Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 44

Advertising and Promotion An

Integrated Marketing 6th Edition Belch


Test Bank
Go to download the full and correct content document:
https://testbankdeal.com/product/advertising-and-promotion-an-integrated-marketing-
6th-edition-belch-test-bank/
More products digital (pdf, epub, mobi) instant
download maybe you interests ...

Advertising and Promotion An Integrated Marketing 4th


Edition Belch Test Bank

https://testbankdeal.com/product/advertising-and-promotion-an-
integrated-marketing-4th-edition-belch-test-bank/

Advertising and Promotion An Integrated Marketing 5th


Edition Belch Test Bank

https://testbankdeal.com/product/advertising-and-promotion-an-
integrated-marketing-5th-edition-belch-test-bank/

Advertising and Promotion An Integrated Marketing 5th


Edition Belch Solutions Manual

https://testbankdeal.com/product/advertising-and-promotion-an-
integrated-marketing-5th-edition-belch-solutions-manual/

Advertising and Promotion An Integrated Marketing


Communications Perspective 11th Edition Belch Test Bank

https://testbankdeal.com/product/advertising-and-promotion-an-
integrated-marketing-communications-perspective-11th-edition-
belch-test-bank/
Advertising and Promotion An Integrated Marketing
Communications Perspective 10th Edition Belch Test Bank

https://testbankdeal.com/product/advertising-and-promotion-an-
integrated-marketing-communications-perspective-10th-edition-
belch-test-bank/

Advertising And Promotion An Integrated Marketing


Communications Perspective 8th Edition Belch Test Bank

https://testbankdeal.com/product/advertising-and-promotion-an-
integrated-marketing-communications-perspective-8th-edition-
belch-test-bank/

Advertising And Promotion An Integrated Marketing


Communications Perspective 9th Edition Belch Test Bank

https://testbankdeal.com/product/advertising-and-promotion-an-
integrated-marketing-communications-perspective-9th-edition-
belch-test-bank/

Advertising and Promotion An Integrated Marketing


Communications Perspective 11th Edition Belch Solutions
Manual

https://testbankdeal.com/product/advertising-and-promotion-an-
integrated-marketing-communications-perspective-11th-edition-
belch-solutions-manual/

Advertising and Promotion An Integrated Marketing


Communications Perspective 10th Edition Belch Solutions
Manual

https://testbankdeal.com/product/advertising-and-promotion-an-
integrated-marketing-communications-perspective-10th-edition-
belch-solutions-manual/
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The primary objective of ________ is to develop a framework that will deliver the message to the
target audience in the most efficient, cost-effective manner possible.
A) organizational planning B) media planning
C) market segmentation D) target marketing
Answer: B

2) The media plan:


A) requires the development of specific media objectives
B) has five formalized stages that cannot be omitted from the process
C) includes product development
D) includes sales and marketing forecasts and potentials
Answer: A

3) According to Media Digest's research on Canadian media expenditures, the media type which earns
the highest revenues is:
A) online B) magazines
C) daily newspapers D) television
Answer: A

4) Category need, brand awareness, brand attitude and brand trial are all examples of:
A) communication strategies B) media objectives
C) creative execution D) media strategies
Answer: B

5) If the advertiser selects media to allow immediate purchase of the brand, the media objective is most
likely:
A) category need B) brand attitude
C) brand trial D) media optimization
Answer: C

6) Media selected to ensure that a certain percentage of the target audience has favourable beliefs about
the brand's benefits are most likely satisfying a ________ media objective.
A) brand attitude B) brand awareness
C) category need D) profit maximization
Answer: A

7) Campbell Soup is the market share leader in Canada, but many new competitors have entered the
market. In order to protect their leadership position and minimize consumers' switching to one of the
new brand entries, Campbell should set a ________ media objective.
A) brand trial B) head-to-head
C) brand repeat purchase D) brand leadership
Answer: C

1
8) ________ is the measure of the number of different audience members exposed at least once to a
media vehicle.
A) Exposure B) Viewer number C) Reach D) Frequency
Answer: C

9) Each of the following satisfies a brand awareness media objective EXCEPT:


A) Provide sufficient number of exposures to ensure that 60 percent of the target audience
recognizes the need for the product category.
B) Select media to provide coverage of 80 percent of the target audience this quarter.
C) Concentrate advertising during the target audience's peak purchasing time.
D) Provide sufficient number of exposures to ensure that 60 percent of the target audience
recognizes the brand name when it's suggested to them.
Answer: A

10) ________ refers to the potential audience that might receive the message through a vehicle.
A) Reach B) Frequency C) Exposure D) Coverage
Answer: D

11) ________ is the number of times a receiver is exposed to a message in a given time period.
A) Potency B) Frequency C) Coverage D) Reach
Answer: B

12) Which of the following is NOT a part of the media plan?


A) Determination of media coverage B) Marketing strategies
C) Media objectives D) Frequency estimates
Answer: B

13) The ________ is the specific carrier within a media class.


A) media type B) medium
C) media vehicle D) television message
Answer: C

14) The Globe & Mail, Maclean's, and The National Post are all examples of:
A) communications decoders B) media strategies
C) media vehicles D) distribution channels
Answer: C

15) Media planning is not an easy task. Each of the following explains one of the difficulties inherent in
the process EXCEPT:
A) indifference of creative directors to the type of media chosen
B) difficulty in measuring the effectiveness of a medium
C) insufficient information on audience figures
D) inconsistent terminology
Answer: A

2
16) Which of the following explains why media planners have difficulty measuring the effectiveness of
advertising and promotions?
A) The media planner must usually balance quantitative data with subjective judgements based on
experience.
B) An opportunity to advertise within a new media vehicle might arise, requiring movement of
advertising dollars from one vehicle to another.
C) There is a debate as to whether media planning buying should be part of an advertising agency
or an independent agency.
D) Procurement specialists often put pressure on the media decisions in an effort to save money.
Answer: A

17) Thewide variety of media available to advertisers is called:


A) the media mix B) the media profile
C) the media strategy D) multi-media
Answer: A

18) Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting the choice of media used?
A) The size of the budget
B) Insufficient information on audience figures
C) The characteristics of the product or service
D) The behavioural objectives
Answer: B

19) Which of the following is NOT true about media planning?


A) The characteristics of the product or service may dictate which media type would be most
appropriate.
B) The choice of medium generally does not influence the consumer decision-making process.
C) The creative strategy being used may be the driving force behind the media strategy.
D) The media strategy being used may be the driving force behind the creative strategy.
Answer: B

20) Each of the following is a media characteristic which may affect the achievement of specific
communication objectives EXCEPT:
A) audience involvement B) audience reach
C) target audience selectivity D) geographic coverage
Answer: A

21) Each of the following is a media-usage characteristic which may affect the achievement of specific
communication objectives EXCEPT:
A) control for selective exposure B) amount of processing time
C) creativity for emotional responses D) cost efficiency
Answer: D

3
22) Whichof the following is a strength of television as a media choice?
A) Target audience selectivity B) Amount of processing time
C) Audience involvement D) Creativity for cognitive responses
Answer: D

23) Which of the following is a limitation of television as a media choice?


A) Selective exposure B) Frequency
C) Scheduling flexibility D) Cost efficiency
Answer: A

24) Whichof the following is a strength of radio as a media choice?


A) Amount of processing time B) Selective exposure
C) Clutter D) Absolute cost
Answer: D

25) Which
of the following is a limitation of radio as a media choice?
A) Geographic coverage B) Audience attention
C) Media image D) Target audience selectivity
Answer: B

26) Whichof the following is a strength of magazines as a media choice?


A) Frequency B) Lack of processing time
C) Audience involvement D) Reach
Answer: C

27) Whichof the following is a limitation of magazines as a media choice?


A) Creativity for cognitive responses B) Selective exposure
C) Cost efficiency D) Target audience selectivity
Answer: C

28) Whichof the following is a strength of newspapers as a media choice?


A) Lack of clutter B) Target audience selectivity
C) Creativity for emotional responses D) Creativity for cognitive responses
Answer: D

29) Whichof the following is a limitation of newspapers as a media choice?


A) Amount of processing time B) Selective exposure
C) Absolute cost D) Target audience selectivity
Answer: B

30) Whichof the following is a strength of outdoor as a media choice?


A) Amount of processing time B) Audience involvement
C) Target audience coverage D) Reach
Answer: D

4
31) Which of the following is a limitation of outdoor as a media choice?
A) Cost efficiency B) Frequency
C) Media image D) Geographic coverage
Answer: C

32) Which of the following is a strength of transit as a media choice?


A) Creativity forcognitive responses B) Target audience selectivity
C) Scheduling flexibility D) Target audience coverage
Answer: A

33) Which of the following is a limitation of transit as a media choice?


A) Clutter B) Cost efficiency
C) Amount of processing time D) Absolute cost
Answer: A

34) Media buyers might choose to live with a relatively high degree of waste coverage because:
A) it allows for more specific targeting
B) the media employed are likely to be the most effective means of message delivery available
C) repetition is the most effective method for pioneering advertising
D) it best supports a flighting media schedule
Answer: B

35) Underwhat conditions are advertisers more likely to achieve full audience coverage with their
media buy?
A) When the audience is fragmented
B) When they are targeting a small number of customers or potential customers
C) In a high-involvement purchase situation
D) When media coverage reaches people who are not potential buyers or current users
Answer: B

36) Thesituation in which media coverage exceeds the targeted audience is called:
A) waste coverage B) excess media expenditure
C) audience fragmentation D) underexposure
Answer: A

37) Nordstrom placed advertising for the launch of their new Toronto stores on mall posters within the
Eaton Centre, Yorkdale Plaza, and Sherway Gardens. These posters were seen by many people apart
from typical Nordstrom customers. This is an example of:
A) excess media expenditure B) media overexposure
C) media underexposure D) audience fragmentation
Answer: B

5
38) Tesla'sresearch shows that approximately 65 percent of their target audience subscribes to The
Globe & Mail newspaper. If that is their only media vehicle, they will experience:
A) excess media expenditure
B) media overexposure
C) full market coverage
D) less media coverage than desired (underexposure)
Answer: D

39) ________ helps marketers factor the rate of product usage by geographic area into the decision
process.
A) The ratio of product usage to availability
B) Statistics Canada's population growth analysis
C) The Brand Development Index
D) The Category Development Index
Answer: C

40) Which of the following is true about the Brand Development Index (BDI)?
A) BDI and CDI measure the same consumer behaviours.
B) BDI compares the brand's total sales in a given market area with the percentage of the total
population in that market.
C) BDI measures the ratio of product usage to availability in a particular market.
D) BDI indicates where a brand should maximize promotional spending, given their success in a
particular geographic area.
Answer: B

41) In
calculating both the Brand Development Index (BDI) and the Category Development Index
(CDI), a media planner obtains the following results: High BDI and Low CDI. What do these results
imply?
A) Low market share and good market potential
B) Low market share and poor market potential
C) High market share and good market potential
D) High market share and monitor for sales decline
Answer: D

42) In
calculating both the Brand Development Index (BDI) and the Category Development Index
(CDI), a media planner obtains the following results: Low BDI and Low CDI. What do these results
imply?
A) High market share and monitor for sales decline
B) High market share and good market potential
C) Low market share and good market potential
D) Low market share and poor market potential
Answer: D

6
43) In
calculating both the Brand Development Index (BDI) and the Category Development Index
(CDI), a media planner obtains the following results: Low BDI and High CDI. What do these results
imply?
A) High market share; monitor for sales decline
B) Low market share; poor market potential
C) High market share; good market potential
D) Low market share; good market potential
Answer: D

44) Which of the following situations offers the advertiser the least attractive marketing opportunity?
A) Low BDI; high CDI B) High BDI; low CDI
C) High BDI; high CDI D) Low BDI; low CDI
Answer: D

45) Which of the following indices reflects a company with low market share in a given market?
A) Low category development index (CDI) B) High brand development index (BDI)
C) High category development index (CDI) D) Low brand development index (BDI)
Answer: D

46) Which of the following scenarios indicates that the brand is not doing well and it would be
worthwhile to determine the reasons and make some changes?
A) iPhone's share of the growing mobile phone market is at an all-time high.
B) Even though the popularity of Asian fast-food restaurants is on the rise, the Flying Wok has
seen a fifteen percent decline in sales over the past three months.
C) Nestle's Quik has a high market share in a declining powdered flavour market.
D) Just when Stephanie entered the specialty textile flooring market people don't seem to want
shag carpeting anymore.
Answer: B

47) In terms of advertising, scheduling constant advertising without variation is referred to as:
A) geographical weighting B) continuity
C) circulation D) flighting
Answer: B

48) Seasonalproducts such as Hallowe'en decorations and Valentine flowers would best make use of
which scheduling alternative?
A) Weighted ratings B) Flighting C) Pulsing D) Continuous
Answer: B

49) My product is silk ties, which are purchased at any time of the year, but more often at Christmas and
on Father's day. Given a limited budget, which strategy would likely be the most effective if I
wanted to try to stimulate trial and/or sales?
A) Share B) Continuous C) Pulsing D) Flighting
Answer: C

7
50) A product that may be consumed throughout the year, but has seasonal periods where consumption
is higher might best employ a(n) ________ scheduling method.
A) oscillating B) continuous C) pulsing D) flighting
Answer: C

51) Which strategy would be most likely to be used by a marketer of dishwashing detergent?
A) Share growth B) Flighting C) Continuous D) Pulsing
Answer: C

52) Which scheduling method would be inappropriate for the product named?
A) Spring-blooming bulbscontinuous B) Accounting servicespulsing
C) Soft drinkspulsing D) Snow blowerflighting
Answer: A

53) Chryslerwould probably wish to pursue a ________ scheduling strategy, while Rossignol Skis
would use a ________ schedule.
A) pulsing; flighting B) continuous; pulsing
C) continuous; continuous D) flighting; pulsing
Answer: A

54) For which of the following products is an advertiser most likely to use continuity scheduling?
A) Swimming pool chemicals B) Wood burning stoves
C) Tickets to a hockey game D) Laundry detergent
Answer: D

55) Itis generally felt that consumers should get exposure to the message as close as possible to when
they are going to make the purchase. On the basis of this idea, which would be the most effective
scheduling method for winter boots?
A) Flighting B) Pulsing C) Behavioural D) Continuous
Answer: A

56) ________ is the employment of periods of advertising along with periods of non-advertising.
A) Weighting B) Continuity C) Flighting D) Pulsing
Answer: C

57) For which of the following products is an advertiser most likely to use a flighting schedule?
A) Cakemixes B) Snow tires
C) Shampoo D) Newspaper subscriptions
Answer: B

58) When advertising scheduling involves constant advertising with heavier efforts being made at
certain times, a(n) ________ schedule is being employed.
A) weighting B) intermittent C) pulsing D) flighting
Answer: C

8
59) Recreationvehicles (RVs) advertise throughout the year but typically advertise more heavily June
and in September. This pattern represents which scheduling method?
A) Continuity B) Pulsing C) Oscillating D) Flighting
Answer: B

60) Disney World advertises itself as a vacation spot throughout the year, but it advertises more heavily
during the summer months and during the Christmas season when most people are vacationing. This
is an example of ________ scheduling.
A) pulsing B) flighting
C) continuity D) geographical weighting
Answer: A

61) Which of the following is NOT an advantage inherent in the flighting method of schedule
advertising?
A) Extra strength during "on" periods
B) Cost efficiency
C) Continuous target coverage
D) Ability to include more than one advertising vehicle
Answer: C

62) Which of the following media strategies is suitable for a lesser-known product with a target
audience concentrated in a small area in Canada?
A) One that balances reach and frequency
B) One that emphasizes reach rather than frequency
C) One that emphasizes frequency rather than reach
D) One that uses a high cost per thousand approach
Answer: C

63) New brands need a very high level of ________, since the objective is to make all potential buyers
aware of the brand.
A) reach B) CPM C) GRPs D) frequency
Answer: A

64) Given
that a message is complex as far as comprehension is concerned, the strategy should be to
maximize ________ at the expense of ________.
A) Reach; frequency B) Frequency; reach
C) Reach; GRPs D) Frequency; CPM
Answer: B

65) The________ the brand share, the ________ the frequency level required.
A) lower; higher B) higher; higher C) higher; lower D) lower; lower
Answer: C

9
66) A company has a limited promotional budget. The target market is highly concentrated and has
already been shown to have high awareness and interest in the project. The goal of the promotional
strategy should be to:
A) increase frequency B) maximize reach
C) sacrifice frequency for reach D) maximize coverage
Answer: A

67) Acompany with a substantial advertising budget with little or no awareness in the target market
should:
A) sacrifice reach for continuity B) maximize reach
C) maximize coverage D) maximize frequency and sacrifice reach
Answer: B

68) ________ is the number of target audience individuals exposed at least once to media vehicle in a
specific time period.
A) Reach B) Frequency C) Continuity D) Coverage
Answer: A

69) Unduplicated reach is:


A) total reach less duplicated reach
B) average reach multiplied by average frequency
C) total market coverage less duplicated reach
D) duplicated reach plus total reach
Answer: A

70) To calculate gross ratings points (GRPs), you will need to:
A) divide average frequency by costs B) divide reach times frequency by costs
C) multiply reach times frequency D) multiply CPM times average frequency
Answer: C

71) ________ is a summary measure that combines reach and frequency.


A) Gross ratings points (GRPs) B) The Category Development Index (CDI)
C) The Brand Development Index (BDI) D) Target ratings points (TRPs)
Answer: A

72) The concept of ________ is based on the assumption that one exposure to an ad may not be enough
to convey the desired message.
A) GRPs B) average reach
C) average frequency D) effective reach
Answer: D

73) Noone knows the exact number of ________ necessary for an ad to make an impact, although
advertisers have settled on ________ as the minimum.
A) reach; two B) exposures; three C) GRPs; ten D) frequency; one
Answer: B

10
74) ________ is the number of times the target audience reached by a media vehicle is exposed to the
vehicle over a specified period of time.
A) Effective frequency B) Average reach
C) Unduplicated reach D) Average frequency
Answer: D

75) Each of the following statements about frequency is true EXCEPT:


A) The lower the brand's share of voice, the higher the frequency required.
B) New brands generally require higher frequency levels.
C) The more unique the message, the higher the frequency level required.
D) Continuous scheduling requires less frequency than does pulsing or flighting.
Answer: C

76) Which of the following is NOT relevant to the vehicle source effect?
A) If the advertising message is relevant and compelling to the target audience, the choice of
media vehicle is less important.
B) Certain media vehicles enhance the message because they create a mood that carries over to the
communication.
C) People perceive ads differently depending on their context.
D) Media planners consider the most suitable media class and media vehicle for the target
audience and the message.
Answer: A

77) To evaluate the ________ cost of print media, ________ is used.


A) relative; CPRP B) absolute; CPM C) absolute; CPRP D) relative; CPM
Answer: D

78) CPM is an expression of ________ for various media vehicles.


A) compared reach B) mode C) relative cost D) absolute cost
Answer: C

79) The estimated number of people who read the magazine without buying it is called:
A) overexposure B) unduplicated reach
C) pass-along rate D) absolute cost
Answer: C

80) A major problem with the use of cost per thousand figures is:
A) determining time spent reading the magazine
B) determining pass-along rates
C) determining an efficient way to estimate the effects of sweep periods
D) calculating cost estimates efficiently
Answer: B

11
81) Ifthe circulation of the National Post is 400,000 readers, and the advertising cost per page is
$50,000, the CPM is:
A) $0.125 B) $8 C) $0.008 D) $125
Answer: D

82) OldNavy is planning a new print campaign. Which of the following media vehicles represents the
most attractive CPM?
A) The cost of a single-page ad in Metro Toronto newspaper (circulation - 205,000) is $22,500.
B) The cost of a single-page ad in Today's Parent Magazine (circulation - 116,000) is $22,000.
C) The cost of a single-page ad in Canadian Living Magazine (circulation - 425,000) is $53,000.
D) The cost of a single-page ad in The Toronto Star (circulation - 309,000) is $58,000.
Answer: A

83) The comparative cost figure used for broadcast media is:
A) the same as for print media, cost per thousand (CPM)
B) cost per ratings point (CPRP)
C) gross ratings point (GRP)
D) cost per point of contact (CPPC)
Answer: B

84) The media planning process concludes with the ________, which summarizes many of the media
strategy and media tactics decisions.
A) CPM B) blocking chart C) advertising plan D) marketing plan
Answer: B

85) Inthe marginal analysis approach to media budgeting, all of the following should be considered
EXCEPT:
A) gross margin net worth
B) advertising expenditures and other variable costs
C) fixed costs of advertising
D) sales
Answer: A

86) The S-shaped response function implies that:


A) sales effects will follow the microeconomic law of diminishing returns
B) sales will immediately increase then decrease
C) sales will immediately decrease then increase
D) initial advertising expenditures will have little impact on sales
Answer: D

12
87) The two models that are commonly used to explain the relationship between advertising and sales
are the:
A) S-shaped response function and the concave-upward function
B) marginal utility function and the S-shaped demand function
C) S-shaped demand function and the convex-downward function
D) concave-downward function and the S-shaped response function
Answer: D

88) The ________ function is based on the microeconomic law of diminishing returns.
A) concave-downward B) marginal utility
C) concave-upward D) S-shaped demand
Answer: A

89) According to the S-shaped response curve:


A) initial outlays of the advertising budget have a substantial impact on sales
B) sales are not directly related to the size of the advertising budget
C) the carryover effect is especially true for low-priced, frequently purchased consumer products
D) the effects of advertising quickly begin to diminish
Answer: B

90) Amarketing firm decides to purchase media time in an attempt to sell its new product. After
purchasing approximately $1 million of time, it has noticed no impact on the sales of the product.
However, at $3 million, a substantial increase is shown. This might best be explained by:
A) an S-shaped response B) competitive parity
C) the objective and task method D) arbitrary allocation
Answer: A

91) The S-shaped response curve suggests that:


A) very low spending levels will not work
B) advertising effectiveness will not be related to spending
C) advertising effectiveness will vary according to spending levels
D) sales and spending on advertising are not directly related
Answer: C

92) Asa result of ________, large advertisers can maintain advertising shares that are smaller than their
market shares because they get lower advertising rates and accrue the advantages of advertising
several products jointly.
A) a concave-downward response B) differential advertising advantages
C) competitive parity D) economies of scale
Answer: D

13
93) When executives determine the budget amounts to be allocated for each department's advertising
expenditures, a ________ approach is being used.
A) bottom-up B) top-down
C) marginal contribution D) contribution forecast
Answer: B

94) All
of the following are considered top-down approaches to determining budgets EXCEPT:
A) arbitrary allocation B) the affordable method
C) the percentage of sales method D) the objective and task method
Answer: D

95) Which of the following is NOT a top-down approach to budget setting?


A) Payout planning B) Return on investment
C) Competitive parity D) The affordable method
Answer: A

96) The________ method of budget setting consists of three steps: (1) defining the communication
objectives, (2) determining the strategies and tasks to attain them, and (3) estimating the costs
associated with performance of these strategies and tasks.
A) return on investment B) percentage of sales
C) objective and task D) arbitrary allocation
Answer: C

97) Which top-down budgeting method is being employed when expenditures are allocated by assigning
a budget based on gut feelings?
A) Arbitrary allocation B) Percentage of sales
C) Payout planning D) Affordable method
Answer: A

98) Themost commonly utilized method of budget determination by large firms is:
A) the affordable method B) objective and task
C) percentage of sales D) competitive parity
Answer: C

99) To set an advertising budget, Entree cologne first examines competitors' advertising to sales ratios
published in trade magazines, and then allocates a percentage of sales dollars to the advertising
effort. Which two budgeting methods are being employed?
A) Payout planning and percentage of sales B) Competitive parity and percentage of sales
C) Competitive parity and payout planning D) Percentage of sales and objective and task
Answer: B

14
100) Which of the following budgeting procedures would be used if a firm wanted a method that is
simple to understand and financially safe?
A) Objective and task B) Marginal analysis
C) Competitive parity D) Percentage of sales
Answer: D

101) The ________ method is difficult to employ for a new company if no sales history is available, there
is no basis of establishing the budget.
A) objective and task B) ROI
C) affordable D) percentage of sales
Answer: D

102) The major problem with the ________ budgeting method is a reversal of the cause and effect
relationship.
A) competitive parity B) percentage of sales
C) objective and task method D) rapidly diminishing returns
Answer: B

103) The ________ method budgetary allocation method is designed to promote stability and minimize
marketing warfare as well as taking advantage of the collective wisdom of the industry.
A) competitive parity B) objective and task
C) arbitrary allocation D) percentage of sales
Answer: A

104) According to the competitive parity budgeting method, the firm:


A) spends as much as it can
B) spends the same total amount as its major competitors spend
C) allocates some portion of planned sales for the period to advertising
D) matches the competition's percentage-of-sales expenditures
Answer: D

105) The ________ method of budgeting is being employed when expenditures are allocated according
information gathered to determine industry averages for advertising. The budget is set to maintain a
level consistent with industry spending.
A) objective and task B) return on investment
C) percentage of sales D) competitive parity
Answer: D

106) The ________ method of budgeting is being employed when expenditures are allocated after an
experienced marketing department manager responds to a new employee's question, "How was the
ad budget established in years past?" by saying, "The same way it's always been done. I just have an
instinct for how much should be budgeted where."
A) competitive parity B) percentage of sales
C) arbitrary allocation D) ROI
Answer: C

15
107) The ________ method of budgeting is being employed when expenditures are allocated by looking
at the revenue generated from sales of the product during one year. The information gathered from
this examination is used to determine the next year's dollar amounts.
A) arbitrary allocation B) payout planning
C) return on investment D) percentage of sales
Answer: D

108) In which of the following methods of budget determination is advertising considered an investment,
similar to plant and equipment?
A) Objective and task B) Percentage of sales
C) Payout planning D) ROI
Answer: D

109) Defining the communications objectives to be accomplished and estimating the costs associated
with the performance of determined strategies and tasks are steps in the ________ method of
budgeting.
A) objective and task B) competitive parity
C) payout planning D) return on investment
Answer: A

110) The major advantage of the ________ method is that the budget is derived by the objectives to be
attained.
A) percentage of sales B) objective and task
C) ROI D) competitive parity
Answer: B

111) All of the following are components of the objective and task method EXCEPT:
A) a re-evaluation of objectives B) monitoring
C) estimation of required expenditures D) determination of competitor's expenditures
Answer: D

112) ________ is a method for allocating budgets designed to determine the investment value of the
advertising appropriation.
A) Payout planning B) Objective and task
C) Percent of sales method D) Arbitrary allocation
Answer: A

113) Which of the following statements provides a good rule of thumb for setting the advertising budget
for a new product?
A) Its advertising budget should be 10 percent greater than the average budget planned for the
entire payout period.
B) Its advertising budget should be double that needed to maintain the desired market share.
C) Its advertising budget should be equal to that of the largest shareholder in the market.
D) Its advertising budget should be as much as the firm can afford.
Answer: B

16
114) The objective and task method is most difficult to utilize when:
A) the product to be promoted is new to the market
B) the product to be promoted is a cash cow
C) the product to be promoted is intangible and in the maturity stage of its product life cycle
D) a service is being promoted
Answer: A

115) Which of the following statements about the effects of the size of the market on advertising
spending is NOT true?
A) Excessive advertising expenditures in a small market will lead to wasted coverage.
B) Audience fragmentation is evident in large markets, therefore advertisers must spend more to
reach their target.
C) It is less expensive to reach the target audience in a large market, due to economies of scale.
D) High growth potential is more important than the actual size of the market.
Answer: C

116) In a review of the literature on how allocation decisions are made between advertising and sales
promotion, it was concluded that ________ factors play an important role in determining how
communication dollars are spent.
A) organizational B) political C) psychological D) economic
Answer: A

117) As a result of economies of scale, smaller advertisers:


A) can maintain advertising shares that are smaller than their market shares
B) are likely to enjoy more favourable advertising time and space than large advertisers
C) get higher advertising rates than large advertisers
D) have declining average costs of product
Answer: C

17
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED10

1) B
2) A
3) A
4) B
5) C
6) A
7) C
8) C
9) A
10) D
11) B
12) B
13) C
14) C
15) A
16) A
17) A
18) B
19) B
20) A
21) D
22) D
23) A
24) D
25) B
26) C
27) C
28) D
29) B
30) D
31) C
32) A
33) A
34) B
35) B
36) A
37) B
38) D
39) C
40) B
41) D
42) D
43) D
44) D
45) D
46) B
47) B
48) B
49) C
50) C
18
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED10

51) C
52) A
53) A
54) D
55) A
56) C
57) B
58) C
59) B
60) A
61) C
62) C
63) A
64) B
65) C
66) A
67) B
68) A
69) A
70) C
71) A
72) D
73) B
74) D
75) C
76) A
77) D
78) C
79) C
80) B
81) D
82) A
83) B
84) B
85) A
86) D
87) D
88) A
89) B
90) A
91) C
92) D
93) B
94) D
95) A
96) C
97) A
98) C
99) B
100) D
19
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED10

101) D
102) B
103) A
104) D
105) D
106) C
107) D
108) D
109) A
110) B
111) D
112) A
113) B
114) A
115) C
116) A
117) C

20
Another random document with
no related content on Scribd:
lead encephalitis. Bromides and iodides should be given, and the
patient placed in quiet surroundings, and fed on light, nutritious diet,
and every attempt made to produce elimination of the poison.
In the acute attacks vaso-motor spasm is no doubt partially
accountable for the symptoms, and various dilators, previously noted
in discussing colic, may be made use of, such, for instance, as amyl
nitrite, scopolamine, etc., whilst pyramidon, antipyrin, phenacetin,
and other similar drugs may be given between the attacks. Under no
circumstances should any person who has suffered from
encephalitis or other cerebral symptom of lead poisoning be allowed
to resume work in a lead industry.
The treatment of eye affections in lead poisoning requires little
comment, as the essential treatment must be the same as in other
cases, mainly devoted towards the elimination of the poison.
Attempts may be made to treat paresis of the ocular muscles by
means of mild electric currents, but of this we have had no
experience. About 50 per cent. of cases of lead amaurosis and
amblyopia recover, but a number progress to total and permanent
blindness, and prognosis in such cases must always be guarded.
Prognosis.—The prognosis of the first attacks of lead poisoning
of simple colic or even slight unilateral paresis is good; practically all
cases recover under proper treatment. It is unusual for a person to
succumb to a first attack of simple colic, or paresis.
In most cases the serious forms of poisoning only make their
appearance after three or four previous attacks of colic, but a single
attack of paresis is much more frequently followed by a severe form
of poisoning, such as encephalitis.
A limited number of persons are highly susceptible to lead
poisoning, and these persons rapidly show their susceptibility when
working in a dangerous lead process. Lead poisoning occurring in an
alcoholic subject is more likely to result in paretic and mental
symptoms than in a person who is not addicted to alcohol, and the
prognosis of lead poisoning in an alcoholic is much less favourable
than in the case of a normal person.
Mental symptoms very rarely follow from a single attack of lead
colic, and as a rule do not become established under three or four
attacks at least.
A small number of persons exposed to excessive doses of lead
absorption through the lungs develop mental symptoms, such as
acute encephalitis, without any prodromal stage. The prognosis in
such cases is always exceedingly grave.
Sudden generalized forms of paralysis are not common in the
early stages, but are invariably of grave import. A few cases of
paresis, particularly those of the peroneal type, and affecting the
lower limbs, become progressive, and eventually develop into a
condition resembling progressive muscular atrophy with spinal cord
degeneration.
The prognosis of simple colic in women is about as good as for
males, but if an attack of abortion is associated with lead poisoning,
eclampsia often supervenes and permanent mental derangement
may follow. In the dementia associated with lead poisoning the
prognosis is not so grave as in other forms of dementia, especially
alcoholic, but depression is an unfavourable symptom. The mania of
lead poisoning is not so noisy as that of alcoholic mania, but where
there is suspicion of alcoholic as well as lead poisoning the
prognosis is exceedingly grave.
As a rule the prognosis of cases of lead poisoning occurring in
industrial conditions is more favourable when colic is a marked
feature than when it is absent, and there is no doubt that the
prognosis in cases of industrial lead poisoning at the present time is
more favourable than it was before the introduction of exhaust
ventilation and general medical supervision—a fact no doubt to be
explained by the relative decrease in the amount of lead absorbed.

REFERENCES.
[1] Goadby, K. W.: Journ. of Hygiene, vol. ix., 1909.
[2] Hunter, John: Observations of Diseases of the Army in Jamaica.
London, 1788.
[3] Drissole and Tanquerel: Meillère’s Le Saturnisme, p. 164.
[4] Hoffmann: Journ. de Méd., October, 1750.
[5] Weill and Duplant: Gazette des Hôpitaux, lxxix., 796, 1902.
[6] Briquet: Bull. Thérap., Août, 1857.
[7] Peyrow: Thèse de Paris, 1891.
[8] Stevens: Bulletin of Bureau of Labour, U.S.A., No. 95, p. 138, 1911.
[9] Zinn: Berl. Klin. Woch., Nr. 50, 1899.
[10] Serafini: Le Morgagni, No. 11, 1884.
CHAPTER XII
PREVENTIVE MEASURES AGAINST LEAD
POISONING

Amount of Lead Fume and Dust in the Atmosphere


Breathed.
—Lead fuses at 325° C. and boils at between 1450° and 1,600° C. It
is volatile when heated to a cherry-red colour—about 550° C.
Experiments[A] carried out in the laboratory of a lead smelting
works in London to determine the temperature at which leady fumes
rise from the surface of open baths of molten lead, showed that
unless pure lead is heated to about 500° C., and at the same time
stirred, no appreciable fume comes off, and that from lead, at the
same temperature, under ordinary working conditions, little or no
lead in the form of oxide passes into the air. From lead that has been
unrefined or which contains zinc—that is, lead in the earlier stages of
its manufacture (in the reverberatory furnace)—leady fume was not
given off at temperatures less than 760° C. even when stirred,
because at a temperature of 600° C. the surface of the molten metal
became covered with fluid slag, which will not allow any oxide to be
given off. Impurities such as tin or antimony prevent the oxidation of
molten lead at lower temperatures, and give it a bright, shiny colour.
When heated to about 600° C., these impurities form a slag on the
surface of the lead containing antimoniates and stannates of lead,
which do not evolve lead fumes unless heated to temperatures never
likely to be reached in open lead pots. The reason why molten
refined lead can give off lead fume more readily than those named is
because the oxide formed on the surface is a dry powder and not in
the form of slag. Hence, when the bath is stirred, some of the dry
oxide is broken up and may rise into the air. When a bath of molten
lead is not stirred at all, it can be heated to over 740° C. without
finding oxide in the air aspirated—a temperature not obtained under
ordinary working conditions.
[A] In these experiments air was aspirated through an iron funnel having an
area of 113 square inches (12 inches diameter), placed at a height of 1¹⁄₂
inches above the molten metal, and connected to an iron tube 3 feet in
length and ¹⁄₂ inch in diameter. Inside the iron tube was a glass tube, one
end reaching own to the top of the funnel and the other connected with a
tube containing pure loose asbestos wool, and continued down to a tightly
stoppered bottle holding dilute sulphuric acid. Another glass tube connected
this bottle with an aspirator. The asbestos tube was weighed before and
after each test, and the asbestos then treated with nitric acid, and the lead
determined volumetrically. In none of the tests made was lead found in the
bottle containing sulphuric acid.

Were there nothing else to consider but escape of lead fume from
a pot or bath of molten metal, obviously hooding over of the bath and
removal of the fume from the atmosphere of the workroom would be
unnecessary until this temperature was reached. Usually, however,
the bath is kept standing exposed to the air, and the oxide which
forms on the surface has to be skimmed off periodically, and
whenever the ladle is emptied a small cloud of dust arises. Or at
times, in certain processes, chemical interaction takes place in the
bath, as in the dipping of hollow-ware articles previously cleaned in
hydrochloric acid, with evolution of fume of volatile chloride of lead.
Any vessel, therefore, of molten metallic lead in which skimming is
necessary, or in which chemical action gives rise to fume, requires a
hood and exhaust shaft, even although the temperature is little, if at
all, above the melting-point—unless, indeed, a separate exhaust can
be arranged for the removal of the dust immediately above the point
where the skimmings are deposited.
Of many samples of dust collected in workrooms where there are
baths of molten lead, it is impossible to say definitely how much of
the lead present is due to fume, and how much to dust. Thus, a
person tempering the tangs of files was attacked by plumbism, and a
sample of dust collected from an electric pendent directly over the
pot, at a height of 4 feet from the ground, was found to contain 15·6
per cent. of metallic lead. Similarly, a sample taken above a bath for
tempering railway springs contained 48·1 per cent. metallic lead[1].
And, again, a sample collected from the top of the magazine of a
linotype machine contained 8·18 per cent. Such analyses point to
the necessity of enclosing, as far as possible, the sources of danger
—either the fume or the dust, or both. Determination of the melting-
point of the molten mass will often help in deciding whether there is
risk of fume from the pot, and, if there is not (as in the sample of dust
from the linotype machine referred to), will direct attention to the
sources of dust in the room. Proceeding on these lines, S. R.
Bennett[2], using a thermo-electric pyrometer which had been
previously standardized and its rate of error ascertained, and
checking the results in some cases by a mercury-in-glass
thermometer (the bulb of which was protected by metal tubing),
determined the temperature of the various pots and baths of molten
lead used in the Sheffield district. As was anticipated, temporary
cessation of work, stirring up of metal, recoking of furnaces, and
other causes, produced fluctuations of temperatures from minute to
minute in the same pot, and in its different parts. The compensated
pyrometer used gave for file-hardening pots a maximum of 850° C.,
and a minimum of 760° C., the average mean working temperature
being about 800° C. The variations of temperature of lead used for
tempering tangs of files and rasps was found to be high, and largely
unrestricted from a practical standpoint. The maximum was 735° C.,
and the minimum 520° C., the average mean working temperature
being 650° to 700° C., varying more than this within a few hours in
the same pot. Spring tempering is carried out at some comparatively
constant temperature between a maximum of nearly 600° C. and a
minimum of 410° C., depending on the kind of steel and the purpose
for which the steel is to be employed. Generally, the temperature
required rises as the percentage of carbon in the steel is diminished.
As these baths are larger than file-hardening pots, the temperature
range is higher at the bottom than at the top unless well stirred up.
Some lead pots are set in one side of a flue, and the temperature in
the mass is then greater on the furnace side. From further
observation of these pots during experiments, he was inclined to
believe that the lead did not volatilize directly into the atmosphere, as
heated water does, but that the particles of coke, fused oil, etc.,
which rise from the surface, act as carriers of the rapidly oxidized
lead particles which cling to them.
Similar experiments were carried out in letterpress printing works.
The average temperature was 370° C. in the stereo pots, and in the
linotype pots at work 303° C. Scrap lead melting-pots when hottest
registered 424° C., but registered as low as 310° C., according to the
amount of scrap added, the state of the fire underneath, etc. The
best practical working temperature depends largely on the
composition of the metal used. That at some factories is the same
for stereo drums as for lino pots—viz., 81·6 per cent. lead, 16·3 per
cent. antimony, and 2·0 per cent. tin, added to harden the lead. On
the other hand, some printers use a higher percentage of antimony
in the lino than in the stereo metal. Lead melts at 325° C., and
antimony at 630° C., but by adding antimony to lead up to 14 per
cent. the melting-point is reduced at an almost uniform rate to 247°
C., after which further addition of antimony raises the melting-point.
This explains why temperatures as low as 290° C. are practicable for
linotype pots. The molten eutectic has a specific gravity of about
10·5, whereas the cubic crystals average 6·5 only; therefore in these
pots the latter float on the top, and excess of antimony is to be
expected in the skimmings or on the surface.
Administration of certain sections of the Factory and Workshop
Act, 1901, would be simplified were there a ready means available
for determining the extent of contamination of the air—especially of
Section 1, requiring the factory to be ventilated so as to render
harmless, as far as practicable, all gases, vapours, dust, or other
impurities, generated in the course of the manufacturing process,
that may be injurious to health; of Section 74, empowering an
inspector to require a fan or other means if this will minimize
inhalation of injurious fumes or dust; of many regulations having as
their principal object removal of dust and fumes; and of Section 75,
prohibiting meals in rooms where lead or other poisonous substance
is used, so as to give rise to dust or fumes. Unfortunately, owing to
the difficulty hitherto of accurate collection, only a very few
determinations of the actual amount of lead dust and fume present in
the atmosphere breathed have been made. This lends peculiar value
to a series of investigations by G. Elmhirst Duckering, which have
thrown much light on the amount of lead fume present in the air of a
tinning workshop, and the amount of lead dust in the air during
certain pottery processes, and the process of sand-papering after
painting. Incidentally, also, they help to determine the minimal daily
dose of lead which will set up chronic lead poisoning[3]. Aspirating
the air at about the level of the worker’s mouth for varying periods of
time, he determined the amount of lead in the fume, or in the dust,
per 10 cubic metres of air, and from knowledge of the time during
which inhalation took place he calculated the approximate quantity
inhaled per worker daily. We have summarized some of his
conclusions in the table on pp. 204, 205:
Duckering’s experiments as to the presence of fumes containing
compounds of lead in the atmosphere breathed were carried out in a
workshop for the tinning of iron hollow-ware with a mixture consisting
of half lead and half tin. The process of manufacture and the main
sources of lead contamination in the air (knowledge arrived at from
these experiments) are explained on p. 59. As the result of
laboratory experiments designed to show the effect of the violent
escape of vapour produced below the surface of molten metal in
causing contamination of the air, and the nature of the contaminating
substances, he was able to conclude that the chemical action of the
materials (acid and flux) used, and subsequent vaporization of the
products of this action, was a much more important factor than the
mechanical action of escaping vapour. Subsequently, experiments
carried out on factory premises gave the results which are expressed
in the table as to the relative danger, from lead, to (a) a tinner using
an open bath; (b) a tinner working at a bath provided with a hood
and exhaust by means of a furnace flue; and (c) the nature and
extent of air contamination caused by the operation of wiping excess
of metal (while still in a molten state) from the tinned article. In all
three experiments aspiration of air was made slowly: it was
maintained at the rate of 3 to 4 cubic feet an hour in the first
experiment for between seven and eight hours; in the second for
twenty-eight to twenty-nine hours; and in the third for twenty-four to
twenty-five hours. The person engaged in tinning at the open bath
was shown to be exposed to much more danger than one working at
a hooded bath, while the wiper was exposed to even more danger
than the tinner using an open bath, since not only was he inhaling
fume from the hot article, but also fibre to which considerable
quantities of metallic lead and tin adhered.
Analysis of samples of dust collected in different parts of the
workroom bore out the conclusions derived from analysis of the
fumes. Thus, samples collected from ledges at varying heights
above the tinning bath containing the mixture of tin and lead
contained percentages of soluble lead (lead chloride) in striking
amount as compared with samples collected at points in the same
room remote from any source of lead fume, while the insoluble lead
present, as was to be expected from the fact that it consisted of lead
attached to particles of tow floating in the air, was less variable.
TABLE XII., SHOWING QUANTITIES OF LEAD (Pb) IN THE
ATMOSPHERE AT BREATHING LEVEL.
(G. E. Duckering’s Experiments.)

Approximate
Present in Quantities
10 Cubic Metres of Lead (Pb)
of Air Estimated Time expressed
(Milligrammes). (in Hours) in Milligrammes
during which inhaled by Percentage
Total Lead Inhalation Worker of Lead
Occupation. Dust. (Pb). took place. per Day. in Dust.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6)
Tinner using — 37·79 5¹⁄₂ 10·70 — T
open bath

Tinner using — 6·36 5¹⁄₂ 1·80 — T


bath
covered by
hood, and
having
fumes
exhausted
by draught
of furnace
Wiping off — 124·31 5¹⁄₂ 35·20 — 1
(tinning)

Earthenware 38 1·80 7¹⁄₂ 0·69 (average 8·30 D


dipping of 4 expts.)
(pottery)
Earthenware 84 6·27 7¹⁄₂ 2·40 (single 7·42 V
dipping expt.)
(pottery)

China dipping 36 2·12 7³⁄₄ 0·83 (average 5·43 C


(pottery) of 4 expts.)

Rockingham 44 2·26 7¹⁄₂ 0·86 (single 14·37 D


ware dipping expt.)
(pottery)
Earthenware 47 2·29 7¹⁄₂ 0·88 (average 5·90 C
cleaning of 7 expts.)
(pottery)

China ware 123 13·34 6 4·08 (single 10·85 V


cleaning expt.)
(pottery)

Earthenware 25 2·19 8 0·92 (average 8·58 F


drying of 3 expts.)
(pottery)

Earthenware 34 2·08 8³⁄₄ 0·93 (average 6·58


glost placing of 3 expts.)
(pottery)
China glost 30 1·08 9 0·50 (single 3·64 B
placing expt.)
(pottery)
China glost 21 0·32 9¹⁄₂ 0·16 (single 1·50 O
placing expt.)
(pottery)
Majolica- 61 9·11 7¹⁄₂ 3·48 (single 15·00 T
painting of expt.)
tiles
(pottery)

206 53·70 — — 26·10 P

Sand-papering
and dusting 241 116·10 — — 48·10 R
-​
railway
coaches

453 83·10 — — 18·30 A

Sand-papering
coach -​
wheels 1343 1025·60 — — 76·40 O

Sand-papering 600 278·30 — — 46·40 D


motor-car
body
88 38·70 — — 44·00 W

Sand-papering
motor-car -​
wheels

35 4·70 — — 13·30 S

Sand-papering 494 143·80 — — 29·10 A


van wheel

Burning off old 52 3·40 — — 6·50 W


paint

Dust.—Reference to the table shows that the conditions in the


pottery workrooms, as stated in Column 7, are reflected in Columns
3 and 5. Further details from his experiments may be useful. Thus, in
a dipping room where low-solubility glaze was in use, the amount of
lead in the dust collected per 10 cubic metres of air was 0·70
milligramme. The average of four experiments where there were no
dipping boards was 1·80 milligrammes, and where dipping boards
were used, 3·75; i.e., 1·95 milligrammes of lead in the dust per 10
cubic metres of air is added by the use of dirty dipping boards. As
the result of his experiments, Duckering believes that approximately
1·95 milligrammes of lead per 10 cubic metres of air was due to the
fine spray given off in the shaking of the ware. In bright sunlight, he
says, the spray can be seen dancing high above the dipping tub. In a
dipping house where work was done slowly by two occupants only,
the proportion of lead in the measured quantity of air was also low—
0·58 milligramme per 10 cubic metres. Where, in the absence of
special provision made for admission of fresh air to a fan, the air was
drawn from a neighbouring room in which lead processes were
carried on, the amount of lead rose to 5·76 milligrammes at the level
breathed by the gatherer at a mangle. In ware-cleaning the average
of all his observations where lead was used (eleven) was 3·44
milligrammes; and he concluded that “wet cleaning of ware causes
less direct contamination of the atmosphere, even where no local
exhaust is applied. A still more important result of wet cleaning,
however, is that the overalls keep much freer of dust.” The highest
results were obtained when the process of ware-cleaning was done
outside the influence of the exhaust draught. In one instance, where
the ware was cleaned at a distance of 6 feet from the exhaust
opening, 13·34 milligrammes per 10 cubic metres of air were found.
Subsequently at the same point, after the exhaust system of
ventilation had been remodelled, 0·95 milligramme only was present.
Even in a stillage room in which no work was done other than the
placing on and removal of the boards from the racks, the lead
content per 10 cubic metres of the air was 1·08 milligrammes. In
glost-placing, the average of four experiments was 1·83
milligrammes—no doubt the result of glaze on the boards. As much
as 9·11 milligrammes of lead was found per 10 cubic metres of air in
the centre of a large majolica-painting room, with wooden floors and
much traffic in it. Wooden floors generally appeared to influence the
results, as determinations of the lead present were higher in rooms
with them than with tiled floors.
In coach-painting the proportion of lead found by Duckering in the
air breathed during the actual time of sand-papering explains the
severe incidence of poisoning in this class of work. The table shows
the amount of lead in the air to be enormous, and in many cases
much in excess of the amount found in the air when wiping off in the
tinning of hollow-ware. The work of sand-papering is, however, very
rarely continuous, the time occupied in it being, for the painter, about
one to two hours daily; for the brush hand, two to three and a half
hours; and for the painter’s labourer, four to five hours.
Knowing intimately the processes at which the estimations
recorded in the table were made, the relative frequency of cases of
plumbism reported among those employed at them, and the duration
of employment prior to attack, we believe that, if the amount of lead
present in the air breathed contains less than 5 milligrammes per 10
cubic metres of air, cases of encephalopathy and paralysis would
never, and cases of colic very rarely, occur. And this figure is a quite
practical one in any process amenable to locally-applied exhaust
ventilation. Somewhere about 2 milligrammes, or 0·002 gramme, of
lead we regard as the lowest daily dose which, inhaled as fume or
dust in the air, may, in the course of years, set up chronic plumbism.
Local Exhaust Ventilation.—In considering preventive
measures against lead poisoning, precedence must be given to
removal of fumes and dust by locally-applied exhaust ventilation, as,
unfortunately, the wearing of a respirator is neither in itself a
sufficient protection, nor, if it were, could the constant wearing of one
be enforced. A respirator is of no use against lead fume. In the case
of dust, the conditions which it must fulfil to be effective are, first, that
the air breathed is freed from dust, and, secondly, that it should not
incommode the wearer. Further, it should be simple in construction,
easily applied, and allow of frequent renewal of the filtering medium.
No existing respirator of moderate price conforms quite satisfactorily
with these requirements. The more closely to the face it is made to
fit, and the more effectually the air is filtered, the greater is the
inconvenience experienced when it is worn. This inconvenience is
due to the exertion (showing itself in increase of the respiratory
movements and pulse-rate) caused in aspirating the air through the
filtering medium, and rebreathing some portion of the expired breath,
containing a much greater proportion of carbonic acid gas and of
moisture at a higher temperature than are present in fresh air.
Respirators, therefore, except for work lasting a short time—half an
hour to an hour—cannot be considered an effective or sufficient
means of protecting the worker against dust. If a respirator must be
worn, the simplest form is a pad of ordinary non-absorbent cotton-
wool (absorbent wool quickly becomes sodden and impervious),
about 3 inches by 4 inches, placed over the mouth and nostrils, and
kept in position by elastic bands passed round the ears. The pad
should be burnt after use.
With a smooth, impervious floor, however, and ventilation
designed to remove the fumes and dust at, or as near as possible to,
the point of origin, lead poisoning would become very rare in most of
the industries to be described. The essential points of such a system
are—(1) The draught or current of air set in motion either by heat or
by a fan; (2) the ducts along which the current travels; (3) the hoods
or air-guides designed to intercept and catch the fumes and dust at
the point of generation; (4) inlets from the outside air into the room to
replace continuously the air extracted, and, in many cases, (5) a
suitable dust filter or collector.
Exhaust by Heat.—Processes giving rise to fumes or to dust
liberated on stirring or skimming, which can be dealt with by the
draught created in the furnace flue or over a bath of molten metal
provided with adequate hood and duct up which the heated air
travels, are—Smelting, refining, spelter manufacture, and the
numerous operations necessitating the melting of lead, such as
tinning with a mixture of tin and lead, sheet lead and lead piping,
stereo pots in letterpress printing, pattern-making, tempering springs,
file-hardening, etc. The dusting of red-hot metallic surfaces, as in
vitreous enamelling, might possibly also be dealt with in the same
way. The disadvantage of the exhaust by heat is the uncertainty and
inequality of the draught, and the size of the duct necessary to cope
with the volume of rarefied air from above the molten vessel.
The closer the hood is brought down over the point where the
fumes escape, the less risk is there of cross-currents deflecting them
into the workroom. Hence all baths of molten metal should have the
sides and back closed in, leaving as small a space open in front as is
practicable in view of necessary skimming or other operations.
In the case of tinning baths, Duckering[4] describes completely
successful results when from the top of the hood a shaft at least 24
inches in diameter was carried vertically upwards into the open air to
a height of 18 feet, and the top of the shaft fitted with a wind screen
in the form of a very large cone, having its lower edge below the
upper edge of the shaft, and its nearest point at least 8 inches from
the top of the shaft. Smoke produced in large quantity at any point 6
inches outside the front of the hood was entirely drawn into it. As,
however, the inrush of air caused an eddy of the fumes at the upper
edge of the opening, the edges of the hood were turned inwards, so
that the operation of wiping was done in a sort of short tunnel. In
general, it may be said that the diameter of pipes leading from hoods
to the outer air (on the efficacy of the draught in which success
depends) is much too small. Frequently mere increase in size will
convert an indifferent draught into a good one. The height of the
hood also—i.e., the distance between its lower border and the point
where it joints the duct—is of importance. The shorter this distance
is, the less serviceable does it become for the removal of fume.
Indeed, it may even retain the fume which, were the hood not
present, would rise to the roof. Sometimes safety is increased by
making the hood double, leaving a space between the two sheets,
and so concentrating the draught at the centre and at the margin.
With a fan, ducts of less diameter can be used than when
dependence is placed on heat alone. A duct carried into a chimney-
stack has the advantage of dispersing the fume at a safe distance
from the workroom.
The variableness of the draught produced by heat makes it
unsuitable for removal of dust, except such as arises from skimming.
The receptacle for the skimmings should always be kept inside the
canopy of the hood. We have, however, seen the dust given off in
the heading of yarn dyed with chromate of lead successfully carried
away under hoods connected up by branch ducts with the main
chimney-stack.
Fig. 1.—Davidson’s Sirocco Propeller Fan.

Exhaust by Fans.—The draught for removal of dust, and


frequently also of fumes, is produced by a fan, of which there are two
types: (1) low-pressure volume fans and (2) high-pressure
centrifugal fans. In the first the draught is created by the rotation of a
wheel with inclined vanes, causing the air to be driven transversely
through the wheel parallel to the axis of rotation (Fig. 1). During a
revolution a portion of the air is cut off from one side of the wheel,
and transferred through the wheel to the other. Such fans are light,
run easily, and are cheap. They are of many forms, both with regard
to the number of blades—from two to eight—and general manner in
which they are arranged. Some closely resemble the screw-propeller
of a ship, while others have blades turned over and fastened on an
outer rim. Their main defect is inability to overcome any but slight
resistance in the course of suction behind, as from constriction in, or
friction along the sides of, the ducts and right-angled bends, or of
outflow in front, as from wind-pressure. Under favourable conditions,
however, and when carefully fitted, a volume fan will exhaust dust
and fumes through a system of ducts several feet in length, as, for
example, from mono and linotype machines and electro melting-pots
in letterpress printing works. But, in order to avoid resistance from
friction, the ducts have to be somewhat larger in diameter than when
a centrifugal fan is used. With nine[A] linotype machines connected
up to a 14-inch propeller fan, the branch ducts should be about 4
inches in diameter, and the main duct 12 inches, increasing from 12
to 15 inches within 2 feet of the fan-box. The shorter and straighter
the course of the duct to the propeller fan, the more efficiently it
works. Wind-guards are necessary to overcome resistance from this
source in front, but their position requires to be carefully considered,
so as to prevent the screen itself crippling the outflow.
[A] If gratings are also inserted in the same duct for general ventilation the
number of machines must be decreased pro ratâ.

All fans require frequent cleaning, and in this respect propeller


fans have the advantage over centrifugal, in that they are usually
more accessible.
Fig. 2.—Davidson’s Dust Centrifugal Fan.

Centrifugal Fans.—Generally, in the removal of dust, a strong


suction has to be set up in a system of narrow ducts by means of a
centrifugal fan—i.e., a fan-wheel formed by a number of vanes
attached to an axle mounted in a spiral-shaped casing—so that
when the wheel rotates air is carried along by the vanes, and flies off
tangentially into the space between the blades and the casing, and
thence to the outlet (Fig. 2). The air inlet or junction of the fan with
the exhaust duct is at the centre of the fan, an arrangement by which
the kinetic energy created by the rapid motion of the air leads to
increase of draught instead of being wasted in production of eddies
in the surrounding spaces. They are made in many different
patterns, according to the nature of the work to be done. Their

You might also like