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Century classes

1. Which is the poor reducing agent?


a) Atomic hydrogen b) Nascent hydrogen c) Dihydrogen d) All have same reducing strength
2. Adsorbed hydrogen by palladium is known as:
a) Nascent b) Heavy c) Occluded d) Atomic
3. Hydrogen cannot be obtained by:
a) Zn and dil. H2SO4 b) Zn + dil HNO3 c) Mg + H2SO4 d) Mg and H2O
4. High dipole moment of water justifies that:
a) It is not a linear molecules b) It has higher density than ice c) It is neutral towards litmus d) It is a universal solvent
5. How many protons are present in deuterium?
a)0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
6. At ordinary temperature, the ratio of ortho to para is:
a) 3 : 1 b) 1 : 3 c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 2
7. Which of the following hydride is a Borderline hydride?
a) LiH b) BeH2 c) MgH2 d) All of the above
8. Water is said to be permanently hard when it contains:
a) Sulphates of Mg & Ca b) Bicarbonates of Na and K
c) Carbonates of Na and K d) Bicarbonates of Mg and Ca
9. Zeolites are used as:
a) gem b) ion – exchanger c) pigments d) Lubricant
10. HCl is a added to the following oxides. Which one would give H 2O2?
a) MnO2 b) Pb O2 c) BaO2 d) KO2
11. Heavy water is obtained by:
a) Prolonged electrolysis of water b) Dissolving heavy salts in water c) Distillation of water d) Removing impurities of Ca and Mg from water
12. The equation:

C+H2O→CO+H2, CO+H2 + H2O CATALYST


 CO2+2H2 is the manufacture of hydrogen by :
a) Langmuir process b) Lane process c) Bosch’s process d) Nelson’s process
13. The exhausted permutit is generally regenerated by percolating through it a solution of :
a) 10% NaCl b) 10% KCl c) 10% CaCl2 d) 10% MgCl2
14. Which of the of following statement is not true about hydrogen peroxide
a) It is used as a bleaching agent b) It is used as an antiseptic
c) It is used as an oxidizing agent d) It is used in the manufacture of heavy water
15. Calgon used in water softener is:
a) Na2[Na4(PO3)6] b) Na [Na3(PO3)6] c) Na4[Na2(PO3)6] d) Na4[Na2(PO4)6]
16. If the nuclear spin of the two hydrogen atom is anti clockwise then the isomer of hydrogen is:
a) Para – hydrogen b) Ortho hydrogen c) Heavy hydrogen d) Radio active hydrogen
17. Which is the most abundant elements in the earth crust:
a) Ca b) Al b) Si d) O
18. Ozone is easily detected by the use of:
a) Ag b) Hg c) AgCl d) H2O2
19. The compound in which oxygen has +2 O.S is:
a) H2O2 b) CaO c) H2O d)F2O
20. Which of the following is not a neutral oxide?
a) CO b) NO c) N2O d) CO2
21. Which of the following is a mixed oxide?
a) Na2O2 b) Pb3O4 c) P4O6 d) P4O10
22. The order in which the following oxides are arranged according to decreasing basic nature is :
a) Na2O, MgO, Al2O3, CuO b) MgO, Al2O3, CuO, Na2 c) MgO, Al2O3, CuO, Na2O d) CuO, Na2O, MgO, AlO3
23. Which reagent is used as an absorbent of H2S and drying agent of H2S respectively:
a) Milk of magnesia and H2SO4 b) magnesia and P2O5
c) Pd and H2SO4 c) Pd and P2O5
24. Which gas has the odour of fish?
a) Ozone b) H2O2 c) H2S d) None
25. The no. of dative bonds in H2SO4 molecule is:
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4
26. Hypo is used in photography for:
a) Fixing negative b) Picture printing c) The colour of picture d) Toning of the picture
27. Which of the following gas mixture is used by the divers inside the sea :
a) O2+He b) O2+Xe c) O2+Ar d) O2+N2
28. Low volatility of H2SO4 is due to:
a) Hydrogen bonding b) Strong bonds c) Vander wall’s force d) None
29. Oleum is:
a) Fuming sulphuric acid b) Pyrosulphuric acid c) H2S2O7 d) All
30. Carbon reacts with metals to forms :
a) Carbides b) Carbonates c) Hydroxides d) Bicarbonates
31. Carbon monoxide reacts with Cl2 in presence of sunlight to give
a) COCl2 b) CO2 c) CCl4 d) CHCl3
32. In CO, the hybridization of carbon is:
a) sp2 b) sp3 c) sp d) dsp2
33. Which of the following is not used as anhydrous of acid?
a) CO b) CO2 c) SO2 d) SO3
34. CO is absorbed by:
a) Ni(CO)4 b) Ammonical cuprous chloride solution c) COS d) Alcohol
35. Poisonous gas present in the exhausts of car fumes is:
a) CH4 b) C2H2 c) CO2 d) CO
36. Anneling of glass is done to:
a) Make it brittle b) Make it opaque c) To check it from becoming brittle d) To make it transparent
37. Which of the following in known as inorganic benzene:
a) Boron nitride b) Borazine c) Benzene tetra chloride d) B.H.C
38. Which metal cries without causing tears?
a) Fe b) Sn c) Ni d) Sb
39. Diamond is harder than graphite because:
a) Graphite is planar b) Diamond has free electrons c) Graphite is sp3 hybridized d) strong -bond
40. Pentavalency in phosphorus is more stable when compared to that of nitrogen even though
they belongs to same group. This is due to:
a) Dissimilar electronic configuration b) Larger size of phosphorus atom
c) Reactivity of phosphorus d) inert nature of nitrogen
41. When ammonia is passed over heated CuO, it is oxidized to:
a) N2 b) HNO2 c) N2O d) HNO2
42. Catalytic oxidation of NH3 gives:
a) Dinitrogen pentoxide b) Nitric oxide c) Nitrogen dioxide d) Nitrogen
43. The oxide of nitrogen formed in atmosphere during lightning is
a) N2O b) NO c) N2O3 d) N2O5
44. The catalyst used in manufacture of HNO3 by ostwald’s process is:
a) Platium black b) Finely divided nickel c) Vanadium penta oxide d) Platinum gauze
45. Which acts as oxidizing as well as reducing agent
a) HNO3 b) HNO2 c) H2SO4 d) HCl
46. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is the anhydride of HNO3 ?
a) NO b) N2O3 c) N2O4 d) N2O5
47. Which mineral element is essential for nitrogen fixation?
a) Zn b) Cu c) Mo d) B
48. Ammonia is a lewis base. It forms complex with cations. Which one of the following cation does not form complex with ammonia:
a) Ag+ b) Ca++ c) Cd++ d) Pb++
49. Which of the following does not exists?
a) S b) F2 c) Cl2 d) I2
50. Which of the following halogens is purified by sublimation?
a) F2 b) Cl2 c) Br2 d) I2
51. Among Cl-,Br-,I- the correct order of being oxidized to dihalogen is :
a) Cl-,Br-,I- b) I-,Cl-,Br- c) Br-,I-,Cl- d) I-,Br-,Cl-
52. In electrolysis of HF – KF mixture in production of fluorine, the role of KF is:
a) To make HF a conducting solution b) To minimize corrosion
c) To lower solubility of fluorine d) To lower the oxidation potential of fluorine
53. Chlorine can be manufactured by:
a) Electrolysis of NaCl b) Electrolysis brine c) Electrolysis of bleaching powder d) All of the above
54. Bromine is obtained in commercial scale from:
a) Caliche b) Carnallite c) Common salt d) Cryolite
55. The acid employed for etching glass is:
a) H2SO4 b) HClO4 c) HF d) Aqua – regia
56. Which of the following is a pseudo halogens:
a) IF7 b) (CN)2 c) ICl2- d) I3-
57. The bleaching action of chlorine is due to the liberation of the following:
a) HOCl b) HCl c) [O] d) O2
58. Which of the following noble gas is the most abundant in air?
a) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Kr
59. Which of the following noble gas has least tendency to form compounds?
a) He b) Ne c) Kr d) Xe
60. In the treatment of asthma, the gases used are:
a) Mixture of helium and oxygen b) Mixture of neon and oxygen c) Mixture of xenon and nitrogen d) Mixture of argon and oxygen
61. XeF2 molecule is:
a) Linear b) Trigonal planar c) Pyramidal d) Sqnare planar
62. The most stable allotropic form of phosphorus is
a) Red b) White c) Black d) All
63. Mixture used in Holme’s signal is
a) CaC2 + CaCl2 b) CaCl2 + Ca3P2 c) CaC2 + Ca3P2 d) CaC2 + Ca3N2
64. Nitrogen reacts with calcium and carbon to give:
a) Calcium nitrate b) Calcium cyanide c) Calcium nitride d) Calcium cyanamide
65. Chile salt petre (Nitre) is:
a) KNO3 b) NaNO3 c) NaNO2 d) K2SO4
66. Cupellation process is used for the purification of:
a) Copper b) Silver c) Lead d) Gold
67. In Alumino thermic process, Aluminium is used as
a) A reducing agent b) As oxidizing agent c) To decrease the heat of furnance d) To increase the volume
68. Cyanide process is used for obtaining:
a) Cr b) Ag c) Cu d) Zn
69. Thermite is the mixture of metal oxide and aluminium in the ratio:
a) 1 : 3 b) 3 : 1 c) 2 : 3 d) 3 : 2
70. In froth floatation process, sulphide ore is heated in
a) Presence of air b) Absence of air c) Both d) None
71. Which of the following acts a reducing agent in smelting?
a) C b) Al c) Zn d) Fe
72. Nitrolim contains:
a) CaH2 + N2 b) CaCN2+C c) CaNC2+C d) CaC2+N
73. Alums are not formed by:
a) Li b) Na c) K d) Rb
74. The alkali metals readily dissolve in liquid ammonia to give solution which is blue in colour. The blue colour is believed to be due to:
a) Ammoniated cation b) Ammoniated anion c) Ammoniated electron d) Ammoniated cation and anion
75. In the down’s process of extraction of sodium, the electrodes used in anode and cathode are respectively
a) Graphite and sodium b) Graphite and Iron c) Graphite and hydrogen d) Graphite and copper
76. Solvay’s process is used for the manufacture of:
a) Na2CO3 b) NaOH c) NaCl d) Na
77. The metal present in insulin and vit B12 are respectively:
a) Zn and Co b) Zn and Mn c) Mn and Co d) Co and Sn
78. Which of the following is used in making electrode?
a) Corrosive sublimate b) Calomel c) Copper sulphate d) Zinc chloride
79. The best antidote for mercuric chloride poisoning is:
a) White of an egg b) Milk of magnesia c) Mercurous chloride d) Lime water
80. Mercury can form amalgam with all except:
a) Al b) Zn c) Ni d) Fe
81. Chromium compound usually used in tanning of leather is:
a) CrO3 b) CrO2Cl2 c) CrCl3 d) K2SO4.Cr2(SO4)3.24H2O
82. Which of the following is deliquescent?
a) ZnCl2 b) Hg2Cl2 c) CdCl2 d) HgCl2
83. Tempered steel is :
a) Hard and brittle b) Soft and melleable
c) Neither too hard nor too brittle d) Very soft
84 Aqua – regia is the 3 : 1 ratio of HCl and HNO3. Gold dissolves in aqua – regia by forming
a) AuCl4 b) AuCl3 c) H[AuCl4] d) AuCl2
85. Which of the following is preserved in water?
a) Phosphorous b) Sodium c) Zinc d) Iron
86. Fire extinguisher contains H2SO4 and:
a) NaHCO3 + Na2CO3 b) NaHCO3 solution
c) Na2CO3 d) CaCO3
87. The metal that can be extracted from sea water is:
a) Cesium b) Calcium c) Magnesium d) Zinc
88. Bone ash contains:
a) CaO b) CaSO4 c) Ca3(PO4)2 d) Ca(H2PO4)2
89. Lithophone is a combination of:
a) ZnS and PbSO4 b) ZnS and CaSO4 c) ZnS and SrSO4 d) ZnS + BaSO4
90. Monel metal is an alloy of :
a) Cu,Ni,Fe,Mn b) Cu,Sn,Zn c) Cu,Sn,P d) Cu,Zn
91. Which of the following is used in tooth paste?
a) BeF2 b) SnF2 c) BaF2 c) SrF2
92. Which one is collected by boiling water displacement method?
a) N2O b) NO c) N2O3 d) NO2
93. Basicity of H3PO2 is:
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
94. Brown's catalyst is:
a) Pt/PtO b) Pd/BaSO4 c) nickel boride d) none
95. Tritium is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen. It emits:
a) Neutrons b)   particles c) β- particles d)   rays
96. The shape of water molecular is
a) Tetrachedral b) Linear c) Pyramidal d) V- Shape
97. Which is Euchlorine?
a) Cl2 b) ClO2 c) ClO2 + Cl2 d) All
98. Litharge /massicot is
a) PbCl2 b) PbO c) PbO2 d) Pb3O4
99. Which one is flower of phosphorus?
a) P4 b) P2O5 c) P4O10 d) All
100. Which of the following does not react with AgCl?
a) Na2CO3 b) NaNO3 c) NH4OH d) Na2S2O3
Periodic table
1. First of all the elements were classified by
a) Lother Meyer b) Newland c) Mendleleev d) Dobereiner
2. Which of the following pairs violated periodic law based on atomic mass?
a) Co and Ni b) Fe and Co c) Na and K d) All
3. The law of triads is applicable to:
a) C, N, O b) H, O, N c) Na, K, Rb d) Cl, Br, I
4. The law of octaves applies to the following sets of elements
a) B,C,N b) Be, Mg, Ca c) Ar, Kr, Ca d) Se, Te, Ag
5. The elements which occupy the peaks of the atomic volume curve are
a) Fe, Co, Ni b) Cl, Br, I c) K, Rb, Cs d) Ne, Ar, Kr
6. The no. of metalloids in P.T. is
a) 5 b) 6 c) 9 d) 8
7. Which of the following has maximum density?
a) Rb b) Ca c) Mg d) Be
8. Which of the following is most easily gets hydrolyzed?
a) MgCl2 b) AlCl3 c) SiCl4 d) PCl5
9. Which of the following has highest b. pt.?
a) H2O b) HI c) NH3 d) HF
10. A reduction in radii with increase in atomic no. is a characteristics of the elements of
a) highest atomic mass b) d-block c) f-block d) radioactive series
11. Number of natural elements present in Actinide series is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7
12. Number of radioactive elements present in Lanthanide series is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) none
13. Which of the following electronic structure refers to transition elements?
a) 2, 8, 18 , 5 b) 2, 8, 14, 2 c) 2, 8, 18, 32, 18, 8, 1 d) 2, 8, 5
14. A transition element "X" has a configuration [Ar] 3d 4 in +3 state. Its at. no. is
a) 25 b) 26 c) 22 d) 19
15. The second series of transition metals starts with
a) Y b) Sc c) La d) Ac
16. The 1st I.E of the elements of the transition series
a) increases as the atomic no. increase b) decrease as the atomic no. increase
c) do not show any change as the addition of electron takes place in the inner (n–1)d – orbital
d) none
17. Which of the following has lowest m.pt.?
a) Cs b) Na c) Hg d) Sn
18. Among transition metals the element with lowest m. pt. belong to
a) gr 3 b) gr 11 c) gr 6 d) gr 12
19. In which of the following element has highest value of I. P. ?
a) Ti b) Zr c) Hf d) None
20. What is the correct order of I. P. ?
a) 5d > 3d > 4d b) 3d > 4d > 5d c) 4d > 3d > 5d d) 4d ≈ 3d ≈ 5d
21. Density of sodium and potassium follows the order
a) K < Na b) K > Na c) Na ≈ K d) None
22. Which has the highest lattice energy
a) LiF b) LiCl c) LiBr d) LiI
23. Which of the following is more soluble in water?
a) BeSO4 b) MgSO4 c) CaSO4 d) SrSO4
24. Zero group in the periodic table was introduced by:
a) Lother Meyer b) Mendeleev c) Ramsay d) Newland
25. Long form of periodic table is based on:
a) Atomic size b) Atomic mass c) Atomic number d) Electro negativity
26. Which of the following does not reflect the periodicity of elements?
a) Bonding behaviour b) Elector negativity c) Ionization potential d) Neutron / Proton ratio
27. The element with the highest ionization potential is:
a) oxygen b) nitrogen c) carbon d) boron
28. The first ionization potential of Na, Mg, Al & Si are in the order of:
a) Na < Mg > Al < Si b) Na > Mg > Al > Si c) Na < Mg < Al > Si d) Na > Mg > Al < Si
29. Which of the following elements has the maximum electron affinity?
a) Oxygen b) Chlorine c) Fluorine d) Nitrogen
30. Which one of the following has the highest m. pt.?
a) Na b) Mg c) K c) Al
31. Most acidic oxide is
a) Cl2O b) Cl2O3 c) Cl2O5 d) Cl2O7
32. Which of the following species has the highest electro affinity?
a) F– b) O c) O– d) Na+
33. Which one of the following ions is paramagnetic?
a) Ag+ b) Fe2+ c) K+ d) Mg2+
34. Which of the following is/are the correct order of mobility?
a) Li+ < Na+ <K+ b) Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+ c) Al3+ < Mg2+ <Na+ d) both a & c
35. Which of the following oxides is / are amphoteric?
a) BeO b) SnO c) ZnO d) All of above
36. The lower electro affinity of fluorine than that of chlorine is due to:
a) smaller size b) smaller nuclear charge
c) difference in their electronic configuration d) its highest reactivity
37. Which one of the following is a metalloid?
a) C b) Si c) Ge d) Pb
38. Which of the following species has lowest I.P?
a) O b) O2 c) O2+ d) O2-
39. Electron affinity of halogens follows the order:
a) F > Cl > Br > I b) F < Cl > Br > I c) F < Cl < Br < I d) F < Cl < Br > I
40. Decreasing order of the size of the following ions is
a) Li+ > H > H– b) H+ > H– >Li+ c) H– > Li+ > H+ d) H– > H+ > Li+
41. Chloride ion and potassium ion are isoelectronic. Then
a) their sizes are same b) Cl– ion is bigger than K+ ion
+
c) K ion is relatively bigger d) their sizes depends upon other cation and anion
42. Ionization potential of an ion is equal to:
a) electron affinity of the atom b) electro negativity of the ion
c) ionization energy of the ion d) both a & c
43. Which of the following parameter can't be estimated by using Born-Haber Cycle?
a) Hydration energy b) Electro affinity c) Lattice energy d) Electro negativity
44. The screening effect of inner electrons of nucleus causes:
a) decrease in the I. E. b) increase in the I. E.
c) no effect on the I. E. d) increase the attraction of the nucleus for the electrons
45. Which of the following ions has the lowest magnetic moment?
a) Cu2+ b) Ni2+ c) Co3+ d) Fe2+
46. The element which is isoelectronic with hydroxide ion is:
a) Mg b) F c) Na d) Ne
47. For a given value of probability of finding an electron near the nucleus decreases in the order:
a) f > d > p > s b) s > p > d > f c) p > f > d > s d) s > d > f > p
48. Correct order of 1st I. P. is
a) K > Na > Li b) Be > Mg > Ca c) B > C > N d) Ge > Si > C
49. The calculation of electro negativities was first done by:
a) Pauling b) Mulliken c) Bohr d) Slater
50. Electro negativity values for the elements help in predicting:
a) polarity of bonds b) dipole moments c) valency of elements d)position of electrochemical series
51. Which of the following processes involves absorption of energy?
a) Cl(g) + e– Cl– (g) b) O– (g) + e– O2– (g) c) O(g) + e– O– (g) d) S(g) + e– S– (g)
52. Which of the following sets contain a pair of elements that do not belong to the same group but show chemical resemblance?
a) B, Al b) Be, Al c) Zr, Hf d) K, Rb
53. The name ‘rare earths’ is used for:
a) Lanthanides b) Actinides c) Both lanthanides & actinides d) Alkaline earth metals
54. Representative elements belong to:
a) s-and p –blocks b) p-and d-blocks c) f-block only d) d-and f-blocks
55. Diagonal relationship is shown by certain elements of periods:
a) 2nd and 3rd b) 3rd and 4th c) 4th and 5th d) 1st and 2nd
56. The element cited as an example to prove the validity of Mendeleev’s periodic law is:
a) Germanium b) Scandium c) Gallium d) all
57. Which of the following is not a Dobereiner triad?
a) Cl, Br, I b) Ca, Sr, Ba c) Li, Na, K d) Fe, Co, Ni-
58. f-block elements are called inner transition elements because:
a) They have properties similar to those of transition elements
b) They have been taken out of the transition elements
c) They last electron enters into the f-orbital of penultimate shell
d) They last electron enters into the f-orbital of the ante-penultimate shell
59. Least stable ion is:
a) Li– b) Be– c) B– d) C–
60. Correct order of radii
a) N < Be < B b) F– < O2– < N3– c) Na < Li < K d) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe4+
61. Which one of the following is correct order of the size?
a) I > I– > I+ b) I > I+ > I– c) I+ > I– > I d) I– > I > I+
-
62. The species isoelectronic with CN is
a) F2 b) O2 c) Si d) O22-
3- 2- - +
63. The ionic radii of N , O , F & Na follow the order:
a) N3– > O2– > F– > Na+ b) N3– > Na+ > O2– > F– c) Na+ > O2– > N3– >F– d) O2– > F– > Na+ > N3–
64. General outer electronic configuration of transition metal is
a) ns2nd1-10 b) ns2np1(n-1)d1-10
2 6 1-10
c) ns np (n-1)d d) ns0-2(n-1)d1-10
65. Which of the following combination contains only isoelectronic species?
a) N3–, O2–, Cl–, Ne b) F–, As, S2–, Cl– c) P3–, S2–, Cl–, Ar d) N–3, F–, O2–, Ar
st
66. Which of the following isoelectronic ions has the lowest 1 I.E?
a) K+ b) Ca2+ c) Cl– d) S2–
67 Which one of the following ions has the smallest radius?
a) Cl– b) S2– c) K+ d) Ca2+
68. Element with atomic number 56 belong to
a) s-block b) p-block c) d-block d) f-block
69 The outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative element is:
a) ns2 np3 b) ns2 np4 c) ns2 np5 d) ns2 np6
70. Alkali metals are powerful reducing agents because
a) these are metals b) their ionic radii are large c) these are monovalent d) their I. P. is low
71. The elements with zero electrons affinity are
a) Boron and carbon b) Beryllium and helium c) Lithium and Sodium d) Fluorine and chlorine
72. Ionic nature is more for
a) BeCl2 b) BCl3 c) LiCl d) None
73. Which of the following has no units?
a) Ionization potential b) Electron affinity c) Electro negativity d) None
74. An example of a non-stoichimetric compound is:
a) PbO b) NiO2 c) Al2O3 d) Fe3O4
75. The screening effect of d-electrons is
a) much less than s-electrons b) much more than s-electrons c) equal to s-electrons d) equal to p-electrons
76. If the atoms differs largely in their electro negativity then
a) bond formed between them is purely ionic or polar b) bond formed between them is purely covalent
c) bond formed between them is co-ordinate d) no bond is formed
77. Which of the following adsorb hydrogen?
a) Na b) B c) Cu d) Pd
78. Which of the following ions has maximum hydration energy?
a) K+ b) Li+ c) Cs+ d) Na+
st
79. Atoms which have high 1 ionization potential always have:
a) high nuclear charge b) small atomic size c) metallic properties d) strongly bound valence
electron
80. The cause of diagonal relationship is due to same:
a) polarizing power b) polarizability c) atomic size d) charge
81. The most stable oxide is
a) SiO2 b) Al2O3 c) N2O d) MgO
82. Among the following which one has the highest paramagnetic behaviour
a)[Cr(H2O)6]3+ b) [Fe (H2O)6]2+ c) [Cu(H2O)6]2+ d) [Zn(H2O)6]2+
83. The Chemical elements are arranged in the order of increasing electro negativities in the sequences:
a) Si, P, Se, Br, Cl, O b) Si, P, Br, Se, Cl, O c) P, Si, Br, Se, Cl, O d) Se, Si, P, Br, Cl, O
84. The correct order regarding the electro negativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is
a) sp<sp2>sp3 b) sp<sp2<sp3 c) sp>sp2>sp3 d) sp>sp2<sp3
85. Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide?
a) BeO b) B2O3 c) CaO d) SiO2
86. Cs+ ion imparts violet colour to the flame. This is due to the fact that the emitted radiations have
a) High energy b) Low energy c) Longer wavelength d) None of these
87. Which of the following has lowest thermal stability?
a) Li2CO3 b) Na2CO3 c) K2CO3 d) Rb2CO3
88. Which compound will show the highest lattice energy ?
a) RbF b) CsF c) NaF d) KF
89. Which of the following is an ore of potassium?
a) Carnallite b) Cryolite c) Bauxite d) Dolomite
90. The formula of nitre is
a) KNO3 b) NaNO2 c) NaCl d) Na2CO3
91. Which of the following alkali metal give peroxide?
a) Li b) K c) Na d) Rb
92. Which of the following is least soluble in water ?
a) BeSO4 b) BaSO 4 c) CaSO4 d) SrSO 4
93. Which one of the alkaline earth metals shows some anomalous behavior and has the same electro negativity as aluminium ?
a) Ba b) Sr c) Ca d) Be
94. The correct order of increasing ionic character is
a) BeCl2<MgCl2<CaCl2<BaCl2 b) BeCl2<MgCl2<BaCl2<CaCl2 c) BeCl2<BaCl2<MgCl2<CaCl2 d) BaCl2<CaCl2<MgCl2<BeCl2
95. Alums are not formed by
a) NH4+ b) Na+ c) Li+ d) Rb+
96. Quartz is a crystalline variety of
a) Si b) SiO2 c) Na2SiO3 d) SiC
97. The correct order of bond angle is
a) NH3 > PH3 > NF3 > PF3 b) NH3 > NF3 > PF3 > PH3 c) NH3 > PF3 > NF3 > PH3 d) NF3 > PF3 > NH3 > PH3
98. Which of the following has lowest size:
a) N3- b) O2- c) F- d) Ne
99. Which of the following will have maximum electron affinities ?
a) 1s22s22p5 b) 1s22s22p6 c) 1s22s22p63s23p5 d) 1s22s22p63s23p6
100. Which of the following has lowest m.pt.?
a) KClO4 b) KBrO4 c) KIO4 d) All
Inorganic set
1. Which of the following has the highest melting point?
a) F b) Cl c) Br d) I
2. The element that has the highest first ionization potential is:
a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen c) Carbon d) Boron
3. Which of the following is more stable?
a) Ortho hydrogen b) Para hydrogen c) Both d) None
4. Si H4 is a/an ___ hydride
a) Ionic b) Metallic c) Covalent d) Interstitial
5. Carbon in Graphite is ___ hydrized:
2 3
a) sp b) sp c) sp d) None
6. Which is not allotropic form of tin?
a) White b) Grey c) Red d) Rhombic
7. % of lead in lead pencil is:
a) 50% b) 20% c) 10% d) 0%
8. Which oxide of nitrogen is whitish?
a) NO b) N2O3 c) N2O5 d) NO2
9. Ammonia can be dried by:
a) Conc H2SO4 b) P4O10 c) CaO d) Anhyd.CaCl2
10. What is formed when O3 reacts with mercury?
a) HgO b) Hg2O2 c) Hg2O d) HgO2
11. Iodine is obtained from
a) See weeds b) Carnallite c) Felspar d) Fluospar
12. A metal nerver found in free state is:
a) Au b) Ag c) Cu d) Zn
13. Mond’s process is used in purification of:
a) Ni b) CO c) NH3 d) P
14. Metal extracted by electrolysis of its fused salt is:
a) Fe b) Na c) Cu d) pb
15. Microscomic salts is:
a) Na2HPO4.2H2 b) Na(NH4)HPO4.4H2O c) (NH4)2HPO4 d) None
16. Which one of the following is most basic?
a) Al2O3 b) MgO c) SiO2 d) P2O5
17. Which of the following is used in tooth paste?
a) BeF2 b) SnF2 c) BaF2 c) SrF2
18. Gold dissolves in aquaregia forming
a) Au (NO3)2 b) H [AuCl4] c) AuCl d) AuNO3
19. Zn, on reacting with cold dil HNO3, forms:
a) NO2 b) NH4NO3 c) ZnNO3 d) No
20. Commercial hydrogen is obtained from:
a) Coal gas b) Oil gas c) Marsh Gas d) Producer gas
21. Tritium is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen. It emits:
a) Neutrons b)   particles c) β- particles d)   rays
22. The shape of water molecular is
a) Tetrachedral b) Cinear c) Pyramidal d) V- Shape \
23. Which of the following metal cries without tear?
a) Tin b) Lead c) Aluminum d) Copper
24. Litharge /massicot is
a) PbCl2 b) pbO c) PbO2 d) Pb3O4
25. Nitrolium is:
a) CaCN2 b) CaC2 c) CaCN2+C d) None
26. H3PO3 is a
a) Triprotic acid b) Diprotic acid c) Neutral d) Monoprotic acid
27. A good sample of bleaching powder contains ____% available chlorine:
a) 35-38% b) 85-90% c) 99% d) 20-25%
28. Bleaching powder is:
a) Normal salt b) Mixed salt c) Double salt d) Complex salt
29. Bad conductor of electricity is:
a) H2F2 b) HBr c) HCl d) H5
30. Which of the following metal doesn’t form alums?
a) Li b) Na c) Cs d) K
31. The material used in solar cell contains:
a) Fe b) Cs c) NC d) K
32. A scavenger in Metallurgy is:
a) Be b) Mg c) Ca d) Sr
33. Which of the following statement is correct with respect to the property of elements with an increase in atomic no. in
the carbon family?
a) Atomic size decrease b) Ionization energy increases
c) Metallic character decreases d) Stability of +2 oxidation state increases
34. Electro negativity of an element help in predicting;
a) Dipole movements b) Polarity of bonds c) Valence of elements d)Positionof electrochemical series
35. Which one of the following elements can have both positive and negative oxidation states?
a) Fe b) H c) Li d) Cs
36. H2O2 is commonly prepared in lab by the reaction of:
a) PbO2 + H2SO4 b) MnO2 + H2SO4 c) BaO2 + H2O + CO2 d) Na2O2 + H2O
37. Zeolite which shows ion-exchange ability is:
a) An ion-exchange resin
b) Is a closed packed assemblage of Si and O2 atom
c) Is a Sodium aluminum silicate
38. Prussian blue is:
a) Fe2[Fe(CN)6] b) Fe3[Fe(CN)6] c) Fe[Fe(CN)6]3 d) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
39. One of the oxidants used with liquid propellants is;
a) Ammonium perchlorate b) Sulphuric acid c) Nitraocellulose d) Nitrogen trioxide
40. Which is paramagnetic?
a) NO b) N2O4 c) P4O6 d) N2O5
41. Ordinary O2 contains:
16 17
a) Only O isotopes b) Only O isotopes
16 17 18
c) a mixture of O16 & O18 d) a mixture of O ,O & O isotopes
42. The compound lacking peroxide linkage:
a) Na2O3 b) CrO5 c) H2SO5 d) PbO2
43. Superphalogen is:
a) F2 b) Cl2 c) Br2 d) I2
44. Euchlorine is a mixture of:
a) Cl2 & SO2 b) Cl2 & ClO2 c) Cl2 & CO d) Both b & c
45. The highest temperature is achieved in which furnance?
a) Blast b) Revery beratory c) Electric d) Muffle
46. Which is fusion mixture?
a) Na2CO3+ NaHCO3 b) KHCO3+ NaHCO3 c) Na2CO3 + K2CO3 d) None
47. Calcium doesn’t combine directly with:
a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Hydrogen d) Carbon
48. An alloy german silver contains ___% of silver:
a) 1.5% b) 2.5% c) 10% d) 0%
49. Which of the following is used as an antidote for snake poisoning?
a) AuCl b) AuCl3 c) H [AuCl4] d) K [Au (CN)2]
50. Which of the following is formed, when H2S is passed through the solution if sodium zincate?
a) ZnS b) Zn (on)2 c) Zn(NO3)2 d) Na2[Zn(OH)4]
(The Oxygen Family)
1. The most stable allotropic form of sulphur is:
a. Rhombic b. Monoclini c. Plastic d. Milk of sulphur
2. Ozone is:
a. Compound of oxygen b. Allotrope of oxygen c. Isotrope of oxygend. Mixture of atomic & molecular oxygen
3. Amphoteric oxide is:
a. MnO2 b. Znc. c. CaO d.CO2
4. Moist iodine reacts with ozone to form:
a. HI b.I2O5 c. HIO3 d.HIO4
5. Oxygen does not react with:
a. Cl b. S c. Na d. P
6. A gas that can not be collected over water is:
a. N2 b. O2 c. SO2 d. PH3
7. Which one of the following is paramagnetic?
a. O2 b. N2O c. He d. NH3
8. The gases respectively absorbed by alkaline pyrogallol and oil of cinnamon is:
a. O3,CH4 b. SO2, CH4 c. O2,O3 d. N2O, O3
9. When SO2 is passed through a solution of H2S in water:
a. Sulphuric acid is formed
b. A clear solution is formed
c. Sulphur is precipitated
d. No change is observed
10. Which of the following turns lead acetate paper black?
a. SO2 b. SO3 c. H2SO4 d. H2S
11. When H2S is passed through nitric acid solution, the product formed is:
a. H2SO4 b. Colloidal sulphur c. SO2 d. Plastic sulphur
12. Mark the wrong statement : When Na2S is added to sodium nitroprusside solution
b. A complex  Fe(CN)5NOS is formed
4-
a. Beautiful violet colour is produced
c. A complex  Fe(CN)5NOS is formed d.. The comlex Na4 Fe(CN)5NOS is formed
2-

13. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to:


a. Reduction b. Oxidation c. Its acidic nature d. Hydrolysis
14. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
a. H2S is a dibasic acid b. H2S acts only reducing agent
b. The bond angle in H2S is 10928’ d. H2S has rotten smell
15. Which one of following is not true peroxide?
a. PbO2 b. BaO2 c. Na2O2 d. H2O2

16. H2S is far more volatile than water because:


a. S is more electronegative than O. b. O is more electronegative than S.
c.H2O has bond angle of nearly 105 d. H-atom is loosely bonded with S.
17. Which compound acts an oxidising as well as a reducing agent?
a. SO2 b. MnO2 c. Al2O3 d. CrO3
18. Which of the following bonds has the highest energy?
a. Se- Se b. Te-Te c. S-S d. O-O
19. Which of the following is the most powerful oxidizing agent?
a. H2SO4 b. H3BO3 c. HPO3 d. H3PO4
+ - 2-
20. In the species O2, O2 , O2 & O2 , the correct decreasing order of bond strength is:
+ - 2- + - 2- 2- - + - 2- +
a. O2 >O2 >O2 >O2 b. O2 >O2>O2 >O2 c. O2 >O2 >O2 >O2 d. O2 >O2 >O2>O2
21. The geometry of H2S and its dipole moment are:
a. Angular and non zero b. Angular and zero c. Linear and zero d. Linear and non zero.
22. Tailing of mercury is due to formation of:
a. Mercuric oxide b. Mercurous oxide c. Mercuric chloride d. Mercurous chloride
23. Identify the incorrect statement with respect to ozone:
a. Ozone is formed in the upper atmosphere by a photochemical reaction involving dioxygen .
b. Ozone is more reaction than dioxygen.
c. Ozone is diamagnetic while dioxygen is paramagnetic.
d. Ozone protect the earth’s inhabitants by absorbing gamma radiations.
24. The correct O-O bond length (decreasing) in O2, H2O2 &O3 is:
a. O2 H2O2O3 b. O3O2H2O2 c. H2O2O3O2 d. H2O2O2O3
25. All the following decompose easily on heating to give oxygen as the only gaseous product EXCEPT:
a. Lead nitrate b. Potassium chlorat c. Mercuric oxide d. Manganese dioxide
26. The ozone layer in the stratosphere is depleted by:
a. NO b. NO2 c.CCl2F2 d. All of above.
27. Oxygen can be obtained from bleaching powder by:
a. Adding dilute acid b. Adding alkalies c. Heating with lime d. Heating with a cobalt salt
27. When SO2 reacts with Iron:
a. Fe2O3 is formed b. FeS is formed c. Fe is oxidized d. Fe is reduced.
28. The chemical reaction between Na2S2O3 and I2 in aqueous medium produces:
a. Na2S+NaI+H2S b. Na2SO4+NaI+H2O c. Na2SO3+NaI+H2O d. Na2S4O6+NaI
29. Oxalic acid when heated with conc H2SO4 it gives out:
a. H2O+CO2 b. CO+CO2 c.CO2+H2S d. Oxalic sulphate.
Metallurgy
1. The most abundant element on the earth's crust is
(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen (c) Silicon (d) Carbon
2. Pyrolusite is a/an
(a) Sulphide ore (b) Carbide ore (c) Oxide ore (d) None
3. A metal never found in Free State is
(a) Cu (b) Ag (c) Au (d) Fe
4. Iron ore is concentrated by
(a) Forth floatation (b) Electrolysis (c) Roasting (d) Magnetic
5. Magnetic Separation is used for increasing concentration of the following
(a) Horn Silver (b) Calcite (c) Haematite (d) Magnesite
6. For which one metal, forth floatation process is used for concentration?
(a) Cinnabar (b) Horn silver (c) Bauxite (d) None
7. Forth floatation process is used for the metallurgy of
(a) Chloride ore (b) Oxide ore (c) Sulphide ore (d) All
8. Which metal can't be obtained by electrolysis of its aqueous solution?
(a) Cu (b) Mg (c) Cr (d) Ni
9. Forth floatation for the concentration of ore is an illustration of the practical application of
(a) Absorption (b) Adsorption (c) Coagulation (d) Sedimentation
10. The metallurgical process in which metal is obtained in a fused state is called
(a) Smelting (b) Roasting (c) Calcination (d) Forth floatation
11. The purpose of smelting an ore is to
(a) Reduce it (b) Oxidise it (c) Obtain alloy (d) All
12. Inner layer of blast furnace is made of
(a) Graphite bricks (b) Silica bricks (c) Fire-clay bricks (d) Basic bricks
13. In blast furnace, maximium temperature is in
(a) Zone of fusion b) Zone of combustion (c) Zone of slag combustion (d) Zone of reduction
14. The highest temperature is achieved in which type of furnace
(a) Blast (b) Reverberatory (c) Electric (d) Muffle
15. Of the following, which cannot be obtained by electrolysis of the aqueous solution of salts?
(a) Ag (b) Mg &Al (c) Cu (d) Cr
16. Cyanide process is used for obtaining
(a) Cr (b) Ag (c) Cu (d) Zn
17. Chromium obtained by reduction process, the element is
(a) Red hot coke (b) Gaseous H2 (c) Al powder (d) Co
18. A common metal that is used for extraction of some other metal from oxide is
(a) Cr (b) Fe (c) Mn (d) Al
19. One of the following metal forms a volatile compound and this property is taken advantage for its extraction. The metal is
(a) Fe (b) Ni (c) Co (d) Cu
20. Van Arkel method of purification of metal involves converting metal to a:
(a) Volatile stable compound (b) Volatile unstable compound (c) Non volatile stable compound (d) None of above
21. Nickel is purified by thermal decomposition of its
(a) Chloride (b) Iodide (c) Carbonyl (d) S
22. The most electropositive metal are isolated from their ore by
(a) High temperature reduction with carbon (b) Selt reduction
(c) Thermal decomposition (d) Electrolysis of fused ionic salts
23. In extraction of sodium by down's process, we use
(a) Graphite- Anode (b) Graphite- Cathode (c) Both (d) None
24. Malachite is an ore of
(a) Iron (b) Copper (c) Mercury (d)Zinc
25. Aluminothermite is mixture of
(a) Al &Mg (b) Al & CaCO3 (c) Al & Fe2O3 (d)All
26. An aluminothermite is mixture of
(a) Al powder & Fe2 O3 as 3:1 (b) Al Powder Fe2O3 as 1:3
(c) Al powder & Fe2O3 as 1:1 (d) Al powder & Fe2O3 as 2:3
27. In aluminothermite process Al is
a) Reducing agent (b) Igniting agent (c) oxidizing agent (d) none
28. Mond's process is used for purification of
(a) Ni (b) Cu (c) Ag (d) Zn
29. Slag has
(a) Low density & high melting point. (b) Low melting point & high density.
(c) High density & high melting point. (d) Low melting point & low density.
30. An additional substance added to the ore is
(a) Flux (b) slay (c) matrix (d) gangue

1. In aluminothermite process, ignite mixture is


(a) Al powder only (b) Al+ Mg only (c) Al+ Mg+BaO2 only (d) All possible
2. Reduction of metal with carbon is
(a) Smelting (b) Hydrometallurgy (c) Auto –oxidation (d) electrometallurgy
3. Which of following is reduced by carbon?
a) ZnO (b) CuO (c) HgO (d) ALL
4. Which of following is not reduced by carbon method?
a) MgO (b) CaCO3 (c) AL2O3 (d) ALL
5. During smelting process, carbon acts as
(a) Oxidizing agent (b) Reducing agent c) Both (d) None
6.. Matte is
) Cu2S (b) FeS (c) CU2S+FeS (d) ALL
7. Flux is
a) Acidic (b) Basic (c) Both (d) None
8. Reductions by precipitation is
a) Hydrometallurgy (b) Electrometallurgy (c) smelting (d) All
9. Calcination is an example
a) Oxidation (b) Reduction (c) Disproportionation (d) All
10. Roasting involves
(a)Oxidation (b) Reduction (c) disproportionation (d) All
11. Calcination is used for
(a) Oxide ore (b) carbonate ore (c) Hydrated oxide (d) Both c&d
12. Roasting is used for
(a) Oxide (b) Sulphide (c) Nitrate (d) Carbonate
13. Most common furnace is used for calcination & roasting process
(a) Blast furnace (b) Reverberatory furnace (c) Electric furnace (d) Regenerative furnace
14. Which are acidic refactories?
(a) SiO2 & Gannister (b) CaO & gannister (c) Graphite , chromite & carborandum (d) All
15. Thomas slag is
(a) Ca3(Po4)2 (b) CaSiO3 (c) Mixture of a and b (d) only a
16. Which of following metal undergoes self –oxidation during extraction process?
(a) Hg (b) Cu (c) Pt (d) All
17. In liquation process
(a) Metals have low melting point. (b) Ores have low melting point.
(c) Both possible (d) Metals have high melting point.
18. Liquation process is used for
(a) Sn (b) Pb (c) Bi (d) All
19. Distillation for purification is used for
(a) Zn (b) Hg (c) Cd (d) All
20. In polling , green log acts
(a) Oxidizing agent (b) Reducing agent (c) Hydrolysing agent (d) All
21. In polling, green log reduces
(a) Oxide impurities (b) Sulphide impurities (c) Carbonate impurities (d) All
22. Cupellation is used for purification of
(a) Ag (b) Pb (c) Au (d) Cu
23. Cupellation is used to remove
(a) Ag (b) Pb (c) Au (d) Cu
24. Zone refining is used for
(a) Metal (b) metalloid (c) semi-conductor (d) All
25. Nickel is purified by
(a) CO2 (b) CO (c) SO2 (d) All
26. Which one of the following process is beneficial for AL2O3. 2H2O2 ?
(a) Forth floatation (b) leaching (c) liquation (d) magnetic separation
27. Which of following non metal is stored under metal?
(a) Phosphorus b) Sulphur c) Na d) Zn
28. Which of following metal is sometime found in free state in nature?
(a) Al b) Cu c) Fe (d) Mg
29. In electro- refining of copper, gold is deposited as
(a) Cathode mud b) Anode mud (c) Cathode (d) Electrode
30. Alluminium is purified by
(a) Hoop's Process (b) Hall's process (c) Bayer's process (d) Serpeck's process
Hydrogen

1. Reaction between following pairs will produce Hydrogen except


a) Cu+Hcl b) Fe+ H2so4 c) Mg+ steam d) Na+Alcohol
2. Action of water or dil. mineral acid on metal will give
a) Monohydrogen b) tritium
c) dihydrogen d) trihydrogen
3. Hydrogen can't be produced by the action of dil. H2so4 on
a) Cu b) Zn c) Fe d) Al
4. Which of the following metal gives H2 with dil. HNO3?
a) Mg b)Cu c) Zn d) Fe
5. Dilute HNO3 give H2 with
a) Mg b) Mn C) Mg+Mn d) None
6. Nascent Hydrogen is prepared by
a) Na & C2H5OH b) Al & NaOH c) Zn & dil. H2SO4 d) All
7. Free Hydrogen is found in
a)Acid b) Water c) Marsh gas d) Water gas
8. Which is an isotope of Hydrogen?
a) Ortho hydrogen b) Para hydrogen c) Tritium d) All
9. Which of following form of Hydrogen is radioactive in nature?|
a) Ortho b) Para c) Tritium d) Deuterium
10. Which of Hydrogen is most reactive?
a) Ortho b) Para c) Equally reactive d) None
11. Which of the following is allotrope of hydrogen?
a) Protium b) Deutrium c) Tritium d)Para
12. Which of the following shows allotropic modification?
a) Hydrogen b) Carbon & Sulphur c) All d) None
13. The absorption of hydrogen by platinum is known as
a) Hydrogenation b) Reduction c) Absorption d) Occlusion
14. In aqueous solution, H2 will not reduce
+ + + ++
a) Fe3 b) Cu2 c) Ag d) Zn
15. In aqueous solution, H2 will not reduce
+ + + +
a) Fe3 b) Cu2 c) Ag d) Fe2
16. Which is more reactive?
a) Ordinary Hydrogen b) Ortho c) Nascent d) Heavy hydrogen
17. Protium (Hydrogen) contain
a) Neutron b) Proton c) Electron d) both b & c
18. Protium (Hydrogen) contain, no. of neutron
a) 1 b) 0 c) 2 d) 3
19. Maximum no. of neutron is found in
a) Protium b) Deutrium c) Tritium d) All contain equal no.
20. Which of the following is emitted by Tritium?
a) - particle b)Neutron c) - particle d) X-rays
21. Water can be tested by
a) Smell b) Taste c)Hydrated Cuso4 d) anhydrous Cocl3(blue) which changes to pink
22. High boiling point of water is due to the presence of
a) Polar bond b) Hydrogen bond c) Electrovalent bond d) Co-ordinate bond
23. Water is liquid because of
a) Polar bond b) Hydrogen bond c) Electrovalent bond d) Co-ordinate bond
24 Which of the following metal will not reduce water?
a) Ca b) Fe c) Li d) Cu
25. The shape of water molecule is
a) Tetrahedral b) linear c) Pyramidal d)U-shape
26. Maximum possible no. of hydrogen bond a water molecule can form is
a) 1 b) 2 c)3 d) 4
27. Hardness of water is due to
++ + ++ + ++ ++ ++
a) Ca & K b) Mg & K c) Ca & Mg d)Zn
28. Permanent hardness of water is due to
- –– ––
a) NO3 b) CO3 c) HCO3 d)None
29. Permanent hardness of water is due to
- –– –
a) Cl b)SO4 c) NO3 d) All
30. Temporary hardness is due to
- –– - –
a) Cl b) SO4 c) HCO3 d) NO3
31. Oxidation no. of H2 is
a) +1 b) 0 c) -1 d) All
set -2 hydrogrn
1. Alum used for water purification is
a) Potash Alum b) Chrome Alum c) Ferric Alum d) All
2. Temporary hardness is removed by
a) Ca(OH2) b) CaCO3 c)CaSO4 d) HCl
3. The process used for removal of hardness of water
a) Bayer b) Calgon c) Serpeck d) Hoop
4. When zeolite, which is hydrated sodium aluminium silicate is treated with hard water the sodium ions are exchanged with
a) H+ ions b) Ca++ c) OH- ions d) SO42-ions
5. Calgon is
a) Na2[Na4(PO3)6] b) Na4[Na2(PO3)6] c) Na2[Na4(PO3)5] d) Na4[Na4(PO3)6]
6. Calgon is used to remove
a) Temporary hardness b) Permanent hardness c) both simultaneously d) None
7. Hardness of water is expressed as
a) Ppm ) Hpm c) Tpm d) All
8. Density of water is maximum at
a) 00c b) 500c c) 40c d) 1000c
9. Structure of H2O2
a) Planar b) linear c)Non-planar d) Tetrahedral
10. H2O2 is
a) Paramagnetic b) Diamagnetic c) Ferromagnetic d) Non-Magnetic
11. H2O2 is
a) Oxidising agent b) Reducing agent c) Acid d) All
12. Acidified solution of K2Cr2O7 on treatment with H2O2 yields
a) CrO3+ H2O+O2 b) CrO3+ H2O+O2
c) CrO5+H2O d) Cr2O7--+H2O+O2
13. D2O used more in
a) chemical industry b) Nuclear reactor c) Pharmaceutical industry d) Insecticide preparation
14. Heavy water is used as
a) Washing water b) Detergent c) Drinking water d) Moderator
15. H2O2 is commonly prepared in lab. by the reaction of
a) PbO2+ H2SO4 b) MnO2+H2SO4 c) BaO2+H2O+CO2 d) Na2O2+H2O
16. Aqueous solution of H2O2 is
a) Alkaline b) Neutral c) strongly acidic d) weakly acidic
17. Decomposition of H2O2 is reduced by
a) Na2O3 b) NaOH c) alcohol d) Pt
18. Decomposition of H2O2 is
a) Exothermic b) Endothermic c) both d) None
19. H2O2 is stored with
a) Na2O3 b) NaOH c) alcohol d) H3PO4
20. The compound that can work both oxidizing & reducing agent is
a) KMnO4 b)H2S c) BaO2 d) H2O2
21. In which of following reaction, H2O2 is acting as a reducing agent
a) H2O2+5O2H2SO4 b) 2KI+ H2O22KOH+I2 c) PbS+4H2O2PbSO4+4H2O d) Ag2O+H2O2Ag+H2O+O2
22. 30 volumes of H2O2 means
a) 30% H2O2 Soln b) 30 cm3 of soln contain 1 gm of H2O2
3 n 3
c) 1 cm of sol liberate 30 cm of O2 at STP d) All
23. Commercial 10 volume of H2O2 is a soln with strength approximately
a) 30% b)10% c) 3% d)1%
24. The volume strength of 1.5N H2O2 solution is
a) 4.8 b) 8.4 c) 3.0 d) 8.0
25. H2O2 which is used as rocket fuel has concentration
a) about 50% b)about 70% c)30% d)90%
26. The oxygen atom of H2O2 which is used for oxidation by
a) Electrovalent bond b)covalent bond c) Co-ordinate bond d) None
27. Decomposition of H2O2 is decreased by
a) Glycerol b) H3Po4 c) Acetamide b) All
28. Moist H2O2 can not be treated over con. H2SO4 because
a) It catches fire b) it is reduced by H2SO4 c) it is oxidized by H2SO4 d)it decomposes H2O2
29. H2O2 molecules are
a) Monatomic & form X22-ion b) diatomic & form X2- c) diatomic & form X- ions d) monoatic & form X- ions
\
Answers of Inorganic Chemistry Set-I(QAD):

1.c 2.c 3.b 4.a 5.b 6.a 7.d 8.a 9.b 10.c 11.a 12.c 13.a 14.d 15.a 16.a 17.d 18.b 19.d 20.d 21.b
22.a 23.b 24.a 25c 26.a 27.a 28.a 29.d 30.a 31.a 32.c 33.a 34.b 35.d 36.c 37.b 38.b 39.d 40.b
41.a 42.c 43.b 44.d 45.b 46.d 47.c 48.d 49.a 50.d 51.d 52.a 53.b 54.d 55.c 56.b 57.c 58.c 59.a
60.a 61.a 62 c 63c 64d 65.a 66.b 67. a 68.b 69.b 70.a 71.a 72.b 73.a 74.c 75.b 76.a 77.a 78.b 79.a 80.d 81. d 82.a 83.c 84.c 85.a 86.b 87.a 88.c
89.d 90.a 91.c 92. a 93.b 94.c 95.c 96. d 97.c 98.d 99. c 100.b

Answers of periodic Table


1.d 2.a 3.d 4.b 5.c 6.b 7.d 8.c 9.a 10.c 11.b 12.a 13.b 14.a 15.a 16.a 17.c 18.d 19.c 20.a
21.a 22.a 23.a 24.c 25.c 26.d 27.b 28.a 29.b 30.d 31.d 32.b 33.b 34.d 35.d 36.a 37.c 38.d 39.b
40.c 41.b 42.c 43.d 44.a 45.a 46.d 47.b 48.b 49.a 50. a 51. b 52.b 53. a 54.a 55. a 56. d 57. d 58. d 59. b 60. b 61. d 62. c
63. a 64. d 65. c 66. d 67. d 68. a 69. c 70 d 71. b 72. c 73. d 74. d 75. a76. a 77. d 78. b 79. d 80. a 81. d 82. b 83. a 84. c 85. c 86. a 87a. 88c. 89a.
90a. 91c . 92b. 93d. 94a. 95c. 96b. 97b. 98.d 99.c 100.b

1 a 11 b 21 a
2 b 12 c 22 b
3 b 13 a 23 d
4 c 14 c 24 c
5 a 15 a 25 a
6 c 16 b 26 d
7 a 17 a 27 d
8 c 18 c 28 c
9 c 19 a 29 d
10 d 20 b 30 b

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