This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series f or Preliminary Exam 202 4

Test ID
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)
0257
CURRENT AFFAIRS
CA: OCTOBER 2023
Time Allowed: 1 Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BBOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.

4. All items carry equal marks.

5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained therein.

6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.

7. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 202 4
1. Consider the following statements with 2. Attosecond pulses can be used to study
reference to Bluewalker 3 satellite: molecular-level changes in blood to
1. It is among the largest commercial identify diseases.
antenna systems ever deployed in Which of the statements given above is/are
geostationary orbit. correct?
2. The satellite’s bright reflective surfaces (a) 1 only
could interfere with astronomical
(b) 2 only
observations.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 5. Consider the following statements about
the m-RNA Vaccines:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. These vaccines have no live pathogens.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. These vaccines harness cellular
machinery.
2. Which among the following statements best
describe Picoflare jets? 3. These vaccines have no side effects and
(a) Dense remnants of supermassive stars cause no allergic reactions.
that have exploded as supernovae. 4. The vaccines are stable at higher
(b) Slow and gradual emissions of radio temperatures.
waves from pulsars. How many of the statements given above
(c) Small jets of charged particles expelled are correct?
intermittently from sun’s corona. (a) Only one
(d) Intense bursts of gamma rays from (b) Only two
distant galaxies. (c) Only three
(d) All four
3. Which among the following are the
applications of Quantum dots?
6. With reference to stem cells, consider the
1. Biosensors
following statements:
2. Flexible electronics
1. Stem cells are unique cells that have
3. Targeted Cancer treatment the potential to develop into specialised
4. High-quality visual display cell types.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Stem cell therapy can be utilised for
given below: bone marrow transplant to treat blood-
(a) 1 and 3 only related disorders and cancers.
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. The therapy can also be used to create
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only disease-specific cell models and
(d) 1,2,3 and 4 personalised medicines.
How many of the statements given above
4. Consider the following statements: are correct?
1. Attosecond pulses are extremely short (a) Only one
pulses of light that can be used to (b) Only two
measure the rapid processes at which
(c) All three
electrons operate.
(d) None

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7. The OSIRIS-REx Mission, recently in news, Which of the statements given above is/are
is related to which among the following? correct?
(a) To search for signs of life on Europa, (a) 1 only
one of Jupiter's moons. (b) 2 only
(b) To explore the outermost region of the (c) Both 1 and 2
Sun and solar atmosphere.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) To find the presence of liquid water in
the poles of Earth’s Moon.
11. With reference to the Credit Guarantee
(d) To collect soil sample from near-Earth
asteroid Bennu and bring it to Earth. Scheme for the livestock sector, consider
the following statements:
1. The Scheme will provide credit
8. With reference to the Startups in India,
guarantee coverage upto 75% of the
consider the following statements:
credit facilities, extended to the MSMEs
1. The Startups can conclude their
by the lending institutions.
operations within 180 days, under the
expedited exit for the Startups initiative. 2. The maximum ceiling of the credit
2. The Startup India Seed Fund Scheme guarantee coverage under this Scheme
(SISFS) provides financial assistance to is Rs. 25 crores.
the Startups for prototype development 3. It has been established under the
only. Animal Husbandry Infrastructure
Which of the statements given above is/are Development Fund (AHIDF).
correct? How many of the above statements are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three
(d) None
9. Which of the following statements does not
reflect the benefits of the Digital Public 12. With reference to the Corporate Debt
Infrastructure (DPI)? Market Development Fund (CDMDF),
(a) It has helped the government reduce its consider the following statements:
overall subsidy expenditures.
1. It has been launched as a close-ended
(b) It has resulted in greater credit scheme with an initial tenure that
availability for smaller businesses.
cannot be extended under any
(c) It has reduced the cost of internet circumstances.
access and digital devices.
2. The CDMDF will buy only the listed
(d) It has contributed to the formalization investment-grade securities from the
of the economy and workforce.
secondary markets.
3. The Fund will be regulated by the
10. With reference to online gaming, consider Reserve Bank of India.
the following statements:
How many of the above statements are
1. Online gaming refers to the games that
correct?
can be played with an internet
connection only. (a) Only one

2. The GST Council has imposed a (b) Only two

differentiated tax regime on online (c) All three
games, based on skills versus chance. (d) None

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13. Which of the following statements reflects How many of the above pairs are correctly
the benefits of the inclusion of the Indian matched?
Government Bonds in the global indices? (a) Only one
(a) Reduction of volatility in the Indian (b) Only two
bond market. (c) All three
(b) Promoting the use of the US dollars for (d) None
government borrowings.
(c) Vacating domestic market space for the 16. With reference to Gross Domestic Product
corporate bonds. (GDP) of India, consider the following pairs:

(d) Making Indian exports competitive in Method of

S.N. Description
the foreign markets. Calculation
1. Production Considers
Method components of factors
14. With reference to the Central Bank Digital
of production
Currency (CBDC), consider the following
generated within
statements:
domestic territory.
1. It is treated as a legal tender issued by
2. Income Measures the sum of
the Reserve Bank of India in digital
Method value added of all
form. economic activities
2. It can be freely converted against within domestic
commercial bank money and cash. territory.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Expenditure Considers spendings
correct? Method on consumption,
(a) 1 only investment, and
expenditures made by
(b) 2 only
the government.
(c) Both 1 and 2
How many of the above pairs are correctly
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
matched?
(a) Only one
15. With reference to the currencies, consider (b) Only two
the following pairs: (c) All three
Type of (d) None
S.N. Value
Currency
1. Fiat Currency It has no value in 17. Consider the following statements with
its individual reference to the Association of Southeast
capacity. Asian Nations (ASEAN):
1. It is an intergovernmental organization
2. Cryptocurrency Its value is pegged
of eight Southeast Asian countries.
to other
2. In 2023, Maldives became a full-time
currencies, such member of the ASEAN.
as Diem, TruelNR.
3. India is a free trading partner of the
3. Stable Coin Derives its value ASEAN.
from the 4. The ASEAN Catalytic Green Finance
guarantee Facility supports the environmentally
provided by the sustainable projects managed by the
Central Bank. World Bank.

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How many of the above statements are 1. It is an intergovernmental organization

correct? formed after replacing the Organization
(a) Only one of African Unity (OAU).
(b) Only two 2. It launched the Great Green Wall
(c) Only three Initiative to restore Africa’s degraded
landscapes.
(d) All four
3. Its secretariat is located at Addis Ababa
(Ethiopia).
18. With reference to India-Middle East-Europe
How many of the above statements are
Economic Corridor (IMEC), consider the
correct?
following statements:
(a) Only one
1. It was launched at the 15th BRICS
Summit, which was hosted by South (b) Only two
Africa. (c) All three
2. The project forms a part of the (d) None
Partnership for Global Infrastructure
and Investment. 21. Consider the following countries:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Australia
correct? 2. New Zealand
(a) 1 only 3. The United Kingdom
(b) 2 only 4. The United States of America
(c) Both 1 and 2 5. France
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 6. Germany
How many of the above are part of ‘Five
19. With reference to G20, consider the Eyes’ intelligence alliance?
following statements: (a) Only three
1. It was founded after the Asian financial (b) Only four
crisis, as a forum of the Finance
(c) Only five
Ministers and the Central Bank
(d) All six
Governors.
2. The African Union has been made a full
member of the G20 during the Delhi 22. With reference to the World Intellectual
Summit. Property Organization (WIPO), consider the
following statements:
3. The Joint Capital Markets Initiative was
launched by the G20 members to 1. It is a self-funded agency of the United
finance the infrastructure projects in Nations.
the developing nations. 2. The United Nations Economic and
How many of the above statements are Social Council is its parent
correct? organization.

(a) Only one 3. Its headquarter is situated at Geneva

(Switzerland).
(b) Only two
How many of the above statements are
(c) All three
correct?
(d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
20. Consider the following statements with
(c) All three
reference to the African Union (AU):
(d) None

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23. With reference to the Global Biofuel 26. With reference to the National Education
Alliance, consider the following statements: Policy (NEP) 2020, consider the following
1. India, Brazil and the US are the statements:
founding members of the Alliance. 1. It proposes reforms in school education,
2. It is an alliance of the governments, as well as technical education.
international organizations and 2. It aims at increasing the Gross
industry to facilitate adoption of Enrolment Ratio in higher education to
biofuels. 50% by 2035.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. The Higher Education Commission of
correct? India (HECI) will be set up under it.
(a) 1 only How many of the above statements are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only two
(c) All three
24. With reference to the Global Innovation (d) None
Index 2023, consider the following
statements: 27. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri
1. The Index is released biannually by the Vishwakarma Scheme, consider the
United Nations Development following statements:
Programme (UNDP). 1. It will provide collateral free ‘Enterprise
2. Singapore is the most innovative Development Loans’ of upto Rs. 5 lakhs
economy in the 2023 Index. in two tranches to the beneficiaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. It is jointly implemented by the Ministry
correct? of Micro, Small & Micro Enterprises and
(a) 1 only the Ministry of Skill Development and
(b) 2 only Entrepreneurship.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
25. With reference to the United Nations
Population Fund, consider the following (c) Both1 and 2
statements: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It aims at improving the maternal
health worldwide. 28. With reference to the Registration of Births
2. The UNPF is a founding member of the and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023,
United Nations Development Group. consider the following statements:
3. Its headquarter is located in 1. Birth Certificate will be considered as
Washington, D.C., United States. single document for availing several
How many of the above statements are social services.
correct? 2. The Act grants authority to
(a) Only one the Registrar General of India to oversee
a national registry of births and deaths.
(b) Only two
3. Under the Act, it will be compulsory for
(c) All three
the States to register births and deaths
(d) None
on the Civil Registration System portal.

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How many of the above statements are 3. The Parliament, through an Act, has
correct? codified all the privileges of the
(a) Only one legislators in India.
(b) Only two How many of the above statements are
correct?
(c) All three
(a) Only one
(d) None
(b) Only two
(c) All three
29. With reference to the Civil Registration
System (CRS), consider the following (d) None
statements:
1. It falls under the Concurrent List of the 32. Consider the following statements about
Constitution of India. the languages in India:
2. The Registrar General of India comes 1. There are more classical languages in
under the Ministry of Health and Family India, than the languages mentioned in
Welfare. the Eighth Schedule.
2. The National Education Policy, 2020,
Which of the statements given above is/are
provides for a “Three Language
correct?
Formula”.
(a) 1 only
3. The Legislature of a State may, by law,
(b) 2 only
adopt any one or more of the languages
(c) Both1and 2 in use in the State.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 How many of the above statements are
correct?
30. Consider the following statements about (a) Only one
the Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth (b) Only two
Amendment) Act, 2023: (c) All three
1. It aims at reserving one-third of the (d) None
seats for women in the Lok Sabha, the
State Legislative Assemblies,
33. Consider the following statements about
Panchayats and the Municipalities.
the Press and Registration of Periodicals
2. The Act provides reservation for 10 Act, 2023:
years, after which it expires. 1. The Act allows for registering
Which of the above statements is/are newspapers, periodicals and books, and
correct? cataloguing books.
(a) 1 only 2. To encourage the freedom of press, the
(b) 2 only Act mandates that both foreign and
(c) Both 1 and 2 national periodicals do not need any
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 prior approval before publication in
India.
3. Any person may appeal against the
31. With reference to the Parliamentary
refusal to issue a registration certificate
Privileges, consider the following
or imposition of penalty.
statements:
How many of the above statements are
1. The purpose of the Parliamentary correct?
Privileges is to safeguard the freedom,
(a) Only one
authority and dignity of the Parliament.
(b) Only two
2. The Constitution of India states that
(c) All three
they should be defined by law.
(d) None

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34. According to the Constitution of India, How many of the above statements are
consider the following statements: correct?
1. Any section of the citizens residing in (a) Only one
the territory of India, having a distinct (b) Only two
language of its own, has the right to (c) All three
conserve the same. (d) None
2. Only the religious minorities have been
given the right to establish and 37. Consider the following statements with
administer educational institutions of reference to the art and architecture during
their choice. the period of the imperial Cholas:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. The ‘Madhu Uchchishtta Vidhana’
correct? technique was employed for crafting the
(a) 1 only Nataraja sculptures.
(b) 2 only 2. The Nataraja sculpture portrays Lord
(c) Both 1 and 2 Shiva in 'Abhayamudra' gesture.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
(a) 1 only
35. Consider the following statements about
(b) 2 only
the reservation system in India:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. The seats in the Rajya Sabha are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
reserved for the Schedule Castes in
proportion to their population.
38. Consider the following statements:
2. There is a fifty percent limit on the
reservation in public employment that 1. The Chennakeshava temple, situated in
the State can provide. Belur, was built during the reign of the
Chalukyas of Badami.
3. The Constitution reserves one-third of
2. The Kesava temple, dedicated to Lord
the seats in the Panchayats and the
Krishna, is built in the Trikuta
Municipalities for the Other Backward
architectural style.
Classes.
3. The Hoysaleshwara temple of Halebid
How many of the above statements are
was built during the reign of Narasimha
correct?
I (1152-1173).
(a) Only one How many of the above statements are
(b) Only two incorrect?
(c) All three (a) Only one
(d) None (b) Only two
(c) All three
36. With reference to the imperial Cholas, (d) None
consider the following statements:
1. Parantaka Chola I established the city 39. With reference to the medieval history of
of Thanjavur to mark the victory over India, consider the following statements:
the Cheras. 1. The Chalukyas of Kalyani were the
2. Rajendra Chola I is accredited with feudatories of the Hoysalas.
uniting the kingdom of Vengi with the 2. In the Battle of Talakadu, the Cholas
Chola empire. defeated the Hoysala ruler
3. Rajaraja Chola I was defeated by the Vishnuvardhana.
Rashtrakutas in the Battle of Takkolam.

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3. Leelavati and Harishchandracharite 42. With reference to Adi Shankara, consider

were written during the period of the the following statements:
Hoysala empire. 1. Adi Shankara propounded the Doctrine
How many of the above statements are of Advaita.
correct? 2. He was opposed to Buddhist
(a) Only one philosophers.
(b) Only two Which of the above statements is/are
(c) All three correct?
(d) None (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
40. With reference to the freedom struggle (c) Both 1 and 2
movement of India, consider the following (d) Neither 1 nor 2
statements:
1. Bhagat Singh actively participated in
43. With respect to “Air quality life index”,
the protest movement against the Canal
consider the following statements:
Colonization Bill.
1. It is released by UNDP.
2. Sachindranath Sanyal and Bhagat
2. It measures the impact of particulate
Singh founded the Hindustan
pollution on life expectancy.
Republican Association.
3. Naujavan Bharat Sabha aimed to 3. As per this index, the acceptable limit
mobilize the peasants and the workers for PM 2.5 is 10 micrograms per cubic
against the colonial rule. meter.

How many of the above statements are How many of the above statements are
incorrect? correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None

41. Consider the following statements:
1. Pandharpur temple is situated on the
banks of the Sukapaika River.
2. Vithoba temple serves as the primary
centre of worship for Vithoba, a
manifestation of Lord Shiva.
3. The Warkari community is associated
with Vithoba temple.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
44. With respect to “Stump-tailed macaque”,
consider the following statements:
1. It is a species of macaque native to
South Asia and Southeast Asia.
2. In India it is found only in western
Ghats.
3. It is listed as endangered on the IUCN
Red List of species.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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45. Consider the following pairs: 48. With respect to the “wetlands (conservation
and management) rules, 2017”, consider
S.N. Waterfall State the following statements:
1. Kunchikal Karnataka 1. These rules mandate the establishment
2. Barehipani Odisha of a State Wetland Authority in each
state and union territory, presided over
3. Kynrem Kerala
by the Chief Minister of the state.
How many of the above pairs are correctly 2. The rules introduce the concept of
matched? “smart use” as the guiding principle for
(a) Only one pair wetland management.
(b) Only two pairs 3. National Wetland Committee (NWC) has
(c) All three pairs replaced the Central Wetlands
(d) None of the pairs Regulatory Authority.
How many of the above statements are
46. With respect to “Vaquita porpoise”, correct?
consider the following statements: (a) Only one
1. It is a small porpoise found only in the (b) Only two
northern Gulf of Guinea around Gabon. (c) All three
2. It is a toothed whale like dolphins and (d) None
sperm whales.
3. It is listed as least concern on the IUCN
49. Consider the following statements:
Red List of species.
1. Morocco is a country in the Maghreb
How many of the above statements are
correct? Region of Western North Africa.

(a) Only one 2. The Rif Mountains dominate the

central part of the Morocco.
(b) Only two
(c) All three 3. Jebel Toubkal is the highest point in
Morocco.
(d) None
How many of the above statements are
correct?
47. With reference to the Montreux record,
consider the following statements: (a) Only one
1. It was adopted in Brisbane during the (b) Only two
Conference of the Contracting Parties in (c) All three
1996. (d) None
2. Loktak Lake, Keoladeo National Park
and Chilika Lake are the prominent 50. The word 'Tharosaurus indicus' is
Montreux Record sites in India. sometimes mentioned in media in reference
3. Wetlands under Montreux record have to
either undergone, are undergoing, or
(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs.
are anticipated to experience changes in
their ecological character. (b) an early human species.

How many of the above statements are (c) a cave system found in North-East
correct? India.
(a) Only one (d) a geological period in the history of
(b) Only two Indian subcontinent.
(c) All three
(d) None

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Answers &
Explanations
of

TEST ID: 0257

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)

CA: October 2023

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ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
CA: October 2023
GS Paper-I: (0257)
1. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
● BlueWalker 3 is a prototype satellite, a
part of a planned constellation of over a
hundred similar satellites intended to
deliver mobile or broadband services
anywhere in the world.
● It is considered the largest commercial
antenna system ever deployed in low-
Earth orbit, launched by AST
SpaceMobile, a US-based company.
● The satellite is among the brightest
objects in the sky resulting from a
massive phased-array antenna.
Bluewalker 3’s large size and bright
reflective surfaces could interfere with
astronomical observations, as its light
could be mistaken for stars or interfere
with the ability to detect dimmer
objects. It actively transmits at radio
frequencies that are close to bands
reserved for radio astronomy, which
may hamper radio telescope
observations.
2. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
● Picoflare jets are relatively small jets of
charged particles expelled intermittently
from the sun’s corona at supersonic
speeds for 20 to 100 seconds. These
charged jets are a source of the solar
wind.
● These jets from the sun are named so
because they carry approximately one-
trillionth energy of the largest flares the
sun is capable of producing. “Pico” is an
order of magnitude that denotes 10-12 or
one trillionth of a unit.
● It has significant effects on the large-
scale solar system as well as on Earth’s
magnetic field and poses risks to
satellites.
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3. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
● Quantum dots are tiny particles or
nanocrystals of semiconducting
material made from a semiconductor
such as Silicon with a diameter in the
range of 2–10 nm (10–50 atoms).
● They behave like artificial atoms, as
they can have a fixed number of
electrons in a confined space, leading to
unique properties that are size-
dependent.
Important applications of QDs:
● Bioimaging: QDs are 20 times brighter
and 100 times more stable than
traditional fluorescent dyes, are
photostable and can be used in
bioimaging.
● Bio-sensors: QD sensors can detect
presence of pathogens in food or water,
or monitor levels of pollutants in the
environment.
● Targeted Cancer treatment: QDs
exhibit specific optoelectronic properties
which can be utilised for targeted
cancer treatment. Because of their nano
size; they possess large surface area
ensuring higher drug loading capacity
and can tag nanocarriers in biological
systems.
● Optical applications: QDs could be
used to make smaller and more efficient
image sensors like CMOS sensors.
QLEDs are capable of emitting all
colours depending on their size. Thus,
they provide high-definition, brighter
and more colourful displays.
● Flexible electronics: Quantum-dot
logic circuits layout building blocks for
innovative devices, including printable
electronics and flexible display screens.
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4. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
● The 2023 Nobel Prize in Physics has
been awarded to Pierre Agostini, Ferenc
Krausz and Anne L’Huillier for
experimental methods that generate
attosecond pulses of light (10-18
seconds) that can be used to measure
the rapid processes at which electrons
operate.
● Potential Applications:
○ Helps to understand and control
how electrons behave in a material
which aids in designing more
efficient electronic gadgets.
○ In medical diagnostics, Attosecond
pulses can be used to identify
different molecules and study
molecular-level changes in blood to
identify diseases.
5. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
● In mRNA vaccines, the focus shifts from
introducing pathogens or their proteins
into the body to harnessing the cellular
machinery directly. mRNA serves as the
messenger, instructing cells to
synthesise specific proteins, which in
turn, trigger immune responses.
● Advantages of mRNA vaccine:
○ Large-scale adaptability and
speedy development: mRNA
vaccines are based on sequences of
viral proteins, making a new vaccine
could simply involve changing the
mRNA sequence if one knows what
protein one wants to make.
○ Specificity: mRNA vaccines can be
designed to target specific antigens,
such as viral proteins. This allows
for highly targeted immune
responses against particular
pathogens or diseases.
○ Immunological Memory: Once the
immune system has encountered
the antigen through mRNA
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introduced by the vaccine, it can
respond more rapidly and effectively
if exposed to the same antigen in
future.
○ No Live Pathogen: Making them
safer for individuals with weakened
immune systems or other health
conditions in comparison to other
vaccines.
○ No Risk of Insertional
Mutagenesis: As mRNA does not get
into the genetic material of the host
genome.
● Potential Risk: They are not as stable
at high temperatures, making
packaging and distribution difficult.
Also, the long-term effects of the
vaccines are still unknown.
6. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
● Stem cells are unique cells with the
potential to develop into specialised
cell types in the body. They can self-
renew which makes them valuable for
therapeutic applications. Stem cell
therapy or treatment utilises stem cells
to promote the repair, regeneration, or
replacement of damaged or diseased
tissues within the body.
● Uses of Stem Cell Therapy:
○ Cell-based Therapies: Stem cells
can be used to create specialised
cells for transplantation. E.g.,
Hematopoietic stem cells are used in
bone marrow transplants to treat
blood-related disorders and cancers.
○ Regenerative Medicine: The
technology can replace or regenerate
damaged or diseased tissues and
organs. This could revolutionise
treatments for conditions like spinal
cord injuries, heart diseases,
Parkinson and diabetes.
○ Personalised Medicine: Potential to
create patient-specific therapies by
using patients own cells to generate
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replacement tissues reducing risk of 8. Answer: (d)

immune rejection and need for Explanation:
organ donation. The Government’s Initiatives for the
○ Drug Testing/Disease Modeling: Startup Ecosystem –
Used to create disease-specific cell ● Startup India: This Initiative aims to
models, enabling researchers to create a robust and all-encompassing
better understand diseases and environment for innovation and
develop new drugs. entrepreneurship.
● As per the National Guidelines for ● The Credit Guarantee Scheme for
Stem Cell Research (NGSCR) 2017, Startups (CGSS): It offers guarantees
only bone marrow/hematopoietic stem upto a specified limit on the loans
cell transplantation for blood disorders extended by the Member Institutions
(including blood cancers and (MIs).
thalassemia) is permitted use of stem ● Support for Intellectual Property
cells. At present, stem cell therapy other Protection (SIPP): This Initiative
than bone marrow transplant or facilitates the Startups in filing
hematopoietic stem cell transplant for applications for patents, designs and
conditions listed in the NGSCR 2017 is trademarks through registered
neither available nor permissible. facilitators at the appropriate IP offices,
with payment limited to the statutory
fees.
7. Answer: (d)
● Expedited Exit for the Startups: The
Explanation: Startups can conclude their
● Origins, Spectral Interpretation, operations within 90 days, in
Resources Identification and Security- contrast to 180 days allowed for
Regolith Explorer (OSIRIS REx) is an other companies.
asteroid study and sample return ● The Startup India Seed Fund Scheme
mission by NASA. The spacecraft set (SISFS): It provides financial
out in 2016 to study asteroid Bennu (a assistance to the Startups for
carbon-rich near-Earth asteroid) and activities, such as proof of concept,
returned to Earth with a sample for prototype development, product
detailed analysis in 2023. trials, market entry and
● Bennu is a small asteroid, a little less commercialization.
than 500 metres in depth and is more
than 4.5 billion years old. It is classified 9. Answer: (c)
as a “near-Earth object” because it Explanation:
passes relatively close to our planet India’s Digital Public Infrastructure –
every six years. (a) JAM (Jan Dhan, Aadhaar and Mobile):
● For a mission like OSIRIS-REx, the Aadhaar provided the first identity
most accessible asteroids are document for 65-70 million individuals.
somewhere between 0.08 –1.6 AU. ● It has furthered the financial
Researchers believe that this pristine inclusion, with the percentage of the
space dirt will reveal clues about the population having bank accounts
birth of our solar system (4.5 billion increasing from 53% in 2015-16 to
years ago) and the genesis of life on 78% in 2019-21, as per the National
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● Additionally, the direct benefit
transfer of the subsidies has helped
the government reduce its overall
subsidy expenditure by plugging the
leakages.
(b) Digital Public Goods (DPGs):
● The notable examples include digital
verification (e-KYC), digital
signatures, Digital Repository (Digi
Locker), Digital Payments (UPI),
ONDC (The Open Network for Digital
Commerce) and the Account
Aggregator Framework.
● These have resulted in greater
financial inclusion, access to credit,
increased economic growth, access
to e-commerce markets and credit
availability for smaller businesses.
(c) Digital Finance Architecture:
● These include the digitalized GST
system, digital identities (Aadhaar,
eShram Portal, SVANidhi, Udayam
Portal), and UPI.
● These have formalized the business
transactions, simplified access to
formal credit and contributed to the
formalization of the economy and
workforce.
(d) Unified Digital Interfaces for
Simplified Governance:
● The notable examples are the
National Single Window System for
business approvals, JanSamarth
portal for credit-linked Central
Government schemes, the UMANG
app for access to the government
services and PM Gati Shakti, a GIS-
based platform facilitating integrated
infrastructure connectivity projects.
● These initiatives enhance the ease of
doing business, reduce logistics
costs and streamline governance
through system integration.
Challenges:
● Privacy and Security Apprehensions:
Concerns about privacy breaches and
data security issues can discourage the
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individuals from adopting digital
technologies, especially when dealing
with sensitive personal information.
● Insufficient Infrastructure
Accessibility: Many regions,
particularly the rural and the remote
areas, face issues related to unreliable
internet access and a lack of digital
infrastructure. This problem is further
exacerbated by limited access to
electricity and a shortage of essential
digital devices, such as computers and
smartphones.
● Affordability Issues: Even when the
digital infrastructure is available, the
cost of internet access and digital
devices can be a significant barrier
for numerous individuals and
families, especially in the low-income
communities.
● Language and Content Barriers: The
prevalence of content in a few dominant
languages can exclude the non-English
speakers or those not proficient in the
primary language. The absence of
localized and relevant content can
obstruct access to essential information
and services.
● Challenges for the Persons with
Disabilities: They may encounter
difficulties in accessing and using the
digital technologies due to limited
accessibility features and design
considerations in digital platforms.
10. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
About Online Gaming: Online gaming
refers to the games that can only be played
with an internet connection. Different
types of online games are –
● E-sports: Well organized electronic
sports which include professional
players.
● Fantasy sports: Choosing real life
sports players and winning points
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based on the players’ performance in a
match.
● Skill-based: Mental skill.
● Chance-based: Based on random
activity, like roll of a dice online games.
Tax on Online Gaming:
● The GST Council has imposed 28%
GST on online gaming, casinos and
horse racing on the full face value.
● Earlier, the GST regime differentiated
online games, based on skills versus
chance. For a game of skills, such as e-
sports, puzzles and some card games,
an 18% GST was chargeable. Whereas,
for a game of chance, including
gambling at the casinos, a 28% GST
was chargeable.
● The GST Law was amended to include
online gaming under its scope, as
currently it falls under actionable
claims.
11. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Features of the Credit Guarantee
Scheme for the Livestock Sector:
● The Scheme aims to strengthen the
credit delivery system and facilitate
smooth flow of credit to the Micro,
Small and Medium Enterprises
(MSMEs), engaged in the livestock
sector.
● It also facilitates access to finance for
the un-served and under-served
livestock sector, from the lenders to
mainly the first-generation
entrepreneurs and underprivileged
sections of the society, who lack
collateral security for supporting their
ventures.
● For operationalizing the scheme, the
Department of Animal Husbandry and
Dairying (DAHD), has established a
Credit Guarantee Fund Trust of Rs.
750.00 crores, which will provide
credit guarantee coverage upto 25%
of the credit facilities (maximum
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ceiling of Rs. 25 crores), extended to
the MSMEs by the eligible lending
institutions.
● This Fund will be managed by the
NABSanrakshan Trustee Private
Limited, a Trustee Company and a
wholly owned subsidiary of the National
Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development (NABARD).
● It is established under the Prime
Minister’s AtmaNirbhar Bharat Abhiyan
stimulus package of Rs. 15,000 crores
“Animal Husbandry Infrastructure
Development Fund” (AHIDF).
12. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
About the Corporate Debt Market
Development Fund (CDMDF):
● Regulated by: The Securities and
Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
● It is an ‘alternative investment fund’
(AIF), which will act as a backstop
facility for the purchase of investment
grade corporate debt securities.
● The Corporate Debt Market
Development Fund (CDMDF) is
launched as a close-ended scheme,
with an initial tenure of 15 years
(extendable) from the date of its
initial closing.
● During the normal times, the CDMDF
will deal in low duration government
securities (G-sec), treasury bills, tri-
party repo on G-secs and guaranteed
corporate bond repo, with maturity not
exceeding seven days.
● The corporate debt securities to be
bought by the CDMDF during market
dislocation include listed money market
instruments, for which the long-term
rating of the issuers will be considered.
● Hence, the CDMDF will buy only the
investment-grade securities from the
secondary markets, listed and having
residual maturity of upto five years.
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● It will not buy any unlisted, below-
investment grade or defaulted debt
securities, or securities in respect of
which there is a material possibility of
default or adverse credit news or views.
● The facility will help instil confidence
amongst the participants in the
corporate debt market during the times
of stress and to generally enhance
secondary market liquidity by creating a
permanent institutional framework for
activation in the times of market stress.
13. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
JP Morgan announced that the Indian
Government Bonds will be a part of its
Government Bond Index-Emerging Markets
(GBIEM) global index suite from June,
2024.
Advantages:
● Reduces the Cost of Borrowing: The
inclusion of the Indian Government
Bonds in this global index will broaden
its bond market and help in mobilizing
resources at cheaper cost.
● Reduces Interest Rates in the
Domestic Market: Since market
interest rates in India are benchmarked
to the G-secs, any reduction in the G-
sec interest rates will eventually be
translated into reduction in the interest
rates of the banks.
● Accumulation of Forex Reserves: It is
expected that around $30 billion are
going to be pumped into India’s
sovereign bond market within a year,
and it will help India in building a huge
forex reserve base.
● Deepening of the Corporate Bond
Market: During the phases of
expansionary fiscal policies, the
government resorts to aggressive
borrowing from the domestic market,
leaving little space for the corporates,
and it often results in crowding-out of
private investment. The inclusion of
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the Indian Government Bonds (IGBs)
in the global indices will enable the
government to vacate domestic
market space for the corporate
bonds, thereby deepening the
corporate bond market in India.
● Internationalization of Currency: This
move will boost the confidence of the
investors over our currency and will
help in achieving the goal of
internationalization of the Indian rupee.
Potential Risks:
● Currency Appreciation: Increased
foreign inflows, as a result of the
inclusion of the Indian Bonds in the
global index, may appreciate the Indian
currency, thereby making Indian
exports uncompetitive.
● Vulnerability to External Factors:
During globally uncertain times, there
could be volatility in the Indian bond
market or in the currency because of
the holding of the Indian G-Secs by the
foreigners.
● Monetary Policy Priorities: With the
growing demand for the G-secs from the
foreign investors, the monetary policy
may need to control the volatility of the
yield of the G-secs, which may come in
conflict with its objective of inflation
control.
14. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
● The Reserve Bank of India defines the
Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)
as the legal tender issued by a central
bank in a digital form. It is the same as
a sovereign currency and is
exchangeable one-to-one at par with the
fiat currency.
● While money in digital form is
predominant in India—for example, in
the bank accounts recorded as the book
entries on the commercial bank
ledgers—a CBDC would differ from the
existing digital money available to the
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public, because a CBDC would be a territory (sum interest and for goods and
of output total profit services. The
liability of the Reserve Bank of India,
minus This formula to
and not of a commercial bank. approach calculate GDP
intermediate covers only under this
Features of the CBDC: consumption) the incomes method is
● The CBDC is a sovereign currency plus indirect generated GDP = C + I +
taxes minus within the
issued by the central banks in G + NX
subsidies on domestic
alignment with their monetary policy. economy.
products.
● It appears as a liability on the central
bank’s balance sheet.
17. Answer: (a)
● It must be accepted as a medium of
payment, legal tender and a safe store Explanation:
of value by all citizens, enterprises and  The Association of Southeast Asian
government agencies. Nations, or ASEAN, was established in
● Freely convertible against commercial 1967 in Bangkok (Thailand), with the
bank money and cash. signing of the ASEAN Declaration (The
● Fungible legal tender for which the Bangkok Declaration) by the Founding
holders need not have a bank account. Fathers of the ASEAN: Indonesia,
Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore
● Expected to lower the cost of issuance
and Thailand. (Maldives is not a
of money and transactions.
member state).
 Brunei Darussalam joined the ASEAN
15. Answer: (d)
in 1984, followed by Viet Nam
Explanation: in1995, Lao PDR and Myanmar in
● Fiat Currency derives its value from 1997, and Cambodia in 1999, making
the guarantee provided by the Central up what is today the ten Member
Bank. States of the ASEAN.
● Cryptocurrency has no value in its  ASEAN Catalytic Green Finance
individual capacity. (ACGF) Facility: It is an ASEAN
● Stable Coin’s value is pegged to other Infrastructure Fund initiative
currencies, such as Diem, TruelNR. supporting the governments in South-
east Asia to prepare and finance the
16. Answer: (a) infrastructure projects that promote
Explanation: environmental sustainability and
contribute to climate change goals. The
GDP refers to the total value of final goods
ACGF is owned by the ASEAN
and services produced within the
governments and the ADB (Asian
geographical territory of an economy during
Development Bank), and managed by
a specific year, normally a year. It is
the ADB.
calculated under three methods:
Note: India is a free trade partner of the
GDP
ASEAN.
Production Income Expenditure
Method Method method
Adding This approach 18. Answer: (b)
This approach
measures the together the takes into Explanation:
income consideration
sum of value  At a special event on the sidelines of
components the total
added of all that make up expenditure the recently concluded G20 Summit
economic the value incurred by all
added-rents, individuals in in New Delhi, a memorandum of
activities within
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establish the ‘India-Middle East-  It is an intergovernmental organization.

Europe Economic Corridor’ (IMEC).
 Other than the two co-chairs of the
event, the Indian Prime Minister
Narendra Modi and the US President
Joe Biden, the signatories included the
leaders of Saudi Arabia, the United
Arab Emirates (UAE), the European
Union (EU), Italy, France and Germany.
 The proposed IMEC will consist of
railroad, ship-to-rail networks (road and
sea) and road transport routes (and
networks) extending across the two
corridors, that is, the east corridor –
connecting India to the Gulf, and the
northern corridor – connecting the Gulf
to Europe.
 The project, which forms part of the
Partnership for Global Infrastructure
and Investment (PGII), may also serve
as a counter to China’s economic
influence in the Eurasian region.
19. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The G20 was founded in 1999 after the
Asian financial crisis, as a forum for the
Finance Ministers and the Central Bank
Governors to discuss global economic
and financial issues.
 The African Union became a full
member of the G20 during the 18th G20
Summit at Delhi.
Note: Together with the IFC, the World
Bank launched the Joint Capital Markets
Initiative. It promotes capital market
development in the emerging countries by
supporting liquid, diverse, long-tenor
financing and well-regulated local capital
markets.
20. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The African Union (AU) is a continental
body, consisting of 55 member states,
that make up the countries of the
African continent.
 It was officially launched in 2002 as a
successor to the Organization of African
Unity (OAU).
 Launched in 2007 by the African Union,
the game-changing African-led Great
Green Wall Initiative aims to restore the
continent’s degraded landscapes and
transform millions of lives in the Sahel.
 The African Union Commission (AUC) is
the AU's secretariat and undertakes the
day to day activities of the Union. It is
based in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia.
21. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The ‘Five Eyes’ is a multilateral
intelligence sharing network of five
countries, Australia, Canada, New
Zealand, the United Kingdom and the
United States of America.
 It is both surveillance-based and tracks
signals intelligence (SIGINT).
 In 1946, the alliance was formalized
through an agreement for cooperation
in signals intelligence.
 The arrangement was later extended to
‘second party’ countries – Canada
joined in 1948, while Australia and
New Zealand became part of the
alliance in 1956.
 The Five Eyes have become involved in
ocean and maritime surveillance, and
the continuous sharing of intelligence
products via a secret collective
database, known as the ‘Stone Ghost’.
22. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The World Intellectual Property
Organization (WIPO):
 It is the global forum for intellectual
property (IP) services, policy,
information and cooperation, which was
established in 1967.

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 It is a self-funded agency of the United
Nations, with 193 member states.
 Its mission is to lead the development of
a balanced and effective international IP
system, that enables innovation and
creativity for the benefit of all.
 Headquarters: Geneva (Switzerland).
 Parent Organization: The United
Nations Economic and Social Council.
23. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Global Biofuel Alliance:
 The Global Biofuel Alliance is an
initiative by India, as the chair of G20
that aims to serve as a catalytic
platform, fostering global collaboration
for the advancement and widespread
adoption of biofuels.
 India, Brazil and the US are the
founding members of the Alliance.
 It is an alliance of the governments,
international organizations and
industry to facilitate adoption of
biofuels.
 It brings together the biggest consumers
and producers of biofuels, aiming to
drive biofuels development and
deployment, and position biofuels as a
key to energy transition and economic
growth.
24. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Global Innovation Index (GII) 2023:
 The Index is released annually by the
World Intellectual Property Organization
(WIPO) to rank 132 economies on the
Innovation Index.
 Envisioned to capture as complete a
picture of innovation as possible, the
Index comprises around 80 indicators,
including measures on the political
environment, education, infrastructure
and knowledge creation of each
economy.
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 The different metrics that the GII offers
help to monitor performance and
benchmark developments against the
economies within the same region or
income group.
 Switzerland is the most innovative
economy in 2023 followed by Sweden,
the United States, the United Kingdom
and Singapore.
Note: India retained its 40th position on the
annual Global Innovation Index (GII) 2023,
due to its vibrant start-up ecosystem,
knowledge capital and the work done by
the public and the private research
organizations.
25. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The United Nations Population Fund: It
is formerly the United Nations Fund for
Population Activities, and is a UN agency
aimed at improving reproductive and
maternal health worldwide. Its work
includes developing national healthcare
strategies and protocols, increasing access
to birth control, and leading campaigns
against child marriage, gender-based
violence, obstetric fistula and female genital
mutilation.
It is a founding member of the United
Nations Development Group, a collection of
the UN agencies and programmes focused
on fulfilling the Sustainable Development
Goals.
The agency began operations in 1969 as
the United Nations Fund for Population
Activities and the name was changed to
United Nations Population Fund in 1987.
Its headquarter is located in New York
City, United States.
26. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020
proposes various reforms in school
education, as well as higher education,
including technical education. A number of
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action points/activities for implementation Education Regulatory Council

in school education, as well as higher (NHERC).
education are mentioned in the National  Creation of an autonomous body, the
Education Policy 2020. National Educational Technology
Salient features of the NEP 2020 are as Forum (NETF) to provide a platform for
follows: the free exchange of ideas on the use
 Ensuring universal access at all levels of technology to enhance learning,
of schooling from pre-primary school assessment, planning and
to Grade 12. administration. Appropriate
 Ensuring quality early childhood care integration of technology into all levels
and education for all children between of education.
3-6 years.  Achieving 100% youth and adult
 Establishing the National Mission on literacy.
Foundational Literacy and Numeracy.  The NEP 2020 aims to increase the
 Emphasis on promoting GER to 100% in pre-school to
multilingualism and Indian languages; secondary level by 2030, whereas the
The medium of instruction until at GER in higher education, including
least Grade 5, but preferably till Grade vocational education, from 26.3%
8 and beyond, will be the home (2018) to 50% by 2035.
language/mother tongue/local
language/regional language. 27. Answer: (b)
 Equitable and inclusive education: Explanation:
Special emphasis given on Socially and
Economically Disadvantaged Groups
(SEDGs).
 A separate Gender Inclusion Fund and
Special Education Zones for the
disadvantaged regions and groups.
 Increasing the Gross Enrolment Ratio
(GER) in higher education to 50%.
 Establishment of Academic Bank of
Credit: Setting up of Multidisciplinary
Education and Research Universities
(MERUs).
 Single overarching umbrella body for
the promotion of higher education
sector, including teacher education
and excluding medical and legal
Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Scheme has
education - the Higher Education
been launched in 2023. It is a Central
Commission of India (HECI) - with
Sector Scheme to provide end-to-end
independent bodies for standard
support to the artisans and the
setting - the General Education
craftspeople who work with their hands
Council; Funding-Higher Education
and tools. To support the artisans in
Grants Council (HEGC); accreditation-
accessing both domestic and global value
National Accreditation Council (NAC);
chains, thereby increasing their market
and regulation- National Higher
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India's traditional crafts, while also
assisting the artisans in transitioning to
the formal economy and integrating them
into the global value chains.
The Nodal Ministry is the Ministry of Micro,
Small and Micro Enterprises (MoMSME). It
is jointly implemented by the MoMSME, the
Ministry of Skill Development & the RGI.
Entrepreneurship and the Department of
Financial Services, Ministry of Finance,
Government of India.
Collateral free ‘Enterprise Development
Loans’ of upto Rs. 3 lakhs in two
tranches of Rs. 1 lakh and Rs. 2 lakhs,
with tenures of 18 months and 30
29. Answer: (a)
months, respectively, at a concessional
rate of interest fixed at 5%, with interest
subvention of upto 8% provided by the
Government of India.
28. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Provisions of the Registration of
Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act,
2023:
 Birth Certificate will be considered as
single document for availing several
crucial services, including admission to
an educational institution, issuance of a
driving licence, preparation of the voter
list, Aadhaar number, registration of
marriage, appointment to a government
job etc.
 Create database of registered births
and deaths, which eventually would
ensure efficient and transparent
delivery of public services and social
benefits and digital registration.
 The Act grants authority to
the Registrar General of India (RGI) to
oversee a national registry of births and
deaths. Chief Registrars (appointed by
the States) and Registrars (appointed
by the States for local areas) will be
30. Answer: (d)
obligated to contribute data to this
national database, while the Chief
Registrars maintain similar databases
at the State level.
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 Earlier, there was a requirement for
certain persons to report births and
deaths to the Registrar.
 It will be compulsory for the States to
register births and deaths on the
Centre’s Civil Registration System
(CRS) portal and share the data with
 It makes it mandatory for all medical
institutions to provide a certificate as to
the cause of death to the Registrar and
a copy of the same to the nearest
relative.
Explanation:
The Civil Registration System (CRS) is
the unified process of continuous,
permanent, compulsory and universal
recording of births and deaths.
The Civil Registration System (CRS) is
popularly known as the ‘birth and death
registration system’. It is the recording of
vital events, i.e., births, deaths and still
births, under the statutory provisions on
continuous and permanent basis.
The CRS falls under the Concurrent
List of the Constitution of India. Vital
statistics generated from Civil Registration
significantly contribute to the formulation
of effective and efficient evidence-based
policy across multiple sectors.
The Registrar General of India: It was
founded in 1961 by the Government of
India, under the Ministry of Home
Affairs. It organizes, carries out and
analyses the outcomes of demographic
surveys in India, which encompass the
Census of India and the Linguistic Survey
of India. The position of the Registrar is
usually held by a Civil Servant, holding the
rank of a Joint Secretary.
Explanation:
 Various Bills amending the
Constitution to reserve the seats for
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women in the Lok Sabha and the
State Legislative Assemblies have
been introduced in 1996, 1998, 1999
and 2008.
 The 73rd and the 74th Constitutional
Amendment Acts, 1992 provided for the
reservation of women in the local
bodies. The 106th Amendment to the
Constitution provides reservation for
women in the Lok Sabha and every
33. Answer: (b)
State Legislative Assembly.
 The Act has a ‘sunset clause’, which
means that the reservation for
women will be in effect for a period of
15 years from the commencement of
the Act.
31. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The purpose of the Parliamentary
Privileges is to safeguard the freedom,
authority and dignity of the Parliament.
They are necessary for the proper
exercise of the functions entrusted to
the Parliament by the Constitution.
 The Constitution of India states that the
privileges of the Parliament and the
State Legislatures should be defined by
law.
 Currently, there is no law that
codifies all the privileges of the
legislators in India.
34. Answer: (a)
32. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The 2011 Linguistic Census accounts
for 121 mother tongues, including 22
languages listed in the 8th Schedule to
the Constitution.
 Currently, six languages enjoy the
‘Classical’ status: Tamil (declared in
2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008),
Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013) and
Odia (2014).
 The ‘Three Language Formula’ under
the National Education Policy (NEP),
2020: The new National Education
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Policy (NEP) (2020) recommends that all
students will learn three languages in
their school under the ‘formula’. At least
two of the three languages should be
native to India.
 Article 345: The Legislature of a State
may, by law, adopt any one or more of
the languages in use in the State.
Explanation:
 Registration of periodicals: The Press
and Registration of Periodicals Act,
2023, allows for registering newspapers,
periodicals and books, and cataloguing
books.
 Foreign periodicals: An exact
reproduction of a foreign periodical
may be printed in India only with the
prior approval of the Central
Government. The manner of
registration of such periodicals will
be prescribed.
 Appeal: Any person may appeal against
the refusal to issue a registration
certificate, suspension/cancellation of
registration or imposition of penalty.
Such appeals may be filed before the
Press and Registration Appellate Board
within 60 days.
Explanation:
 Article 29:
o Any section of the citizens, residing
in the territory of India or any part
thereof, having a distinct language,
script, or culture of its own, shall
have the right to conserve the same.
o No citizen shall be denied admission
into any educational institution
maintained by the State or receiving
aid out of the State funds on the
grounds only of religion, race, caste,
language, or any of them.
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 Article 30: governance reforms. He faced a

o All minorities, whether based on significant setback in the famous
religion or language, shall have Battle of Takkolam against the
the right to establish and Rashtrakutas.
administer educational  Rajaraja I achieved victory in naval
institutions of their choice. expeditions along the West Coast, Sri
o The State shall not, in granting aid Lanka and the Maldives. His conquests
to the educational institutions, extended the Chola authority over
discriminate against any northern and eastern Sri Lanka.
educational institution on the Notably, he defeated the Cheras in the
ground that it is under the Battle of Kandanur Salai. In 1010 AD,
management of a minority, whether he constructed the iconic Rajarajeswara
based on religion or language. temple in Tanjore.
 Rajendra Chola I led remarkable
35. Answer: (d) military campaigns, including the defeat
Explanation: of Mahipala I of Bengal. He founded the
city of Gangaikondacholapuram and
 The Fourth Schedule to the
built the renowned Rajesvaram temple.
Constitution of India provides for the
 Kulathunga Chola I, upheld the Chola
seats allocated to each State. But there
legacy by abolishing taxes, promoting
is no provision regarding reservation
trade with China, and unifying the
in the Rajya Sabha in the
Constitution. Vengi kingdom with the Chola
empire.
 In the 'Economically Weaker
 The decline of the Chola empire was
Sections' (EWS) judgement, the
marked by Rajendra III, the last Chola
Supreme Court said that the 50%
limit is flexible and applies only to king, who was defeated by Jatavarman
Sundarapandya II.
the Socially Economic Backward
Classes (SEBCs).
 The 73rd and the 74th Constitutional 37. Answer: (c)
Amendment Acts provide reservation for Explanation:
the SC/STs, but State Legislature by  The portrayal of Shiva as Nataraja has
law can provide for reservation for its origins in the fifth century AD, but it
OBCs in the States with respect to was during the rule of the Chola
Panchayats and Municipalities. dynasty that this form of Shiva achieved
its iconic status as the Lord of Dance.
36. Answer: (d)  Shiva, a multifaceted deity within the
Explanation: Puranic pantheon, has evolved from the
The Chola dynasty's political history can Vedic deity Rudra. Renowned Indologist
be outlined as follows: A. L. Basham, in his work 'The Wonder
that was India' (1954), described Shiva
 Vijayalaya, through his conquest of
as embodying 'death and time'
the Kaveri delta from the
(Mahakala). He is a deity who both
Muttaraiyar, marked the resurgence
destroys all things and serves as a
of the Chola dynasty. He founded the
patron of ascetics.
city of Thanjavur and established the
Chola kingdom in 850 CE.  Nataraja's upper right hand holds a
Damru, a hand drum, the sound of
 Parantaka I initiated territorial
which draws all beings into his
expansion and introduced

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rhythmic motion. The upper left arm
holds Agni, symbolizing fire, which
brings about the destruction of the
universe. Beneath one of Nataraja's feet,
a dwarf-like figure lies crushed,
symbolizing illusion, which misleads
humanity. Nataraja also offers
reassurance, depicting Shiva as the
Protector. With his front right hand, he
makes the 'Abhayamudra,' a gesture
that allays fear, and with his raised feet,
he points to his feet, urging his devotees
to seek refuge there.
 The bronze sculptures during the Chola
period were crafted using the artistic
technique, known as Cire Perdue or
Madhu Uchchishtta Vidhana.
 The method involved mixing beeswax, a
type of camphor called Kungilium, and
a small amount of oil.
 The wax model was then coated with
clay, dried and placed in an oven to
melt or evaporate the wax.
 Pancha Loham, a bronze alloy, was
melted and poured into the clay mould,
filling every crevice and detail.
 After cooling and solidifying, the clay
mould was broken, leaving only the
bronze sculpture.
38. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Hoysala temples, built during the
12th and the 13th centuries, under the
patronage of the Hoysala kings, are
devoted to the worship of the deities
Shiva and Vishnu. Notable among these
temples are:
 The Chennakeshava temple, located in
Belur within the Hassan district, is an
architectural marvel.
o It sits along the banks of the
Yagachi river and follows a
rectangular layout, enclosed by four
straight streets, facilitating the
traditional circumambulation of the
deity.
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o Construction of the Chennakeshava
temple commenced in 1117 AD, and
it is dedicated to Lord Vishnu.
o The temple's distinctive feature is its
intricately sculpted exterior,
depicting stories from Lord Vishnu's
life, his divine incarnations, and epic
tales from the Ramayana and the
Mahabharata.
o These carvings also include the
representations of Lord Shiva,
reflecting the harmonious
coexistence of the deities within the
Hindu pantheon.
o The Chennakeshava temple remains
a significant pilgrimage site for the
Vaishnavite devotees.
 The Hoysaleshwara temple, situated
on the banks of the Dwarasamudra
tank in Halebid, was constructed in
1121 CE during the reign of king
Vishnuvardhana Hoysaleshwara.
o This temple is dedicated to Lord
Shiva and was made possible
through the generous patronage and
financial support of the prosperous
citizens and merchants of
Dorasamudra.
o What distinguishes the
Hoysaleshwara temple is its more
than 240 exquisite wall sculptures
adorning its exterior.
o Beyond the temple, Halebid also
houses three Jaina Basadi (temples)
from the Hoysala era, illustrating
religious diversity and peaceful
coexistence of various faiths in the
region.
 The Kesava temple, located at the heart
of Somanathapura village in Mysore
district, boasts a Trikuta architecture. It
is dedicated to Lord Krishna in three
distinct forms: Janardhana, Keshava
and Venugopala. These three deities
offer a multifaceted spiritual experience,
embodying various facets of the divine.
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39. Answer: (a)  To commemorate this triumph, he

Explanation: commissioned the construction of the
The Hoysala empire, a prominent Kirtinarayana temple in Talakadu and
Kannadiga dynasty hailing from the Indian the Chennakesava temple in Beluru.
sub-continent, exerted control over a  The Hoysala era marked a flourishing of
substantial part of what is now Karnataka literature in both Kannada and
during the period spanning from the 10th Sanskrit. Noteworthy literary works
to the 14th centuries. from this period include "Harihara" and
 Originally, the Hoysala empire emerged "Raghavanka's Harishchandracharite"
in the picturesque landscapes of in Kannada, as well as "Nemichandra's
Malenadu, a region nestled within the Leelavati Prabhanda" in Sanskrit.
Western Ghats.
 Nevertheless, the 12th century 40. Answer: (b)
witnessed the Hoysalas capitalizing on Explanation:
the internal strife between the Western  Bhagat Singh, a renowned figure in
Chalukya empire and the Kalachuris of India's struggle for independence, was
Kalyani. born on September 28, 1907, in
 This strategic manoeuvre enabled them Lyallpur (now in Pakistan).
to annex territories in the present-day  His early education took place at the
Karnataka and the fertile lands to the Dayanand Anglo Vedic High School and
north of the Kaveri delta, which are now the National College in Lahore.
part of Tamil Nadu. By the 13th  The spirit of activism ran in his
century, their dominion expanded to
family, as his uncle, Ajit Singh,
encompass most of Karnataka, actively participated in progressive
significant portions of north-western politics, notably in events such as
Tamil Nadu, and segments of western the Canal Colonization Bill agitation
Andhra Pradesh within the Deccan
in 1907 and the Ghadar Movement of
Plateau. 1914-1915.
 In terms of their political history, the
 In 1924, Bhagat Singh joined the
Hoysalas initially served as the
Hindustan Republican Association,
vassals or feudatories of the
which was founded by Sachindranath
Chalukyas of Kalyani. Sanyal.
 Their capital was situated in
 His unwavering dedication to the cause
Dwarasamudra (Halebeedu). The
prompted him to establish the
dynasty's origins were accredited to Naujawan Bharat Sabha in 1926, with
Sala, with successors like Vinayaditya the goal of mobilizing the peasants and
and Balalla I. the workers to oppose the British rule.
 However, the zenith of the Hoysala  Two years later, in 1928, Bhagat Singh,
power was reached under the rule of along with comrades like Sukhdev and
Vishnuvardhana, also known as Chandrashekhar Azad, formed the
Bittideva. Vishnuvardhana's
Hindustan Socialist Republican
exceptional military prowess was Association (HSRA).
exemplified by his decisive victory
 In addition to his direct actions, he
over the Cholas in the Battle of
made significant contributions to the
Talakadu, earning him the title
monthly magazine "Kirti," published by
"Talkadugonda."
the 'Workers and Peasants Party.'

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41. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Pandharpur, a prominent pilgrimage town
is situated on the banks of the
Chandrabhaga River in Maharashtra, India.
The Warkari community is a distinct sect
hailing from the state of Maharashtra,
deeply rooted in the bhakti spiritual
tradition of Hinduism, with a history
tracing back to the 13th century CE. Their
prominent saints include Dnyaneshwar,
Namdev, Chokhamela, Eknath, and
Tukaram.
The central focus of Warkari devotion is
around Bhagwan Vitthal or Vithoba,
perceived as a manifestation of Lord
Vishnu.
42. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
ADI SHANKARA
 He was also known as Shankaracharya.
 Born in Kaladi, Kerala in 788 CE.
 Propounded the Doctrine of Advaita
(Monism) and wrote many
commentaries on the Vedic canon
(Upanishads, Brahma Sutras and
Bhagavad Gita) in Sanskrit.
 His major works included
Brahmasutrabhasya (Bhashya or
commentary on the Brahma Sutra),
Bhajagovinda Stotra and Nirvana
Shatakam.
 He was responsible to revive Hindu
philosophy at a time when Buddhism
was gaining momentum in India.
 He is said to have established four
Mathas (Hindu Monastaries) at
Shingeri, Puri, Dwaraka and Badrinath–
for propagation of Sanathana Dharma
in four corners of India.
 Adi Shankaracharya was opposed to
Buddhist philosophers.
 Philosophy of Adi Shankara is part of
Vedanta (One of the six schools of
Aastik Hindu Philosophy).
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43. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Explanation: Annually, the Energy Policy
Institute at the University of Chicago
(EPIC) releases the Air Quality Life Index
(AQLI), which serves as a pollution index
that translates particulate air pollution
into a crucial metric: its impact on life
expectancy.
To create this index, the research findings
are combined with highly localized global
measurements of particulate matter.
 It has incorporated the revised
guidelines set forth by the World Health
Organization (WHO).
 The WHO had updated its
recommendations, lowering the
acceptable limit for PM 2.5 from 10
micrograms per cubic meter to 5
micrograms per cubic meter.
 The Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) gauges
the potential increase in life expectancy
that communities could experience if
they were to reduce air pollution levels
in line with either the World Health
Organization’s recommended guideline
or their own national standards.
44. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Stump-tailed macaque: is also called the
bear macaque, is a species of macaque
native to South Asia and Southeast Asia.
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In India, it found in evergreen forests in
South Asia, including parts of Northeast
India in forests south of the
Brahmaputra. Its range in India extends
from Assam and Meghalaya to eastern
Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur,
Mizoram and Tripura.
It is primarily frugivorous, but eats many
types of vegetation, such as seeds, leaves
and roots, but also hunts freshwater crabs,
frogs, bird eggs and insects. It is listed as
vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of
species.
45. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 Kunchikal Falls: Located in the
Shimoga district of Karnataka,
Kunchikal Falls is the highest waterfall
in India. It is formed by the Varahi River
and falls down a series of rocky
outcrops.
 Barehipani Falls: Found in the core
area of Simlipal National Park in
Odisha, the Barehipani Falls are India’s
second-highest waterfall. This two-
tiered waterfall is a major attraction in
the national park.
 Kynrem Falls: Located in the East
Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya, the
Kynrem Falls is a three-tiered waterfall
and the seventh-highest in India. The
waterfall is part of the Thangkharang
Park.
46. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Vaquita is a small porpoise found only in
the northern Gulf of California around
Mexico in the shallow waters bordering
the Colorado estuary. Vaquita is a
toothed whale like dolphins and sperm
whales and different from baleen whales
such as blue whale.
Currently, only about 10 Vaquita Porpoise
are believed to be surviving in the world.
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Vaquita Porpoise are the smallest species of
cetacean order which also includes marine
mammals like whales, dolphins and
porpoises.
IUCN Status: Critically Endangered
47. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Montreux Record serves as a register of
wetland sites within the List of Wetlands of
International Importance. These sites
have either undergone, are undergoing,
or are anticipated to experience changes
in their ecological character due to
factors like technological advancements,
pollution, or human interference.
 Adopted in Brisbane during the
Conference of the Contracting Parties
in 1996, the Montreux Record operates
as an adjunct to the Montreux Record
Operating Guidelines.
 This database plays a pivotal role within
the Ramsar Convention by continuously
monitoring and documenting changes
in designated wetland sites, ensuring
their protection.
 Two prominent Montreux Record
sites in India include Loktak Lake in
Manipur and Keoladeo National Park
in Rajasthan. Chilika Lake, another
significant Indian wetland, was added
to the Montreux Record in 1993 but
later removed from the list in 2002,
showcasing the dynamic nature of
these designations.
48. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Wetlands (Conservation and
Management) Rules, 2017, have been
officially promulgated by the Ministry of
Environment, Forests, and Climate Change
(MoEF&CC), in accordance with the
provisions of the Environment (Protection)
Act, 1986.
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Salient Features of the Wetlands
(Conservation and Management) Rules,
2017:
 State Wetland Authority (SWA): These
rules mandate the establishment of a
State Wetland Authority in each state
and union territory, presided over by
the state’s environment minister.
 Principles of Sustainable Use: The
rules introduce the concept of “smart
use” as the guiding principle for wetland
management.
 National Wetland Committee (NWC):
Replacing the Central Wetlands
Regulatory Authority, the NWC is
established, with the MoEFCC secretary
leading it.
49. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Morocco is a country in the Maghreb
Region of Western North Africa that lies
directly across the Strait of Gibraltar
from Spain.
 The Atlas Mountains dominate the
central part of the country, while the
Rif Mountains make up the northern
edge.
 The Imperial Cities of Morocco are the
four historical capital cities of Morocco:
Fez, Marrakesh, Meknes, and Rabat.
Rabat is the current capital of Morocco.
 Jebel Toubkal is the highest point in
Morocco and is also the highest peak
of the Atlas Mountains.
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 The south-eastern region of the country
is blanketed by the Sahara Desert, the
world’s third-largest desert. It is
bordered by the two countries of
Western Sahara to the south and
Algeria to the east. It has coastlines on
the Atlantic Ocean to the west and the
Mediterranean Sea to the north.
50. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Fossils of a plant-eating dinosaur
Tharosaurus indicus from the Middle
Jurassic period, found in the Thar desert
near the Jaisalmer Basin by the
Geological Survey of India.
 The name “Tharosaurus indicus”
reflects its origin, with “Thar” referring
to the Thar Desert and “indicus”
indicating its origin in India.
 It is a long-necked, plant-eating
dinosaur species.
The dicraeosaurid dinosaur had previously
been found in the North and South
Americas, Africa, and China. This is the
first instance of such fossils being
discovered in India.
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