G2-BOARD EXAM TRIAL ON CRIMINOLOGY

July-August 2024 Criminologist Licensure Examination

Prepared by: Thad Kendrick Toliao, Top 5 December 2022 CLE

Instructions: Read carefully. Choose the best answer for each question. Shade the correct letter in the separate
shading sheet provided. Do not forget to write your name and the subject of your test questionnaire in your shading
sheet.

5. Which goal of criminal sentencing seeks to

INTRODUCTION TO CRIMINOLOGY structure is not rigid or inflexible can be more

strengthened
1. It refers to the scientific study of crimes, criminals, B. Crime is part of the human nature because it has
and victims, it also deals with the prevention, and existed during period of poverty and prosperity,
solution of crimes
and it is impossible for a society in which criminal
a. sociology
behavior is totally absent
b. criminology
C. For punishment not to be in every instance,
c. criminal justice
it must be essentially public prompt
d. victimology
necessary, the least possible in
circumstances, proportionate to the crime
2. Which was the basis of the famous classical
and dictated by laws
theorem posted or explained by Cesare
Beccaria? D. Crime is a sort of outlet in which their unsound
A. Crime can be useful and or occasion even healthy tendencies are discharged they would go mad if
for society, that the existence of crime paves they were not criminals, and they do not go mad
way for social change and that the social because they are criminals
3. The following are the elements of the
positivistic approach which stresses a
scientific method rather than a philosophical
orientation. EXCEPT___________.
A. Fitness of the punishment to the crime
B. Application of the scientific method
C. Discovery and diagnosis of pathology that
underlies the criminal’s actions.
D. Individual treatment
4. What crime is committed when a person
does not know the nature and quality of
his act on account of the disease of his
mind?
A. Extinctive
B. Irrational
C. Acquisitive
D. Rational
prevent a particular offender from
engaging in repeat criminality?
A. General deterrence
B. Just desert
C. Specific deterrence
D. Retribution
6.Identify the criminal classification of Cesare
Lombroso that are not criminal born birth,
and that they become criminal as a result
some changes in their brains that
interfere with their ability to
distinguish between right and wrong.
A. Criminaloids
B. Criminal by passion
C. Insane criminals
D. Habitual criminals
7. Which of the following choices does NOT
refer to conflict views?
A. Crime is a politically defined concept.
B. “Real crimes” are not outlawed
C. The law is a tool of the ruling or elite
class D. The law reflects public opinion
8. Which of the following statements describes
the SCHOLARLY OBJECTIVE of criminology as
explained in the Principles of Criminology by
Edwin Sutherland and Donald Cressey?
A. Unification of the criminal justice
process with law enforcement
B. Harmonizing the political
society's reaction by
punishment, intervention and
prevention
C. Development of dynamic prevention
program through law enforcement
D. Development of tidy of edge
regarding the process of law crime
and action to crime
9. When the accused in criminal prosecution
is acquitted on the ground that his guilt is
not proved beyond reasonable doubt,
what other legal remedies are available to the
complainant?
A. Re-file the criminal case
B. There is no more legal remedy
C. Report the case to the media
D. File a civil case

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10. A bank robber who kills some individual in the
bank flee with hostages, and kills a number of people
while in flight diving a chase would be an example of
a. spree murder
b. multiple murder
c. serial murder
d. mass murder

11. The approach that is using the perspective of

heredity in explaining the cause of crime
a. geographical
b. biological
c. psychological
d. economical
12. The study of criminology involves several
disciplines. Which is the objective of Criminology? a.
The determination of the origin of law, measure the
forces that can change laws and society
b. The study of the agencies of social control (police,
courts and corrections) that prosecute convict, and
treat criminal offenders
c. The development of general and verified
principles regarding the process of law, crime,
and treatment or prevention
d. The study of systematic set of interrelated
statements or principles that explain aspect of social
life.
13. One of the three interrelated divisions of
criminology has attempted to explain the systematic
analysis of the economic, political and social conditions
in which penal laws are developed, and crime and
criminality are either generated or prevented. Which
of the following corresponds with the preceding
statements?
A. Sociology of the application of the criminal justice
process and system
B. Sociology of law, crime and social psychology of
criminal behavior
C. Sociology of crime and criminal
law D. Sociology of punishment and
correction
14. Crime is_____
A. Individual act
B. Natural act.
C. Social problem
D. Community problem
15. A simple extension of this worldview was to define
crime as a result of demonic possession or the evil
abuse of free will.
a. Demonological theory
b. Classical school of criminology
c. Neoclassical criminology
d. Positivist school of criminology
16. Criminal____ the study of milieu in relation to
criminality:
A. Psychiatry
B. Psychology
C. Physical Anthropology
D. Epidemiology
17. The main theories of the positivist school are,
except:
a. Man is subdued occasional by a strange and
morbid phenomenon which condition him to
do wrong, contrary to his own volition.
b. It maintained that crime as any other act is a
natural phenomenon and is comparable to
disaster or calamity.
c. Crime is morally wrong and it justly
requires appropriate amount of
punishment pertinent to the wrongness
of the act.
d. That crime as a social and moral phenomenon
which cannot be treated and checked by the
imposition of punishment but rather
rehabilitation or the enforcement of individual
measures
18. Their psychic conditions resembles that of a
normal individual except that they identify themselves
with criminal prototypes.
 a. Ordinary criminals a. Professional Robbers
b. Normal criminals b. Opportunist Robbers
c. Situational criminals c. Amateur robbers
d. Accidental criminals d. Ordinary robbers

19. The belief that criminal law originates in the will of 23. As defined by Wolfgang, Robert Figlio, and
the majority. Thorsten Sellin, they are delinquents that were
a. Conduct norm arrested five or more times before the age of 18 who
b. Conflict model of law commit s disproportionate amount of all criminal
c. Consensus model offenses.
a. Acute criminal
20. It is a branch in criminology which opposes the b. Chronic criminal
theoretical perspective and purposes the involvement c. Ordinary criminal
of all stakeholders in the use of non-violent solutions. d. Habitual criminal
a. Masculinity
b. Peacemaking Criminology 24. Principle that events including criminal behavior
c. Social Bond that has a sufficient cause
d. Utilitarianism a. atavism
b. narcissism
21. Members of society must be interested in crime c. positivism
because almost all members of the society are once or d. determinism
common victims of crime.
a. Crime Is Reflective 25. They commit acts of violence on rare occasions,
b. Crime Is Progressive often under provocation, such as in domestic disputes
c. Crime Is Pervasive that get out of hand.
d. Crime Is Expensive a. Culturally violent offenders
b. Situational violent offenders
22. Robbers to steal to obtain small amount of money c. Criminally violent offenders
when an accessible target presents itself. d. Pathologically violent offenders

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26. The following are the major theories of classical
school, except:
a. Man was with government and in forming a
government give up natural liberties in
exchange for security
b. Laws of state become means of preventing
man from encroachment with other’s freedom c.
Punishment is justified only if it prevents crime
d. The insane and the feeble minded were
incapable of freedom of action
27. It assumes that all human actions are calculated in 31. In legal view point when does crime
accordance with their likelihood of bringing happiness exist? a. crime is exist when it is reported
(pleasure) or unhappiness (pain), what is this? a. b. crime is exist when it discovered

Utilitarianism c. the person has been proven guilty

b. Altruism
c. Hedonism
d. Atavism
28. BINI TAY a former boxer, had a heated argument
with BINI TAWAN, because the former knew that the
latter had sex with his wife while he is away on a
business venture. Due to extreme anger, he violently
beat BINI TAWAN which led to his untimely demise.
What classification of criminal does BINI TAY belong?
d. the person already commit a crime
32. Diyata, a victim of rape, was able to identify her
assailant, a neighbor, before he dies on her way to the
hospital where she was declared dead on arrival. What
classification of crime does the situation refer?
a. complex crime
b. simple crime
c. instant crime
d. situational crime

A. chronic 33. It is a collegial body under the administrative

B. acute supervision and control of the Professional Regulation
C. ordinary Commission, to be composed of a chairperson and
D. professional four (4) members appointed by the president of the
Philippines.
29. Criminology is also related to the study of a. Accredited Professional Organization of
______________ behaviors or those actions that Criminologists
depart from social norms, values, beliefs, and b. Professional Regulatory Board for
customs. A. deviant Criminologists
B. delinquency c. Commission on Higher Education
C. abnormal d. Professional Regulation Commission
D. violent
34. Which is not a qualifications for the board
30. What is innate to man when desire and examiners (the Chairperson and its members) under
opportunity is present? RA 11131?
a. Intent A. Must be a naturalized-born Filipino
b. Motive citizens and a resident of the
c. Criminal tendency Philippines;
d. Instrumentality B. Must be of good moral character, good
 reputation and of sound mind and body;
C. Not convicted by a court of competent
jurisdictions of any offense involving moral
turpitude;
D. Must be a graduate of Bachelor of Science in
Criminology, and a holder of a Post-Graduate
Degree in Criminology or a lawyer in any
reputable school recognized by CHED.
35. Criminology changes as social condition changes.
This means the progress of criminology is concordant
with the advancement of other sciences that has been
applied to it. This means that criminology is.
a. Dynamic
b. Progressive
c. Applied Science
d. Nationalistic
36. As defined by RA 11131, which of the following
describes a criminologist?
A. a natural person who holds a valid certificate
of registration and an updated professional
identification card as criminologist issued by
the Board and the Commission
B. the scientific study of crimes, criminals, and victims,
it also deals with the prevention, and solution of
crimes C. any person who is a graduate of the Degree
of Criminology, who has passed the examination for
criminologists and is registered as such by the Board
D. a person who graduated with a B.S. in
Criminology
37. What is Republic Act 11131?
A. a law that amend the Republic Act 6506 B. A
law that partially amend Republic Act 6506 C. A
law that repeal the Republic Act 6506 D. A
law that do not repeal Republic Act 6506
38. This school on crime causation emphasized
economic determinism and concentrated on the need
for the quality among all citizens. They provided
statistical data which claimed to show that variations
in crime rates are associated with variations in
economic conditions.
a. Cartographic School
b. Socialist School
c. Psychiatric School
d. Chicago School
39. Refers to the balance of “gain and loss” that a
person may experience if he commits a given crime. a.
Situational crime potential
b. Contact with reality
c. Potential satisfaction
d. Need frustration
40. Michael Jonard was walking around their block
near his home when he noticed that one of the
houses was open; upon checking, the house is empty
with no

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security cameras and lots of valuable things inside. He
immediately entered the house and took all important
things and ran away hastily? What classification of
crime does the situation refer?
a. extinctive
b. irrational
c. situational
d. seasonal

41. The provision of criminal law or penal law must be

applied uniformly to all person with in territory
irrespective of nationality, gender , age and other
personal circumstances
a. general in application
b. territorial in character
c. specific and definite prohibited
d. prospective
45. This rapist primarily wishes to express his
42. Which of the following is a Marxist criminology domination over the victim.
review, idea and philosophy?
A. Inequality and poverty turn people to crime, A. Anger rape
including that exploiting of the powerless B. B. Power rape
Criminality is well within the rational choice of a man C. Aggravated rape
who is capable of thinking D. Statutory rape
C. Crime and criminality are by product of atavistic
tendency in a society 46. It refers to whether or not the suspect had a
D. Crime is absolutely caused by the free-will or man's wrongful purpose in mind when carrying out the actus
own volition reus.
a. Actus reus
43. Diyata while in the classroom, noticed Jonard her b. Mens rea
classmate, struggles to answer the question asked by c. Concurrence
the teacher, she immediately raised her hand and d. Causation
volunteered to help him. Jonard mistook this act of
kindness and thought that Diyata is in love with him. 47. Which of these typologies of killer murder a
Later that day, he waited at the corridor and when he numerous number of people overtime and seek to
saw her approaching, he forcefully grab her into the escape out of detection?
restroom and raped her. What type of rapist does the a. Serial
situation depict? b. Spree
c. Mass
a. Meaning Stretcher d. Chance
b. Naïve Grasper
c. Sex Looter 48. The following are considered practices of the
d. Group Conformer Criminology profession in other countries. EXCEPT It
is____________.
44. All of the following explains why crime is beneficial a. a field under the social science
to create functioning society, EXCEPT. b. research-based profession
A. Society becomes vigilant c. a field under behavioral science
B. It creates unity in the society d. a profession under the Criminal Justice
C. Disintegration and disunity of the society umbrella
D. Society decide what behavior must be
 49. The lowest form of criminal career, they engage 52. The profile of inhabitants can be a factor to
only on conventional crimes which require limited skill determine what crime or how crime can develop in
and they lack organization to avoid arrest and such community.
convictions. a. Criminal Demography
a. ordinary criminal b. Criminal Epidemiology
b. organized criminal c. Criminal Physical Anthropology
c. professional criminals d. Criminal Ecology
d. artist criminal
53. A person who commits crime due to less physical
50. The legal principle by which the decision or stamina or self control.
holding in an earlier case becomes the standard by A. Pseudo criminals
which subsequent similar cases are judged. It literally B. Insane Criminals
means “to stand by decided cases”. C. Criminal by Passion
a. Res Judicata D. Criminaloids
b. Stare Decisis
c. Salus Populi Est Suprema Lex 54. These are violent acts directed toward a particular
d. Icei Bukou Por Salei person or members of group merely because the
targets share discernible racial, ethnic, religious or
51. Sutherlands explains that criminal behavior is not gender characteristics.
an invention by the criminal himself but developed in a. Violent crimes
the process of association with others. This theory b. Hate crimes
presents: c. Copy-cat crimes
a. That criminal behavior is learned d. Victimless crimes
b. That criminal behavior is instinctive in the
person c. That criminal behavior is hereditary 55. Which approach is applied when the government
d. That criminal behaviour is a product of genetic strategy on crime prevention is punishment and
influence retribution of crime rather than the rehabilitation of
offender?

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A. Eclectic 57. Jose wanted to kill his wife by means of poison
B. Classical Josefa, before consuming the poison, Jose
C. Positivism
D. Sociological

56. What
academic
discipline uses
scientific method
to study the
nature, extent,
cause, and
control of
criminal
behavior?
A Police
Administration
B. Criminal
Justice System
C. Criminology
D. Sociology

immediately stopped her and confessed the crime he

is about to commit. Jose committed a crime of ___
a. Attempted murder 64. These are those who commit crimes in an
b. Attempted parricide impulsive manner usually due to the aggressive
c. Frustrated homicide behavior of the offender.
d. No crime committed a. Active Aggressive
b. Passive Inadequate
58. This is the stage when the offender commences c. Habitual Delinquent
the commission of a felony directly by overt acts but d. Socialized Violator
does not perform all the acts of execution which
should produce the felony by reason of some cause 65. It is the most essential part definition of criminal
or accident other than his own spontaneous law
desistance; a. elements of crime
A. Consummated felony b. degree of evidence
B. Frustrated felony c. penalty
C. Attempted felony d. treats of their nature
D. None of the above
66. Ordinarily, when a crime is committed. What if the
59. What is this statement that confirms crime crime is one which there is no clear victim readily
correlates to society that affects almost all people? A. identifiable, how do we term such crimes? A. Public
Crime is progressive Order Crimes
B. Crime is expensive B. Victimless crimes
C. Crime is destructive C. Consensual crimes
D. Crime is pervasive D. Any of the above

60. Which sub-areas constitute the discipline of 67. In criminological sense, when is person already
criminology that utilizes scientific methods to assess considered a criminal?
the effectiveness of crime control and offender a. at the time he was planning to kill someone b.
treatment programs? there must be a final verdict of his guilt c. at the
a. Penology and Social Control time he was about to kill someone d. the moment
b. Criminal Statistics and Research Methodology he already committed a crime.
c. Criminal behavior system and Criminal
Typology d. Sociology of law and Criminal 68. Alphonse Bertillon developed a system of
Typology classifying criminals according to bodily
measurements, his method of identification centered
61. The constitutional limitation of ex post facto law in on the fact that no two individuals are alike in all
the enactment of criminal laws simply means that our dimensions.
criminal law shall be applied ______. a. Anthropometry
A. Retroactively b. Kallikak Family Tree
B. In favor of the accused c. Moral Statistics
C. Prospectively d. Luomo Delinquente
D. Against the State
69. Science offers an approach to both agreement
62. Ampoy and Boboy took the cell phone from Caloy reality and experiential reality. If we consider thing
with intimidation Patrolman Dodoy responded and real because we have been told they are real and
exchanged gunfire with Ampoy and Boboy. everyone else seems to agree they are real, it refers
Unfortunately, Patrolman Dodoy was hit and killed by to _______
Boboy resulting to the death of the latter. What is the a. agreement reality
crime committed by Ampoy. If any? b. experiential reality
A. robbery with reckless imprudence resulting to c. all of the above
homicide d. none of the above
B. robbery with homicide
C robbery and homicide
D. robbery with reckless Imprudence resulting to 70. Based on etiology of crimes, a person who violates
murder the criminal law because of the impulse of the
63. A with treachery killed B. Before leaving B’s lifeless moment, fit of passion, sudden burst of angers
body, A took the necklace of B. A committed what or spell of jealousy is referred to as
crime/s? A. Accidental criminal
a. Murder with theft B. Ordinary criminal
b. Murder and theft C. Acute criminal
c. Robbery with homicide D. Chronic criminal
d. Robbery and homicide
71. The following are the characteristics of the
Classical School of Criminology;

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1. The basis of criminal liability is human free- will and act A. 1, 2, 3 are correct
the purpose of penalty is retribution B. 1, 3, 4 are correct
C. 2, 3, 4 are correct
2. Man is essentially a moral creature with an absolute D. 1, 2, 4 are correct
free-will to choose between right and wrong

3. Criminals are distinguishable from non- criminals

because of their physical deviation

4. That every man is therefore responsible for his

72. All but one is the qualifications of the Chairperson B. Abnormal violent offenders
and Members of the Board. C. Delinquent violent offenders
a. Must be a natural-born Filipino citizen and a D. Pathologically violent offenders
resident of the Philippines
b. Must be a graduate of Bachelor of Science in 76. Ernie killed Boy because of promise of reward
Criminology, and a holder of a Post Graduate Degree from his boss Amats. What type of criminal is Ernie?
in Criminology a. Active aggressive Criminals
c. having at least two (2) years of practice in b. Passive Inadequate Criminals
the profession prior to the appointment c. Socialized Delinquents
including no less than ten (10) years teaching d. Habitual Delinquent
experience of criminology or law subjects
d. Must not be a member of the faculty of any school, 77. What is this principal division of criminology that
college or university where a regular class or review deals with the reformation of criminal adult offender,
course in criminology youthful offenders polishing their behaviour for their
return in the mainstream of the society?
A. Correction
73. An act which happens when a person failed to B. Criminal Etiology
perform an act that is commanded by law. a. Crime of C. Sociology of Law
commission D. Penology
b. Crime of omission 78. It provides that only nationals of foreign countries
c. Mala in se in which the requirements for the licensure
d. Mala prohibita examination and/or registration and practice of
criminology are substantially the same as those
74. It is a crime perpetuated by group of criminals required and contemplated by the Philippine laws and
primarily motivated by profit and by means of illegal regulations, and which laws and regulations allow
business. Philippine citizens to practice criminology within the
a. Organized crime territory of such foreign countries shall be allowed to
b. Terrorism take the Philippine Criminologists licensure
c. Professional crime examination
d. Organized criminal group a. Foreign Reciprocality
b. Foreign Reciprocity
75. What is the violent criminal which has mental c. Foreign Alliance on Criminologists
illness or brain damage? d. Practice Through Temporary/Special Permit.
A. Emotional violent offender
79. Cesare Lombroso was an Italian physician who
 spent much of his career nurturing the medical needs
of men incarcerated in military prisons, the following
are his major theories except one.
a. He applied the concepts of Atavism for his ideas
about the evolution of crimes
b. He conducted thousands of postmortem exams of
criminals and concluded that in effect criminals are a
subhuman species.
c. He started the reoriented thinking to the
study of criminology by focusing on the offense
to treat its nature
d. None of the above
80. A core principle of classical school and rational
choice theories which states that crime can be
controlled through the use of punishment that
combine the proper degrees of certainty, severity and
celerity?
a. Deterrence
b. Treatment
c. Punishment
d. Rehabilitation
81. Transmission of physical characteristics, mental
traits, tendency to disease from parents to offspring.
a. DNA
b. Heredity
c. Inheritance
d. Chromosome Imbalance
82. This theory contested the findings of Beccaria’s
Free Will Study, stating that its absence among
mentally retardate persons or those with some
psychological imbalances and personality disorders or
physical disabilities, could likewise lead to violation of
laws thereby citing said theory as one of crime
causation.
a. Classical Criminology
b. Positivist Criminology
c. Neoclassical Criminology
d. Social Structure Theory
83. When the offender has used his free will and
intended to commit a certain crime while being sane,
he has committed what type of crime?
a. Rational crime
b. Irrational crime
c. Instant crime
d. Blue collar crime
84. The government and private sector spent an
enormous amount of money for crime detection,
prosecution, correction and presentation.
a. Crime is destructive
b. Crime is Expensive

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c. Crime is Progressive d. Visionary
d. Crime is Pervasive
86. A type of serial killer who believes that a person or
85. Killers who kill out for profit or want to protect entity is commanding him to kill. Most likely suffering
themselves from a perceived threat. from psychosis.
a. Mission killers a. Visionary
b. Thrill killers b. Mission-oriented
c. Expedience killers c. Hedonistic
 d. Power/control 95. One way of classifying criminals in on the basis of
etiology. What kind of criminal is that whose action
87. Crimes committed by persons who usually occupy arises from the intra-psychic conflict between the
key positions, maintains prestige and high social are social and anti-social components of his personality?
referred to as ________. A. Acute
a. A. Blue collar crimes B. Neurotic
C. Organized crimes C. Chronic
b. B. Economic crimes D. Normal
D. White collar crimes
96. He proposed that criminology can never become a
88. Any crime committed by individual from a lower science said that criminology cannot possibly become
social class of society. a science due to lack of universal proposition of crime
A. White-Collar crime and scientific studies of criminal behavior is
B. Blue-collar crime impossible.
C. Political crime a. George Wilder
D. None of these b. George Welcker
c. George Welker
89. What is the doctrine that requires a process of d. George Wilker
resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of
the victim, the offender and the community? a. 97. Which of the following is not a victimless
Restorative Justice crime? A. vagrancy
b. Miranda Doctrine B. illegal gambling
c. Justice C. illegal detention
d. None of these D. prostitution

90. Ramon is imprisoned to prevent him from 98. Which of the following is the earlier explanation to
committing another crime is a goal of punishment the existence of criminality?
called. A. That crime is caused by demon
A. Retribution B. that crime is caused by divine will.
C. Deterrence C. that crime is the result of the free will of
B. Incapacitation men D. all of the above
D. Rehabilitation
99. Which of the following explains the biological and
91. It is a criminal offense that is committed for the psychological theories of crime?
purpose of material or financial gain. A. The labeling of an individual and relating the label
a. Destructive crime to criminality.
b. Acquisitive crime B. The way society is organized which results to is
c. Instinctive crime being conducive to criminality.
d. Crime Mala In Se C. The physical characteristics and mental
qualities of man are conducive to criminality. D.
92. They are individuals who use violence as a means The influence of society to crime commission.
of accomplishing a criminal act, such as robbery. a.
Culturally violent offenders 100. A single act constitutes two or more grave or less
b. Subculture violence grave felonies are _________
c. Criminally violent offenders a. Delito compuesto
d. Pathologically violent criminals b. Delito complejo
c. Complex crime
93. A criminal act or transaction violating the laws of d. Composite crime
more than one country or having an impact on a
foreign country.
a. Domestic crime THEORIES AND CRIME CAUSATION
b. International crime
c. Transnational crime 1. The central feature of this theory is that
d. Occupational crime American culture defines monetary success
as the predominant cultural goal to which all
94. The belief that criminals represent genetic its citizens should aspire. At the same, this
“throwbacks to the ape” or earlier, more primitive culture restricts certain segments of the
population from attaining monetary success
humanity.
by legitimate means.
a. Determinism
A. Labeling theory B. Anomie theory C.
b. Atavism Strain theory D. Stress theory
c. Hedonism
d. Positivism

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2. This theory reflects the way people react to a b. Culture Conflict theory
given situation based on the social influences c. Differential Association Theory
they acquired from other people that d. Social Reaction Theory
practically determine their behaviors. This
theory likewise serves as the learning process
of delinquent behaviors and considered as
one of the most important theory in crime
causation.
a. Social Disorganization theory
Social Reaction Theory - Labeling Theory - TAGGING -
like labeling, the process whereby an individual is
negatively defined by agencies of justice
3. Which theory proposes that people learn
attitudes and techniques conducive to crime
in both social and non-social situations from
positive reinforcement and negative
reinforcement that result from their own
behavior, whether that behavior is law
abiding or criminal?
a. Differential Identification
b. Social Structure
c. Differential Association
d. Social Learning
4. Gabriel Tarde devised a theory of "imitation
and suggestion," through which he tried to
explain criminal behavior. He believed that
the origins of deviance were similar to the
origins of fads and fashions, and that his
“three laws of imitation” can explain why
people engage in crime. Which is not?
a. The law of close contact
b. the law of imitation of superiors by inferiors
c. the law of insertion
d. none of the above
5. A neurological theory that proposes that
behavior is regulated by two opposing
mechanisms, behavior activating system and
behavior inhibition system.
A. Biological theory
B. Biosocial theory
C. Reward dominance theory
D. Molecular genetics
6. This asserts that strong self-image protects
the youth from the influence and pressure of
criminogenic pulls in his environment.
a. Rational Choice theory
b. Conflict theory
c. Label theory
d. Containment theory
7. This theory focuses on the development of
high crime areas associated with the
disintegration of conventional values caused
by rapid industrialization, increased migration
and urbanization.
a. Cultural Deviance Theory
b. Differential Association Theory
c. Social Disorganization Theory
d. Strain Theory
8. It is one in which institutions of social control
such as family, commercial establishments;
schools have broken down and can no longer
carry out their expected or stated functions.
A. Strained Area B. Problematic Area
C. Crowded Area D. Disorganized Area
9. 17. In this theory of crime causation, mankind
is viewed as manifestations of basically evil
human nature reflecting either with the
prince of darkness or an expression of divine
wrath.
a. Classical theory
 b. Positivist theory
c. Demonological theory
d. Neo-classical theory
10. This theory reflects the way people react to a
given situation based on the social influences
they acquired from other people that
practically determine their behaviors. This
theory likewise serves as the learning process
of delinquent behaviors and considered as
one of the most important theory in crime
causation.
a Social Disorganization theory
b Culture Conflict theory
c Differential Association Theory
d Social Reaction Theory
11. One sunny afternoon, Mark announced to his
friends that he is the wealthiest person who
lived in their area, always displays his
properties in vulnerability to the would-be
perpetrators. Mark so confident that no one
would ever touch him since he has a high
confidence towards the law enforcers, but he
didn’t know he was already observed by the
perpetrators and followed his schedule
closely. Mario was killed and robbed by
showing his susceptibility of his daily life
practice. Which theory fit this scene?
a. Functionalist theory
b. Drift theory
c. Routine Activity Theory
d. Social Control Theory
Amici Review Center 8 | P a g e
based on social data of demographic
information on population including its
density, religion affiliation and wealth.
12. Holds that offenders adhere to conventional
values while taking into periods of illegal
behavior, in order to drift; they overcome
moral and legal values.
a. Neutralization theory
b. Clinical theory
c. Rational theory
d. Modern theory
13. According to Freud it is the ability to learn
about the consequences of one’s action
through experience.
a. Reality principle
b. Pain principle
c. Pleasure principle
d. d. All of the foregoing
14. A condition in which tha glucose in the blood
falls below levels necessary for normal and
efficient brain functioning.
A. Diabetes
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Leukemia
D. Pre-menstrual syndrome
15. It is the mapping of crime and establishes
relationship between society and the physical
environment. It dominated in 1830-1880 in
france and spread to england. The work

a. chicago school
b. positivist school
c. neo classical
d. cartographical school

16. An internal force of the psychoanalytic theory

which states that all psychoanalytic positions
form the psychodynamic approach that views
humans as biologically driven to get what
they want when they want it unless they are
held in check by internal and external forces.
 a. Behavior EXCEPT
b. Conscience a. Criminology has always been a politically oriented
c. Personality discipline.
d. Heredity b. Conservative, liberal, or radical political ideologies
inclined with the differences among theories. c.
17. This theory argues that intelligence is largely Considering as a source or a consequence of political
determined genetically; that ancestry precariousness, any crime may have political
determines IQ; and, that low intelligence as
significance.
demonstrated by low IQ is linked to
d. Views a society in which people do business
behaviour including criminal behavior:
a. Nature Theory within the community embraced the
b. Psychological theory creativeness and liberty of their business
c. Strain Theory without interference from a higher authority.
d. Labeling theory
21. Due to good academic performance of his
18. Classification of body physique by Sheldon is son, Mr. Clean is no longer requiring his son
a group of people who are routinely active to fetch water early in the morning. He is
and aggressive, and are most likely to hoping that by this way his son can sustain or
commit crimes. even surpass his previous ratings in his
A. A. Mesomorphic classes. This is a form of _____
B. B. Endomorphic a. Positive punishments
C. Ectomorphic b. Negative punishments
D. Asthenic c. Positive rewards
d. Negative rewards

19. A supposition or a system of ideas intended

to explain something, especially one based 22. Youths who fail in both the criminal and
on general principles independent of the conflict subcultures tend to go into other
thing to be explained. areas of delinquency and deviant behavior
a. Theory like drinking alcoholic liquor, smoking and
b. Concept drug addiction. This statement is consistent
c. Principle with which of the following?
d. None of the above a. social structure
b. retreatist subculture
20. Political crime theories can be viewed as; c. conflict subculture
 d. criminal subculture
23. Identify the conformist according to Robert
Merton's mode of personality adaptation? A.
rejects both means and goals and seeks to
substitute alternative ones
that would represent new societal
goals as well as new methods of
achieving them
B. compulsively persist in going through
the motions with little hope
of successful achievement of goals
C. accepts the goal of success in
society and the socially
approved means of achieving
such status as through hard
work, education deferred
gratification, and the like
D. Accepts the goal of success but
rejects or seeks illegitimate
alternatives to the means of
achieving these aims
24. Identify the theory that emphasizes an
unpleasant feelings or negative effects
presumably may give rise, almost
automatically, to a variety of feelings,
thoughts, and memories that are associated
Amici Review Center 9 | P a g e
26. This theory views crime and delinquency
because of the frustration and anger people
experience over their inability to achieve
legitimate social and financial success.
a. strain theory
b. psychological theories
c. differential association
d. labeling theory
27. “Straight shooters” is a police parlance that
describes a police officer protecting another
deviant officer of his misdeed in adherence to
secrecy discipline. What technique of
neutralization is this?
a. Appealing to higher loyalty
with flight (fear) and fight (anger)
tendencies?
A. Displaced aggression
B. Cognitive-neoassociation model
C. Excitation transfer
D. Triggered displaced aggression
25. Which is not included in the Gresham Sykes
and David Matza`s techniques of
neutralization?
A. Whether individuals will refrain
from or commit a crime at any
given time, It depends on the
past, present, and anticipated
future rewards and punishment
of their action.
B. Denial of harm to the victim in which
the assault is justified because the
person harmed was also a criminal.
C. Denial of harm to anyone, such as
defining stealing as “borrowing” or
drug abuse as harming no one but
the offender
D. Reversing the labeling process by
claiming that authorities are more
corrupt than the offender and are
hypocritical as well.
 b. Denial of injury 31. Social learning theorists view violence as
c. Denial of responsibility something learned through behavior
d. Denial of victim modeling. The following are the sources of
behavior models, EXCEPT?
28. Maintain that all people have the potential to a. Mass media
violate the law and that modern society b. Family member
presents many opportunities for illegal c. Political leaders
activities. d. Environmental experiences
a. Social process theories
b. Social control theory 32. Before making crime, people make prudent
c. Social learning theory and logical decision on what are the
d. Social structure theories consequence of the said act, the benefits and
the possible punishment. This was based on
29. Josefa wants to become a Registered what theory?
Criminologist. She works as a part time A. Routine Activities Theory
service crew at Jollibee to sustain her review B. Rational Choice Theory
at ARC which is a positive means of earning C. Feminist Theory
income to attain her goals. What type of D. Freewill Doctrine
adaption to the strain theory was shown?
a. Retreatism 33. Among the following, this describes a radical
b. Innovation criminological approach to the explanation of
c. Conformity the crime that sees the conflict and inequality
d. Rebellion present in society as being primarily on
gender.
30. Which of the following best explains why a. Radical Criminology
Cesar Lombroso was regarded as the father b. Feminist Criminology
of modern Criminology? c. Peacemaking Criminology
A. He established the Positivist School d. Left-Realistic Criminology
B. He contributed through Empirical research to
the field of criminology 34. Theoretical views studying changes in
C. Founded the anthropological study which became criminal offending patterns over a person’s
the pillar of the positivists school of Criminology D. All entire life. The events and circumstances that
of these someone face in their life, either raises or
lowers their propensity for crime.
 A. Life Course Theory d. Control Conflict theory
B. Titles Balance Theory
C. Spontaneous Remission Theory 38. It is considered as one of the earliest
D. None of these biological explanations of crime which
concerned in the size and shape of the skull
35. Classical theory states that individual have as the cause of criminal behavior.
freewill. It is focused on an individual choice a. Cranioscopy
as to whether or not he will commit a crime b. Physiology
and the purpose of classical theory in giving c. Physiognomy
punishment is ____ d. Phrenology
A. Reformation
B. Treatment 39. In general, it is not a theory but a category
C. Retribution that covers many perspectives regarding the
D. Rehabilitation interaction between biological and social
factors as they relate to crime.
36. This theory believes that society is divided a. Sociobiology
into two groups with competing values the b. Evolutionary psychology
upper class and lower class. c. Genetics
a. Class Theory d. Biosocial theory
b. Differential Opportunity
c. Conflict Theory 40. A child who failed to develop strong
d. Consensus Theory attachment to the family may result to any of
the following, except one.
37. This theory suggest that people break the law
a. He or she may fall prey to a number of
because they are not sufficiently governing by the
psychological disorders
social norms and mores of the society a. Functional
theory b. He or she may be impulsive and have difficulty
b. Rational choice theory – individual’s best self concentrating and consequently experience
interest c. Anomie theory difficulty in school

Amici Review Center 10 | P a g e

c. He or she may often have difficulty initiating
and sustaining relationship with others
d. He or she may sustain romantic
relationships.

41. A person who committed an offense with

weak ego depicts the following, except one. a.
Immature
b. With poorly developed social skills
c. Poor reality testing
d. Has the ability to discern the situation
 42. This theory is defined as the balance
anticipated or actual rewards and
punishments that follow or are consequences
of behavior
a. Differential reinforcement theory
b. Social bond theory
c. Classical conditioning theory
d. R/K Selection Theory
43. Among the following statements, which best
describes the conclusion made by Charles
Goring in his comprehensive study about
English Prisoners?
A. Criminal behavior is a product of physiological
characteristics
B. There is no such thing as anthropological
criminal type
C. There were no significant physical or mental
abnormalities among the criminals
D. Symptoms of anti-social behaviour can be seen
through physical characteristics
44. A criminological theory that states that visible
signs of crime, anti-social behavior, and civil
disorder create an urban environment that
encourages further crime and disorder,
including serious crimes.
A. Anomie Theory
B. Differential Association Theory
C. Social Disorganization Theory
D. Broken Windows Theory
45. How do biopsychosocial theories differ from
sociological theories of crime?
A. Both focus on one factor in explaining crime. B.
Biopsychosocial focuses on one factor while
sociological theory focuses on multi-factors. C.
Biopsychosocial covers the concept of
biological, psychological, and sociological
causes of crime while sociological is limited on
the social, institutional, and environmental
factors.
D. Biopsychosocial is limited to human factors while
sociological focuses on social and environmental
factors.
46. This theory suggests that while most people
age out of crime, small segments are not
removed from a criminal path and continue
crimes into adulthood.
a. Developmental theories
b. Life-course theory
c. General theory of crime
d. Latent trait theory
47. Phillip was about to rape a woman when a
thought inside his head say “Don’t do it. It’s a
sin”. Phillip out of lust still continued his act.
What aspect of human psyche is that voice? a.
Conscience
b. Super ego
c. ID
d. both a and b
48. This concept states that female offenders
tend to cohabit with or get married with
same male offenders with same self-
reported antisocial behavior.
a. Cheater theory
 b. Phenotype assortment physical traits.
c. r/k selection theory A. theory of biological inferiority
d. Alternative theory B. theory of natural selection
C. theory of differential association
49. Which of them has the least chance to D. theory of evolution
commit crime base on the theory of Lloyd Ohlin?
a. Those that are in lower class because they have a 52. Causes feelings of anxiety and self-doubt. The
lot of means to achieve their goals woman wants to become a perfect mother
b. Those that are in upper-class because they have and wife, but at the same time she feels
the least means of achieving their goal exhausted and overwhelmed.
c. Those that are in upper-class because they A. Postpartum Stress Syndrome
are offered with enormous opportunities to B. Postpartum Depression
achieve their goals in life C. Postpartum Psychosis
d. Those that are in lower-class because they have D. Postpartum
limited resources to achieve goals in life.
53. Alcoholics, kleptomaniacs, nymphomaniacs,
50. Operates according to the reality principle, and child molesters belong to what
working out realistic ways of satisfying the classification of criminals according to Cesare
id’s demands, often compromising or Lombroso?
postponing satisfaction to avoid negative A. Born Criminals
consequences of society. B. Insane Criminals
A. ID C. Criminaloids
B. Super D. Pseudo Criminals
C. Ego
D. Conscious 54. This theory takes into account associations
with persons and images presented in the
51. A doctrine which criminals were seen as media.
distinct types of humans who could be A. Differential Identification theory
distinguished from non criminals by certain B. Learning theory

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C. Control theory
D. Differential Association theory

55. This refers to the theory which states that

obedience to the norms of lower-class culture
places people in conflict with norms of the
dominant culture.
A. Culture conflict theory
B. Strain Theory
C. Positivist theory
D. Labeling theory
 56. Delinquency and crime matters are learned
and adopted. The learning process may
either be conscious type of copying or
unconscious copying of confronting patterns
of behavior
A. Imitation-Suggestion Theory
B. Strain theory
C. Positivist Theory
D. Labeling Theory
57. Those criminals who have entered happy
marriages and quality marital life may desist
(stop) from committing crime anymore. Also
those criminals who are already aged may
also stop in committing crime because their
body physique and stamina could not support
them anymore.
A. General Theory of Crime
B. Thornberry’s Interactional Model
C. Age- Graded Theory
D. Sampson and Laub’s Developmental Model
58. Aimed at making potential criminals fear the
consequences of crime showing that crime
does not pay. It focuses on potential
offenders and that these offenders must
receive punishment in a severe, swift and
certain way. It is also manifesting societal
deterrence which aimed to target would-be
offenders. For example: imposing long prison
sentences or in the Philippines lifetime
imprisonment for violent or heinous crimes.
A. Specific Deterrence
B. General Deterrence
C. Active Precipitation
D. Incapacitation Theory
59. This theory concerned the study of
observable behavior rather than unconscious
processes. It focuses on particular stimuli and
how people respond toward that stimulus. It
maintains that human actions are developed
through learning experiences; that behavior
is learned when it is rewarded and
extinguished by negative reactions or
punishment
A. Behavioral Theory
B. Social Learning and Violence
C. Cognitive Theory
D. Moral Development Theory
60. Having a convicted father, mother, brother, or
sister predicted a boy's own convictions, and all
four relatives were independently important as
predictors, is what theory?
A. Alternative theory
B. Intergenerational transmission
theory C. Differential association-
reinforcement
D. Eysenck’s Conditioning Theory
61. May be described as having low self-esteem,
excessive anxiety and wide mood swings according to
Eysenck’s Conditioning Theory A. Psychoticism
B. Neuroticism
C. Extraversion
D. Introversion
62. According to Wilson and Herrnstein, the
factors that made the person commit crimes
are IQ, body build, genetic makeup,
impulsiveness, ability to delay gratification,
 aggressiveness, and even the drinking and
smoking habits of pregnant mothers.
A. Integrated theory
B. Maternal Deprivation and Attachment
Theory C. Social disorganization theory
D. Eysenck’s Conditioning Theory
63. When a child is separated from the mother or
is rejected by her, anxious attachment
results. Anxious attachment affects the
capacity to be affectionate and to develop
intimate relationships with others. Habitual
criminals, it is claimed, typically have an
inability to form bonds of affection
A. Integrated theory
B. Maternal Deprivation and Attachment
Theory C. Social disorganization theory
D. Eysenck’s Conditioning Theory
64. According to Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels,
criminals came from a third class in society—
the lumpen proletariat—who would play no
decisive role in the expected revolution
(Siegel, 2004).
A. Conflict theory
B. Social Reality of Crime
C. Institutive-Constitutive Theory
D. The Marxist Criminology
65. The blending of an individual’s personal-self
and social-self with that of a group, has
attempted to explain why a person engages
in political participation
A. Identity Fusion Theory
B. Maternal Deprivation and Attachment
Theory C. Social disorganization theory
D. Eysenck’s Conditioning Theory
66. Perceptions of coercion can begin in early life
when children experience a punitive form of
discipline including both physical attacks and
psychological coercion including negative
commands. Critical remarks such as teasing,
humiliation, whining, yelling and threats.
A. Identity Fusion Theory
B. Differential Coercion Theory
C. Social Development Model
D. Control balance theory
67. The deviance increases when there is a
control deficit and with excessive control
A. Identity Fusion Theory
B. Differential Coercion Theory
C. Social Development Model
D. Control balance theory
68. A conflict ideology which bases its
perspectives on crime and law in the belief
that capitalist societies precipitate and define

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crime as the owners of the means of
production use their power to enact laws that
will control the working class and repress
threats to the power of the ruling class.
A. Feminist criminology
B. Left-realist criminology
C. Radical criminology
D. Peacemaking criminology

69. Crime is based in class conflict and the

structured inequalities of class society. The
class divisions and their associated forms of
inequality under advanced capitalism,
therefore, generate the problem of traditional
crime.
A. Feminist criminology D. Differential association
B. Left-realist criminology
C. Radical criminology 74. Emphasize relationships among social
D. Critical Criminology institutions and describe the types of
behavior that tend to characterized groups
of people rather than individuals.
70. Is a criminal act that is modeled or inspired
A. Social process theories B. Social control
by a previous crime that has been reported in
theory
the media or described in fiction.
C. Social learning theory D.
A.Copycat crime
Social structure theories
B. Suggesto-imitative assaults
C. Imitation crime
75. A society which rules of behavior have broken
D. Idolized crime
down or become inoperative during periods
of rapid social change or social crisis such as
71. This is a concept of lower class wherein they
war, or famine.
are unable to achieve success legitimately; as
A. Labeling theory
a result, many of them join in gangs and
B. Anomie theory
engage in behavior that is usually malicious,
C. Strain theory D. Stress theory
and negativistic.
76. The most important resistance to criminal
A. Toughness
inducement in containment theory of Walter
B. Culture deviance
Reckless.
C. Status frustration
A. positive self-image
D. Autonomy
B. ego strength
C. Reasonable limits and expectations D. A
72. This asserts that strong self-image protects or b
the youth from the influence and pressure of
criminogenic pulls in his environment.
77. Kardo keeps his composure and patiently d
A. Rational Choice theory B. his classmate provocation to involve in fight
Conflict theory because he knows that it could lead to his
B. Label theory D. suspension in school. He really wants to
Containment theory become a policeman someday that inhibits
him from any trouble.
73. A theory that studies the interrelationship A. Internal Pushes
between human organisms and the physical B. External Pressures
environment. C. external containment
A. Strain B. D. internal containment
Culture deviance
C. Human ecology
 78. The two socialized groups in a particular
society have disagreement due to the
different point of views over what is
acceptable or proper behavior that resulted
to a brawl among the members. Which of
the following theories supports the situation.
A. Anomie theory
B. Culture conflict theory
C. Subculture theory
D. Differential association theory
79. What is this theory which holds that crime is
a function of the conflict between the goals
people have and the means they can use to
legally obtain them? It argues that it is the
inability to obtain these goals, usually
materials goals that trigger the commission
of crimes because members of the lower
class are unable to achieve these goals
which come easy for members of the upper
class.
A. Social disorganization theory
B. Cultural deviance theory
C. Social learning theory
D. Strain theory
80. This explains that in crime causation, biology
Amici Review Center 13 | P a g e
C. Biochemical
D. Biopsychological
83. In the Communist Manifesto of Karl Marx, he
explained that society is divided into two
classes the workers and capitalists. Which
term did he use in describing the workers?
A. Bourgeoisie
B. Proletariat
C. Laborer
D. Middlemen
can affect psychology, which can affect social
well-being, which can further affect biology,
and so on.
a. The “Bio” component
b. The “Psycho” component
c. The “Social” component
D. The Bio-Psychosocial Model
81. A criminological theory that states that visible
signs of crime, anti-social behavior, and civil
disorder create an urban environment that
encourages further crime and disorder,
including serious crimes.
A. Anomie Theory
B. Differential Association Theory
C. Social Disorganization Theory
D. Broken Windows Theory
82. In a certain geographical location where all
residents are exposed to hazardous
environment (i.e., informal settlers) located
near polluted industrial sites, the likelihood
that children born there may be inclined to
criminal activities. Which explains criminal
acts are caused by environmental pollutants?
A. Biopsychosocial
B. Biosocial
 84. Malcon does not want to interact with the rich
in his neighborhood and prefer to be
associated with people possessing the same

economics status as with him. In this

situation a sub-culture is born that may
produce disorganization in the youth as
opposed to
conventional and traditional values. This is a
classic example of which theory?
A. Social Conflict
B. Social Process
C. Social Control
D. Social Structure

85. How do biopsychosocial theories differ from

sociological theories of crime?
A. Both focus on one factor in explaining crime. B.
Biopsychosocial focuses on one factor while
sociological theory focuses on multi-factors. C.
Biopsychosocial covers the concept of
biological, psychological, and sociological
causes of crime while sociological is limited on
the social, institutional, and environmental
factors.
D. Biopsychosocial is limited to human factors while
sociological focuses on social and environmental
factors.

86. This crimes are those that the lower class

commits against the upper class of society in
a capitalist system
a. Crimes of Passion
b. Crimes of Accommodation and
Resistance c. Crimes of Domination and
Repression
d. Crimes of Lower class group course that produce crime; in childhood,
family factors are critical; in adulthood,
87. It suggests that a subpopulation of men has marital and job factors are key to show how
evolved with genes that incline them toward crime is a developmental process that shift in
extremely low parental involvement. direction over the life course.
a. Cheater theory a. Interactional theory
b. Biosocial theory b. Age-graded theory
c. Deterrence theory c. Latent trait theory
d. R/K selection theory d. Life-course theory

88. Using either negative stimuli or loss of reward 93. A theory that explains propensity to commit
to curtail unwanted behaviors. crime is stable over the life course, people
a. Differential reinforcement who are antisocial during adolescence are the
b. Social control most likely to develop criminal careers.
c. Social reaction a. General theory of crime
d. Negative reinforcement b. Latent trait theory
c. Age-graded theory
89. . this theory implicates that minor or primary d. Developmental theory
deviance must be given much coordination
and must be deterred immediately before it 94. The interactions people have the various
could be imitated by others or be continued organizations, institutions and processes of
by the author. society.
a. Labelling theory a. Reaction formation
b. Imitation theory b. Differential opportunity
c. Broken window theory c. Socialization
d. None of the above d. Social interaction

90. This book contain all of the stigmata of
potential criminal written by Lombroso on his
medical studies in the inmate of different
prison.
A. Crime and victim
B. Dei dellite e dele pene
C. Criminal mind
D. Criminal man
91. Agnew identifies the latent traits of low self
control and irritability as _____ that
encompass many of the traits like sensation
seeking, impulsivity, inattentiveness and low
empathy.
a. Cumulative disadvantage
b. Indispensable factor
c. Super traits
d. Life course persistent / adolescent limited
92. This theory identifies critical points in the life
95. It held that criminals manifest distinct
physique that make them susceptible to
particular types of anti-social behavior. a. Oedipus
complex
b. Somatotype school
c. Thanatos
d. Cartographic School
96. In this theory includes that in egalitarian
families, in which the husband and the wife
share similar positions of power at home and
in the workplace –daughters gain a kind of
freedom that reflects reduced parental
control.
a. Marginalization theory
b. Adler's theory of masculinity
c. Power control theory
d. Critical feminist
e. Opportunity theory

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97. Kardo, because of poverty, forced to steal
from convenience store to satisfy his hunger.
What source of coercion is this?
a. Interpersonal coercion
b. Impersonal coercion
c. Personal coercion
d. Economic coercion
e. Two sources of coercion.

98. According to this view, as children mature

within their environment, elements of
socialization control their development
process and either insulate them from
delinquency or encourage their antisocial
activities.
 a. Social development model of living?
b. Differential coercion theory A. Emotional paradox
c. Control balance theory B. Cerebral symmetry
d. Age - Graded Theory C. Brain imbalance
D. Hemisphere asymmetry
99. According to this theory, lower-class people
may feel both deprived and embittered when 2. Which refers to self-focused attention toward
they compare their life circumstances to one’s thoughts and feeling?
those of the more affluent.
A. Depression
a. Relative deprivation theory
B. Aggression
b. Cultural deviance theory
C. Frustration
c. Delinquent subculture theory
D. Rumination
d. Differential opportunity theory

100.You get involved with antisocial group but 3. According to Sigmund Freud, which term
you decided to avoid your group members refers to the instinctual drive towards
because of your family. You do not want to aggression and violence?
bring pain and embarrassment to your A. ego ideal
parents because you love them. Based on B. eros
social bond theory, this indicates that you C. thanatos
have strong… D. conscience
a. Commitment
b. Attachment 4. Which of the following is characterized by
c. Involvement emotional disturbances that lead to
d. Belief mental illness?
a. Environmental
b. Psychiatric
HUMAN BEHAVIOR AND VICTIMOLOGY c. Abnormal
d. Emotional maladjustments
1. Which refers to a condition when psychopaths
demonstrate normal appraisal of emotional 5. Is a process in which a progressive series of
cause and situations in the abstract verbal changes occurs as a result of maturation and
discussion, but they are deficient in using experience of a person.
emotional cues to guide their a. Development
judgments and behavior in the process
 b. Human development
c. Innovation
d. Maturation
6. The goal of developmental changes
is__________, through a process called self
realization or self-actualization.
a. To enable them manage their interpersonal
relationship
b. To manage emotion for personal growth c.
Adopt to changes as what them requires to
undergo for them to live
d. Enable people to adapt to the
environment in which they live
7. It lays down the foundation of one’s gender
identity. The pattens of identification arising
from the phallic stage primarily determine the
development of human character.
a. Oral Stage
b. Anal Stage
c. Phallic Stage
d. Latency Stage
8. Are chronic maladaptive cognitive-behavioral
patterns that are thoroughly integrated into
the individual’s personality and that are
troublesome to others or whose pleasure
sources are either harmful or illegal.
a. Personality disorder
b. Mental disorder
c. Somatoform Disorder
d. Behavioral disorder
9. It is a mental disorder characterized by
physical symptoms that mimic physical
disease or injury for which there is no
identifiable physical cause. The symptoms
that result from a somatoform disorder are
due to mental factors
a. Personality disorder
b. Mental disorder
c. Somatoform Disorder
d. Behavioral disorder
10. Displays neurological symptoms such as
numbness, paralysis, or fits, even though no
neurological explanation is found and it is
determined that the symptoms are due to the
patient’s psychological response to stress.
a. Hypochondriasis
b. Conversion Disorder (Hysteria)
c. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
d. Mass Hysteria

Amici Review Center 15 | P a g e

11. Marco is experiencing dramatic mood shifts
due to his multiple distinct changing
personalities, what personality disorder is he
displaying?
A. Borderline Personality
B. Dissociative
C. Bipolar Disorder
D. Obsessive Compulsive

12. This term used by Philippe Pinel describing

the personality that is characterized by
inability to learn from experience, lack of
warmth, and no sense of guilt better known
as:
a. manie sans delire
b. madness without confusion D. Pyromanic
c. psychopathic personality
d. all of the above 17. This is a psychoneurotic condition that is
accompanied by a vast range of mental and
13. People with this personality display oddities of emotional symptoms that cannot be
thinking, perceiving and communicating similar to controlled.
those of people with schizophrenia. a. Narcissistic a. Psychasthenia
personality b. Amnesia
b. Antisocial personality c. Phobias
c. Schizotypal personality d. Compulsion
d. Histrionic (hysterical) personality
18. This is the inexcusable reverential awe of a
14. A false belief based on an incorrect inference specific situation when there is no existing
about external reality and firmly sustained evil that are totally out of dimensions.
despite clear evidence to the contrary, and A. Phobias
which is not related to cultural or religious B. Obsessive-compulsive
beliefs C. Anxiety neurosis
A. False alarm B. Wrong perception D. Exposure
C. Incoherence D. Delusion
19. It is recurrent, persistent ideas, thoughts,
15. People with this personality, they are openly images, or impulses that are ego-dystonic,
distressed by their isolation and inability to that is, they are not experienced as
relate comfortably to others. voluntarily produced, but rather as ideas
a. Dependent personality that invade consciousness.
b. Antisocial personality a. Obsession
c. Borderline personality b. Anxiety
d. Avoidant personality c. Phobia
d. Compulsion
16. A person jumps out of the window to his
death because he believes he can fly is 20. It is defined as the way people react to
_______. frustration. This could be attributed to
A. Psychotic individual differences and the way people
B. Mental retardate prepared in the developmental task they
C. Neurotic faced during the early stages of their life.
a. Coping mechanism
 b. Defense mechanism
c. Fight/flight
d. Frustration Tolerance
21. It is the ability to withstand frustration
without developing inadequate modes of
response such as being emotionally
depressed or irritated, becoming neurotic, or
becoming aggressive.
a. Coping mechanism
b. Defense mechanism
c. Fight/flight
d. Frustration Tolerance
22. They identify first the problem, look for the
most practical and handy way to solve it, and
proceeded with the constructive manner of
utilizing the solution which will produce the
best results.
a. Direct approach
b. Detour
c. Substitution
d. Developing feeling of inferiority
23. When an individual realizes that in finding for
the right solution of the problem, he always
end up with a negative outcome or result.
Thus, he tries to change direction first and
find out if the solution or remedy is there.
a. Direct approach
b. Detour
c. Substitution
d. Developing feeling of inferiority
24. Most of time are resulted to in handling
frustration when an original plan intended to
solve the problem did not produce the
intended result, thus the most practical way
to face the problem, is to look for most
possible or alternative means.
a. Direct approach
b. Detour
c. Substitution
d. Developing feeling of inferiority
25. Comes when a person is unable to hold on to
any solution which gives a positive result.
Being discourage to go on working for a way
to handle a frustration could result to
diminishing self-confidence, until the time
when inferiority complex sets in.
a. Direct approach
b. Detour
c. Substitution
d. Developing feeling of inferiority

Amici Review Center 16 | P a g e

26. Eric Berne devised a method involving the
study of interaction between individuals.
According to him a person who is protective,
idealistic, evaluative and righteous interacts
in a ___ state
a. parent ego state
b. adult ego state
c. child ego state
d. super ego state

27. It is a form of sexual gratification

characterized by the compulsive desire of a
person to rub his sex organs against some
part of the body of another.
a. Sodomy
b. Uranism his or her own victimization
c. Frottage C. A victim who bears as much responsibility
d. Partialism as the offender, a person who, for
example, enters into a suicide pact
28. A kind of sexual behavior that seeks
D. A victim who is victimized during the
stimulations and gratification by means other
perpetration of a crime or as a result of
than normal, heterosexual norms.
crime
a. Heterosexuality – opposite sex
b. Homosexuality – same sex
c. Sexuality 32. One reason some people may invite, or
precipitate victimization is because there is
d. Sexual deviancy
an element in their personalitythat
incites attacks Victim's precipitation theory
29. Sexual pleasure is achieved through using
is associated with__________.
and saying shouting bad words while having
A. passive precipitation
sex called:
A. Coprophilia B. active precipitation
B. Coprolalia C. victim disability
C. Bad words D. victim personality
D. Coprophagia 33. It is a type of victim which he is the Primary
abusers in relationships become victims when
30. It refers to an intangible feeling that seems to the one being abused turns on them.
evade any effort to resolve it. a. depressive
b. acquisitive
A. Worry
B. Anxiety c. loners
d. tormentor
C. Panic
D. Fear
34. It is a term that describes the relationship
between the victim and the criminal
31. Which is the Victim more guilty than the
a. couple
offender classification of Benjamin
Mendelsohn? b. penal couple
c. twin
A. A victim who is victimized due to
d. victim
ignorance, a victim who inadvertently
places himself or herself in harm's way
35. This victim directly suffers the harm or injury
B. A victim who instigates or provokes
which is physical, psychological, and
 economic losses. 38. It is easily duped because his or her
A. Elementary Crime Victim motivation for easy gain lowers his or her
B. Primary Crime Victim natural tendency to be suspicious.
C. Secondary Crime Victim a. Greedy Type
D. Tertiary Crime Victims b. Depressive Type
c. Wanton Type
36. They experience the harm next hand, such as d. Tormentor Type
intimate partners or significant others of rape
victims or children of the battered woman. A. 39. It is one of the simplest and most primitive of
Elementary Crime Victim a person’s ego defenses. Material, facts,
B. Primary Crime Victim feelings and experiences that are intolerable
C. Secondary Crime Victim are disowned by the unconscious denial of
D. Tertiary Crime Victim their existence.
A. Denial
37. The following choices are general behavior B. Conversion
traits of a psychopath, EXCEPT?__________. C. Repression
A. are prone to use of cold-blooded D. Sublimation
instrumental intimidation and violence to
satisfy their wants and needs 40. It is the process, unconscious, by which an
B. generally are contemptuous of social individual patterns himself on another,
norms and the rights of others perhaps by transferring to himself the
C. not motivated by thrill servicing and thoughts, behaviors and body language of
excitement the other person.
D. lack a normal sense of ethics and morality A. Substitution
and live by their own roles B. Identification
C. Repression
D. Sublimation

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41. A person with strong sexual urges becomes
an artist.
A. Substitution C. Repression B. Identification
D. Sublimation

42. It is a negative outcome of a person's inability

to handle frustration rightly. Manifestation in
physical behavior can be observed in one's
negative attitudes towards life both in the
personal and professional aspect.
A. Withdrawal or retreat
B. Use of Defense Mechanism
C. Direct approach
D. Aggression
 43. Is an unpleasant state of tension and
heightened sympathetic activity resulting
from a blocked goal.
a. Frustration
b. Conflict
c. Problem
d. Tension
44. Characterized by instability reflected in drastic
mood shifts and behavior problems. The
person usually displays intense anger
outburst with little provocation and he is
impulsive, unpredictable, and periodically
unstable.
a. Borderline Personality Disorder
b. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
c. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
d. Passive-Aggressive Personality Disorder
45. It is a type of victim are those who are weak
by virtue of age and immaturity
a. young
b. old
c. female
d. mentally defective
46. A manifestation of mental disorder through an
erroneous perception without an external
object of stimulus.
a. Mania
b. Illusion
c. Delusion
d. Hallucination
47. JOLLI BEE is displaying an old behavior in
which it could be explained and sometimes it
is not conforming with the norms that
indicating that JOLLI BEE is somewhat
confused. In what category of abnormal
condition JOLLI BEE belongs?
A. Long period of discomfort
B. Impaired functioning
C. Disruptive behavior
D. Bizarre behavior
48. Mira cheated during the Mock Board
Examination, she justify her act by saying
that everybody is doing also what I have
done. What kind of defense mechanism does
Mira use?
a. Reaction formation
b. Rationalization
c. Fantasy
d. Compensation
49. Statement 1: Pedophilia is a sexual perversion
where a person has the compulsive desire to
have sexual intercourse with an adult of
either sex.
Statement 2 : Zoophilia sexual gratification is
attained by having sexual intercourse with
animals.
a. Both statement are wrong
b. Both statement is correct
c. Only statement 1 is correct
d. Only statement 2 is correct
50. A 46-year-old man asks his doctor to refer
him to a physician who attended a top- rated
medical school. He says that he knows the
doctor will not be offended because she will
 understand that he is better than her other b. Projection
patients. Which of the following disorders c. Sublimation
best fits this picture? d. Reaction Formation
a. borderline personality disorder
b. Histrionic personality disorder 53. Traffic Enforcer Juan Angel uses his hand
c. narcissistic personality disorder signal to command those traffic unit. What kind of
d. Schizoid personality disorder human behavior classifies this type? a. Instinct
b. Habitual
51. Mari Tes Poqpoq submits herself to c. Symbolic
humiliation, beatings, and other forms of d. Complex
physical abuse, for sexual excitement. What
types of paraphilia does he possess? 54. A type of paranoia wherein having a delusion
a. Sadism that certain person love with him/her.
b. Masochism a. Erotic Paranoia
c. Sadomasochism b. Exalted Paranoia
d. Battered Woman Syndrome c. Jealous Paranoia
d. Persecutory Paranoia
52. Huxley Mitra wants to join in PNP but the
factor is he did not match with the qualifying 55. What do we call the psychological, emotional
standard because of his height, instead of and behavioral reactions and deficits of
giving up he took masters degree and apply women victims and their inability to respond
for faculty member at University of Cebu – effectively to repeated physical and
Main College of Criminal Justice. What psychological violence?
reaction to frustration depicted at the A. McNaghten Rule
hereinabove? B. Violence against women
a. Fight C. Battered Woman Syndrome

Amici Review Center 18 | P a g e

D. Woman Menopausal Syndrome 57. This refers to feeling or impression of stimulus
such as visual, olfactory, cutaneous, auditory,
56. An exaggerated belief in one’s importance, and gustatory.
power, wealth, or fame. In extreme form, it A. awareness
is called delusion. Which of these? B. perception
A. Powerism C. emotion
B. Famousity D. sensation
C. Grandiosity
D. Algolagnia 58. This is the stage where victim formulates
psychological defenses and deals with
 conflicting emotions D. masculinity
a. Stage of impact and disorganization
b. Stage of recoil 66. What is the involuntary spasm in the vagina
c. Reorganization stage that prevents the penis from entering unto it? A.
d. Behavioral outcome voyeurism
B. vaginisimus
59. Characteristics such as poor, densely C. lesbianism
populated, bad neighborhoods, social D. transvestism
disorganization
(Opportunity) 67. Sexual intercourse with animals like dogs,
a. life style theory cats, chicken, carabao, horse etc. is called... A.
b. broken window voyeurism
c. deviant place B. bestiality
d. victimology C. transvestism
D. peeping tom
60. Occurs when a victim makes it,
unintentionally so, easier for an offender to 68. Antonio, a funeral parlor attendant. He enjoys
commit a crime having sexual intercourse with people of
a. victim precipitation tender years. What sexual deviant act did
b. victim facilitation Antonio commit?
c. victim provocation A. Necrophilia
d. victimology B. Infantosexual
C. Gerontophilia
61. Occurs when a person actually does D. Bestiality
something that incites another person to
commit an illegal act 69. Refers to the standard of behavior or conduct
a. victim precipitation accepted in a given society which expected of
b. victim facilitation an individual living in that society.
c. victim provocation a. culture
d. victimology b. principle
c. norms
62. Juan engage in multiple means of torture, d. lex scripta
using psychological torment combined with
physical methods to lighten his sexual 70. The more frequently a person comes into
arousal is suffering from... contact with persons in demographic groups
A. Masochism with likely offenders, the more likely it is the
B. Sexual Torture person will be victimized
C. Sexual Pyromania a. Principle of homogamy
D. Sexual Sadism b. principle of logomacy
c. principle of victimization
63. It is a sexual act done by two males and one d. none of these
female or vice versa?
A. sexual trip 71. A person is victimized more than once by any
B. triolism type of victimization, but across long span of
C. toontastic trio time
D. pluralism a. recurring victimization
b. revictimization
64. What do you call the sexual act of inserting c. repeat victimization
the penis into the anus of the other person? A. d. none of these
frottage
B. sodomy 72. Occurs when a person or place is victimized
C. anilingus more than once by the same type of
D. coprolalia victimization
a. recurring victimization
65. This is concern to our state of being whether b. revictimization
man or woman because it is referring to our c. repeat victimization
expression of love to another person d. none of these
irresponsive of gender.
A. transvestism 73. Occurs when a person or place is victimized
B. feminity more than once of any type of victimization
C. Sexuality a. recurring victimization
Amici Review Center 19 | P a g e
b. revictimization women are more likely to be victimized; looks
c. repeat victimization at female victim- blaming
d. none of these a. feminist victimology

74. Examines the development of and desistance

from offending and other behaviors over
time. a. social interactionist perspective
b. life-course perspective
c. control deficit
d. none of these

75. Looks at gender and patriarchy; says that

 c.

b. critical victimology Eustress

c. Cultural theory d. Acute stress
d. Socio-structural theory
80. It is not common as major depression or even
76. The victim instigated a conflict but is killed in dysthymia and sometimes being referred to
self- defense. An example would be an as an illness which is manic-depressive in
abused woman killing her partner while he is nature.
abusing her. A. Bipolar disorder
a. imaginary victim B. psychotic depression
b. innocent victim C. endogenous depression
c. guilty victim D. reactive depression

77. This stage is where the body is unable to 81. People with this personality are preoccupied
maintain normal function because of stress. with orderliness, perfectionism and control.
The initial autonomic nervous system They are reliable, dependable, orderly and
symptoms may reappear sweating, raised methodical, but their inflexibility makes them
heart rate. unable to adapt to change.
a. Alarm a. Dependent personality
b. Resistance b. Passive-aggressive personality
c. Exhaustion c. Obsessive-Compulsive personality
d. Distress d. Avoidant personality
82. Moderate mental retardation I.Q. id between
78. It can be defined as as any event that strains 35 to 49:
or exceeds an individual’s ability to cope. a. Subject is educable
a. Stress b. Subject is trainable
b. Distress c. Subject is totally dependent
c. Stressor d. Subject needs life support
d. Depression
83. This personality system controls the gateway
79. Moderate or normal psychological stress to action.
interpreted as being beneficial for the A. alter ego
experiencer. B. Id
a. Stess C. ego
b. Distress D. Superego
 84. It is a type of serial killers who kill in response c. Paranoid schizophrenics
to the commands of voices or visions usually d. Psychotic depressives
emanating from the forces of good or evil.
These offenders are often believed to be 87. It is characterized by interests directed
suffering from some form of psychosis. toward the external environment.
a. Thrill-oriented type a. Extroversion
b. Lust killer b. Introversion
c. Visionary motive type c. Ambiversion
d. Mission-oriented type d. Neuroticism

85. It is a type of serial killers who kill in response 88. These are patterns of behavior that
to the commands of voices or visions usually consciously or unconsciously help people
emanating from the forces of good or evil. handle their anxieties and feel better and
These offenders are often believed to be more comfortable with themselves.
suffering from some form of psychosis. a. Mental mechanism
a. Thrill-oriented type b. Mental deficiencies
b. Lust killer c. Mental retardation
c. Visionary motive type d. Mental behavior
d. Mission-oriented type
89. It refers to substantial limitations in present
86. They are unable to respond effectively to functioning. It starts before age 18 and is
emotional, social, intellectual and physical characterized by significantly subaverage
demands. They show ineptness, poor intellectual functioning.
judgement, social instability and they lack a. Mental deficiency
physical and emotional stamina. b. Mental retardation
a. Anti-social personalities c. All of the above
b. Inadequate personalities d. None of the above

Amici Review Center 20 | P a g e

90. It is a viewpoint in the study of human
behavior that focuses on external activities
that can be observed and measured.
a. Neurological
b. Behavioral
c. Cognitive
d. Psychoanalytical

91. The behavior associated with the relation

between sexes and their respective
reproductive organs.
a. Heterosexuality
b. Homosexuality
c. Sexuality
d. Sexual deviancy
92. A kind of sexual behavior that seeks vomiting.
stimulations and gratification by means other a. Denial
than normal, heterosexual norms. b. Conversion
a. Heterosexuality c. Repression
b. Homosexuality d. Sublimation
c. Sexuality
d. Sexual deviancy 97. An introvert is one who likes to be alone,
while an extrovert is one who likes to be with
93. It is the excessive sexual desire of men to others. The third one is combination of the
intercourse. qualities of both introvert and the extrovert.
a. Satyriasis He is an__
b. Nymphomania a. introvert
c. Oralism b. extrovert
d. Sado-masochism c. ambivert
d. pervert
94. The use of the mouth as a way of sexy
gratification such as fellatio, cunnilingus and 98. It refers to all types of internal forces which
anilingus may prevent a person from committing a
a. oralism crime.
b. fetishism A. Contact with reality
c. corpolalia B. Internal Inhibition
d. coprophilia C. Need frustration
D. Situational crime potential
95. It is characterized by incompleteness whether
as a result of death, divorce, separation or 99. What is known as the highest needs of all?
some other circumstances. a. self-actualization
a. The inadequate family b. self-esteem
b. The anti-social family c. love and belonginess
c. The discordant or disturbed family c. self-love
d. The disrupted family
100.Jerome a person working in funeral parlor,
96. Substituting acceptable physical symptoms dreams of having sexual intercourse with a
for unacceptable emotions and feelings. For corpse. What type of sexual deviation did he
example, a student has a test and is nervous commit?
and afraid of failing, develops nausea and a. necrophilia
b. pedophilia
 c. besto-sexual
d. none
PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT AND ETHICAL
STANDARDS
1. What does the Doctrine of Reciprocal
Responsibility mean?
A. Development of a favorable public attitude towards
the government
B. Local residents and police officers in the area shall
meet regularly to discuss peace and order problems.
C. The participation and support of the
citizenry in anti-crime campaign is
indispensable
D. Command of line elements of the PNP shall be as
close as practicable to the People
2. For the PNP core values to be internalized by
all its members, the following shall be the
implementation strategy of the organization,
EXCEPT?___________.
A. It will be made as a basis for
Productivity Incentive Bonus.
B. It will be integrated in all PNP academic
courses
Amici Review Center 21 | P a g e
A. Ethics
B. Values
C. Philosophy
D. Morals
6. Which of the following are TRUE about public
information and perception management? I. Public
Information is the use of a strategy that is aimed at
influencing the conclusions of the public by using
C. It will be included in moral value
programs.
D. It will be made a part in police
information and continuing education
programs
3. The PNP core values provide a solid anchor for
the organization as it develops and
strengthens itself. The following are the core
values of the PNP. EXCEPT?__________.
A. Makatarungan
B. Makadiyos
C. Makakalikasan
D. Makatao
4. Choose the option where POLICE members
shall conduct themselves properly at all
timekeeping with the rules and
regulations of the organization.
A. Trust
B. Discipline
C. Confidence
D. Loyalty
5. Which deals with what is good and bad as well
as our moral duties and obligations?
different approaches favorable to the originator’s
objectives.
II. Perception management refers to information
collected and held by the government that are
available to public inspection
III. Public Information refers to information collected
and held by government that are available to public
inspection
IV. Perception management is the use of a strategy
that is aimed at influencing the conclusions of the C. Grievance machinery
public by using diffeent approaches favorable to the D. Promotion assessment
originators objectives.
A. II and III 11. Select which option applies to Patrolman
B. III and IV Peter, who for several occasions, several
C. I and IV personalities tried to bribe him, but he
D. I and II never gave in because he believes that
integrity is one of his most cherished
7. Which of the following are TRUE? principles.
I. Customs are bodies of beliefs and usages A. A judgment of what is right or wrong B. A
handed down from situation which confronts a person and
generation to generation. makes him decide what act to perform C. A
II. Traditions are social practices that have situation which calls for choosing between
obtained the force of law. two evils
III. Customs are social practices that have D. A rationally ground where one
obtained the force of law. maintains his moral decisions
IV. Traditions are beliefs and message
handed down from generation to 12. Public officials and employees must process
generation. documents and papers expeditiously. As
A. I and II much as practicable, how many signatories
B. II and III must be contained in these documents?
A. No limit C. Two B. Three D. One
C. III and IV
D. I, II, III, and IV
13. The ability to go on despite the tremendous
adversity.
8. Select the statement which concurs that PNP
a. Perseverance
members are prohibited from soliciting
b. Endurance
Political Patronage.
c. Patience
A. PNP members must not vote for their
d. Prudence
political candidate.
B. PNP members shall inhibit
14. Which of the following traits/capabilities is
themselves from asking for most essential in a police officer?
endorsements from politicians on a. Physical stamina
matters pertaining to assignment, b. Absence of physical fear
award, training and promotion. c. High intelligence
C. PNP members must refrain from securing d. High standard of morality
clearances from other government
agencies on matters needed for their 15. Is the process which constantly endeavors to
assignment, award, training and obtain good will cooperation support of public
promotion. for effective law enforcement and to
D. PNP members must not campaign for a accomplish police objectives.
political candidate a. Public relations
b. Police public relations
9. The Makabayan core values of PNP members c. Community relations
is exemplified by the following acts, d. Police community relations
EXCEPT?___________.
A. pledging allegiance to the flag of the 16. It can be said that the best public relations
Republic of the Philippines between the police and the public exist when
the public attitude is one of:
B. taking an oath to obey legal orders
a. Formal acceptance
C. loyalty to superior officers
b. Taut acceptance
D. swearing to defend the Constitution
c. Confidence, approval, and respect
d. Due approval
10. Which refers to a system utilized to foster the
improvement of individual efficiency and
17. The most important medium to determine
behavioral discipline as well as the promotion
public attitudes between the police and the
of organizational effectiveness in the police
public attitude is the:
force?
A. Performance a. Radio and television
b. Print mass media
B. Performance governance
c. Individual policeman

Amici Review Center 22 | P a g e

d. Police public relation officer b. Improving contact with the public

18. The most important criterion of a policeman’s

performance of his duties is the:
a. Public attitudes towards him
b. The fact of lack of absences
c. His service and seniority rating
d. Number of orders/writs served daily

19. The policemen views public relations primarily

as:
a. An attitude towards the public while at work
c. Winning the confidence of the public d.
Something affecting him as he does his duty
effectively
20. The most important consideration a
policeman should pay attention to while in
contact with the public is the:
a. Character of the person he serves
b. Time when contacts are being made
c. Impression he creates
d. Attitudes of the public towards the police
21. Public opinion for a police department is best
obtained by:
a. The daily contacts of uniform police officers
with the public
b. Keeping a check on the number of complaints
and commandments received by the police c.
Holding the opinion expressed in any adequate
sample if newspaper articles
d. Degree to which the community
cooperates voluntarily with the police
department in the performance of their
duties
22. The totality of efforts of policemen to improve
public attitudes should largely directed
towards?
a. Insuring that the policeman is also an
exemplary citizen
b. The creation of as many favorable public
contracts as possible
c. The tolerant enforcement of minor regulatory
statutes/ordinances
d. The improvement of contracts with the public
23. Of the following steps in planning community
relations program, the step that should be
undertaken first taken is?
a. Study the public with which the police
department deals
b. Contact editors of local newspaper
c. Develop procedures for dealing with the public
d. Establish civilian complaints procedure
24. Edgar, a questioned document expert, was
employed to determine the authenticity of a
testator’s holographic will. In determining his
remuneration, which canon of professional
ethics of registered criminologist should be
applied?
A. Canon 7. Limitation of Authority
B. Canon 8. Practice of Profession
C. Canon 10. Decorum
D. Canon 9. Malpractice of the Profession
25. Bogart included in his resume that he is an
expert in Dactyloscopy although his only
training was when he was taking up
Criminology as an undergraduate course.
Which canon of professional ethics of
registered criminologists did he violate?
A. Prohibition against self-laudatory or unfair
statement or claim regarding to his
qualifications of services.
B. Prohibition against delegation to any unqualified
person the performance of any task.
C. Prohibition against the use of their position or rank
 in the law enforcement and other government services A. Gossip and idle talk
for self-interests. B. Communication outside organization
D. Prohibition in engaging directly or indirectly in any C. Vexing of humiliating other
corrupt practices D. All of the foregoing

26. A set of norms and standards practiced by 30. The basic weapon of a police officer is?
police officers during social and other A. Gun
functions. B. Uniform
A. Social Decorum C. Whistle
B. Courtesy D. Knowledge of law
C. Custom
D. Both B and C 31. All PNP members shall recognize the fact that
they are public servants and not the master
27. Police immorality is exampled by------- of the people and towards this end, they
A. Living with a woman not his wife should perform their duties without
B. Smoking while patrolling arrogance.
C. Being late from work A. Integrity
D. All of these B. Delicadeza
C. Humility
28. The binding spirit that enhances teamwork D. None of these
and cooperation in the police organization. A.
Loyalty 32. Eviction or demolition of squatters calls for
B. Valor the policemen to,
C. Patriotism A. Exercise maximum tolerance while
D. Camaraderie giving security assistance
B. Exercise limited force
29. A police officer is forbidden to engage in idle C. Exercise maximum force in dealing with
conversation while on duty. Specifically, this squatters
prohibition refers to__________. D. Participate in actual demolition

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33. Upright in character, polite in manners, 34. Any public officer who agrees to perform an act
dignified in appearance, and sincere in their constituting a crime, in connection with the
concern to their fellowmen. performance of his official duties, in
A. Gentlemanliness consideration of any offer, promise, gift or
B. Duty present received by such officer personally or
C. Word of honor through the mediation of another shall be
D. Orderlines liable for ________?
A.
direct
bribery
B.
malversation 42. To solicit public cooperation and support, the
C. indirect bribery police should strengthen
D. illegal exaction a. Propaganda
b. Human relations
35. The authority to make decisions without c. Public relations
reference to the specific rules or facts, using d. Public information program
instead one’s own judgment.
a. Discretion 43. A program which makes the policemen a friend
b. Negotiation and a partner of the people.
c. prudence a. Public relations
d. conviction b. Human relations
c. Police community relations
36. What is the most important supervisory d. Civic action program
principle in order to improve the morale of
staff? 44. Includes all rights enjoyed by individual as
a. Be fair and just provided for under constitution and
b. Be strict on attendance international law
c. Be kind and respectful a. Rights
d. Be forgiving b. Human rights
c. Privileges
37. This particular program makes the policemen a d. Justice
friend and partner of the people as well as
their defender. In short, this program makes 45. The PNP code of professional conduct and
the police a part of, and not apart from ethical standards uphold the unconstitutional
society. provision that public office is a public trust and
a. Civic Action Program that all public servants must at all time be:
b. Public information Program a. responsible
c. Public relation Program b. accountable
d. Mass Communication Program c. respectable
d. responsive
38. Police officers should have a feeling of 46. What ethical standards is being observed when
devotion, duty or attachment to the PNP police officers follow logical procedures in
organization. Such attitude is an example of accomplishing their duties in order to minimize
_____________. waste of time, money and effort?
a. integrity a. morality
b. honesty b. code of ethics
c. loyalty to the service c. ethics
d. obedience to superior d. orderliness

39. In launching police –community programs, 47. Patrolman Benjamin has been found liable of
success can be attained by linkage with: a. serious dishonesty, which is a grave offfense
Community reflecting a person’s character and expose the
b. Barangay officials moral delay which virtually destroys his honor,
c. Civic organizations virtue and integrity. What police tradition did
d. NGO’s he violate?
a. honor code
40. To develop goodwill, a policeman on duty b. word of honor
should do the foregoing, except: c. PNP ethical doctrine
a. Annoy or inconvenience any law abiding d. grave misconduct
citizen
b. Perform his job with dedication
c. Project an honest image 48. All law enforcement members must have the
d. Be courteous moral courage to sacrifice self interest in favor
41. Act of bringing about better understanding, of upholding general welfare. They must not
confidence and acceptance an individual or an only act properly but they must even appear to
organization. act properly.
a. Propaganda a. Delicadeza
b. Human relations b. Integrity
c. Public relations c. Humility
d. Public information program d. Orderliness

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49. All PNP members must adhere to the against unauthorized disclosure.
intelligence motto that the “walls have ears."
Thus, they are mandated to observe secrecy
discipline at all times.
a. They shall treat all information privilege and
confidential
b. They shall be meticulous in everything they
disclose to public
c. They shall observe silent practicing of their
profession
d. They shall always guard the
confidentiality of classified Information
50. Barry was a bus driver. As he was driving 53. It is the doing either through ignorance,
near a bridge, he noticed a couple riding a inattention or malice, of that which the
motorbike. When he applied thebrakes, it did not officer had no legal right to do.
respond. The only way he could avoid the couple A. nonfeasance
is to ditch the vehicle into the river which will B. malfeasance
possibly kill numerous passengers or run over the C. misfeasance
couple. This situation which calls for choosing D. oppression
between, two evils is called a. Moral judgment
b. Moral dilemma 54. A police-community relations programs must
c. Moral decision have the following objectives, EXCEPT:
d. Moral issue A. To enforce the law and arrest
violators
51. It is a part of the corruption continuum, B. To obtain public cooperation and
wherein the honest police officers turn bad assistance
due to repeatedly accepting free meals, free C. To create broader understanding and
fare and similar insignificant acts which leads sympathy with the problems and needs of
to serious misbehavior and finally corruption. the police
a. meat eaters D. To maintain and develop the goodwill and
b. straight shooters confidence of the community.
c. grass eaters 55. It is the bestowal of patronage by public
d. Slippery Slope officers in appointing others to positions by
reason of blood or marital relationships to
52. Arises when a public official or employee is a appointing authority.
member of a board, an officer, or a A. Marital privilege
substantial stockholder of a private B. Nepotism
corporation or owner or has a substantial C. Filial preference
interest in a business, and the interest of D. Jus Sanguinis
such corporation or business, or his rights or 56. A policeman must give careful attention to his
duties therein, may be opposed to or personal appearance. As such, he must
affected by the faithful performance of comply with the following, EXCEPT
official duty. A. He shall be properly attired with his
a. Moon lightning complete uniform
b. Hidden interest B. He must maintain good posture and
c. Ill-gotten wealth grooming
d. Conflict of interest
 C. He shall carry his gun, tucked in his arrogance. The preceding statement
waist, for the public to see demands ________.
D. He must see to it that his uniform is clean a. Arrogance
and properly pressed b. Discipline
c. Humility
57. An act of cruelty, domination or excessive use d. Courtesy
of authority is known in police ethics as: A. 60. It is the usual greetings rendered by
Depression uniformed members upon meeting and
C. Order recognizing person entitle to
B. oppression a. Salute
D. Discretion b. respect
c. vow
58. Includes elective and appointive officials and d. honor
employees, permanent or temporary,
whether in the career or non-career service, 61. PNP members shall exercise due protection
including military and police personnel, and care of public property issued for their
whether or not they receive compensation, official use or entrusted to their care like a
regardless of amount. “good father of the family.” It connotes that
a. Person in Authority _______
b. Agent of person in authority a. Reasonable care consistent with that
c. Public official which an ordinarily prudent person
d. Public officer would have observed when confronted
with a similar situation
59. PNP members shall recognize the fact that b. Proper use of public property within
they are public servants and not the masters reasonable limits
of the people; and toward this end, they c. Proper use of public property either for official
should perform their duties without or personal ends

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d. All of the above 63. He shall build good image through actual
commendable performance, without
62. Every police shall be worthy of high public trust inefficiency and corruption; build good image
by doing his job and leaving nothing undone. through actual commendable performance,
He shall make himself available and be willing without inefficiency and corruption; evaluate
to serve everyone public opinion and attitude with respect to
a. Community support must be maintained. policies, methods and personnel of the police
b. Community resentment must be avoided. c. station.
Community goodwill must be developed. a. Public Relations Officer
b. Civic
Action
Officer
c. Police
Officer
d. All Of
The
Above
64. He shall encourage and actively participate in raised in the middle of the pole in difference to
athletic competitions to promote youth deceased member of the command or unit. a. flag
development; initiate fund-raising campaigns raising
for juvenile delinquents who are being b. half-mast
rehabilitated and render possible assistance, c. flag retreat
especially to the men folk in enabling them to d. funeral service
obtain the means of productive endeavors and
discourage them from loitering in the street or 71. The misuse of police authority which involves
engaging uneconomic activities, such as illegal violations of the rules and regulations of the
gambling and others . police organization.
a. Public Relations Officer a. police profanity
b. Civic Action Officer b. police corruption
c. Police Officer c. police misconduct
d. All of the above d. police deviance

65. The people should inform the community of the 72. Police Corporal Perez refrains himself from
regulations and policies of the police force and patronizing houses of ill refute and always
the reasons of their adoption faithful to his lawfully wedded wife. PO3 Perez
a. Community support must be maintained. b. practices the ethical act of:
Community resentment must be avoided. c. a. integrity
Community goodwill must be developed. d. b. loyalty
Community must be kept informed c. morality
d. temperance
66. “Judicious use of Authority” means: a.
Respect for Human Rights 73. What is the primary purpose of a public relation
b. Legitimate use authority program?
c. Practical use of government resources d. a. to develop mutual understanding between
Logical procedures – orderliness the police and public;
b. To plan for a community relation program; c. To
67. When police officers are taught how to deal recruit new members for community relations;
with people in a warm and friendly manner, d. To train police officers in community relations.
they are trained in _________.
a. Public information 74. The police officers use of offensive and obscene
b. international relations languages is known as police _______.
c. Media relations a. brutality
d. human relations b. profanity
c. perjury
68. The police officer’s relations with the officers d. gratuity
and men of his own department, his
supervisor, the station commander, as well as 75. It is the ability to be calm in enduring
the city or municipal mayor where he is situations.
assigned is an example of: a. patience
a. intra-departmental relations b. perseverance
b. professional relation c. endurance
c. good relation d. temperance
d. inter-departmental relation
76. Excessive use of force or police brutality is a
69. PNP members must promote a living that is violation of the ethical standards. PNP
acceptable and respectable in the eyes of the members shall exercise proper and ______ use
public. They must promote simple yet credible of authority in the performance of duty.
lives.
a. effective
a. police lifestyle b. proportionate
b. delicadeza
c. legitimate
c. human rights d. responsible
d. image
77. Philippine Constitution mandated the creation
70. A part of the PNP’s ceremony where the flag is of the Philippine National Police, what

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provision of the fundamental law prescribed
that it would assume an identity to CIVILIAN in
CHARACTER and NATIONAL in SCOPE? a. Article
VI, Section XVI
b. Article XVI, Section VI
c. Article 3, Section 16
d. Article 16, Section 3

78. Among the following core values of the

Philippine national police, which is the most
supreme?
a. love of God
b. respect for authority
c. respect for women
d. respect for sanctity of marriage
79. What principle of police community relation
states that policemen must be courteous, fair
and quick to assist individuals in the solutions
of their problems?
a. Public Support must be maintained.
b. Public Resentment must be avoided.
c. Public goodwill must be developed. d.
Public must be kept informed on regulations
and policies.
80. What principle of police community relation
states that policeman shall always bear in
mind the interest of the public and shall
develop friendly relations by his good
conduct.
a. Public Support must be maintained.
b. Public Resentment must be
avoided. c. Public goodwill must be
developed.
d. Public must be kept informed on
regulations and policies.
81. A habit which inclines man to act in a way
that harmonizes with his nature.
a. Ethics c. Virtue
b. Value d. Dignity
82. Voice of reason bidding oneself to avoid evil
and do good.
a. Ethics c. Dignity
b. Virtue d. Conscience
83. Rules of conduct applied to law enforcement.
a. Police ethics c. Code of police ethics b. Rules
of engagement d. All of these
84. Patrolman Jim govern and disciplines himself
by means of reason and sound judgement.
What virtue does he practice
a. endurance
b. fortitude
c. prudence
d. perseverance
85. Arresting a suspect without a warrant of
arrest may tantamount to:
a. malfeasance
b. non feasance
c. misfeasance
d. feasance
86. Public officers and employees who serve with
the highest degree of integrity, loyalty,
responsibility and efficiency manifest?
a. Love for country
b. Allegiance to the government
c. Allegiance to the constitution
d. Public office is a public trust
87. A social norm providing guidance for people
in their dealings with one another, as a
standard against which actions are evaluated,
and as a prescription or requirement that
people act justly.
A. Law
B. Justice
C. Ethics
D. Conduct
88. It refers to the commitment, dignity and
attitude of an individual towards work and his
 integrity and his practice of the core moral where he acts without any authority
value principles. whatsoever or exceeds, ignores or abuses
a. Conduct – the way people act in the society b. his powers.
Morality – principles of application of right or A. Incompetence
wrong B. Dishonesty
c. Professionalism C. Misconduct
d. Ethics D. Neglect of duty

89. It is the essence of good manners, a 92. The omission or refusal, without sufficient
manifestation of sportsmanship and an excuse, to perform an act or duty, which is the
exposition of gentility and culture. officer’s legal obligation to perform. A.
A. Courtesy Incompetence
B. Discipline B. Misconduct
C. Loyalty C. Neglect of duty
D. Morale D. Bribery

90. The concealment or distortion of truth in a 93. The supreme law of the Land.
matter of fact relevant to one’s office, or A. Bible
connected with the performance of his duties. A. B. Constitution
gross misconduct C. PNP Law
B. incompetence
C. dishonesty 94. Refers to the reciprocal attitudes of the police
D. disloyalty and the community
a. Loyalty
91. The doing either through ignorance, b. Courtesy
inattention or malice, of that which the police c. Police Ethics
officer had no legal right to do at all, as d. Police Community Relations

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95. One’s obligation and duty to his nation of turpitude, but affecting the internal discipline
origin. of the PNP such as simple negligence and
a. Code of Ethics misconduct, frequent absences, gambling
b. Allegiance to the Constitution prohibited by law, tardiness, and
c. Loyalty and Love of Country insubordination.
d. Allegiance to the government a. Serious offense
b. Grave offense
96. Acts or omission not involving moral c. Felony
 d. Minor Offense CICL units he/she is proven to be eighteen
(18) years old or older.
97. The most significant power exercise by a A. presumption of innocence
police officer as a first line supervisor. B. presumption of constitutionality
a. Control over organization C. presumption of regularity
b. Manpower Control D. presumption of minority
c. Cost Control
d. Planning control 4. Which is NOT a physically neglected child?
A. Ill-clad without proper shelter
98. Mental and moral training that makes man B. Mentally subnormal
willing to be subject to regulation and control
C. Child who is unattended when left by
for the benefit and interest of the group
himself without proper provision of his
where he belongs.
needs and/ro without proper supervision
a. Courtesy
D. When a child is malnourished
b. Discipline
c. Morale
d. Ethics 5. Which child as determined by the LSWDO to
have been maltreated, whether habitual
99. Primary attribute for effective leadership. or not?
a. Be a born leader a. Dependent
b. Have acquired the techniques of handling men b. Abused
c. Have enough experience and training d. Have c. Neglected
normal intelligence and sincere desire to d. Abandoned
serve
6. Which statement exemplifies that without the
100.Self-esteem, self-confidence, drives a very source of strength and courage of
person’s attitude and emotional feeling any individual man may develop fear
regarding their way and the people whom and inferiority?
they interact with A. This is one thing needed in a family for a child B. It
a. Leadership is through companionship where warmth is felt by a
b. Morale child
c. Discipline C. Children`s accomplishments and
resourcefulness deserve appreciation and
reward.
JUVENILE DELINQUENCY AND JUVENILE D. Security is the state of being secure specifically
JUSTICE SYSTEM freedom from danger, risk, care poverty and
apprehension
1. When may a child in conflict with the law
undergo diversion program without necessity 7. Which refers to the cult of instant
of court intervention? gratification?
A. When the imposable penalty for the crime A. Short-run hedonism
committed is not more than six (6) years B. B. Negativism
When the imposable penalty for the crime committed C. Non-utilitarianism
exceeds six (6) years imprisonment C. When the D. Group autonomy
imposable penalty for the crime committed exceeds
six (6) years imprisonment but not more than twelve 8. Which of the following choices showed the
(12) years imprisonment D. When the imposable trend in the study of juvenile delinquency
penalty for the crime committed does not exceeds throughout history?
twelve (12) years imprisonment A. Ignored and Unpunished
2. A child committed drug related offense B. Given specialized treatment
punished with______imprisonment shall be
C. Tried in Juvenile court
deemed a neglected child and shall be
D. Punished like an adult
committed to intensive intervention in IJISC
a. reclusion temporal
9. Which is NOT applicable to both juvenile and
b. more than 12 years adult criminal justice system?
c. 12 years and more
A. The right to receive four-fold
d. More than 6 years
(Miranda Warnings) warnings
applies only to adults but not
3. The ____________ presupposes that child
juvenile offenders
offenders are also afforded all the rights of a

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B. Police officers, judges, and correctional
personnel use of discretion in the decision
making in both the adult and juvenile
system
C. Juvenile and adults are protected from
prejudicial line-ups or other identification
procedures
D. Similar procedural safeguards protect
juveniles and adults when they make an
admission of guilt.
10. Identify the initial step to be taken after a child
who committed a light offense was listed in
the child at risk or pink blotter.
a. Give “payo” or advise or warning not to
repeat the act
b. Notify the parents
c. Turn over to the barangay council for the
protection of children if residing in that
barangay
d. Turn over directly to the local social welfare
development officer if the child is non resident
of the municipality.
11. Which system refers to legislators, norms, and 15. The following may adopt, except:
A. Any

standards, procedures, mechanisms, and Filipino citizen of legal age at least sixteen (16)
provision institutions, and bodies specifically years older than the adoptee
applicable to juvenile offenders? B. Any alien possessing the same
a. Barangay justice qualifications as that of a Filipino citizen,
b. Retributive justice who has been living in the Philippines for
c. Criminal justice at least three (2) consecutive years
C. Any alien or a Filipino citizen permanently
d. Restorative justice
residing abroad at least 27 years old
D. None of these
12. Which of the following is not a part of the
working definition of restorative justice? a.
16. Who among the following may be adopted? A.
Protection
Any person eighteen (18) years of age and below
b. Isolation judicially declared available for adoption
c. Prevention B. a child whose biological or adoptive parents has
d. Diversion died, but proceedings may only be initiated
after six (3) months from the time of the death
13. Which of the following became the model of the parents
institution for all American juvenile offenders? a. C. a child whose adoption has been
Reformatory School previously rescinded
b. House of Refuge D. The legitimate son or daughter of you and your
c. House of Ill refute spouse
d. Bridewell Palace
17. Act or omission which may not be punishable if
committed by an adult, but becomes unlawful
14. It is a model when the father is the chief when they are committed by a child or a
executive officer and the mother is the person of tender year or one who is in need of
operating officer that implements the father’s supervision or assistance.
policy and manages the staff (children) which a. crime
in turn have privileges and responsibilities b. status offense
based on their seniority. c. delinquency
A. The corporate model d. felonies
B. The military model
C. The team model D. The theatrical model 18. The power of the state to give any form of
charity of public nature. It is the philosophy
 behind the view that youthful offender/child in
conflict with the law is the victim of improper
care and that the state is duty bound to
provide protection.
a. positivism
b. loco parentis
c. patria potestas
d. parens patriae
19. Dagul is a child star in Going Damulag. His parents
must set up a trust fund for ____ of his earnings. A. At
most thirty percent (30%)
B. at least twenty percent (20 %)
C. at least thirty percent (30%)
D. at most twenty percent (20%)
C. 6pm D. As early as possible
21. Refers to any person below 18 years of age or those
over but unable to fully take care of themselves from
neglect, abuse, cruelty, exploitation or discrimination
due to some physical defect or mental disability or
condition.
A. child B. wards
C. physically disabled D. youth
22. A person appointed by the court to act as legal
guardian of a child even if his parents is still alive when
the best interest of the said child so requires. A.
ParensPatriae B. Guardian ad Litem
C. Cousel De Officio D. Adopter

20. Dagul is 14 years old and is working as a child star. 23. Which of the following will not exempt the child
If he starts his work at 8am, what time shall he be from criminal liability?
disimissed? A. A child is 15 year and below who acted
A.12 noon B. 4pm without discernment

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B. A child is above 15 years but below 18 25. It shall be the duty of the law enforcement officer
years who acted without discernment to determine the age of the child apprehended. If the
C. A
child is
above
15
years
but
below
18
years
who
acted
with

discernment child apprehended is FIFTEEN (15) YEARS OLD OR

D. A child is above 18 but below 21 years BELOW, the law enforcement officer
shall______________
24. Under the RA 9344 a child over 15 under 18 is A. give notice to the local social welfare and
exempt from criminal liability unless: development officer as to the apprehension
A. he has committed a heinous crime of the child in conflict with the law
B. he is the principal accused B. Must release the child to the custody of
C. he acted without discernment his or her parents or guardians, or the
D. he acted with discernment child’s nearest relative
C. shall be subject the child to a community
 based intervention program
D. shall subject the child to intervention program
26. Part of the features of a Bahay Pag-asa is an/a
_______. This will cater to children in conflict with the
law in accordance with sections 20, 20-a and 20-b as
amended.
A. Intensive Juvenile Intervention Support Center
B. Intervention for Juvenile in Intensive Support
Center
C. Intensive Juvenile Intervention and
Support Center
D. Intensive Juvenile Intervention and Service
Center
27. In relation to the section 6 of RA 10630 that
amended sec. 20 or RA 9344, if the child has no
parents or guardians or if they refuse or fail to execute
the written authorization for voluntary commitment,
the proper petition for involuntary commitment shall
be immediately filed by the DSWD or LSWDO,
provided that the minimum age for children
committed to a youth care facility or ‘BahayPag-asa’
shall be ________
A. 9 years old B. 12 years old
C.15 years old D. 17 years old
28. Under RA 10630, Serious Crimes refer to the
following, except:
A.Homicide B.
Parricide
C.Infanticide D.
Murder
29. The child with age ______ shall be committed to
intensive intervention if she/he committed serious
crimes.
a. 12 to 15
b. More than 12 but less than 15
c. 12 but not exceeding 18
d. 13 to 15 years old
30. Which statement exemplifies that without the very
source of strength and courage of individual, man may
develop fear and inferiority?
A. It is through companionship where
warmth is felt by a child.
B. Security is the state of being secure,
specifically freedom from danger, risk, care
and apprehension.
C. This is one thing needed in a family for a
child.
D. Children's accomplishments and
resourcefulness deserve appreciation
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38. Which system refers to legislation, norms, and
standards, procedures, mechanisms, institutions, and
bodies specifically applicable to juvenile offenders? A.
Criminal justice
B. Barangay justice
C. Retributive justice
D. Restorative justice
39. A delinquent characterized by emotional
disturbances that may lead to mental illness. A.
environmental delinquent
B. emotionally maladjusted delinquent
C. psychiatric delinquent
D. all of them
and reward
31. What do we call the psychological, emotional and
behavioral reactions and deficits of women victims and
their inability to respond effectively to repeated
physical and psychological violence?
A. Woman Menopausal Syndrome
B. Battered Woman Syndrome
C. battered child syndrome
D. Psychological Violence
32. It is the psychological, emotional and behavioral
reactions and deficits of women victims and their
inability to respond to repeated physical and
psychological violence?
A. Battered Woman Syndrome
B. Battered Wife
C. Abused Woman
D. Rape trauma syndrome
33. A medical diagnosis based on evidence indicating
that the child has been subjected to a pattern of
serious and unexplained abused.
A. Woman Menopausal Syndrome
B. Battered Woman Syndrome
C. battered child syndrome
D. Psychological Violence
34. Time for hospitals to tell authorities regarding
child abuse or maltreated child
A.24 hrs B. 36 hrs
C. 48 hrs D. 72 hrs
35. Under PD 603, what do we call a person under 18
years old who committed a crime?
A. Child B. Youthful Offender C. Juvenile D.
Child in Conflict with the Law
36. System dealing with children at risk and children in
conflict with the law, which provides child-appropriate
proceedings, including programs and services for
prevention, diversion, rehabilitation, re-integration and
aftercare to ensure their normal growth and
development.
A. Criminal justice system
B. Criminal procedure
C. Juvenile justice system
D. Restorative justice
37. Which of the following is NOT a part of the
working definition of restorative justice?
A. Isolation
B. Diversion
C. Protection
D. Prevention
40. These are elements which provokes crimes or 44. They are same as accidental delinquent but they
factors that are signified to the everyday adjustments are not habitual.
of an individual, like personal problems, necessities, A.Gang Organized Delinquency
imitation, curiosity, ignorance, and diseases. B.Accidental Delinquency
A.Predisposing Factor C. Unsocialized Delinquents
B. Precipitating Factor D. Occasional Offender
C.A or b
D. All of the above 45. This category involves those juveniles who often
suffer from the frustration or inability to achieve goals
41. Delinquency is not deeply rooted, and motives for of middle class and come from backward areas and
delinquency and means for controlling it are often often express themselves and try to achieve their
relatively simple. objectives through their gang.
A.Individual Delinquency A.Gang Organized Delinquency
B. Group-deported Delinquency B. Unsocialized Delinquents
C. Organized Delinquency C.Accidental Delinquency
D. Situational delinquencies D. Occasional Offender

42. Committed in companionship with others and the 46. They are delinquent group secretly trained in
cause is located not in the personality of the individual doing illegal activities
or in the delinquent’s family but in the culture of the A.Socialized delinquency
individual’s home and neighborhood. B. Over-inhibited
A.Individual Delinquency C. Emotionally Maladjusted Delinquents
B. Group-deported Delinquency D. Psychiatric Delinquents
C. Organized Delinquency
D. Situational delinquencies 47. A stage where there is substantial increase in
variety and seriousness of his delinquent acts
43. Delinquents would be one who is law-abiding most A.Emergence
of the time but who has a lapse of judgment. They B. Exploration
involve him accidentally in a delinquent activity. C.Explosion
A.Gang Organized Delinquency D. Conflagration
B.Accidental Delinquency
C. Unsocialized Delinquents 48. Children shall not be ____to become members of
D. Occasional Offender the AFP or its civilian units or other armed groups, nor
not be allowed to take part in the fighting, or used as
 guides, couriers or spices. 52. A parent who provided an egg, sperm, or uterus
A. Invited with an intent of giving the child up for adoption to
B. Forced specific parties. A. None of these B. Stepparent
C. Recruited C. Foster Parent D. Surrogate Parent
D. Trained 53. What is the legal doctrine that unless the mother
is "unfit", very young children should be 24. placed in
49. They are aggressive youth who recent the custody with their mother following a divorce? A.
authority of anyone who make an effort to control hie Tender Years Doctrine
behavior. A.Social B. Neurotic B. Psychological Parent Doctrine
C.Asocial D. Accidental C. Unwed Mother’s Doctrine
D. Illegitimacy
50. A child left by himself without provisions for his
needs/or without proper supervision falls under what 54. A child who is deprived of speech and hearing due
special category of a child? to abnormality defect during birth is known as. A.
A. abandoned child Disabled child
B. abused child B. Emotionally disturbed child
C. neglected child C. Mentally ill child
D. dependent child D. Physically handicapped child

51. A spouse of a biological parent who has no legal 55. What is declared of a temporary or permanent
rights or duties to the child other than those which termination of parental rights in the best interest of
have been voluntarily accepted. the child usually for reasons of abandonment, abuse,
A. Maternity or neglect, but also including mental illness,
B. Paternity addiction, or criminal record?
C. Stepparent A. Unfit Parent
D. Foster parent B. Psychological Incapacitation
C. Mental Disturbance
D. Child at risk

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56. Children who are vulnerable to & at risk of

committing criminal offenses.
A.CICL
B. Youthful offender
C.Neglected child
D. Child at risk

57. It refers to the security given for the release of

the person in custody of the law, furnished by
him/her or a bondsman, to guarantee his/her
appearance before any court.
A. Surety
B. Money order
C. Conditions
 B. Grade
retention
C.All of
the
above
D. None

62.
The

D. None of these period when a person gets liberated from parents’

authority is called?
58. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and A. Period of Conception
conditions most congenial to the survival, protection B. Period of Adoption
and feelings of security of the child and most C. Period of Emancipation
encouraging to the child’s physical, psychological and D. Menstrual Period
emotional development. A.Best interest of the
child 63. Under RA 9344, a child who is exactly 15 years of
B. Rights age is ______ from criminal liability.
C. Obligations A. Exempted B. Not exempted C. Mitigated D.
D. Child’s role Aggravated 64. It is characterized by infantile level of
response, lack of conscience, deficient feeling of
59. Any person who shall engage in trading and affection to others and aggression to environment
dealing with children including, but not limited to the and other people.
act of buying and selling of a child for money or for A. Psychopathic personality
any consideration or barter B. Neurotic personality
A. Child Exploitation C. Schizophrenic personality
B. Child trafficking D. compulsive neurosis
C. Child prostitution
D. Child abuse 65. What do we call children who are in a places of
war?
60. A pattern of repeated or habitual unauthorized A. Child in Warzone Area
absence from school by any juvenile subject to B. Child Soldiers
compulsory education laws is called C. Child in Conflict Zone
A. School Delinquency D. Child in Conflict with the Law
B. Status Offense
C. School Truancy 66. It refers to the apprehension or taking into
D. Deviation custody of child in conflict with the law by law
enforcement officers or private citizens is termed as?
61. When children considered to be slow learners are A. Arrest B. Child Custody C. Initial
grouped, they come to see themselves in an Contact D. All of these
unfavorable light and therefore will result to dislike
school, to truancy and even to delinquency.
A. School Tracking 67. What is the primary right of parents?
 A. To provide for the child’s quality B. Child at risk
educatio B. To provide for the child’s C.CICL
shelter D.Neglected child
C. To provide for the child’s upbringing
D. To provide for the child’s clothing 72. Under this law "A child is deemed to be fifteen
(15) years of age on the day of the fifteenth
68. What will happen to the sentence rendered by the anniversary of his/her birthdate.
court to a boy of 17 who raped a girl of his age? A. A.Pd 603
Mitigated B. Suspended C. Serve D. Commuted B. Ra 7610
C. Ra 9344
69. Which of the following is not an element of social D. Ra 10630
bonding?
A. Attachment B. Commitment C. 73. IJISC stands for ______
Involvement D. Conscience A.Intensive Juvenile Intervention Support Center
B. Intervention for Juvenile in Intensive Support
70. Which of the following should not released to the Center
press by the police officer? C. Intensive Juvenile Intervention and Support
A. Length of investigation Center
B. Juveniles age D. Intensive Juvenile Intervention and
C. Juveniles name Service Center
D. Type of crime committed

71. A child committed a crime in violation of RA 9165 74. All parents are required to enroll their children in
with more than 12 years imprisonment shall deemed school to complete at least.
_______ and be committed to intensive intervention. A. Nursery Education
A.Serious criminal B. Tertiary Education

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C. Elementary Education
D. Secondary Education
75. A child committed an offense for the 2nd time or
oftener shall be deemed a neglected child provided
that previously subjected to a community-based
intervention program, and shall be ______
A. committed to intensive intervention in IJISC B.
committed to intensive intervention program
supervised by the court
C. committed to intensive intervention
program supervised by SWDO
D. committed to intensive intervention in IJISC
supervised by LGU
76. A child committed a crime of destructive arson
shall be deemed a neglected child and shall be
committed to intensive intervention in IJISC in
___________ A.barangay
B. DSWD
 C.Bahaypagasa B. Evacuation
D. Youth detention home C. Treatment
D. War
77. Under RA 9344, JJWC is hereby created ________
A. Under the DSWD for administrative 84. Dependent, rebellious, selfish, demanding,
supervision impatient and emotional
B. Attached to the DOJ under its A. Adult ego state
administrative supervision B. Child ego state
C. Under DOJ for administrative supervision D. C. Parent ego state
Attached to DSWD under its administrative D. None of these
supervision
85. Educational system should extend particular care
78. The JJWC shall be chaired by an undersecretary of and attention to young persons, who are at… A. Risk
the ____________ B. Social risk
A.DILG C. Emotional Risk
B. DOJ D. Security Risk
C.DSWD
D. INTERCOUNTRY ADOPTION BOARD 86. How many months are needed in order for the
child to be considered as abandoned?
79. A multi-disciplinary team compose of the following A. 3 months
shall operate the ‘BahayPag-asa’, except: B. 9 months
1. Psychologist/mental health C. 6 months
professional 2. Social worker D. 2 months
3. Principal of public school
4. Medical doctor 87. It is the most basic social institution and is the
5. Educational/Guidance councilor most potentially effective agency of social control. A.
6. BCPC member Church
7. Member of IBP B. Community
A. 1 and 7 B. 2 and C. Family
7 D. School
C. 3 and 7 D. none
of these 88. A child born inside a marriage where either party
is suffering from any legal impediments.
80. a child committed drug related offense punished A. illegitimate child
with______imprisonment shall be deemed a neglected B. legitimated child
child and shall be committed to intensive intervention C. legitimate child
in IJISC D. adopted child
A. reclusion temporal
B. B. more than 12 years 89. They are parents who are punitive and enforce
C.12 years and more forceful disciplinary measures. These parents are not
D. More than 6 years responsive to their children and show little warmth
and support.
81. A twenty-four-hour child caring institution that A. Authoritarian Parents
provide short term resident care for youthful B. Authoritative Parents
offenders. A. Shelter care Institution C. Indifferent Parents
B. Nursery D. Indulgent Parents
C. Foster Home
D. Detention Home 90. It is when the father is the general, the mother is
82. Barangay Funds may be appropriated to provide the guard duty with a special assignment to the nurse
annual scholarship for… corps when needed and the kids are the grunts. A.
A. Delinquent children The corporate mode
B. Parentless children B. The military model
C. Indigent children C. The team model
D. Homeless children D. The theatrical model

83. Children shall be given priority during __________ 91. Delinquency prevention programs are intended
as a result of armed conflict. primarily to:
A. Education A. streamline juvenile court process

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B. prevent young people from getting D. Broken Home
into trouble with the law
C. make the people more effective in dealing
with juveniles
D. rehabilitate young people who are drug
users

92. This may include the presence of both parents but

who are irresponsible that children experience
constant quarrel in the home.
A. Separated Home
B. Delinquent Home
C. Disturbed Home
93. Which child is determined by the LSWDO to have 98. In the absence or death of both parents of the
been maltreated whether habitual or not? A. child who shall continue to exercise authority over the
Dependent child? I.Survivinggrand parents – 1 st
B. Abused II.Elder brother and sister over 21 years of age – 2
C. Neglected nd III. Surviving parents of child
D. Abandoned IV.Actual custodian of the child over 21 years of age.
- 3rd
94. Refers to the apprehension or taking into custody A. I, II and IV only
of a child in conflict with the law by the law B. I and II only
enforcement officers or private citizens. C. I, II, III only
A. Arrest of the child D. all of the above
B. Taking the custody of the child
C. Initial contact with the child 99. A child deserted by his parents or guardians for
D. Initial investigation of the child three continuous months is classified as,
A. Neglected
95. It is the mental incapacity of an individual to B. Dependent
understand the difference between right from wrong C. Abandoned
and its consequences. D. Abused
A. Discernment B. Judgment 100. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately
C. Abnormality D. Sane unattended.
A. neglected child B. abandoned child C.
dependent child D. abusive child
96. What if Dagul is 15 years old and is working in
fastfood. He timed in at exactly 8pm. What time he DISPUTE RESOLUTION AND CRISIS
shall be out? MANAGEMENT
A. 12 am B. 10 pm C.2am D. Nota
1. Is a short-term disagreement that can result
97. Refers to children male or female, who for money, in the disputants reaching some sort of
profit or any consideration influence by an adult or resolution, and it involves issues that are
syndicate, indulge in sexual intercourse. negotiable.
A. Juvenile delinquents a. Conflict
B. Children exploited in prostitution b. Dispute
C. Abandoned children c. Problem
D. Children in conflict with the law d. Solution
 2. This is a power-oriented mode in which you mediator can help the parties reach an agreement,
use whatever power seems appropriate to but not necessarily the best agreement
win your own position—your ability to argue, A. 1,3 and 4
your rank, or economic sanctions. B. 2,3 and 4
a. Avoiding C. 1,2,3 and 4
b. Competing D. 1,2 and 3
c. Accommodating
d. Collaborating
5. The 3 stages of mediation are:
3. Who is recommended to be employed when 1. Exchange of information and
negotiations break down and none of the understanding the conflict
mentioned methods work and the negotiator 2. Feedback to and from the parties
finds himself/herself in a deadlock? 3. actual bargaining.
A. Secretary negotiator 4. Rendering an award
B. Third negotiator a. 123
C. Mediator b. 234
D. Intermediary c. 134
d. 1234
4. Which statements about mediation are true? 1.
A mediator in a negotiation can help both parties 6. It means the person appointed to render an
reach an agreement but cannot impose a settlement award, alone or with others, in a dispute that is
on or make decisions for them the subject of an arbitration agreement. a.
2. A mediator help parties make concessions when Mediator
conflicts of interest are insignificant b. Mediation parties
3. Mediation is a commonly used intervention option c. Judge
but is not necessarily the remedy for all disputes 4. A d. Arbitrator

Amici Review Center 34 | P a g e

7. This is where both parties need to present by auspices of the court by referring the parties
a lawyer similar to the Pre Trial in the rules of to the Philippine Mediation Center Unit for
Criminal Procedures? the settlement of their dispute assisted by a
A. Early Neutral Evaluation mediator accredited by the supreme court
B. Concillation a. Judicial dispute resolution
C. Mini Trial b. Court annexed mediation
D. None of these c. Pretrial
d. Hearing
8. It is a voluntary process conducted under the
 9. A mediator shall refrain from giving legal or
technical advice and otherwise engaging in
counseling or advocacy.
a. IMPARTIALLY
b. CONFIDENTIALITY
c. CONSENT AND SELF-DETERMINATION d.
SEPARATION OF MEDIATION FROM
COUNSELING AND LEGAL ADVICE
10. A mediator shall recognize and put in mind
that the primary responsibility of resolving a
dispute and the shaping of a voluntary and
uncoerced settlement rests with the parties.
a. IMPARTIALLY
b. CONFIDENTIALITY
c. CONSENT AND SELF
DETERMINATION
d. SEPARATION OF MEDIATION FROM
COUNSELING AND LEGAL ADVICE
11. Which is NOT an indicator for Stockholm
syndrome to take place?
A. The hostage must be in direct social
contact during the incident
B. The hostage taker must treat the
hostages kindly
C. The complete isolation in a separate
room between the hostage and a
hostage taker
D. The hostage taker ant victims et tie
together for a significant length of time
12. If the Punong Barangay is unable to achieve
a settlement, the case is referred for
consultation mediation or arbitration to the
____________.
A. Pangkat ng Tagapagkasundo
B. LupongTagapamayapa
C. Police
D. Elder group
13. Select the psychological response where a
captive a hostage form a positive feelings
with a capture?
A. Stockholm syndrome
B. Lime syndrome
C. London syndrome
D. Helsinki syndrome
14. Statement no. 1: Information obtained
through mediation shall be privileged and
confidential.
Statement no. 2: A party, a mediator, or a non-party
participant may not refuse to disclose and may
prevent any other person from disclosing a mediation
communication.
a. Statement no. 1 is correct while Statement
no. 2 is incorrect
b. Statement no. 1 is incorrect while Statement no. 2
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20. Mediation is a process where a neutral
third party makes a decision, this
statement is
a. true
b. false
c. partly true
d. partly false
21. The following are instances where amicable
settlements are not appropriate; except
a. Where one party is the government, or any
is correct
c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both
incorrect
15. Where is the venue of the amicable
settlement if the complainants and
respondents are residing in different
barangays.
a. It shall be brought before the lupon of the
complainant’s barangay.
b. It shall be brought before the lupon of the
Respondent’s Barangay
c. It shall be brought before the lupon of either the
complainant’s or respondent’s barangay.
d. It shall be brought before the lupon of any barangay.
16. In the katarungang pambarangay
proceeding, may the parties appear with the
assistance of their counsel?
a. Yes, because their right to have a counsel b. No,
appearance of a lawyer in all katarungang
pambarangay proceeding is prohibited c. Yes, at
the prerogative of each party
d. No, unless the Lupon Chairman allows it
17. Under R.A. 9285, what is not confidential in
mediation and/or arbitration?
a. None of these
b. communication, oral or written, made in a dispute
resolution proceedings, including any memoranda,
notes or work product of the neutral party or non-
party participant
c. an oral or written statement made or which occurs
during mediation or for purposes of considering,
conducting, participating, initiating, continuing of
reconvening mediation or retaining a mediator
d. pleadings, motions manifestations, witness
statements, reports filed or submitted in an arbitration
or for expert evaluation
18. It is an agreement reached during
mediation and conciliation proceedings.
a. Arbitration
b. Conciliation
c. Award
d. Amicable Settlement
19. Negotiation is a process where two
parties in a conflict or disagreement try
to reach a resolution together. During a
negotiation, the parties or their
representatives (lawyers) discuss the
issues to come to a resolution, this
statement is
a. true
b. false
c. partly true
d. partly false
subdivision or instrumentality thereof;
b. Where one party is a public officer or employee,
and the dispute relates to the performance of his
official functions;
c. Offenses where there is no private offended party;
d. Disputes between or among persons actually
residing in the same barangay shall be brought
for amicable settlement before the Lupon of
said barangay.
22. A 56-year-old former military personnel take
hostages at the local bank involving (10)
bank employees, (4) senior citizen, (7)
clients and (1) child. Hours later the hostage
taker releases his hostages one by one and
set them all free. According to one of the
hostages, the suspect developed sympathy to
the hostages. This scenario can be described
as.
a. Stockholm syndrome
b. London syndrome
c. Lima syndrome
d. Cold Turkey Syndrome
23. It means mediation ordered by a court to be
conducted in accordance with the agreement
of the parties when as action is prematurely
commenced in violation of such agreement.
a. Court-referred mediation
b. Court-annexed mediation
c. Arbitration
d. Trial
24. In general, hostage takers are emotionally
tense; when trapped, they expand a great
deal of emotional, physical and psychic
energy, hence,
a. Swift and precise attack will be one advantage
for the authorities
b. Shortening the time will press him to
surrender
c. Prolonging the passage of time shall
wear them down
d. Aggravating their stress will lead them to
surrender
25. The following are manifestations of a calm
attitude of a negotiator which are advisable
in dealing with a hostage situation, except;
a. Avoid words/actions that could have the
appearance of an egotistical threat
b. Be firm and avoid indecision or ambivalence c.
Build a rapport with the hostage taker d. Giving
the hostage taker their negotiable
demands
26. When a highly trained a motivated group of
hostage takers ask for non-negotiable
demands, they are left with three options a)
choose martyrdom, kill hostages and commit
suicide, b) lessen demands to more realistic
proportions; and c) surrender. If they choose
martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful
action is:
a. Attack them swiftly with precision
b. Withhold the media from terrorist
c. Give all of their demands
d. Let the hostages be killed
27. In a hostage situation, non-verbal
communication which indicates openness and
willingness to listen can be shown by
a. A posture of a folded arms in a dominant
position
 b. Calmly repeating words of comfort or
assurance
c. By not attempting to trick or lie
d. Keeping arms open and with other
gesture that indicates that you are
willing to negotiate
28. The best approach in negotiating with a
paranoid schizophrenic hostage taker is a. To
accept their beliefs as being true b. To try to
convince them that their beliefs are wrong
c. To show them that they are just crazy
d. To try to bluff or trick them
29. The following are the reasons why common
criminals are easy to negotiate except
a. Fear of police assault and punishment b.
Criminals are usually rational thinkers c. They are
familiar with police operation and tactics
d. Their ultimate desire is to surrender and
their possible punishment could be
mitigated
30. Which of the following is not the reason why
dealing with the terrorist takers is difficult? a.
Terrorists are usually highly trained combatants
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33. Which of the following is not a terrorist goal
a. Worldwide / local recognition
b. Disruption of community and mobility c.
Harassment, embarrassment and weakening of
government
d. Understanding of social environment
34. When both hostage and hostage taker
develop a mutual feeling of sympathy,
who have been politically and ideologically
indoctrinated
b. Terrorists act as part of a group, and their
behavior will be pressured by group dynamics c.
The terrorist hostage-taking drama is
capable of producing conflicts of principles
that are not easy to resolve d. Most of the
terrorist groups received training in the
techniques that will be used against them in the
country chosen for the attacks
31. The following options must be present to
control the hostage-taking situation, except a.
Absolute containment of the perpetrator b. By
placing a set-up for a bargaining position
c. Evaluation and isolation of target area d.
Effective command and control activities for
coordination and proper decision-making
32. The negotiators in hostage taking incidents
should strive to
a. Be mediators not arbitrators
b. Refute all views of the terrorist
c. Promise that all their demands will be met d.
Set the pace, mood, and topic of
conversation themselves
understanding, and other shared stand on
issues, leading them to become enemies of
the State, this turn referred to as,
a. Stockholm Syndrome
b. Confrontation
c. Negotiation
d. familiarization
35. Arbitration is a process where a neutral
person assists the parties in discussing the b. Awards
matter and reaching a resolution, this statement c. Verdict
is d. Arbitration result
a. true
b. false 44. It is a method of facilitating frank
c. partly true engagements between minority communities,
d. partly false police and other authorities that allow them to
address historical tensions, grievances, and
36. Negotiation is a process where two parties in misconceptions, and reset relationships.
a conflict or disagreement try to reach a resolution a. Litigation
together. During a negotiation, the parties or their b. Reconciliation
representatives (lawyers) discuss the issues to c. Mediation
come to a resolution, this statement is d. Arbitrators
a. true
b. false 45. Alternative Dispute Resolution System refers
c. partly true to any process or procedure used to resolve a
d. partly false dispute or controversy, other than by adjudication
of a presiding judge of a court or an officer of a
37. One of the characteristics of mediation is to government agency, as defined in this Act, in
promote communication and cooperation, this which a neutral third party participates to assist in
statement is the resolution of issues, which includes arbitration,
a. Partly true mediation, conciliation, early neutral evaluation,
b. Partly false mini-trial, or any combination thereof, this
c. Absolutely true statement is
d. Absolutely false a. Completely True
b. Completely False
38. Litigation is not a process of solving problems, c. Somewhat true
but a process of winning arguments. This is d. Somewhat false
______ of litigation.
a. advantage 46. Who among the following is not considered as
b. disadvantage an ADR provider?
c. neither an advantage or disadvantage a. mediator
d. either an advantage or disadvantage b. neutral evaluator
c. conciliator
39. The repair of justice through reaffirming a d. supreme court judges
shared valueconsensus in a bilateral process is
known as a. reformative justice 47. Where is the venue of the amicable settlement
b. retributive justice if the complainants and respondents are residing
c. restorative justice in different barangays.
d. impartial justice a. It shall be brought before the lupon of the
complainant’s barangay.
40. Tornadoes, Earthquakes, Hurricanes, b. It shall be brought before the lupon of the
Landslides, Tsunamis, Flood, Drought are what Respondent’s Barangay
type of crises? a. Sudden crises c. It shall be brought before the lupon of either
b. Creeping Crises the complainant’s or respondent’s barangay.
c. Slow-Burn Crises d. It shall be brought before the lupon of any
d. Natural crises barangay.

41. Which of the following processes is being 48. Within how many days from the receipt of the
conducted if the parties are in total control over award, unless another period of time has been
their final settlement? agreed upon by the parties, a party may with
a. Mediation notice to the other party, request the arbitral
tribunal to correct in the award any errors in
b. Resolution
computations, any clerical or typographical errors
c. Litigation
of similar nature.
d. Arbitration
a. 10 days
42. It is a process where two parties in a conflict
b. 25 days
or disagreement try to reach a resolution
together. a. Mediation c. 30 days
d. 45 days
b. Negotiation
c. Litigation
49. The evacuation of people from a vicinity near a
d. Arbitration
burning building is an example of -
43. Arbitral decisions are sometimes a. Proactive Phase
called______. a. Judgment b. Reactive Phase
c. Preventive Phase

Amici Review Center 37 | P a g e

d. Predictive Phase a. back up negotiators
b. psychologists
50. The pangkat shall arrive at a settlement or c. assault team
resolution of the dispute within _____ from the day it
convenes in accordance with this section. a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 3 days
d. 60 days

51. This is the negotiators most important ally in all

situations
 d. time
52. In dealing with the hostage taker, the negotiator
should not:
a. give his name
b. give his rank and designation
c. give in to all demands
d. look friendly or accommodating
53. The following are the important factors to be
considered in hostage taking incidents except:
a. Determines first what type of hostage-taker you
are dealing with
b. The exact location of the hostages and how
they are secured
c. In case that assault will be opted, it must be
planned to occur at a time that permits the assault
team members to take their position without
detection
d. Must not focus on identifying the hostage
takers and hostages
54. It refers to an act containing the situation
within certain level mostly by law enforcement
interventions.
a. Consequences management
b. Incident management
c. Accidental management
d. Community management
55. It is a must in crisis management to _____. a.
Rely on continuous flow of information from all
sources
b. Receive, analyze and disseminate all
information
c. Prepare for a rapidly escalating series of
events
d. All of the above
56. He is the one who makes complete estimate
of the crisis situation and plans his courses of
actions upon arrival at the incident are while
negotiations in in progress.
a. Vice-captain
b. General
c. Tactical commander
d. Arresting officer
57. The Philippines center for transnational crime is
mandated to discharge the following. Except. a.
Supervise and control conduct of anti transnational
crime operations of all government agencies and
instrumentalities:
b. Establish a center for strategic research on the
structure and dynamics of transnational crime,
predict trends and analyze relationships of given
factors for the formulation of strategies to combat
the same
c. Explore and coordinate information exchanges
and training with other government agencies,
foreign countries and international organizations
involved in containing and eliminating
transnational crime
d. The primary basis in the selection of personnel
for employment and deployment shall be the
individual’s capabilities and competent leadership.
58. It is a sudden condition or state of affairs
calling for immediate action.
a. Crisis
b. Emergency
 c. Disaster 62. What is known to be the oldest but commonly
d. Fear used terrorist tactic where target are often police,
military officials or political features?
59. An act focused on mitigation of adverse a. Hijacking
effects that may be brought about by the incident b. Assassination
by utilizing non law enforcement elements such c. Ambush
as medical and fire services. d. Kidnap for Ransom
a. Incident management (law e. Prostitution
enforcement)
b. Crisis management 63. The first step in a hostage situation.
c. Consequence management a. Assault
d. Emergency management b. Control
c. Crowd control
60. In a hostage negotiation and crisis d. Negotiation
management practice, it is a “cardinal rule”: a.
Commander do not negotiate, negotiator do not 64. What is the elite group of policemen tasked to
command. respond to firearms and expertise in police
b. Saying “NO” to the demands of the hostage tactics?
taker
c. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker d. a. SWAT
Acting that would prejudice the lives of the b. SAF
hostages c. SOCO
d. NBI
61. What do you term the situation where a
hostage starts to recognize his captor and 65. In crisis management, the teams under the
expresses sympathy for the person holding him support unit are under the control of the ground
captive? commander. Which is responsible for the
a. Withdrawal Syndrome collection and processing
b. Traumatic Syndrome of all information needed by the on – scene
c. Holmshock Syndrome commander?
d. None of These
Amici Review Center 38 | P a g e
a. Security element
b. Support unit
c. Negotiation unit
d. Intelligence team

66. During the negotiation, it is preferable that the

negotiator should be in civilian attire because: a.
Civilian uniform is neat
b. Hostage takers are afraid of the military or
uniformed personnel
c. Civilian is perceived by the terrorist to be
broadminded than military persons
d. A civilian attire advances the neutral image and
blocks aversion of terrorist to militant personnel
67. In dealing with the media during hostage

situation, one must always remember that: a.

Media people are nuisance and may get in the
way of operation people
b. Media has a right and responsibility to report
events during an incident
c. Conflict between management and the media is
always bound to happen in a hostage situation d.
Control over media people should be aimed to
restrict their movement within the inner perimeter

68. All but one are the guidelines for police

negotiators a. Don’t raise the aspirations or
expectations of the hostage takers
b. Give in to all of the terrorists’
demands
c. Conserve your concession
d. Make sure you get something in return for a
concession

69. One of the following is not an objective of

Crisis Management
a. Resolve without further incident
b. Safety of the victims and not the
perpetrator
c. Apprehension of all perpetrators
d. Accomplishment of the task within the
framework of current community standard

70. On September 11, 2001, one of the darkest

moments of US history occurred. What happened
on this day was an example of Natural Crisis.

a. The statement is correct

b. The statement is agreeable
c. The statement is inaccurate
d. NOTA
71. The group responsible for carrying out assault of persons?
operations whenever negotiation fails. A unit of a. Natural hazards
specially selected, appointed, trained and b. Man made hazards
equipped officers that provides assistance in those c. Structural disaster
incidents that would require special tactics, d. NOTA
techniques and equipment.
a. Crisis Management Team 77. A person who is held as a security for the
b. Hostage Negotiation Team fulfillment of certain term or demands? a.
c. Tactical Team Hostage
d. PNP SAF b. Hostage Taker (HT)
c. Negotiate
72. An agency under the DILG which acts on the d. Hostage Situation (HS)
crisis situation that arises out of man-made
emergencies. 78. In terms in handling during hostage situation,
usually the easiest to deal with considered
a. Peace and Order Council relatively rational thinker after assessing the
b. Bureau of Fire Protection situation and weighting the odds, in most cases
c. Philippine National Police comes to terms which the police, refrain from
d. National Disaster and Risk Reduction Council unnecessary violence or useless killings.
a. Psychotic individual
73. An agency under the DND responsible for b. Unprofessional Criminal
ensuring the protection and welfare of the people c. Professional Criminal
during disasters or emergencies. d. Neurotic criminal
a. Peace and Order Council
b. Bureau of Fire Protection 79. It is one of the negotiators action. a.
c. Philippine National Police Establish contact with hostage taker b.
d. National Disaster and Risk Reduction Council Know the identity of the hostage taker c.
time lengthening
74. It is influenced by the outside causes or d. A and C only
factors. Examples are: Threat or threats to one’s e. All of the above
life and or family including property?
a. External crisis 80. It must be done during face to face
b. Internal crisis negotiation. a. Maintaining distance with the
c. Outside Crisis object is not necessary, what is important is that
d. Inside Crisis the negotiator had a face to face meeting with the
object.
75. Those that are caused by the individual’s b. Be very more anxious
psychological, emotional, personal, financial, c. Enter the premises without gun pointed at
economic, moral, spiritual, cultural, occupational you.
and other internal distress, examples are: d. B and C only
Family Tragedy/s Death of loved ones?
a. External crisis 81. It is a kind of sociopath personality which is
b. Internal crisis unable to deny gratification, so if hostage is a
c. Outside Crisis human rape is probability.
d. Inside Crisis a. Sociable personality
b. Paranoid
76. It is the result of the state of mind, attitude, c. Impulsive personality
weakness or character traits of a person or group d. Temperament attitude

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82. In a crisis management, there is no other
purpose but “SALVARI VITAS” , which means: a.
the truth will prevail
b. kill the hostage-taker
c. to save lives
d. save the host

83. When a highly trained and motivated group of

hostage takers asked non-negotiable demands,
they were left with three options: (1) choose
martyrdom, kill the hostages and commit suicide;
(2) lessen demands to a more realistic
proportions; and (3) surrender. If they choose
martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful action is:
a. attack them swiftly with precision
b. withhold the media from the terrorist
c. give all their demands the following, except –
d. let the hostages killed a. It enables the policy-makers and manager the
readiness in cases of crisis
84. It is the position from which a unit b. It helps personnel and employees to adapt
commander and his staff exercise command over right away in cases of crises
the hostage incident. c. It helps the managers to devise strategies to
come out of certain conditions
a. command post d. It helps the managers to detect early signs of crises
b. outer perimeter
c. inner perimeter 89. What is the first step in the creation of an
d. command headquarters effective Crisis Management?
a. Planning
85. The stage of advance planning, organization b. Coordinating
and coordination and control in response to an c. Directing
anticipated future crisis occurrence is called a. d. Organizing
Proactive Crisis Management
b. Reactive Crisis Management 90. In planning for a Crisis Management
c. Performance Stage Program/System, it entails preparation which
d. Reaction Phase includes the following, except –
a. Assembling of Crisis Communication Team b.
86. The National Action Committee on Anti Looking all sides of possible flaws of the
Hijacking and Terrorism (NACAHT) was organized proposed program/system
during the presidency of – c. Assigning multiple spokespersons to ensure
a. Ferdinand E. Marcos consistency of communication
b. Corazon C. Aquino d. Apply the principle of “the right person to the
c. Fidel V. Ramos right job”
d. Gloria M. Arroyo
91. All, but one, are essential features of an
87. According to nature, this type of crisis is effective Crisis Management Program/System. a.
usually called“force majeure”. Crisis Management includes activities and
a. Confrontation Crisis processes which help the managers as well as
b. Confrontation Crisis employees to analyze and understand events
c. Natural Crisis which might lead to crisis and uncertainty in the
organization.
d. Technological Crisis
b. Crisis Management enables the managers and
employees to respond effectively to changes in
88. Crisis Management is necessary because of
the organization culture.
 c. Employees at the time of crisis must
communicate effectively with each other and try
their level best to overcome tough times. d. At
the time of crisis, the management may be in
regular touch with the employees, external
clients, stakeholders as well as media.
92. The most critical in any Crisis Management
are –
a. Reactive and preventive actions
b. Preventive and proactive actions
c. Preparatory and preventive actions
d. Reactive and proactive actions
93. When an emergency or crisis is not handled
well, it may result to the following, except a.
major business/organization disruptions b. time
consuming and embarrassing critical system
failures
c. ability of the managers and employees in
adapting to the sudden changes
d. reduced risk or loss in the operation of the
business or organization
94. The first step in developing and executing a
negotiation strategy is to determine one's a.
Goals
b. Strategy
c. Technique
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b. Convince the subject that safe releases are to
his advantage
c. Warned of him of the consequences if he will
jump from the window
d. Tap the barangay chairman or any respected
elder in the vicinity to help you convince Jonie
98. The Command Staff of the Incident Command
System (ICS) is composed of the following –
a. Liaison Officer, Public Information Officer, and
Logistic Officer
b. Public Information Officer, Liaison Officer, and
Safety Officer
c. Administrative Officer, Operations Officer, and
Support Officer
d. Method
95. The process of achieving the goals of negation
is called –
a. Procedure
b. Methods
c. Techniques
d. Strategies
96. Lloyd is a known schizophrenic. One early
evening, he hostages his own younger brother
and warns the other family members not to
interfere otherwise he will kill his own brother. As
the assigned negotiating officer, what should you
not do?
a. Do not involve the hostage-taker’s family as
intermediaries
b. Avoid getting the services of health
professionals because schizophrenic
c. Getting close to the hostage-taker so you could
immediately take offensive actions once the
hostage taker turned violent
d. Do not convince the hostage-taker by stating
realities
97. Jonie grew up with antisocial behavior. When
he was dumped by his girlfriend, he threatened to
commit
suicide by jumping from the window. As the
negotiator, you should do the following, except –
a. Keep on talking with the subject busy
d. Logistic Officer, Public Information Officer, and
Safety Officer
99. The last phase of a typical critical incident
management is ---
a. Restoring Public Confidence
b. Planning the Critical Incident
Management
c. Managing Critical Incidents
d. Preparing for Critical Incidents
100. It is used to collect data using a set of
procedures.
a. Critical Incident Method
b. Critical Incident Technique
c. Information Gathering
d. Observing Critical Incidents
CRIMINOLOGICAL RESEARCH 1 AND 2
1. A criminologist studied about the types of
inmates in prison and how they interact with
each other in to understand why some
inmates adapt incarceration more easily than
others. The objective of the study is to
propose a general theory of inmate behavior
that extends to all similar inmate populations.
The researcher utilized ethnography (study
of a particular group or culture) as his
research design. How is ethnography suitable
to the purpose of the study?
A. It studies certain group to gain clear
understanding of its internal
operations or lifestyle
B. It involves a lengthy study of a person,
group or situation
C. It studies how people find their
experiences meaningful
D. It prevents the discrimination of ethnic
groups.
2. Rene was tasked to conduct research on the
acceptability of the new work scheme that is
being implemented in the workplace. The
respondents to the study are divided into
managerial, supervisors and the rank and file.
He decided to use qualitative research.
How is this research design different from the
quantitative research design?
A. Qualitative research is harder to conduct
than quantitative research
B. Qualitative research is considered to
be subjective while quantitative
research is objective
C. Qualitative research is considered to be
objective while quantitative research is
subjective
D. Qualitative research uses numbers and
statistics while quantitative research
usually uses verbal
3. In grounded theory, the researcher sometimes
uses zigzag sampling. Which of the
following exemplifies this sampling design?
a. The researcher returns to the
previous data to validate a new
 theory
b. It utilizes the number or years and the
extent or new knowledge gained from
the study
c. It uses sensory perception in order to
understand the characteristics of people d.
The researcher attempts to explain the
reason behind the existence of an object or
a person
considered as one of the most common
violations of research ethics?
A. It is the act of deliberately violating
accepted principles of right and wrong B. It
is the act of taking someone’s words or
ideas as if they were your own
C. It is the act of deserting you. Allegiance
of duty to leader or cause or principle
D. It is the act of violating accepted
standards or rules

Zigzag = requires a review for it return to 6. Which characteristics of research deals with
previous works to validate a newly found facts and not with mere opinions arising
concept, idea, or theory from assumptions, generalization,
4. Which is not a guideline on the formulation of predictions or conclusions?
a research problem? A. Accuracy
A. The research question must arouse the C. Relevance
researcher’s curiosity B. Objectivity
B. The relation between the research D. Clarity
question and the problem must be clear C.
Avoid research question which is answerable 7. Which is NOT an approach in qualitative
by a yes or no research?
D. It must be in a paragraph form to A. Home research
make it clear and comprehensive C. ethnography
B. Grounded theory
5. Which of the following defines plagiarism, D. action research

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8. In interpretation of data, the researcher should
take the following factors into consideration,
EXCEPT ____.
A. The researcher must not be affected by
his/her defense mechanism in
interpreting the results.
B. The researcher must investigate the
private lives of the respondent s to
determine the truth of their
responses
C. The researcher must not over-interpret
the expected results
D. The researcher must be aware of factors
which have not been selected for study
 9. The researcher wanted to determine the most
suitable fabric to be used for patrol uniforms.
He selected three groups of respondents
and made them wear patrol shirts made with
different fabrics. The respondents rated the
shirt according to comfort durability and
washability. Select the method of data
collection used by the researcher.
A. Interview
C. Observation
B. Experiment
D. Questionnaire

10. A person was considered to be a serial killer

for having been proved beyond reasonable
doubt of killing 9 persons. He came from a
respected family and was well- educated. A
criminologist would like to conduct a study to
determine the reason behind the killings
committed by the convict. To achieve this
objective, which is the most appopriate
research method to use?
A. Phenomenology
B. Ethnography
C. Biography
D. Case study

11. Brief summary of a research article,

thesis or any in depth analysis of a
particular subject and it is often used to
help the reader quickly ascertain the
paper’spurpose?
a. Dedication
b. Introduction
c. Abstract
d. Acknowledgement Interview
b. Unstructured Interview
12. It is done for the development of theories c. Focus Group Interview
and principles. d. Semi Structured Interview
a. Applied research
b. Pure research 18. It is referred to as a systematic and scientific
c. Exploratory research process of gathering, analyzing, classifying,
d. Experimental research organizing, presenting and interpreting data
for the solution of a problem.
13. This kind of research aims to quantify or a. Problem solving
numerically reflect the observations b. Hypothesis
obtained regarding the traits of the c. Assumption
population being studied. d. Research
a. Qualitative Research
b. Explanatory research 19. What research investigates relationships
c. Quantitative research between factors or variables?
d. Exploratory research a. Descriptive research
b. Correlation research
14. This kind of research looks at a situation c. Historical research
or state of things in terms of particular d. Experimental research
traits or causes. a. Intervention research
b. Extensive research 20. It is the “blueprint” of the study. It guides the
c. Correlation research collection, measurement and analysis of data
d. Descriptive research –

15. It is a negative statement that claims a. Research outline

there is no connection or correlation b. Research framework
between two variables. c. Research chart
d. Research Design
a. Alternative Hypothesis
b. Null hypothesis 21. In defining the research problem, what is the
c. Research Hypothesis important thing for the researcher to present
d. Hypothesis for the conduct of the study?
a. Valid ID
16. A research designed to understand or explain b. Certificate
a present situation or shed light on the logic C. Valid justification
behind a probable connection between D. Present relevant data
variables that may have already been
identified in explanatory investigations. 22. This type of research attempts to explain
a. Exploratory Research possible factors related to problems which have
b. Explanatory Research been observed in a descriptive study. a.
c. Keen Research Explanatory research
d. Pure basic Research b. Exploratory research
c. Descriptive research
17. This is a form of interview in which the d. Historical Research
interviewer asks questions that haven't been
prepared ahead of time. Instead, in a free flowing 23. A kind of research with the goal of applying
discourse, questions occur naturally. a. Structured the results by testing the efficacy of the
Amici Review Center 42 | P a g e
theories and principles.
a. Analytical
b. Holistic
c. Pure
d. Applied

24. It is usually used when the intention of

the researcher is to ascertain the quality
of message or information found in a
document or in mass media.

a. Content Analysis
b. Survey method
c. Experimental Method
d. Historical Method
 b.

25. A category of research that studies the Abstract

effects of the variables on each other. c. Introduction
a. Exploratory d. Acknowledgment
b. Applied
c. Experimental 30. A type of research that utilizes inferential
d. Descriptive statistics to determine the results of the
study such as comparison studies and
26. A classification of research that attempts cause-and-effect relationship. a.
to identify and isolate the components of Experimental
the research situation. b. Developmental
c. Non-quantitative
a. Action d. Quantitative
b. Applied
c. Holistic 31. In test citation of two authors shall be placed
d. Analytical a ________ in between of authors.
a. &
27. A classification of research that attempts b. Ibid
to begin with a total situation focusing c. e.g
attention on the system first then on its
d. i.e
internal relationship.
e. et al
a. Applied
32. Researches may use any relevant material in
b. Action
the conduct of the study. Which refers to the
c. Analytical
type of data that is collected by researchers
d. Holistic
directly from main sources through any of the
methods of data collection?
28. People and things change over time and
this change can threaten the validity of a. Secondary
conclusions a. Selection b. Primary
b. Instrumentation c. Historical
c. Mortality d. Statistical
d. Maturation
33. It is a foundational review of existing theories
29. The act of officially saying that something that serves as a roadmap for developing the
was created for a particular purpose or arguments you will use in your own work and
to remember or honor a particular support research by describing and/or
person – drawing from relevant theoretical aspects
a. Dedication
 obtained in previous work . which of the following guidelines?
a. Theoretical Framework A. Check the validity of the research
b. Conceptual Framework instruments B. Obtain permission of the
c. Research Design respondents
d. Research problem C. Citing the authors of the literature used in
the research
34. Kiko conducted his study without posing any D. Cite all ideas and information's that are not the
danger, embarrassment, hurt or any risk to words of the researcher
his research respondents. What problem has
been solved in the case? 37. This type of research attempts to describe an
A. A research problem must be existing situation and/or explain certain
ethical B. A research problem must be patterns of behavior using either qualitative
feasible and quantitative research techniques.
C. A research problem must be clear a. Pure basic Research
D. A research problem must be relevant b. Explanatory research
c. Qualitative research
35. It reproduces words verbatim from another d. Keen research
work or from your own previously published
work 38. These are unpublished materials such as
a. Quotation manuscripts, theses and dissertations
from the country of origin of the
b. Direct quotation
researcher.
c. Paraphrase
a. Foreign Studies
d. Narrative quotation
b. Local Studies
e. Parenthetical quotation c. Foreign Literature
d. Local Literature
36. Kiko is writing his research paper. There are
numerous literatures which deal with his 39. Its purpose is to study intensively the
research topic. In order to prevent the background, current status, and
commission of plagiarism, he must observe

Amici Review Center 43 | P a g e

environmental
interactions of a given social unit: an individual,
group, institution or community.
a. Survey
b. Case Study
c. Ethnographic
d. None of them

40. A variable that is “assumed caused” of a

problem. It is an assumed reason for any
“change” or variation

a. Dependent variable
b. Independent variable
c. Antecedent variable
d. Assumption variable
 A.
History
B.
Selection
C.

41. It is a complete analysis of scholarly sources Instrumentation

on a selected topic of study. It is crafted to D. Testing
give an overview of the current knowledge,
to help the researcher know the methods, 45. Which data gathering method will be used by
theories, and gaps that exist in research. a researcher if he or she verbally
a. Research studies communicates with the respondents about
b. Literature review the study?
c. Research A. Observation
d. Research review B. Interview
C. Information dissemination
42. Selecting the individuals out of N such that D. Survey questionnaire
individuals have equal chances of being
selected. Techniques suitable for 46. This method of data collection used in
homogeneous population. exploratory research has the idea to produce
a. Systematic random sampling a sense of synergy among the participants,
b. Random sampling which should in theory, result in a richer and
c. Stratified sampling more fruitful discussion.
d. Simple cluster sampling a. Focus group interviews
b. Depth interviews
43. It is like a roadmap for the study, helping the c. Either a or b
researcher visualize his/her research project d. Neither a nor b
and put it into action. It defines the relevant
variables for the study and maps out how 47. The rights of the respondents must be
they might relate to each other. respected and cannot be bargained away
a. Theoretical Framework under the course of research undertaking.
b. Conceptual Framework Which is an act of seclusion of confidentiality
c. Research Design is being removed from public view or
d. Research problem knowledge?
a. Consent
44. In research, such as a questionnaire or a b. Secrecy
measuring device, like a weighing scale or a c. Identity
thermometer is changed during the study d. Privacy
period between the pretest and the post test,
the change could result in an effect that is 48. The main goal of a statement of the problem
independent of the intervention and yet, may is _______
be attributed to it.
 a. Describes the issue that is in need of study. b. question raised at the beginning of the
Outlines the problem addressed by a study. c. investigation. It is an educated guess about the
Understand the purpose and intent of the research. d. answer to a specific question.
Transform a generalized problem into a a. Assumption
targeted, well-defined problem b. Conclusion
c. Hypothesis
49. Which of the following choices is the rationale d. Research
as to why controversial issues are
discouraged as research topic? 52. It is a wise guess that is formulated and
temporarily adopted to explain the observed facts
A. It can provide comprehensive information regarding
covered by the study.
the respondents of the study
a. Assumption
B. It prevents an in-depth analysis of the problem C.
b. Variable
It is hard to adopt an objective attitude toward c. Theoretical framework
controversial topics d. Hypothesis
D. It involves specialized equipment
53. It is an act of incorporating into one’s work of
50. Scientific investigation of phenomena which another without indicating the source
includes collection, presentation, analysis and a. Infringement
interpretation of facts that links man’s speculation b. Plagiarism
with reality. c. Immerging
a. Experiment d. Deductive
b. Analysis
c. Research 54. A part of a research in which the constructs
d. Prediction are derived from abstract concepts of the
theoretical framework.
51. A tentative conclusion or answer to specific

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a. Hypothetical framework c. Secondary data
b. Conceptual framework d. tertiary data
c. Intervening framework
d. Concluding framework 56. It is the locality of the study, a place where
the study is to be conducted.
55. In criminological research and statistics, the a. Setting of the study
facts and observations that researchers by their b. Conceptual framework
own measurements for the purpose of a particular c. Population of the study
study is called: d. Dedication
a. Substitute data
b. Primary data 57. It is a reflection of the eagerness of a
researcher to undertake reflective thinking and d. rigid control of the research
inquiry of things, situations and problems around
him a. Prudence 65. It is a set of concepts that explains the
b. Intellectual advancement occurrence of a certain phenomenon.
c. Intellectual curiosity a. Theory
d. Resourcefulness b. Conclusion
c. Introduction
58. A research to be empirical requires the d. Hypothesis
researcher to have _____________
a. knowledge of the problem 66. The ultimate aim of research is
b. direct experience or observation a. To test a theory
c. complete description of the problem b. To solve problem
d. confidence c. To develop new theory or product
d. All of them
59. This method of research is concerned with
conditions of relationship that exist, practices that 67. This part of research includes the works and
prevail, beliefs and processes that are going on, only those works cited in the text.
effects that are being felt, or trends that are a. Appendices
developing b. Bibliography
a. Descriptive c. References
b. experimental d. B and C only
c. Phenomenal
d. Empirical 68. When a research instrument, such as a
questionnaire or a measuring device, like a
60. A research technique wherein a group who weighing scale or a thermometer is changed
share some common characteristics is observed during the study period between the pretest and
over a period of time. the posttest–
a. Observation a. Maturation
b. Experimental b. Mortality
c. Survey c. Validity
d. Cohort d. Instrumentation

61. It is a technique of discovering information by 69. It is a type of sources of information for a

simply trying something in order to see what research problem that show where to locate other
happens. sources of information related to a certain topic.
Example of this are indexes, reviews and
a. Observational abstracts.
b. Analysis a. Primary Sources
c. Empirical b. Secondary Sources
d. Experimental c. General References
d. None of the Above
62. It is defined as any integrated narrative or
descriptive of past events or facts written ina spirit 70. Listed below is the several functions of a
of critical inquiry for the whole truth. research. What is not?
a. Historical method a. It helps us answer questions, solve problems
b. Systematic method and make decisions
c. Sequential method b. It enables us to see and understand how and
d. Analysis of past events method why a situation or a problem exists.
c. It helps us help discover new things and
63. Which of the following steps that is not a part ideas.
of Scientific Method? d. None of the Above
a. Data collection
b. Identification of a problem 71. These are addressed to those concerned to
c. Drawing of conclusion help solve the problem, guided by the research
d. Information Dissemination findings.

64. All but one are the steps in making a. Presentation of Data
research b. Conclusion
c. Recommendation
a. statistical analysis d. Introduction
b. selection of research topic
c. decision of hypothesis 72. It is defined as the report of a scholar upon
some piece of research which he has completed.

Amici Review Center 45 | P a g e

a. Thesis 74. It is used to determine the degree or
c. Term paper magnitude of association between two variables.
b. Dissertation a. Parametric Test
d. Report b. Descriptive Statistics

73. This type of research has restricted scope to

solve a specific problem.
a. Action research
b. Holistic research
c. Evaluation Research
d. Analytical Research
c. Inferential Statistics b. Term Paper
d. Correlational Statistics c. Dissertation
d. Action Plan
75. It is an academic requirement in college and
sometimes in high school. 80. The population is grouped into small units and
a. Thesis after will be selected by random sampling or
b. Term Paper systematic sampling.
c. Dissertation a. Multistage Sampling
d. Action Plan b. Purposive Sampling
c. Incidental Sampling
76. This is a type of research wherein its focus is d. Cluster Sampling
to provide accurate description of problems w/o
attempting to treat or employ sophisticated 81. It is the best random sampling design because
statistical tools or describe problems. no restriction is imposed and every member of the
a. Qualitative Research Design population has an equal chance of inclusion in the
b. Quantitative Research Design sample
c. Descriptive-Documentary Design a. Restricted Random Sampling
d. Historical Design b. Unrestricted Random Sampling
77. It is one kind of data analysis that appraises c. Random Sampling
carefully the worthiness of the current study. a. d. Systematic Sampling
Evaluative 82. Respondents are forced to answer the
b. Descriptive questions asked in the questionnaire.
c. Normative a. Open-Ended Questions
d. Comparative b. Closed-Ended Questions
c. Restricted Questions
78. The researcher takes the nearby individual as d. Limited Questions
subjects of the study until the tester ranges the
preferred extent. 83. Sampling design that is applied to those
a. Purposive Sampling samples which are engaged because they are
b. Incidental Sampling most valuable.
c. Quota Sampling
d. Cluster Sampling a. Purposive Sampling
b. Incidental Sampling
79. It is a formal and lengthy research paper, c. Quota Sampling
especially one written in partial fulfillment of the d. Cluster Sampling
requirements for a master’s degree
a. Thesis 84. The researcher provides answers based on the
 rating scales. 88. It is a concept that stands for a variation
a. Open-Ended Questions within a class of objectives or persons
b. Closed-Ended Questions a. Concept
c. Flexible questions b. Variables
d. Unrestricted Questions c. Idea
d. Theory
85. It determines the future operation of the
variables under investigation with the aim of 89. It determines what should be done based on
controlling or redirecting such for the better. A. the findings. This is to remedy an unsatisfactory
Directive research condition, if there is any.
b. Illuminative research A. Directive research
c. Predictive research b. Illuminative research
D. Descriptive research c. Predictive research
86. In listing a note or index card the D. Descriptive research
bibliographical data of the pertinent sources
selected it includes the following, except: a. 90. It refers to the principles of scientific method
Author of the source that is setting up of standards or principles which
b. Its title serve as basis for evaluating the findings of a
c. Released date study. This also refers to the accurate statistical
d. Name of publication computation and interpretation of qualified data.
a. Rigid control
87. This objective relates directly to the research b. Rigorous standards
problem and states clearly what the researcher c. Systematic organization
will do and expects to find out. d. Objectivity
a. Specific objectives
b. Special objectives 91. All but one are the attributes of a good
c. Important objectives research problem.
d. General objectives a. Specific

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b. Measurable
c. Accurate
d. Realistic
92. A type of hypothesis that use to answer
questions on the relationship or differences of
data obtained in descriptive questions. a.
Statistical Hypothesis
b. Descriptive Hypothesis
c. Null Hypothesis
d. Alternative Hypothesis/ Operational

93. It is used when in making inferences on the

magnitude of differences of the samples from a
large universe.
a. Descriptive Statistics
b. Correlational Statistics
c. Inferential Statistics
d. Statistics

94. A type of data analysis that tests a single

variable to determine whether the sample is
similar to the population from which it has been
drawn. a. Bivariate
b. Univariate
c. Normative
d. Comparative
95. A type of data analysis that tests two variables
on how they differ from each other.
a. Bivariate
b. Univariate
c. Normative
d. Comparative

96. The researcher considers at least two entities

and establishes a formal procedure for obtaining
criterion data on the basis of which he can
compare and conclude which of the two is better
a. Bivariate
b. Univariate
c. Normative
d. Comparative

97. This is done to give meaning to data

generated from the instrument to answer the
problems raised in the study.
a. Interpretation of Data
b. Theoretical Framework
c. Recommendation
d. Acknowledgement

98. Self-evident truth based upon known fact or

phenomenon.
a. Hypothesis
 b. Assumption
c. Variable
d. Statistics

99. Tentative conclusion or answer to specific

questions.
a. Assumption
b. Hypothesis
c. Variable
d. Statistics

100. Weakness of the study beyond the control of

the researcher.
a. Scope
b. Limitation
c. Vulnerability
d. Validity

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