

Answer: TRUE
579
Page Reference: 526
Skill: Application
12. We often associate soft power with the theory of deterrence.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 527
Skill: Analysis
13. Under the Bush Doctrine, any country that threatens the United States is a potential target for
multilateral action.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 526
14. Isolationism is the desire to avoid international engagement altogether.

Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 525
15. Isolationism has never played an important role in American foreign policy.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 525
16. Multilateralism is a philosophy that encourages individual nations to act on their own when facing
external threats.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 526
17. According to President Bush’s policy of preemption, the United States has the right to strike first in
self-defense before an emerging threat fully develops.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 526
18. Internationalism is the belief that nations must engage in international problem solving.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 525
580
19. Unilateralism is a philosophy that encourages individual nations to act together to solve international
problems.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 525
20. The United States has used trade as a tool to promote human rights.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 529
21. The usage of chemical weapons was outlawed after World War I.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 527
22. The war in Iraq was the first major action against a nation that clearly harbored terrorists.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 528
23. Al-Qaeda is the name of the terrorist organization that is lead by Osama bin Laden.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 528
24. Israel and Pakistan continue to have conflict along their borders despite “The Road Map to Peace.”
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 529
25. The United States has a free trade policy with China.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 529
26. The Kyoto Protocol has NOT been successful in Europe.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 530
Skill: Analysis
581
27. The United States involvement in Iraq has weakened the effort of the war in Afghanistan.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 531
28. The Peace Corps often teach math and science in other nations.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 532
29. The State Department is the formal channel of communication between the United States and foreign
governments.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 532
30. The Department of Defense is responsible for all of the foreign policy formulations in America.
Answer: FALSE
31. The Senate gives treaty ratification consent with a two-thirds vote.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 533
32. The secretary of state has little to do with international conferences.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 533
33. Dwight D. Eisenhower warned that we must be wary of the military-industrial complex that supports
increased defense spending as a way to protect jobs.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 535
34. Shortly before the Korean War ended, Congress replaced the draft with an all-volunteer force.
Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 535
582
35. The decision to halt export, import, or financial relations with a country is known as the imposition of
economic sanctions.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 538
36. Economic sanctions are almost always effective.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 538
37. Military power is an example of soft power.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 538
Skill: Application
38. Germany is a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council.

Answer: FALSE
Page Reference: 537
39. Most U.S. foreign aid is actually spent in the United States.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 538
40. The Persian Gulf War resulted in the least number of American soldiers being killed of any war in
U.S. history.
Answer: TRUE
Page Reference: 539
1. What is idealism?
Skill: Analysis
2. Evaluate the Bush Doctrine and state whether or not you think it is a legitimate policy.
Skill: Evaluation
3. What is hard power? Provide examples.

583
Skill: Application
4. What is unilateralism? Provide examples of unilateral action.

Skill: Application
5. What is realism?
Skill: Analysis
6. What is theory of deterrence? What are some historical examples of this?

Skill: Application
7. What type of trade policy exists between the United States and China and why is it that this type of
trade exists?
Skill: Analysis
8. What were the three goals the Bush Administration had as it considered an invasion of Iraq?
Skill: Analysis
9. What is the Kyoto Protocol and has it been successful? Have all parties involved complied?
Skill: Evaluation
10. Explain how the Reorganization Act of 1986 changed the dynamics of the Joint Chiefs of Staff?
Skill: Analysis
11. How much was spent on Defense in 2008? What did Dwight D. Eisenhower say about defense
spending?
Skill: Analysis
12. Why was the all-volunteer force created?

Skill: Analysis
13. What are two of the misconceptions associated with foreign aid?
Skill: Analysis
14. Why was the Office of Global Communication created?

Skill: Analysis
15. What are economic sanctions? Provide examples.

584
Skill: Application
16. Public diplomacy is a blend of age-old propaganda techniques and modern information warfare. What
are its three basic goals?
Skill: Analysis
Essay Questions
1. Compare and contrast realism and idealism. Do not forget to show examples.
Skill: Evaluation
2. Compare and contrast isolationism and internationalism. Do not forget to show examples.
Skill: Evaluation
3. Compare and contrast unilateralism and multilateralism. Do not forget to show examples.
Skill: Evaluation
4. Compare and contrast hard power and soft power. Do not forget to show examples.
Skill: Evaluation
5. Compare and contrast preemption and provocation. Do not forget to show examples.
Skill: Evaluation
6. How has the United States tried to promote peace in the Middle East? What particular nation has the
United States focused on and why?
Skill: Analysis
7. Explain the relationship that exists between weapons of mass destruction and the war on terrorism.
Do not forget to explain each individually.
Skill: Analysis
8. How has the United States reacted to and used the idea of free trade? Are there any countries that the
United States does not have a free trade policy with? If not, then who and what type of trade policy (if
any) exists?
Skill: Analysis
9. What is global warming and what efforts have been taken to reduce its effects? Have they been
implemented? Why or why not?
Skill: Analysis
585
10. What were the three goals that the Bush Administration had in mind when it was planning an invasion
of Iraq? Did it succeed? Why or why not?
Skill: Analysis
11. What is the State Department and what are its duties? What do some of the critics say about the State
Department? What kind of budget does it run on and what makes this budget so interesting? Also,
what is the Foreign Service and how does it relate to the State Department? What are its duties?
Skill: Analysis
12. What are some intelligence agencies? What do we mean by the intelligence community? How did the
relationships change between these various agencies after September 11, 2001?
Skill: Analysis
13. Evaluate how the Joint Chiefs of Staff has changed before and after 1986.
Skill: Evaluation
14. Compare and contrast foreign aid and economic sanctions. Are they hard or soft powers? What are
some misconceptions associated with foreign aid?
Skill: Evaluation
15. Evaluate conventional diplomacy. What type of power (hard or soft) is it? Can it become another type
of power? How? How successful have the United Nations been? What role does the United Nations
play and how many nations are members? Who are the members of the U.N. Security Council?
Skill: Evaluation
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rapid glance over it, directed the light division, and Pack’s brigade, to
hold the right in play, ordered the third division against the left, and at
the same moment the horse-artillery, galloping forward to a rising
ground, opened with a great and sudden effect. Ney’s left wing being
surprised and overthrown by the first charge of the third division,
dispersed in a panic, and fled in such confusion towards the river,
that some, missing the fords, rushed into the deeps and were
drowned, and others crowding on the bridge were crushed to death.
On the right the ground was so rugged and close that the action
resolved itself into a skirmish, and thus Ney was enabled to use
some battalions to check the pursuit of his left, but meanwhile
darkness came on and the French troops in their disorder fired on
each other. Only four officers and sixty men fell on the side of the
British. The enemy’s loss was not less than five hundred, of which
one-half were drowned; and an eagle was afterwards found in the
bed of the river when the waters subsided.
In the night Massena retired behind the Alva; yet Ney,
notwithstanding this disastrous combat, maintained the left bank of
the Ceira, until every encumbrance had passed; and then blowing up
seventy feet of the bridge, sent his corps on, but remained himself,
with a weak rear guard, on the opposite bank. Thus terminated the
first part of the retreat from Santarem, during which the French
commander, if we except his errors with regard to Coimbra,
displayed infinite ability, but withal a harsh and ruthless spirit.
I pass over the destruction of Redinha, Condeixa, Miranda de
Corvo, and many villages on the route; the burning of those towns
covered the retrograde movements of the army, and something must
be attributed to the disorder, which usually attends a forced retreat:
but the town of Leiria, and the convent of Alcobaça, were given to
the flames by express orders from the French head-quarters; and,
although the laws of war rigorously interpreted, Lord Wellington’s
authorize such examples when the inhabitants take Despatches
arms, it can only be justly done, for the purpose of overawing the
people, and not from a spirit of vengeance when abandoning the
country. But every horror that could make war hideous attended this
dreadful march! Distress, conflagrations, death, in all modes! from
wounds, from fatigue, from water, from the flames, from starvation!
On every side unlimited violence, unlimited vengeance! I myself saw
a peasant hounding on his dog, to devour the dead and dying; and
the spirit of cruelty once unchained smote even the brute creation.
On the 15th the French general, to diminish the encumbrances of his
march, ordered a number of beasts of burthen to be destroyed; the
inhuman fellow, charged with the execution, hamstringed five
hundred asses and left them to starve, and thus they were found by
the British army on that day. The mute but deep expression of pain
and grief, visible in these poor creatures’ looks, wonderfully roused
the fury of the soldiers; and so little weight has reason with the
multitude, when opposed by a momentary sensation, that no quarter
would have been given to any prisoner at that moment. Excess of
feeling would have led to direct cruelty. This shews how dangerous it
is in war to listen to the passions at all, since the most praiseworthy
could be thus perverted by an accidental combination of
circumstances.
C H A P T E R I V.
On the 16th the allies halted, partly because the Ceira was swollen
and unfordable, partly from the extreme exhaustion of the troops
who had suffered far greater privations than the enemy. The latter,
following his custom, carried fifteen days’ bread; the allies depended
upon a commissariat, which broke down under the difficulties; not
from any deficiency in the chief (Mr. Kennedy), who was
distinguished alike for zeal, probity, and talent; but from the ill
conduct of the Portuguese government; who, deaf to the repeated
representations of lord Wellington and Beresford, would neither feed
the Portuguese troops regularly while at Santarem, nor fill their
magazines, nor collect the means of transport for the march. Hence,
after passing Pombal, the greater part of the native force had been
unable to continue the pursuit; and the brigades under general Pack
and colonel Ashworth, which did keep up and engaged daily with the
enemy, were actually four days without food of any sort. Numbers
died of inanition on the roads, and to save the whole from
destruction, the British supplies were shared with them. The
commissary-general’s means were thus overlaid, the whole army
suffered, and an imperative necessity obliged lord Wellington to halt.
Nevertheless he had saved Coimbra, forced the enemy into a
narrow, intricate, and ravaged country, and, with an inferior force,
turned him out of every strong position; and this, by a series of
movements, based on the soundest principles of war. For, noting the
skill and tenacity with which Massena and Ney clung to every league
of ground and every ridge defensible, against superior numbers, he
seized the higher slopes of the mountains by Picton’s flank march on
the 13th; and again by Cole’s on the 14th; and thus, continually
menacing the passes in rear of the French, obliged them to abandon
positions which could scarcely have been forced: and this method of
turning the strength of the country to profit is the true key to
mountain warfare. He who receives battle in the hills has always the
advantage; and he who first seizes the important points chooses his
own field of battle.
In saying an inferior force, I advert to the state of the Portuguese
army and to Badajos; for lord Wellington, having saved Coimbra, and
seen that the French would not accept a general battle, except on
very advantageous terms, had detached a brigade of cavalry, some
guns, and a division of native infantry, from Condeixa, to the
Alemtejo. He had, therefore, actually less than twenty-five thousand
men in hand, during the subsequent operations. In the night of the
13th, also, he received intelligence that Badajos had surrendered,
and, feeling all the importance of this event, detached the fourth
division likewise to the Alemtejo, for he designed that Beresford
should immediately retake the lost fortress: but, as the road of
Espinhal was the shortest line to the Tagus, general Cole, as we
have seen, moved into it by Panella, thus threatening Massena’s
flank and rear at the same moment that he gained a march towards
his ultimate destination. Meanwhile, Trant and Wilson, with the
militia, moving up the right bank of the Mondego, parallel to the
enemy’s line of retreat, forbad his foragers to pass that river, and
were at hand either to interfere between him and Oporto, or to act
against his flank and rear.
Such were the dispositions of the English general; but the military
horizon was still clouded. Intelligence came from the north that
Bessieres, after providing for his government, had been able to draw
together, at Zamora, above seven thousand men, and menaced an
invasion of Gallicia; and, although Mahi had an army Appendix, No. II.
of sixteen thousand men, lord Wellington anticipated Section 9.
no resistance. In the south, affairs were even more gloomy. The
battle of Barosa, the disputes which followed, and the conduct of
Imas and Mendizabel, proved that, from Spain, no useful co-
operation was ever to be expected. Mortier, also, had invested
Campo Mayor, and it was hardly expected to hold out until Beresford
arrived. The Spaniards, to whom it had been Ibid.
delivered, under an engagement of honour, entered
into by Romana, to keep it against the enemy, had disloyally
neglected and abandoned it at the very moment when Badajos fell,
and two hundred Portuguese militia, thrown in at the moment, had to
defend this fortress, which required a garrison of five thousand
regulars. Nor was the enemy, immediately in the British front, the last
to be considered.
Ney withdrew from the Ceira in the evening of the 16th, and on the
17th the light division forded that river with great difficulty, while the
rest of the army passed over a trestle bridge, thrown in the night by
the staff-corps. The French were, however, again in position
immediately behind the Alva and on the Sierra de Moita, and they
destroyed the Ponte Murcella and the bridge near Pombeira; while
the second corps moved towards the upper part of the river, and
Massena spread his foraging parties to a considerable distance,
designing to halt for several days. Nevertheless the first, third, and
fifth divisions were directed on the 18th, by the Sierra de St. Quiteria,
to menace the French left, and they made way over the mountains
with a wonderful perseverance and strength, while the sixth and light
divisions cannonaded the enemy on the Lower Alva.
As the upper course of the river, now threatened by lord
Wellington’s right, was parallel to the line of Massena’s retreat, that
marshal recalled the second corps, and, quitting the Lower Alva also,
concentrated on the Sierra de Moita, lest the divisions, moving up
the river, should cross, and fall on his troops while separated and in
march. It then behoved the allies to concentrate also, lest the heads
of their columns should be crushed by the enemy’s masses. The
Alva was deep, wide, and rapid, yet the staff-corps succeeded in
forming a most ingenious raft-bridge, and the light division
immediately passed between Ponte Murcella and Pombeira; and at
the same time the right wing of the army entered Arganil, while Trant
and Wilson closed on the other side of the Mondego.
Massena now recommenced his retreat with great rapidity, and
being desirous to gain Celerico and the defiles leading upon Guarda
betimes, he again destroyed baggage and ammunition, and
abandoned even his more distant foraging parties, who were
intercepted and taken, to the number of eight hundred, in returning to
the Alva: for lord Wellington, seeing the success of his combinations,
had immediately directed all his columns upon Moita, and the whole
army was assembled there the 19th. The pursuit was renewed the
20th, through Penhancos, but only with the light division and the
cavalry; the communication was, however, again opened with Wilson
and Trant who had reached the bridge of Fornos, and with Silveira,
who was about Trancoso. The third and sixth divisions followed in
reserve, but the remainder of the army halted at Moita, until
provisions, sent by sea from Lisbon to the Mondego, could come up
to them. The French reached Celerico the 21st, with two corps and
the cavalry, and immediately opened the communication with
Almeida, by posting detachments of horse on the Pinhel, and at the
same time Reynier, who had retired through Govea, occupied
Guarda with the second corps.
Massena had now regained his original base of operations, and
his retreat may be said to have terminated; but he was far from
wishing to re-enter Spain, where he could only appear as a baffled
general, and shorn of half his authority; because Bessieres
commanded the northern provinces, which, at the commencement of
the invasion, had been under himself. Hence, anxious to hold on to
Portugal, and that his previous retreat might appear as a mere
change of position, he formed the design of throwing all his sick men
and other incumbrances into Almeida, and then, passing the Estrella
at Guarda, make a countermarch, through Sabugal and Pena Macor,
to the Elga; establishing a communication across the Tagus with
Soult, and by the valley of the Tagus with the king.
But now the factions in his army had risen to such a height that he
could no longer command the obedience of his lieutenants;
Montbrun, Junot, Drouet, Reynier, and Ney were all at variance with
each other and with him. The first had, in the beginning of the
retreat, been requested to secure Coimbra; instead of which he
quitted Portugal, carrying with him Claparede’s division; Marcognet’s
brigade was then ordered for that operation, but it did not move;
finally, Montbrun undertook it, and failed in default of vigour. Junot
was disabled by his wound, but his faction did not the less shew their
discontent. Reynier’s dislike to the prince was so strong, that the
officers carrying flags of truce, from his corps, never failed to speak
of it to the British; and Ney, more fierce than all of them, defied his
authority. To him the dangerous delay at Pombal, the tardiness of
Marcognet’s brigade, and, finally, the too-sudden evacuation of the
position at Condeixa, have been attributed: and it is General Pelet’s
alleged that, far from being ordered to set fire to that Notes. See Vol. xxi.
Victoires et
town on the 13th, as the signal for a preconcerted Conquêtes des
Français.
retreat, that he had promised Massena to maintain the
position for twenty-four hours longer. The personal risk of the latter,
in consequence of the hasty change of position, would seem to
confirm this; but it is certain that, when Picton was observed passing
the Sierra de Anciao by a road before unknown to the French, and
by which the second corps could have been separated from the
army, and the passes of Miranda de Corvo seized, Ney would have
been frantic to have delayed his movement.
At Miranda, the long gathering anger broke out in a violent
altercation between the prince and the marshal; and at Celerico,
Ney, wishing to fall back on Almeida, to shorten the term of the
retreat, absolutely refused to concur in the projected march to Coria;
and even marched his troops in a contrary direction. Massena, a
man not to be opposed with impunity, then deprived him of his
command, giving the sixth corps to Loison; and each marshal sent
confidential officers to Paris to justify their conduct to the emperor.
From both of those officers I have derived information, but as each
thinks that the conduct of his general was approved by Napoleon,
their opinions are irreconcilable upon many points; I have, therefore,
set down in the narrative the leading sentiments of each, without
drawing any other conclusions than those deducible from the
acknowledged principles of art and from unquestioned facts. Thus
judging, it appears that Massena’s general views were as superior to
Ney’s as the latter’s readiness and genius in the handling of troops in
action were superior to the prince’s. Yet the duke of Elchingen often
played too near the flame, whereas nothing could be grander than
the conceptions of Massena: nor was the project now meditated by
him the least important.
From Guarda to Zarza Mayor and Coria was not two days longer
march than to Ciudad Rodrigo, but the army of Portugal must have
gone to the latter place a beaten army, seeking for refuge and
succour in its fortresses and reserves, and being separated from the
central line of invasion: whereas, by gaining Coria, a great
movement of war, wiping out the notion of a forced retreat, would
have been accomplished. A close and concentric direction would
also have been given to the three armies of the south, of the centre,
and of Portugal; and a powerful demonstration effected against
Lisbon, which would inevitably bring lord Wellington back to the
Tagus. Thus the conquests of the campaign, namely, Ciudad
Rodrigo, Almeida, Badajos, and Olivenza, would have been
preserved, and meanwhile the army of the north could have
protected Castile and menaced the frontier of Portugal. Massena,
having maturely considered this plan, gave orders, on the 23d, for
the execution; but Ney, as we have seen, thwarted him.
Meanwhile the English horse and the militia, hovering round
Celerico, made, in different skirmishes, a hundred prisoners, and
killed as many more; and the French cavalry posts withdrew from the
Pinhel. The sixth corps then took a position at Guarda; the second
corps at Belmonte; the eighth corps and the cavalry in the eastern
valleys of the Estrella.
Ney’s insubordination had rendered null the plan of marching upon
the Elga; but Massena expected still to maintain himself at Guarda
with the aid of the army of the south, and to hold open the
communications with the king and with Soult. His foragers had
gathered provisions in the western valleys of the Estrella, and he
calculated upon being able to keep his position for eight days with
his own force alone; and, independent of the general advantage, it
was essential to hold Guarda for some time, because Drouet had
permitted Julian Sanchez to cut off a large convoy destined for
Ciudad Rodrigo, and had left Almeida with only ten days’ provisions.
Lord Wellington’s ready boldness, however, disarranged all the
prince’s calculations.
The troops had come up from Moita on the 28th, and with them
the reinforcements, which were organized as a seventh division.
The light division and the cavalry then passed the Mondego at
Celerico, and, driving the French out of Frexadas, occupied the
villages beyond that place: at the same time, the militia took post on
the Pinhel river, cutting the communication with Almeida, while the
third division was established at Porca de Misarella, half way up the
mountain, to secure the bridges over the higher Mondego. Early on
the 29th the third, sixth, and light divisions, and two regiments of light
cavalry, disposed in five columns of attack on a half circle round the
foot of the Guarda mountain, ascended by as many paths, all leading
upon the town of Guarda, and outflanking both the right and left of
the enemy; they were supported on one wing by the militia, on the
other by the fifth division, and in the centre by the first and seventh
divisions. A battle was expected, but the absence of Ney was at
once felt by both armies; the appearance of the allied columns threw
the French into the greatest confusion, and, without firing a shot, this
great and nearly impregnable position was abandoned. Had the
pursuit been as vigorous as the attack, it is not easy to see how the
second corps could have rejoined Massena; but Reynier quitting
Belmonte in the night, recovered his communication with a loss of
only three hundred prisoners, although the horse-artillery and cavalry
had been launched against him at daylight on the 30th. Much more
could however have been done, if general Slade had pushed his
cavalry forward with the celerity and vigour the occasion required.
On the 1st of April, the allied army descended the mountains, and
reached the Coa; but the French general, anxious to maintain at
once his hold of Portugal and the power of operating either on the
side of Coria or of Ciudad Rodrigo and Almeida, was in position on
the right bank of that river. The sixth corps was at Rovina, with
detachments guarding the bridge of Seceiras and the ford of
Atalayon, and the communication with Almeida was maintained by a
brigade of the ninth corps, which was posted near the ford of Junça.
The second corps was on the hills behind Sabugal, stretching
towards Alfayates, but having strong detachments at the bridge of
Sabugal and the ford of Rapoulha de Coa. The eighth corps was at
Alfayates, and a post was established at Rendo to maintain the
communication between the second and the sixth corps. In this
situation, the French army was disposed on two sides of a triangle,
the apex of which was at Sabugal, and both fronts were covered by
the Coa, because Sabugal was situated in a sharp bend of the
stream: by holding Alfayates, Massena also commanded the passes
leading through St. Martin Trebeja to Coria.
Along the whole course of the Coa, which is a considerable river,
the banks are rugged, but the ravine continually deepens as the
stream flows; and, during the first two days of April, the allies
occupied a line parallel to the enemy’s right, which could not be
attacked. Meanwhile Trant and Wilson, passing the Coa below
Almeida, penetrated between that fortress and Ciudad Rodrigo, as if
the passage of the river was to be made on that side. Lord
Wellington’s aim was, however, against the other flank, and, to
protect the left and rear of the army, he placed the sixth division
opposite the sixth corps, and a battalion of the seventh division at
the bridge of Seceiras.
At daylight, on the 3d of April the cavalry under general Slade,
being on the extreme right, was directed to cross the Upper Coa; the
light division was ordered to ford a little below; the third division still
lower; and the fifth division, with the artillery, to force the bridge of
Sabugal; the first and seventh, with the exception of the battalion at
Seceiras, were held in reserve. The English general having thus, ten
thousand men pivotted on the fifth division at Sabugal, designed to
turn Reynier’s left, to separate him from the eighth corps, and to
surround him before he could be succoured by the sixth corps. One
of those accidents which are frequent in war marred this well-
concerted plan, and brought on the
C O M B AT O F S A B U G A L .
The morning was so foggy, that the troops could not gain their
respective posts of attack with that simultaneous regularity which is
so essential to success; and in the light division no measures were
taken by sir William Erskine to put the columns in a right direction:
the brigades were not even held together, and he carried off the
cavalry and the third caçadores without communicating with colonel
Beckwith. This officer, who commanded the first brigade, being
without any instructions, halted at a ford to await further orders, and
at that moment a staff officer rode up, and somewhat hastily asked,
why he did not attack? The thing appeared rash, but with an enemy
in his front he could make no reply, and instantly passing the river,
which was deep and rapid, mounted a very steep wooded hill on the
other side. Four companies of the ninety-fifth led in skirmishing
order, and were followed by the forty-third regiment; but the
caçadores and the other brigade, being in movement to the true
point, were already distant, and a dark heavy rain setting in rendered
it impossible for some time to distinguish friends or foes. The attack
was thus made too soon, for, owing to the obscurity, none of the
divisions of the army had reached their respective posts. It was
made also in a partial, disseminated, and dangerous manner, and on
the wrong point; for Reynier’s whole corps was directly in front, and
Beckwith, having only one bayonet regiment and four companies of
riflemen, was advancing against more than twelve thousand infantry,
supported by cavalry and artillery.
Scarcely had the riflemen reached the top of the hill, when a
compact and strong body of French drove them back upon the forty-
third; the weather cleared at that instant, and Beckwith at once saw
and felt all his danger; but he met it with a heart that nothing could
shake. Leading a fierce charge he beat back the enemy, and the
summit of the hill was attained, but at the same moment two French
guns opened with grape at the distance of a hundred yards, a fresh
body appeared in front, and considerable forces came on either flank
of the regiment. Fortunately, Reynier, little expecting to be attacked,
had for the convenience of water, placed his principal masses in the
low ground behind the height on which the action commenced; his
renewed attack was therefore up hill; yet the musketry, heavy from
the beginning, now encreased to a storm; the French sprung up the
acclivity with great clamour, and it was evident that nothing but the
most desperate fighting could save the regiment from destruction.
Captain Hopkins, commanding a flank company of the forty-third,
immediately ran out to the right, and with admirable presence of
mind seized a small eminence, close to the French guns and
commanding the ascent up which the French troops turning the right
flank were approaching. His first fire was so sharp, that the
assailants were thrown into confusion; they rallied and were again
disordered by the volleys of this company; a third time they
endeavoured to form a head of attack; when Hopkins with a sudden
charge increased the disorder, and at the same moment the two
battalions of the fifty-second regiment, which had been attracted by
the fire, entered the line. Meanwhile, the centre and left of the forty-
third were furiously engaged and wonderfully excited; for Beckwith
wounded in the head, and with the blood streaming down his face,
rode amongst the foremost of the skirmishers, directing all with
ability, and praising the men, in a loud cheerful tone.
The musket-bullets flew thicker and closer every instant, but the
French fell fast, a second charge cleared the hill, a howitzer was
taken, and the British skirmishers were even advanced a short way
down the descent, when small bodies of French cavalry came
galloping in from all parts, and obliged them to take refuge with the
main body of the regiment. The English line was instantly formed
behind a stone wall above; yet one squadron of dragoons
surmounted the ascent, and, with incredible desperation, riding up to
this wall, were in the act of firing over it with their pistols, when a
rolling volley laid nearly the whole of them lifeless on the ground. By
this time however a second and stronger column of infantry had
rushed up the face of the hill, endeavouring to break in and retake
the howitzer which was on the edge of the descent and only fifty
yards from the wall; but no man could reach it and live, so deadly
was the forty-third’s fire. Meanwhile two English guns came into
action, and the two battalions of the fifty-second charging upon the
flank of the assailants, vindicated the right of the division to the
height. A squadron of French cavalry, which had followed the
columns in their last attack, then fell in amongst the fifty-second
men, extended as they were from the circumstances of the action,
and at first created considerable confusion, but it was finally
repulsed.
Vol. 3, Plate 10.
MASSENA’S RETREAT
Combat of Sabugal
1811.
London Published by T. & W. Boone Novr 1830.
Reynier, convinced at last that he had acted unskilfully in sending

up his troops piece-meal, put all his reserves, amounting to nearly
six thousand infantry with artillery and cavalry, in motion, and
outflanking the division on its left, appeared resolute to storm the
contested height. But, at this critical period, the fifth division passed
the bridge of Sabugal, the British cavalry appeared on the hills
beyond the enemy’s left, and general Colville with the leading
brigade of the third division issuing out of the woods on Reynier’s
right, opened a fire on that flank, which instantly decided the fate of
the day. The French general hastily retreated upon Rendo, where
the sixth corps, which had been put in march when the first shots
were heard, met him, and together they fell back upon Alfayates,
pursued by the English cavalry. The loss of the allies in this bloody
encounter, which did not last quite an hour, was nearly two hundred
killed and wounded, that of the enemy was enormous; three hundred
dead bodies were heaped together on the hill, the greatest part
round the captured howitzer, and more than twelve hundred were
wounded; so unwisely had Reynier handled his masses and so true
and constant was the English fire. Although, the principal causes of
this disproportion undoubtedly was, first, the heavy rain which gave
the French only a partial view of the British, and secondly, the thick
wood which ended near the top of hill, leaving an open and exposed
space upon which the enemy mounted after the first attack; yet it
was no exaggeration in lord Wellington to say, “that Official Despatch.
this was one of the most glorious actions that British
troops were ever engaged in.”
The next day, the light division took the route of Valdespina, to feel
for the enemy on the side of the passes leading upon Coria; but
Massena was in full retreat for Ciudad Rodrigo, and on the 5th
crossed the frontier of Portugal. Here the vigour of the French
discipline on sudden occasions was surprisingly manifested. Those
men who had for months been living by rapine, whose retreat had
been one continued course of violence and devastation, passed an
imaginary line of frontier, and became the most orderly of soldiers;
not the slightest rudeness was offered to any Spaniard, and every
thing demanded was scrupulously paid for, although Appendix, No. IV.
bread was sold at two shillings a pound! Massena Section 2.
himself also, fierce and terrible as he was in Portugal, always treated
the Spaniards with gentleness and moderation.
While these events were passing at Sabugal, Trant crossing the
Lower Coa with four thousand militia, had taken post two miles from
Almeida, when the river suddenly flooded behind him. Near fort
Conception, there was a brigade of the ninth corps, which had been
employed to cover the march of the battering train from Almeida to
Ciudad Rodrigo; but ere those troops discovered Trant’s dangerous
situation, he constructed a temporary bridge and was going to retire
on the 6th, when he received a letter from the British head-quarters,
desiring him to be vigilant in cutting the communication with Almeida,
and fearless, because the next day a British force would be up to his
assistance. Marching then to Val de Mula, he interposed between
the fortress and the brigade of the ninth corps. The latter were
already within half a mile of his position, and his destruction
appeared inevitable; but suddenly two cannon shots were heard to
the southward, the enemy immediately formed squares and
commenced a retreat, and six squadrons of British cavalry and Bull’s
troop of horse-artillery came sweeping over the plain in their rear.
Military order and coolness, marked the French retreat across the
Turones, yet the cannon shots ploughed with a fearful effect through
their dense masses, and the horsemen continually flanked their line
of march: they however gained the rough ground, and finally
escaped over the Agueda by Barba del Puerco; but with the loss of
three hundred men killed, wounded, and prisoners. The prince of
Esling had reached Ciudad Rodrigo two days before, and lord
Wellington now stood victorious on the confines of Portugal, having
executed what to others appeared incredibly rash and vain even to
attempt.
C H A P T E R V.
Massena entered Portugal with sixty-five thousand men; his
reinforcements while at Santarem were about ten thousand; he
repassed the frontier with forty-five thousand; hence the invasion of
Portugal cost him about thirty thousand men, of which fourteen
thousand might have fallen by the sword or been taken. Not more
than six thousand were lost during the retreat; but had lord
Wellington, unrestrained by political considerations, attacked him
vigorously at Redinha, Condeixa, Casal Nova, and Miranda de
Corvo, half the French army would have been lost. It is
unquestionable that a retreating army should fight as little as
possible.
When Massena reached the Agueda, his cavalry detachments,
heavy artillery, and convalescents, again augmented his army to
more than fifty thousand men, but the fatigues of the retreat and the
want of provisions, would not suffer him to shew a front to the allies;
wherefore, drawing two hundred thousand rations from Ciudad, he
fell back to Salamanca, and lord Wellington invested Almeida. The
light division occupied Gallegos and Espeja, the rest of the army
were disposed in villages on both sides of the Coa, and the head-
quarters were transferred to Villa Formosa.
Here colonel Waters, who had been taken near Belmonte during
the retreat, rejoined the army. Confident in his own resources, he
had refused his parole, and, when carried to Ciudad Rodrigo, rashly
mentioned his intention of escaping to the Spaniard in whose house
he was lodged. This man betrayed him; but a servant, detesting his
master’s treachery, secretly offered his aid, and Waters coolly
desired him to get the rowels of his spurs sharpened. When the
French army was near Salamanca, Waters, being in the custody of
gens d’armes, waited until their chief, who rode the only good horse
in the party, had alighted, then giving the spur to his own beast, he
galloped off! an act of incredible resolution and hardihood, for he
was on a large plain, and before him, and for miles behind him, the
road was covered with the French columns. His hat fell off, and, thus
distinguished, he rode along the flank of the troops, some
encouraging him, others firing at him, and the gens d’armes, sword
in hand, close at his heels; but suddenly breaking at full speed,
between two columns, he gained a wooded hollow, and, having
baffled his pursuers, evaded the rear of the enemy’s army. The third
day he reached head-quarters, where lord Wellington had caused
his baggage to be brought, observing that he would not be long
absent.
Massena, having occupied Salamanca, and Appendix, No. VII.
communicated with Bessieres, sent a convoy to
Ciudad Rodrigo, and lord Wellington was unable to prevent its
entrance. He had sent the militia to their homes, disposed his army
between the Coa and the Agueda, and blockaded Almeida; but the
Portuguese regulars were in a dreadful state, and daily decreasing in
numbers; while the continued misconduct of the Regency, and the
absolute want of money gave no hope of any amelioration; it was
therefore impossible to take a position beyond the Agueda.
The depôts were re-established at Lamego on the Douro, and at
Raiva on the Mondego; and magazines of consumption were formed
at Celerico, from whence the mule-brigades brought up the
provisions by the way of Castello Bom: measures were also taken at
Guarda, Pena Macor, and Castello Branco, to form commissariat
establishments which were to be supplied from Abrantes. But the
transport of stores was difficult, and this consideration, combined
with the capricious nature of the Agueda and Coa, rendered it
dangerous to blockade both Ciudad Rodrigo and Almeida; seeing
that the troops would have those rivers behind them, while the
position itself would be weak and extended. The blockade of
Almeida was undertaken because, from intercepted letters and other
sources, it was known to have provisions only for a fortnight; but the
operation formed no part of the plan which lord Wellington was now
revolving in his mind, and he was even prepared to relinquish it
altogether if hardly pressed.
The success in Portugal had given stability to the English
ministers; and it would appear that they at first meant to limit their
future efforts to the defence of that country, for lord Liverpool
required the return of many battalions. But offensive warfare in
Spain, occupied the general’s thoughts, and two lines of operation
had presented themselves to his mind.—1º. Under the supposition
that it would be long ere Massena could again make Lord Wellington to
any serious attempt on Portugal; to remain on the Lord Liverpool, May
7th, 1810. MSS.
defensive in Beira, and march against the army of the
South to raise the siege of Cadiz. 2º. If Almeida fell to the blockade,
to besiege Ciudad Rodrigo; or if Almeida did not so fall, to besiege
both together, and, when they were taken, march at once into the
heart of Spain, and open a communication with Valencia and with
the army of Sicily. This great and lofty conception would have
delivered Andalusia as certainly as any direct operation; for thus
Madrid, the great depôt of the French, would have been taken, the
northern and southern armies cut asunder, and the English base
momentarily fixed on the Mediterranean coast: then the whole of the
Spanish and British force could have been concentrated, and one or
two great battles must have decided the fate of Spain.
Filled with this grand project lord Wellington demanded
reinforcements from England, and leave to carry his design into
execution, if occasion offered: yet he checked his secret aspirations,
when reflecting upon the national pride and perverseness of the
Spaniards, and on their uncertain proceedings, and the great
difficulty, if not impossibility, of ensuring any reasonable concert and
assistance. When to this he also added the bad disposition of the
Portuguese Regency, and the timid temper of the English ministers,
so many jarring elements were presented that he could make no
fixed combinations. Nevertheless, maturing the leading points of
action in his own mind, he resolved to keep them in view; adapting
his proceedings to circumstances as they should arise.
His projects were however necessarily conditional upon whether
Napoleon reinforced his armies again, which would create new
combinations; and before any other measure, it was essential to
recapture Badajos; not only as its possession by the enemy affected
the safety of Cadiz, but, as it bore upon the execution of both the
above-mentioned plans, and upon the safety of Portugal, by enabling
the enemy to besiege Elvas: yet so deeply and sagaciously had he
probed the nature of the contest, that we shall find his after
operations strictly conformable to these his first conceptions, and
always successful. Judging now that Massena would be unable to
interrupt the blockade of Almeida, lord Wellington left the command
of the northern army to general Spencer, and departed for the
Alemtejo, where Beresford was operating: but, as this was one of the
most critical periods of the war, it is essential to have a clear notion
of the true state of affairs in the South, at the moment when
Beresford commenced his memorable campaign.
Soult returned to Andalusia immediately after the fall of Badajos,
leaving Mortier to besiege Campo Mayor, and his arrival at Seville
and the fame of his successes restored tranquillity in that province,
and confidence amongst the troops. Both had been Intercepted Letter
grievously shaken by the battle of Barosa, and the from Chief of
Engineers, Garbé,
works of Arcos, Lucar, Medina, and Alcalade Gazules, Mar. 25th.
intended to defend the rear of the first corps, had been
stopped, and the utmost despondency prevailed. Discontent and
gloom were, however, also strong in Cadiz, the Official Abstract of
government had for some days pretended to make a Military Reports,
from Cadiz, 1811.
fresh effort against Victor; but the fall of Badajos MSS.
menaced the city with famine, and hence Zayas was
finally detached with six thousand infantry and four hundred cavalry
to Huelva. His object was to gather provisions in the Conda de
Neibla, where Ballasteros had, on the 10th, surprised and dispersed
Remond’s detachment. The French, were however soon reinforced,
Zayas was checked by D’Aremberg, and as many of his men
deserted to Ballasteros, he withdrew the rest. Blake then assumed
the command, Ballasteros and Copons were placed under his
orders, and the united corps, amounting to eleven thousand infantry
and twelve hundred cavalry, were called the fourth army. Meanwhile
Mendizabal rallying his fugitives from the battle of the Gebora, at
Villa Viciosa, re-formed a weak corps, called the fifth army; during
these proceedings, Mortier occupied Albuquerque and Valencia
d’Alcantara, and carried on the
S I E G E O F C A M P O M AY O R .
This fortress being commanded, at four hundred yards distance,

by a hill, on which there was an abandoned horn-work, would have
fallen at once, but for the courage and talents of major Tallaia, a
Portuguese engineer. With only two hundred men and five mounted
guns, he made such skilful dispositions, that the French opened
regular trenches, battered the wall in breach with six guns,
bombarded the palace with eleven mortars, and pushed a sap to the
crest of the glacis. At the end of five days a breach was made, but
Tallaia, although ill seconded by the garrison, repulsed one partial
assault, and, being summoned for the second time, demanded and
obtained twenty-four hours to wait for succour. None arrived, and this
brave man surrendered the 21st of March. Mortier then returned to
the Guadiana, leaving Latour Maubourg to dismantle the works and
remove the artillery and stores to Badajos.
Such was the posture of affairs when Beresford who had quitted
the northern army after the combat of Foz d’Aronce, arrived at
Portalegre with twenty thousand infantry, two thousand cavalry, and
eighteen guns.
His instructions were to relieve Campo Mayor, and to besiege
Olivenza and Badajos. The first had already surrendered, but the
marshal, being within two marches of it, judged that he might
surprise the besieging corps, and, with this view, put his troops in
motion the 23d. In the morning of the 25th his advanced guard of
cavalry, supported by a detachment of infantry, under colonel
Colborne, came suddenly upon Campo Mayor, just as Latour
Maubourg was marching out in confusion, with twelve hundred
cavalry, three battalions of infantry, some horse-artillery and the
battering train of thirteen guns. The allies pursued him, and passing
over a wooded rise of ground, issued forth at the other side by some
gentle slopes on either flank of the French, who were in a fine plain.
Colonel Colborne was on the right and at a considerable distance
from the enemy, but colonel Head, with the thirteenth light dragoons,
was on the left, close to them, and supported by colonel Otway with
two squadrons of the seventh Portuguese. The heavy cavalry was in
reserve; and while in this state the French hussars, suddenly

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Reading Comprehension Quiz

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2. Civil rights are

6. To be subject to sanctions, fighting words must

9. Roe v. Wade ruling dealt with the issue of

2. Hamdan v. Rumsfeld underscored the fundamental nature of

12. The Bill of Rights was added to the U.S. Constitution

34. Dr. Martin Luther King is most closely associated with

36. All of the following are forms of unprotected speech EXCEPT

39. To be subject to sanctions, fighting words must

44. In Miller v. California, the Court defined obscenity

46. The Bill of Rights guarantees religious liberty for

48. Freedom of religion is protected by all of the following EXCEPT

49. The free exercise clause of the First Amendment refers to

50. The Supreme Court has ruled that flag burning

53. One limit on the freedom of assembly is

58. Eminent domain is defined as the right of government to

59. ___________ is a constitutional requirement that governments proceed by proper methods.

69. The right to privacy is specifically

82. A true bill or indictment is associated with

83. An impartial jury must

4. Civil liberties are stated in the Fifth and Second Amendments.

5. Civil rights are protected by the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments.

15. The due process clause is found in the Seventh Amendment.

18. Shield laws pertain to freedom of the press.

19. Speech is an absolute right.

22. Commercial speech is NOT constitutionally protected.

25. Libel is spoken defamation of a person.

29. Civil disobedience is breaking the law but in a nonviolent manner.

50. The Rehnquist Court made it harder to impose death sentences.

Short Answer Questions

1. What is the writ of habeas corpus?

3. What are civil liberties?

5. When referring to selective incorporation we are speaking of what?

6. What is the establishment clause?

7. What is prior restraint? Provide an example.

8. What is libel and can you show an example of it?

10. Define and give an example of eminent domain.

11. Define and give an example of regulatory takings.

12. Define and give an example of property rights.

15. What is the exclusionary rule? What do critics think of it?

16. What is the Miranda Warning? What information must it include?

17. What is an indictment?

18. What is double jeopardy?

3. How do we distinguish among belief, speech, and action?

6. What are the different types of unprotected speech? Explain each.

9. What are the due process rights? Explain each of them.

11. How do privacy rights extend to sexual orientation?

Reading Comprehension Quiz

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Naturalized citizens are NOT required to demonstrate that they

3. Wyoming was the first state to

4. Upon passage of the Nineteenth Amendment, women

10. An example of a quasi-suspect class that requires heightened scrutiny is