This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series f or Preliminary Exam 202 4

Test ID
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)
0299
CURRENT AFFAIRS
CA: NOVEMBER 2023
Time Allowed: 1 Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

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THAT THIS TEST BBOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.

4. All items carry equal marks.

5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained therein.

6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.

7. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 202 4
1. Consider the following statements with How many of the above pairs are
reference to the heritage and culture of incorrectly matched?
India: (a) Only one
1. Kaliyattom is a martial art form (b) Only two
practised in the state of Kerala. (c) All three
2. Devakkoothu is the only form of (d) None
Kaliyattom ritual that is performed by
men.
4. Consider the following statements:
3. Chenda is the only musical
1. Jon Fosse has been awarded the
instrument used in the performance of
Nobel Prize in Literature for the year
Kaliyattom.
2023.
How many of the above statements are
2. Rabindranath Tagore was the first and
correct?
the only Indian to be awarded the
(a) Only one
Nobel Prize in Literature.
(b) Only two
Which of the statements given above
(c) All three is/are correct?
(d) None (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
2. Consider the following statements with (c) Both 1 and 2
reference to the history of India:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Guru Gobind Singh introduced the
Nanak Shahi coins.
5. Consider the following statements with
2. In the Battle of Samana, the Mughal
reference to the political history of India:
forces were defeated by Banda Singh
1. Asaf Jah I founded the city of
Bahadur.
Golconda with its capital at
3. Banda Singh Bahadur organized the
Hyderabad.
Sikh polity into Bandai and Tat
2. Hyderabad was the first state to come
Khalsa.
under the Subsidiary Alliance Policy of
How many of the above statements are
the colonial government.
correct?
3. The Nizam of Hyderabad accepted the
(a) Only one
‘Heads of Agreement’ deal proposed by
(b) Only two Lord Mountbatten.
(c) All three How many of the above statements are
(d) None incorrect?
(a) Only one
3. Consider the following pairs: (b) Only two
S.N. Heritage Well-known for (c) All three
Places (d) None
1. Hire Benakal The Chalukyan
Hindu temples. 6. He cited the exclusion of the Indians from
2. Dhordo The Rann of the Legislative Council of India as one of
Kutch festival. the major causes for the Revolt of 1857;
was nominated to the Viceroy’s Legislative
3. Pattadakal The largest
Council in 1878, and also published the
megalithic site in
journal ‘Social Reformer’. He was:
India.

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 (a) Henry Vivian Derozio Which of the statements given above
(b) Syed Ahmad Khan is/are correct?
(c) Keshub Chandra Sen (a) 1 only
(d) Mahadev Gobind Ranade (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
7. With reference to the religious history of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
India, consider the following statements:
1. The Mahabodhi Temple was founded
10. With reference to the World Health
during the Mauryan period.
Organization (WHO), consider the
2. ‘Mahayana Buddhism’ was revived
following statements:
under the patronage of the Pala
dynasty rulers. 1. It is a specialized agency of the United
3. Rajgriha and Sankasya are important Nations, working to improve public
sites considered being part of the health at the global level.
‘Ashtasthanas’ in Buddhism. 2. It launched an ambitious initiative the
How many of the above statements are Triple Billion targets to eliminate polio
correct? by 2023.
(a) Only one 3. Its headquarter is situated at Geneva
(b) Only two (Switzerland).
(c) All three How many of the above statements are
(d) None correct?
(a) Only one
8. Consider the following statements: (b) Only two
1. Israel shares its land border only with (c) All three
two countries.
(d) None
2. Both Israel and Palestine are part of
the Levant region.
3. Rafah is the only crossing point 11. With reference to the Vienna Convention
between Egypt and the Gaza Strip. on Diplomatic Relations, 1961, consider
How many of the above statements are the following statements:
correct? 1. It was drafted under the aegis of the
(a) Only one United Nations.
(b) Only two 2. The premises of the diplomatic
(c) All three missions and the private residence of
(d) None the diplomats cannot be searched by
the host country without the
9. With reference to the Indian Ocean Rim permission of the head of the mission.
Association (IORA), consider the following 3. All the members of the United Nations
statements: are party to the Vienna Convention.
1. It is mandatory for the member states How many of the above statements are
of the IORA to adhere to the principles correct?
enshrined in the Charter of the
(a) Only one
Association.
(b) Only two
2. The secretariat of the IORA is hosted
by the Government of the Republic of (c) All three
Mauritius. (d) None

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12. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above
1. The World Bank draws its financial is/are correct?
resources primarily from the quota (a) 1 only
subscriptions of its members. (b) 2 only
2. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) (c) Both 1 and 2
exclusively admits the countries that
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
are the members of UN Economic and
Social Commission for Asia and the
Pacific. 15. With reference to the Carbon Nanoflorets,
3. The Asian Infrastructure Investment consider the following statements:
Bank (AIIB) was proposed by China to 1. The unique nanostructure is
improve the economic and social composed of the carbon atoms
outcomes in Asia. arranged in a distinctive flower-like
How many of the above statements are morphology.
correct? 2. They can absorb infrared, visible and
(a) Only one ultraviolet light.
(b) Only two 3. They can offer a sustainable solution
(c) All three for heat generation.
(d) None How many of the above statements are
correct?
13. With reference to the Solomon Islands, (a) Only one
consider the following statements: (b) Only two
1. It is located in the south-western (c) All three
region of the Pacific Ocean. (d) None
2. It consists of a double chain of
volcanic islands and coral atolls in
16. Consider the following:
Melanesia.
1. Rodenticide
3. India has set-up a permanent military
base in the Solomon Islands to 2. Production of phosphates
counter China’s ‘String of Pearls’ 3. Incendiary weapon
strategy. 4. Smoke-screen to hide troop
How many of the above statements are movements
correct? How many of the above are the
(a) Only one applications of ‘white phosphorus’?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) All three (b) Only two
(d) None (c) Only three
(d) All four
14. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Fast Radio Bursts (FRBs):
17. With reference to ‘osteoporosis’, consider
1. The FRBs are the dense remnants of
the following statements:
supermassive stars that have
1. Osteoporosis leads to inflammation in
exploded as supernovae.
the joints and ligaments of the spine.
2. The sources of the FRBs include
highly magnetic neutron stars, called 2. Men are at a higher risk of developing
magnetars. osteoporosis, than women.

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Which of the statements given above (b) High-frequency sound emitted from
is/are correct? the supersonic missiles.
(a) 1 only (c) Movement or orientation of an
(b) 2 only organism in response to sound
(c) Both 1 and 2 stimuli.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) A form of acoustic levitation used in
advanced transportation systems.

18. Consider the following statements with

reference to the International Space 21. With reference to the Insolvency and
Station (ISS): Bankruptcy Code, 2016, consider the
following statements:
1. The ISS is located in the geostationary
orbit of the Earth. 1. The minimum amount of default after
which the creditor or the debtor could
2. It is an inhabitable spacecraft that
apply for insolvency is ₹10 crores.
can be used to conduct experiments
in a microgravity environment. 2. A resolution plan should be approved
by 66% of the votes by the Committee
3. The Indian Space Research
of Creditors.
Organization is a part of the ISS.
3. The proceeds of liquidation are
How many of the above statements are
distributed among various creditors
correct?
equally.
(a) Only one
How many of the above statements are
(b) Only two
correct?
(c) All three
(a) Only one
(d) None
(b) Only two
(c) All three
19. Consider the following statements with
(d) None
reference to ‘thallium’:
1. This highly toxic metal exists in free
22. With reference to the tax-to-GDP ratio,
elemental form in the nature.
consider the following statements:
2. It has a very pungent smell, leading to
1. A decline in this ratio could signify
nasal irritation.
slowdown in economic growth.
3. Radioactive isotopes of thallium are
2. India’s tax-to-GDP ratio is comparable
used for nuclear medicine scan.
to that of the emerging market
How many of the above statements are
economies.
correct?
Which of the statements given above
(a) Only one
is/are correct?
(b) Only two
(a) 1 only
(c) All three
(b) 2 only
(d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
20. "Phonotaxis" is best described by which of
the following statements?
23. With reference to the Credit Information
(a) A revolutionary technology for
Companies (CICs), consider the following
encoding information, using sound
statements:
waves in communication devices.
1. These are regulated by the Securities
and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

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2. The CICs’ reports and credit scores How many of the above statements are
are used to decide credit worthiness of correct?
the borrowers. (a) Only one
3. Lesser the credit score, higher is the (b) Only two
credit worthiness of the borrowers. (c) All three
How many of the above statements are (d) None
correct?
(a) Only one 26. With reference to the Claudia Goldin’s U-
shaped Curve Hypothesis, consider the
(b) Only two
following statements:
(c) All three
1. The upward trend in the U-shaped
(d) None curve is due to a rise in the household
incomes.
24. With reference to the Forex Swap Auction, 2. Women participation in the labour
consider the following statements: force increases with rise in education
1. It is a forex management tool under levels.
which the Reserve Bank of India sells 3. Gender gap in earnings has narrowed
foreign currency in the open market. with the rise of the service sector.
How many of the above statements are
2. Such measures are aimed at reducing
correct?
inflationary pressures on the Indian
(a) Only one
economy.
(b) Only two
Which of the statements given above
(c) All three
is/are correct?
(d) None
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
27. Consider the following factors:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Rising demand for bonds.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Sale of G-secs by the Central Bank
under the open market operations.
25. With reference to the measurement of 3. Increased borrowings by the
employment in India, consider the government.
following statements: How many of the above-mentioned factors
1. The Usual Principal and Subsidiary will result in hardening of the bond
Status assesses the activity status of yields?
an individual during the majority time (a) Only one
in the past one year. (b) Only two

2. Under the Usual Principal Status, the (c) All three

individuals, who have worked for a (d) None
period of more than 30 days during
the reference year, are classified as 28. With reference to the Small Savings
employed. Scheme, consider the following
statements:
3. Under the Current Weekly Status, the
1. Postal deposits and Kisan Vikas Patra
persons are classified as employed if
are part of the Small Savings
they have gainful work for an hour in
Schemes.
the preceding week.

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2. All the collections under the schemes 1. The President of India has the
are accrued into the Public Account of authority to declare and modify the
India. Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statements given above 2. Each State with Scheduled Areas
is/are correct? must establish a Tribes Advisory
(a) 1 only Council.
(b) 2 only 3. The Governor has the authority to
(c) Both 1 and 2 make regulations specific to the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Scheduled Areas.
How many of the above statements are
29. Consider the following statements correct?
regarding the Kaveri river system: (a) Only one
1. Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and (b) Only two
Puducherry are its basin states/UT. (c) All three
2. The Akravati, the Shimsha and the (d) None
Noyil are its important tributaries.
3. Shivsamudram and Hogenakkal
32. With reference to the Protection of
waterfalls are located on this river.
Children from Sexual Offences
How many of the above statements are
(Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the
correct?
following statements:
(a) Only one
1. The Protection of Children from
(b) Only two
Sexual Offences (Amendment) Act,
(c) All three
2019, is gender neutral.
(d) None
2. According to the Act, a child means
any person below the age of sixteen
30. With reference to the Money Bill, consider years.
the following statements:
Which of the statements given above
1. It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha is/are correct?
only, not in the Rajya Sabha.
(a) 1 only
2. It can be introduced only on the
(b) 2 only
recommendation of the Speaker of the
Lok Sabha. (c) Both 1 and 2
3. A Bill to be a Money Bill requires (d) Neither 1 nor 2
certification of the Chairman of the
Rajya Sabha. 33. Consider the following statements about
How many of the above statements are the Comptroller and Auditor-General
correct? (CAG) of India:
(a) Only one 1. The Comptroller and Auditor-General
(b) Only two shall hold office for a term of six years
(c) All three from the date on which he assumes
(d) None such office.
2. The Comptroller and Auditor-General
31. With reference to the Fifth Schedule to shall be eligible for further office
the Constitution of India, consider the under the Government of India, after
following statements: he has ceased to hold his office.

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Which of the statements given above 2. In the 2011 Census, women in the
is/are correct? urban areas exhibited a higher adult
(a) 1 only literacy rate than men in the rural
(b) 2 only areas.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
34. Consider the following statements about
the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. It consist of not more than fifteen (d) Neither 1 nor 2
members in the Lok Sabha.
2. It examines every complaint relating 37. With respect to the “Global Hunger Index
to unethical conduct of a member of 2023”, consider the following statements:
the Lok Sabha, referred to it by the 1. It is jointly published by the United
Speaker. Nations Development Programme
Which of the statements given above (UNDP) and the International
is/are correct? Monetary Fund (IMF).
(a) 1 only 2. India came after the neighbouring
(b) 2 only countries like Pakistan, Bangladesh,
Nepal and Sri Lanka.
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. India has the highest child wasting
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
rate in the world.
How many of the above statements are
35. With respect to the “Global Gender Gap
correct?
Report, 2023”, consider the following
(a) Only one
statements:
(b) Only two
1. It is released by the United Nations
Development Programme (UNDP). (c) All three
2. India has improved 8 places from its (d) None
earlier rank of 135 from the 2022
Index. 38. Consider the following statements:
3. Finland is the only country that has 1. Malnutrition refers to the deficiencies
achieved full gender parity. or excesses in nutrient intake,
How many of the above statements are imbalance of essential nutrients or
correct? impaired nutrient utilization.
(a) Only one 2. Child stunting is calculated by the
(b) Only two share of the children under age five,
who have low weight for their height,
(c) All three
reflecting acute undernutrition.
(d) None
3. Child wasting is calculated by the
share of the children under age five,
36. With respect to the “adult literacy rate in who have low height for their age.
India”, consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are
1. It is the percentage of the people aged correct?
18 years and above, who can both
(a) Only one
read and write with understanding a
(b) Only two
short simple statement about their
everyday life. (c) All three
(d) None

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39. With respect to the “Automated Which of the statements given above
Permanent Academic Account Registry is/are correct?
(APAAR) ID”, consider the following (a) 1 only
statements:
(b) 2 only
1. It is a special ID system only for the
students enrolled in higher education. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. It is part of the ‘One Nation, One (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Student ID initiative’, outlined in the
National Education Policy of 2020. 42. Consider the following statements
3. The registration for creating APAAR ID regarding the Anamalai Tiger Reserve:
is mandatory.
1. It is located in Tamil Nadu and is
How many of the above statements are bordered by the Eravikulam National
correct?
Park on the south-western side.
(a) Only one
2. It is famous for species like orchids
(b) Only two
and kurinchi.
(c) All three
3. The Indian pangolins and the leopard
(d) None
cats are found over here.
How many of the above statements are
40. With respect to the “International
correct?
Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS)”,
consider the following statements: (a) Only one
1. It started under the joint sponsorship (b) Only two
of Sir Dorabji Tata Trust, the (c) All three
Government of India and the United (d) None
Nations.
2. It serves as a regional centre for
Training and Research in Population 43. Consider the following statements
Studies for the ESCAP region. regarding the ‘Antarctic Krill’:
3. It is an autonomous organization of 1. It is declared as one of the
the Ministry of Social Justice and ‘Endangered’ species by the IUCN.
Empowerment. 2. These species are bioluminescent.
How many of the above statements are 3. They feed on phytoplanktons and act
correct? as carbon sink.
(a) Only one
How many of the above statements are
(b) Only two
incorrect?
(c) All three
(a) Only one
(d) None
(b) Only two
(c) All three
41. With respect to the “Pradhan Mantri
Awaas Yojana-Gramin”, consider the (d) None
following statements:
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme, 44. Which of the following statements is/are
launched by the Ministry of Rural correct regarding a phenomenon known
Development. as the “Ball Lightning”?
2. Its objective is to ensure the provision 1. It usually occurs in the upper
of pucca housing for entire rural
atmosphere during thunderstorms.
individuals in India, who are homeless
or living in dilapidated houses by 2. It occurs at the time of intense
2024. electrical activity in the atmosphere.

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Select the correct answer using the code 48. Consider the following statements:
given below: 1. Fungi lack chlorophyll.
(a) 1 only 2. Mushrooms are a type of fungus.
(b) 2 only 3. Mushrooms contain ergosterol.
(c) Both 1 and 2 How many of the above statements are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
(a) Only one
45. Which of the following rivers pass (b) Only two
through the Amazon forests?
(c) All three
1. Madeira
(d) None
2. Negro
3. Purus
49. Consider the following pairs:
4. Orinoco
Select the correct answer using the code S.N. Major ports Location
given below: 1. Shyama Prasad Kandla
(a) 1 and 2 only Mukherjee Port Trust
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only 2. Deendayal Port Trust Kolkata
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Kamarajar Port Ennore
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
How many of the above pairs are correctly
46. “It is a crop native to north-east Brazil matched?
and was introduced in India by the (a) Only one
Portuguese. India is one of the largest (b) Only two
exporters of this crop. It requires a warm (c) All three
and humid climate with well-drained
(d) None
soil.”
The above description refers to which of
the following crops? 50. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding the Central Pollution
(a) Coffee
Control Board (CPCB)?
(b) Cotton
1. It is a statutory body constituted
(c) Cashew
under the Air (Prevention and Control
(d) Coconut
of Pollution) Act, 1981.
2. It provides technical assistance and
47. Which of the following statements is/are guidance to the State Boards relating
correct regarding the Aralam Wildlife
to the problems of water and air
Sanctuary?
pollution.
1. It is located in the Eastern Ghats.
Select the correct answer using the code
2. The vegetation in the Sanctuary
given below:
ranges from semi-evergreen type to
(a) 1 only
deciduous type.
(b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answers &
Explanations
of

TEST ID: 0299

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)

CA: November 2023

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ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF

CA: November 2023
GS Paper-I: (0299)

1. Answer: (d) prominence as a distinguished Sikh

Explanation:
 Theyyam, also known as Kaliyattom,
is a traditional folk dance ritual
practised in northern Kerala and
certain regions of Karnataka.
 In the neighbouring Tulunadu region of
Karnataka, a similar practice, called
Bhuta Kola, is observed. Over time, this
ritual has transformed into a socio-
religious ceremony rooted in the
worship of deities and heroes.
 The villages were traditionally obliged to
organize Theyyam as an act of
appeasement towards the gods,
goddesses and the spirits of the
departed heroes, earning it the name
Thirayattom, signifying the dance of the
village.
 Theyyam is performed by the
individuals from various castes and
tribes, such as Pulayar, Vannan,
Malayan, Velan and Kalanaadi.
 There are around 456 documented
types of Theyyams, primarily a male
performance tradition, except for the
Devakkoothu Theyyam, which is the
only Theyyam ritual performed by
women.
 The ritual performance consists of
different segments, with the initial part
known as Vellattam or Thottam. This
ceremonial dance involves a chorus
and the use of various musical
instruments, such as Chenda,
Elathalam, Kurumkuzal and
Veekkuchenda.
2. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 Baba Banda Singh Bahadur, originally
named Lachman Dev, rose to
warrior and the commander of the
Khalsa army. His journey into Sikhism
underwent a transformative phase when
he became a devoted disciple of Guru
Gobind Singh, who bestowed upon him
the name Gurbaksh Singh.
 Banda Singh Bahadur's life took a
significant turn when he arrived in
Khanda (Sonipat), where he formed a
military force and initiated a struggle
against the Mughal empire. Upon
consolidating his authority in Punjab,
he implemented a series of reforms,
including the abolition of the oppressive
Zamindari system, ensuring property
rights for the tillers of the land.
Additionally, he (Banda Singh
Bahadur) introduced the Nanak Shahi
coins, reflecting his commitment to
the Sikh values.
 In terms of early conquests, Banda
Singh Bahadur led the Sikh army in
significant battles, such as the Battle of
Sonipat and the victorious Battle of
Samana, in 1709, over the Mughals,
leading to the capture of the Mughal
city of Samana.
 These triumphs allowed the Sikhs to
expand their influence into the Cis-
Sutlej areas of Punjab, with Banda
Singh Bahadur establishing his capital
in Mukhlisgarh, renaming it Lohgarh,
meaning the 'fortress of steel.'
 However, the rise of Banda Singh
Bahadur and the Sikhs in Punjab
raised concerns for the Mughal Emperor
Bahadur Shah, disrupting
communication between Delhi and
Lahore.

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 In response, the Mughal empire
organized a formidable force to subdue
and eliminate Banda Singh Bahadur.
 Despite initial successes, the Sikhs
found themselves besieged by an
overwhelming Mughal army, leading to
a series of events that culminated in the
capture and execution of Banda Singh
Bahadur and 700 of his followers, in
Delhi in 1716, during the reign of the
Mughal emperor Farrukhsiyar.
 After Banda Singh Bahadur, the Sikh
polity, once again, became leaderless
and later got divided into two
groups—Bandai (Liberal) and Tat
Khalsa (Orthodox). This rift among the
followers ended in 1721 under the
influence of Bhai Mani Singh.
 Later, in 1784, Kapur Singh
Faizullapuria organized the Sikhs under
Dal Khalsa, with the objective of uniting
the followers of Sikhism, politically,
culturally and economically.
3. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 Hire Benakal, in Karnataka, stands as
India's largest megalithic site,
featuring dolmens and rock paintings
dating back to the 1st millennium
BCE and the Iron Age. Constructed
over 2,000 years ago, many of its
megalithic structures are dated between
800 BCE and 200 BCE, providing
insights into the culture responsible for
India's earliest large-scale monuments.
 Pattadakal, also in Karnataka, boasts
of nine Hindu temples and one Jain
temple constructed during the 7th
and the 8th centuries under the
Chalukya dynasty. Built in the Badami
Chalukya style, which harmoniously
blends influences from both northern
and southern India, these temples,
including the Virupaksha Temple,
showcase the evolution of the Hindu
temple architecture. Aihole, Badami and
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Pattadakal, built between the 6th and
the 8th centuries under the Chalukya
dynasty, demonstrate the progression of
the Hindu temple design with rock-cut
and free-standing temples, influencing
the later temple architecture. The
temples at Pattadakal are already
recognized as a World Heritage Site.
 Dhordo, situated in the Banni region
within the Rann of Kutch, symbolizes
Gujarat's progress and growing pride.
The village's distinctive round houses,
known as the Bhungas, have become
popular attractions for the tourists.
Dhordo is particularly renowned for
hosting the three-month-long Rann
Utsav, a cultural celebration
highlighting the traditional art, music
and crafts of the region.
4. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 Jon Fosse, from Norway, secured the
Nobel Prize in Literature, 2023, for his
innovative plays and prose, often
described as giving "voice to the
unsayable." His works, encompassing
plays, novels, poetry collections, essays
and children's books, are written in the
Norwegian Nynorsk language. Fosse's
influence extends globally, with his
plays being among the most widely
staged in the world. Noteworthy among
his major works is his debut novel,
'Red, Black' (Raudt, Svart), published in
1983, which delves into the themes,
such as suicide, through emotionally
raw story-telling that moves back and
forth in time and perspectives.
 The Nobel Prize in Literature,
established by the will of Alfred Nobel in
1895, is one of the Five Nobel Prizes.
Administered by the Swedish Academy
in Stockholm (Sweden), it is presented
annually to an author from any country
for producing the most outstanding
work in an idealistic direction.
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 Rabindranath Tagore was the first
Indian to receive the Nobel Prize in
Literature in 1913 for his collection
'Gitanjali,' marking the nation's
inaugural Nobel Prize and making him
the first non-westerner to receive this
prestigious honour. Tagore's recognition
was based on the profound sensitivity,
freshness and beauty of his verse,
which skilfully incorporated his poetic
thought into the western literature,
using his own English words. To this
day, he remains the sole Indian laureate
of the Nobel Prize.
5. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 In 1512, Quli Qutb Shah took control
from the Bahamani kingdom and laid
the foundation of Golconda, a
fortified city. Hyderabad was
officially founded in 1591 under the
leadership of Mohammed Quli Qutub
Shah, the fifth Sultan of the Qutb
Shahi dynasty.
 Golconda was captured by Aurangazeb
in 1687, marking a significant shift in
the region's rule.
 Asaf Jah I, the Viceroy of the Mughal
empire, declared himself the Nizam and
established independent rule over the
Deccan. Hyderabad became a Hyderabad, referred to as "Operation
prominent capital city under successive
Nizams from the Asaf Jahi dynasty. In
1798, a Subsidiary Alliance was forged
between the Nizam and the British East
India Company, further influencing the
region. Hyderabad became the first
state to come under the Subsidiary
Alliance Policy of the colonial
government.
 Despite a predominantly Hindu
population, Hyderabad was under the
rule of Nizam Osman Ali Khan, a
Muslim ruler. The political landscape
was characterized by the dominance of
a Muslim elite, including the influential
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pro-Nizam Muslim party, Ittehad-ul
Muslimeen.
 In June, 1947, Nizam Osman Ali Khan
expressed Hyderabad's desire to regain
independence upon the transfer of
power, a declaration rejected by the
Government of India.
 India argued that Hyderabad's strategic
location posed a potential threat to the
national security. A temporary
Standstill Agreement was established,
preventing Hyderabad from joining
Pakistan provisionally.
 Negotiations between India and
Hyderabad were initiated, with
intermediaries representing each side.
 In June, 1948, Lord Mountbatten
proposed a “Heads of Agreement”
deal, offering Hyderabad the status of
an autonomous dominion within
India, which was rejected by the
Nizam.
 The Nizam sought arbitration from the
then US President Harry S. Truman,
and intervention from the United
Nations. A communist-led uprising in
Telangana escalated in 1948, creating a
situation difficult for the Nizam to
suppress.
 The Indian Army intervened in response
to the deteriorating situation in
Polo" or "Operation Caterpillar."
Concerns about Hyderabad arming
itself with support from Pakistan led to
the deployment of the Indian troops.
Negotiations ensued, culminating in the
annexation of Hyderabad. The Nizam
retained his position as the head of the
state, and Hyderabad was integrated
into India despite protests and criticism
from other nations.
6. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Syed Ahmad Khan (1817-1898):
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 In the 19th century, Syed Ahmad Khan
received a multifaceted education,
encompassing both religious teachings,
particularly the Quran, and the western
sciences.
 His influential booklet, "Asbab-e-
Baghawat-e-Hind" (Reasons for the
Indian Revolt of 1857), brought
attention to British ignorance,
expansionist policies and the exclusion
of the Indians from the Legislative
Council, fostering growing discontent.
 Notably, the non-official Indian
members were integrated into the
Viceroy's Council in 1861, and Syed
Ahmad Khan himself became a nominee
to the Viceroy's Legislative Council in
1878.
 He aligned with Dadabhai Naoroji and
Surendra Nath Banerjee, advocating for
Indian representation in the
government and civil services.
 Emphasizing interfaith understanding,
he authored a "Commentary on the Holy
Bible." He advocated for modern
scientific education among the Muslims,
challenging societal superstitions and
regressive customs.
 He founded the Scientific Society of
Aligarh in 1863, modelling it after the
Royal Society of England, promoting
scientific discourse in English and
Urdu. He also established various
educational institutes, notably the
Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College
(MAOC) in 1875, later evolving into the
Aligarh Muslim University.
 Syed Ahmad Khan spearheaded the
Aligarh Movement, the first national
awakening among the Muslims. He
collaborated with figures like Khwaja
Altaf Hussain Ali, Maulvi Wazir Ahmed
and Maulvi Shibli Numani. He aimed at
introducing social reforms within the
Indian Muslim community, challenging
practices like polygamy and advocating
for widow remarriage.
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 Syed Ahmad Khan's journal, Tehzeeb-
ul-Akhlaq (Social Reformer), initiated in
1870, served as a platform for
spreading awareness on modern
subjects and promoting reforms in the
Muslim society. Through various
writings, he advocated for a
reinterpretation of the Muslim ideology,
emphasizing reason and scientific
inquiry as integral to being a good
Muslim.
7. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 ‘Gaya’ and ‘Bodh Gaya’ are situated
along the Phalgu river (in the ancient
texts known as the Niranjana river),
where, as per the legends, Ram and Sita
once sought refuge along its river-
banks. It is a right bank tributary of the
Ganga river.
 It was near Phalgu that Prince
Siddhartha achieved enlightenment,
becoming the Buddha.
 In Buddhism, the term ‘Ashtashtanas’
signifies the Eight Great Places
connected to the pivotal events in the
life of Lord Buddha.
 These include: (i) Lumbini; (ii) Bodh
Gaya; (iii) Sarnath; and (iv) Kusinagar;
and to these foundational four sites,
additional four are included: (v)
Sravasti; (vi) Rajgriha; (vii) Vaishali; and
(viii) Sankasya.
 The Mahabodhi Temple holds the
UNESCO World Heritage status and is
located in Bodh Gaya (during the
Buddha’s time it was known as
Uruwela), Bihar.
 Around 250 BCE, during the Mauryan
dynasty, king Ashoka visited Bodh Gaya
to establish a monastery and shrine,
although the monastery no longer
exists. The diamond throne, which
Ashoka erected at the base of the Bodhi
tree, remains as a historical relic.
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 In the Sunga period (185 BCE – 73
BCE), additional structures were added,
including columns with pot-shaped
bases around the diamond throne, a
railing encircling the Mahabodhi
Temple, as well as intricately carved
panels and medallions.
 During the Gupta period (4th century
CE – 6th century CE), the temple's
railing was extended and adorned with
coarse granite. It was further
embellished with foliate ornaments,
small figures and Stupas.
 Under the Pala empire, in the north-
east of India, Mahayana Buddhism saw
revival between the 8th century and the
12th century. After the Pala empire's
defeat by the Sena dynasty, Buddhism's
prominence waned, and the Mahabodhi
Temple fell into disrepair.
 In the 13th century, Muslim Turk
armies invaded Bodh Gaya, resulting in
further neglect of the temple.
 The last patron, Sariputra, left for Nepal
in the 15th century, and the temple's
maintenance was assumed by the local
landholders.
 In the 13th century, Burmese
Buddhists constructed a temple with
the same name, modelled after the
original Mahabodhi Temple.

8. Answer: (b)
Explanation:

The Levant is an approximate historical geographical term referring to a large area in the
Eastern Mediterranean region of West Asia. It includes present-day Israel, Jordan, Lebanon,
Syria, the Palestinian territories and most of Turkey, south-west of the middle Euphrates.
The Rafah border crossing between the Gaza Strip and Egypt has opened for the first time since
the Israel-Hamas war broke out in early October, 2023. The crossing is the main entrance and
exit point to the tiny Palestinian enclave from Egypt.

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9. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Indian Ocean Rim Association
(IORA):
 It is an intergovernmental organization
of the states on the rim of the Indian
Ocean.
 It was established in 1997 with an aim
to strengthen regional cooperation and
sustainable development within the
Indian Ocean region.
 The IORA’s apex body is the Council of
Foreign Ministers (COM) which meets
annually.
 The Council of Ministers has
established a ‘Troika’ consisting of the
chair, vice-chair and previous chair.
 All sovereign states of the Indian Ocean
Rim are eligible for the membership of
the Association.
 To become members, the states must
adhere to the principles and objectives
enshrined in the Charter of the
Association.
 The Secretariat of the IORA is hosted by
the Government of the Republic of
Mauritius, which is based in the Cyber
City, Ebène (Mauritius).
Note: Pakistan is not a member of the
IORA.
10. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The World Health Organization (WHO):
 Founded in 1948, WHO is a United
Nations agency that connects nations,
partners and people to promote health,
keep the world safe and serve the
vulnerable – so everyone, everywhere
can attain the highest level of health.
 The Triple Billion targets are an
ambitious initiative to improve the
health of billions by 2023.
 The goals of the Triple Billions are
simple and straightforward. By 2023,
WHO proposes to achieve: (a) 1 billion
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more people benefitting from universal
health coverage; (b) 1 billion more
people better protected from health
emergencies; and (c) 1 billion more
people enjoying better health and well-
being.
 Its headquarter is situated at Geneva
(Switzerland).
11. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic
Relations, 1961:
 It is an international treaty which puts
forth a framework for diplomatic
interactions between independent
nations and aims to ensure the
‘development of friendly relations among
the nations.’
 It is fundamental to the conduct of
foreign relations and ensures that the
diplomats can conduct their duties
without threat of influence by the host
government.
 It was drafted under the aegis of the
United Nations.
 The premises of a diplomatic mission
(including the private residence of the
diplomats) are inviolable and must not
be entered by the host country, except
by the permission of the head of the
mission.
 The diplomats must not be liable to any
form of arrest or detention.
 The diplomats are immune from the
civil and criminal jurisdiction of the
host state, with exceptions for
professional activities outside the
diplomat's official functions.
Note: South Sudan is not a party to the
Vienna Convention.
12. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 The World Bank acquires most of its
financial resources by borrowing on
the ‘international bond market’.
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 The Asian Infrastructure Investment
Bank (AIIB) was proposed by China to
improve the economic and social
outcomes in Asia.
 The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is
a regional development bank,
established in 1966, which is
headquartered in Manila (Philippines).
The Bank admits the members of the
UN Economic and Social Commission
for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP)
and non-regional developed
countries.
Note: It is the International Monetary Fund
(IMF) which acquires most of its funds from
the quota subscriptions of its members.
13. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
About the Solomon Islands:
 The Solomon Islands is a country in the
south-western Pacific Ocean.
 It consists of a double chain of volcanic
islands and coral atolls in Melanesia.
 The country comprises most of the
Solomons chain— except for Buka and
Bougainville, two islands at the north-
western end that form an autonomous
region of Papua New Guinea.
 Once a British protectorate, the
Solomon Islands achieved independence
as a republic in 1978.
 Honiara, on the north coast of the
Guadalcanal Island, is Solomon Islands’
capital and the largest city.
Note: There is no military base set-up by
India in the Solomon Islands.
14. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
● A Fast Radio Burst (FRB) is a bright
and brief burst of electromagnetic
radiation (light) seen in the radio-
wave frequencies. It usually lasts
thousandths of a second.
● The exact cause of the FRB is unknown,
but the sources include highly magnetic
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neutron stars, called magnetars,
colliding neutron star binaries and
merging white dwarfs.
● At their sources, the FRBs have a lot of
energy. In a millisecond, some FRBs
can blast out as much energy as the
Sun emits in three Earth days. Because
they come from billions of light-years
away, the FRBs lose energy as they
travel, so when they reach the Earth,
their signal is much less powerful.
15. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
● Carbon nanoflorets are a unique
nanostructure composed of the carbon
atoms arranged in a distinctive flower-
like morphology.
● They can absorb infrared, visible and
ultraviolet light, and convert it into heat
with exceptional efficiency, unlike the
traditional solar-thermal conversion
materials that only absorb visible and
ultraviolet light.
● Their cone-like shape minimizes
reflection, allowing for maximum light
absorption. Most of the light that falls
on the material is reflected internally.
● They can offer a sustainable solution for
heat generation, heating homes and
sterilizing surfaces in the hospitals
without relying on fossil fuels.
16. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
● White phosphorus is a white to yellow
waxy solid with a garlic like odour. It
ignites spontaneously in the air at
temperatures above 30°C and continues
to burn until it is fully oxidized or until
deprived of oxygen.
● Burning phosphorus produces dense,
white and irritating smoke, containing
mixed phosphorus oxides and intense
heat, reaching up to 815°C, which can
cause severe burns, making it one of
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the most lethal weapons in military
operations.
● Applications:
○ Production of phosphoric acid,
phosphates and other compounds.
○ Used as a rodenticide and in
fireworks.
○ Used as a smoke-screen to hide
troop movements on the ground.
○ Used as an incendiary weapon
(munitions designed to set fire to
objects or cause burn or respiratory
injury to the people through the
action of flame and heat), such as
grenades and artillery shells.
17. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
● Osteoporosis literally means "porous
bone”. It is a bone disease that causes
a loss of the bone density and bone
mass, and leads to bone weakening.
● Impact: The bones become porous (less
dense) and brittle, and fracture can
occur with minor fall, bump or sudden
movement. It also causes changes in
posture and the person stoops.
● Occurrence: Prevalence of
osteoporosis increases with ageing.
Women are more at risk of
developing osteoporosis, than men,
because the hormone changes that
happen at the menopause directly
affect the bone density. The female
hormone oestrogen is essential for
healthy bones. After the menopause,
the oestrogen levels fall, which can lead
to a rapid decrease in the bone density.
18. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
● The International Space Station (ISS)
is a modular space station (habitable
artificial satellite) and the single
largest man-made structure in the
‘Low Earth Orbit’.
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● Launched in 1998, it is a multinational
collaborative project involving five
participating space agencies:
○ NASA (United States)
○ Roscosmos (Russia)
○ JAXA (Japan)
○ ESA (Europe)
○ CSA (Canada)
● The Indian Space Research
Organization (ISRO) is not a part of
the ISS.
● It circles the Earth in roughly 92
minutes and completes 15.5 orbits per
day, hosting a maximum of seven
astronauts.
● It serves as a microgravity and space
environment research laboratory in
which scientific research is conducted
in astrobiology, astronomy,
meteorology, physics and other fields.
19. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
● Thallium is a highly toxic metal that is
an abundant element on the Earth’s
crust. It does not exist in free
elemental form in the nature, and
exists in the form of ores with other
elements, mostly potassium.
● Thallium compounds are tasteless,
odourless and colourless, which make
it particularly dangerous for human
consumption. Thallium poisoning can
occur through various routes, including
ingestion, inhalation, or skin contact
with thallium compounds.
● Applications:
○ Widely used in making various
electronics, such as, photoresistor,
rectifier, detectors in infrared
devices and in gamma radiation
detection devices.
○ Used in the pharmaceutical industry
to make various drugs and
medicines. Radioactive isotope
thallium-201 is used for nuclear
medicine scan.
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20. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
● Phonotaxis is a behaviour exhibited
by certain organisms in response to
sound stimuli. It refers to their
capacity to detect and move towards or
away from a specific sound or a signal.
There are two types of phonotaxis:
Positive and Negative.
● Positive Phonotaxis: Its purpose is
attraction, and it usually happens when
the females of a particular species
(crickets, moths, frogs etc.) are attracted
to the sounds made by the males, for
mating purposes.
● Negative Phonotaxis: Serves to repel or
warn, it is a survival mechanism that
helps the organisms avoid potentially
dangerous situations or stimuli in their
environment. For example, if a
particular frequency or pattern of sound
is associated with a predator, prey
animals might exhibit negative
phonotaxis by moving away from the
source of the sound to seek safety.
21. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
About the Insolvency and Bankruptcy
Code (IBC), 2016:
● When a corporate debtor (CD), or a
company, which has taken loans to run
its business, defaults on its loan
repayment, either the creditor (a bank
or an entity that has lent money for
operational purposes) or the debtor can
apply for the initiation of a Corporate
Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP)
under Section 6 of the IBC. Earlier, the
minimum amount of default, after
which the creditor or the debtor
could apply for insolvency was ₹1
lakh, but considering the stress on
the companies amid the pandemic,
the government increased the
minimum amount to ₹1 crore.
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● To apply for insolvency, one has to
approach a stipulated ‘adjudicating
authority’ (AA) under the IBC. Various
benches of the National Company Law
Tribunal (NCLT) across India are the
designated AAs.
● The Tribunal has 14 days to admit or
reject the application or has to provide a
reason if the admission is delayed. The
CIRP or the resolution process begins
once an application is admitted by the
AA. The amended mandatory deadline
for the completion of the resolution
process is 330 days.
● Once the application is admitted, the
AA appoints an ‘interim resolution
professional’ (IRP), registered with an
insolvency professional agency (IPA).
The IRPs could be experienced and
registered chartered accountants,
company secretaries, lawyers and so on.
Once appointed by the Tribunal, the IRP
takes control of the defaulter’s assets
and operations, collects information
about the state of the company from the
Information Utilities (repositories
keeping track of the debtor’s credit
history), and finally coordinates the
constitution of a Committee of
Creditors, or a CoC.
● A CoC, comprising all (unrelated)
financial creditors of a defaulting
company, is the most important
business decision-making body in every
CIRP, as it decides whether the
defaulting company is viable enough to
be restructured and given a fresh start,
or liquidated. It also appoints an
insolvency professional (IP), who can
either be the same as the IRP or a new
professional, who looks after the
operations of the company during the
CIRP.
● The IP invites and examines the
proposals for a resolution plan for the
company, which could include
restructuring of debt, merger or
demerger of the company. It submits
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eligible plans to the CoC, which can ● The proceeds of liquidation are
approve a plan if it receives 66% of the distributed among the secured
voting share of the committee members. creditors, unsecured creditors,
If the CoC fails to approve any government dues, preferential
resolution plan, the company goes for shareholders etc., in the respective
liquidation. order of priority.

22. Answer: (a)

Explanation:
About the tax-to-GDP ratio:
● The tax-to-GDP ratio represents the proportion of a country's tax revenue concerning its
Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
● A decline in this ratio could signify a slowdown in economic growth.

Facts related to tax collections:

● As of the fiscal year 2023, India's tax-to-GDP ratio stands at 11.1%.
● Of this, direct taxes constitute approximately 6% of the GDP, while indirect taxes account for
5.1% of the GDP.
However, India's tax-to-GDP ratio falls short of the emerging market economy average,
which stands at 21%, as well as the OECD (The Organization for Economic Co-operation
and Development) average of 34%.

23. Answer: (a) cards. Based on the collected data, the

Explanation:
Credit Information Companies (CICs):
● These are regulated by the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI), under the Credit
Information Companies (Regulation)
Act, 2005 (CICRA 2005).
● Functions: The CICs collect public
data, credit transactions and payment
histories of the individuals and the
companies regarding loans and credit
CICs form a credit report and generate a
score.
● Importance: The banks and the NBFCs
(The Non-Banking Financial
Companies) refer to the CIC’s report and
credit score to decide borrowers’
creditworthiness before granting a loan
or issuing a credit card.
● A customer can get a loan at a
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score is high. If the credit score is 25. Answer: (a)

low — due to defaults on earlier loans
— he may not get a loan or a credit
card.
● TransUnion, CIBIL Ltd, Equifax India
and CRIF High Mark are some
prominent CICs in India.
24. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
About the Forex Sell/Buy Swap Auction:
● It is a forex management tool under
which the Central Bank (The Reserve
Bank of India, in case of India) sells
foreign currency (US Dollar) to the
banks and then buys the same from
the banks at a later date.
● Thus, under the Dollar-Rupee sell/buy
swap, the RBI sold $5 billion dollars to
the Indian banks in exchange of rupees
and immediately entered into an
agreement with the dollar-buying
banks, promising to buy dollars at a
later date.
Significance of the move:
● The issuance of forex sell/buy swap
reduced the availability of rupee in the
Indian markets and reduced
inflationary pressures on the Indian
economy.
● This helps to control inflation without
increasing the Repo Rate which hurts
the businesses. The issuance of forex
buy/sell swap also strengthened the
demand of the rupee vis-a-vis the
dollars.
Explanation:
Unemployment is measured through
various labour force surveys using the
following indicators:
● Usual Principal Status (PS): It
measures the status of activity on
which a person has spent relatively
longer time of the preceding 365 days
prior to the date of survey. For
example, an individual, who is
reported to have been employed for
more than a total of six months, will
be treated as employed.
● Usual Principal and Subsidiary Status
(PS+SS): It is a more inclusive
measure, as compared to the Usual
Principal Status, since it also
measures the activity status of an
individual during the non-majority
time. Under this approach, all
individuals, who have worked for a
minor period of not less than 30 days
during the reference year, are classified
as employed.
● Current Weekly Status (CWS): In this
approach, current activity status
relating to the week preceding the
date of survey and those persons are
classified as unemployed who did not
have gainful work even for an hour
on any day in the preceding week.
The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS),
conducted by the National Statistical Office
(NSO), measures the unemployment status
using the ‘Usual Principal and Subsidiary
Status’ (PS+SS) and the ‘Current Weekly
Status’ (CWS) annually.

26. Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Goldin’s ‘U’-shaped Curve Hypothesis On Female Labour Participation Rate:
● Claudia Goldin (Recently, the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences has been awarded
to her) had stated that the Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR) exhibits a U-
shape during the process of economic development. The downward trend in ‘U’ was due to
rise in the household incomes because of expansion of the markets and shift from
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● However, when the educational level rises and the economy moves towards the service
sector, as the value of women’s time in the market increases further, they move back into
the paid labour force.

● Gender inequality at work: Goldin’s findings also showed that despite increasing FLPR,
with the rise of the service sector, the gender gap in earnings remained high. In fact,
the difference between men and women workers in the same occupation rose with the birth
of the first child.
Reasons for Bond Yield increase (Yield
27. Answer: (b) hardening):

Explanation: ● Increased inflation.

Bond Yield: It is the return received by the ● Sale of G-secs by the Central Bank
under the ‘open market operations’.
investor on the capital invested on a
particular bond. The yield of the bond ● Increased borrowings by the
depends on the market value of the bond. government (Increased fiscal deficit).

● If the market value increases above the Reasons for Bond Yield increase (Yield
face value of the bond (the price at softening):
which it was purchased in the primary ● Deflationary trends in the economy.
market when it was issued), then the ● Purchase of the G-secs by the Central
rate of return on the purchase of the Bank under the ‘open market
bond in the secondary market operations’.
decreases. This phenomenon is often
● Reduced borrowings by the government.
known as the ‘softening of the bond
yields’. Increase in demand for the bonds results
in a rise in the bond prices, thus
● On the other hand, if the market value reducing (softening) their yields.
decreases below the face value of the
bond, then the rate of returns on the
purchase of the bond in the secondary 28. Answer: (c)
market increases. This phenomenon is Explanation:
known as the ‘hardening of the bond
Small Savings Schemes:
yields’.

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The Government formulated a basket of Left bank Right bank

Small Savings Schemes to meet the varying tributaries of the tributaries of the
needs of different groups of small investors. Kaveri river Kaveri river
These include:
Herangi Laxmanatirtha
● Postal deposits.
Hemavati Kabini
● Savings certificates [National (Small)
Savings Certificate and Kisan Vikas Shimsha Suvarnavati
Patra (KVP)].
Akravati Bhavani (2nd longest
● Social Security Schemes [Public of Tamil Nadu)
Provident Fund (PPF) and Senior
Citizens’ Savings Scheme]. Amravati

● Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme. Noyil

All the collections under the schemes are

accrued into a National Small Savings 30. Answer: (a)
Fund (NSSF) in the Public Account of India.
Explanation:

Properties of a Money Bill:

29. Answer: (c)
 It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha
Explanation:
only, not in the Rajya Sabha.
The Kaveri River System:
 It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha
 The Kaveri river rises at Talakaveri in only by a Minister.
the Brahmagiri range in the Western
 It can be introduced only on the
Ghats, Kodagu district of the state of
recommendation of the President.
Karnataka.
 It cannot be amended or rejected by the
 Basin states/UT: Tamil Nadu,
Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha should
Karnataka, Kerala, and the Union
return the Bill with or without
Territory of Puducherry, draining an
recommendations, which may be
area of 81,155 sq.km.
rejected or accepted by the Lok Sabha.
 It is bounded by the Western Ghats on
 It can be detained by the Rajya Sabha
the west, by the Eastern Ghats on the
for a maximum of 14 days only.
east and the south, and by ridges
separating it from the Krishna river  It requires the certification of the Lok
basin and the Pennar river basin on the Sabha Speaker when transmitted to the
north. Rajya Sabha.

 The Shivsamudram waterfall (in  It is sent for the approval of the

Karnataka) and the Hogenakkal President even if it approved by the Lok
waterfall (in Tamil Nadu) are the most Sabha only. There is no provision of a
important waterfalls on this river. joint sitting of both Houses in this
regard.
 The Shivsamudram waterfall has twin
waterfalls: (i) Gaganachukki; and (ii)  If this Bill is defeated in the Lok Sabha,
Bharachukki. then the entire Council of Ministers has
to resign.

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 It can be rejected or accepted, but
cannot be returned for reconsideration
by the President (because earlier
permission has been taken from him).
 The Speaker plays a powerful role in
the matter of the Money Bill. If any
question arises whether a Bill
introduced in the Lok Sabha is a
Money Bill or not, then, in such
circumstances, the Speaker of the
Lok Sabha has the authority to
declare and certify the Bill as a
Money Bill, before transmitting it to
the Rajya Sabha.
31. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Key Features of the 5th Schedule Areas:
 The Tribes Advisory Council:
o Each State with Scheduled Areas
must establish a Tribes Advisory
Council, consisting of not more than
twenty members, of whom, as nearly
as may be, three-fourths shall be
the representatives of the Scheduled
Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of
the State.
o This Council advises the Governor
on the matters related to the welfare
and development of the Scheduled
Tribes in the State.
 Regulations:
o The Governor of the State has the
authority to make regulations specific
to the Scheduled Areas.
o These regulations can include
restrictions on land transfer, land
allotment and the regulation of
money- lending practices, among
other aspects, to protect the
interests of the Scheduled Tribes.
 Laws and Their Application:
o The Governor can issue notifications
exempting or modifying the
application of certain laws passed by
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the Parliament or the State
Legislature in the Scheduled Areas.
o Additionally, the President has the
authority to declare, modify, or
rescind the Scheduled Areas.
32. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 Section 2(1)(d) of the Protection of
Children from Sexual Offences
(Amendment) Act, 2019, (The POCSO
Act) defines: “child” means any
person below the age of eighteen
years.
 Any person (including a child) can be
prosecuted for engaging in a sexual act
with a child, irrespective of whether the
latter consented to it.
 The Act does not recognize consensual
sexual acts among children or between
a child and an adult.
 The Act is gender neutral.
33. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Comptroller and Auditor-General shall
hold office for a term of six years from the
date on which he assumes such office.
The Comptroller and Auditor-General
shall not be eligible for further office
either under the Government of India or
under the Government of any State after
he has ceased to hold his office.
34. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Composition of the Ethics
Committee in the Lok Sabha:
 The Ethics Committee consists of not
more than 15 members, which are
nominated by the Speaker.
 The Committee holds office for a term
not exceeding one year.
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The Functions of the Ethics Committee:
 To examine every complaint relating to
unethical conduct of a member of the Lok
Sabha, referred to it by the Speaker,
and make such recommendations as it
may deem fit.
 To formulate a Code of Conduct for the
members and suggest amendments or
additions to the Code of Conduct from
time to time.
About:
36. Answer: (b)
 The Code of Conduct for the members of
the Lok Sabha is not present.
According to the Index, no country has
yet achieved full gender parity, although
the top nine countries (Iceland, Norway,
Finland, New Zealand, Sweden, Germany,
Nicaragua, Namibia and Lithuania) have
closed at least 80% of their gap. For the
14th year running, Iceland (91.2%) takes
the top position. It also continues to be the
only country to have closed more than 90%
of its gender gap.
Explanation:

 No such record is maintained by the Adult Literacy Rate:

Lok Sabha; the members have to state
their own interests to the Chairman.
 Since the Code of Conduct and the
Register of Interests is not present, the
Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha is
relatively less effective in maintaining
the moral and ethical conduct of the
members of the Lok Sabha.
35. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
India was ranked 127 among 146
countries in gender parity, up eight
places from last year’s place, in the
Global Gender Gap Report, 2023 of the
World Economic Forum (WEF).
 It is the percentage of population
aged 15 years and over, who can both
read and write with understanding a
short simple statement on his/her
everyday life. Generally, ‘literacy’ also
encompasses ‘numeracy’, the ability to
make simple arithmetic calculations.
 In the 2011 Census, the adult literacy
rate for women in the rural areas stood
at 50.6 per cent, as compared to 76.9
per cent in the urban areas, whereas for
men, the same in the rural areas was
pegged at 74.1 per cent, as compared to
88.3 per cent in the urban areas.

37. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
India’s ranking in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) has slipped from 107th place, out of 121
countries in 2022, to 111th place, out of 125 countries in 2023, according to the report
jointly published by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe. This indicates a worsening
situation with regards to hunger and underlines the ongoing challenges in addressing food
security and malnutrition in the country.

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o India’s ranking is based on a GHI score of 28.7 on a 100-point scale. This categorises India’s
severity of hunger as “serious”.
o The country came after the neighbouring countries, Pakistan (102nd), Bangladesh (81st),
Nepal (69th) and Sri Lanka (60th). However, India fared better than South Asia and Africa
South of the Sahara, which recorded a score of 27 each.
o As per the Iindex, India also has the highest child wasting rate in the world at 18.7 percent,
reflecting acute undernutrition.

38. Answer: (a) o Undernourishment: It is calculated by

Explanation: the share of the population with
Malnutrition refers to the deficiencies or insufficient caloric intake.
excesses in nutrient intake, imbalance of o Child stunting: It is calculated by the
essential nutrients or impaired nutrient share of the children under age five,
utilization. The double burden of who have low height for their age,
malnutrition consists of both reflecting chronic undernutrition.
undernutrition, and overweight and o Child mortality: It is calculated by the
obesity, as well as diet-related non- share of the children who die before
communicable diseases. their fifth birthday, partly reflecting the
Undernutrition manifests in four broad fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and
forms: wasting, stunting, underweight and unhealthy environments.
micronutrient deficiencies.
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o Child wasting: It is calculated by the
share of the children under age five,
who have low weight for their height,
reflecting acute undernutrition.
39. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Automated Permanent Academic
Account Registry (APAAR) ID is a special
ID system to track the academic
progress from pre-primary education to
higher education. It will allow the State
Governments to track literacy rates,
dropout rates and more, helping them
make improvements. It is a part of the “One
Nation, One Student ID initiative”, outlined
in the National Education Policy of 2020.
Every individual will have a unique APAAR
ID, which will be linked to the Academic
Bank Credit (ABC), which is a digital
storehouse that contains information of the
credits earned by the students throughout
their learning journey. With the APAAR ID,
the students would be able to store all their
certificates and credits, whether they come
from formal education or informal learning.
Registration for creating APAAR ID is
voluntary, not mandatory.
40. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The International Institute for Population
Sciences (IIPS) is a prominent institution
dedicated to population studies and
training. It serves as a regional Institute for
Training and Research in Population
Studies for the Economic and Social
Commission for Asia and the Pacific
(ESCAP) region. ESCAP is one of the five
regional commissions under the
jurisdiction of the United Nations Economic
and Social Council. It started in 1956
under the joint sponsorship of Sir Dorabji
Tata Trust, the Government of India and
the United Nations. It is an autonomous
organization of the Ministry of Health
and Family Welfare. It is situated in
Mumbai.
The Objectives of the Institute: The
objectives of the organization are to train
individuals from India and other countries
in demography and related fields, conduct
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scientific research on population issues,
collect and disseminate demographic data,
offer research, training and consultation
services, and organize educational events to
support these goals. Additionally, they
publish journals, research papers, books,
and maintain libraries to advance their
mission.
41. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana – Gramin
has been restructured into PMAY-G.
It was launched in 2016. It is a Centrally
Sponsored Scheme launched by the
Ministry of Rural Development.
 Objective: To ensure the provision of
pucca housing for all individuals who
are homeless or living in dilapidated
houses in the rural areas, except
Delhi and Chandigarh, by 2024,
instead of the previous goal of 2022.
 Funding pattern: Shared between the
Central and the State Governments in
the ratio of 60:40 in the plain areas,
and 90:10 for the north-eastern and the
Himalayan States.
 Eligible beneficiaries: All the houseless
households living in zero, one, or two-
room houses with kutcha walls and
kutcha roofs. Criteria for
Automatic/Compulsory Inclusion:
o Households without shelter;
o Destitute/living on alms;
o Manual scavengers;
o Primitive Tribal Groups; and
o Legally released bonded labourers.
 Selection of the beneficiaries:
Through a three-stage validation: Socio-
Economic and Caste Census 2011;
Gram Sabha; and geo-tagging.
 Benefits: Financial assistance of
₹1,20,000 per unit for plain areas, and
₹1,30,000 per unit for hilly areas,
difficult areas, and Integrated Action
Plan districts.
o Can avail of institutional finance
(loan) of upto ₹70,000 at 3% lower
interest rate.
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o The minimum size of the house shall
be 25 sq m, including a dedicated
area for hygienic cooking.
o In convergence with the Swachh
Bharat Mission Gramin (SBM-G), get
financial assistance of upto ₹12,000
for the construction of toilets.
o In convergence with MGNREGA, the
beneficiary is entitled to employment
as unskilled labour at ₹90.95 per
day for 95 days.
o In convergence with the Pradhan
Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, one LPG
connection per house is provided.
o Payments are made electronically
directly to the bank accounts or post
office accounts that are linked to
Aadhaar.
 Exclusion: The candidates that have:
motorised two wheeler, three-wheeler,
four-wheeler and agriculture equipment
or fishing boat, Kisan Credit Card (KCC)
with a limit greater or equal to Rs.
50,000, at least one member that is
employed with the government or
earning more than Rs. 10,000 per
month, that pays Income Tax,
professional tax or owns a refrigerator
or landline phone connection.
42. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Anamalai Tiger Reserve (ATR) is located
in the south-western Ghat.
Landscape in Tamil Nadu: It is
surrounded by the Parambikulam Tiger
Reserve on the east; and the Chinnar
Wildlife Sanctuary and the Eravikulam
National Park on the south-western side.
• The Anamalai Tiger Reserve was
declared as a Tiger Reserve in the year
2007.
• Flora: Around 2,500 species of
angiosperms are found in the Anamalai
Tiger Reserve, with several species of
‘balsam’, ‘crotalaria’, ‘orchids’ and
‘kurinchi’.
• In general, the wild animals of the
Reserve include jackal, wild dog, the
Indian fox, tiger, leopard, the jungle cat,
the leopard cat, the smooth-coated
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otter, the small-clawed otter, the Nilgiri
marten, the small Indian civet, the
common-palm civet, the brown-palm
civet, Greyangoose, the Ruddy
mangoose, the Indian brown mangoose,
the stripe-necked mangoose, the Indian
pangolin, the black-naped hare, and
several species of rodents and bats.
• Best Practices: The best practices
innovative alert system for addressing
human-wildlife conflict, fire protection,
anti-poaching strategy, immunization of
the nearby livestock, control over illegal
ganja cultivation and smart patrolling,
using the M-STrIPES (Monitoring System
for Tigers - Intensive Protection and
Ecological Status) protocol.
43. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
About the Antarctic Krill:
 It is estimated that there are over 700
trillion adult individuals of these
shrimp-like crustaceans in the
Southern Ocean.
 An adult krill can live anywhere in the
Southern Ocean – from the very surface
layer to the sea floor, and from the
inshore areas to the deep open ocean.
 The Antarctic krill grows upto 6 cm in
length and can weigh 1 gram.
 The Antarctic krill (and other krill
species) are bioluminescent, meaning
that they produce light.
 The Antarctic krill is a key species,
supporting populations of penguins,
seals, whales and other marine life.
 The Antarctic krill feeds on
phytoplanktons (single-celled marine
plants), which absorb carbon dioxide.
The krills then egest this carbon
through their faecal pellets and by
shedding their exoskeletons, which then
both sink to the sea floor where some of
the carbon gets stored away.
 It is one of the most common species in
its range and it is not at risk of
endangerment or extinction. It has a
Least Concern status by the
International Union for Conservation
of Nature (IUCN).
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44. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• Ball lightning, also called globe
lightning, is a rare aerial phenomenon
in the form of a luminous sphere, that
is generally several centimetres in
diameter.
• It usually occurs near the ground
during thunderstorms, in close
association with the cloud-to-ground
lightning.
• It is a ball of luminosity that usually
occurs near the impact point of a flash
and moves horizontally at a speed of few
centimetres per second.
• It can penetrate closed windows, is
usually accompanied by a hissing
45. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
46. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Cashew is native to north-east Brazil and
was introduced to Goa by the Portuguese
as a crop for afforestation and soil
conservation.
The story was that the edible value of
cashew was discovered by the Goan
prisoners, exiled to the Portuguese territory
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sound, and has a lifetime of several
seconds.
• The colour is quite variable, and the ball
often ends with an explosion.
• It is not usually destructive.
• It occurs at times of intense electrical
activity in the atmosphere.
• These balls are said to be plasmas.
Plasma is a completely ionized state of
matter, at high temperature, in which
positive and negative ions freely move
out.
• However, no theory has so far
satisfactorily explained the behaviour of
a ball, as the scientists have not been
able to reproduce it in the laboratory.
of Africa (Mozambique) during Goa’s
freedom movement in the mid-18th century.
India is one of largest cashew exporters,
with more than 15% of the world's export
share.
Cashew is a tropical crop that requires a
warm and humid climate for optimal
growth and production.
The ideal climatic conditions for cashew
cultivation are:
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Temperature: 20°C - 35°C. The most Note: Although considered a vegetable,

suitable temperature is 30 degrees Celsius mushrooms are neither a plant nor an
to 38 degrees Celsius. animal food. They are a type of fungus that
Rainfall: 1,000 mm - 2,000 mm (39 inches contains a substance called ergosterol,
-79 inches) annually. similar in structure to cholesterol in the
Relative humidity: 60% - 90% (more than animals. Ergosterol can be transformed
50%). into Vitamin D with exposure to ultraviolet
light.
Soil: Well-drained soil.

49. Answer: (a)

47. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Explanation:
Deendayal Port Trust, Kandla: Kandla,
The Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary:
now officially Deendayal Port Authority, is a
 It is situated in the south-eastern part
seaport and town in the Kutch district of
of the Kannur district in the state of
Gujarat state in Western India, near the
Kerala.
city of Gandhidham. It is the largest port of
 It is located on the western slopes of India by volume of cargo handled.
the Western Ghats.
Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Port Trust,
 Aralam is Kerala's northern-most Kolkata: Formerly known as the Kolkata
Wildlife Sanctuary. Port Trust or the Port of Calcutta, it is the
 The Cheenkannipuzha/Cheenkanni only riverine major port of India, located in
river forms the main drainage system the city of Kolkata (West Bengal), around
on the southern side. 203 kilometres (126 miles) from the sea. It
 The Wildlife Sanctuary exhibits a variety is the oldest operating port in India and
of forests, which include: was constructed by the British East India
(a) The west coast tropical evergreen Company.
forests. Kamarajar Port Limited, Ennore (Tamil
(b) The west coast semi-evergreen Nadu): Formerly known as the Ennore Port,
forests. it is located on the Coromandel Coast,
Chennai, about 18 km north of the
(c) The south Indian moist deciduous
Chennai Port. It is the first port in India
forests.
which is a public company. Kamarajar Port
(d) The southern hilltop evergreen
Limited is the only corporatized major port
forests and plantations.
and is registered as a company.

48. Answer: (c)

50. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Difference(s) between plants, animals
and mushrooms:
 The plants have chlorophyll and make
their own food through photosynthesis.
 The animals ingest their food.
 Fungi, lacking chlorophyll, exist on
decaying material in nature and on
substrate of various compositions when
commercially grown.
Explanation:
The Central Pollution Control Board
(CPCB), a statutory body, was
constituted in 1974, under the Water
(Prevention and Control of Pollution)
Act, 1974. Further, the CPCB was
entrusted with the powers and functions
under the Air (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1981.

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