Physiology Exam 2022

Physiology exam 2022
1. How does angiotensin II raise blood pressure?
Directly by increasing vasoconstriction and indirectly by stimulating aldosterone release
Only by increasing sodium (and, thus, water) reabsorption in the kidney
Only by causing vasoconstriction
2. During the cardiac cycle, contraction of the right atrium leads to an increase of approximately __________ in the hydrostatic
pressure within the right atrium.
1-2 mm Hg
4-6 mm Hg
7-8 mm Hg
10-12 mm Hg
3. At the end of the atrial diastole
Right ‘ventricle is completely full
Left ventricle is completely empty
Left ventricular pressure is about 35 mmHg
Left atrial pressure is about 20 mmHg
Right ventricular pressure is about 10 mmHg
4. After a heart contraction, all of the following play a role in reducing the cytoplasmic Ca2+ concentration EXCEPT:
Sarcoplasmic/endoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ ATPase (SERCA)
Plasma membrane Na+/Ca2+ exchanger
Plasma membrane Ca2+ ATPase
Sarcoplasmic/endoplasmic reticulum Na+/Ca2+ exchanger
5. Ventricular systole
Begins with the isometric relaxation phase
Lasts about 0.5 s in healthy adults at rest
Lasts longer than atrial systole. Can coincide with atrial systole in complete heart block
6. The purkinje tissue cells in the heart :
conduct impulses faster than some neurons

are larger than ventricular myocardial cells
lead to contraction of the base before the apex of the heart
are responsible for the short duration of the QRS complex
are responsible for the configuration of the QRS complex
7. Anincrease inplasmaosmolarity stimulates release of what hormone from the posterior pituitary?
Renin
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Aldosterone
Angiotensin II
8. The long-term mechanism for regulation of blood pressure involves regulating which of the following?
Vessel diameter
Blood volume
Contractility
Heart rate
9. Which of the following is true of ventricular diastole?
Atrioventricular valves are open
Semilunar valves are open
Atria contract all throughout this phase
10. Peripheral resistance is maximum in:
Aorta
Artery
Arteriole
Vein
11. Both atrioventricular valves , aortic pulnionary valve are all closed in
Atrial systole
isometric ventricular relaxation, Isometric ventricular contraction
Ventricular ejection
Atrial diastole
12. When the bundle of His is completely interrupted,the:
ventricles contract at a rate of 30-40 beats / minutes
atria beat irregularly
QRS complexes vary in shape from beat to beat
P-R interval remains constant from beat to beat
S.A node stops discharging
13. This famous physiologist discovered the circulation of blood:
Ernest Starling
William Harvey
Marcello Malpighi
Andreas Vesalius
14. An acute decrease in arterial blood pressure elicits which of the following compensatory changes?
Decreased firing rate of the carotid sinus nerve
Increased parasympathetic outflow to the heart
Decreased heart rate
Decreased contractility
Decreased mean systemic pressure
15. In human being the duration of cardiac cycle is ___________
0.008 sec
0.5 sec
0.8 sec
8 sec
16. Ventricular pressure is higher than the atrial pressure in all phases of the cardiac cycle Except in:
isometric contraction phase.
atrial systole phase.
maximum ejection phase.
reduced ejection phase
17. If ST-elevation was noted in leads II, III and aVF, what would it suggest?
A septal myocardial infarction
An inferior myocardial infarction
An anterior myocardial infarction
A posterior myocardial infarction
18. Diacrotic notch is due to:
sudden closure of AV valves.
sudden closure of aortic valve.
sudden decrease in aortic pressure.
marked decrease in ventricular pressure
19. A change in blood pressure that decreases the impulses to the cardiovascular center results in increased impulses from
which branch of the autonomic nervous system? What would be the effect on blood pressure (BP)?
Sympathetic; increased BP
Parasympathetic; increased BP
Sympathetic; decreased BP
Parasympathetic; decreased BP
20. The ventricular repolarisation in ECG is best seen in:
"P" wave
"Q" wave
"R" wave
"T" wave
21. The greatest pressure decrease in the circulation occurs across the arterioles because:
They have the greatest surface area
they have the greatest cross-sectional area
the velocity of blood flow through them is the highest
the velocity of blood flow through them is the lowest
they have the greatest resistance
22. What view of the heart do leads V3 and V4 represent?
Septal
Inferior
Anterior
Lateral
23. An electrocardiogram is a graphic illustration of ____________
cardiac conduction system
cardiac cycle
cardiac output
systemic and pulmonary circuits
24. Of the conductive tissues of the heart, only these cells can directly stimulate cardiac myocytes to contract:
Cells of the sinoatrial (SA) node
Cells of the atrioventricular (AV) node
Fibers of the bundle of His
Fibers of the left and right bundle branches
25. Which artery is most likely to be affected in the context of ST elevation being present in leads V3 and V4?
Right coronary artery
Left circumflex coronary artery
All of the above
Left anterior descending coronary artery
26. Starling's law of the heart
Does not operate in the failing heart
Does not operate during exercise
Explains the increase in cardiac output that occurs when venous return is increased
Explains the increase in cardiac output when the sympathetic nerves supplying the heart are stimulated
27. Which of the followings is true?
Starling's law of heart states that increase in force of contraction is directly related to cardiac output
Starling's law of heart states that the force of ventricular contraction is directly related to the end diastolic volume
Both A and B
None of the above
28. What view of the heart do leads II, III and aVF represent?
Lateral
Inferior
Anterior
Septal
29. What is the duration of a normal PR-interval?
0.08 - 0.12 seconds (2-3 small squares)
30. The cardiac events that occur from the beginning of one heart beat to the beginning of the next heart beat are called the
cardiac cycle. Which of the following is/are not true?
The left atrium and right atrium contract nearly simultaneously.
The left ventricle and right ventricle contract nearly simultaneously.
The atria contract before the ventricles.
The ventricles contract before the atria.
31. The SA node is the normal pace maker because :
is the most rapidly discharging part
is the most richly supplied by nerve endings .
located in the atrium .
all of the above
32. The action potential of cardiac muscle differs from that of skeletal muscles in:
it is propagated more slowly .
it is shorter in duration
it has a higher amplitude
it has no plateau
all of the above
33. The aortic arch and the carotid sinus contain nerve endings that monitor blood pressure by the degree of stretch on the
vessel wall. These sensors are called:
Atrial baroreceptors
Arterial baroreceptors
Osmoreceptors
34. During the isovolumic contraction (also referred to as isovolumetric contraction) phase of the cardiac cycle:
The atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves are closed.
The atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves are open.
The atrioventricular valves closed and semilunar valves are open.
The atrioventricular valves open and semilunar valves are closed.
None of the above.
35. Under normal conditions, the capillaries :
contain about 25% of the total blood volume .
have a very rapid flow rate
have a higher pressure than that in the arterioles
are all opened at rest
contain about 5 % of the total blood volume
36. An ECG is performed and reveals a progressively increasing PR interval and dropping of QRS complexes at regular intervals.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Second-degree heart block (Mobitz type 2)
Second-degree heart block (Mobitz type 1)
Hyperkalaemia
First-degree heart block
37. An ECG reveals an absence of P-waves and an irregular rhythm. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Atrial fibrillation
2nd-degree heart block
1st-degree heart block
Ventricular tachycardia
38. The left ventricle has a thicker wall than the right ventricle because :
it is richer in blood supply
it ejects blood through a narrower orifice
it ejects a greater cardiac output .

it ejects blood against a higher pressure
it contracts at a higher rate
39. During a cardiac myocyte contraction, some of the Ca2+ necessary for contraction comes from the extracellular fluid.
During relaxation, this Ca2+ will have to be extruded from the cell. Most of this Ca2+ is removed from the cell due to the activity
of the:
Plasma membrane Na+/Ca2+ exchanger
Plasma membrane Ca2+ ATPase
None
40. Pacemaker potentials of the heart result from:
Na+ influx
K+ influx
Cl− influx
Na+ efflux
41. In a normal heart at rest the LV end-systolic volume is:
10 to 30 ml
50 to 70 mls
120 to 150 ml
80 - 100 ml
42. During a typical cardiac cycle under resting conditions, approximately __________ of the volume of blood present in the
ventricles just before ventricular contraction (referred to as enddiastolic volume), enters the ventricles as a result of atrial
contraction.
10%
20%
50%
80%
43. The plateau phase of the cardiac action potential is due to the:
opening of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
opening of fast voltage-gated Na+ channels
opening of voltage-gated K+ channels
44. Cardiac output is determined by _______

heart rate
stroke volume
blood flow
heart rate and stroke volume
45. During the cardiac cycle, opening of the atrioventricular valves following ventricular relaxation leads to:
an increase in the hydrostatic pressure within the ventricles
a decrease in the hydrostatic pressure within the atria
an increase in the hydrostatic pressure within the atria
46. The sympathetic nervous system also stimulates the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine from what gland?
Pituitary gland
Thyroid gland
Adrenal gland
47. Isometric ventricular contraction
Begins when semilunar valves open
Lasts for about 0.5 s
Is a phase where all four cardiac values closed. Causes a sharp increase in atrial pressure
48. During the isovolumic relaxation (also referred to isovolumetric relaxation) phase of the cardiac cycle:
49. The spike phase of the action potential of the sinoatrial node pacemaker cells of the heart is caused by:
Opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels
Opening of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
Closure of voltage-gated K+ channels
Opening of voltage-gated Cl− channels
Closure of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels

50. The largest total cross-sectional area of blood vessels is found in this region along the vasculature:
Small arteries
Arterioles
Capillaries
Venules
51. Which mechanisms of these acts when blood flow to brain decreased?
Chemoreceptor reflexes.
Baroreceptor reflexes.
CNS ischemic response.
Atrial regulation.
52. What factor makes it easy for chemoreceptors cells to detect changes in O2, CO2, and H+?
The blood volume
The pulse rate
The speed of the blood flow
The venous return effectiveness
53. Increased activity of the vagus nerve would cause the heart rate to
Increase
Decrease
54. About the cardiac conductivity, all the following are true Except :
it is slowest in the A-v node
it is maximal in the purkinje fibers .
it is slowest in the ventricular ms.
it is decreased by vagal stimulation
it occurs through modified cardiac muscle fibers
55. If there were 3 large squares in an R-R interval what would the heart rate be?
100 bpm
90 bpm
80 bpm
70 bpm
56. During hemostasis the reflex Compensation of the blood flow to the Heart is:
Increase blood flow to the Heart but not normal
Decrease blood flow to the Heart but not normal
Blood flow will remain the same
Nothing will change in blood flow
57. In a typical human cardiac cycle, the volume of blood remaining in the left ventricle at the end of ventricular systole is
approximately __________. This is referred to as the end-systolic volume.
10 mL
25 mL
50 mL
100 mL
58. In cardiac muscle cells, approximately what percentage of cytoplasmic Ca2+ required for contraction enters the cardiac
muscle cell from the extracellular fluid?
0%
10%
20%
80%
59. Name the three phases of cardiac cycle in the order ____________
early diastole, mid-to-late diastole, ventricular systole
ventricular systole, mid-to-late diastole, Early diastole
mid-to-late diastole, Ventricular systole, Early diastole
early diastole, Ventricular systole, mid-to-late diastole
60. AV valves are opened in:
isometric contraction phase.
protodiastolic phase.
61. Which of the following parameters is decreased during moderate exercise:

Arteriovenous O2 difference
Heart rate
Cardiac output
Pulse pressure
Total peripheral resistance (TPR)
62. In an individual at rest, approximately this percentage of total blood volume can be found in all capillaries:
5%
10%
35%
65%
63. The absolute refractory period in the ventricle :
increases during sympathetic stimulation
coincides with the phase of rapid depolarization and the plateau
corresponds with the whole duration of action potential
it is shorter than the ARP of skeletal muscle
64. The atrio-ventricular valves :
have three cusps for each valve
their closure is initiated when the ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure
open by contraction of papillary muscles
none of the above
65. About the cardiac muscle all the following are true Except :
It has low electric resistance of the membrane at the intercalated discs
It forms true syncytium
It obeys the all or none law
there is almost a special capillary for each muscle fiber
66. Which of the following is not true for ventricular systole?
The ventricles relax
The ventricles contract

The semi lunar valves close
The atrioventricular valves open
67. All the following are correct except :
the left atrial wall is about the same thickness as the right atrium
the left ventricle is separated from the left atrium by a bicuspid valve
Purkinje system allows the excitation of all ventricular muscle fibers to occur at nearly the same time
the right heart receives oxygenated blood from the four pulmonary veins
68. These cells are known as the primary pacemakers of the heart:
69. Minimum blood Pressure is in:
Aorta
Arteries
Capillaries
Venules
70. The action potential of the cardiac muscle is characterized by the presence of plateau which:
in the ventricular muscle it reached 100 m sec
in the artial muscle, it reached 300 m sec
it result from a balance between Ca++ influx and K+ efflux
it result from an inflow of Cl- and outflow of bicarbonate ions
71. Which one of these is the effect of angiotensin II ?
Vasoconstriction of afferent artery.
Vasodilation of efferent artery.
Vasoconstriction of efferent artery.
Vasoconstriction of both efferent and afferent.
72. In cardiac muscle cells, approximately what percentage of cytoplasmic Ca2+ required for contraction is released from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum?
0%
10%
20%
80%
73. In a normal cardiac cycle (same as CV01 but we remembered the options as)
RA ejection precedes LA ejection
RV contraction starts before LV contraction
LV ejection starts before RV ejection
Pulmonary valve closes before aortic valve
Aortic valve closes after pulmonary valve in expiration
74. Parasympathetic stimulation of the heart has the following effect(s):
Negative chronotropic effect
Positive chronotropic effect
Negative inotropic effect
Positive inotropic effect
75. What is the normal duration of a QRS complex?
0.16 seconds (4 small squares)
0.04 seconds (1 small square)
76. Left ventricular end-diastolic volume is:
10-30 mls
50-70 mls
30-50 mls
100-130 mls
77. The cardiac tissue with the slowest rhythmicity is the :
S.A node without vagal tone
S A node with vagal tome

S.A node with vagal tome
ventricular muscle
AV node
purkinje fibers
78. Regarding the S-A node :
cells within the S-A node act as heart pace maker because their membrane depolarized to threshold and initiate an action
potential
acetyl choline increases the slope of the pace - maker potential .
sympathetic stimulation decreases the slope of the pace - maker potential .
the pace - maker cells within the S-A node are neurons rather than myocytes
79. During exercise,total peripheral resistance(TPR)decreases because of the effect of:
the sympathetic nervous system on splanchnic arterioles
the parasympathetic nervous system on skeletal muscle arterioles
local metabolites on skeletal muscle arterioles
local metabolites on cerebral arterioles
histamine on skeletal muscle arteriole
cardiac cycle. During the cardiac cycle:
The atria and the ventricles contract simultaneously.
ventricles just before ventricular contraction (referred to as enddiastolic volume), enters the ventricles as a result of passive
venous return of blood flowing through the atria and into the ventricles.
10%
20%
50%
80%
82. The SA node is the normal pacemaker because of its :
rate of impulse discharge
location in the atrium

neural control
muscular structure
relative position to the A.V node
83. In a typical ventricular myocyte, the refractory period is approximately:
1 ms
5 ms
10 ms
100 ms
250 ms
84. Which of the following is a common cause of right axis deviation?
Ventricular septal defect
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Atrial septal defect
Left ventricular hypertrophy
85. Sinoatrial node cells are :
found in both atria
innervated by the vagus
unable to generate impulses when completely denervated
connected to AV node by fine bundles of purkinje tissue
stable with regard to their membrane potentials
86. In exercising muscle, the major increase in blood flow is due to:
Sympathetic vasodilatation
Metabolic vasodilatation
Muscle pumping
87. What cells in the kidney monitor blood pressure, releasing renin when blood pressure is low?
Cortical cells
Angiotensinogen cells
Aldosterone cells
Juxtaglomerular cells
88. At which site is systolic blood pressure the highest?
Aorta
Central vein
Pulmonary artery
Right atrium
Renal artery
Renal vein
89. The best site to measure mixed venous pO2 is:
SVC
RA
Pulmonary artery
Pulmonary vein
90. During the isovolumic relaxation (also referred to as isovolumetric relaxation) phase of the cardiac cycle:
The hydrostatic pressure in the left ventricle is higher than the hydrostatic pressure in the left atrium.
The hydrostatic pressure in the left ventricle is lower than the hydrostatic pressure in the left atrium.
The hydrostatic pressure in the left ventricle is higher than the hydrostatic pressure in the aorta.
91. An increase in arteriolar resistance, without a change in any other component of the cardiovascular system, will produce:
A decrease in total peripheral resistance (TPR)
An increase in capillary filtration
An increase in arterial pressure
A decrease in afterload
92. The S.A node :
but not the A.V node receives a parasympathetic nerve supply
is connected by a thin band of purkinje fibers to the A.V node
has a faster rate of diastolic depolarization during vagal activity
has a faster rate of diastolic depolarization at 39C than at 37C
is a secondary cardiac pacemaker

93. A patient is noted to have an abnormally shortened PR-interval on their ECG. Which of the following is the most likely
cause?
Right bundle branch block
Left bundle branch block
Atrioventricular nodal fibrosis
Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome
94. What is the most common cause of left axis deviation?
Defects of the conduction system
Atrial septal defects
Left ventricular hypertrophy
Right ventricular hypertrophy
95. Cells of the sinoatrial node are the primary pacemakers of the heart. In the absence of any input from the autonomic
nervous system, how many action potentials do these cells generate every minute?
None
30 action potentials per minute
96. During the cardiac cycle, contraction of the left atrium leads to an increase of approximately __________ in the hydrostatic
pressure within the left atrium.
1-2 mm Hg
4-6 mm Hg
7-8 mm Hg
10-12 mm Hg
97. A change in blood pressure that increases the impulses to the cardiovascular center results in increased impulses from
98. Increased sympathetic nerve activity at the heart would cause:

An increase in heart rate only
An increase in both heart rate and contractility
A decrease in heart rate and contractility
An increase in contractility only
99. If the heart rate is 70 beats per minute, what is the total duration (in milliseconds, ms) of any individual cardiac cycle?
429 ms
583 ms
857 ms
1167 ms
100. In this case above the baroreceptors will not send the inhibitory impulses to the:
Vasomotor center
Vagal center
Vasoconstrictor center
101. Choose the correct sequence of action potential conduction along the conductive tissues of the heart:
SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers → Bundle branches
SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Bundle branches → Purkinje fibers
SA node → AV node → Bundle branches → Bundle of His→ Purkinje fibers
SA node → AV node → Purkinje fibers → Bundle of His → Bundle branches
102. The P wave of the ECG represents _______________
ventricular depolarization
atrial depolarization
ventricular repolarization
atrial systole
103. The volume of blood each ventricle pumps out during a cardiac cycle is about ___________
70 ml
5000 ml
7L
1200 ml
Inferior
Septal
Anterior
Lateral
105. The fibers of the A-V bundle & its branches :
conduct impulses very slowly
are highly contractile
are modified muscle fibers
are nerve fibers
106. What view of the heart do leads I, aVL, V5 and V6 represent?
Lateral
Septal
Anterior
Inferior
107. Within the cardiovascular system, the highest hydrostatic blood pressure is found in the:
Left ventricle during ventricular systole
Left ventricle during ventricular diastole
Left ventricle during atrial systole
Left ventricle during atrial diastole
108. Cardiac output of the right side of the heart is what percentage of the cardiac output of the left side of the heart:
25%
50%
75%
100%
125%
109. In an individual at rest, approximately this percentage of total blood volume can be found in the venous system:
5%
10%
10%
35%
65%
110. What does ST-elevation suggest?
Bundle branch block
Heart murmur
Myocardial infarction
Heart block - Mobitz type II
111. The tendency for blood flow to be turbulent is increased by?
increased viscosity
increased hematocrit
partial occlusion of a blood vessel
decreased velocity of blood flow
112. The longest phase in cardiac cycle is:
reduced filling phase.
maximum filling phase.
113. All are involved in ventricular filling except:
114. The ‘c’ wave in the JVP corresponds most closely with:
Peak aortic flow
Isovolumetric contraction
Isovolumetric relaxation
Closure of aortic valve
Closure of mitral valve

115. What is the definition of cardiac cycle?
The contraction of the atria
Circulation of the blood in the heart
The contraction and relaxation of the ventricles
It is a sequence of event that occurs during one complete heartbeat
116. In the heart all the following are true Except :
the right ventricle is thicker than the left ventricle
the excitation wave cannot spread directly from the atria to the ventricles
contraction normally begins in the right atrium
the ventricles contract almost stimultaneously
the S.A node is the normal pacemaker
117. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart has the following effect(s):
B and D
A and C
118. Which cannot be measured by spirometry:
Tidal Volume
Residual Volume
Inspiratory Reserve Volume
Expiratory Reserve Volume
119. To which of the following is alveolar PCO2 directly proportional?
Rate of CO2 production and alveolar ventilation.
Rate of CO2 production and rate of O2 consumption.
Alveolar ventilation and rate of O2 consumption.
Alveolar ventilation, rate of O2 consumption, and rate of CO2 production.

120. What type of process occur in combination of Oxygen with Hemoglobin:
Oxidation
Oxygenation
Oxyhemoglobin
Reduction
121. Which of the following is not a function of the lung?
All are functions of the lung
Condensation of water vapor from expired air
Cool down air
Metabolism of substances
122. In the start of Inhalation, the pace maker should be switched on. Where is that stimulator that swiches it on or stimulates it
and what’s it’s name?
apneustic centre; located in lower medulla
apneustic center; located in dorsal medulla
pneumotoxic centre; upper part of pons
pneumotoxic centre; lower part of pons
123. Which of the following concerning average lung volumes and capacities of a person at rest is TRUE?
TLC>VC>TV>FRC
TLC>FRC>VC>TV
TLC>VC>FRC>TV
TLC>FRC>TV>VC
124. If the lung were punctured, which of the following would happen?
The lung would collapse on the side of the puncture.
Both the lung and the chest wall would collapse on the side of the puncture.
The relaxation pressure of the chest wall would increase until it surpassed the atmospheric.
The relaxation pressure of the chest wall would increase, but stop before it reached atmospheric pressure.
125. The Oxygen is transported from lungs to tissues:
all the O2 gas is transported to peripheral tissues in combination with Hb

almost all amount of O2 in combination with Hb and some also as dissolved in the blood
only with Hb, O2 can be transferred from lungs to tissues
Both a and b
126. When the hemoglobin combines with carbon monoxide:
Blood viscocity is increased
It loses the capacity to transport oxygen
RBCs are destroyed
Bleeding does not stop
127. Which of the following will NOT increase the minute ventilation?
An increase in arterial pH.
An increase in arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide.
Increase in alveolar pressure of carbon dioxide.
Exercise.
Hypoxia.
128. What is Blood brain barrier?
a barrier between blood and brain parts and is highly effective for O2 as it is the need of brain
a barrier of very tightly placed endothelial cells in the brain through which the transfer of O2 becomes very difficult and CO2
passes very easily
a highly lipid unsoluble barrier between brain and blood
a lipid and protein unilayered barrier between brain and blood
129. Which of the following will readily diffuse across the blood brain barrier?
CO2
H+
HCO3-
H2CO2
130. What happens in Emphysema?
The air can not be recoiled due to the lost of elasticity of the alveolar tissue
The patient will see the shortness of breath because of less-inflation of the alveolar tissue
The short breathing is due to destruction of the air passage ways of the bronchial tree
The lobes of the lungs are damaged and it causes the shortness of breath
131. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the relationships of the variables in diffusion of O2 across a membrane?
Doubling the thickness of the membrane would cut the total flow of O2 in half.
Doubling the area of the membrane would double the total flow of O2 .
If you increased the alveolar concentration of O2, you would increase the total flow of O2 across the alveolar membrane.
The lower the diffusion coefficient, the higher the total flow. E. Increasing the arterial concentration of O2 would decrease the
total flow of O2.
132. Repeated cycles of respiration cannot be recorded by using spirometer because:
CO2 accumulates in the spirometer
Fresh air or oxygen can not be provided to the patient
Respirometer can easily record
both a and b
133. Asthma is a occurred due to:
Anemic Hypoxia
Histotoxic hypoxia
Hypoxic Hypoxia
Ischemiac Hypoxia
134. Where is the Pace Maker of Respiratory system located?
In the alveoli
In the lobes of Lungs
Medulla
In the Respiratory Membrane
135. Which is not the delayed effect of Hypoxia?
Vomitting
Depression
Fatigue
Itching
136. Spirometer is used for:

one breath
two breaths
three breaths
from one to five breaths
137. Even in the presence of enough oxygen, which of the following disorder cause Hypoxic hypoxia:
Pneumothorax
Ischemic Heart Disease
Parkinson's disease
Diabetes mellitus
138. What is hypoxia?
Reduced supply of O2 at cellular level
Reduced supply of O2 at tissue level
Reduced supply of O2 to brain
Reduced supply of O2 due to excess of CO2
139. Oxygen therapy has maximum efficacy in:
Stagnant Hypoxia
Hypoxic Hypoxia
Histotoxic Hypoxia
Anemic Hypoxia
140. Which of the following is TRUE if a patient breathes slower than normal with increased tidal volumes?
More resistive work is done.
The total work done decreases.
More elastic work is done.
Compliance is decreased.
141. Which cannot be measured by spirometry:
VC and FRC
FRC and TLC
IC and VC
TLC and IC
Ca d C
142. What is incorrect about Pulmonary function Tests?
They can differentiate the obstructive and restructive diseases
They are used in the assessment of functional status of lungs
Plethysmography is a technique used to measure all the lung volumes and capacities
Spirometery is a technique used in for pulmonary function tests
none of the above
143. When inhaling dust or pungent odor, reflexes occur:
protective
Goering-Breuer;
from chemoreceptors of the vascular zones;
from the baroreceptors of the vascular reflexogenic zones.
144. Increased physiological dead space with
Age
Anaesthesia
Sleeping position
All of the above
145. Which is the correct formula of Henry’s law:
Concentration of dissolved gas = Partial pressure / Solubility coefficient
Concentration of dissolved gas = Solubility coefficient / Partial pressure
Partial pressure =Concentration of dissolved gas / Solubility coefficient
Partial pressure= Solubility coefficient/ Concentration of dissolved gas
146. Which of the following does NOT apply to the alveoli at the base of the lungs?
They are less elastic than the alveoli at the apex.
The pleural pressure is lower.
At FRC they are less inflated than the alveoli at the apex.
They are closed at RV.
They have a greater volume change than alveoli at the apex during inspiration from FRC.
147. Compare the Partial Pressures of the O2 ad CO2 gases both in the arterial and venous systems:
On arterial side O2 has 40mmHg and CO2 has 97mmHg; On venous side O2 has 46mmHg and CO2 has 40mmHg
On arterial side O2 has 78.5mmHg and CO2 has 29.7mmHg; On venous side O2 has 35.4mmHg and CO2 has 82.3mmHg
148. From C3,C4&C5 the phrenic nerve originates, and it supplies the diaphragm and from T1-T11 the intercostal nerves are
originated which are the nerve impulse suppliers of the external intercostal muscles. Can you tell among these two, which other
muscle is involved in inhalation?
Scalene
Trapezius
Rhomboid Major
Rhomboid Minor
149. Alveoli in healthy people do not stick together when falling, because:
there are elastic fibers in the wall of the alveoli;
in the alveoli there is a surfactant that reduces surface tension
pleural sheets have the ability to absorb water
they have a water film;
150. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the ventilation and perfusion of different regions of the lung?
Alveoli at the top of the lung have a smaller dynamic compliance.
The Hb moving through the base of the lung is less saturated than that at the apex of the lung.
PAO2 at the apex of the lung is higher than that at the base of the lung.
Regional variation in ventilation-perfusion is more efficient for oxygenating blood than is uniform ventilation-perfusion.
Variation of the ventilation/perfusion ratio in the lungs only becomes significant when lung function begins to degrade.
151. All of the following statements decrease the lung compliance except:
Lung fibrosis
Increased pulmonary venous pressure
long period of time where the lung is unventilated
Emphysema
152. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the production and role of lung surfactant?
It is part of a lipoprotein called dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl-choline.
It is synthesized by alveolar type II cells.
As the alveolar surface area decreases during the compression curve, the surfactant decreases the surface tension at a
constant rate.
When surfactant density is decreased during expansion, surface tension initially rises rapidly, then slows down until it reaches
the starting point.
153. What will happen when the alveolar pressure of oxygen is lowered?
The arterial pressure of oxygen will be increased because of rapid blood flow
The arterial pressure of oxygen will be decreased
There will be no a markable change in the functioniong of heart
154. The pressure in the pleural cavity during normal inspiration is:
6, - 9 mm Hg. v .;
3, - 4 mm Hg. v .;
15, - 20 mm Hg. v .;
1, 0 mm Hg. v.
155. Which of the following is NOT true at Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)?
It is about 75% TLC.
The elastic recoil of the chest wall is outward.
The elastic recoil of the lung is inward.
The relaxation pressure of the lung and chest wall combined is at atmospheric pressure.
156. Oxygen therapy is moderately effective in:
Stagnant hypoxia
Histotoxic Hypoxia
Anemic Hypoxia
Hypoxic Hypoxia
157. Hypoxia turns urine:
Acidic
Alkaline
Neutral
No change
158. The Alveolar pressure is the:
pressure of the air inside the lung alveoli
pressure of the air applied from outside to alveoli
pressure of the fluids inside the alveoli
pressure on the walls of the alveoli by the thickening due to low arterial pressure
159. Which of the following is inactivated in the lung?
Angiotensin II
Angiotensin I
Bradykinin
Vasopressin
Noradrenaline
160. Which of the following in FALSE concerning CO2 uptake?
If PO2 = PCO2, then there will be more total CO2 in the blood.
Oxygenation moves the CO2 uptake curve downward.
The CO2 uptake curve is generated by comparing the total CO2 per unit volume of blood, and the PCO2.
Deoxygenated blood carries less CO2 than oxygenated.
161. The term which is defined as the volume remaining in the lungs after normal exhalation and is calculated by adding the
expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume:
functional residual volume
residual volume
tidal volume
vital capacity
162. Which of the following is FALSE concerning airway resistance?
Up to 50% is in the nose.
The maximum resistance in the bronchial tree occurs at the fourth generation.
In the later generations, the radii are smaller, increasing the total resistance at each successive generation.
Airway resistance can be increased by loss of tissue elasticity and contraction of bronchial smooth muscles
Airway resistance can be increased by loss of tissue elasticity and contraction of bronchial smooth muscles.
163. In Congestive Cardiac Failure, Hypoxia happens because:
Oxygen is not available
Diffusion is not taking place
Blood cannot be pumped from heart
Breathing is obstructed
164. Which muscles are involved in inspiration?
Diaphragm
Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles and abdomial muscles
Diaphragm and External intercostal muscles
Diaphragm and Internal intercostal muscles
165. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the airflow in the lungs?
During inspiration and expiration, the flow in the trachea and larger bronchi is turbulent.
Towards the middle of the bronchial tree, the flow is turbulent at the branches and laminar in between.
Near the end of the bronchial tree, the flow is laminar.
The acini have very small radii which significantly increases the total air flow resistance of the bronchial tree.
166. How many there are total number of secondary bronchi in the human respiratory system?
None
167. Which one work together to ensure that our body cells are well supplied with oxygen and are able to give up CO2:
Lungs
Heart
Blood Vessels
All of these
168. Which is composed of a respiratory bronchiole, alveolar ducts, atria, and alveoli
Bronchial plant
Respiratory Unit
Lobes of Lungs
Respiratory Centre
169. Which of the following represents the pressure difference that acts to distend the lungs?
Alveolar pressure
Airway opening pressure
Transthoracic pressure
Transpulmonary pressure
Esophageal pressure.
170. The value of normal Functional Residual Capacity is:
3800ml
2200ml
4800ml
1200ml
171. What happens in COPD?
There is a chronic dysfunction of the respiratory centre
The passage ways are damaged
The air passage ways are more widened
The respiratory membrane is damaged
172. Residual volume of the lung is:
1200ml
1500 ml
4500 ml
500 ml
173. Which of the following is correct?
VC is increased in Asthama
VC is is decreased in sedentary workers
VC is less in athletes
VC is decreased in Pulmonary edema

C s dec eased u o a y ede a
174. . Which of the following pairs is NOT a pulmonary mechanoreceptor paired to a possible stimulus?
Stretch receptor: inflation
Irritant receptor: inhaled dust
Juxtacapillary receptors: decreases interstitial fluid volume in alveolar walls.
Bronchial C receptors: large inflations.
175. Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?
transports O2 to the tissues.
contributes to maintenance of normal acid- base balance.
provides a route for heat and water elimination.
enables speech, singing, and other vocalization.
removes, modifies, activates, or inactivates various materials passing through the pulmonary circulation.
176. Juxtacapillary receptors: decreases interstitial fluid volume in alveolar walls
alveolar sacs
Alveolar ducts
Terminal bronchioles
Respiratory bronchiole
177. Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning the O2 / CO2 movement and processing through the lungs and tissues?
Binding of O2 to Hb changes its configuration so that CO2 and H+ ions are more likely to dissociate.
When CO2 diffused into the alveoli, the PaCO2 is lowered.
Carbonic acid is an intermediate in the reaction combining H+ with HCO3- to form H2O and CO2.
Arterial blood flows to the tissues where H+ ions combine with HCO3- to form H2O and CO2.
178. Oxygen therapy remains useless in:
Histotoxic hypoxia
Anemic Hypoxia
Stagnant Hypoxia
Hypoxic Hypoxia
179. During inspiration, how does alveolar pressure compare to atmospheric pressure?
Al l i h h i
Alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric.
Alveolar pressure is less than atmospheric.
Alveolar pressure is the same as atmospheric.
Alveolar pressure is one of the few pressures where the reference pressure is not atmospheric.
180. The entire sequence of events involved in the exchange of O2 and CO2 between the basic portion of lungs and the
atmosphere is known as:
Ventilation
External Respiration
Breathing
InternalRespiration
181. In Bronchiectasis:
less Oxygen is diffused in blood
Blood becomes thick
RBCs rupture
Cells are unable to pick oxygen from blood
182. If you blocked the blood supply to an alveolus, which of the following would NOT occur as a result?
The ventilation perfusion ratio would be 0.
The PAO2 would be greater than normal.
The PACO2 would be 0.
All of the above are true.
183. In the start of Exhalation, the pace maker of respiration should be switched off. Where is that inhibitor that switches it off
and what’s it’s name?
pneumotoxic centre; upper part of medulla
apneustic centre; lower part of pons
pneumotoxic centre; upper part of pons
apneustic centre; dorsal part of medulla
184. Reduced availability of oxygen to the tissues is:
Anemia
Acidosis
Hypoxia
Ischemia
185. Which of the following substances is activated by passage through the pulmonary circulation?
Bradykinin
Serotonin
Noradrenaline
Angiotensin 1
186. Which of the following is the primary regulating variable of the central chemoreceptors?
PaO2.
PaCO2
arterial pH
Input from stretch receptors.
187. Spirometry can measure all except:
IC
ERV
FRC
Vital Capacity
TV
188. The example of Hyperventilation is:
breathing after a running
Asthma
short breathing
exhaling less than you inhale
189. Tidal volume in man is:
1200ml
1500ml
4500ml
500ml
190. In a normal person, in 100 ml of blood what is the volume of CO2 in arterial blood and venous blood?
In arterial blood, 52ml/dl; In venous blood, 48ml/dl
191. Which of the following can cause stagnant hypoxia?
COPD
Shock or heart failure
Cyanide poisoning
Carbon monoxide poisoning
192. Which of the following structures serves as a common passageway for both the respiratory and digestive systems?
nose
pharynx
trachea
bronchi
esophagus
193. There are about:
500 million alveoli in the two lungs
194. In the hemoglobin, the haem is present between the:
glycosidic chains
peptide chains
ester chains
all of the above chains of Hb have haem
195. Which activity below is not a respiratory event?
Carbon dioxide is exchanged in the alveoli.

Cells produce nitrogen by their metabolism.
Gas exchange between tissues and the blood.
Oxygen is exchanged in the alveoli.
Pulmonary ventilation.
196. Which of the following is incorrect?
In females, vital capacity is less than in males
Vital capacity is more in standing position and less in lying position
Vital capacity is decreased in bugle players
Vital capacity is slightly more in heavily built persons
197. The group of neurons present in the RETICULAR FORMATION on the postero-dorsal part of MEDULLA OBLONGATA are
mainly concerned with the:
Expiration
Inspiration
Drainage of CO2
Respiration
198. Cardiac disorders in which enough blood is not pumped to transport oxygen, lead to:
Histotoxic Hypoxia
Anemic Hopoxia
Hypoxic Hypoxia
Stagnant Hypoxia
199. Which of the following is not used for studying respiratory abnormalities, measuring:
Physiological Dead Space
Functional Residual Capacity
Ventilation / Perfusion Ratio
None of the above
200. The amount of air inhaled or exhaled in one breath during related, quiet breathing is:
functional residual capacity
residual volume
tidal volume
tidal volume
total lung capacity
201. Hypoxia is associated with which of the following usual symptoms:
Loss of appetite, Nausea, vomiting, dry mouth
Polyphagia, Constipation, blurred vision
Itching, sneezing, lacrimation, cough
None of the above
202. Which of the following is not an effector of respiratory system?
blood circulatory system
diaphragm
intercostals
trapezius
203. In order to determine the lung volumes and capacities, following levels are to be noted in spirogram: I. Normal end
expiratory level II. Normal end inspiratory level III. No. of breaths
I, II and III
I and III
I and II
204. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT concerning central nervous systems and a factor they respond to by affecting
respiration?
Cerebellum: Mechanoreceptor input
Limbic system: emotional states
Cerebral cortex: voluntary control
Cerebral motor cortex: exercise
205. Hypoxia induces the secretion of which hormone from Kidneys:
Renin
Erythropoietin
Aldosterone
None of the above
206. Surfactant in the alveoli:

reduces the surface tension of the water film;
increases the permeability of the alveoli for gases;
creates an elastic craving of the lungs;
increases the surface tension of the water film
207. Which of the following does NOT happen during inspiration?
The ribs move upward
The diaphragm lifts up
The antero-posterior dimensions of the chest are increased
The tranverse dimensions of the thorax are increased
The scalene and sternocleidomastoid muscles can be recruited for inspiration
208. All the following factors lead to Hypoxia except:
Oxygen tension
Oxygen carrying capacity
Velocity of blood
Blood pressure
209. After ventilation of the alveoli with fresh air, what is the next step in respiratory process?
Diffusion of O2 from alveoli to pulmonary blood
Diffusion of CO2 from pulmonary blood to alveoli
Diffusion of O2 from pulmonary blood to alveoli
Both A and C
210. All of these statements about surfactant are true except:
promote stability of alveoli
reduce surface tension of alveoli
larger alveoli have lower surface tension than small alveoli according to Laplace law
assist in avoiding transudation of fluid into capillary
produced by Type II pneumocytes

c ease a te a pa t a p essu e o ca bo d o de.
Exercise.
Hypoxia.
212. Which Hypoxia is related to the Hemoglobin dysfunctioning?
Hypoxic Hypoxia
Anemic Hypoxia
Histotoxic Hypoxia
Ischemic Hypoxia
213. Which of the following instruments is used in the picture in studying the respiratory process?
vitalometer
pneumotachometer
spirometer
None of the above
214. Following are the causes of Anemic hypoxia, except:
Decreased number of RBCs
Decreased hemoglobin content
Formation of altered hemoglobin
Neutrophilia
215. There is direct relation in between the metabolic activity and the respiratory process. It means that when the metabolic rate
increases, the respiratory process also increases and when it decreases, the rate of respiration also decreases. Now from the
following, tell that single most important factor between this relation?
O2 level
CO2 level
N2 level
The rate of diffusion
216. Anatomical dead space performs the following functions:
maintains the partial pressure of oxygen;
warms, moisturizes, cleans the air, includes protective reflexes;
regulates tidal volume;

regulates the composition of alveolar air.
217. Which of the following is FALSE concerning diffusion in the lungs?
CO is used to measure diffusing capacity because its uptake is diffusion limited.
Actual diffusion time includes time required for an O2 molecule to diffuse from the alveolus, through the membrane, the
plasma, and into a RBC.
Reaction time is the time it takes the O2 molecule to react with Hb.
The diffusion time is greater than the reaction time of an O2 molecule.
218. Due to the reflex stimulation of cardiac and vaomotor centers, what happens?
Decrease in heart rate
Right to left Shunting of blood
Blood pressure is raised, initially
Heart becomes stronger
219. Which of the following is NOT an effector of respiration?
Heart
Diaphragm
Intercostals
Trapezius.
220. Which of the following statements is true about Trachea in a respiratory system?
It acts as passage of air to secondary bronchi
It acts as air passage way to tertiary and primary bronchi
It passes air to bronchus
It functions for the sound production
221. 50% effectiveness of Oxygen therapy:
Hypoxic Hypoxia
Stagnant Hypoxia
Anemic Hypoxia
Histotoxic Hypoxia
222. We need OXYGEN exactly for:

anaerobic respiration
aerobic respiration
to produce internal body H2O
All of the above
223. For the purpose of drainage, CO2 gas is transferred from tissues to into the capillaries and then back to the right heart(
Right atrium and Right ventricle). But in this process not all the CO2 gas is transferred. Can you tell, why there’s left some
amount of it?
To combine with the coming Oxygen gas
Human body lacks the very high pressures that it requires
The cellular walls do not afford to transfer through much CO2 gas
None of the above
224. Alveolar ventilation in a male with a respiratory rate of 10/min and tidal volume of 600 ml is
1750ml
3000ml
4500ml
6000ml
225. Hypoxia causes:
Alcohol like intoxication of CNS
Social withdrawal
Addiction problems
Heroine intoxicaton
226. Anatomically, What lies in front of the esophagus?
Ribs
Breast
Wind Pipe
Lungs
227. Cyanide poisoning causes:
Stagnant hypoxia
Histotoxic hypoxia
Anemic hypoxia
Anemic hypoxia
Hypoxic Hypoxia
228. When multiple bronchioles are constricted, which disease occurs?
Emphysema
Asthma
Cystic Bronchitis
Chronic Bronchitis
229. Complete absence of oxygen from the tissues is:
Anoxia
Stenosis
Coma
Shock
230. The flowing is true regarding respiratory center:
lies in spinal cord
lies in medulla oblongata
lies in hypothalamus
lies in cerebellum
231. In which situation would the response to hypoxia be limited?
In a patient with obstructed airways.
When hypoxia is accompanied by hypercapnea.
In the hypoxia induced by high altitude.
During hypoventilation.
232. Which of the following statements on human lung ventilation is correct?
Inhalation involves the active contraction of abdominal muscles
Exhalation involves the passive relaxation of abdominal muscles
Exhalation involves the active contraction of the diaphragm
Inhalation is brought about by an increase in intraalveolar pressure
Exhalation is usually passive except during times of intense exercise

233. Lung compliance
is normally 100 ml/cm water
falls if the lung remains unventilated for longer periods
rises if the pulmonary venous pressure is increased
falls as the lung ages
is the area under the pressure volume curve
234. What is located exactly just above the muscle that’s the divider of thorax and abdomen?
Heart
lungs
both a and b
Diaphragm
235. Chemoreceptor reflex due to Hypoxia, increases the Respiratory rate which leads to:
Washing out of oxygen
Washing out of Nitrogen
Washing out of Carbon dioxide
Washing out of Hydrogen
236. How many major functions of the respiration?
Five
Three
Four
All of the above
237. In the respiration, one deals with mixtures of gases, mainly of:
O2 and CO2
O2, N2 and CO2
CO2, O2 and NO
All of the above gases
238. Passive exhalation begins with:
expiratory muscle contraction;
relaxation of the inspiratory muscles;

air outlet from the lungs;
contraction of the inspiratory muscles.
239. In the human being, normal plasma colloid osmotic pressure is:
30mmHg
20mmHg
40mmHg
10mmHg
240. Partial pressure of O2 is controlled by: i) the rate of absorption of oxygen into the blood ii) the rate of entry of new oxygen
into the lungs iii) atmospheric pressure of O2 iv) atmospheric pressure of CO2
i, ii and iii
ii and iii
i and ii
i, ii, iii and iv
241. Stagnant hypoxia is also called:
Hyperkinetic hypoxia
Hypokinetic hypoxia
Both a and b
None of the above
242. Which one is not the type of Hypoxia?
Hypoxic hypoxia
Anemic hypoxia
Histotoxic hypoxia
Stagnant Hypoxia
None
243. Which of the following statements on lung volumes is correct?
E. R. V. is the total volume that can be expired
E. R. V. + I. R. V. = V. C.
T. V. + I. R. V. is the maximum volume that can be inspired

R. V. represents an emergency supply of air during periods of stress
R. V. represents anatomic dead space
244. Oxygen content describes which type of Hypoxia:
Stagnant Hypoxia
Anemic Hypoxia
Histotoxic Hypoxia
Hypoxic Hypoxia
COPD
Shock or heart failure.
Cyanide poisoning.
Carbon monoxide poisoning.
246. For the purpose of drainage, how the CO2 gas is transferred from interior of the cell to the outside of the cell?
Osmosis
Diffusion
Active transport
Passive transport
247. All of the following shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right except:
decreased pH
Increased temperature
Carbon Monoxide
Increased 2.3 DPG
248. If the blood moved slower than normal through the alveolar capillaries, which of the following would have an increased
uptake?
Carbon dioxide.
Carbon monoxide.
Oxygen
None of the above.

249. Which of the following could NOT be part of an acinus?
Alveolar sacs
Alveolar ducts
Respiratory bronchiole
250. Cilia and mucous are found in:
Pharynx
Trachea
Glottis
Epiglottis
251. The anatomic dead space:
varies with minute ventilation
is typically 150ml
will increase COPD
is alveolar minus the pathological dead space
all of the above
252. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the effect of effort on airflow and volume during inspiration and expiration?
During inspiration, greater effort always results in greater flow.
Peak expiratory flow occurs at the beginning of expiration.
At low and moderate lung volumes, the greater the effort above threshold, the greater the airflow in expiration.
Portions of the expiration curve are effort independent.
253. Oxygen cannot diffuse into the blood and leads to Hypoxia in which of the following conditions:
Emphysema
Mysthenia gravis
Asthma
Depression
254. If you increased the left atrial pressure from 5 mmHg to 15 mmHg, what effect would that have on pulmonary circulation?
If you increased the left atrial pressure from 5 mmHg to 15 mmHg what effect would that have on pulmonary circulation?
If you increased the left atrial pressure from 5 mmHg to 15 mmHg, what effect would that have on pulmonary circulation?
It would increase the speed at which blood moves through the pulmonary circulation.
No change.
Blood flow would almost or completely stop.
255. Where does the secondary bronchi supply air to?
alveoli
lobes of lungs
respiratory gas exchange area
lungs
256. High altitude leads to Hypoxia because:
It reduces the number of red blood cells
It increases the tissue resistance
Oxygen tension in inspired air is reduced
Psychological effect
257. Work of the lung in breathing
is increased with larger tidal volumes
is increased with higher flow rates
in inspiration need to overcome the elastic forces and viscous resistance
in expiration need to overcome airway and tissue resistance
all of the above
259. Which of the following is FALSE concerning chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers?
CSF is a poor buffer and a drop in PCO2 produces a large change in pH initiating a change in respiration.
The body can adjust to chronic hypercapnea by using an active HCO3- transport process in the choroid plexus.
The carotid and aortic bodies detect increases in PaCO2 and pH, and decreases in PaO2 .
75% of ventilatory response is regulated by chemoreceptors in the CSF and 25% by the carotid and aortic bodies.
Central chemoreceptors tend to respond slowly over time, while carotid bodies react quickly to immediate needs.
260. What is the average or normal value of V/P ratio?
1.5
1.0
0.8
0.5
261. Which of the following definitions is FALSE?
O2 content of blood is the actual amount of O2 in one deciliter of blood.
O2 saturation of blood is the ratio of O2 content to its O2 capacity.
The O2 uptake curve of blood is the functional relationship between O2 content and PO2.
The O2 content of blood depends completely on the amount of Hb in the blood.
262. Asthma is an example of:
hypoventilation
Histotoxic hypoxia
Hyper ventilation
Normal ventilation but abnormal circulatory system
263. Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning the efficiency of breathing and the oxygen consumption of the respiratory
muscles?
Efficiency is defined as the ratio of mechanical work done to move air to the amount of metabolic energy used by the
respiratory muscles.
The respiratory system uses less than 3% of the body's total oxygen consumption at rest.
Respiratory muscles are more efficient than large muscle groups.
Emphysema increases the oxygen requirement for respiratory muscles.
Hyperventilation can increase the oxygen consumption of respiratory muscles to 30%.
264. How many there are secondary bronchi in the right lung?
four
three
two
five
265. If the equal pressure point during expiration is in the lobar bronchi, which of the following is TRUE?
Expiratory flow would be effort dependent.
Expiratory flow would be effort independent.
The bronchi beyond the equal pressure point would compress.
This situation would only occur during medium and low lung volumes.
266. What is diffusion?
A planned movement of molecules through the respiratory membrane and adjacent fluids
the random motion of molecules in all directions through the respiratory membrane and adjacent fluids
motion of the blood parts from higher to lower concentrated area through the respiratory membrane
motion of any fluid from lower to higher concentrated area through the respiratory membrane
267. The small air sacs in the lungs that diffuse O2 into the blood stream and take in CO2 from the blood stream:
basic part of respiratory system
bronchial tree
Lungs
Respiratory membrane
268. Which of the following is NOT a form by which CO2 can be transported in the blood?
As bicarbonate
Dissolved in the blood.
Bound to the amino end groups in proteins.
Bound to the imidazole ring of glutamate.
269. Which of these does not affect diffusion rate?
Surface area for diffusion
Concentration gradient
Solubility of gas
molecular weight of gas
none of the above
270. Elect the true statement regarding the control of gastric secretion:
Gastric acid is secreted by parietal cells of the gastric glands in response to hormonal stimulation.
Most of the secretion of acid and pepsinogen occurs during the intestinal phase.
Gastric secretion does not begin until food enters the stomach.
Secretin secreted by the duodenum stimulates gastric secretion
271. The following reflexes inhibit small intestine motility except:
Peritoneo-intestinal
Reno-intestinal
Gastro-ileal.
Somato-intestinal.
272. The transport of glucose across intestinal mucosa is directly dependent Upon the following except:
Na concentration in intestinal lumen.
Plasma insulin.
Inhibitors of energy metabolism
273. About 90% of kidney stones can pass out through urinary system by drinking _______
Water
Juice
Sugar drinks
Milk
274. The following are true statement about absorption from small intestine except:
Hexose are absorped faster than pentose.
D amino acids are absorped better than L amino acids.
Glucose is absorped faster than fructose.
275. Concerning HCl secretion, all the following is true except:
It’s associated with increased PH of the gastric venous blood
It’s stimulated by gastrin, acetylcholine,histamine and norepinephiren
The energy required is derived from ATP breakdown
It involves formation of carbonic acid
There is an active transport of H⁺ from oxyntic cells into the gastric lumen and K⁺ in the opposite direction
276. Yellow color of urine is due to ____________
Urochrome
Urea
Bilirubin
Uric acid
277. The so-called chemoreceptor trigger zone:
Is synonymous with the vomiting center
Is located in the cerebral peduncles, ventral to the Aqueduct of Sylvius
Is sensitive to the action of morphine
May be destroyed experimentally ; the ablation of both chemoreceptor trigger zones abolishes all forms of vomit
278. Absorption of fat soluble vitamins require the following:
Bile.
Bile and chymotrypsine.
Bile and pancreatic amylase.
None of the above.
279. In contrast to Secondary esophageal peristalsis,primary esophageal peristalsis characterized by which of the following
statements?
It does not involve relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.
It involves only contraction of esophageal smooth muscle.
It is not influenced by intrinsic nervous system.
It has an oropharyngeal phase.
It involves only contraction of esophageal skeletal muscle
280. 88% filtrate is reabsorbed in:
Distal convulated tubule
Proximal convulated tubule
Loop of Henle
Collecting duct
281. Inflammation of joint due to accumulation of uric acid crystals is called ____________
Gout
Osteoporosis
Osteomalacia
Myasthenia gravis
282. Glomerular capillary pressure varies between:
20 to 30 mm Hg
45 to 70 mm Hg
80 to 100 mm Hg
10 to 15 mm Hg
283. Resting anal pressure is mainly due to :
Tone of external anal sphincter
Tone of the internal sphincter.
Tone of the puborectalis muscle.
284. Which of the following sphincters does NOT prevent reflux of material?
Lower esophageal sphincter
Gastroduodenal sphincter.
Ileocolonic sphincter
Internal anal sphincter.
285. Which of the following statement is wrong?:
The gastric peristalsis includes propulsive,mixing and grinding movements
The cephalic phase of gastric secretion involves no release of gastrin.
Deficiency of the intrinsic factor causes pernicious anaemia.
Large doses of gastrin cause contraction of the pyloric sphincter.
286. Renal columns are also called:
Columns of Bellini
Columns of Bertini
Malpighian columns
Intermedullary rays
287. Glomerular capillaries are lined by epithelial cells attached to basement membrane and has many pores for the process of:
Phagocytosis
Connection
Filtration
Protection
288. Select a single incorrect answer about Swallowing:
Reflex apnea occurs during the pharyngeal phase.
The buccal phase of swallowing is voluntary.
Food is prevented from entering the nose during swallowing by elevation of epiglottis
289. Which of the following is NOT involved in swallowing?
Contracture of the upper esophageal sphincter.
Coordination by the swallowing center in the medulla oblongata.
The approximation of the vocal cords to close the glottis.
The raising of the larynx to close its entrance.
The elevation of the soft palate to close the nasopharynx.
290. Following substances are completely reabsorbed from the renal tubules, except:
Glucose
Vitamens
Amino acids
Minerals
291. Which best describes the motility in the large intestine?
Food clears the LI in about the same time as it takes to clear the small intestine.
Of the parts of the large intestine, chyme spends the least time in the ascending colon.
The ascending colon consists of haustra that aid in storage and dehydration of feces.
Remnants of meals stay in the LI for approximately 6-8 days.
Receptive relaxation allows the transverse colon to accept chyme without significantly increasing the pressure.
292. Renal papilla is:

V shaped area
A Circular area
Present in cortex
Part of ureter
293. Each arcuate artery gives rise to:
Interlobular arteries
Lobar arteries
Segmental arteries
Glomerular arteries
294. Peristaltic contractions of small intestine are characterized by all of the followings except:
They are myogenic
They are due to local axon reflex
They are stimulated by gastro-enteric reflex
295. The followings are true statements about absorption from small intestine except:
Fructose is absorbed by facilitated diffusion.
Glucose is absorbed by Na+ dependent 2ry active transport.
Vit. B12 is absorbed by diffusion
296. If you follow the path that food normally takes through the digestive system, which of the following is in the correct order?
Upper esophageal sphincter, epiglottis, lower esophageal sphincter, pyloric canal, duct of Santorini, duct of Wirsung.
Pharynx, epiglottis, lower esophageal sphincter, pyloric canal, duct of Wirsung, duct of Santorini.
Pharynx, epiglottis, lower esophageal sphincter, pyloric canal, duct of Santorini, duct of Wirsung.
Pharynx, upper esophageal sphincter, pyloric canal, lower esophageal sphincter, duct of Wirsung, duct of Santorini.
297. During which stage of Swallowing is respiration inhibited?
Voluntary stage.
Pharyngeal stage.
Esophageal stage.
Postprandial stage
298. All the following statements are true except:

VIP stimulates intestinal secretion and inhibits gastric acid secretions
Diamox (a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor) increases both gastric HCL formation and the HCO₃⁻ content in the pancreatic juice
Both gastrin and glucagons are secreted from the pyloric antrum and duodenum
Gastrin is secreted from almost the whole GIT mucosa
Glicentin is formed by the intestinal mucosa and has some glucagones activity
299. Mass movement in the colon would be abolished by:
Vagotomy.
Sympathectomy.
Destruction of the intrinsic nerve plexus.
300. Low pressure capillary bed is formed by
Renal glomerular capillaries
Peritubular capillaries
Afferent arterioles
Efferent arterioles
301. The main mechamism of succus entericus secretion is:
Vagal stimulation.
CCK.
Secretin
Local axon reflex.
302. Water, electrolytes and other substances are taken back into the blood from glomerular filterate, in a process called:
Tubular reabsorption
Tubular secretion
Glomerular extraction
Tubular transport
303. What is the function of ADH?
Controls sugar level in blood
Increases water absorption
Decreases water absorption
S h i f l
Synthesis of salt
304. Acidification of the duodenum will:
Decrease pancreatic secretion of bicarbonate.
Increase secretion of gastric acid.
Decrease gastric emptying.
Increase contraction of the gall bladder.
Increase contraction of the sphincter of Oddi.
305. Urea synthesis occurs in ______________
Kidney
Liver
Pancreas
Muscles
306. Macula densa secretes:
Thromboxane A2
Lipase
Pepsin
Erythropoitin
307. Filtration fraction is:
Portion of plasma that becomes filtrate
Portion of filtrate that becomes urine
Portion of urine that is reabsorbed
Portion is plasma, secreted into nephron
308. Fructose is absorped from small intestine by :
Simple diffusion.
Facilitated diffusion.
Na+ dependent 2ry active transport.
309. Renal corpusels are formed of:
Glomerulus
Bowman capsule
None of the above
Both of the above
310. Macula densa is the part of:
Renal hilum
Renal pelvis
Juxtaglomerular apparatus
Ureter
311. The GIT hormone are characterized by all the following except:
They are secreted by APUD system and are divided into 2 families on The basis of their structural similarity.
They are secreted in response to specific physiological Stimuli during digestion.
Their effects are abolished by cutting the nervous connections of GIT.
They affect areas in GIT that may be far away from the sites of their release.
I.V injection of their extracts produce similar effect to those produced by the stimuli that release them.
312. Ingesting antacids with and after a meal so that PH doesn`t decrease below 6 will cause a greater than normal secretion of:
Gastrin.
Secretin.
Pancreatic bicarbonate.
CCK.
Somatostatin
313. All of the following statements concerning pancreatic secretion are true except:
Its pH is about 8
Has high HCO₃⁻ content
It’s secretion is primarily under neural control
Contains digestive enzymes
314. Angiotensin II produced under the effect of Renin, produces which of the following effects?
Increases blood pressure directly by noradrenaline
Increases blood pressure indirectly vasoconstriction
Increases blood pressure directly by vasoconstriction

Increases blood pressure by vasodilation
315. Hemodialysis is done when the person is suffering from ________
Goiter
Diabetes insipidus
Diabetes mellitus
Uremia
316. The rate at which maximum amount of substance is reabsorbed from the renal tubule:
Transport Maximum
Transport Minimum
Both of the above
None of the above
317. Intestinal proteolysis is caused by the followings except:
Trypsin.
Carboxypeptidase.
Chymotrypsin.
Pepsin
318. Which of the following does NOT contribute to hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach?
A basolateral bicarbonate/chloride exchanger to maintain intracellular chloride ions also resulting in an “alkaline tide” in the
bloodstream.
Passive flow of chloride and potassium ions through apical channels.
Hydrogen ions supplied by a basolateral hydrogen/sodium pump.
Water passively follows acid into gut to maintain osmotic balance.
The primary contributor to hydrochloric acid secretion is a hydrogen/potassium ATPase that pumps out hydrogen in exchange
for extracellular potassium
319. Normal urinary out put is:
1 to 1.5 liters/day
5 to 10 liters/day
70 liters/day
20 liters/day
320. Tubuloglomerular feedback is the mechanism that regulates GFR through:
Renal tubule
Macula densa
Both
None
321. Under the normal conditions, the bulk of gastric secretions are produces:
Before the food is ingested and while the pleasure of it’s ingestion is anticipated
While the food stays in the stomach.
After the food has entered the duodenum.
During fasting periods.
322. Which of the following is not a part of renal pyramid?
Collecting ducts
Convoluted tubules
Loops of Henle
323. What happens during swallowing action of the body?
all processes of dilution are under voluntary control.
the vocal folds are relaxed allowing the food to travel down the oesophagus.
the swallowing center are located within the medulla oblongata inhibits medullary respiratory center.
the bolus travels down due to gravity.
324. The chyme entering the small intetstine causes a release of secretin which results in:
Stimulation of pancreatic fluids which there are no enzymes.
A pancreatic fluid that aids in protection against the development of duodenal ulcers.
A pancreatic secretion whose pH is just right for action of the pancreatic enzymes that are eventually released.
Pancreatic fluid secretion of a large volume containing low chloride but high bicarbonate concentration.
All are correct
325. Which of the following has little effect on pancreatic secretion or it's components?
Acetylcholine
Acetylcholine.
Sympathetic stimulation.
Secretin
Cholecystokinin
VIP
326. All the pressures involved in determination of filtration are collectively called:
Starling forces
Filtration forces
Diffusion forces
Colloidal forced
327. Distension of the stomach:
Is associated with a decrease in it’s peristaltic movement.
Leads to reduction of gastric juice secretion.
Decrease the tone of the lower esophageal sphincter.
Causes an acute increase in the intragastric pressure.
Results in an increase in the volume of the stomach with a little rise in the intragastric pressure
328. Both formation and concentration of urine is mainly the function of:
Cortical nephrons
Juxtamedullary nephrons
Both types
None of the above
329. Excretion is the process by which unwanted substances and metabolic wastes are:
Produced in the body
Utilized in the body
Eliminated from the body
Accumulated in the body
330. Choose the best description of the duodenum.
Mucosa with crypts and villi; epithelium with scattered goblet cells; lamina propria with occasional lymph nodules; submucosa
unspecialized.
Mucosa with crypts but no villi; epithelium with scattered goblet cells; lamina propria with occasional lymph nodules;
submucosa unspecialized.
Mucosa with both crypts and villi; epithelium with scattered goblet cells; lamina propria with occasional lymph nodules;
submucosa with mucous glands.
Mucosa with both crypts and villi; epithelium with scattered goblet cells; lamina
331. Digestion of proteins by succus entericus enzymes includes all the following enzymes except:
Aminopeptidase.
Carboxypeptidase.
Nucleases.
Dipeptidase
332. Pancreatic secretion is inhibited by all the followings except:
Somatostatin
Glucagon
Acid in the duodenum
Sympathetic stimulation.
333. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is present in ________
Tubule of kidney
Bowman’s capsule
Malpighian tubule
Glomerulus
334. Which of the following statement is true?
The intrinsic factors is secreted by the parietal cells of the gastric mucosa.
The gastric juice can’t digest the gastric mucosa because the cell membranes contain a pepsin activator.
The stomach normally absorbs about 30% of the ingested food.
The secretion of the gastric juice is associated with increased H⁺ in the blood.
The gastric juice is essential for the digestion of both fat and protein.
335. Haematuria means _________
RBCs in urine
WBCs in urine
Fats in urine
Urea in urine
336. Rectal mucosa is sensitive to:
Pain
Touch
Temperature
Stretch
337. Polystyrene sulfonate is used in renal failure to ___________
Prevent constipation
Reduce serum level
Correct acidosis
Exchange potassium ions
338. Filtration coefficient:
50 ml/mm Hg
125 ml/mm Hg
6.25 ml/mm Hg
20 ml/mmHg
339. PCT is lined with ______________
Cuboidal epithelium
Columnar epithelium
Simple brush border epithelium
Simple Cuboidal epithelium
340. Which of the following statements is correct?:
The gastric juice contains pepsins,gelatinase,lipase and α-amylase enzymes.
The only essential constituent of the gastric juice is the intrinsic factor.
The hunger contractions disappear after bilateral vagotomy or damage of the feeding center in the hypothalamus.
HCL is essential for both carbohydrate and fat digestion
341. Which of the following is the major factor that protects the duodenal mucosa from the damage by gastric acid?
P ti bi b t ti
Pancreatic bicarbonate secretions.
The endogenous mucosal barrier of the duodenum.
Duodenal bicarbonate secretion,
Hepatic bicarbonate secretion.
Bicarbonate contained in bile.
342. Following are the hormones that regulate tubular reabsorption, except:
Aldosterone
Parathormone
Calcitonin
Testosterone
343. Factor decreasing the sensitivity of tubuloglomerular feedback:
Adenosine
Thromboxane
Hydroxyeicosatetranoic acid
Cyclic AMP
344. Which of the following statements about gastric secretion is incorrect:
Gastric acid secretion can be inhibited by somatostatin
The main phase of gastric secretion is the gastric phase
Gastric secretion increases in response to the presence of food in mouth after the vagi to stomach have been cut
345. How is the MMC controlled?
Ingestion of food ends MMC at all points in the intestine.
IV feeding ends MMC.
Gastrin and CCK terminate MMC in stomach and entire small intestine.
Vagal innervation completely controls MMC.
The MMC increases in speed as it reaches the ileum.
346. Mark the mismatch pair.
Henle’s loop – concentration of urine
DCT – Absorption of glucose
PCT – Absorption of sodium and potassium ions

Bowman’s capsule – Glomerular filtration
347. The following are choleretics except:
Bile salts
Secretin.
Acetylcholine.
Bile pigments
348. About the gastric motility, all the following is true except:
It’s marked in the distal half of the stomach
It's inhibited in painful conditions
it increases by vagal stimulation and decreases by symp. Stimulation
It decreases by the enterogastric reflex and by the secretin and CCK hormones
It increases by over distension of the stomach
349. Deglutition (Swallowing):
Is a complicated act requiring the precise coordination of many muscle group.
Is an automatic function of smooth muscle.
Is associated with a lowering of hard palate to prevent reflux of food into the nasopharynx.
Does not require relaxation of cricopharyngeal muscle.
A and c are correct.
350. Name the condition when concentration of ketone increases in urine.
Turners syndrome
Diabetes mellitus
Sickle cell anemia
Acromegaly
351. Urea synthesis takes place in liver because __________
Enzyme arginase is present in liver only
Kidney is smaller than liver
ADH is found in liver
Urea is present only in liver

352. Vasopressin is called as ___________
Synovial fluid
Neurotransmitter
Antidiuretic hormone
Growth regulating substance
353. The secretion of gastrin by the pyloric antrum ceases:
When the stomach is distended by a full meal
When the gastric mucosa contents have a pH of about 2.0
If histamine is injected.
If the vagi are stimulated
354. In the distal convulated tubules, the sodium reabsorption is stimulated by hormone:
Angiotensin
Erythropoiten
Aldosterone
Parathormone
355. Whole proteins may be absorped from small intestine by :
Pinocytsis.
Na+dependant 2ry active transport.
356. Mass movement in the colon after meal is due to the following except:
Gastrocolic reflex
Duodenocolic reflex
Gastrin hormone.
Secretine hormone.
357. Which one is an important constituent of rennin angiotensinogen aldosterone system?
Macular cells
Plasma cells
JGA cells
Erythropoietin
358. Glucose is mainly reabsorbed in _______
Henle’s loop
DCT
PCT
Nephron
359. Regarding pancreatic secretion:
Pancreatic secretion is inhibited by gastrin secreted by the G cells of the antrum
Pancreatic acinar cells contain trypsin
Cholecystokinin inhibits secretion from the exocrine pancreas.
The introduction of acid into the duodenum stimulates pancreatic secretion.
360. Choose the correct listing of the anatomical divisions of the stomach in the direction food normally passes.
Corpus, fundus, antrum.
Fundus, antrum, corpus.
Antrum, corpus, fundus.
Fundus, corpus, antrum.
Corpus, antrum, fundus.
361. Which of the following does NOT regulate gastric acid secretion?
Vagus nerve stimulation.
Cholecystokinin.
Histamine
Gastrin
Acetylcholine
362. Hairpin bend of the loop of Henle has all the following features, except:
Formed by flattened epithelial cells
Has no brush border
Continued as ascending limb
Continued as descending limb

363. Capsular pressure is also called:
Colloidal osmotic pressure
Filtration pressure
Hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule
Glomerular capillary pressure
364. Glomerular filteration is which of the following process?
Microfiltration
Macrofiltration
Ultrafiltration
Autofiltration
365. Following are the substances passively reabsorbed from renal tubule, except:
Chloride
Urea
Ascorbic acid
Water
366. When blood passes through glomerular capillaries, plasma is filtered into bowman capsule. All substances are filtered
except:
Carbohydrates
Lipids
Proteins
Minerals
367. Pentose is absorped from small intestine by:
Simple diffusion.
Na+ dependant 2ry active transport.
368. Podocytes are found in ______________
Cortex of nephron
Outer wall of Bowman’s capsule
Inner wall of Bowman’s capsule

Wall of glomerular capillaries
369. The following statements about gastric secretion are correct except:
Gastric secretion increases when a hungry person thinks about food
Gastric secretion helps vit.B₁₂ absorption
Production of HCl depends on activity of carbonic anhydrase
Gastric secretion is associated with increased H⁺ concentrarion in venous blood coming from stomach
370. Which of the following statements correctly describes a function of the parasympathetic innervation of the GI tract.
Norepinephrine is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter.
Excessive parasympathetic activity can lead to a pathological state called paralytic ileas.
Inhibitory efferent Vagal innervation causes sphincters to contract.
Afferent sensory input is received in the nucleus of the solitary tract and processed in the dorsal motor nucleus of the medulla
oblongata.
Glucose concentration, pH, osmolality, movement of material past mechanoreceptors, and level of contractile strength or
stretch are monitored by efferent parasympathetic fibers propria packed with mucous glands; submucosa with numerous
lymph nodules
371. Stimulation of Gastrointestinal Secretion include:
Chemical stimuli.
Tactile stimulation.
A and B.
Distension.
All are correct.
372. Many factors influence the gastric action potential of the stomach. Which of the following is false?
Acetylcholine, gastrin, and cholecystokinin increase amplitude of the plateau phase.
Gastrin increases AP frequency.
The initial contraction coincides with the plateau phase while the trailing contraction coincides with the rising phase of the AP.
Epinephrine and VIP decrease the amplitude of the plateau phase.
It is a single action potential originating in the orad boundary of the distal stomach.
373. Glomerular filtrate collected at Bowman's capsule contains all the substances of plasma except protiens which makes it:
Hypotonic to plasma
Hypertonic to plasma
ype to c to p as a
Isotonic to plasma
None of the above
374. Glomerular filtrate contains _________
Plasma without sugars
Blood without blood cells and proteins
Blood with proteins but without cells
Blood without urea
375. 85% of all nephrons are:
Cortical nephrons
Collecting nephrons
Mixed nephron
376. Which of the following statement about motor function of stomach is untrue?:
The frequency of gastric peristaltic contraction is about 3/min
Fasting hypoglycemia produces hunger contractions
The enterogastric reflex stimulates gastric emptying
377. In adults, during resting conditions both the kidneys receive 1,300 ml/min blood which is:
50% of cardiac output
378. The condition where urea accumulates in blood is
Anemia
Glycosuria
Uremia
Acidosis
379. Tubular secretion is the process by which the substances are transported:
F bl di l b l
From blood into renal tubules
From renal tubules into blood
From Renal tubules into urine
From urine into blood
380. Theoretically, which of the following deficiencies would make pepsin's role of protein digestion in the stomach more
crucial?
Lipase deficiency.
A defect in the amino acid intestinal transport mechanism.
Enterokinase deficiency.
Cholecystokinin deficiency
381. Among these processes, which one is the function of glomerulus?
Glomerular secretion
Glomerular reabsorption
Glomerular filtration
Glomerular circulation
382. Emptying at ileocecal region is promoted by:
Distenion of cecum
Distention of colon.
Distention of stomach.
Sympathetic reflex.
383. Emptying gastric contents into the small intestine is strictly controlled. Which of the following is most acurately represents
this concept?
High caloric meals empty faster.
Liquid and solid meals empty at the same rate.
Higher acidity in the stomach results in a slower rate of emptying.
Tonicity of the gastric solution doesn't affect the rate of emptying.
384. Secretin:
Is a GIT hormone Secreted from the pylorus.
Stimulates a pancreatic Secretion rich in enzymes.
Acts as powerful cholagogue.

Is secreted as aresult of vagus nerve stimulation.
Stimulates gastric Secretion
385. Each kidney consists of:
1 to 1.3 million nephrons
3 to 5 million nephrons
10 billion nephrons
0.5 million nephrons
386. The absorptive surface area of small intestineis over:
2.8m
250m2
7m
50m2
387. It’s believed that in parietal cells of the gastric mucosa (which secrete hydrochloric acid), an active transport system is
responsible for the transmembrane passage of:
Chloride
Carbon dioxide.
Bicarbonate.
Water
388. Of the following water soluble vitamins, which one CANNOT be absorbed by passive diffusion if the concentration is high
enough?
Vitamin B1
Niacin.
Vitamin B12
Biotin.
389. Method for collection of tubular fluid:
Micropuncture technique
Stop-flow method
Both
None
390. Reabsorption of the substances occur at the following sites:
Loop of henle
All
391. Transport maximum for glucose (TmG) is:
375 mg/min in adult male
300 mg/min in adult female
500 mg/min in adult male and female
Both a and b
392. Emptying at ileocecal region is inhibited by:
Gastroileal reflex.
Gastrin
Colonoileal reflex.
Distention of terminal ilium.
393. Macula densa of the Juxtaglomerular apparatus is sensitive to:
Sodium chloride in the tubular fluid
Sodium Bicarbonate in tubular fluid
Protiens in tubular fluid
Pressure in glomerulus
394. The following are true about defecation except:
It is initiated by distention of rectum with feces.
It is facilitated by micturition reflex.
It is under voluntary control in infant.
It is inhibited by pain.
395. Each kidney has got about 8:
Minor calyx
Major calyx
Pyramids
Arcuate artries
396. Juxtaglomerular hormone secretes which hormone:
Progesterone
Prostaglandin
Testosterone
None of the above
397. Which of the following is NOT a component of saliva?
Alpha-amylase and ligual lipase.
Mucin and muramidase.
Bicarbonate and magnesium.
Protease and peptidase.
398. Intestinal motility help absorption from small intestine by all the following except:
Increase blood and O2 supply.
Increase lymph flow.
Increase osmotic pressure.
Increase contact of food with mucosa
399. Volume of urine is regulated by ___________
Volume of urine is regulated by ___________
Aldosterone
ADH and Aldosterone
Aldosterone and testosterone
400. Large intestinal secretion is stimulated by:
Direct stimulation.
Local myentric reflex.
Para sympathetic stimulation.
All of the above.

401. Of the approximately 9 liters of water that go through the GI tract daily, how much makes it out in the feces?
100 ml
1000 ml
2000 ml
1500 ml
500 ml
402. Following are functions of the kidneys, except:
Uric acid production
Maintenance of water balance
Maintaince of acid base balance
Erythropietic production
403. What is glycosuria?
Low amount of sugar in urine
Average amount of sugar in urine
Low amount of fat in urine
High amount of sugar in urine
404. Which of the following statements is wrong?
Repeated vomiting leads to dehydration,alkalosis, and K⁺ depletion
The rate of gastric emptying is affected by the fat content of food
The enterogenic reflex is a gastro-inhibitory reflex
The enterogenic reflex depends on vagal impulses as well as local enteric and prevertebral ganglionic reflexes
The enterogastric reflex is of value in facilitating carbohydrates digestion
405. Renal glomerular capillaries forms high pressure bed of:
60 to 70 mm of Hg
8 to 10 mm of Hg
100 mm of Hg
5 mm of Hg
406. About the process of Swallowing, all the followings are true except:
As a peristaltic wave passes along the esophagus, the cardiac sphincter, stomach wall and duodenum relax.
The esophageal musculature below the pharynx contains striated (skeletal)muscles which is entirely under control of vagi
nerves.
The most sensitive site for initiation of the pharyngeal phase is the tonsillar pillars.
Food does not enter the trachea mainly due to approximation of the vocal cords.
The voluntary phase includes the period during which food passes through both the buccal cavity and pharynx.
407. As regards the process of vomiting:
Its is controlled by a center in the cerebral cortex
It always begins with nausea
Prolonged vomiting usually produces dehydration associated with acidosis
It’s associated with relaxation of the body and fundus of the stomach
Uraemic toxins stimulates the vomiting center directly
408. Which of the following is not a nitrogenous waste?
Citrulin
Allantoin
Purines
Creatinine
409. Normal GFR is about:
125 ml/min
180 L/day
none of the above
both a and b
410. The type of gradual increase in the osmolarity of the medullary intestitial fluid is called:
Tubular gradient
Renal gradient
Medullary gradient
Urinary gradient
411. Juxtaglomerular apparatus is not formed by:

Macula densa
Extraglomerular mesangial cells
Podocytes
412. Epithelial cells with pedicles on the basement membrane are called:
Podocytes
Astrocytes
Lymphocytes
Phagocytes
413. The GIT is controlled by: Its own intrinsic nervous system(Auerbach,s and Meissner,s plexuses).
The sympathetic N.S.
The parasympathetic N.S.
only B&C.
A,B&C.
414. Juxta glomerular cells of renal cortex synthesize a hormone called __________
ADH
Renin
Oxytocin
Urochrome
415. Principal and intercalated cells form:
Ascending limb
Proximal convoluted tubules
Collecting duct
Glomerulus
416. Gastric secretion is inhibited by all the following except:
Presence of excess H⁺ in the pyloric antrum
Presence of excess protein digestive products in the stomach
Certain emotions e.g. fear and depression

Certain GIT hormones e.g. secretin,CCK and VIP
Presence of fat, hypertonic solutions and excess acid in the duodenum
417. Pressure exerted by plasma protiens:
Hydrostatic pressure
Net filtertion pressure
418. The parasympathetic supply of the distal colon is:
Pelvic nerve.
Vagus nerve
The lesser splanchnic nerve.
The pudendal nerve.
419. Liquid which collects in Bowman’s capsule is ___________
Water and sulphates
Water and glycogen
Plasma minus blood proteins
Concentrated urine
420. Which of the following is the urinary bladder of embryo?
Allantois
Amnion
Chorion
Yolk sac
421. In micturition _____
Urethra relaxes
Ureters relax
Ureters contract
Urethra contracts
422. the Secretion of gastrin cease(stop):

When the stomach is distended by meal.
When the PH of the gastric content is Decreased below 2.
If the fundic mucosa is anaesthesized.
If the vagi are Stimulate.
If histamine is injected
423. Anal mucosa is sensitive to all of the following except:
Pain
Stretch.
Touch
Temperature
424. Main function of Henle’s loop is ___________
Passage of urine
Filtration of blood
Formation of urine
Conservation of urine
425. Which of the following is NOT a component of bile secretions?
Stercobilin.
Bile pigments
Cholesterol
Lecithin
Bilirubin-glucuronide
426. Part of nephron impermeable to salt is ____________
DCT
Collecting ducts
Ascending limb of loop of Henle
Descending limb of loop of Henle
427. The gastric mucosal barrier is maintained by all the following except:
The nature of the surface membrane of the gastric mucosal cells and the tight junctions between these cells
Certain prostaglandins and the alkaline mucous secretion of the stomach
The mucus gel-like membrane that coats the gastric mucous membrane
Administration of H₂ receptor blocking drugs (e.g. cimetidine)
Excessive amounts of bile salts,asprin or ethanol
428. The following statement about calcium absorption from small intestine are true except:
It occurs by active transport.
It requires vit. D and parathormone.
It occours by passive diffusion from upper small intestine.
It is decreased by excess phosphate and oxalate in food.
429. An example of non threshold substance:
Urea
Uric acid
Creatinine
Phosphate
430. Pepsin, secreted by the gastric mucosa:
Continues to act in the neutral medium of the duodenum.
Is proteolytic on the mucosal surface, in the alkaline medium provided by the mucus secreted by the surface cells of the
stomach.
Is synthesized within the chief cells.
Does not increased in concentration in response to the mental stimuli found in the so’called cephalic phase of gastric
digestion.
431. Which of the following is characteristic of the segmenting movements in the small intestine?
It decreases particle size, which increases the surface area for digestion.
It brings the products of digestion to the mucosal surface for absorption.
It results in the mixing of the luminal contents in front of the propulsive segments (i.e. in the receiving segments)
All of the above
432. Vasa recta supplies to tubules in:
Cortical nephrons
Mixed nephrons
Mixed nephrons
None of the above
433. Colonic motility is stimulated by the following except:
Gastro-colic reflex.
Colono-colic reflex.
Duodeno-colic reflex.
434. Gall bladder bile is characterized by all the followings except:
It is relatively acidic
Darker in color.
More inorganic constituent.
Higher specific gravity.
435. Fecal continence requires:
Intact innervations of anorectal region
Sensation of rectum and anal mucosa.
Tone of the internal and external anal sphincter
All of the above
436. The following are true statement about fat absorption from small intestine except:
It is helped by bile salts.
Glycerol and short chain FAs are absorbed passively.
Deficiency of fat absorption leads to poor absorption of VIT.B complex.
Chylomicrons are extruded into Lacteal laterals by exocytosis
437. Substance which is not reabsorbed from loop of Henle:
Sodium
Phosphate
Chloride
None of the above
438. All are the structural components of kidney, except:
Inner meulla
Trigone
Renal sinus
Nephron
439. Which pair is correct concerning secretory glands/cells in the stomach and their products?
Cardiac glands -- hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor.
Parietal cells -- pepsinogen
Chief cells -- mucus
G cells -- protease
D cells -- somatostatin
440. GFR and permeability of Glomerular capillary membrane has one of the following relationship:
Directly propotional
Indirectly proportional
Inversely proportional
Negative feedback
441. ADH makes the urine hypertonic with osmolarity of:
1,200 mOsm/L
2000 mOsm/L
5000 mOsm/L
500 mOsm/L
442. In the presence of which hormone, distal convulated tubule and collecting duct of renal tubule become permeable to water
so that it is reabsorbed?
Aldosterone
Parathormone
Growth hormone
Anti diuretic hormone
443. Factor increasing the sensitivity of tubuloglomerular feedback:
ANP
Prostaglandin I
Nitrous oxide
Thromboxane
444. The secretion of the intrinsic factor occurs in:
Parietal cells of the stomach.
Chief cells of the stomach.
Upper duodenum.
Beta cells of pancreas
Liver.
445. Large intestine secretion is stimulated by:
Direct stimulation.
Local .myentric reflex.
Parasympathetic stimulation.
All the above.
446. Man is unable to digest dietary:
Glycogen.
Dextrin.
Saccharose.
Cellulose.
Glucose
447. Which of the following statements about fat and fat digestion/absorption is true?
Fat soluble vitamins are incorporated into mixed micelles and absorbed directly across the microvillus cell membrane
Triglycerides are resynthesized from fa y acids and monoglyceride in the intestinal epithelial cell and are exported directly into
the portal circulation
Pancreatic lipase functions best at a pH of 3
None of the above
None of the above
448. The external anal sphincter is supplied by:
Pelvic nerve.
Pudendal nerve.
Vagus nerve
449. The enterogastric reflex can be elicted by which of the following?
Distension of the duodenum
Acid chime in the duodenum.
Hyperosmotic chime in the duodenum.
All of the above
450. GFR is directly proportional to:
Tempreature of body
Renal blood flow
Pulse rate
Respiratory rate
451. Substances which do not appear in urine under normal conditions are:
High-threshold substances
Low-threshold substanced
Non threshold substances
Sub threshold substances
452. Removal of the stomach can lead to all of the following except:
Marked digestive disturbances
Megaloblastic anaemia (pernicious anaemia)
A fall in the plasma volume after a heavy meal (due to the dumping syndrome)
Diminished Ca⁺⁺ absorption and weak development of bones
453. Muscles in the propulsive and receiving segments of the GI tract respond differently to food movement through the gut.
Which of the following statements correctly describes activity in the propulsive segment?
The circular and longitudinal muscles are contracted.
The longitudinal muscles are contracted and the circular muscles are relaxed.
Both the longitudinal muscles and circular muscles are relaxed.
The circular muscles are contracted and the longitudinal muscles are relaxed.
454. Which structure acts as the countercurrent exchanger?
Vasa recta
Macula densa
Glomerulus
Bowman's capsule
455. Which is not the type of Aphasia?
Broca Aphasia
Dysphoniac Aphasia
Global aphasia
Wernicke aphasia
456. Retching or gagging (opening up of mouth) points to:
Corneal reflex
Pharyngeal reflex
Cremesteric reflex
Gluteal reflex
457. During Sleep:
Heart rate varies between 45 and 60 beats per minute
Heart rate increases
Heart rate is not changed much
458. Buerger waves ( alpha waves) of EEG have the rhythm per second of:
0-4
4-7
8-13
13-30
459. Nightmares occur due to all, except
Improper food intake
Drug or alcohol withdrawal
Digestive or Nervous disorders
Sleeplessness
460. Which involves the conscious recollection of past experience?
Long term memory
Short term
Explicit memory
Associative Memory
461. Damage to sleep centers in brain leads to:
Hypersomnia
Sleep phobia
Insomnia
Nightmares
462. Ability to recall past experience or information is called:
Cognition
Memory
Coordination
Facilitation
463. The two centers Raphe nucleus and Locus ceruleus of pons which induce the Sleep are located in:
Brainstem
Cerebellum
Left Hemisphere
Right Hemisphere
464. During Sleep:
Formation of urine decreases
Specific gravity decreases
Systolic pressure falls to about 90-110mm Hg
All of these
465. Synchronized waves are:
regular and invariant waves
Irregular and Variant Waves

Regular and Variant Waves
None
466. Which one of the following is Skilled memory?
Explicit memory
Non decorative memory
Long term memory
Short term memory
467. Which is responsible for Higher nervous activity:
extensive outer layer of gray matter
inner layer of white matter
Outer layer of White matter
Extensive Inner layer of gray matter
468. Established conditioned reflex is inhibited by some form of stimulus, points to:
Negative conditioned reflex
Neutral conditioned reflex
External unconditioned reflex
Internal unconditioned reflex
469. Following are the stages of NREM sleep, except:
Drowziness
Light sleep
Dream sleep
Deep sleep
470. Unconditioned reflexes are:
Natural reflexes
Inborn reflexes
None of the above
Both a and b
471. Demonstration of conditioned reflex was first made by:

Pavlov
William Harve
Robert Brown
Karl von Frisch
472. Classical conditioning is based on the work of which person?
Pavlov
Ellis
Freud
Bandura
Bowlby
None of these
473. Desynchronized waves are:
Regular and invariant waves
None
474. Learning is:
The process by which new information is acquired
The process by which old information is revised
Not helpful
Very higher in the age of above 90
475. Which learning involves relations between two or more stimuli at a time.
Non-associative learning
Associative learning
Sensitization
habituation
476. Sleep apnea syndrome occurs in all of the following conditions, except:
Obesity
Myxodema
Lesions in brainstem
Smoking
477. Alteration of synaptic transmission between neurons involved, points to:
Recalling of Memory
Storage of Memory
Brain washing
Learning from Memory
478. Following are the types of spinal reflexes, except:
Segmental
Intersegmental
Suprasegmental
Extra segmental
479. Fixed or permanent memory is:
Tertiary memory
Secondary memory
Primary memory
Sensory memory
480. Reflex activity, most of the time is of the following nature:
Aggressive
Offensive
Protective
Depressive
481. Type of learning that involves response of a person to only one type of stimulus:
Both of above
None
482. Sometimes which is also referred as negative memory:
Facilitation
Habituation
Short term memory
Long term memory
483. Babinski's sign during deep sleep is:
Negative
Positive
None of the above
Both of the above
484. Threshold for most of the reflexes increases. Pupils are constricted. Light reflex is retained. Eyeballs move up and down.
These occur in:
Bad Learning
Good Learning
Sleep
Muscle Tone increasing
485. Which is not involved in Unconditioned reflex?
learning and memory
associative learning and associative memory
non associative learning and non-associative memory
None of above
486. Which of these is an unconditioned stimulus?
Food
Loud noise
Shock
Pain
None of these
all of these
487. Hypertension even Right heart failure can occur in severe cases of:
Sleep apnea syndrome
Narcolepsy
Cataplexy
Epilepsy
488. During Sleep:
Plasma level reduces
Plasma level increases
Plasma level is not changed
None of these
489. Loss of memory, points to:
Dementia
Amnesia
Brain death
Coma
490. One or more neurons, interposed between center and efferent or afferent nerve fibers are termed as:
Internuncial neurons
Sensory neurons
Motor neurons
Neuroglia
491. A word that is known today may be remembered till tomorrow. But if it is not recalled repeatedly, it may be forgotten on the
third day. It is an example of:
Short term Memory
Long term Memory
Moderate term Memory
Secondary Memory
492. An EEG:
provides indication of intelligence
tends to show waves of smaller amplitude during deep sleep than alert state
show waves with a lower frequency during intense thought than during deep sleep
is bilaterally symmetrical
493. Which one illustrates a reflex arc?
brain-Spinal cord- muscles
muscle-receptors-brain
muscles- spinal cord- brain
receptor-spinal cord-muscles
494. Basis of short term memory:
new synapses and their transmission
formation of new centers
Enlargement of Brain
Weight gain of Brain
495. What response did Watson and Rayner (1920) condition?
Anxiety
Happiness
Anger
Fear
Love
All of these
496. Dementia is common feature of:
Alzheimers disease
Meningioma
Hydrocephalus
Trigeminal neuralgia
497. Which drugs are shown to improve learning and memory:
Caffeine, nicotine, strychnine, Metrazol
epinephrine, adrenaline, Caffeine
amphetamine, nor-epinephrine, physostigmine
All of these
498. Reflex action is controlled by:
Autonomic nervous system
Peripheral Nervous system
Central Nervous System
None of these
499. Facilitation is the process in which Memory storage is:
Enhanced
Facilitated
Inhibited
Finished
500. Constant activity, consolidation and encoding of neuronal circuits into different areas of brain form the basis of:
Short term memory
Long term memory
Both of the above
None
501. Recalling first day of schooling, birthday celebration of previous year, picnic enjoyed last week:
Short term Memory
Long term Memory
Tertiary Memory
502. Which type of reflex is developed with one unconditioned stimulus and one conditioned stimulus?
Secondary conditioned reflex
Primary conditioned reflex
Tertiary conditioned reflex
Negative conditioned reflexes
503. Types of conditioned reflex:
Classical
Instrumental
Permanent
Both a and b
Both b and c
504. There are how many types of Speech Disorder?
III
IV
VI
VII
505. Electrical activity recorded by EEG may have:
synchronized waves
desynchronized waves
Both
None of the above
506. New neuronal circuits are established in which stage of development of SPEECH?
1st Stage
2nd Stage
3rd Stage
4th Stage
507. When atleast one part of reflex arc is formed by the autonomic nerve fiber, the reflex is termed:
Visceral reflex
Somatic reflex
Spinal reflex
Congenital reflex
508. Recognition memory is the other name of:
Short term Memory
Long term Memory
Explict Memory
Implicit Memory
509. Mucous membrane reflex is the type of:
Deep reflexes
Superficial reflexes
Visceral reflexes
Tendon reflexes
510. Example of Polysynaptic reflex is:
Extensor reflex
Intersegmental reflex
Withdrawal reflex
Acquired reflex
511. Lesion of asending reticular activating system (ARAS) leads to:
Permanent somnolence/Coma
Insomnia
Wakefulness
Hypersomnia
512. Serotinin released by Raphe nucleus induses:
REM Sleep
NREM Sleep
Both of above
None
513. Which of the following is Speech center
Broca area
Wernicke area
Upper frontal motor area
Secondary oral center
514. Working memory is the second name of:
Short term Memory

Long term Memory
Medium term Memory
Primary Memory
515. Rapid conjugate movements of eye balls with Increased frequency points to:
Paradoxical sleep
slow wave sleep
Non-REM sleep
Both b and c
516. Loss of memory is a dangerous phenomenon. Which one is loss of memory?
Amnesia
Tremor
non-fixed memory
viral encephalitis
517. Delta waves with low frequency and high amplitude, points to which stage of NREM sleep?
Deep sleep
Drowziness
Light sleep
Medium sleep
518. Speech function is localized to which part of hemisphere in most of the people?
Left hemisphere
Right hemisphere
Central part of both hemispheres
It’s not located in any hemisphere
519. Sweat and Lacrimal secretion increases during:
Sleep
Remembering
learning
Associative Learning
520. Wernicke area is situated in:
upper part of parietal lobe
Upper part of temporal lobe
lower part of Occipital lobe
Inner part of Frontal lobe
521. Sleep requirment for growing children:
5 to 6 hours/day
12 to 14 hours/day
18 to 20 hours/day
7 to 9 hours/day
522. The NREM sleep is divided into how many stages?
II
III
IV
523. On the basis of past experience, which alters the behaviour of a person?
Memory
Learning
Reading
Writing
524. Theta waves are obtained generally in:
Children below age of 5 years
Teen agers
Adults
Aged women
525. Sensory terminal has 2 presynaptic components. One is presynaptic and the other is:
Facilitator
Enhancer
Reducer
Amplifier
526. Which type of reflex is developed with one unconditioned stimulus and two conditioned stimuli?
Primary Conditioned reflex
Positive Coditioned Reflexes
527. Consolidation of memory is possible by:
Rehersal mechanism
Breathing mechanism
Sleep mechanism
Circulatory mechanism
528. Which is the type of sleep without the movements of eyeballs?
REM or Paradoxical Sleep
NREM or Slow-wave Sleep
Both REM & NREM Sleep
None of these
529. Which instrument is used to record EEG?
Electroencephalograph
Electrocardiograph
Electrogram
Electromusclograph
530. Which one of the following is the types of Sleep:
REM sleep
NREM sleep
REM sleep and NREM sleep
REM, NREM & NTM Sleep
531. Locus ceruleus of lower pons secretes which substance to induce REM sleep?
Serotinin
adrenaline
Nor-adrenaline
Dopamine
532. Wernicke area is involved in:
Speech synthesis
Speech understanding
Activation of peripheral speech apparatus
Activation of Central Speech Apparatus
533. The EEG rhythm having the lowest frequency is:
Alpha
Beta
Delta
Theta
534. Raphe nucleus is situated in:
Lower pons and medulla
Cerebellum
Cerebral cortex
Midbrain
535. Memory storage is attenuated in the process of:
Facilitation
Sensatization
Habituation
Retention
536. What forms the basis of higher mental functions?
congenital reflexes
Memory
Sleep
Conditional reflexes
537. Depending upon duration, memory is classified into all, except:
Sensory
Primary
Secondry
Tertiary
538. Speech is an integrated and a well-coordinated motor phenomenon. Which parts are involved in the mechanism of speech?
Cortical areas
Subcortical areas
both
Peripheral areas
539. Which is the natural periodic state of rest for mind and body with closed eyes characterized by partial or complete loss of
consciousness:
Memorizing Older information
Sleep
Learning
Body Rest
540. What is punishment?
Any consequence where something pleasurable is added
A classical conditioning technique
A tool for preventing extinction
Any consequence which makes behavior likely to reoccur in the future
Another form of negative reinforcement
Any consequence which makes behavior unlikely to reoccur in the future
541. In the diagnosis of neuro logical disorders and sleep disorders, is useful:
Electroencephalogram
Electrocardiogram
Electrogram
Electroneurogram
Electrobrainogram
542. How many there are stages in the development of SPEECH?
II stages
III stages
IV stages
V stages
VI stages
543. In Electrocardiograph how many electrodes are used?
Three Electrodes
Two Electrodes
Four Electrodes
Five Electrodes
544. It is the storage of information in brain for a longer period. The information could be recalled after hours, days, months or
years. It is:
Long term memory
Short term memory
Secondary memory
Primary memory
545. Non-declarative memory is the other name of:
Short term Memory
Long term Memory
Explict Memory
Implicit Memory
546. Activation of Locus ceruleus of pons results in:
Rapid Eye Movement Sleep
Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep
None of these
547. What is the Role of Broca Area?
Speech synthesis
548. Which of these is an unconditioned response?
Sweating
Blink
Salivation
Startle response
None of these
All of these
549. Epilepsy is divided into how many categories:
III
II
IV
550. In what memory storage is enhanced and involves increase in synaptic transmission and increased postsynaptic activity.
Habituation
Facilitation
Fast learning
None of these
551. Which of the following is not a type of Speech Disorder?
Aphasia
Dysarthria
Dysphonia
Stammering
None of these
552. Alpha rhythm includes frequency waves:
15-60 per second
1-5 per second
8-12 per second
22-26 per second
553. Nightmares are seen in:
REM sleep
NREM stage II
NREM stage III
NREM stage IV
554. Which of the following can be the cause of Aphasia?
Severe blow to head
Lumps on vocal cords
Paralysis of vocal cords
Hypthyroidism
555. Which type of reflexes inhibit the Conditioned reflexes?
Secondary Conditioned Reflexes
Tertiary Conditioned Reflexes
Negative Conditioned Reflexes
556. After searching and finding telephone number in the directory, we remember the number for a short while. It is an example
of:
Primary memory
Secondary memory
Long term memory
Short term memory
557. In vertebrates, simple reflex action is:
monosynaptic
polysynaptic
bisynaptic
trisynaptic
558. Stretch reflex is the best example of:
Polysynaptic reflex
Monosynaptic reflex
Both of the above
None of the above
559. Activation of Raphe Nucleus results in:
None of these
560. Which is the type of sleep associated with rapid conjugate movements of the eyeballs, which occurs frequently?
REM Sleep
NREM Sleep
Both NREM & REM Sleep
None of these
561. Sudden attack of uncontrolable sleep:
Coma
Shock
Stupor
Narcolepsy
562. EEG with spike and dome pattern is characteristic of epilepsy:
Jacksonian
Grandmal
Petitmal
Temporal lobe
563. Which of these is an example of conditioned reflex?
Sneezing
Yawning
withdrawl of hand on touching a hot plate
watering of mouth at the smell of food
564. Damage of speech centers impairs the expression and understanding of spoken words. It also affects:
reading
writing
both reading and writing
Reading, Writing, Vision
565. Pathalogical reflexes are classified according to:
Congenital basis
Response Basis
Clinical basis
Synapse basis
566. During the development of which type of reflex, animal is trained to perform a task in order to get some reward?
Operant Conditioned Reflexes
Classical Conditioned Reflexes
Unconditioned Reflexes
All types of reflexes
567. Which is the category of the Epilepsy:
Generalized Epilepsy
Localized Epilepsy
Both
None of these
568. Reflexes that protect body against gravitational force:
Flexor reflexes
Extensor reflexes
Aquired reflexes
Protective reflexes
569. Plantar reflex points to:
Stroking the thigh
Stroking dorsum of foot
Stroking the sole
Stroking the abdominal wall
570. Cataplexy points to:
Sudden outburst of emotions
Uncontrolable sleep
Nightmares
Nocturnal enuresis
571. Skilled memory is the other name of:
Short term Memory
Long term Memory
Explict Memory
Implicit Memory
572. Recalling of events of weeks, months, years or sometimes lifetime. It is related to:
Special type of Long term memory
Long term Memory
Primary Memory
573. What is Sensitization?
A process by which person gets used to something, to which a person is constantly exposed.
A process by which the body is made to become more sensitive to a stimulus
A process by which old information is revised
None of these
574. Habituation is also reffered to as:
Positive memory
Negative memory
Neutral memory
Distant memory
575. Which is not the type of Learning:
Habituation
Sensitization
None of these
576. Followings are the components of Reflex arc, except:
Sensory nerve
End organ
Effector organ
Dura matter
577. Which functions are related to the higher nervous activity
Higher Intellectual functions
Higher Brain Functions
Higher Cortical Functions
All of these
578. During sleep following changes occur, except:
Rate and force of respiration is decreased
Salivary secretion is decreased
Formation of urine is decreased
Sweat secretion is decreased
579. Source of EEG:
A potential of pyramidal cells
A i l f li ll
A potential of ganglion cells
EPSP and IPSP of cortical cells which behave like dipoles
After potentials of parietalc cortex
580. Recollection of past experience for a very short period, on the basis of which an action is executed. It is related to:
Short term Memory
Long term Memory
Primary Memory
581. Which is not the stage of Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep
Stage of Drowsiness
Stage of Light Sleep
Stage of Medium Sleep
Stage of Deep Sleep
None of these
582. Conditioned reflex forms the basis of
all higher intellectual functions
all higher nervous activity
all higher cortical functions
all higher brain functions
All of these
583. Explicit memory, points to:
Forgetfullness
Subjective recalling
Conscious recollection of past experience
Objective recalling
584. How many types there are of Sleep?
II
III
IV
V
585. The expression of thoughts by production of articulate sound, bearing a definite meaning is a process?
Skilled Speaking
Speech
Skilled presentation
Central Speech
586. What association is formed in secondary conditioning?
Association between two unconditioned responses
Association between extinction and recovery
Association between the first conditioned stimulus and a second conditioned stimulus in the absence of the unconditioned
stimulus
Association between unconditioned stimuli and conditioned responses
Association between two conditioned responses without conditioned stimuli
None of these
587. Bulbar or medullary reflexes are named because:
They have their centers in cerebral cortex
They are non protective
They have their centers in medulla oblongata
They are destructive in nature
588. Inhibition of Conditioned reflexes is of how many types?
589. Somnabulism:
Getting up from bed during sleep
Walking during sleep
Associated with psychoneurosis in adults
All of above
All of above
590. Short term memory, points to:
seconds to minutes
Months to years
Hours to days
Weeks to months
591. Following are the pupillary reflexes, except
Light reflex
Accomodation reflex
Ciliospinal reflex
Oculocardiac reflex
592. Memory depends on:
duration
non-associative learning
way of learning
associative learning
593. Which neurotransmitter plays role in Molecular basis of Facilitation:
Adrenaline
Dopamine
Serotonin
Neostigmine
594. Which of the following is controlled by autonomous nervous system?
Papillary reflex
Swallowing food
Knee-jerk response
peristalsis of intestine
595. Long term memory, points to:
Weeks to months
Years
Life time
All of the above
596. Implicit memory, points to:
Skilled memory
Non skilled memory
Crude memory
Raw memory
597. Beta rhythm includes frequency waves:
15-60 per second
1-5 per second
8-12 per second
15-28 per second
598. The process involved in facilitation of memory is called:
Memory sensitization
Negative memory
Positve Memory
Habituation
599. Mention the role of motor area?
Speech synthesis
600. Desynchronized waves on EEG points to:
REM Sleep
Non-REM sleep
Both a and b
None of the above

601. Reflex developed with one conditioned and one unconditioned stimuli:
Secondry conditioned reflex
Negative conditioned reflex
602. Anatomical basis of Memory is:
Synapses
Basal ganglia
lateral ventricle
Corona radiata
603. What are the types of Inhibition of Conditioned reflexes
External inhibition & Internal inhibition
Primary, Secondary & Tertiary Inhibition
Associative and Non- associative inhibition
None of the above
Memory polarization
Memory inhibition
Memory decentralization
605. Hippocampus and Papez circuit (closed circuit between hippocampus, thalamus, hypothalamus and corpus striatum) are
the main sites for:
Memory encoding
Memory strengthening
None
606. Tone in all the muscles of body except ocular muscles decreases very much during sleep. It is called as:
Sleep Paralysis
Dehydrated Sleep
Tired Sleep
Normal Sleep
607. Reflex action in a vertebrate is an essential display induced by a:
sensory nerve
motor nerve
autonomic response
sympathic nerve
608. Which is characterized by combined features of Broca aphasia and Wernicke aphasia:
Global aphasia
Nominal aphasia
Wernicke aphasia
Broca Aphasia
609. Which of these is not a reflex reaction?
Salivation
Secretion of sweat
Flexion due to needle prick
Blinking of eyes due to strong light
610. When an electric shock is given to the leg of a pathed frog, it:
shows reflex response by contraction of leg muscles
blinks its eyes
shows no response
put out its tongue
611. Delta waves in EEG are seen in:
Deep sleep
REM sleep
awake with eyes open
awake with eyes closed

612. Acquired reflexes are developed mostly after:
Conditioning
Watching
Trauma
Disease
613. Which type of reflexes excite the Conditioned reflexes?
Primary Conditioned Reflexes
614. Retaining sensory signals in sensory areas of brain, for a very short period of few seconds after the actual sensory
experience, i.e. few hundred milliseconds:
Sensory memory
Secondary memory
Long term memory
Short term memory
615. What type of memory can be recalled after hours, days, months or years?
working memory
Secondary memory
Sensory memory
remote memory
616. Delta rhythm includes frequency waves:
15-60 per second
1-5 per second
8-12 per second
15-28 per second
617. There are how many types of Learning?
3
2
618. Negative conditioned reflex is of the following types:
External
Internal
Both a and b
None of the above
619. The main difference between REM sleep and wakefulness is:
EEG desynchronization
Rapid eye movements
Decreased muscle tone
Penile erection
620. In normal person EEG has:
Three frequency bands
Five frequency bands
Nine frequency bands
Seven frequency bands
621. In which disease, EEG patterns are not altered:
Influenza
Epilepsy
Disorders of midbrain
Subdural Hematoma
622. Which of the following statements about fat and fat digestion/absorption is true?
Fat soluble vitamins are incorporated into mixed micelles and absorbed directly across the microvillus cell membrane
Triglycerides are resynthesized from fatty acids and monoglyceride in the intestinal epithelial cell and are exported directly into
the portal circulation
Pancreatic lipase functions best at a pH of 3
None of the above

None of the above
623. Which ONE of the following is not involved in the regulation of glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
Arterial pressure
Efferent arteriolar tone
Na content in distal tubule
624. Inhibition of the myenteric plexus leads to which of the following?
Increased Secretion of Secretin from the duodenum.
Decreased gut motility.
Hyperacidity in the stomach.
Diarrhea.
625. Every mucosa consists of:
A simple epithelium
A surface epithelium together with associated glands
A surface epithelium layer, with or without glands with an underlying layer of loose connective tissue.
A surface epithelium layer, with or without lands together with an under lying connective tissue and a layer of smooth muscle.
626. The hormone that inhibit gastric secretion and motility is...
gastrin
histamine
secretin
cholecytokinin
627. Proteins are primarily digested to and absorbed as...
amino acids
monosaccharides
nucleic acids
fatty acids & glycerol
628. Increased GFR is caused by
Increased cardiac output

Afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction
Efferent arteriolar vasodilatation
Increased chloride delivery to the macula densa
629. Which of the following does not enter the duodenal lumen?
chyme from stomach
bile salts
disaccharidases
pancreatic enzymes
630. Which is the primary absorptive organ of the digestive system?
small intestine
stomach
colon
pancreas
631. The role of Chief cell is to:
Secretes hydrogen ions and chloride ions into lumen and are responsible for maintaining the acidic pH
Secrete pepsin which digests proteins.
Secretes Gastrin which stimulates gastric acid secretion
Secretes pepsinogen.
632. Renal blood flow:
Greater per unit mass than cerebral blood flow
Is greater in the medulla compared to the cortex
Is closely related to tubular sodium reabsorption
Only sympathetically mediated
633. Chief cells of gastric mucosa secrete...
trypsin
bicarbonate ions
pepsinogen
HCl
634. It is known that secretin:
It is a large protein hormone synthesized by the pancreas,together with pancreozymin.
Is a small polypeptide synthesized by the intestinal mucosa .
Neutralizes directly the acid chyme that passes through the pylorus.
Has an optimal activity at a PH equal to 8.4.
635. The minimum pH that the urine can create is
3.0
3.5
4.0
4.5
636. Which of the following factors will not influence the rate of gastric emptying?
fat in the duodenum
acid in the duodenum
caffeine in the duodenum
distension of the duodenum
637. Water handling by kidney (% reabsorption)
93%
94%
99%
99.4%
638. Which of the following is an active proteolytic enzyme?
pepsinogen
secretin
procarboxypeptidase
none of the above
639. The layer of tissue beneath the mucosa is called the:
Muscularis externa
Circular Muscle
S
Serosa
Submucosa
640. What occurs during swallowing?
All the processes of Deglutition are under voluntary control.
The vocal folds are relaxed allowing the food to travel down the oesophagus
The swallowing centre located within the medulla oblongata inhibits themedullary respiratory centre
The food bolus travels down the oesophagus due to gravity
641. Distension of the stomach...
causes glucose absorption
results in salivation
triggers gastrocolic reflex
inhibits gastric emptying
642. Which of these is most completely re-absorbed in the kidneys
Albumin
Glucose
Calcium
Potassium
643. In a patient with significant hypovolaemia and increased osmolality:
Decreased sodium reabsorption at distal tubule & collecting duct
Increased water reabsorption at ascending loop of henle
Increased water permeability of collecting duct
None of the above
644. Bile salts...
emulsify proteins
are formed from cholesterol
are acidic in nature
are needed for carbohydrate digestion
645. The formula for GFR is:

GFR = Kf (HPG - HPB + OPG - OPB)
GFR = Kf (HPG - HPB - OPG + OPB)
GFR = Kf (HPG + HPB - OPG + OPB)
GFR = Kf (HPG + HPB - OPG - OPB)
646. The pancreas arises from which embryonic germ layer?
Mesoderm
Ectoderm
Mesendoderm
Endoderm
647. Which of the following results in decreased K+ excretion?
Prolonged vomiting
Metabolic acidosis
Normal saline infusion
Renal failure
648. It is known that gastrin:
It is a large protein molecule, somewhat similar in size to pepsin.
Is not secreted by empty stomach when peristaltic movements may be quite forceful.
Reaches the secretory cells of the fundus of the stomach through the blood and not through the lumen.
Promotes the secretion of pepsin, but not that of HCL.
649. Cimetidine and a calcium-containing antacid preparation administered in an appropriate dosage regimen for treating
peptic ulcer in that:
Only the calcium-containing antacid may increase gastric acid secretion.
Only cimetidine is likely to cause an increase in urinary pH.
Only cimetidine is likely to produce a laxative effect.
Only cimetidine can prevent the rise in gastric pH after the consumption of a meal
650. The clearance (or 'renal regulation') of which ONE of the following is NOT regulated by a hormone:
Sodium
Potassium
Calcium
Sulphate
651. Lactose intolerance is the inability to digest lactose, due to insufficient amounts of the enzyme lactase. Where is lactase
usually found?
Brush border of duodenum
Lumen of the small intestine
Lumen of the stomach
Brush border of the jejunum
652. What path do bile salts take?
Gall bladder, stomach, duodenum, juejunum, ileum, tissues
Liver, gall bladder, duodenum, jejunum, tissues
Gall bladder, stomach, duodenum, tissues, liver
Liver, gall bladder, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, liver
653. HCl secretion by the stomach...
is triggered by chewing
denatures proteins
activates enzymes that digest proteins
all of these +
654. Mucosa surface cell secretes mucous which provides a physical barrier between ______________ and __________.
Mucosa and Epithelium
Lymph Vessel and lamina Propria
Mucosa and Lumen
Lumen and Epithelium
655. Choose the best description of the duodenum.
Mucosa with crypts and villi; epithelium with sca ered goblet cells; laminapropria with occasional lymph nodules; submucosa
unspecialized.
Mucosa with crypts but no villi; epithelium with sca ered goblet cells; laminapropria with occasional lymph nodules;
submucosa unspecialized.
Mucosa with both crypts and villi; epithelium with sca ered goblet cells; laminapropria with occasional lymph nodules;
submucosa with mucous glands.
Mucosa with both crypts and villi; epithelium with sca ered goblet cells; laminapropria packed with mucous glands;
submucosa with numerous lymph nodules
656. Which of the following organs secrete mucus?
salivary glands
colon
stomach
all of the above
657. Some absorption occurs in the large intestine, but this is mostly limited to...
amino acids
water & electrolytes
fatty acids
buffers and mucous secreted by the large intestinal mucosa
658. Increased stomach pH is the consequence of which of the following?
Damage to the mucous cells
Increased G cell activity
Inhibition of parietal cells
Overexpression by chief cells
659. Resistance to renal blood flow is chiefly determined by:
Renal artery
Afferent & efferent arterioles
Interlobular & arcuate arteries
660. During swallowing...
all processes are consciously controlled
the swallowing center located in the medulla oblongata inhibits the medullary respiratory center
the vocal folds are relaxed
the food bolus is forced down the esophagus by gravity
661. During which stage of Swallowing is respiration inhibited?
Voluntary stage.
Pharyngeal stage
Pharyngeal stage.
Esophageal stage.
Postprandial stage.
662. Regarding glucose handling in the kidney
Reuptake is passive
Tm is the same for all nephrons
D-glucose more rapidly absorbed than L-glucose
Reabsorption is inversely proportional to lipid solubility
663. Stomach acid is neutralized...
in the duodenum
by secretions secreted by antrum
in the duodenum with trypsin
with trypsin
664. Intrinsic factor is...
secreted by parietal cells and is responsible for vitamin B12 absorption
not necessary for normal body function
abundant in pernicious anemia
an aminopeptidase
665. The salivary secretion:
Is stimulated by most GIT hormones specially gastrin.
Is essential for complete digestion of starch.
Increases more by sweet than by bitter substances.
Markedly Increases by parasympathetic stimulatation.
666. For an organ lying within a body cavity, the tissue which is farthest away from the inner core or lumen of the organ is called
the:
Muscularis externa
Serosa
Mucosa
Myenteric Plexus
667. Amylase secreted by the salivary glands into the oral cavity starts the digestion of:
Proteins
Lipids
Starch
Amino acids
668. Regarding pancreatic secretion:
Pancreatic secretion is inhibited by gastrin secreted by the G cells of the antrum
Pancreatic acinar cells contain trypsin
Cholecystokinin inhibits secretion from the exocrine pancreas.
The introduction of acid into the duodenum stimulates pancreatic secretion.
669. The permeability of glomerular capillaries:
Equals that of other capillaries
Is much less than that of other capillaries
Is equal for cationic and anionic molecules of equal size
Is about 50 times as great as that of a skeletal muscle capillary
670. What prevents food from entering the nasal passages during swallowing?
elevation of uvula
contraction of pharyngeal muscles
apposition of vocal folds
elevation of epiglottis
671. The intrinsic nerve plexuses...
are located in the mucosal region
network of neurons that act as "gut" brain
are made up of two plexuses
two of the above
672. Secretin IS released by:
Acid in the duodenum.
Acid in the urine.

S cells in the duodenal mucosa.
Distension of the colon.
673. Bile is produced by the liver continuously. (Which of the following is true?)
bile functions to catalyze digestive processes in a manner similar to enzymes
bile salts emulsify large droplets of triglycerides
bile salts reduce the surface area of droplets of triglycerides
95% of bile salts are lost in the feces
674. Which tissue layer provides for primary digestive motility?
mucosa
submucosa
mesentery
muscularis mucosa
675. Concerning the gastrin hormone:
It is Secreted at the pyloric antrum and reaches the fundus tohrough the gastric lumen.
It Promotes the secretion of pepsin, but not HCL.
Its Secretion Stimulated by secretin and GIP.
It is structurally similar to CCK .
676. Which of the following is absorbed by the gastric mucosa?
glucose
caffeine
aspirin
HCl
677. Increase in GFR occurs with
Increased sympathetic stimulation
Decreased renal blood flow
Hypoproteinaemia
Ureteric obstruction
678. Which has the greatest renal clearance?

PAH
Glucose
Urea
Water
679. The serosa is...
abdominal cavity containing the stomach inner lining of the digestive tract
outer connective tissue covering of the digestive tract
layer of smooth muscle of the digestive tract
layer of smooth muscle of the respiratory tract
680. The pharyngeal phase of Swallowing:
Can be voluntairly inhibited.
Involves closure of larynx by the vocal cord.
Is associated with lowering of the soft palate.
Is accompanied by deep inspiration.
681. Apatient with trigeminal lesion would have the greatest difficulty with which of the following?
Swallowing
Chewing
Receptive relaxation of the upper esophageal sphincter
Secondary prestalsis in the esophagus
682. Which of the following is involved in the regulation of glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
Afferent arteriolar tone
All of the above
683. Salivation can become a conditioned reflex .This suggests that:
Pleasant taste sensation are not related to the reflex .
Only salivatory nuclei in the brainstem need to be excited by taste sensation without participation of suprasegmental
influences.
The cerebral cortex partially controls salivation.

salivation could be completely interrupted in a decorticate animal whose tongue is mechanically stimulated.
684. The ileocecal sphincter...
prevents acid from entering the esophagus
prevents bacterial growth in the stomach
prevents bacterial infection of small intestine
inhibits gastric emptying
685. Which tissue layer provides for primary digestive motility?
Mucosa
Submucosa
Mesentery (a fold of tissue that a aches organs to the body wall)
Muscularis Mucosa
686. The role of parietal cells is to:
Secretes hydrogen ions and chloride ions into lumen and are responsible for maintaining the acidic pH
Alkaline mucous for shielding the epithelium from hydrochloric acid
Secretes histamine which stimulates gastric acid secretion
Secretes gastric lipase
687. Mastication is important because:
Mastication is important because:
Allows the salivary enzymes to act for a longer time.
Increase the surface area of the food particles.
All of the above.
688. In which region of the GI tract is the longitudinal muscle of the muscularis arranged into distinct longitudinal bundles?
Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum
Colon
689. Select the true statement regarding the control of gastric secretion:
Gastric acid is secreted by parietal cells of the gastric glands in response to hormonal stimulation.
yp g g p
Secretin secreted by the duodenum stimulates gastric secretion.
690. Kidneys produce:
Erythropoietin
ADH
Angiotensin II
ANP
691. Arterial pressure
Sympathetic nervous system
Sodium flow past macula densa
Afferent arteriolar vasodilatation
Arterial pressure
692. Peristaltic antral contractions...
occur at the rate of 3 per minute
are responsible for gastric emptying
are responsible for mixing food and gastric enzymes within the antrum
all of these
693. Renal blood flow is dependent on:
[Na+] at macula densa
Afferent vasodilatation
Arterial pressure
694. Submucosal glands occur in the submucosa of the ________ and they also occur in the _________.
Oesophagus and ileum
Stomach and Duodenum
Stomach and ileum
Oesophagus and Duodenum

695. Significant tubular reabsorption occurs with:
Phosphate
Creatinine
Urea
All of the above
696. Angiotensin II causes:
Increases proximal tubular reabsorption of Na & H2O & increases secretion of K+
Increases distal tubular reabsorption of Na & H2O & decreases secretion of K+
Decreases distal tubular reabsorption of Na & H2O
Increases excretion of Na & H2O
697. High osmolarity of renal medullary interstitium is due to:
secretion of H2O into ascending loop of Henle
diffusion of H2O into ascending loop of Henle
active transport of Na from vasa recta
passive reabsorption of urea from collecting duct
698. About the GIP,all the following are true except:
It is secreted from the duodenal mucosa.
It has have feedback effect on gastric Secretion and motility.
Its release is Stimulated by presence of excess fat.
It inhibit both gastric Secretion and motility.
699. Which is not a brush border enzyme?
lipase
enteropeptidase
sucrase
aminopeptidase
700. The Secretin hormone:
Is secreted by the pancrease.
Is released by the pyloric mucosa.

Contracts the gall bladder wall.
Increases the pancreatic Secretion of water and HCO3-.
701. In most regions of the GI tract, smooth muscle fibers of the muscularis are arranged into:
Circular muscle (inner) followed by longitudinal muscle (outer)
Longitudinal muscle (inner) followed by Circular muscle (outer)
Circular and Longitudinal muscle whose relative position varies at different regions
Circular muscle (inner) followed by Longitudinal muscle and Serosa (outer)
702. Glomerulotubular balance:
Involves afferent arteriole feedback loop
Involves efferent arteriole feedback loop
Juxtaglomerular complex
Ability to increase tubular absorption in response to an increase in filtered load
703. The effect of PTH on the kidney is to:
Increase Ca excretion and decrease phosphate excretion
Decrease Ca excretion and increase phosphate excretion
Decrease Ca excretion and decrease phosphate excretion
None of the above
704. Intrinsic factor is required for the intestinal absorption of _________ in the upper ileum:
Vitamin D
Amino Acid
Vitamin B12
None of the above
705. Water filtration by the kidney:
Is 180 l/hr
Is 125 ml/min
Up to 90% is reabsorbed
Most drugs have MW less than 600 and are freely filtered
706. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR):
Is independent of the size of the capillary bed
Depends only on the hydrostatic and osmotic pressure differences across the capillary
Is determined by the same forces governing filtration across all other capillaries
Depends only on the permeability of the capillary
707. Lipids...
are broken down by pepsin
are absorbed into lacteals
become part of micelles in the duodenum
two of the above [B&C]
708. Regarding water reabsorption in the collecting tubules:
depends on aldosterone levels
collecting tubules able to reabsorb 60-70% of water
depends on renin levels
loops of henle are ONLY located in the renal medulla
709. The products of the liver and pancreas participate in what type of digestion?
Both mechanical
Chemical and mechanical, respectively
Both chemical
Mechanical and chemical, respectively
710. SGLT1 is a symporter that can be found in the small intestine. Which macromolecule does it transport?
Monosaccharides
Nucleic acid
Fatty acids
Amino acids
711. Bile acts on...
distention in the stomach
acid in the stomach

fat in the stomach
fat in the duodenum
712. The Secretion of gastrin cease(stop):
When the stomach is distended by meal.
When the PH of the gastric content is Decreased below 2.
If the fundic mucosa is anaesthesized.
If the vagi are Stimulate. (E)If histamine is injected.
713. The presentation of a bolus of solid food to the mouth:
stimulates taste buds.
Is usually followed by Mastication.
Reflexively stimulates The salivary glands.
All are correct.
714. Folds in the mucosa of the stomach are called _________ which allows the surface area to _________.
Crypt, Increase
Rugae, Increase
Rugae, Decrease
Crypt, Decrease
715. Simple tubular glands within the mucosa of the small or large intestine are called intestinal:
Villi
Peyer’s Patch
Crypt
Pits
716. Pressure diuresis:
Due to decreased reabsorption of Na+ & water in peritubular capillaries
Regulated by macula densa
Increase ADH
Increase angiotensin
717. The ascending limb of the Loop of Henle is:
Impermeable to Na+
Involved in active transport of K+ into the lumen
Involved in active transport of Cl- out of lumen
Involved in active transport of Na+ into lumen
718. Where does the production of bile occur?
Gallbladder
Liver
Pancreas
Hepatic Ducts
719. Venous blood flows into the liver via...
hepatic vein
hepatic portal system
sinusoids
canaliculi
720. The major chemical digestive activity that takes place in the stomach is...
breakdown of starch
breakdown of proteins
digestion of fats
neutralization of acid by buffers & mucous
721. Glycosuria is most likely to occur with:
increased GFR and increased blood glucose level
decreased GFR and increased blood glucose level
decreased GFR and decreased blood glucose level
increased GFR and decreased blood glucose level
722. Which of the following is true about pancreatic secretions?
CCK causes release of bicarbonate
secretin causes release of enzymes

secretin causes release of enzymes
gastrin stimulates release of enzymes
CCK stimulates release of enzymes while secretin stimulates release of bicarbonate
723. The major factor that Stimulates the release of Secretin into the blood stream is:
An acid PH of the chyme entering the duodenum.
The para sympathetic StimulI.
Peptones in the gastric chyme that enter the duodenum.
A stomach full of digested contents.
724. Gastric emptying is primarily controlled by...
the neuronal signals emanating from the medullary swallowing center
the volume of chyme in the stomach
conditions/factors in the duodenum
the degree of fluidity of the chyme in the stomach
725. The volume of air remaining in lungs after normal expiration called:
Inspiratory capacity
Vital capacity
Functional residual capacity
Total lung capacity
726. Which of the following is NOT a form by which CO2 can be transported in the blood?
As bicarbonate
Dissolved in the blood.
Bound to the amino end groups in proteins.
Bound to the imidazole ring of glutamate.
727. If the FIO2 is .21, the FEO2 is .16, the VT is 0.5 L, and the frequency of breathing is 12. What is the VO2? The equations are
VO2=VI * (FIO2 - FEO2) and VI = VT * f.
3.0 L/min
0.75 L/min
-0.75 L/min
0.3 L/min
728. An asthma sufferer finds she has to breathe at twice her normal rate. How does that affect her dynamic compliance?
It stays the same.
It decreases.
It increases.
Static compliance, not dynamic, is the variable affected by asthma.
729. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the airflow in the lungs?
During inspiration and expiration, the flow in the trachea and larger bronchi is turbulent.
Towards the middle of the bronchial tree, the flow is turbulent at the branches and laminar in between
Near the end of the bronchial tree, the flow is laminar.
The acini have very small radii which significantly increases the total air flow resistance of the bronchial tree.
730. To breathe in
external intercostals are contracted and the diaphragm moves superiorly
external intercostals relax and diaphragm moves inferiorly
transversus thoracis, internal intercostals and rectus abdominals are all necessary(d) the transversus thoracis and diaphragms
must meet
external intercostals relax and diaphragm dont moves
731. Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning the O2 / CO2 movement and processing through the lungs and tissues?
Binding of O2 to Hb changes its configuration so that CO2 and H+ ions are more likely to dissociate.
When CO2 diffused into the alveoli, the PaCO2 is lowered.
Carbonic acid is an intermediate in the reaction combining H+ with HCO3- to form H2O and CO2.
Arterial blood flows to the tissues where H+ ions combine with HCO3- to form H2O and CO2.
Exercise
Hypoxia
733. The volume of air present in lungs after a deep (maximal) inspiration called:
Vital capacity
Total lung capacity
734. Which of the following is NOT a function of the lungs?
Metabolism
Serves as a reservoir of blood for the left ventricle
It is a filter to protect the systemic vasculature
Facilitates the exchange of O2 and CO2 between air and blood.
735. What is name of the phase during which air enters the lungs from atmosphere?
Expiration
Inspiration
Aspiration
Respiration
736. Which of the following is FALSE concerning diffusion in the lungs?
CO is used to measure diffusing capacity because its uptake is diffusion limited.
Actual diffusion time includes time required for an O2 molecule to diffuse from the alveolus, through the membrane, the
plasma, and into a RBC.
Reaction time is the time it takes the O2 molecule to react with Hb.
The diffusion time is greater than the reaction time of an O2 molecule.
737. Which of the following does NOT happen during inspiration?
The ribs move upward
The diaphragm lifts up
The antero-posterior dimensions of the chest are increased
The tranverse dimensions of the thorax are increased
The scalene and sternocleidomastoid muscles can be recruited for inspiration
738. A 140 lb woman would have approximately how much dead space in her lungs?
140 ml.
70 ml.
70 ml.
280 ml.
35 ml.
739. Esophagus opens only during
peaking
exhaling
inhaling
swallowing
740. What is maximum volume of air that is inspired after normal expiration?
Vital capacity
Total lung capacity
741. The site of gas exchange is:
primary bronchus
trachea
alveoli
cilia
742. Parasympathetic innervation of the lungs via the vagus nerve:
dilates the bronchioles and uses ACh
constricts the bronchioles and uses ACh
constricts the bronchioles and used adrenaline
dilates the bronchioles and uses adrenaline
743. Which one of the following statement is NOT correct regarding trachea?
It usually lies posterior to the muscular esophagus
It splits into the right and left bronchi to supply air to the lungs
Opening to the trachea is covered by epiglottis
Tracheal rings are C-shaped

COPD
Shock or heart failure.
Cyanide poisoning.
Carbon monoxide poisoning.
745. Which of the following is NOT Components of tracheobronchial tree?
primary bronchi
tertiary bronchi
fetal bronchiole
terminal bronchiole
respiratory bronchioles
746. The delivery of oxygen to muscle depends on
blood flow and oxygen content
ACh
stimulation of the vagus nerve
Noradrenaline
747. Which of the following is the primary regulating variable of the central chemoreceptors?
PaO2
PaCO2
arterial pH
Input from stretch receptors
748. Calculate PAO2 for a person at sea level for R = 0.82 and PACO2 = 40 Torr.
110 Torr.
95 Torr
80 Torr
101 Torr
749. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between alveolar air and blood is governed by _______.
diffusion
blood pressure
gravity
active transport
750. Which of the following concerning average lung volumes and capacities of a person at rest is TRUE?
TLC>VC>TV>FRC
TLC>FRC>VC>TV
TLC>VC>FRC>TV
TLC>FRC>TV>VC
751. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the ventilation and perfusion of different regions of the lung?
Alveoli at the top of the lung have a smaller dynamic compliance
The Hb moving through the base of the lung is less saturated than that at the apex of the lung
PAO2 at the apex of the lung is higher than that at the base of the lung
Regional variation in ventilation-perfusion is more efficient for oxygenating blood than is uniform ventilation-perfusion
Variation of the ventilation/perfusion ratio in the lungs only becomes significant when lung function begins to degrade
752. According to the Law of Laplace, air should flow from the smaller alveoli to the larger, collapsing them. In the lungs, several
factors counter that tendency, and stabilize the alveolar structures. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
Surfactant lowers surface tension to a greater degree when it is on a smaller surface area, allowing the smaller alveoli to stay
open.
Mechanical stability is given by surrounding alveoli.
Transpulmonary pressure is lower for smaller alveoli, allowing them to stabilize in comparison to the bigger ones.
Surface tension at the gas-liquid interface increases as alveolar surface area increases.
754. During expiration the diaphragm becomes
Dome-shaped
Flattened
Normal
Normal
Oblique
755. Which of the following represents the pressure difference that acts to distend the lungs?
Alveolar pressure
Airway opening pressure
Transthoracic pressure
Transpulmonary pressure
Esophageal pressure
756. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the closing volume for the lung?
Comes between Phase 3 and Phase 4 on the single breath N2 washout curve.
Marks the point where the alveoli at the apex close.
Marks a sudden increase in nitrogen concentration in the expelled breath.
Marks when the overinflated, poorly ventilated alveoli at the apex expel their air with high N2 concentrations.
757. Which of the following spirometry measurements has the greatest sensitivity for detecting early air flow obstruction?
FVC
FEV1
FFE
FEF25-75
758. Parasympathetic innervation of the lungs via the vagus nerve:
constricts the bronchioles and used adrenaline
759. How many oxygen molecules bound to hemoglobin to give 50% saturation?
7
760. Which of the following is NOT a normal occurance with increasing age?
Vital capacity of the lung decreases
Residual volume increases
Functional residual capacity increases
Inspiratory capacity decreases
Expiratory reserve volume increases
761. Which of the following is NOT a non-respiratory function of respiratory tract?
Olfaction
Vocalization
Anticoagulant function
Immunological defense
Erythropoietic function
762. Which of the following is FALSE concerning chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers?
CSF is a poor buffer and a drop in PCO2 produces a large change in pH initiating a change in respiration.
The body can adjust to chronic hypercapnea by using an active HCO3- transport process in the choroid plexus.
The carotid and aortic bodies detect increases in PaCO2 and pH, and decreases in PaO2
75% of ventilatory response is regulated by chemoreceptors in the CSF and 25% by the carotid and aortic bodies.
Central chemoreceptors tend to respond slowly over time, while carotid bodies react quickly to immediate needs.
763. What is Normal Respiratory Rate in adults?
12 to 16/minute
30 to 60/minute
20 to 40/minute
10 to 11/minute
764. Each of the alveolar sac is surrounded by
capillaries
veins
arteries
primarily lymphatic ducts

765. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT concerning central nervous systems and a factor they respond to by affecting
respiration?
Cerebellum: Mechanoreceptor input
Limbic system: emotional states
Cerebral cortex: voluntary control
Cerebral motor cortex: exercise
766. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the relationships of the variables in diffusion of O2 across a membrane?
Doubling the thickness of the membrane would cut the total flow of O2 in half
Doubling the area of the membrane would double the total flow of O2
If you increased the alveolar concentration of O2, you would increase the total flow of O2 across the alveolar membrane
The lower the diffusion coefficient, the higher the total flow
Increasing the arterial concentration of O2 would decrease the total flow of O2
767. If the blood moved slower than normal through the alveolar capillaries, which of the following would have an increased
uptake?
Carbon dioxide.
Carbon monoxide.
Oxygen
None of the above.
768. Sympathetic innervation to the lungs:
constricts the bronchioles and uses adrenaline
769. If you increased the left atrial pressure from 5 mmHg to 15 mmHg, what effect would that have on pulmonary circulation?
It would force blood the opposite direction
It would increase the speed at which blood moves through the pulmonary circulation
No change
Blood flow would almost or completely stop

770. Which of the following is the first branching of the bronchial tree that has gas exchanging capabilities?
Respiratory bronchioles
Alveoli
Segmental bronchi
Alveolar ducts
771. If the equal pressure point during expiration is in the lobar bronchi, which of the following is TRUE?
Expiratory flow would be effort dependent.
Expiratory flow would be effort independent.
The bronchi beyond the equal pressure point would compress.
This situation would only occur during medium and low lung volumes.
772. Which of the following definitions is FALSE?
O2 content of blood is the actual amount of O2 in one deciliter of blood
O2 saturation of blood is the ratio of O2 content to its O2 capacity
The O2 uptake curve of blood is the functional relationship between O2 content and PO2
The O2 content of blood depends completely on the amount of Hb in the blood
773. During inspiration, how does alveolar pressure compare to atmospheric pressure?
Alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric
Alveolar pressure is less than atmospheric
Alveolar pressure is the same as atmospheric
Alveolar pressure is one of the few pressures where the reference pressure is not atmospheric
774. Air can enter the body and travel to the lungs ...
through the mouth and the nose
through the oesophagus and gullet
through the windpipe and the pores
through the nose and the nervous system
775. Breathing rhythm is generated by

the pontine respiratory centres
the ventral respiratory group
the dorsal respiratory group
the alveoli
776. Which of the following is in the correct path of CO2 from the tissue to the atmosphere?
Reaction with H2O to make H2CO3, dissociation to H+ and HCO3-, H+ combines with imidazole side chain of hemoglobin,
carried back to lungs as HHb+ and HCO3-, reverse reaction forms CO2.
O2 is metabolized to CO2, reaction with H2O to make H2CO3, H2CO3 combines with imidazole side chain of hemoglobin,
H2CO3Hb+ is carried back to the lungs, reverse reaction forms CO2.
Reaction with H2O to make H2CO3, dissociation to H+ and HCO3-, HCO3- combines with imidazole side chain of hemoglobin,
carried back to the lungs as HCO3-Hb+ and H+, reverse reaction forms CO2.
O2 is metabolized to CO2, reaction with H2O to make H2CO3, dissociation to H+ and HCO3-, carried back to lungs in this form,
reverse reaction forms CO2.
777. Which of the following statements about Hb is FALSE?
A higher P50 than normal means that the O2 binds less tightly to Hb.
An increase in 2,3-DPG shifts the O2 uptake curve to the left.
An increase in PCO2 causes a right shift of the O2 uptake curve.
An decrease in pH increases P50.
An increase in temperature shifts the O2 uptake curve to the right.
778. How do you calculate how much inspired air actually ventilates the alveoli during one minute?
Subtract the volume of dead space from the tidal volume.
Subtract both the dead space volume that was already in the lungs plus the dead space of the inspired air that won't reach the
alveoli from the tidal volume.
Subtract the volume of dead space from the tidal volume and multiply it by the number of breaths per minute.
It is equal to the tidal volume times the frequency of breathing.
779. Which of the following is NOT true concerning respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants?
Their ability to synthesize DPPC is limited.
Higher pressures are required to ventilate the lungs.
Lung compliance is low.
Positive pressure respirators are often used to assist them in breathing.
Alveoli tend to overexpand and sometimes burst at the end of inspiration.

780. If the lung were punctured, which of the following would happen?
The lung would collapse on the side of the puncture.
Both the lung and the chest wall would collapse on the side of the puncture.
The relaxation pressure of the chest wall would increase until it surpassed the atmospheric.
The relaxation pressure of the chest wall would increase, but stop before it reached atmospheric pressure.
781. In which situation would the response to hypoxia be limited?
In a patient with obstructed airways.
When hypoxia is accompanied by hypercapnea.
In the hypoxia induced by high altitude.
During hypoventilation.
782. Acidosis will...
make you breathe more
make you breath less
make your breathing uneven
make your kidneys produce more adrenaline
783. Which of the following is NOT an effector of respiration?
heart
diaphragm
intercostals
trapezius
784. What part of the lung has an area of zero blood flow?
Apical Portion
Midportion
Lower Portion
Inner Portion
785. Which of the following is TRUE if a patient breathes slower than normal with increased tidal volumes?
More resistive work is done.
The total work done decreases.

More elastic work is done.
Compliance is decreased.
786. What is NOT Respiratory Protective Reflex?
Cough reflex
Sneezing reflex
Brachioradialis reflex
Swallowing reflex
787. If a patient had a progressive lung disease that required an ever increasing pressure to fill the same volume of lung, how
would the lung's compliance be affected?
It would increase it.
It would stay the same.
It would decrease it.
These variables do not affect lung compliance.
788. Which of the following is FALSE concerning airway resistance?
Up to 50% is in the nose.
The maximum resistance in the bronchial tree occurs at the fourth generation.
In the later generations, the radii are smaller, increasing the total resistance at each successive generation.
Airway resistance can be increased by loss of tissue elasticity and contraction of bronchial smooth muscles.
789. Which of the following pairs is NOT a pulmonary mechanoreceptor paired to a possible stimulus?
Stretch receptor: inflation
Irritant receptor: inhaled dust
Juxtacapillary receptors: decreases interstitial fluid volume in alveolar walls.
Bronchial C receptors: large inflations.
790. Which of the following in FALSE concerning CO2 uptake?
If PO2 = PCO2, then there will be more total CO2 in the blood.
Oxygenation moves the CO2 uptake curve downward.
The CO2 uptake curve is generated by comparing the total CO2 per unit volume of blood, and the PCO2.
Deoxygenated blood carries less CO2 than oxygenated.

791. To which of the following is alveolar PCO2 directly proportional?
Rate of CO2 production and alveolar ventilation.
Rate of CO2 production and rate of O2 consumption.
Alveolar ventilation and rate of O2 consumption.
Alveolar ventilation, rate of O2 consumption, and rate of CO2 production.
792. Dissociation curve shifts to the right when
CO2 concentration decreases
CO2 concentration increases
O2 concentration decrease
CL− concentration increase
793. The maximum volume of air that can be expelled out forcefully after a deep (maximal) inspiration called:
Vital capacity
Total lung capacity
794. In what situation would the gas exchange ratio be decreased compared to the respiratory quotient?
During slowed breathing.
Holding your breath.
During hyperventilation.
Impossible. The two are always equivalent.
795. Which of the following does NOT apply to the alveoli at the base of the lungs?
They are less elastic than the alveoli at the apex.
The pleural pressure is lower.
At FRC they are less inflated than the alveoli at the apex.
They are closed at RV.
They have a greater volume change than alveoli at the apex during inspiration from FRC.
796. Which of the following could NOT be part of an acinus?

alveolar sacs
alveolar ducts
terminal bronchioles
respiratory bronchiole
797. Which of the following is NOT true at FRC?
It is about 75% TLC.
The elastic recoil of the chest wall is outward.
The elastic recoil of the lung is inward.
The relaxation pressure of the lung and chest wall combined is at atmospheric pressure.
798. Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning the efficiency of breathing and the oxygen consumption of the respiratory
muscles?
Efficiency is defined as the ratio of mechanical work done to move air to the amount of metabolic energy used by the
respiratory muscles.
The respiratory system uses less than 3% of the body's total oxygen consumption at rest
Respiratory muscles are more efficient than large muscle groups.
Emphysema increases the oxygen requirement for respiratory muscles.
Hyperventilation can increase the oxygen consumption of respiratory muscles to 30%.
799. Which of the following is NOT a function of dead space?
Warms expired air to body temperature.
Saturates inspired air with water vapor.
Removes bacteria and other particulate matter.
Conducts the warmed air to the respiratory membranes.
800. If a patient's blood carries 10 grams of Hb per deciliter, what is the O2 carrying capacity of his blood?
18 milliliters per deciliter.
13 millliliters per deciliter.
801. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the production and role of lung surfactant?
It is part of a lipoprotein called dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl-choline.
It is synthesized by alveolar type II cells.

y y yp
As the alveolar surface area decreases during the compression curve, the surfactant decreases the surface tension at a
constant rate.
When surfactant density is decreased during expansion, surface tension initially rises rapidly, then slows down until it reaches
the starting point.
802. Which of the following controls the normal breathing process?
Amino acids
Cholesterol
Ventral respiratory group
Dorsal respiratory group
803. All of the following are static lung volumes, except:
Tidal volume
Inspiratory reserve volume
Expiratory reserve volume
Residual volume.
Dynamic Volume
804. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the effect of effort on airflow and volume during inspiration and expiration?
During inspiration, greater effort always results in greater flow.
Peak expiratory flow occurs at the beginning of expiration.
At low and moderate lung volumes, the greater the effort above threshold, the greater the airflow in expiration.
Portions of the expiration curve are effort independent.
805. Which of the following increases renal cortical blood flow?
Prostaglandin E2
Norepinephrine
Angiotensin II
Vasopressin
806. The pressure in the ventricles reaches a maximum value during:
isometric contraction;
rapid ejection;
reduced ejection;
protodiastoles.
807. Which of the following zones in the adrenal cortex does not normally express 17 alpha hydroxylase?
Zona glomerulosa
Zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis
none of the above
808. Aldosterone antagonist diuretics work primarily on the:
cortical collecting duct
distal convoluted tubule
medullary collecting duct
proximal convoluted tubule
809. The systemic circulation begins in:
pulmonary trunk
the aorta
vena cava
pulmonary veins.
810. Hereditary spherocytosis occurs due to mutations in genes coding for:
Spectrin and ankyrin
Na-K ATPase
Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
Pyruvate kinase
811. The heart continues to beat even after all nerves to it are sectioned. This property is called:
Excitability
Conductivity
Automaticity
Contractility
812. What is NOT a function of blood
filtration
protection
regulation
transportation
813. Indicate which of the listed humoral factors has a positive effect on the myocardium:
acetylcholine;
bradykinin;
metabolites;
adrenaline.
814. When action potentials are generated in series faster than the relaxation period of a muscle, _______ results.
eccentric contraction
latency
summation
twitch
815. Which tissues do not require insulin for glucose uptake? (check all correct answers)
Red blood cells
Most parts of the CNS
Adipose tissue
a and b answers are correct
816. Which of the following statements regarding temperature receptors is FALSE?
There are more cold receptors in the skin than warm receptors.
Temperature sensory organs are naked sensory nerve endings responding to temperature changes
Temperatures sensory organs senses subcutaneous temperature, not skin surface temperature
Cold receptors respond to temperature range IO-38°C & warm receptors respond to temperature range 30-4SoC
817. When is salivary amylase most active?
Churning in Stomach
Lumen in Duodenum
Mastication in Mouth
Storage in Stomach
818. The highest degree of automatism in:
sinoatrial node;
atrioventricular node;
the bundle of his.
819. ESR is increased in:
Anemia
Hypofibrinogenemia
Spherocytosis
Polycythemia
820. Short-term memory information processing usually causes changes in the
brainstem.
medulla.
hypothalamus.
hippocampus.
821. In the capillaries the nature of blood flow:
laminar;
turbulent;
chained;
intermittent.
822. A Na⁺K⁺ Pump will transport ____ Na⁺molecules____ the cell & ___ K⁺___ the cell.
2, into, 3, out of
2, out of, 3, into
3, into, 2, out of
3, out of, 2, into
823. The “All or None” law in the heart shows:
the dependence of the force of contraction on the force of irritation;
independence of the force of contraction from the force of irritation;
independence of the strength of contractions from the frequency of irritations;

the relationship between the force of contraction and the length of the muscle fibers.
824. The amount of hemoglobin contained in normocytes is approximately:
20 pg
25 pg
30 pg
35 pg
825. The extrinsic pathway is inhibited by:
Tissue factor
Thromboplastin
Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)
Contact factor
826. The term ‘neurohormone’ is applied to:
Oxytocin and vasopressin
NO and CO
Glycine and glutamate
FSH and LH
827. Which of the following is matched incorrectly?
Microfilaments: actin, myosin
Intermediate filaments: vimentin, keratin
Microtubules: clathrin
Cytoskeleton: spectrin, ankyrin
828. The blood-testis barrier is formed by tight junctions between:
Leydig cells
Sertoli cells
Spermatids
Primary spermatogonia
829. Plasma potassium concentration is chiefly regulated by:
aldosterone
aldosterone
vasopressin (ADH)
renin
ANP
830. Which of the following hormones has intrinsic lactogenic activity?
TSH
MSH
GH
Dopamine
831. The process of transition of water and substances dissolved in it from the tubules of the nephron into the blood is called:
synthesis;
secretion;
reabsorption;
filtering.
832. Blood pressure in the bloodstream is the least in:
arterioles;
venules;
capillaries;
large vein.
833. Cortical representation of somatic sensation lies in:
Central fissure
Pre-central gyrus
Post-central gyrus
Posterior parietal cortex
834. Heart decompensation is a violation of:
excitability;
automatism;
conductivity;
contractility.
835. The ‘gold standard’ for estimation of glomerular filtration rate is the clearance of
inulin
creatinine
urea
mannitol
glucose
836. A phonocardiogram is:
record of body vibrations during the work of the heart;
recording the total bio currents of the heart in the plane of the lead;
recording the total bio currents of the heart on the lead line;
recording sound manifestations of the heart.
837. The major humoral mediator of gall bladder contraction in response fo a fat meal is:
CCK
gastrin
secretin
somatostatin
838. The term “capacitance vessels” is applied to:
pulmonary capillaries
thoroughfare channels
shunts
veins and venules
839. The functions of the pleural cavity does not apply:
reduction of friction during movements of the lungs;
participation in the biomechanics of respiration;
protective, restrictive;
excretion of volatile substances.
840. Enterocytes are replenished by miotically active undifferentiated cells located in:
Brunner’s glands
u e s g a ds
Crypts of Lieberkuhn
Peyer’s patches
gut associated lymphoid tissue
841. Which of the following substances can be used as a marker for the ECF compartment?
Nonmetabolizable sugars
Glucose
Radio-iodinated albumin
D2O
842. Insulin dependent glucose uptake into skeletal muscle and adipose tissue is mainly mediated by:
GLUT 1
GLUT 2
GLUT 3
GLUT 4
843. The most abundant protein in blood is:
Albumin
Hemoglobin
Fibrinogen
Beta-1 globulin
844. Inhibition of which of the following enzymes has the greatest effect on digaestion?
Chymotrypsin
Enterokinase
Pancreatic amylase
Ptyalin
845. Which one of the following is not a vasodilator metabolite?
Adenosine
Potassium ions
Endothelin-1
Hydrogen ions
ADP
846. Normally, instillation of acid into the duodenum to reduce pH in its lumen to 4:
stimulates gastrin release
increases output of an enzyme rich pancreatic juice
increases activity of Brunner’s glands
relaxes the pyrolic sphincter
847. Water handling by kidney (% reabsorption)
93%
94%
99%
99.4%
99.9%
848. Which is not present in high concentrations at the active zone of synapses?
Calcium channels
Catecholamine vesicles
Neuropeptide vesicles
Synaptobrevin
849. Osmotic blood pressure is power:
The interaction of shaped elements with each other;
Thee interaction of blood cells with the wall of blood vessels;
Ensuring the movement of water molecules through a semipermeable membrane;
Providing the movement of blood.
850. The principal regulator of plasma osmolality is:
plasma [Na]
antidiuretic hormone
aldosterone
angiotensin II
851. Which of the following hormones does not act through G-protein coupled receptors?
Dopamine
Epinephrine
Angiotensin II
Retinoic acid
852. Insulin secretion from beta cells of pancreas in response to a glucose load is mediated by:
GLUT 1
GLUT 2
GLUT 3
GLUT 4
853. Which of the following type of motor activity in the small intestine is stimulated by local irritation of the intestinal mucosa?
Haustration
Peristaltic rush
Secondary peristalsis
Segmentation movement
854. Glomerulotubular balance
Involves afferent arteriole feedback loop - No
Involves efferent arteriole feedback loop - No
Juxtaglomerular complex - No
Ability to increase tubular absorption in response to an increase in filtered load
855. Which of the following characterizes carbohydrate digestion?
It begins when food comes in contact with gastric juice
It begins when the food comes in contact with saliva
It begins with when food comes in contact with pancreatic secretions
It ends when starch has been converted to maltose
856. Which of the following is an example of passive transport?
Calcium efflux by calcium pump

Na-Ca exchanger
Potassium efflux through potassium leak channels
Calcium sequestration in sarcoplasmic reticulum
857. The major humoral mediator of meal-stimulated enzyme secretion is:
secretin
CCK
GIP
gastrin
858. A sarcomere is the area between:
A bands
H bands
I bands
Z disks
859. Complex receptors have:
A single nerve ending
free nerve endings
many nerve endings
nerve endings in connective tissue
860. The microcirculation system includes:
arterioles, capillaries, venules, arteriolo-venular fistulaes;
aorta, arteries, arterioles;
anastomoses, venules and veins;
arteries and veins.
861. Respiratory arrest occurs when:
damage to the medulla oblongata;
transection of the brain stem in the region of the diencephalon;
transection of the brain stem above the pons;
transection of the brain stem below the pons.

862. The permeability of glomerular capillaries:
Equals that of other capillaries
Is much less than that of other capillaries
Is equal for cationic and anionic molecules of equal size
Approaches 100% for neutral molecules of 8mm diameter
Is about 50 times as great as that of a skeletal muscle capillary
863. Intrinsic heart rate can be determined by:
vagotomy
administration of atropine
beta adrenergic receptor blockade
IV administration of atropine and atenolol
864. The action of salivary amylase is continued when it enters the stomach
FALSE
Lingual lipase
Proline rich proteins
TRUE
865. In the nephron, glucose reabsorption occurs mainly in the:
proximal tubule
loop of Henle
distal convoluted tubule
collecting duct
866. What fraction of total blood volume is present in the capillaries at any given time?
5%
20%
15%
1%
867. In clinically significiant diarrhea, typically, the most abundant anion in stool is:
acetate
bicarbonate
butyrate
chloride
868. The process of transition of water and the capillaries dissolved in it from the blood into the Bowman-Shumlyansky nephron
capsule is called:
synthesis;
secretion;
reabsorption;
filtering.
869. Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons innervating the gastrointestinal smooth muscle are located in:
myentric plexus
submucosal plexus
paravertebral ganglia
prevertebral ganglia
870. Most of the circulating T4 is bound to:
Prealbumin
Albumin
Thyroxine-binding globulin
871. Disturbances of excitability in the heart manifest themselves:
blockade;
extrasystole;
decompensation;
tachycardia.
872. How many subunits do G proteins have?
One
Two
Three
Four
873. The long phase of absolute refractoriness ensures:
rhythmic contractions of the heart;
consecutive atrial and ventricular contractions;
impossibility of tetanic contractions;
synchronous contraction of myocardial fibers.
874. Name the ventricular function:
the expulsion of blood in the blood circulation;
suction of blood to the ventricles;
hydrodynamic shock for the atria;
unilateral movement of blood through the heart.
875. The amount of blood pressure depends on:
strength of heart rate;
peripheral resistance;
blood viscosity;
all of the above.
876. Growth hormone stimulates the secretion of:
Somatostatin
Lactotroph
Corticotroph
Thyrotroph
877. If dead space is one third of the tidal volume and arterial pCO2 is 45 mmHg, what is the mixed expired pCO2?
20 mmHg
25 mmHg
30 mmHg
45 mmHg
60 mmHg
878. What fraction of total body potassium is present in plasma?

0.4%
8.2%
12%
88%
879. Which of the following is shown by arrow in figure below?
SA node
AV node
Bundle of His
Purkinje fibers
880. Glucocorticoids decrease the number of circulating:
Eosinophils
RBC
Platelets
none of the above
881. An insufficient supply of oxygen to tissues is called:
hypoxia;
hypoxemia
hyperbaria;
caisson disease.
882. Quantitively, the most important enzyme in digestion of fat is:
lingual lipase
gastric lipase
pancreatic lipase
lipoprotein lipase
883. Factors affecting the metabolism in the capillaries include everything, except:
hydrostatic pressure;
oncotic pressure;
vascular permeability;
atmospheric pressure.
at osp e c p essu e.
884. A diabetic woman who is pregnant and who has been taking recombinant insulin during the pregnancy delivered a baby
weighing 5 kg. This is most closely related to:
Passage of maternal insulin into the fetus
Elevated levels of fetal insulin
Uteroplacental insufficiency
Hyperglycemia in the mother
885. Gas exchange occurs in:
large bronchi;
the alveoli;
medium bronchi;
trachea.
886. Which of the following is the most sensitive test of pancreatic B-cell insulin secretory reserve?
Oral glucose tolerance test
Fasting plasma glucose
Urine glucose excretion
Random blood glucose
887. The method of registration of arterial pulses is called:
manometry;
phlebography;
sphygmography;
spirography.
888. The role of the pericardium:
softens friction;
forms valves;
generates pulses;
provides a reduction of chambers in the heart.
889. Juxtamedullary nephrons constitute about ______ % of the total nephrons.
10
15
25
40
890. In the management of a child with diabetic ketoacidosis and a plasma pH of 6.9, insulin infusion is typically continued even
after plasma glucose is reduced to 250 mg/dL, and glucose is coadministered with insulin. This is done in order
allow:
Muscle glycogen to be replenished
Plasma potassium to be normalized
Plasma osmolality to be reduced rapidly
Complete oxidation of ketone bodies
891. An action potential can be generated when...
The value of the potential is above threshold
The value of the potential is below threshold
The value of the potential is equal to zero
All of the value
892. With acute acclimitisation to altitude:
Hypoventilation
Decreased cardiac output
Pulmonary oedema
Polycythaemia
Increase in 2,3 DPG
893. Which of the following hormone is normally released by the stomach into the systemic circulation?
Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
Gastrin
Pepsinogen
Secretin
894. Normally, most of the water in the GI lumen is absorbed from:
stomach
duodenum
jejunum
colon
895. Which of the following cells undergo meiotic division?
Primordial germ cells
Primary spermatocytes
Secondary spermatocytes
Spermatids
896. Which of the followings is an excitotoxin?
glutamate
glycine
acetylcholine
substance p
897. Normally, the rate-limited step in the metabolism of bilirubin is:
uptake by ligandin
conjugation with glucuronic acid
secretion into the bile
none of the above is correct
898. Respiratory control chemoreceptors are sensitive to:
hypocapnia, alkalosis;
hypercapnia, acidosis, hypoxemia;
hyperoxia, alkalosis;
somatostatin, ADH.
899. What percentage of osmolality of plasma in a healthy, well hydrated individual is attributable to sodium and its
accompanying anions?
30 %
50 %
70 %
90 %
900. A decrease in extracellular K+:
Cause a similar effect in nerve cells as an increase in extracellular Ca+
Causes a similar effect in nerve cells as a decrease in extracellular Na
Has little effect in nerve cell membrane potential
May decrease nerve cell action potential size
901. The substance secreted from D cells is responsible for:
HCl activation.
protection against HCl.
stomach contraction.
stomach relaxation.
902. Peripheral chemoreceptors:
In the carotid sinus
Have glomus cells
Low A-V difference
Innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve RE13
903. Deep, laboured gasping breathing seen in severe acidosis is known as:
apneustic breathing
Biot's respiration
Cheyne-stokes respiration
Kussmaul breathing
904. The second heart tone occurs during:
asynchronous reduction;
isometric contraction;
isometric relaxation;
protodiastoles.
905. The linear velocity of blood flow in the aorta is:
5 m / s;
0.5 m / s.
0,5mm / s .;
0.3 m / s.
906. Which ion is both secreted and absorbed by the nephron?
Na
Cl
Ca
907. In terms of the action potential generation within a neuron, which of the following structures is not involved in the
generation and propagation of an action potential?
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Dendrites
Axon
Cytoplasm
908. Passive exhalation occurs due to:
contraction of the external intercostal muscles and diaphragm;
relaxation of the external intercostal muscles and diaphragm;
contraction of the abdominal muscles;
contraction of the internal intercostal muscles.
909. The action potential of a neuron (influx):
Declines in amplitude as it moves along the axon
Is initiated by efflux of Na
Is not associated with any net movement of Na+ & K+ across the cell membrane
Is terminated by efflux of K
910. The duration of the cardiac cycle depends on:
blood flow to the heart;
the excitability of a typical myocardium;
heart rate;
911. In whichsensory system does excitation of receptor by an adequate stimulus result in hyperpolarization of receptor cells?
visual pathway
visual pathway
auditory pathway
taste pathway
olfactory pathway
912. Sodium-glucose cotransport in the intestine and kidney is an example of:
Primary active transport
Secondary active transport
Facilitated diffusion
Passive transport
913. Bile salts are essential for absorption of fat because they:
solubilize dietary lipids in micelles
increase surface tension
are hydrophobic
contain cholesterol
914. Hypoxic hypoxia occurs when:
reducing the oxygen capacity of the blood;
a decrease in pO2 in atmospheric air;
changes in the functions of respiratory tissue enzymes;
reducing the number of red blood cells.
915. With regard to development of gonads, which of the following is most likely with a 46XX zygote that contains a functional
SRY gene?
Female internal and external genitalia develop
Both ovaries and testes develop
Only ovaries develop
Only testes develop
916. Which of the following plasma proteins are protease inhibitors?
α1 antitrypsin, Antithrombin III
Transferrin
C-reactive protein
f
all of the above
917. The minimum time for transmission across one synapse is:
0.5 ms
1 ms
1.5 ms
2 ms
918. Which one of the following inhibits ADH secretion?
Hyperosmolality
Exercise
Angiotensin II
Ethanol
919. In the kidneys are secreted:
glucose and amino acids;
vitamins and water;
proteins and salts;
potassium ions and medicinal substances.
920. The most potent stimulus for release of secretin from the duodenum is:
a reduction in duodenal lumen pH to <4.5
peptides
fatty acids with > 8 carbons
carbohydrates
921. Atrial systole lasts:
0.1 s;
0.9 s .;
1 s;
0.2 s.
922. Regarding glucose handling in the kidney
Reuptake is passive
Tm is the same for all nephrons
D-glucose more rapidly absorbed than L-glucose
Reabsorption is inversely proportional to lipid solubility
923. The active blood reaction (pH) is normally equal to:
8.0;
7.34;
1.02;
5.0.
924. The hormone of energy storage (hormone of plenty) is:
Growth hormone
Thyroxine
Insulin
Glucagon
925. Veins are vessels that:
carry blood from the heart;
carry blood to the heart;
carry blood from the ventricles to the arterioles;
carry blood from the capillaries to the atria.
926. Isotonic solution is a solution containing:
A certain number of red blood cells;
The amount of salts corresponding to the blood plasma;
The amount of nutrients corresponding to the blood plasma;
A certain amount of plasma proteins.
927. In a healthy adult male weighing 70 kg, the total volume of fluid present in the transcellular compartment does not
normally exceed:
1 liter
3 liters
5 liters
7 liters
928. Which subunit of G proteins has intrinsic GTPase activity?
Alpha
Beta
Gamma
Delta
929. Calcitonin inhibits the activity of:
Osteoblasts
Osteoclasts
Parafollicular cells
Thyroid
930. Midbrain responses include the following EXCEPT:
Vestibulo-ocular reflex (righting reflex)
Pupillary reaction
Mass reflex
Vestibular placing reaction
931. The submandibular gland secretes
Lingual lipase
Lysoszyme
Salivary aylase
932. In the tubules of the nephrons are completely reabsorbed:
amino acids and glucose;
urea and creatinine;
high molecular substances.
933. Regarding monosynaptic reflexes:
Intrafusal fibres are at right angles to extrafusal fibres
Spindles themselves have no motor supply
The 2 types of sensory endings in spindles are Ib & II

The neurotransmitter at the central synapse is glutamate
934. What is the maximum of volume that can be inspired at rest after a normal inspiration?
expiratory reserve volume
inspiratory reserve volume
residual volume
935. Blood functions do not include:
Trophic;
Protective;
Hormone synthesis;
Respiratory.
936. Which ONE of the following is not involved in the regulation of glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
Arterial pressure
Na content in distal tubule
Afferent arteriolar tone
937. Select all correct answers. Uptake of potassium into cells is enhanced by which of the following hormones / mechanisms?
Thyroid hormones
Insulin
Beta-adrenergic receptor activation
all of the above
938. A blood pH of 7.25 would indicate:
acidosis
alkalosis
normal pH
939. Specify a substance of renal origin, which increases blood pressure:
ammonia;
ammonia;
urokinase;
renin;
urea.
940. In the loops of Henle nephrons, the concentration and dilution of urine is achieved by:
reabsorption of sodium in the descending knee and water in the ascending knee;
reabsorption of glucose and amino acids;
reabsorption of water in the descending and sodium in the ascending part of the loop;
the secretion of water and urea in both parts of the loop.
941. Regarding synapses:
IPSP can be produced by closing K channels
Large vesicles contain ACh
Na+ influx triggers fusion/exocytosis of vesicles
Neurotransmitters migrate down the axon by fast axoplasmic transport
942. Two liters of 0.9% NaCl is administered to a 12-year old boy with moderate isotonic dehydration. What is the expected
change in ICF volume after NaCl administration?
No change
Increase by 0.5 liter
Increase by 2 liters
Decrease by 0.5 liter
943. Which of the following is incorrect with regard to emotion?
Cingulate cortex is associated with volitional behaviour and decision making
Hypothalamus is associated with primitive, short-lived emotion that is terminated by medial hypothalamic nuclei
Nucleus accumbens is associated with reward and repeated behaviour in increased dopamine release
Septum dampens socialising tendencies and emotions
944. Which is the ‘concentrating segment’ of the nephron?
Thin ascending limb of loop of Henle
Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle

Collecting ducts
945. Which of the following is / are active transport processes? (Select all correct answers).
Extrusion of calcium into ECF; Transcytosis (vesicular transport)
Efflux of K during repolarization
Entry of chloride into neurons
all of the above
946. Which of the following substances should not be used to measure GFR?
Inulin
Creatinine
Phenol red
947. Osmotic fragility of red blood cells is decreasedin:
Sickle cell anemia and microcytic hypochromic anemia
Hereditary spherocytosis
Macrocytic anemia
all of the above
948. Vessels are narrowed under the action of:
acetylcholine;
adrenaline;
metabolites;
bradykinin.
949. Which of the following inhibits gastric acid secretion by patietal cells in stomach?
Prostaglandin E2
Gastrin
Acetylcholine
histamine
950. The lipolytic effect of catechol amines is mediated by:
ß1 adrenergic receptors
ß1 & ß3 adrenergic receptors
951. Veins and venules are related to:
buffer or tensile vessels;
exchange vessels;
resistance vessels;
capacitive vessels.
952. Gas exchange between alveoli and blood is carried out in:
arteries of the pulmonary circulation;
veins of the pulmonary circulation;
the capillaries of the great circle of blood circulation;
the capillaries of the pulmonary circulation.
953. Testicular feminization syndrome is caused by mutations in genes coding for:
Androgen-binding proteins
Testosterone 5α reductase
Androgen receptor
Inhibin
954. Alveolar dead space is increased with:
Pleural effusion
CCF
Pneumothorax
Hypotension
None of the above
955. Which of the following mechanisms allows complete absorption of glucose from the intestinal lumen into the cytosol of the
enterocyte?
simple diffusion through GLUT-5
Na-glucose cotransporter-1
na channels in enterocyte membrane
paracellular uptake via gap junctions

956. Which part of heart conductive system is this?
SA node
AV node
Bundle of His
Purkinje fibers
957. The effect of PTH on the kidney is to:
Increase Ca excretion and increase phosphate excretion
Increase Ca excretion and decrease phosphate excretion
Decrease Ca excretion and increase phosphate excretion
Decrease Ca excretion and decrease phosphate excretion
None of the above
958. The T wave on an ECG describes:
atrial depolarization;
atrioventricular delay;
depolarization of the interventricular septum;
ventricular repolarization.
959. The pulmonary circulation ends:
pulmonary veins
the aorta
pulmonary trunk
vena cava
960. The most abundant cell type in the islets of Langerhans is:
A cells
B cells
D cells
F cells
961. Which of the following has the most powerful stimulatory effect on salivary secretion under normal conditions?
Gritty material
y
Sour taste stimulus
Sympathetic stimulation
Trigeminal stimulation
962. What percentage of HCO3 is reabsorbed in the kidney?
0.01
50
75
99.9
963. Emiocytosis requires an increase in the intracellular concentration of:
Na
Ca
Cl
964. Insulin sensitivity is not reduced in:
Glucagon-secreting tumors
Tumors of adrenal medulla
Tumors of adrenal cortex
Hypopituitarism
965. The compensatory pause is:
conduction disturbance;
decrease in heart rate;
the loss of one of the next reduction;
change in the force of contractions.
966. Which of the following statements regarding regulation of cell cycle is incorrect?
This serves to regulate transition of the cell from one phase of the cell cycle to the next.
At restriction points, cyclins always promote transition from G0 to S phase; Defects in DNA synthesis normally allow
progression from G2 to M phase.
Deficiency of p53 allows progression to M phase.
ll f th b
all of the above
967. Normal breath begins with a reduction:
internal intercostal muscles and muscles of the shoulder girdle;
muscles of the chest and back;
external intercostal muscles and diaphragm;
neck muscles and internal intercostal muscles.
968. Which of the following CNS locations would not contain myelinated axons?
Reticular formation
Internal Capsule
Corpus callosum
Arcuate fasciculus
969. The amount of mineral substances in the blood plasma is:
8 - 10%;
6 - 8%;
0.8 - 1%;
0.1 - 0.3%.
970. Which of the following clotting factors is not vitamin K dependent?
Factor II
Factor V
Factor VII
Factor IX
971. What is the outermost layer of the general GIT lining?
Circular Smooth Muscle
Longitudinal Smooth Muscle
Muscularis Mucosa
Submucosa
972. In humans, the most abundant adrenocortical hormone is:
Cortisol
Corticosterone
Deoxy corticosterone
DHEA sulfate
973. Which of the following statements about cholinergic transmission is false?
ACh is re-taken up into the presynaptic knob unchanged
Action is halted by hydrolysis of Ach
Atropine blocks nicotinic receptors
Muscarinic receptors are mainly found in the peripheral nervous system
974. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from filtrate in the:
collecting duct
loop of Henle
proximal tubule
distal tubule
975. Which of the following neurotransmitters has both excitatory and inhibitory effects?
glycine
GABA
aspartate
glutamate
976. Capacitive vessels perform the following function:
regulate blood flow in the capillaries
cause blood pressure
smooth the pulsation of blood flow
deposit blood.
977. Which is not a vasoconstrictor?
Angiotensin II
Endothelin
Nitric Oxide
None of them
978. Growth hormone secretion is increased by all of the following except:
Pharmacologic doses of hydrocortisone
Hypoglycemia
Exercise
Protein meal
979. The release of androgens from the adrenal cortex is stimulated mainly by:
LH
FSH
ACTH
GnRH
980. Clinically, in an unselected population of individuals, the most sensitive test to detect a disorder of thyroid gland function is
measurement of:
TSH
Free T3
Free T4
Total T4
981. Choose the correct statement about Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF):
Volume is 50 ml
Produced by choroidal blood vessels and ependymal cells
Production 150 ml a day
None of the above is correct
982. The two drugs that are commonly used to induce diabetes in rats are:
Streptozotocin
Alloxan
a and b
Capsaicin
983. The stomach wall is made up of 2 mucous cells [surface + neck], parietal cells, chief cells, and G cells. B] Which one drives
stomach action via secretion and motility?
Chief
G
Mucous
Parietal
984. Kidney reabsorption is:
the process of transition of water and substances dissolved in it from the blood into the Bowman-Shumlyansky capsule;
the process of transition of water and substances dissolved in it from the blood into the renal tubules;
the process of transition of water and substances dissolved in it from the blood into the loop;
the process of transition of water and substances dissolved in it from the tubules into the blood.
985. Which of the following is not a characteristic of REM sleep?
slow waves
hypotonia
dreaming
PGO spikes
986. The maximum pressure rise in the ventricle occurs during:
ejection
isovolumetric contraction
protodiastole
diastole
987. Which is the most important cholagogue?
secretin
CCK
gastrin
GIP
988. K+ exits neuron via voltage gated K+ channels during:
depolarization
repolarisation
rest
none of the above

989. Plasma proteins do not include:
Albumin;
Gobulins;
Fibrinogen;
Hemoglobin.
990. At any time, the greatest fraction of blood volume is present in the:
heart
arteries
veins
capillaries
991. The main cardiovascular (vital) center is located at:
the spinal cord;
the midbrain;
the medulla;
cerebral cortex.
992. In the anterior lobe of the human pituitary, prepro-opiomelanocortin is processed mainly to:
Alpha-MSH
ACTH
Beta-endorphin
Beta-MSH
993. Indicate myocardial function:
softens friction when the heart is working;
protects shaped elements from destruction;
forms flap valves;
provides the pumping function of the heart.
994. Most excitatory neurotransmission in the brain is believed to be mediated by:
glutamate
glycine
GABA
GnRH
995. Internal resistance in the bloodstream depends on:
blood viscosity;
oncotic blood pressure;
blood pH;
electrolyte content.
996. The juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney secretes into the blood:
aldosterone;
sodium uretic factor;
angiotensin;
renin.
997. Vasoconstriction, not true...
Afferently decreases filtration pressure
Efferently always increases blood pressure of glomerulus
Moderate constriction efferently increases blood flow
None of them
998. In which of the following food substances is chewing essential for digestion?
Cheese
Eggs
Fruits and vegetables
Meat
999. A first-order pacemaker is:
bundle of His;
Purkinje fibers;
sinoatrial node;
atrioventricular node.
1000. Which of the following is not secreted by parietal cells?

Gastroferritin
HCl
Intrinsic factor
Pepsinogen
1001. Complete fusion of labioscrotal swellings does not occur despite exposure to high concentrations of androgens beyond
which point in intrauterine life?
3 weeks
6 weeks
9 weeks
12 weeks
1002. What is a resting membrane potential (RMP)?
A combination of two equilibrium potentials guided by the permeability of those two ions
Energy, expressed in millivolts, of a concentration gradient of an ion
Voltage difference across the cell membrane when the cell is at rest
Something that influences the generation of an action potential
Cool down air
1004. Which of the following strategies would most likely be therapeutic in an individual with achalasia?
injection of tetanus toxin into the lower esophageal sphincter
surgical division of the lower esophageal sphincter
administration of a muscarinic receptor agonist
administration of a nitric oxide synthase inhibitor
1005. What fraction of filtered water is reabsorbed in the loop of Henle?
15%
25%
35%
5%
1006. The types of contraction that normally occur only in colon is:
peristaltis
antiperistaltis
segmentation
all of the above
1007. Which of the following retinal neurons generate "all or none" action potentials?
Ganglion cell
Bipolar cell
Horizontal cell
Amacrine cell
1008. Pain reflex is accompanied by:
weakening of the heart;
a decrease in heart rate;
strengthening the work of the heart;
the absence of changes in the activity of the heart.
1009. Which of the following normally stimulates the release of digestive enzymes from the ancinar cells of the pancreas?
Cholecystokinin
Gastrin
Histamine
Secretin
1010. Select all correct answers. Somatostatin inhibits the secretion of:
Insulin
Glucagon
Growth hormone
all of the above
1011. Arterial pulse is:
fluctuations in blood pressure;

oscillations of artery walls associated with the work of the heart;
periodic fluctuations in blood flow velocity in the arteries;
automatic monounitary cells in arteries.
1012. Hypoglycemia does not stimulate the secretion of:
Epinephrine
Cortisol
Growth hormone
Insulin
1013. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Visceral pain tends to be poorly localized & is often referred to distal sites.
. Visceral pain can initiate reflex contraction of nearby skeletal muscle
Ischemic muscle tends to be persistently painful until reperfusion occurs, due to accumulation of metabolic products such as
potassium.
All of the above.
1014. Name the factor that does not affect the glomerular filtration rate:
the number of active nephrons;
the composition of blood cells;
the filtration surface of the glomerular capillaries;
blood volume passing through the kidneys per unit of time.
1015. Which layer lies immediately deep to the muscular mucosa?
Circular Smooth Muscle
Lamina Propria
Longitudinal Smooth Muscle
Submucosa
1016. Increased GFR caused by
Increased cardiac output
Afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction
Efferent arteriolar vasodilatation

1017. The surface of the airways is lined with:
ciliated epithelium;
endothelium;
alveolocytes;
stratified keratinized epithelium.
1018. Membrane potential:
Is mainly caused by leaking Na+/K+ channels
Is negative inside in relation to the outside
Is not contributed to by the Na/K pump
Is only found in nervous tissue
1019. Atrioventricular valves close in case:
pressure in the left ventricle is greater than in the right;
pressure in the atria is greater than the pressure in the ventricles;
pressure in the ventricles is greater than the pressure in the atria;
pressure in the atria and ventricles is the same.
1020. The main factors affecting the filtration rate in nephrons are:
hydrostatic pressure, oncotic pressure of blood, intrarenal pressure;
osmotic pressure, blood pH;
only intrarenal pressure and oncotic blood pressure;
partial pressure of gases.
1021. The reticular activating system:
Has depressed conduction during anaesthesia
Has no input from the cranial nerves
Is a simple collection of parallel nerve fibres
Is electrically isolated from the cerebral cortex
1022. Which of the following statements regarding lesions in the motor control pathway is incorrect?
Babinski sign is a localising sign to anterior corticospinal tract lesion

In a right-handed subject, left motor cortical lesion leads to both left & right-hand motor dysfunction
In a right-handed subject, right motor cortical lesion leads to left hand motor dysfunction
In small focal ischaemic lesions in the motor cortex, adjacent undamaged areas may learn to take over the responsibility of
the damaged areas, thus restoring motor function
1023. The first heart sound:
diastolic;
is not heard by a stethoscope;
deaf, long, low;
short, high, clear.
1024. In the mountains, the magnitude of the atmospheric pressure and the gas composition of the air change as follows:
atmospheric pressure and% gas content in the atmosphere decrease;
atmospheric pressure increases and% composition of gases does not change;
atmospheric pressure decreases and the% composition of gases does not change;
atmospheric pressure and% composition of gases increase.
1025. The size of the action potential is decreased by:
Decreasing intracellular Ca
Decreasing the external Na
Decreasing the internal K
Increasing external Na
1026. The stretch reflex:
Involves extrafusal fibres stimulating annulospiral & flowerspray sensory fibres
Is classically initiated by tapping on the quadriceps muscle
Involves impulses being conducted from the muscle spindle to the motor cortex
Is initiated by stretch of the muscle
1027. What happens during depolarization?
Membrane potential (Em) goes to equilibrium potential for potassium ions (Ek)
Membrane potential (Em) goes to equilibrium potential for sodium ions (ENa)
Potassium permeability increases
Sodium permeability increases

1028. Absorption is complete when a substance moves into the GI epithelial cells
Epithelial cells are polarized
FALSE
Hemidesmosomes (focal adhesions) attach intermediate filaments in the cell to the extacellular matrix
TRUE
1029. A substance injected intravenously was found to be distributed through 35% of total body water. Which of the following is
most likely?
It did not pass through blood capillaries.
It entered neurons and cerebral ventricles.
It did not enter cells.
It was excluded from ‘third spaces’.
1030. The major trophic hormone for Sertoli cells and the major stimulator of aromatase activity of Sertoli cells is:
Inhibin
LH
FSH
Melatonin
1031. What is the primary ionic basis of the prepotential in the SA node?
Ca influx through transient T Ca channels
Inwardly directed long-lasting Ca current
Outward Na current
Potassium efflux through leak channels
1032. Surfactant:
Causes hysteresis (Or: Is the ONLY cause of hysteresis) – No, any elastic substance shows hysteresis
Is produced by type 1 pneumocytes
Is commonly deficient in term neonates
Production is slow
Increases pulmonary compliance
1033. O2 and CO2 are transported by:
red blood cells;

leukocytes;
platelets;
plasma proteins.
1034. Which compartment does the term “sucrose space” refer to?
Extracellular fluid (ECF)
Interstitial fluid (ISF)
Intracellular fluid (ICF)
Plasma
1035. Which of the following conditions increases the risk of fasting hypoglycemia?
Adrenocortical insufficiency
Hyperglucagonemia
Severe hypothyroidism
Acromegaly
1036. Digestion of which of the following occurs almost entirely in the small intestine?
Fat
Protein
Starch
1037. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of gastrointestinal hormones is incorrect?
secretin inhibits gastric emptying
gastrin stimulates histamine release in the stomach
somatostatin reduces blood flow to the GIT
GIP inhibits the release of insulin from pancreas
1038. Which of the following is shown by arrow in figure below?
SA node
AV node
Bundle of His
Purkinje fibers
1039. The three glycoprotein hormones each containing 2 subunits (an alpha and a beta subunit) produced by the pituitary are:
FSH, LH and TRH
TRH, ACTH and LH
TSH, LH and FSH
GH, TSH and LH
1040. Which of the following ions is not transported across the cell membrane by a primary active transport mechanism?
Na
Cl
Ca
1041. Intrinsic factor is essential for absorption of what substance in the terminal ileum?
Bile Salts
Ca²⁺
Vitamin B12
Vitamin C
1042. Which of the following statements regarding pain sensation transmission is FALSE?
Fast or I st pain is transmitted by A8 fiber.
Pain perception alone do not require a functional cerebral cortex.
Pain impulses are modified at the dorsal horn by interneurons & collateral touch fibers.
Principal neurotransmitter of pain is histamine
1043. The fetal zone of the adrenal cortex in the predominantly secretes:
Progesterone
Androstenedione
DHEA
DHEA sulfate
1044. Factors (not) affecting renal blood flow/GFR:
Sympathetic nervous system
Sodium flow past macula densa

Afferent arteriolar vasodilatation
Arterial pressure
Efferent arteriolar vasoconstriction
1045. Which pattern of motility hastens the transit of chime in the small intestine in the digestive state?
mass action contraction
migrating motor complex
peristaltis
segmentation contraction
1046. Alkalosis is:
Shift the blood reaction in the acidic side;
Shift of blood reaction to the alkaline side;
Change in osmotic pressure;
Change of oncotic pressure.
1047. Urinary output is:
The amount of fluid entering bowman's capsule in ml/min
The amount of urine entering the bladder in ml/min
The amount of urine voided over a 24 hour period
The concentration of a solute in the urine per unit time
1048. The composition of the primary urine does not include:
urea;
red blood cells;
vitamins;
amino acids.
1049. Anatomical dead space in adults is:
7 - 8 ml;
18 to 20 ml;
30 - 40 ml;
140 to 150 ml;

1050. The major humoral regulator of the concentration of sodium in plasma is:
aldosterone
vasopressin (ADH)
renin
angiotensin II
1051. The enzyme that controls smooth muscle contraction is:
Ca2+ kinase
Ca2+ATPase
myosin light chain kinase
myosin light chain phosphatase
1052. CO is formed as an end product of:
Heme metabolism
Arginine metabolism
Oxidation of acetoacetate
none of the above
1053. Which part of heart conductive system is this
SA node
AV node
Bundle of His
Purkinje fibers
1054. Normally, there is a net secretion of which ion in the colon?
sodium
potassium
chloride
calcium
1055. Select all correct answers. Platelet aggregation is stimulated by:
Thromboxane A2 and serotonin
Fibrinogen
ADP
Thrombin
1056. Aorta and large arteries are:
vessels of elastic type;
vessels of muscular type;
muscle and elastic vessels;
without vessels.
1057. The process of transfer of substances from the blood capillaries into the nephron canaliculi is called:
synthesis;
secretion;
reabsorption;
filtering.
1058. Which of the followings statements regarding visual reception is INCORRECT?
Rods & cones are hidden beneath an array of neurons in the retina.
Impulses from rods & cones converge onto a network of neurons & ultimately to the optic nerve.
Pigment epithelium absorbs light rays to prevent reflection.
Optic disk is situated at the posterior pole of the globe.
1059. Iodine is concentrated in thyroid follicular epithelial cells by:
Simple diffusion
Is 600-650ml/min per kidney
Is directly measured by infusing PAH
Is increased by sympathetic tone
1061. Which of the following layers is the most superficial?
Inner circular layer of muscularis externa

Muscularis mucosae
Outer longitudinal layer of muscularis externa
Submucosa
1062. Diurnal variation in eosinophil count is due to:
Cortisol
Insulin
Thyroid hormones
Thrombopoietin
1063. The volume of food in the stomach has which of the following effects on stomach emptying?
A the volume if food in the stomach increases, the rate of emptying decreases
A the volume of food in the stomach decreases, the rate of emptying decreases
A the volume of food in the stomach increases, the rate of emptying increases
The volume of food in the stomach has little if any effect of the rate if stomach emptying
1064. Select all correct answers. Red blood cell antigens A and B are also present in:
Saliva
Semen
Amniotic fluid
All correct
1065. Select uncorrect answers. Which condition(s) is / are characterized by an increase in both bleeding time and clotting
time?
Afibrinogenemia
Hypoprothrombinemia
Hemophilia A
Von Willebrand’s disease
1066. Which of the following does not break down proteins?
Carboxypeptidase
Chymotrypsin
Pepsin
None of them
1067. The normal arterio-venous difference for CO2 is:
2ml/100ml
4ml/100ml
6ml/100ml
10ml/100ml
1068. Which of the following is absorbed in the intestine independent of sodium?
glucose
amino acids
galactose
fructose
1069. The P-wave on an ECG describes:
depolarization of the ventricles;
ventricular repolarization;
atrial repolarization.
1070. Which of the following describes how bicarbonate ions are absorbed from the small intestine?
Directly via facilitated diffusion
Directly via simple diffusion
Indirectly in the form of carbon dioxide and water
Indirectly via active transport
1071. The composition of the histohematic barrier includes:
Only the nucleus of the cell;
Cell mitochondria only;
The membrane of mitochondria and inclusions;
Cell membrane and vascular wall.
1072. Which of the following processes does not exhibit 'saturation kinetics'?
Na+-Ca2+ exchanger
Simple diffusion
Na+coupled active transport
1073. Which of the following solutions is hypertonic?
0.9 % NaCl
5% dextrose
20% mannitol
Distilled water
1074. Hormone aldosterone is released into the blood when:
reducing the concentration of sodium in the plasma;
an increase in sodium concentration in plasma;
increasing the concentration of H ions in the plasma and lowering the pH;
the accumulation of lactic acid and the development of acidosis.
1075. The most potent vasoconstrictor is:
endothelin 1
angiotensin II
norepinephrine
vasopressin
1076. Most of the iron in the body is present in:
Hemoglobin
Myoglobin
Ferritin
Transferrin
1077. Indicate violation of myocardial contractility:
tachycardia;
sinus arrhythmia;
decompensation;
extrasystole.
1078. The protein that binds extracorpuscular hemoglobin is:
Hemin
Haptoglobin
Hemopexin
Haptopexin
1079. Plasma proteins do not perform the function:
Protective;
Trophic;
Gas transport;
Plastic.
1080. Ions are pumped out of the _____ limb of the loop of Henle
ascending
descending
both of the above
none of the above
1081. Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSP) may be produced by:
closure of na channels
closure of Ca channels
opening of k channels
all of the above
1082. Which of the following best characterizes the secretions of the large intestine?
Consist mostly of trapped bacteria from the crypts of Lieberkuhn
They are mostly mucus
They contain enzymes for the final digestion of food
They contain large quantities of bicarbonate ions
1083. The first reflex response to an increase in arterial pressure produced by intravenous injection of phenylephrine is:
increase in RR interval
increase in heart rate

decrease in cardiac output
1084. Which of the following types of cells work as scavenger cells in CNS?
microglia
oligodendroglia
ependymal cells
astrocytes
1085. In a healthy adult weighing 70 kg, plasma volume was estimated to be 3000 ml. His hematocrit was 40%. His blood
volume is approximately:
5000 ml
5200 ml
5400 ml
5600 ml
1086. Paneth cells are responsible for the secretion of what?
Antimicrobial peptides.
Bicarbonate.
Enzymes.
Secretin.
1087. The expiratory and inspiratory parts of the respiratory center are located in:
the medulla;
the midbrain;
the hypothalamus;
the spinal cord.
1088. The high rate of excitation through Purkinje fibers provides:
successive contractions of the atria and ventricles;
successive contractions of the right and left ventricles;
asynchronous contraction of ventricular myocardial fibers;
synchronous contraction of the ventricular myocardium fibers.
1089. Which of the following effects is not produced by stimulation of μ opioid receptor?
analgesia
constipation
miosis
diuresis
sedation
1090. Selective section of the pituitary stalk in an experimental animal usually increases the secretion of which of the following
hormones?
Growth hormone
FSH
LH
Prolactin
1091. Angiotensin II causes:
Increases proximal tubular reabsorption of Na & H2O & increases secretion of K
Increases distal tubular reabsorption of Na & H2O & decreases secretion of K
Decreases distal tubular reabsorption of Na & H2O
Increases excretion of Na & H2O
1092. The QRS complex on an ECG describes:
atrioventricular delay;
ventricular depolarization;
ventricular repolarization.
1093. Which receptor does not span the cell membrane seven times?
Rhodopsin
Beta-adrenergic receptor
Insulin receptor
M2 receptor
1094. Volumetric flow rate:
maximum in the hollow veins;
maximum in the aorta;

is the same in all vessels;
changes in the capillaries.
1095. NaHCO3⁻ in the duodenum comes from:
acini.
epithelial ducts.
paneth cells.
the pancreas.
1096. Which of the following statements regarding reticular activating system is false?
RAS is found in the anterior pontine region
RAS is important for regulation of alertness & consciousness
RAS projects to cortex & thalamic nuclei
RAS is responsible for regulation of HR, BP & respiratory pattern
1097. Parasympathetic innervation to the heart is via the:
Phrenic nerve
Splanchnic nerve
Vagus nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
1098. Which of the following is true of the gastroenteric reflex?
It increases peristaltic activity of the stomach
It leads to defecation
It leads to increased peristaltic activity in the small intestine
It stimulates contractions of the colon
1099. Body mass index is calculated as:
Weight in pounds by height in meters
Weight in kg by height in meters
Weight in kg divided by square of height in meter squared
Weight in kg divided by body surface area

1100. In terms of the sensory nerve endings located in the skin, which of the following fibrres would not contain fast myelinated
fibres?
C-type free nerve endings
A-delta free nerve endings
Meissner corpuscles
Merkel's disks
1101. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to taste?
CN VII, IX and X synapse on the VPM nucleus of the thalamus
Each area of the tongue is associated with a particular taste, and receptors are specific for their binding ligands
Na+ is involved in the signal cascade associated with the taste "salt"
Taste buds are epithelial cells that are electrically excitable and synapse with neurons
1102. Duration of knee jerk reflex response is in the order of:
10 ms
20 ms
30 ms
50 ms
1103. Which of the following are correct for Gastrin?
Activates pepsin from pepsinogen.
Causes acid release.
Involved in alcohol absorption within the stomach.
None of the above
1104. Aldosterone is secreted by the:
adrenal medulla
hypothalmus
zona glomerulosa
all of the above
1105. Which of the following sleep disorder is associated with REM sleep?
Nocturnal enuresis
Narcolepsy
Night tremors
Sleep walking
1106. The following fluids are not part of the internal environment:
Blood;
Lymph;
Extracellular fluid;
Digestive juices.
Diaphragm
1108. Which has the greatest renal clearance?
PAH
Glucose Urea – No, 53% reabsorbed
Water
Inulin
1109. The volume of distribution of intravenously administered sucrose in a healthy well hydrated 70-kg man is about:
3.5 liters
10.5 liters
14 liters
28 liters
1110. In a healthy adult, a decrease in blood pressure is noted when:
physical activity;
emotional arousal;
jumping into cold water;
hypodynamia and hyperthermia.

1111. The total pause is:
atrial systole time;
atrial and ventricular diastole;
opening of semilunar valves;
expulsion of blood.
1112. The destruction of the spinal cord above 3-4 cervical segments causes respiratory arrest due to:
respiratory muscle paralysis;
automatic violation of the inspiratory center;
damage to the vagus nerves;
hypercapnia.
1113. Physiologically, the most important choleretic is:
bile salts
CCK
secretin
gastrin
1114. With reference to the action potential:
Decreasing the external [K+] decreases the RMP
Decreasing the external K+ concentration has little effect on the RMP
Increasing the external [Na+] decreases the RMP
None of he above are true
1115. The greatest increase in (physiological) dead space would be expected with:
Pulmonary embolism
Atelectasis (or: collapse of one lung)
Pneumothorax
Bronchoconstriction
Obesity
1116. Which of the following regarding the blood-testis barrier is incorrect?
It develops before spermatogenesis.

Leydig cells are part of the blood-testis barrier.
Disruption of the barrier makes spermatogonia prone to immunological attack.
none of the above
1117. In humans, the hormone that is mainly secreted by the adrenal medulla is:
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Adrenomedullin
1118. In which of the following segments in the splanchnic circulation is pressure least in healthy individual at rest?
hepatic arteriole|
hepatic sinusoid
hepatic vein
terminal branches of portal vein in the liver
1119. Stomach motility is increased in:
parasympathetic stimulation.
sympathetic stimulation.
during sleep
none of the above
1120. The flow of air into the alveoli during inhalation occurs due to:
the difference between blood pressure and the force of the elastic thrust of the lungs;
elastic thrust of the lungs;
the difference between atmospheric and intraalveolar pressure;
the difference between the partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in the alveolar air.
1121. ICF volume decreases when dehydration is:
Isotonic
Hypertonic
Hypotonic
all of the above

1122. Sodium transport through the brush border of the intestinal epithelial cells occurs by which of the following mechanisms?
Active transport
Co-transport with hydrogen ions
Passive diffusion
1123. Most of the T3 in the liver is formed from circulating T4 by the action of:
Type 1 deiodinase (D1)
1124. Which of the following is true?
arteries have a higher pressure than veins
veins and arteries have the same pressure
veins have a higher pressure than arteries
all of the above
1125. The action of the renin-angiotensin system is aimed at:
dilation of blood vessels and increased filtration in the kidneys;
vasoconstriction and reduction of filtration in the kidneys;
synthesis of erythropoietin and activation of blood formation;
the breakdown of hemoglobin and the formation of urobilin.
1126. Distribution of ventilation & perfusion:
Gradient of change in ventilation is greater than that for perfusion
Ventilation increases as go up the lung
Perfusion increases as go up the lung
V:Q ratio at apex is greater than at base
None of the above
1127. Semilunar valves are located in:
the mouth of the aorta;
the mouth of the hollow veins;

the mouth of the pulmonary veins;
between the atria and ventricles.
1128. Normal in a healthy heart, automatism manifests itself in:
typical myocardium;
sinoatrial node;
bundle of His.
1129. Vasoconstricting humoral factors include:
acetylcholine;
bradykinin;
metabolites;
norepinephrine.
1130. Acidic histamine is secreted by:
Chief cells
Enterochromaffin cells
G cells
Parietal Cells
1131. In arterioles the nature of blood flow:
laminar;
turbulent;
chained;
intermittent.
1132. With regard to glomerular filtration:
Autoregulation maintains flow
Afferent arteriole driving force
Is equal for cationic & anionic molecules

residual volume
tidal volume
total lung capacity
1134. The hormone that is synthesized only in the zona glomerulosa is:
DHEA
Aldosterone
Corticosterone
1135. Which of the following glands does not secrete the mucous component of saliva?
Buccal
Parotid
Sublingual
Submandibular
1136. In humans, what percentage of nephrons has long loops of Henle?
15
25
85
1137. Which of the following hormones is not a glycoprotein?
TRH
FSH
LH
hCG
1138. Which of the following structures is not involved in the reflex arc?
White rami comitantes
Nociceptors
Dorsal root ganglion
Interneurons in the spinal cord

1139. How many transmembrane domains do G-protein coupled receptors have?
12
1140. Neurotransmitter synthesis normally occurs in which part of the cell?
Cytosol
Golgi Apparatus
Nucleus
Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
1141. Which of the following modes of transport across the cell membrane is quantitatively more important for flux of ions?
Diffusion
Filtration
Vesicular transport
all of the above
1142. In the adult, most of the circulating erythropoietin originates from:
Interstitial cells (fibroblasts) surrounding peritubular capillaries in the renal cortex
Perivenous hepatocytes
Kupffer cells of liver
all o the above
1143. Specify endocardial function:
softens friction when the heart is working;
regulates blood flow through the heart vessels;
provides pumping activity of the atria and ventricles;
forms valves.
1144. The extrinsic pathway is triggered by the release of:
Factor VII
Tissue factor
Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
Contact factor
1145. Increased muscle spindle sensitivity to stretch secondary to increased Ay efferent discharge can occur with:
Jendrassiks maneuver
Hypertonia
Skin stimulation on the ipsilateral skin
All of the above
1146. The hormone that is essential for intrauterine development of male external genitalia is:
Testosterone
Dihydrotestosterone
Mullerian regression factor
SOX factor
1147. Stop breathing is called:
eipic;
hyper;
apnea;
tachypnoe.
1148. The “penis-at-12” syndrome occurs due to a deficiency of:
17α hydroxylase
Testosterone 5α reductase
11β hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
CYP 450scc
1149. Regarding cholinergic stimulation:
Causes amylase secretion from salivary glands
Has no effect on renal arterioles
Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle
Relaxes the gallbladder
1150. The commonest cell type in the anterior pituitary is:

Somatotroph
Lactotroph
Corticotroph
Thyrotroph
1151. The amount of proteins in the blood plasma is equal to:
2–3%;
8 - 10%;
6 - 8%;
10 - 15%.
1152. The heart continues to beat even after all nerves to it are sectioned. This property is called:
excitability
conductivity
automaticity
contractility
1153. Na-K-2Cl transporter in the apical membrane of the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle is an example of:
Passive transport
Counter transport
1154. Acinus is:
upper airway;
the system of small bronchi;
respiratory bronchioles, alveolar passages and alveoli;
a collection of alveoli and all airways.
1155. Cytosolic calcium concentration in unexcited cells is about:
2.5 mM
10 mM
150 μM
100 nM
1156. Filtration in the kidneys is:
the process of transition of water and substances dissolved in it from the blood into the Bowman-Shumlyansky capsule;
the process of transition of water and substances dissolved in it from the blood into the loop of Henle;
the process of transition of water and substances dissolved in it from the tubules into the blood;
the process of transition of water and substances dissolved in it from the tubules into the collecting tubules.
1157. In an individual with a blood hemoglobin concentration of 10 g/dL and a hematocrit of 40, MCHC is approximately:
20 g/dL
25 g/dL
30 g/dL
35 g/dL
1158. During the cardiac cycle, aortic valve closes at the end of:
isovolumetric systole
rapid ejection
diastasis
protodiastole
1159. Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes?
Remove dead cells post-inflammatory response
Contribute to the blood brain barrier
Repair damaged tissues
Maintain electrolyte levels in the brain
1160. The ability of the AV node to generate its ownimpulses when the sinus node is “sick” is due to:
a constant phase 4 membrane potential
slow calcium entry during phase zero
spontaneous diastolic depolarization
the absence of prepotentials
1161. Alveolar dead space:
Is less than physiological dead space

Is decreased with mechanical ventilation
Is increased with hypotension
1162. Which of the following structures not involved in visual processing?
Medial Geniculate nucleus
Visual Cortex
Lateral geniculate nucleus
Meyer's Loop
1163. Which of the following refers to minute ventilation?
the minimum volume that can be expired at rest
the volume of air breathed per minute
the volume of air that remains in collapsed lungs
all of the above
1164. The GABA-A receptor is a:
Na channel
Cl ion channel
Ca channel
cation channel
1165. Which of the following is an example of primary active transport?
Ca sequestration in sarcoplasmic reticulum by Ca-ATPase
Glucose entry into cells through glucose transporter 2 (GLUT-2)
H2O flux across cell membranes through aquaporins
Glucose uptake into intestinal epithelial cells by Na-glucose cotransporter 1 (SGLT-1)
1166. Micelles in bile are formed by:
bile salts and phospholipids
bile acids and bile salts
cholesterol and bile salts
cholesterol and phospholipids
1167. The sequence of contractions first atrial and then ventricles is due to:
the work of semilunar valves;
the pacemaker function of the sinoatrial node;
pressure gradient between the atria and ventricles;
atrioventricular delay.
1168. In the context of blood transfusions, ABO compatibility is important because:
There are 3 antigens in this system
The A and B antigens are present in all cells
When an individual’s RBC lacks the A or B antigen, the corresponding antibody is invariably present in serum.
O is a strong antigen
1169. Water excretion by the kidney is due to:
Osmosis
Active transport into the lumen
Passive secretion in the collecting tubules
Solvent drag
1170. Insulin dependent glucose uptake into skeletal muscle and adipose tissue is mainly mediated by:
GLUT 1
GLUT 2
GLUT 3
GLUT 4
1171. Auerbach's Plexus is also known as what?
Enteric plexus.
Interstital cells of Cajal.
Myenteric plexus.
Submucosal plexus.
1172. Homeostasis is:
Destruction of red blood cells;
The ratio of blood plasma and blood cells;
Blood clot formation;

The constancy of indicators of the internal environment.
1173. Which of the following best characterizes the secretions of the small intestine?
Hypotonic and slightly acidic
Hypotonic and slightly alkaline
Isotonic and slightly acidic
Isotonic and slightly alkaline
1174. The PQ interval on the ECG shows:
the spread of excitation in the ventricles;
the spread of excitation in the atria and through the atrioventricular node;
a general pause of the heart;
the duration of the atrial cycle.
in the alveoli there is a surfactant that reduces surface tension;
pleural sheets have the ability to absorb water.
1176. External breathing is:
the exchange of gases between the lungs and blood;
transport of gases by blood;
the exchange of gases between atmospheric and alveolar air;
the exchange of gases between the blood and tissues.
1177. In violation of the connection between the spinal cord and the medulla oblongata:
breathing stops completely;
abdominal breathing persists;
the smoothness of breathing is disturbed;
breathing does not change.
1178. Indicate which of these mechanisms narrows the vessels:
axon reflex;
a decrease of the sympathetic nervous system;
improving of the sympathetic nervous system;
increase the tone of the parasympathetic nervous system.
1179. In an Rh-negative mother not previously sensitized by the Rh antigen, Rh incompatibility does not usually have a serious
consequence during the first pregnancy because:
Antibodies are not able to cross placenta
The titer of IgG is low during the primary immune response
IgG is ineffective against fetal red cells
Massive hemolysis in the fetus is compensated by increased erythropoiesis
1180. When sitting or standing, blood flow is highest in the ____ of the lung.
apex
base
lingula
middle lobe
1181. A neonate scheduled for abdominal surgery has a serum calcium of 6 mg/dL (normal: 8.5-10.5 mg/dL). Before
supplementing calcium, which of the following should be checked?
Blood glucose
Serum albumin
Serum bilirubin
Oxygen saturation
1182. Cell volume and pressure is mainly dependent upon activity of:
Na glucose cotransporter
Na-K pump
Glucose transporter
Na-Ca exchanger
1183. Which of the following cell types found in the intestinal tract secretes hydrochloric acid?
Acinar cells
Mucous neck cells
Parietal cells
Peptic cells
1184. The pressure in the pleural cavity with deep expiration is:
6 - 9 mm Hg. v .;
3 –4 mm Hg. v .;
15 - 20 mm Hg. v .;
1, 0 mm Hg. v .;
1185. IPSPs due to chloride influx are produced by:
acetylcholine
GABA
glutamate
substance P
1186. In excitation-contraction of skeletal muscle, calcium binds to:
Myosin
Tropomyosin
Troponin C
Troponin I
1187. The highest number of voltage gated Na+ channels are found in:
Cell body
Initial segment of axon
Terminal buttons
Myelin sheath
1188. The lung:
Removes/inactivates serotonin (5HT)
Activates bradykinin
Converts angiotensin II to I
Inactivates aldosterone
1189. Adaptation to temperature changes occurs at:
0-20°C
20-40°C
40-45oC
45+oC
1190. Heme is converted to bilirubin mainly in the:
Kidneys
Liver
Spleen
Bone marrow
1191. Adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine act upon membrane receptors that span the membrane:
2 times
5 times
7 times
10 times
1192. The biologically most active androgen is:
Testosterone
Dehydropepiandrosterone
Androstenedione
Dihydrotestosterone
1193. Which of the following composes the majority of salivary volume?
Parotid gland
Small salivary glands
Sublingual gland
Submandibular gland
1194. What form of anaemia is associated with Gastritis?
Haemolytic
Iron deficiency
Megaloblastic
Pernicious
1195. The reason for the diffusion of gases from the alveolar air into the blood and back is:
the difference in partial pressure and tension between the alveolar air and blood;
close adherence of alveoli and capillaries;
active transport of O2 and CO2;
1196. Which of the following statements regarding sensory nervous system is INCORRECT?
10 sensory nerve fibers for fine touch & proprioception travels up the ipsilateral dorsal column of spinal cord to reach the
medulla
10 sensory nerve fibers for temperature & pain travel up the ipsilateral antero-lateral column of spinal cord to reach the
thalamus.
Fibers in the dorsal column do not decussate in spinal cord
Antero-lateral column also give sensory input to the reticular formation
1197. What is a syncytium?
A cluster of cells within the pericardium
A cluster of pacemaker cells in the right atrium, present in <20% of the population
A group of cardiac myocytes that function as a single unit
A rare extra blood vessel connecting the left and right coronary arteries
1198. Significant tubular reabsorption occurs with:
Phosphate
Creatinine
Urea
Sulphate
All of the above
1199. The volumetric rate of blood flow is:
the force with which blood pushes against the walls of blood vessels;
the volume of blood ejected by the heart into the aorta in one systole;
the volume of blood that passes through the vessel per unit of time;
the distance that a particle of blood travels per unit of time.
1200. Which of the following activates trypsin in the small intestine?
Cl⁻
Enterokinase
Kazal
NaHCO3
1201. Which of the following markers is incorrectly matched with its volume of distribution?
Antipyrine - total body water
Inulin - ECF volume
Evans blue - plasma volume
I125albumin - blood volume
1202. Which segment of the nephron is permeable to urea?
Thin ascending limb of loop of Henle
Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
1203. The oral rehydratation solution is helpful in rehydration in diarrheas because:
Na-glucose symporter is unaffected in toxigenic diarrheas
cAMP regulated Cl secretion is reduced
toxins inhibit facilitated glucose transport
all of the above
1204. The rate of diffusion of a substance across the cell membrane is inversely proportional to:
Concentration gradient for the substance
Diffusion coefficient
Surface area available for diffusion
Thickness of the membrane
1205. Hyperthyroidism following administration of large amounts of iodine (iodine induced hyperthyroidism; Jod-Basedow
mechanism) is least likely in an individual with:
Pan hypopituitarism
Endemic (iodine deficiency) goiter
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Graves’ disease
1206. Which of the following regulates body temperature?
cerebrum
cerebellum
thalamus
hypothalamus
1207. ECF surrounding the SA node has a notably high concentration of:
Calcium
Chloride
Potassium
Sodium
1208. Hans Selye defined “stressors” specifically as stimuli that increase the secretion of ______ in healthy humans or
laboratory animals.
CRH
ACTH
TSH
Cortisol
1209. Relative, dynamic constancy of internal environment is called:
Hemolysis;
Hemostasis;
Hemeostasis;
Blood transfusion.
1210. Which of the following statements about the retina is FALSE?
Macula lutea is the point of greatest visual acuity.
Retinal blood vessels supply the rods & cones in retina.
There are no blood vessels in the macula lutea
There are no rods in the macula lutea
1211. Which of the following statements regarding visual pathways is INCORRECT?
Objects in the temporal visual field is sensed by the nasal hemiretina

Interruption of optic nerve leads to blindness in the ipsilateral eye only
Fibers from temporal hemiretina decussate at the optic chiasm
Lateral geniculate body receives fibers from the ipsilateral temporal hemiretina & contralateral nasal hemiretina.
1212. Presynaptic inhibition occurs at:
axoaxonal synapses
axosomatic synapses
axodendritic synapses
all of the above
1214. Which of the following components of bile is critical for fat digestion?
Bicarbonate
Bilirubin
Calcium salts
Lecithin
1215. Figures A and B given below depict the relationship between transport rates (in Y-axis, inarbitrary units) and
concentration gradients (in X-axis, in arbitrary units) of two substances A and Brespectively. Fig A Fig B Which of the following
statement
B is transported by facilitated diffusion
Transport of B is ATP dependent
There is a ‘transport maximum’ for B
Substance A would move in one direction only
1216. Which of the following organelles is a major site of steroidogenesis?
Peroxisomes
Ribosomes
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Rough endoplasmic reticulum
1217. What does the Frank-Starling mechanism represent?
cardiac output and strong volume
end-diastolic ventricular volume and cardiac output
end-diastolic ventricular volume and stroke volume
stroke volume and end-systolic ventricular volume
1218. Stomach emptying is controlled mostly by which of the following?
Activity if the small intestine
Local neurohumoral mechanisms originating in the duodenum.
Local neurohumoral mechanisms originating in the stomach itself
Vasovagal reflexes that reduce the tone in the muscle wall of the body of the stomach
1219. Increased physiological dead space with:
Age
Anaesthesia
Supine position
All of the above
1220. Increasing the tone of the vagus nerves during sleep:
strengthens and improves the functioning of the heart;
weakens and slows down the heart;
does not have a noticeable effect on the work of the heart;
has a phase amplifying - weakening effect.
1221. Which of the following is not true about saliva?
It is initially produced in Acinar glands
It is produced by both parasympathetic and sympathetic stimulation
The rate of its flow through the duct affects its final composition
When secreted into the mouth, it is both an aklaline and a hypotonic solution
1222. The phase of relative refractoriness in the heart coincides with:
AP plateau;
rapid initial depolarization;
fast final repolarization;
1223. Which term refers to the volume remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration?
minimal volume
residual volume
1224. What takes place during initiation?
Depolarization
Hyperpolarization
None of the above
Repolarization
1225. Heart rate is slowed by:
deep inspiration
Bainbridge reflex
increased intracranial tension
carotid massage
1226. Which of the following is a potent stimulator of insulin secretion?
Somatostatin
VIP
Glucagon like polypeptide-1 (GLP-1)
Leptin
1227. Which of the following is a bile acid synthesized by the hepatocyte?
sodium taurocholate
chenodeoxycholic acid
deoxyholic acid
lithocholic acid
1228. A lab technician determines RBC count by manual hemocytometry, blood hemoglobin concentration by Sahli’s acid
hematin method, and hematocrit using a microcentrifuge. He follows all procedures correctly. Which of the following RBC
indices calculated from
Mean corpuscular volume
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
Mean cell diameter
1229. Excitatory amino acids in the brain are:
GABA & glycine
Glutamate & aspartate
Glutamate & GABA
Glutamate & glycine
1230. Which of the following hormones is critical for acute regulation of a falling serum ionized calcium?
Calbindin
Calcitonin
Calcitriol
Parathyroid hormone
1231. Primary hemostasis refers to cessation of bleeding due to:
Formation of a definitive clot
Clot retraction
Formation of a temporary platelet plug.
none of the above
1232. Which of the following is not typically found in saliva?
Bicarbonate
HCl
IgA
Lysozyme
1233. As go from the top of the erect lung to the bottom:

Water vapour pressure remains constant
pN2 remains constant
pCO2 at apex is higher than at the base
pO2 at base is lower than at the apex
1234. The ‘diluting segment’ of the nephron is:
proximal tubule
descending limb of loop of Henle
ascending limb of loop of Henle
cortical collecting duct
1235. Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSP) are not produced by:
opening of Na channels
closure of K channels
opening of ca channels
opening of Cl channels
1236. Across which site in the circulation is the pressure drop maximum?
Arterioles
Venules
Capillaries
Aortic valve
1237. Which of the following statements regarding aqueous humor is FALSE?
Aqueous humor is produced by ciliary body by active transport
Aqueous humor is reabsorbed through the trabecular meshwork into the canal of Schlemn.
Canal of Schlemn is found at the anterior chamber angle.
Acute angle closure glaucoma is due to the obstruction of anterior chamber angle.
1238. Which of the following transporters is present only in sinusoidal membrane of hepatocytes?
bile salt export pump
LDL-cholesterol receptors
MDR 3
multidrug resistance associated protein 2 (MRP 2)

multidrug resistance associated protein-2 (MRP-2)
1239. Which of the following increases insulin / glucagon molar ratio the most?
A large carbohydrate meal
Intravenous glucose
Overnight fast
A small protein meal
1240. The volume of RBC placed in a NaCl solution with an osmolality of 280mOsm/Kg H2O is 100 femtoliters. What will be the
steady state volume when they are placed in a NaCl solution with an osmolality of 350mOsm/Kg H2O?
120 fL
80 fL
50 fL
Data inadequate
1241. Histamine released from mast cells in the stomach stimulates the secretion of HCl by parietal cells. What type of
signaling is this?
Endocrine
Paracrine
Autocrine
Juxtacrine
1242. What is the correct order of the reflex arc?
Sensory organ - afferent neuron - synapse - efferent neuron - effector response
sensory organ - efferent neuron - afferent neuron - synapse - effector response
Sensory organ - synapse - afferent neuron - efferent neuron - effector response
Sensory organ - efferent neuron -synapse - afferent neuron - effector response
1243. Which of the following statements are true?
Potassium ions have a higher concentration outside the membrane
Potassium ions have a lower concentration inside the membrane
Potassium ions have a lower concentration outside the membrane
Sodium ions have a lower concentration inside the membrane
1244. The inhibitory amino acid neurotransmitters in the CNS are:

glutamate and glycine
glutamate and aspartate
GABA and glycine
aspartate and glycine
1245. Anemic hypoxia occurs when:
impaired hemodynamics;
changes in the function of respiratory tissue enzymes.
1246. The enzyme that ultimately lyses fibrin is:
Plasminogen
TPA
Urokinase
Plasmin
1247. Which of the following muscles is subject to control by voluntary as well as reflex mechanisms?
external anal sphincter
lower esophageal sphincter
pyloric sphincter
all of the above
1248. Potassium secretion occurs mainly in:
PT
early distal tubule
late distal tubule
collecting ducts
loop of Henle
1249. Hypercapnia, hypoxemia and acidosis cause:
increase minute volume;
lowers minute volume;
respiratory arrest;
respiratory arrest;
do not change the minute volume.
1250. Indicate a conduction disturbance:
tachycardia;
extrasystole;
sinus arrhythmia;
atrioventricular block.
1251. The adhesion of platelets to sub endothelial collagen is impaired in the absence of:
Von Willebrand factor
Plasmin
Geparin
Antithrombin III
1252. Which of the following is true about the parotid gland?
It has a predominantly mucous secretion
It is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
It is the smallest salivary gland
It produces the majority of saliva by volume
1253. Which heart sound is made by rapid ventricular filling following atrial contraction, usually only detected by
phonocardiography?
S1
S2
S3
S4
1254. Which of the following normally prevents the activation of pancreatic enzymes?
Secretion of trypsin inhibitor by the acinar cells
Storage at a neutral pH within the acinar cells
Storage at an acidic pH within the acinar cells
Tonic secretion of sodium bicarbonate
1255. The red blood cells of a person with the Bombay blood group do not have:
GLUT
H substance
Spectrin
Ankyrin
1256. What percentage of plasma is water?
89.5%
90%
91.5%
92%
1257. The involvement of the hypothalamus in the regulation of respiration is:
innervation of the respiratory muscles;
the integration of respiration with the vegetative functions of the body;
coordination of breathing with speech and singing;
ensuring rhythm and automatism of breathing.
1258. Regarding the nerve fibre action potential, which statement is incorrect?
After-depolarisation commences when repolarisation is 70% complete
Does not involve calcium ions
Spike potential peaks at sodium equilibrium potential
Total number of ions involved is minute compared to the total number present
1259. In which of the following does digestion occur?
Ascending colon
Duodenum
Ileum
all of the above
1260. Which of the following statement regarding sensory cortex is TRUE?
Cells for various sensory modality for a given body part is arranged in columns in the 10 sensory cortex.
20 sensory cortex is found in the sylvian fissure
10 sensory cortex is important for sensory processing regarding position sense & discrimination of size & shape of the
objects.
j
All of the above
1261. Which of the following is true about receptors?
All receptors are post-synaptic
Ligand-receptor binding can only cause effect through second messengers
Prolonged exposure to ligands causes decreased receptor response
There is only 1 receptor type for each ligand
1262. The test that screens the extrinsic pathway is:
Prothrombin time (PT)
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Thrombin time
Urea solubility test
1263. The principal estrogen secreted by the fetoplacental unit is:
Estriol (E3)
Estradiol (E2)
Estrone (E1)
1264. Absorption of water in the small intestine occurs by which of the following?
Active transport
Couple transport with glucose
Passive diffusion
Solvent drag
1265. Inhibition of the active transport of sodium through the basolateral membrane of the small intestinal epiithelial cells does
which of the following?
Attenuates glucose uptake from the small intestine
Attenuates the absorption of fructose
Facilitates glucose uptake from the small intestine
Facilitates the absorption of water
1266. The amount of hemoglobin present in 100 ml of red blood cells is defined as:
MCH
MCHC
Hemoglobin index
RDW
1267. The protein content of lymph draining from the _______ is highest.
Choroid plexus
Skeletal muscle
Liver
Gastrointestinal tract
1268. The blood-brain barrier
is formed by tight junctions.
is formed by oligodendrocytes.
tightly regulates the intracellular environment of the CNS.
uses chemical signals to communicate with the spinal cord.
1269. Red blood cells from a healthy individual were placed in each of the following solutions and observations were made after
1 hour. Cells would have most likely have lysed when placed in:
0.3% NaCl
0.9% NaCl
1.2% NaCl
all of the above
1270. Vagus nerve in the heart:
increases the excitability;
lowers contractility;
increases the heart rate;
increases contractility.
1271. The maximum pressure in the right ventricle is fine:
25 to 30 mm. Hg v .;
10 to 15 mm. Hg v .;
60 - 80 mm. Hg v .;
120-130 mm. Hg v.
1272. In a healthy euthyroid adult, the thyroid gland predominantly secretes:
Thyroxine
Triiodothyronine
Reverse T3
Reverse T4
1273. For a euthyroid woman who is neither pregnant nor nursing, and taking no medication, the recommended daily dietary
allowance of iodine is:
75 micrograms
150 micrograms
225 micrograms
300 micrograms
1274. Prolongation of prothrombin time does not occur when there is a deficiency of only:
Factor VIII
Factor IX
Factor X
Vitamin K
1275. If the intent is to replenish total body water in a dehydrated individual which of the following should be administered
intravenously?
0.9% NaCl
5% dextrose solution
Albumin
10% glucose solution
1276. Normally, the thyroid gland secretes:
CGRP
PTH related peptide
TSH
Calcitonin
1277. In an adult female who underwent pelvic surgery, internal genitalia were found to be male, and the karyotype was 46 XY.
The most likelyexplanation for this is:
Loss of function mutation in SRY gene
Deficiency of testosterone
Deficiency of Mullerian inhibiting peptide
Deficiency of testosterone 5α reductase
increases the surface tension of the water film.
1279. Regarding the resting membrane potential, which is true?
Implies that the inside of the cell is positive relative to the outside of the cell at rest
Is +70mV in mammalian cardiac cells
Is decreased by increasing the external K+ concentration
Is increased with increased external Na+ concentration
1280. Which is the commonest type of synapse in the CNS?
axosomatic synapse
axodendric synapse
anoaxoal synapse
none of the above
1281. Regarding nerve action potential, which is true?
During depolarisation, Na+ permeability is greater than K+ permeability
Hyperpolarisation is due to continuous opening of Na+ channels
Initial rapid depolarisation is due to rapid influx of Ca++ via fast channels
Plateau is formed by slow Ca++ channels
1282. Which of the following hormones has maximum glucocorticoid activity?
Cortisol
Corticosterone
Cortisone
1283. The systemic circulation begins:
pulmonary trunk;
two pulmonary arteries;
the aorta;
two vena cava.
1284. When a serum sample is electrophoresed, which of the following bands is normally absent?
Albumin
α1 globulin
α2 globulin
Fibrinogen
1285. The stretch reflex in skeletal muscle:
Is a feedback reflex aimed at maintaining muscle length
Is a polysynaptic reflex
Is not elicited in the knee jerk which occurs after tapping
Maintains muscle strength at various levels of muscle strength
1286. Segmental contractions within the GIT cause:
atony.
churning.
mixing.
peristalsis.
1287. Regarding synaptic structure/function:
An IPSP can be produced by localised increase in membrane permeability to Cl-
Chemical mediators located in presynaptic fibres contain one-way conduction of impulses
Small clear vesicles in the presynaptic tunnel contain catecholamines
The EPSP is an all-or-none response
protective (coughing, sneezing);

Goering-Breuer;
1289. The satiety-producing hormone is:
Orexin
Resistin
Adiponectin
Leptin
1290. The main organs of the blood depot are:
Bones, ligaments;
Liver, skin, spleen;
The heart, lymphatic system;
The central nervous system.
1291. Arrange the following steps in the order in which they occur in the thyroid gland.
Coupling reaction
Iodination
Secretion of T4
Oxidation of iodine
1292. Which of the following processes is ATP dependent? (Select all correct answers).
Acidification of lysosomes
Actin-myosin cross bridge cycling
Exocytosis
Micropinocytosis
All correct
1293. The participation of the cerebral cortex in the regulation of respiration consists in:
ensuring the rhythm and automatism of breathing;
the manifestation of conditioned respiratory reflexes and the coordination of breathing with speech and singing;
innervation of the respiratory muscles;
f f f
the integration of respiration with the vegetative functions of the body.
1294. The testis-determining gene (or the SRY gene) is located normally on/in:
Chromosome 6
Chromosome 12
Short arm of chromosome 22
Y chromosome
1295. The characteristics of the I tone include:
is heard only in young people, diastolic;
deaf, low, long, systolic;
tall, short, sonorous, diastolic;
not heard, registered only on PCG, diastolic.
1296. Glucagon, when present in high concentrations such as in a type I diabetic, facilitates all of the following except:
Lipolysis
Gluconeogenesis
Hepatic glycogenolysis
Muscle glycogenolysis
1297. Which of the following is incorrect about fetal hemoglobin (Hb F)?
In comparison to HbA, Hb F has greater affinity for 2,3–BPG
The oxygen dissociation curve of HbF is shifted to the left relative to HbA.
At low PO2, Hb F gives up more oxygen to tissues than Hb A.
none of the above
1298. The secretion of bile is important for the proper digestion of which of the following?
Complex carbohydrates
Lipids
Monosaccharides
Proteins
1299. The functional dead space includes:
the alveoli, which are ventilated but not perfused (no blood flow);
alveoli, which are ventilated and perfused;
the trachea;
bronchi.
1300. The most abundant androgen in the plasma of both males and females is:
Androstenedione
Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate
Testosterone
Dihydrotestosterone
1301. The high pressure zone of the cardiovascular system includes:
the left ventricle, aorta, arteries and arterioles of the systemic circulation;
the right ventricle, arteries and arterioles of the pulmonary circulation;
the right atrium, venules and veins of the systemic circulation;
the right atrium, the left atrium and the pulmonary circulation.
1302. Echocardiography is registration:
heart tones;
reflected ultrasound waves from the structures of the heart;
the biopotentials of the heart;
mechanical vibrations of the body when the heart is working.
1303. In which zones is corticosterone converted to aldosterone?
Zona glomerulosa
Zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis
none of the above
1304. The pattern of intestinal motility that hastens transit in small intestine in the digestive state is:
peristaltis
tonic contraction

1305. Which of the following hormones is / are diabetogenic? (Check all correct answers)
Epinephrine
Cortisol
Growth hormone
all of the above
1306. In the absence of vasopressin, most of the filtered water is reabsorbed in the:
PT
loop of Henle
DT
collecting ducts
1307. Structural and functional unit of the kidneys is:
acinus;
micelle;
nephron;
neuron.
1308. Hypophysectomy does not immediately affect the secretion of:
Zona glomerulosa
Zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis
all of the above
1309. Osmotic pressure of crystalloids is not included in the Starling’s equation describing fluid exchange across capillaries
because:
They were discovered after Starling described the forces
Crystalloids carry electric charges
Crystalloids diffuse freely across the capillary endothelium
The quantity of crystalloids in plasma is negligible compared to plasma proteins
1310. Where are action potentials delayed to allow for atrial contraction prior to ventricular contraction?
AV node
Bundle branches
Bundle of His
Purkinje fibres
1311. The peripheral chemoreceptors:
Have a nonlinear response to paO2 changes
Have an intact response at 1MAC
Respond to a fall in PaCO2
Respond to alkalaemia
Are in the carotid sinus
1312. The microcirculation system is not involved in:
ensuring adequate metabolism in the tissues;
ensuring venous return of blood to the heart;
providing capacitive function;
determining the speed of propagation of the pulse wave.
1313. ECF volume is determined by:
Plasma [Na]
Plasma protein concentration
The amount of sodium in the ECF
all of the above
1314. Which of the following statements regarding somatostatin is incorrect?
It inhibits release of growth hormone
It inhibits release of insulin
It decreases blood flow to the intestine
It stimulates gastric acid secretion
1315. Renal blood flow is dependent on:
[Na+] at macula densa
Afferent vasodilatation
Arterial pressure
Efferent vasoconstriction
1316. Which of the following substances stimulates the motor activity of the stomach?
Cholecystokinin
Gastrin
Norepinephrine
Secretin
1317. Deficiency of which of the following hormones is not known to result in a clinically significant disorder of regulation of
ionized calcium in plasma?
Parathyroid hormone
Calcitriol
Calcitonin
Calcium sensing receptor
1318. The average half-life of neutrophils in the circulation is:
6 hours
5 days
2 weeks
1 month
1319. Which of the following are paired correctly?
Cholecystokinin-gallbladder relaxation
Cholecystokinin-relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi
Secretin- relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi
Secretin-stimulation of enzymatic release from the pancreatic acinar cells
1321. Which one of the following statements is false?
f f
Membrane potential is a combinatino of two equilibrium potentials guided by the permeability of two ions
There would be a chemical gradient present & energy present in the system if the concentration gradient of potassium ionsc.
Resting membrane potential (RMP) is constantly changing & isn't at rest as its terminlogy would suggest
Small local ion fluxes across the membrane mean the resting membrane potential fluctuates - it is not constant
1322. Atrioventricular delay:
regulates the strength of contractions of the heart;
provides blood flow to the heart;
provides consistent contractions of the atria and ventricles;
sets the rhythm of the heart.
1323. In the steady state, the value of which of the following variables is the same in ICF and ECF?
pH
Osmolality
Concentration of proteins
Number of osmoles
1324. The rate-limiting step in the biosynthesis of angiotensin II is the synthesis of:
renin
angiotensinogen
angiotensin I
angiotensin II
1325. Select all correct answers. TSH secretion is inhibited by:
Dopamine
Somatostatin
T3 and T4
all of the above
1326. Name the function of the heart:
blood depot;
organ hematopoiesis;
double action pump;
organ excretion.
1327. What percent of blood comes from the ventricles to the vessels in the phase of rapid ejection:
60%;
70%;
30%;
50%.
1328. Inhale is:
an active process of air flow into the lungs;
an active process of carbon dioxide in the lungs;
passive process of air flow into the lungs;
active process of removing carbon dioxide from the lungs.
1329. The major humoral mediator of pancreatic duct cell secretion of bicarbonate rich juice is:
secretin
CCK
somatostatin
all of the above
1330. Vasodilators of humoral factors include:
acetylcholine;
adrenaline;
vasopressin;
thyroxin.
1331. Pulse pressure is:
the minimum pressure in the arteries;
the true pressure in the arteries, if smooth pulsations;
the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure;
maximum pressure in the arteries.
1332. The juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney is:
a triangle formed by the walls of the bearing and carrying out arterioles and cells of the distal tubules;
a triangle formed by the walls of the bearing and carrying out arterioles and the cells of the proximal tubules;
a triangle formed by cells of the proximal and distal tubules;
the loop of Henle, collecting tubules and vessels that surround them.
1333. Which of the following contains regulatory centers for the respiratory and circulatory systems?
cerebrum
medulla oblongata
thalamus
hypothalamus
1334. The action potential of a neuron:
Declines in amplitude as it moves along te axon
Is initiated by efflux of Na
Is not associated with any net movement of Na+ or K+ across the cell membrane
Is terminated by efflux of K
1335. In glucocorticoid-remediable aldosteronism:
Angiotensin II has no effect on aldosterone synthesis
Angiotensin II stimulates whereas angiotensin III inhibits aldosterone synthesis
Aldosterone synthase is expressed in the zona fasciculata and exquisitely sensitive to stimulation by ACTH.
Administration of glucocorticoids increases ACTH levels
1336. The ascending limb of the Loop of Henle is: (thick)
Impermeable to Na
Involved in active transport of K+ into the lumen
Involved in active transport of Cl- out of lumen
Involved in active transport of Na+ into lumen
1337. Blood pressure in an adult (18 – 45 years) normally is:
100/50 mm Hg;
120/80 mm Hg.;
70/40 mm Hg.;
170/90 mm Hg.
1338. The Frank-Starling Act is:

decompensation of the heart;
violation of the heart;
increase in heart rate;
increase in heart rate in response to stretching of the heart chambers.
1339. Most of the calcium in the endoplasmic reticulum is sequestered by:
Calmodulin
Caldesmin
Calbindin
Calsequestrin
1340. Regarding synapses:
Acetylcholine is present in granulated vesicles in synaptic knob
The amount of transmitter released is proportionate to Ca++ efflux
The EPSP is caused by Na+ influx
Transmitters are released from synaptic knobs secondary to Na+ triggers
1341. Which G protein activates adenylyl cyclase?
Gs
Gq
Gi
Gl
1342. The QRST complex on an electrocardiogram is:
ventricular repolarization;
ventricular depolarization;
the spread of depolarization in the atria;
electrical ventricular systole.
1343. The systemic blood circulation ends with:
pulmonary trunk
pulmonary veins
vena cava
the aorta.
1344. New cortical cells are formed from reserve cells in the:
Zona glomerulosa
Zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis
none of the above
1345. The main function of anastomoses is:
ensuring adequate metabolism in organs and tissues;
discharge of blood from arterioles into venules, bypassing capillaries;
the transformation of intermittent blood flow into a continuous;
the transformation of laminar blood flow into turbulent.
1346. Which of the following hormones does not act via a G-protein coupled receptor in the cell membrane?
Thyrotropin releasing hormone
Angiotensin II
Thyroxine
1347. Regarding noradrenergic stimulation:
Causes erection in males
Elevates free fatty acid levels
Increases blood flow to the skin
Increases thresholds in the reticular formation
1348. IV heart tone occurs during:
asynchronous reduction;
protodiastoles;
presystoles;
fast filling.
1349. Central chemoreceptors:
Bathed in CSF
Respond to increase in CSF pH
Bathed in ECF
In medullary respiratory centre
1350. III tone occurs in:
proto-diastole;
atrial systole phase;
the phase of rapid filling of the ventricles;
the phase of isometric contraction.
1351. In quiet breathing, exhalation is:
Passive due to elastic tissue alone
Passive due to surface tension in the alveoli and elastic tissue recoil
Active due to intercostal contraction
1352. Circulatory hypoxia occurs when:
reducing the partial pressure of O2 in the atmospheric
the air;
1353. Which of the following is true regarding Poiseuille's law? (choose all that apply)
decreased hematocrit; decreased viscosity
decreased hematocrit; increased resistance
decreased hematocrit; increased viscosity
none of the above
1354. The most abundant anion in ECF is
Bicarbonate
Chloride
Phosphate
Protein anion
1355. Which is a false statement?
Highest amount of resistance in the upper airways
The lower airways have a small total area
The upper airways have a high velocity flow.
The upper airways have turbulent flow
1356. The main function of the capillaries is:
ensuring adequate metabolism in organs and tissues;
discharge of blood from arterioles into venules, bypassing capillaries;
the transformation of intermittent blood flow into a continuous;
the transformation of laminar blood flow into turbulent.
1357. The following values are obtained on a sample of serum from a child that has clinical evidence of dehydration. Serum [Na]
= 135 mmol/L
rum [glucose] = 540 mg/dL Serum [urea nitrogen] = 56 mg/dL
e osmolality of serum is expected to be close to:
290 mOsm/kg H2O
300 mOsm/kg H2O
310 mOsm/ kg H2O
320 mOsm/kg H2O
1358. A human growth hormone variant (hGH-V) is expressed primarily in:
Liver
Spleen
Kidney
Placenta
expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume
residual volume
tidal volume
vital capacity
1360. When you cut both vagus nerves breathing:
becomes rare and deep;
becomes superficial and frequent;
does not change;
is terminated.
1361. In the presence of vasopressin, most of the water filtered by the kidneys is reabsorbed in the:
proximal tubule
thin descending limb
thick ascending limb
collecting ducts
1362. Which of the following hormones has the highest mineralocorticoid activity?
Cortisol
Corticosterone
Cortisone
1363. Which of the following statements regarding muscle spindle is FALSE?
It contains nuclear bag & nuclear chain fibers, which are responsible for dynamic & static responses respectively.
It is important as a feedback sensor to give information about muscle length
It has no contractile elements at all
Increased Ay motor efferent discharge to muscle spindle will lead to increased muscle spindle sensitivity to stretch.
1364. Worldwide, the commonest preventable cause of mental retardation in the newborn is:
Iodine deficiency
Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency
Cystic fibrosis
Urea cycle defect
1365. Which of the following exerts the greatest osmotic effect across capillaries on a mole-mole basis?
Sodium
Chloride
Alb i
. +Albumin
Hydroxyethyl starch
1366. The composition of the internal environment includes the following liquids:
Blood, lymph, extracellular fluid;
Isotonic solution;
Blood plasma;
Digestive juices.
1367. The chronotropic effect is the effect on:
conductivity;
excitability;
automatism;
contractility.
1368. Which of the following is an amino acid that operates at inhibitory synapses in the brain?
acetylcholine
epinephrine
GABA
serotonin
1369. ICF volume does not change when dehydration is:
Isotonic
Hypertonic
Hypotonic
1370. The water content of lean body mass is about:
30 ml/100 g
50 ml/100 g
70 ml/100 g
highly variable
1371. Which hormone also upregulates its receptors in the adrenal cortex?
Epinephrine
Angiotensin II
Cortisol
Aldosterone
1372. The methods of recording sound phenomena in the heart include
electrocardiography;
echocardiography;
ballistocardiography;
phonocardiography.
1373. With shallow and frequent breathing, exhaled air:
approaching the composition to atmospheric air;
approaching the composition of the alveolar air;
does not change its composition;
the amount of O2 does not change, CO2 increases.
1374. The residual volume is:
the volume of air inhaled and exhaled with quiet breathing;
the volume of air that can be exhaled during maximum exhalation after a normal inhalation and exhalation;
the volume of air that remains in the lungs after the maximum expiration;
the amount of air that can be inhaled during maximum inspiration
1375. Insulin secretion from B-cells in pancreas is inhibited by:
Acetylcholine
Activation of beta-adrenergic receptors
Activation of alpha-adrenergic receptors and Somatostatin
Glucagon
1376. The amount of blood in the body:
6 - 8% of body weight;
1 - 2% of body weight;
8 to 10 liters;
1 to 2 liters.
1377. Macrocytes have a mean corpuscular volume greater than:
70 fL
80 fL
90 fL
100 fL
1378. Hypochlordria is a condition in which acid secretion by the stomach is greatly reduced. How does this condition affect the
digestion and absorption of food?
Digestion and absorption of all food substances are nearly normal
Digestion and absorption of all foods substances are markedly reduced
Digestion and absorption of carbohydrates are greatly affected by this condition
Digestion and absorption of fats are greatly affected by this condition
1379. Kidneys produce:
Erythropoietin
ADH
Angiotensin II
ANP
Cholecalciferol
1380. Which of the following is true of mass movements?
They are a modified type of peristalsis that occurs in the large intestine
They are strong peristaltic contractions of the small intestine in response to mucosal irritation
They normally move colonic contents from the cecum to the transverse colon
They normally occur approximately 9 to 12 times per minute
1381. Which of the following hormones lowers plasma level of ionized calcium?
Calcineurin
Calcitonin
Parathyroid hormone
PTH related peptide
1382. Hemolysis is called:
Destruction of red blood cells;

Destruction of leukocytes;
Blood clot formation;
The ratio of plasma and shaped elements.
1383. Summation of post synaptic potentials can occur at the:
axon hillock
axon terminal
cell body
dendritic arm of the neuron
1384. Insulin secretion from beta cells of pancreas in response to a glucose load is mediated by:
GLUT 1
GLUT 2
GLUT 3
GLUT 4
1385. How is the resting membrane potential maintained?
Potassium & sodium ions are moved against their concentration gradient, & this requires energy
The membrane at resting membrane potential is not permeable to any ions, thus no channels are open during this time.
The Na+/K+ ATPase pump ensures that no ions are moving in or out of the cell during resting membrane potential, to maintain
the concentration gradient
all of the above
1386. The most abundant cation in ICF is
Sodium
Potassium
Magnesium
Calcium
1387. In postnatal life, thyroid hormones do not increase oxygen consumption in the:
Heart
Skeletal muscle
Adult brain
Liver
Liver
1388. In the stretch reflex, the afferents are
I a fibers
I b fibers
A delta fibers
none of the above
1389. Which of the following is not excitory neurotransmitters?
acetylcholine
epinaphrine
GABA
glutamate
1390. Factor V Leiden:
Is a mutated form of factor IX
Is inactivated by protein C
Is present in a large subset of patients with venous thromboembolism
all of the above
1391. Which of the following does not occur as a consequence of adrenalectomy?
Reduced alertness
Increased vulnerability to hypotension
Decreased ability to excrete a water load
Glucose intolerance
1392. In a healthy adult, ECF volume constitutes what fraction of body weight?
10%
20%
30%
40%
1393. The prokinetic effects of erythromycin are due to agonist actions on:
histamine receptors
motilin receptors
CCk receptors
somatostatin receptors
1394. Check all correct statements.
The beta cell releases equimolar amounts of insulin and C-peptide.
Nonsuppressible insulin like activity (NSILA) is due to circulating C-peptide.
C-peptide has a shorter half-life compared to insulin.
none of the above
1395. ADH circulates in plasma primarily:
Bound to neurophysin I
Bound to neurophysin II
Bound to plasma albumin
Not bound to plasma proteins
1396. The time of a complete blood circulation in an adult person is on average equal to:
5 - 10 sec.
10 - 15 sec.
15 - 20 sec.
23 - 25 sec.
Greater per unit mass than cerebral blood flow
Is greater in the medulla compared to the cortex
Is closely related to tubular sodium reabsorption
Only sympathetically mediated
1398. How does gastrin stimulate hydrochloric acid secretion by the parietal cells of the gastric gland?
Directly by acting on a gastrin receptor located on the parietal cell
Indirectly through a cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)- mediated pathway
Indirectly through a cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP).- mediated pathway
Indirectly via stimulation of histamine release from enterochromaffin cells

1399. A known amount of heavy water and inulin are injected intravenously into a healthy 35 year old male. The volume of
distribution of heavy water and inulin were 36 liters and 12 liters respectively. Which of the following estimations is most likely?
Plasma volume is 6 liters.
Interstitial fluid volume is 6 liters.
ICF volume is 28 liters.
ECF volume is 12 liters.
1400. Indicate the main reflexogenic zones of respiratory-regulating chemoreceptors:
respiratory muscles;
pleural sheets;
small vessels of the alveoli;
carotid sinus and bulbar respiratory center.
1401. The major stimulator of parathyroid hormone release from the parathyroid gland is:
Vitamin D
A fall in plasma ionized calcium
Calcitonin
A fall in plasma phosphate concentration
1402. The release of gastrin from G cells in the antrum of the stomach is inhibited by:
activation of vagal efferent fibers to the stomach
circulating epinephrine
blood-borne calcium
spmatostatin
1403. What determines resting membrane potential?
electrochemical equilibrium
ionic conductance
movement of K
movement of Na
1404. Bicuspid valve is localized:
in the right atrioventricular opening
in the left atrioventricular opening

at the mouth of the aorta
at the mouth of the pulmonary trunk.
1405. The greatest resistance to blood flow is created in:
the aorta;
arterioles;
capillaries;
venules.
1406. During exercise, a person has tachypnea, because:
mechanoreceptors of the lungs are irritated;
respiratory muscle proprioceptors are irritated;
chemoreceptors of brain vessels are excited;
decreases CO2 in the blood.
1407. The total circulating bile salt pool is approximately:
35 mg
3.5g
150 mg
30 g
1408. The blood brain barrier acts to completely isolate the central nervous system from the external environment, in order to
protect the brain against possible toxins and infection. There are a couple of areas where the BBB is porous, and these are
located in
I, II
I, II, III, IV
III, IV
I, IV
1409. In HCl formation, Cl⁻ enters through the basolateral membrane of parietal cells in exchange for the exit of:
CO2
HCO3⁻
K⁺
Na⁺
1410. Select all correct answers. Which of the following increase insulin resistance?
Leptin
Adiponectin
Resistin
none of the above
1411. The most frequent type of movement in the small intestine in the digestive state is:
peristaltis
antiperistaltis
slow wave
1412. Acidosis is:
Shift the blood reaction in the acidic side;
Shift of blood reaction to the alkaline side;
Change in osmotic pressure;
Change of oncotic pressure.
1413. Amongst plasma proteins, albumin makes the greatest contribution to the colloid osmotic pressure of plasma proteins
because, relative to most plasma proteins, albumin:
Is the most abundant plasma protein
Has the longest half-life
Has the lowest molar mass
Exits the capillary fastest
1414. Red cell antigens A and B are chemically:
Ahospholipids
Glycosphingolipids
Glycopeptides
Polypeptides
1415. Which of the following statement regarding withdrawal reflex is INCORRECT?
It is characterized by flexion of the ipsilateral limb & extension of the contralateral limb when strong noxious stimuli are
applied to the skin.
Flexing pattern is constant despite the site of stimuli varying in the limb.
Withdrawal reflex is prepotent & excludes other reflex activity from taking place.
Increased strength of stimuli will increase the number of motor units being recruited & increase the duration of response.
1416. Concentration and dilution of urine occurs in:
Bowman-Shimlyansky capsule;
loops of Henle and collecting tubules;
only in the collecting tubules of the nephrons;
only in the proximal tubules of the nephrons.
1417. Which of the following statements regarding referred pain is INCORRECT?
Superficial somatic pain is sometimes referred.
Referred pain usually occurs to a structure from the same dermatomal distribution.
Referred pain could be due to convergence of peripheral nerve fiber onto spinothalamic tract, leading to misinterpretation of
the site of pain by the brain.
Maxillary sinus pain is usually referred to the teeth.
1418. The low pressure zone of the cardiovascular system does not include:
the capillaries of the systemic blood circulation;
the capillaries of the pulmonary circulation;
right atrium, left atrium;
arteries of the systemic circulation.
1419. What stimulate the ileocecal sphincter to open?
Change in pH
Distention
Pelvic Nerve
Vagus nerve
1420. Which of the following is an example of monosynaptic reflex?
Stretch reflex
Abdominal reflex
Baroreceptor reflex
All of the above

1421. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR):
Is independent of the size of the capillary bed
Depends only on the hydrostatic and osmotic pressure differences across the capillary
Is determined by the same forces governing filtration across all other capillaries
Depends only on the permeability of the capillary
Requires active transport
1422. The term “brain of the gut” is used to refer to the:
autonomic ganglia
enteric nervous system
migratory motor complex
interstitial cells of Cajal
1423. Which of the following is inhibitory neurotransmitter?
Acetylcholine
Aspartate
Gallamine
Glycine
1424. In the nephrons of the kidneys are filtered:
blood cells;
large-scale plasma proteins;
only metabolites;
low molecular weight components of plasma and water.
1425. Which of the following is inactivated in the lung:
Angiotensin II
Angiotensin I
Bradykinin
Vasopressin
Noradrenaline
1426. Which of the following contributes least to the osmolality of plasma?

Glucose
Proteins
Sodium
Urea
1427. In the descending parts of the loop of Henle nephrons occurs:
dilution of urine;
urine concentration;
the formation of ultrafiltrate;
secretion of water and salts.
1428. Which of the following statement is false?
Decay is determined by the length constant
Electrical potential works if all ion channels open
ENa is the energy associated with the sodium gradient - there is a different polarity & direction
The concentration of a chemical gradient can be represented in terms of energy: delta miu = RT ln ( conc. inside / conc.
outside)
1429. Sympathetic cholinergic nerves innervate the vessels:
skeletal muscle and sweat glands;
the gastrointestinal tract;
the spinal cord and brain;
the heart and lungs.
1430. The group of chemical messengers whose actions are known to be mediated by receptor tyrosine kinases includes:
Angiotensin II, ANP and ET 1
EDRF, ANP and AVP
FSH, LH and GHRH
Insulin, EGF, IGF 1, PDGF
1431. Which of the following is the most potent stimulator of pancreatic secretion?
Cholecystokinin
Histamine
Secretin
Serotonin
1432. Injection of pharmacologic doses of ACTH in healthy experimental animals is least likely to produce a sustained increase
in:
Cortisol secretion
Lymphocyte count
Skin pigmentation
Aldosterone secretion
1433. Which of the following substances is released from the mucosa of the duodenum in response to acidic gastric juice?
Cholecystokinin
Gastric inhibitory peptide
Secretin
Substance P
1434. The following values are obtained on a sample of serum from a child that has clinical evidence of dehydration. Serum [Na]
= 130 mmol/L
rum [glucose] = 540 mg/dL Serum [urea nitrogen] = 56 mg/dL
suming there are no toxins in ECF, the effective serum osmolality is approximately:
290 mOsm/kg H2O
300 mOsm/kg H2O
310 mOsm/ kg H2O
320 mOsm/kg H2O
1435. The adrenal medulla does not normally secrete:
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Chromogranin B
1436. A high level of sympathetic stimulation is most likely to cause which of the following effects on gastrointestinal function?
Decrease in stomach Ph
Decrease motility
Increase in gastric acid secretion
I i i
Increase in mucous secretion
1437. Esophagus at rest is:
Open at the bottom
Open at the top and the bottom
Closed at the top and the bottom
1438. The mitotic spindle is made up of a protein called:
Tubulin
Caveolin
Connexin
Annexin
1439. Which of the following has the longest biologic half-life?
Insulin
Angiotensin II
Glucagon
Thyroxine
1440. In violation of the links between the medulla oblongata and the pons:
breathing does not change;
the smoothness and rhythm of breathing is disturbed.
1441. Which of the following retinal neurons generate 'all or none' action potentials?
Amacrine cell
Bipolar cell
Ganglion cell
Horizontal cell
1442. Transport maximum is:
the amount of a solute filtered in comparison to the amount excreted in urine
the amount of a specific solute entering bowman's capsule

the maximum rate of shuttling of a solute from filtrate into the capillaries
the plasma concentration at which a solute will appear in urine
1443. Indicate the factor that increases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen:
acidosis;
alkalosis;
hyperthermia;
hypercapnia.
1444. 100 mg of sucrose is injected intravenously into an adult male weighing 70 kg. The plasma concentration of sucrose after
mixing is 0.01 mg/ml. If 5 mg of sucrose has been metabolized during this period, the ECF volume in this individual is
approximately:
6 liters
9.5 liters
14 liters
17.5 liters
1445. Which of the following enzymes protects the fetus from hyperthyroidism when the mother is hyperthyroid?
Type I deiodinase (5’ deiodinase); outer ring deiodinase
Type 2 deiodinase (3’ deiodinase)
Type 3 deiodinase (3,3,5 - deiodinase); inner ring deiodinase
Iodotyrosine deiodinase
1446. Which of the following is not a function of bile?
Emulsify fat
Excrete waste product
Facilitates fat digestion and absorption
None of them
1447. Of the following substances, the lipid bilayer per se (i.e., without proteins) is most permeable to:
Sodium ions
Urea
Glucose
Water
1448. Which of the following produces a mixed serous/mucous saliva?
Intrinsic salivary glands
Parotid glands
Sublingual glands
Submandibular glands
1449. Specify a property that is not characteristic of the pleural cavity:
tightness;
the presence of serous fluid;
lack of air;
the presence of air.
1450. Water filtration by the kidney:
Is 180 l/hr
Is 125 ml/min
Up to 90% is reabsorbed
Most drugs have MW less than 600 and are freely filtered
1451. Pulmonary vascular resistance:
Is minimal at FRC
Increases/decreases with increase in lung volume
Increases with elevated CVP
1452. The respiratory minute volume is the amount of air that:
ventilated through the lungs for 1 minute;
enters the lungs for 1 respiratory cycle;
the maximum you can exhale after a deep breath;
the maximum you can exhale after the usual inhalation.
1453. Which of the following stimulates the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex?
Renin
Angiotensin III
↓ plasma [K+]
ANP
1454. Sertoli cells produce:
Androgen-binding protein
Inhibin B
Mullerian inhibiting polypeptide
all of the above
1455. Which of the following substances can inhibit small intestinal motility?
Cholecystokinin
Gastrin
Insulin
Secretin
1456. The osmolar concentration of sodium in normal human plasma is approximately:
275 – 295 mOsm/L
135 – 145 mOsm/L
240 – 250 mOsm/L
95 – 110 mOsm/L
1457. The maximum pressure in the left ventricle is normally:
25–30 mm Hg. v .;
120–130 mm Hg. v .;
20–40 mm Hg. v .;
160–180 mm Hg. Art.
1458. Resistance to renal blood flow is chiefly determined by:
Renal artery
Afferent & efferent arterioles
Interlobular & arcuate arteries
1459. The body fluid compartment that contains more osmotically active particles (in relation to other fluid compartments in
the same individual) is:
Intracellular fluid
Intracellular fluid
Plasma
Interstitial fluid
all of the above
1460. Which biologically active substances are partially degraded by the lung?
Surfactant
Histamine
Angiotensin
Noradrenaline
1461. I tone double valve is heard:
in the 2nd intercostal space at the left edge of the sternum;
in the 2nd intercostal space at the right edge of the sternum;
in the 5th intercostal space, 1.5 cm medially from the mid-clavicule line;
1462. The pattern of electrical and motor activity in the gastrointestinal tract during periods of fasting is called:
basic electrical rhythm
peristaltis
segmentation
1463. Which of the following is a ‘negative’ acute phase reactant?
Albumin
C-reactive protein
α2 macroglobulin
Transferrin
1464. Which of the following is false regarding the transmission of the action potential?
There are potassium channels located at each Node of Ranvier
Myelination increases the speed of transmission exponentially
Dendrites are important contributors to the action potential
The axon hillock is a Nissl free area

1465. The mitochondrial genome is absent from:
Sperm cells , mature red blood cells
Ovum
White blood cells
all of the above
1466. The term oncotic pressure is applied to osmotic pressure exerted by:
Albumin and other plasma proteins across the capillary wall
Crystalloids across the cell membrane
Hemoglobin across the capillary wall
Substances such as urea, lactate, glucose across the cell membrane
1467. Select all correct answers. Mutations in which of the following have been implicated in the pathogenesis of
hypercoagulable states?
Protein C
Protein S
Factor V
all of the above
1468. Blood viscosity is an interaction:
Erythrocytes with plasma salts;
Blood cells and protein between each other;
Cells of the vascular endothelium;
Acidity and bases in the blood plasma.
1469. In clinical practice, the urinary clearance of which substance is most frequently used to estimate GFR?
Inulin
Creatinine
Urea
Mannitol
1470. The normal basal metabolic rate in a euthyroid adult male is (BSA is body surface area):
10-15 kcal/m2BSA/hr
20-25 kcal/m2BSA/hr
35-40 kcal/m2BSA/hr
45-60 kcal/m2BSA/hr
1471. CFTR is found on the ____ surface of cells, allowing Cl⁻ to enter the ____.
apical, cytoplasm
apical, lumen
basolateral, cytoplasm
basolateral, ECF
1472. Which of the following is a normal characteristic of lung?
3,000,000 alveoli
Alveolar diameter 3 mm
External surface area: 10 m2
Alveolar surface area: 5 to 10 m2
None of the above
1473. Which type of sensation is most affected in the lesions in sensory cortex?
Position & fine touch
Temperature differentiation
Pain
Gross touch
1474. Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials are example of:
postsynaptic inhibition
presynaptic inhibition
indirect inhibition
none of the above
1475. Check all correct statements regarding oxytocin.
It is essential for milk ejection
It increases uterine contractility
It facilitates ejaculation of semen
All of the above

1476. The stopcocks of the circulation are:
arterioles
capillaries
valves
venules
1477. Select the correct options for Cholecystokinin (CCK).
It decreases stomach motility.
Its release is inhibited by unprocessed protein.
Its secreted by enterochromaffin cells.
all of the above
1478. A 55-year-old male accident victim in the ED urgently requires a transfusion. His blood group could not be determined as
his red cell group and plasma group did not match. Emergency transfusion should be done with:
RBC corresponding to his red cell group and colloids and crystalloids
Whole blood corresponding to his plasma group.
O positive RBC, colloids and crystalloids
AB negative blood
1479. Regarding nerve fibres, which statement is incorrect?
Action potentials are generated at the initial segment in spinal motor neurons
Membrane is more permeable to potassium than sodium at rest
Resting membrane potential is about -90mV
Sodium channels are highly concentrated at the nodes of ranvier
1480. Mandatory reabsorption in the kidneys is the process of transition of water and all substances valuable to the body, which
occur:
in the proximal tubule of the nephron;
from the blood to the renal tubules;
from the blood into the loop of Henle;
in the Bowman - Shumlyansky capsule.
1481. Which of the following markers administered intravenously distributes exclusively in intracellular fluid?
Evans blue dye

Heavy water
Sucrose
None of the above
1482. Which of the following statements about synaptic potentials is incorrect?
they are propagated down the postsynaptic neuron
they undergo spatiotemporal summation
they are analogous to generator potentials and end-plate potentials
IPSP hyperpolarize the postsynaptic neuron
1483. The cardiocycle begins with:
ventricular systole;
a general pause;
atrial systole;
atrial diastoles.
1484. Which structure not involved in control and processing of conscious movement?
Medial lemniscus
Basal Ganglia
Cerebellum
Primary Motor Cortex
1485. The processing of short term memory to long term memory is done in:
Prefrontal cortex
Hippocampus
Neocortex
Amygdala
1486. Hair cells in organ of Corti are
Mechanoreceptors
Chemoreceptors
Neither
Both A & B are correct

1487. Motor neurons in the myentric plexus that stimulate the contraction of smooth muscle in the gastrointestinal tract
release:
acetylcholine
vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
nitric oxide
somatostatin
1488. Bone resorption is induced by abnormally elevated levels of:
IGF-1
Insulin
Estrogens
Glucocorticoids
1489. The receptor of stretch reflex is the:
muscle spindle
Golgi tendon organ
Pacinian corpuscule
all of the above
1490. Breathing capacity is:
the volume of air that can be inhaled with the maximum inhale after the usual inhalation.
6, - 9 mm Hg. v .;
3, - 4 mm Hg. v .;
15, - 20 mm Hg. v .;
1, 0 mm Hg. v.
1492. Which of the following regarding touch sensation is INCORRECT?
Touch sensation in the spino-thalamic tract is more concerned with gross tactile localization.
Touch sensation in dorsal column is more concerned with localization, spatial & temporal pattern of touch.
Touch sensation is transmitted by C fibers.
All of the above
1493. Respiratory rate in an adult at rest equals:
5–10 / min;
18-20 / min;
25–30 / min;
30–40 / min.
1494. Which of the following inhibits gastric acid secretion by an action on the parietal cell?
acetylcholine
epinephrine
prostaglandine E
histamine
1495. What is the major / principle hormone that stimulates HCl release?
CCK
Gastrin
Intrinsic Factor
Secretin
1496. Which of the following is notsynthesized in the liver?
IgG
α2 macroglobulin
Albumin
Angiotensinogen
1497. Which of these is not a sensory receptor classification?
Adrenoreceptor
Mechanoreceptor
Nociceptor
Photoreceptor
1498. The proenzyme pepsinogen is secreted mainly from which of the following structures?
Motility of the gut
Secretion of the gut
Sphincter tone
Stomach pH
1499. What happens during hyperpolarization?
Membrane potential (Em) goes to the equilibrium potential for potassium ions (Ek)
Membrane potential (Em) goes to the equilibrium potential for sodium ions (ENa)
Sodium permeability increases
all of the above
1500. Intercalated disks are ____ found in _____.
desmosomes, cardiac muscle
desmosomes, skeletal muscle
gap junctions, cardiac muscle
gap junctions, skeletal muscle
1501. JAK-STAT pathways mediate the effects of:
Transducin
Aquaporins
Gusducins
Growth hormone
1502. Which of these statements is false?
Most of the total blood volume is contained in veins.
Exchanges between blood and tissue fluid occur across the walls of venules.
Capillaries have a greater total surface area than any other type of vessel.
Small arteries and arterioles present great resistance to blood flow.
1503. An increase in plasma osmolarity stimulates release of what hormone from the posterior pituitary?
Renin
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Aldosterone
Angiotensin II
1504. Bulk flow - ?
related to concentration gradient
related to permeability coefficient
depends on hydrostatic and oncotic pressure
1505. The Fick principle states that
Oxygen uptake as gas is equal to the arterio-venous oxygen difference in flow through the lungs
Arterio-venous oxygen difference in the brain multiplied by flow equals oxygen uptake
Arterial baroreceptor activation produces bradycardia
None of the above
aorta
pulmonary trunk
pulmonary veins
SVC
1507. What is the definition of cardiac cycle?
The contraction of the atria
Circulation of the blood in the heart
The contraction and relaxation of the ventricles
It is a sequence of event that occurs during one complete heartbeat
1508. The action potential of the cardiac muscle is characterized by the presence of plateau which:
in the ventricular muscle it reached 100 m sec
in the artial muscle, it reached 300 m sec
it result from a balance between Ca++ influx and K+ efflux
it result from an inflow of Cl- and outflow of bicarbonate ions
1509. All cardiac valves are normally closed during which of the following phases of the cardiac cycle?
atrial contraction
systolic ejection
isovolumetric relaxation
ventricular filling
1511. The longest phase in cardiac cycle is:
1512. Elevated circulating levels of aldosterone causes the kidneys to reabsorb more sodium and water, which increases blood
volume and arterial pressure.
True
False
1513. Blood pressure human is measured by the
Electro-cardiogram
Stethoscope
Sphygmomanometer
Barometer
1514. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true
Laminar flow is characterized by concentric layers of blood moving in parallel down the length of a blood vessel.
Visceral pericardium and parietal pericardium secretes protein-rich fluid which fills the space between layers
Turbulent flow is characterized by concentric layers of blood moving in parallel down the length of a blood vessel.
AV node – the pacemaker of the heart, located in the posterior wall of the right atrium

1516. Which types of blood is carried by the blood vessel marked 2?
deoxygenated
oxygenated
1517. Starling's law of the heart
Does not operate in the failing heart
Does not operate during exercise
Explains the increase in cardiac output that occurs when venous return is increased
Explains the increase in cardiac output when the sympathetic nerves supplying the heart are stimulated
1518. The left ventricle has a thicker wall than the right ventricle because :
it is richer in blood supply
it ejects blood through a narrower orifice
it ejects a greater cardiac output .
it ejects blood against a higher pressure
it contracts at a higher rate
1519. What is the function of the heart:
blood depot;
blood pumping
hematopoiesis
Vessel diameter
Blood volume
Heart rate
Contractility
1521. Which of the following is not true for ventricular systole?

The ventricles relax
The ventricles contract
The semi lunar valves close
The atrioventricular valves open
1522. What cells in the kidney monitor blood pressure, releasing renin when blood pressure is low?
Cortical cells
Angiotensinogen cells
All of the above
Septal
Inferior
Anterior
Lateral
70 ml
700 ml
156 ml
35 ml
1525. Autorhythmicity has:
myocardial contractile cell
pericardium
myocardium conductive cell
endocardium
1526. The absolute refractory period in the ventricle :
increases during sympathetic stimulation
coincides with the phase of rapid depolarization and the plateau
corresponds with the whole duration of action potential

it is shorter than the ARP of skeletal muscle
cardiac cycle. During the cardiac cycle:
The atria and the ventricles contract simultaneously.
1528. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct
Diastolic blood pressure (SBP) represents the pressure in the blood vessels when the heart contracts (systole)
Diastolic blood pressure (DBP) represents the pressure in the blood vessels between heartbeats (diastole)
Pulse pressure is calculated by subtracting SBP from DBP
Systolic blood pressure (SBP) represents the pressure in the blood vessels when the heart contracts (systole)
1529. Minimum blood Pressure is in:
Aorta
Arteries
Capillaries
Venules
1530. The volume of blood pumped per minute by the left ventricle is
greater than the volume pumped by the right ventricle.
less than the volume pumped by the right ventricle.
is the stroke volume
the mouth of the aorta
the mouth of the vena cava
the mouth of the pulmonary veins
between the atria and ventricles
1532. The pressure drop in the systemic circulation is greatest along which types of vessels?
aorta
arterioles
l di t ib ti l
large distributing vessels
capillaries
1533. Both atrioventricular valves , aortic pulnionary valve are all closed in
Atrial systole
Ventricular ejection
Atrial diastole
Isometric ventricular relaxation
1534. Which ONE of the following is true:
Right atrial systole and left atrial systole occur at same time
Pulmonary valve closes before aortic in inspiration
RV ejection precedes LV ejection
c wave of atrial pressure trace occurs at time of peak aortic pressure
1535. Which of the following receptor types are located on blood vessels and initiate smooth muscle contraction when its
associated autonomic neurotransmitter binds to the receptor?
alpha-1
beta-1
beta-2
muscarinic type 2
1536. The velocity of blood flow decreases if
vessel radius increases.
blood pressure increases.
viscosity increases.
afterload increases.
1537. Arterial systolic pressure occurs during left ventricular ejection, whereas arterial diastolic pressure occurs just before left
ventricular ejection.
True
False
1538. Resistance is determined by the ratio of perfusion pressure divided by blood flow.
true
false
1539. All arteries in the body contain oxygen-rich blood with the exception of
the aorta
the pulmonary artery
the renal artery
coronary sinus
1540. Which of the following statements is (are) false
The RAAS system starts with renin, a hormone released from granular cells in the hippocampus
The RAAS system starts with renin, a hormone released from granular cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus
Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction in the systemic circulation
Antidiuretic hormone is made by cell bodies located in the hypothalamus and released from the adjacent posterior pituitary.
1541. A change in blood pressure that decreases the impulses to the cardiovascular center results in increased impulses from
1542. Regarding the S-A node :
sympathetic stimulation decreases the slope of the pace - maker potential .
cells within the S-A node act as heart pace maker because their membrane depolarized to threshold and initiate an action
potential
acetyl choline increases the slope of the pace - maker potential .
the pace - maker cells within the S-A node are neurons rather than myocytes
1543. How does angiotensin II raise blood pressure?
Directly by increasing vasoconstriction and indirectly by stimulating aldosterone release
Only by increasing sodium (and, thus, water) reabsorption in the kidney
Only by causing vasoconstriction
1544. The firing rate of SA nodal pacemaker action potentials is decreased by
hyperthyroidism
hypokalemia which increases the slope of phase 4
increased circulating concentrations of epinephrine
vagus nerve activation which decreases the slope of phase 4
1545. The conduction velocity of AV nodal action potentials is increased by
cellular hypoxia
decreasing the slope of phase 4 of the AV nodal cells
drugs that activate the vagus nerves to the heart
stimulation of sympathetic adrenergic nerves
1546. The initial depolarization during a cardiac muscle action potential results from
a large decrease in intracellular potassium concentration
a large increase in intracellular sodium concentration
an increase in the relative conductance of potassium
opening of fast sodium channels
1547. Starling's law of heart states that the force of ventricular contraction is directly related to the end diastolic volume
True
False
1548. Which of the following, by decreasing blood viscosity, can increase blood flow at a given perfusion pressure?
decreased temperature
decreased concentration of red blood cells
low flow states
1549. What is true regarding vein
All the veins carry deoxygenated blood
All the veins carry Oxygenated blood
They carry blood from organs towards the heart
1550. Blood flow across a normal heart valve normally generates only a very small pressure gradient because valve resistance
is very low.
True
False
1551. The capillaries of skeletal muscles are of the structural type called __ _____
sinusoidal
continuous
discontinuous
fenestrated
all of the above
1552. The volume of blood is greatest in:
Systemic capillaries
Large veins
Small arteries
The lungs
contraction.
10%
20%
44%
32%
1554. The maximal rate of pressure development within the left ventricle occurs
during isovolumetric contraction
during rapid ventricular ejection
at peak left ventricular systolic pressure
during rapid ventricular filling
1555. The carotid sinus baroreceptors are located on the internal carotid arteries and are innervated by the vagus nerve.
True
False
1556. Starling's law of heart states that increase in force of contraction is directly related to cardiac output
True
False
1557. The action potential of cardiac muscle differs from that of skeletal muscles in:
it is propagated more slowly .
it is shorter in duration
it has a higher amplitude
it has no plateau
all of the above
1558. A change in blood pressure that increases the impulses to the cardiovascular center results in increased impulses from
Large arteries
Small arteries
Capillaries
Venules
ensuring metabolism in organs and tissues
discharge of blood from arterioles into venules, bypassing capillaries
the transformation of intermittent blood flow in continuous
the transformation of the laminar flow of blood into a turbulent
1561. All the following are correct except :
the left atrial wall is about the same thickness as the right atrium
the left ventricle is separated from the left atrium by a bicuspid valve
Purkinje system allows the excitation of all ventricular muscle fibers to occur at nearly the same time
the right heart receives oxygenated blood from the four pulmonary veins
1562. Isometric ventricular contraction

Lasts for about 0.5 s
Is a phase where all four cardiac values closed. Causes a sharp increase in atrial pressure
1564. The tendency for blood flow to be turbulent is increased by?
increased viscosity
increased hematocrit
partial occlusion of a blood vessel
decreased velocity of blood flow
1565. Long term control of tissue blood flow includes:
Nitric oxide
Baroreceptor reflex
Change in tissue vascularity
None of the above
1566. The vessels that carry oxygenated blood back to the heart are called
pulmonary arteries
pulmonary veins
aorta
superior and inferior venae cavae
1567. Aorta and arteries are:
vessels of elastic type
muscle vessels
muscle and elastic vessels
armless vessels
1568. Closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves produces which heart sound?
S1
S2
S3
S4
forms valves
softens friction
generates pulses
provides a reduction of chambers in the heart
1571. n a typical human cardiac cycle, the volume of blood remaining in the left ventricle at the end of ventricular systole is
10 mL
25 mL
100 mL
50 mL
1572. Heartbeat is accelerated by
Sympathetic nerves and acetylcholine
Cranial nerves and adrenaline
Cranial nerves and acetylcholine
Sympathetic nerves and epinephrine
contraction.
10%
20%
80%
50%
1574. The SA node is the normal pacemaker because of its :
rate of impulse discharge
location in the atrium
neural control
relative position to the A.V node
1575. A sudden fall in arterial blood pressure as occurs when a person rapidly stands up causes
increased firing of the carotid sinus baroreceptors
increased stimulation of the nucleus tractus solitarius
increased sympathetic adrenergic efferent activity
decreased firing of carotid body receptors
0,008 sec
0,8 sec
0,037 sec
3 sec
medulla oblongata
hippocampus
spinal cord
cerebral cortex
1578. Cardiac muscle is different from skeletal muscle because:
Fast Na+ channels
Slow Ca++ channels
Presence of actin
Presence of myosin
1579. Compared to laminar flow, what hemodynamic changes occur in a blood vessel when turbulent flow is present?
a greater perfusion pressure is required to drive a given flow
flow is increased at given perfusion pressure
resistance to flow decreases
the slope of the relationship between flow and perfusion pressure increases
1580. As blood flows away from the heart, the mean blood pressure has the greatest decline across which class of vessels?
large distributing arteries
veins
capillaries
arterioles
1581. The mitral valve normally opens at the beginning of diastolic filling because
left atrial contraction forces open the valve
left ventricular pressure falls below the left atrial pressure
the papillary muscles contract
the papillary muscles relax
1582. Properties of cardiac muscle include
Excitability
Automaticity
Contractility
Conductivity
All of the answers are true
Heart rate
Pulse pressure
Heart rate and stroke volume
blood flow velocity
The hydrostatic pressure in the left ventricle is higher than the hydrostatic pressure in the PV.
1586. Normal rhythm of the heart originates from
cells within the atrioventricular node
cells within the sinoatrial node
ectopic pacemakers
sympathetic nerve activity
1587. Increased sympathetic nerve activity at the heart would cause:
An increase in heart rate only
An increase in both heart rate and contractility
A decrease in heart rate and contractility
An increase in contractility only
1589. Using the Fick Principle, cardiac output can be calculated by
dividing the arterial-venous pressure difference by the systemic vascular resistance
dividing the whole body oxygen consumption by the arterial-venous oxygen content difference
multiplying the stroke volume and heart rate
multiplying the whole body oxygen consumption and the arterial-venous oxygen content difference
1590. The aortic pulse pressure increases with a person’s age. The increased pulse pressure most commonly results from
decreased aortic compliance
increased left ventricular stroke volume
reduced left ventricular ejection velocity
1591. Cardiac action potentials have a much longer action potential than both nerve and skeletal muscle action potentials.
True
False
1592. Ventricular systole is defined as the time between the
closing of the aortic valve and the opening of the mitral valve
closing of the mitral valve and the closing of the aortic valve
opening and closing of the aortic valve
opening of the aortic valve and the opening of the mitral valve
1593. When the left ventricular stroke volume is 40 mL/beat and the heart rate is 80 beats/minute, the cardiac output is
2 liters/minute
3.2 liters/minute
5 liters/minute
1594. An increase in arteriolar resistance, without a change in any other component of the cardiovascular system, will produce:
A decrease in total peripheral resistance (TPR)
An increase in capillary filtration
An increase in arterial pressure
A decrease in afterload
1595. An increase in blood volume and arterial pressure will occur if the kidneys excrete excessive amounts sodium and water.
True
False

All of the above
1597. The value of blood pressure depends on:
strength, heart rate
peripheral resistance
volume and viscosity of circulating blood
all of the above
1598. Which reflex is represented in the following picture?
Danini-Ashner reflex
Baroreceptor reflex
Exercise Pressor Reflex
1600. The basis of the autorhythmicity of the heart is:
potassium hyperpolarization
resistant sodium depolarization
interaction of acetylcholine with M- cholinergic receptors
spontaneous slow diastolic depolarization
1601. The cardiac conduction system includes all of the following except
the SA node
chordae tendineae
Purkinje fibers
the AV node
1602. The expiratory and inspiratory parts of the respiratory center are located in:
the medulla;
the midbrain;
the midbrain;
the hypothalamus;
the spinal cord.
1603. Which of the following prevents the alveoli from collapsing?
tidal volume
residual volume
1604. The major reasons of anemic hypoxia are all except
Reduced erythropoiesis
Bloodloss
Synthesis of abnormal hemoglobin
Cyanide poisoning
1605. The volume of air that can be exhaled after normal exhalation is the
tidal volume
residual volume
Cl⁻
Enterokinase
Kazal
NaHCO3
Lingual lipase
Lysozyme
Salivary amylase
1608. The nose serves all the following functions EXCEPT:
as the initiator of the cough reflex
warming and humidifying the air
cleansing the air
as a passageway for air movement
atony.
churning.
mixing.
peristalsis.
1610. Which of the following is true about the parotid gland?
It has a predominantly mucous secretion
It is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
It is the smallest salivary gland
It produces the majority of saliva by volume
1611. The surface of the airways is lined with:
ciliated epithelium;
endothelium;
alveolocytes;
stratified keratinized epithelium.
1613. When the diaphragm and external intercostals muscles contract, which of the following actions does NOT occur?
air moves into the lung
the intrapleural pressure increases

t e t ap eu a p essu e c eases
the diaphragm moves inferiorly
the intrapulmonary pressure decreases
1615. What is indicated by number 16?
Descending colon
Ascending colon
Sigmoid colon
Caecum
1616. Which of the body systems listed below cooperate to supply O2 to cells and eliminate CO2? 1) digestive system 2)
cardiovascular system 3) urinary system 4) respiratory system 5) endocrine system
3, 5
2, 4
1, 2
1, 2, 4
lingual lipase
gastric lipase
pancreatic lipase
lipoprotein lipase

stomach
duodenum
jejunum
colon
1620. Passive exhalation occurs due to:
contraction of the external intercostal muscles and diaphragm;
relaxation of the external intercostal muscles and diaphragm;
contraction of the abdominal muscles;
contraction of the internal intercostal muscles.
1621. Respiratory control chemoreceptors are sensitive to:
hypocapnia, alkalosis;
hypercapnia, acidosis, hypoxemia;
hyperoxia, alkalosis;
somatostatin, ADH.
1622. Select correct statement(s)
Carbon dioxide is 24 times more soluble in blood than oxygen is
About 10% of the CO2 is carried as plasma bicarbonate.
Bicarbonate is formed in the red blood cell but it is carried in the plasma compartment.
Expiratory center is located in cerebral cortex and is responsible primarily for expiration.
1623. Respiratory arrest occurs when:
damage to the medulla oblongata;
transection of the brain stem in the region of the diencephalon;
transection of the brain stem above the pons;
transection of the brain stem below the pons.
residual volume
tidal volume
total lung capacity
1625. Which of the following formulas is correct for inspiratory capacity?
TV+IRV
IRV+RV
IRV+ERV+TV
ERV+TV
1627. Acinus is:
upper airway;
autonomic ganglia
bile salts
CCK
secretin
gastrin

Emulsify fat
None of them
anaemia
cyanide poisoning
carbon monoxide poisoning
1632. Select wrong statement(s)
Most of the muscles of chewing are innervated by the motor branch of the fifth cranial nerve
Mixed saliva contains 99.4-99.5% of water; the remaining part is a dry residue. PH of mixed saliva is 3-6.
Lingual lipase, an enzyme that is activated by stomach acid and digests fat after the food is swallowed
Daily secretion of saliva normally ranges between 800 and 1500 milliliters
1634. What does the arrow show?
Residual volume, the volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximum forceful inspiration. Reference values for residual
volume are 2 to 3 L
Residual volume, the volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximum forceful expiration. Reference values for residual
volume are 1 to 1.2 L
RV, reserve volume, the amount of air that we expire forcefully. Reference values for residual volume are 1 to 1.2 L
Residual volume, the volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximum forceful expiration. Reference values for residual
volume are about 500-600mL

Carboxypeptidase
Chymotrypsin
Pepsin
None of the above
1637. Which of the following contains regulatory centers for the respiratory and circulatory systems
cerebrum
medulla oblongata
hyppocampus
thalamus
1638. What is the structure indicated by C letter?
Duct of intestinal gland
Arteriole
Lacteal
Venule
1640. The flow of air into the alveoli during inhalation occurs due to:
the difference between blood pressure and the force of the elastic thrust of the lungs;
elastic thrust of the lungs;
the difference between atmospheric and intraalveolar pressure;
the difference between the partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in the alveolar air.
Lipids
Monosaccharides
Proteins
1642. The exchange of gases between blood and cells is called
pulmonary ventilation
internal respiration
external respiration
cellular respiration
1643. During internal and external respiration, gases move by
osmosis
active transport
diffusion
endocytosis
peristaltis
segmentation

increases the surface tension of the water film.
1647. A decrease in volume leads to a(n) ________ pressure.
decrease in
zero
equalization of
increase in
1648. All of the followings true about HCl except
It activates pepsinogen into pepsin
It has bacteriolytic action
It causes acidity of the chyme
It provides acid medium for the action of enzymes
Is secreted by chief cells
1649. Select the correct statement(s) about mucosa of GIT
It lines the lumen
The epithelium is simple columnar in most of the digestive tract
Is a thicker layer of loose connective tissue containing blood vessels
Is composed of a thin layer of areolar tissue topped by a simple squamous mesothelium
secretin
CCK
somatostatin
all of the above
1651. O2 and CO2 are transported by:
red blood cells;
leukocytes;
platelets;
plasma proteins.
Fat
Protein
Starch
1653. In HCl formation, Cl⁻ enters through the basolateral membrane of parietal cells in exchange for the exit of:
CO2
HCO3⁻
K⁺
Na⁺
1654. When we inhale
alveolar pressure decreases and intrapleural pressure increases
both alveolar pressure and intrapleural pressure increase
both alveolar pressure and intrapleural pressure decrease
alveolar pressure increases and intrapleural pressure decreases
1655. The major humoral mediator of meal-stimulated enzyme secretion is:
secretin
CCK
GIP
gastrin
1656. What is the structure indicated by A letter?
Epithelium
Lacteal
Arteriole
Venule
The hepatopancreatic sphincter (sphincter of Oddi) regulates the flow of both bile and pancreatic juice from the ampulla into
the duodenum
the duodenum.
Lacteal are the vessels which absorb lipids and transport them into the bloodstream by lymphatic system
There are an estimated 100 microvilli per square millimeter of small intestine
The ileum is the shortest part of the small intestine
1658. Anemic hypoxia occurs when:
1659. The pressure difference between the intra-alveolar and intrapleural pressures is called ________.
negative pressure
pulmonary pressure
atmospheric pressure
transpulmonary pressure
1660. Which of the following is not secreted by parietal cells?
Gastroferritin
HCl
Intrinsic factor
Pepsinogen
1661. Select the incorrect statement
Minute Volume (MV): Is normally about 6 L
Expiratory reserve volume (ERV): additional volume that can be inspired after a passive inspiration
Vital capacity (VC): maximal volume that can be expired after a maximal inspiration
Transpulmonary pressure is the difference between the intrapleural and intra-alveolar pressures, and it determines the size of
the lungs
Atmospheric pressure is the amount of force that is exerted by gases in the air surrounding any given surface, such as the
body.
1662. Which of the following is not typically found in saliva?
Bicarbonate
HCl
IgA
Lysozyme
1663. Surface tension of the alveolar fluid is reduced by the presence of
mucus
sebum
surfactant
water
Diaphragm
Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles and abdominal muscles
1665. Circulatory hypoxia occurs when:
reducing the partial pressure of O2 in the atmospheric
the air;
1666. Gas flow decreases as ________ increases.
resistance
pressure
airway diameter
friction
1667. The primary chemical stimulus for breathing is the concentration of
carbon monoxide in the blood
carbon dioxide in the blood
oxygen in the blood
carbonic acid in the blood

1668. Enterocytes are replenished by miotically active undifferentiated cells located in:
Brunner’s glands
Crypts of Lieberkuhn
Peyer’s patches
gut associated lymphoid tissue
1669. Most oxygen in the blood is transported
as gas dissolved in plasma
as oxyhemoglobin
as carboxyhemoglobin
as bicarbonate
1671. Which is the most important cholagogue?
secretin
CCK
gastrin
GIP
1672. Which of the following processes does atmospheric pressure play a role in?
resistance
surface tension
production of pulmonary surfactant
1673. Regions of stomach include all except
Cardiac region
Fundus
Pylorus
Body
None of the above
1674. Which of the following describes a correct order of structures in the respiratory passageways?
pharynx, trachea, larynx, bronchi, bronchioles b. c. d.
larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi
trachea, pharynx, larynx, bronchi, bronchioles
pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles
Type I, appear in the empty stomach when the tone of the stomach is low. The type I contractions are single contractions and
each one lasts for 20 seconds.
Type III contractions Otherwise called incomplete tetanus
Hunger contractions are the peristaltic waves superimposed over the contractions of gastric smooth muscle as a whole.
Type II hunger contractions occur when the tonus of stomach is stronger. These contractions last for 10 minutes
1676. External breathing is:
the exchange of gases between the lungs and blood;
transport of gases by blood;
the exchange of gases between atmospheric and alveolar air;
the exchange of gases between the blood and tissues.
1677. Which of the following is a normal characteristic of lung?
3,000,000 alveoli
Alveolar diameter 3 mm
External surface area: 10 m2
Alveolar surface area: 5 to 10 m2
None of the above
1678. In the lungs
PCO2 in the alveoli is the same as that in the capillaries
PO2 in the alveoli is the same as that in the capillaries
PCO2 in the alveoli is higher than that in the capillaries
PCO2 in the alveoli is lower than that in the capillaries

5–10 / min;
18-20 / min;
25–30 / min;
30–40 / min.
Parotid gland
Sublingual gland
Submandibular gland
tightness;
lack of air;
1682. Which pattern of motility hastens the transit of chyme in the small intestine in the digestive state?
mass action contraction
peristaltis
Buccal
Parotid
Sublingual
Submandibular
1684. Which of the following refers to minute ventilation?
the minimum volume that can be expired at rest
the volume of air breathed per minute

the volume of air that remains in collapsed lungs
all of the above
1686. Inhale is:
1687. The pressure in the pleural cavity with deep expiration is:
6 - 9 mm Hg. v .;
3 –4 mm Hg. v .;
15 - 20 mm Hg. v .;
1, 0 mm Hg. v .;
protective (coughing, sneezing);
Goering-Breuer;
1689. Select the correct statemen(s)
The ileum is the longest part of the small intestine
The ileum is the shortest part of the small intestine
Duodenum has 3 parts
Brunner’s glands are inhibited by sympathetic stimulation

acini
pancreas
epithelial ducts
stomach
the trachea;
bronchi.
glucose
amino acids
galactose
fructose
1694. Which of these processes occurs in the mouth?
mechanical digestion
ingestion
chemical digestion
all of the above
1695. During swallowing, the glottis is covered by
false vocal cord
true vocal cord
epiglottis
Adam’s apple
1696. What does this picture represent?
Intestinal villi
Intestinal microvilli
Intestinal Lieberkuhn gland
Major papilla of duodenum
Gastrin
Pepsinogen
Secretin
1698. What is the following structure?
Pylorus
Ileum
Jejunum
Duodenum
Open at the top
Open at the bottom
1700. The residual volume is:
the amount of air that can be inhaled during maximum inspiration

is typically 150ml
all of the above
1702. Select the correct statement(s)
Intrinsic salivary glands secrete relatively small amounts of saliva at a fairly constant rate whether we are eating or not
The act of deglutition is separated into two phases: oral and esophageal
Chyme is the solid material produced by the oral digestion of food
The cardiac region of stomach is subdivided into a funnel-like antrum and a narrower pyloric canal.
1703. As blood enters the systemic capillaries
PO2 in the blood is the same as PCO2 in the tissues
PO2 in the blood is higher than that in the tissues
PO2 in the blood is lower than that in the tissues
PO2 in the blood is the same as that in the tissues
in the alveoli there is a surfactant that reduces surface tension;
pleural sheets have the ability to absorb water.
1705. What is the maximum of volume that can be inspired at rest after a normal inspiration?
residual volume
1706. Which statement(s) is(are) wrong about liver
The liver is the largest gland in the body
Heparin, Urea, Bile juice are secreted in liver
Bile juice and pancreatic juice are secreted into the small intestine by separate ducts
Unused glucose is stored in liver in the form of glycogen

1707. Which statement(s) is(are) true about histotoxic hypoxia
It is caused by a decrease in the amount of hemoglobin available for binding of O2 so that the O2 content of the arterial blood
is abnormally low
If the tissues are unable to use oxygen brought to them by blood, even that results in hypoxia.
Cyanide poisoning is one of reasons go histotoxic hypoxia
All of the above
1708. Contraction of the external intercostal muscles causes which of the following to occur?
The thoracic cavity volume decreases.
The ribs and sternum move upward.
The rib cage is compressed.
The diaphragm moves downward.
1710. Select the correct statement(s)
The small intestine receives not only chyme from the stomach but also secretions from the liver and pancreas
The duct of Santorini enters the duodenum more distally than the duct of Wirsung.
Pancreatic juice increases acidity in intestine
Bile is secreted by gallbladder
Bile salts prevent the formation of gallstone by keeping the cholesterol and lecithin in solution
1711. What is indicated by number 13?
Common bile duct
Main pancreatic duct
Pancreas
No correct answer

trapezius
diaphragm
intercostals
Bile Salts
Ca²⁺
Vitamin B12
Vitamin C
1714. During gastric emptying, chyme is released into the duodenum through the ________.
esophageal hiatus
pyloric antrum
pyloric canal
pyloric sphincter
1715. In violation of the links between the medulla oblongata and the pons:
breathing does not change;
the smoothness and rhythm of breathing is disturbed.
1716. What do chief cells of stomach secrete?
HCl
Pepsinogen
Pepsin
Factor of Castle
1717. Hypoxic hypoxia occurs when:
changes in the functions of respiratory tissue enzymes;
reducing the number of red blood cells.

1719. Motor neurons in the myentric plexus that stimulate the contraction of smooth muscle in the gastrointestinal tract release
acetylcholine
nitric oxide
somatostatin
1720. The most frequent type of movement in the small intestine in the digestive state is:
peristaltis
antiperistaltis
slow wave
1721. In the mountains, the magnitude of the atmospheric pressure and the gas composition of the air change as follows:
atmospheric pressure and% gas content in the atmosphere decrease;
atmospheric pressure increases and% composition of gases does not change;
atmospheric pressure decreases and the% composition of gases does not change;
atmospheric pressure and% composition of gases increase.
expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume
residual volume
tidal volume
vital capacity
1724. Select the statement, which is correct order of layers of GIT wall from inner to outer
mucosa,muscularis,submucosa,serosa
submucosa, mucosa,serosa,muscularis
mucosa, submucosa,muscularis,serosa
serosa,muscularis,submucosa,mucosa
1725. What is the following structure?
Ileum
Caecum
Duodenum
Jajunum
are hydrophobic
contain cholesterol
1728. Acinus is
upper airway;

Cool down air
1730. Actions of gastrin all are except
It inhibits the secretion of pepsinogen and hydrochloric acid by the gastric glands
It increases the motility of stomach
It promotes growth of gastric mucosa
It causes secretion of pancreatic juice, which is rich in enzymes
It stimulates production of hormones by pancreas
1731. Gas exchange occurs in:
large bronchi;
the alveoli;
medium bronchi;
trachea
1732. The heart muscle is a ________ effector.
somatic
sympathetic
visceral
afferent
higher-order
1733. Identify the branch of biological science that deals with the study of how living organisms perform their vital functions.
genetics
physiology
embryology
cytology
anatomy
1734. The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are .....
globulins.
transport proteins.
albumins.
lipoproteins.
fibrinogens.
1735. The white matter of the spinal cord is mainly .....
unmyelinated axons.
neuroglia.
Schwann cells.
myelinated axons.
nodes of Ranvier.
1736. Homeostatic regulation usually involves a(n) ________ that detects a particular stimulus, and a(n) ________ that responds to
the stimulus by communicating with a(n) ________ whose activity has an effect on the same stimulus.
control center; effector; receptor
receiver; communicator; effector
receptor; control center; effector
effector; receiver; communicator
control center; receiver; effector
1737. When body temperature rises, a center in the brain initiates physiological changes to decrease the body temperature. This
is an example of .....
negative feedback.
positive feedback.
nonhomeostatic regulation.
diagnostic regulation.
fever.
1738. Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume.
55; 92
92; 7
92; 55
45; 55
50; 50
1739. A person's blood type is determined by the .....
size of the RBCs.
volume of the RBCs.
chemical composition of the hemoglobin.
presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane.
shape of the RBCs.
1740. Spinal nerves are .....
purely sensory.
purely motor.
both sensory and motor.
interneuronal.
involuntary.
1741. The part of the peripheral nervous system that carries sensory information to the CNS is designated .....
motor.
afferent.
efferent.
autonomic.
somatic.
1742. A plasma protein essential for blood clotting is .....
albumin alpha.
immunoglobulin A.
lipoprotein C.
fibrinogen.
metalloprotein D.
1743. Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most complex to the simplest?
ll l ti l l t i
cellular, tissue, molecular, organ system, organ, organism
molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, organism
tissue, cellular, molecular, organ, organ system, organism
organ, organism, molecular, cellular, tissue, organ system
organism, organ system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular
1744. Parasympathetic functions include all of the following, except .....
decrease in the rate of cardiac contraction.
constriction of the pupils.
dilation of the airways.
stimulation of urination.
stimulation of defecation.
1745. The clumping of red blood cells, when the specific antibody against the antigen on the cells is added, is called .....
coagulation.
hemostasis.
agglutination.
areolation.
vascularization.
1746. Blood volume represents about ________ percent of a person's body weight.
15
25
42
1747. The ________ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord.
autonomic
peripheral
central
efferent
afferent
1748. Erythropoiesis is stimulated when .....
oxygen levels in the blood increase.
blood flow to the kidney declines.
coagulation begins.
carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease.
1749. Which white blood cell is most effective against parasitic infections?
neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils
monoctyes
lymphocytes
1750. Antigens of the surface of red blood cells are also called ________ and antibodies in the blood plasma are also called
________.
agglutinogens; agglutinins
agglutinins; agglutinogens
T-cells; B-cells
erythrogens; antibiotics
serum; plasma
1751. Substances that can carry electrical current across cell membranes are called .....
electrons.
electrolytes.
nonelectrolytes.
osmoregulators.
buffers.
1752. Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for .....
muscle fatigue.
the conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber.
muscle contraction.
muscle relaxation.
the striped appearance of skeletal muscle.
1753. The medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain comprise the .....
basal ganglia.
brain stem.
telencephalon.
ventricles.
diencephalon.
1754. The basic functional unit of the nervous system is the .....
neuron.
nerve.
axon.
glial cell.
receptor.
1755. When you perform a physical activity that you have not done in a while, such as riding a bike, which area of your brain
coordinates your movements with learned experiences?
thalamus
pons
midbrain
cerebellum
medulla oblongata
1756. The average life span of a red blood cell is .....
24 hours.
1 month.
4 months.
about 1 year.
many years.
1757. A person whose platelet count is 40,000/µl is suffering from .....
thrombocytosis.
leukocytosis.
hemocytosis.
thrombocytopenia.
leukopenia.
1758. Which pH is closest to normal body pH?
pH 7
pH 8
pH 4
pH 3
pH 2
1759. The most abundant class of neuron in the central nervous system is .....
anaxonic.
bipolar.
multipolar.
pseudopolar.
unipolar.
1760. The ________ nervous system carries impulses to skeletal muscles.
somatic
sympathetic
parasympathetic
afferent
autonomic
1761. Water molecules move across cells by .....
osmosis.
primary active transport.
secondary active transport.
activity of the sodium-potassium pump.
phagocytosis.
1762. The ________ provides the principal link between the nervous and endocrine systems.
medulla oblongata
cerebellum
pons
cerebrum
hypothalamus
1763. ________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
Vascular spasm
The platelet phase
Retraction
Coagulation
Fibrinolysis
1764. Type AB blood has which of the following characteristics?
RBCs have the Rh positive antigens and the anti-D plasma antibodies.
RBCs have no surface antigens and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma.
RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies.
RBCs have the A and the B surface antigens and the plasma has anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
RBCs have the A antigen and the plasma has the anti-B antibody.
1765. Plasma is closest in composition to .....
urine.
isotonic saline solution.
sterile water.
interstitial fluid.
1766. The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function during "rest and digest."
sympathetic
parasympathetic
thoracolumbar
visceral
somatomotor
somatomotor
1767. Which of the following best describes the term sarcomere?
protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle
repeating unit of striated myofibrils
storage site for calcium ions
thin filaments are anchored here
largely made of myosin molecules
1768. Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of .....
magnesium.
calcium.
iron.
sodium.
copper.
1769. General sense receptors are typically the .....
dendrites of motor neurons.
dendrites of sensory neurons.
axons of motor neurons.
axons of sensory neurons.
cell bodies of sensory neurons.
1770. The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the .....
eosinophils.
basophils.
lymphocytes.
neutrophils.
monocytes.
1771. Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes?
adhere to collagen beneath endothelium
helper cells are one type
develop into plasma cells and produce antibodies in response to antigens

kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide
often elevated in allergic individuals
1772. The principal cation in intracellular fluid is .....
sodium.
potassium.
calcium.
magnesium.
chloride.
1773. The largest and most numerous of the glial cells in the central nervous system are the ....
satellite cells.
astrocytes.
oligodendrocytes.
microglia.
ependymal cells.
1774. The ________ division of the nervous system carries motor commands to muscles and glands.
spinal
peripheral
autonomic
afferent
efferent
1775. Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone .....
thymosin.
angiotensin.
erythropoietin.
thymopoietin.
renin.
1776. The plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is called the ....
sarcolemma.
sarcomere.
sarcosome.
sarcoplasmic reticulum.
sarcoplasm.
1777. Each thin filament consists of .....
two actin protein strands coiled helically around each other.
chains of myosin molecules.
six molecules coiled into a helical structure.
a rod-shaped structure with "heads" projecting from each end.
a double strand of myosin molecules.
1778. Excess iron is stored in the liver and spleen as .....
hemosiderin and ferritin.
transferrin.
bilirubin and biliverdin.
hemoglobin.
urobilin and stercobilin.
1779. ________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic
cells.
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
1780. The function of platelets is to assist in the .....
destruction of bacteria.
process called hemostasis.
removal of worn out red blood cells.
immune response during an infection.
transport of blood gases such as oxygen.

1781. The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the .....
viscosity.
specific gravity.
packed volume.
hematocrit.
differential cell count.
1782. The chemoreceptors in the medulla are directly stimulated by
CO2 from the blood.
H+ from the blood.
H+ in cerebrospinal fluid that is derived from blood CO2.
decreased arterial PO2
1783. Auerbach's Plexus is also known as what?
Enteric plexus
Interstital cells of Cajal.
Myenteric plexus.
Submucosal plexus.
1784. Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?
transports O2 to the tissues.
contributes to maintenance of normal acid- base balance.
provides a route for heat and water elimination.
enables speech, singing, and other vocalization.
1785. Absorption of water in the small intestine occurs by which of the following?
Active transport
Couple transport with glucose
Passive diffusion
Solvent drag
Bile Salts
Ca²⁺
Vitamin B12
Vitamin C
1787. Sodium transport through the brush border of the intestinal epithelial cells occurs by which of the following mechanisms?
Active transport
Co-transport with hydrogen ions
Passive diffusion
1788. Which of the following mechanisms allows complete absorption of glucose from the intestinal lumen into the cytosol of
the enterocyte?
simple diffusion through GLUT-5
Na-glucose cotransporter-1
NA channels in enterocyte membrane
paracellular uptake via gap junctions
1789. Which of the following substances stimulates the motor activity of the stomach?
Cholecystokinin
Gastrin
Norepinephrine
Secretin
1790. In which of the following food substances is chewing essential for digestion?
Cheese
Eggs
Meat
residual volume
tidal volume
total lung capacity

1792. Which of the following is true of the gastroenteric reflex?
It increases peristaltic activity of the stomach
It leads to defecation
It leads to increased peristaltic activity in the small intestine
It stimulates contractions of the colon
are hydrophobic
contain cholesterol
1796. Which of the following factors play a role in the oxygen–hemoglobin saturation/dissociation curve?
temperature
pH
BPG
all of the above
1797. The value of normal Functional Residual Capacity is:
3800 ml
2200 ml
4800 ml
1200 ml
1798. What phase of gastric regulation includes inhibition by the enterogastric reflex?
the intestinal phase
the gastric phase
the buccal phase
the cephalic phase
the pharyngo-esophageal phase
1799. After ventilation of the alveoli with fresh air, what is the next step in respiratory process?
Diffusion of O2 from alveoli to pulmonary blood
Diffusion of CO2 from pulmonary blood to alveoli
Diffusion of O2 from pulmonary blood to alveoli
Both A and C
1801. Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons innervating the gastrointestinal smooth muscle are located in:
myentric plexus
submucosal plexus
paravertebral ganglia
prevertebral ganglia
1802. Which is the correct formula of Henry’s law:
Concentration of dissolved gas = Partial pressure / Solubility coefficient
Concentration of dissolved gas = Solubility coefficient / Partial pressure
Partial pressure =Concentration of dissolved gas / Solubility coefficient
Partial pressure= Solubility coefficient/ Concentration of dissolved gas

Emulsify fat
None of them
1804. The major humoral mediator of gall bladder contraction in response fo a fat meal is:
CCK
gastrin
secretin
somatostatin
acini.
epithelial ducts.
paneth cells.
the pancreas.
1806. Which Hypoxia is related to the Hemoglobin dysfunctioning?
Hypoxic Hypoxia
Anemic Hypoxia
Histotoxic Hypoxia
Ischemic Hypoxia
1808. Which of the following type of motor activity in the small intestine is stimulated by local irritation of the intestinal
mucosa?
Haustration
Peristaltic rush
Secondary peristalsis
Segmentation movement
1809. Micelles in bile are formed by:
bile salts and phospholipids
bile acids and bile salts
cholesterol and bile salts
cholesterol and phospholipids
1810. What is blood brain barrier?
a barrier between blood and brain parts and is highly effective for O2 as it is the need of brain
a barrier of very tightly placed endothelial cells in the brain through which the transfer of O2 becomes very difficult and CO2
passes very easily
a highly lipid unsoluble barrier between brain and blood
a lipid and protein unilayered barrier between brain and blood
1811. Which of these values would normally be the highest?
tidal volume
vital capacity
1812. During gastric emptying, chyme is released into the duodenum through the ________.
esophageal hiatus
pyloric antrum
pyloric canal
pyloric sphincter
1813. Compare the partial pressures of the O2 ad CO2 gases both in the arterial and venous systems:
On arterial side O2 has 78.5mmHg and CO2 has 29.7mmHg; On venous side O2 has 35.4mmHg and CO2 has 82.3mmHg
1815. A high level of sympathetic stimulation is most likely to cause which of the following effects on gastrointestinal function?
Decrease in stomach Ph
Decrease motility
Increase in gastric acid secretion
Increase in mucous secretion
Cl⁻
Enterokinase
NaHCO3
gastrin
1817. Alveolar ventilation in a male with a respiratory rate of 10/min and tidal volume of 600 ml is
1750ml
3000ml
4500ml
6000ml
1818. The pressure difference between the intra-alveolar and intrapleural pressures is called ________.
atmospheric pressure
pulmonary pressure
negative pressure
transpulmonary pressure
1819. The stomach wall is made up of 2 mucous cells [surface + neck], parietal cells, chief cells, and G cells. Which one drives
stomach action via secretion and motility?
Chief
G
Mucous
Parietal
stomach
duodenum
jejunum
colon
1821. Which activity below is not a respiratory event?
Carbon dioxide is exchanged in the alveoli.
Cells produce nitrogen by their metabolism.
Gas exchange between tissues and the blood.
Oxygen is exchanged in the alveoli.
1822. All of the following contribute to the absorptive surface area of the small intestine except
villi.
circular folds.
haustra.
the brush border.
its length.
Buccal
Parotid
Sublingual
Submandibular
1824. Stomach emptying is controlled mostly by which of the following?
Activity if the small intestine
Local neurohumoral mechanisms originating in the duodenum.
Local neurohumoral mechanisms originating in the stomach itself
Vasovagal reflexes that reduce the tone in the muscle wall of the body of the stomach
1825. Which of the following is not an enzyme?
chymotrypsin
enterokinase
secretin
pepsin
- 6 - 9 mm Hg
- 3 - 4 mm Hg
- 15 - 20 mm Hg
1,0 mm Hg
1828. What is diffusion?
A planned movement of molecules through the respiratory membrane and adjacent fluids
the random motion of molecules in all directions through the respiratory membrane and adjacent fluids
motion of the blood parts from higher to lower concentrated area through the respiratory membrane
motion of any fluid from lower to higher concentrated area through the respiratory membrane
Open at the bottom
secretin
CCK
somatostatin
all of the above
1831. All of the following statements decrease the lung compliance except:
Lung fibrosis
Increased pulmonary venous pressure
long period of time where the lung is unventilated
Emphysema
diaphragm
intercostals
trapezius
1833. Where does the majority of chemical digestion in the stomach occur?
fundus and body
cardia and fundus
body and pylorus
body
residual volume
tidal volume
total lung capacity
1835. Which of the following substances can inhibit small intestinal motility?
Cholecystokinin
Gastrin
Insulin
Secretin
COPD
Cyanide poisoning
1837. Which of the following enzymes does not digest any nutrients?
chymotrypsin
lingual lipase
carboxypeptidase
enterokinase
concentration gradient
1839. What is the major / principle hormone that stimulates HCl release?
CCK
Gastrin
Intrinsic Factor
Secretin
1840. Which term refers to the volume remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration?
minimal volume
residual volume
atony.
churning.
mixing.
peristalsis.
1842. The types of contraction that normally occur only in colon is:
peristaltis
antiperistaltis
segmentation
all of the above
1843. Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is carried in the form of
dissolved CO2.
carbaminohemoglobin.
bicarbonate.
carboxyhemoglobin
1844. What happens in COPD?
There is a chronic dysfunction of the respiratory centre
The passage ways are damaged
The air passage ways are more widened
The respiratory membrane is damaged
glucose
amino acids
galactose
fructose
the trachea;
bronchi.
Gastrin
Pepsinogen
Secretin
1848. Which of these does not affect diffusion rate?
Surface area for diffusion
Concentration gradient
Solubility of gases
molecular weight of gases
none of the above
1849. Residual volume of the lung is:
1200 ml
1500 ml
4500 ml
500 ml
1850. Hypochloridria is a condition in which acid secretion by the stomach is greatly reduced. How does this condition affect
the digestion and absorption of food?
Digestion and absorption of all food substances are nearly normal
Digestion and absorption of all foods substances are markedly reduced
Digestion and absorption of carbohydrates are greatly affected by this condition
Digestion and absorption of fats are greatly affected by this condition
1851. Which of the following cell types found in the intestinal tract secretes hydrochloric acid?
Acinar cells
Mucous neck cells
Parietal cells
Peptic cells
1852. Inhale is:

1853. The rhythmic control of breathing is produced by the activity of inspiratory and expiratory neurons in
the medulla oblongata.
the apneustic center of the pons.
the pneumotaxic center of the pons.
the cerebral cortex.
1854. Asthma is an example of:
hypoventilation
Histotoxic hypoxia
Hyperventilation
Normal ventilation but abnormal circulatory system
1855. The most potent stimulus for release of secretin from the duodenum is:
a reduction in duodenal lumen pH to <4.5
peptides
fatty acids with > 8 carbons
carbohydrates
Carboxypeptidase
Chymotrypsin
Pepsin
None of them
1857. What stimulate the ileocecal sphincter to open?
Change in pH
Distention
Pelvic Nerve
Vagus nerve
1858. Which of the following substances is released from the mucosa of the duodenum in response to acidic gastric juice?
Cholecystokinin
Gastric inhibitory peptide

Secretin
Substance P
1859. According to _______ , the warming of air as it is inhaled helps to inflate the lungs.
Boyle’s law
Charles’ law
Dalton’s law
the Bohr effect
1860. The substance secreted from D cells is responsible for:
HCl activation.
protection against HCl.
stomach contraction.
stomach relaxation.
1861. Which of the following has the most powerful stimulatory effect on salivary secretion under normal conditions?
Gritty material
Sour taste stimulus
Sympathetic stimulation
Trigeminal stimulation
1862. When is salivary amylase most active?
Churning in Stomach
Lumen in Duodenum
Mastication in Mouth
Storage in Stomach
1863. Motor neurons in the myentric plexus that stimulate the contraction of smooth muscle in the gastrointestinal tract
release:
acetylcholine
nitric oxide
somatostatin
tightness;
lack of air;
is typically 150ml
will increase COPD
all of the above
1866. Stomach motility is increased in:
parasympathetic stimulation.
sympathetic stimulation.
during sleep
none of the above
Lingual lipase
Lysozyme
Salivary amylase
bile salts
CCK
secretin
gastrin
1869. The oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shows the relationship between:

the amount of O2 and intrapleural pressure
tension O2 blood and the value of intrapulmonary pressure
the percentage of oxyhemoglobin and the oxygen tension in the blood
the percentage of oxyhemoglobin and the amount red blood cells
1870. Pulmonary ventilation is necessary for:
the approximation of the alveolar air in composition to the atmospheric
maintain constancy of alveolar air
reduce the amount of O2, increase the amount of CO2 in the alveolar air
increasing the amount of O2 and CO2 in the alveolar air
Parotid gland
Sublingual gland
Submandibular gland
1872. Pulmonary surfactant a) b) c) d) e)
Prevents collapse of alveoli.
Prevents small alveoli from joining with larger alveoli.
Increases lung compliance.
Both a and c.
All of the above.
1873. Acidic histamine is secreted by:
Chief cells
Enterochromaffin cells
G cells
Parietal Cells
Fat
Protein
ote
Starch
peristaltis
segmentation
5–10 / min;
14-20 / min;
25–30 / min;
30–40 / min.
1877. What form of anaemia is associated with Gastritis?
Haemolytic
Iron deficiency
Megaloblastic
Pernicious
1878. Which of the following enzymes acts in the stomach?
chymotrypsin
lingual lipase
carboxypeptidase
enterokinase
1879. All of the following shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right except:
decreased pH
Increased temperature
Carbon Monoxide
Increased 2.3 DPG
1880. Which of these ingredients in saliva is responsible for activating salivary amylase?
mucus
phosphate ions
chloride ions
urea
1881. When all muscles of respiration are relaxed and alveolar pressure is zero, lung volume is equal to
Residual volume.
Vital capacity.
Functional residual capacity.
Total lung capacity.
1882. All of the following can bond with hemoglobin except
HCO3−
O2.
H+.
CO2.
1883. Which of the following components of bile is critical for fat digestion?
Bicarbonate
Bilirubin
Calcium salts
Lecithin
1884. Which of the following processes does atmospheric pressure play a role in?
production of pulmonary surfactant
resistance
surface tension
1885. Which of the following statements regarding the actions of gastrointestinal hormones is incorrect?
secretin inhibits gastric emptying
gastrin stimulates histamine release in the stomach
somatostatin reduces blood flow to the GIT
GIP inhibits the release of insulin from pancreas

p
1886. We need OXYGEN exactly for:
anaerobic respiration
aerobic respiration
to produce internal body H2O
All of the above
1888. Normally, there is a net secretion of which ion in the colon?
sodium
potassium
chloride
calcium
autonomic ganglia
1890. Tidal volume in man is:
1200 ml
1500 ml
4500 ml
500 ml
lingual lipase
gastric lipase
gastric lipase
pancreatic lipase
lipoprotein lipase
Diaphragm
1893. Spirometry can measure all except:
IC
ERV
FRC
VC
TV
1894. Where is the Pacemaker of Respiratory system located?
In the alveoli
In the lobes of Lungs
In the Medulla
In the Respiratory Membrane
1895. Inhibition of which of the following enzymes has the greatest effect on digaestion?
Chymotrypsin
Enterokinase
Pancreatic amylase
Ptyalin
1896. Which of the following normally stimulates the release of digestive enzymes from the ancinar cells of the pancreas?
Cholecystokinin
Gastrin
Histamine
Secretin
Lipids
Monosaccharides
Proteins
Cool down air
1899. Which of these processes occurs throughout most of the alimentary canal?
ingestion
propulsion
segmentation
absorption
1901. Which of the following describes how bicarbonate ions are absorbed from the small intestine?
Directly via facilitated diffusion
Directly via simple diffusion
Indirectly in the form of carbon dioxide and water
Indirectly via active transport
1902. Which of these processes occurs in the mouth?
ingestion
chemical digestion
all of the above
Cool down air
1906. How does gastrin stimulate hydrochloric acid secretion by the parietal cells of the gastric gland?
Directly by acting on a gastrin receptor located on the parietal cell
Indirectly through a cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)- mediated pathway
Indirectly through a cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP).- mediated pathway
Indirectly via stimulation of histamine release from enterochromaffin cells
1907. In the renal nephrons are filtered:
blood cells
plasma molecular proteins
metabolites
molecular components of plasma and water

1908. Basal metabolic rate in women compared to men
is the same
less by 10-15%
more by 10-15%
30-40% less
1909. Structural and functional unit of the kidneys is:
acinus
micelle
nephron
neuron
1910. Volume of urine is regulated by ___________
Aldosterone
ADH and Aldosterone
Aldosterone and testosterone
ANP
1911. The process of transition of water and substances dissolved in it from the tubules of the nephron into the blood is called:
synthesis
secretion
reabsorption
filtering
1912. Hypertension is likely to increase the secretion of
atrial natriuretic peptide.
antidiuretic hormone.
bicarbonate ions.
aldosterone.
1913. Juxtaglomerular apparatus is not formed by:
Macula densa
Extraglomerular mesangial cells
Podocytes
1914. What is the amount of energy consumption by persons engaged in particularly hard physical labor?
about 2200 kcal / day
1915. Following are the hormones that regulate tubular reabsorption, except:
Aldosterone
Testosterone
Calcitonin
Parathormone
1916. Most sodium is reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by
the vasa recta.
the proximal convoluted tubule.
the distal convoluted tubule.
the nephron loop.
1917. Both formation and concentration of urine is mainly the function of:
Cortical nephrons
Both types
None of the above
1918. What is the function of ADH?
Controls sugar level in blood
Increases water absorption
Decreases water absorption
Synthesis of salt
1919. The average daily basal metabolic rate in men is

3000 kcal
1000 kcal
2500 kcal
1700 kcal
1920. All the pressures involved in determination of filtration are collectively called:
Starling forces
Colloidal forced
Renal tubule
Macula densa
Both
None
1922. . In the tubules of the nephrons are completely reabsorbed:
amino acids and glucose
urea and creatinine
dyes and radiopaque substances
high molecular substances
1923. Liquid which collects in Bowman’s capsule is ___________
Water and sulphates
Water and glycogen
Plasma minus blood proteins
Concentrated urine
1924. Filtration fraction is:
Portion of plasma that becomes filtrate
Portion of filtrate that becomes urine
Portion of urine that is reabsorbed
Portion is plasma, secreted into nephron
1925. Glomerular capillary pressure varies between:

20 to 30 mm Hg
45 to 70 mm Hg
80 to 100 mm Hg
10 to 15 mm Hg
1926. What way of heat transfer predominantly functions in humans at an ambient temperature of 40 ° C and normal humidity?
heat conduction
radiation
convection
evaporation
all answers are correct
1927. Tubular secretion is the process by which the substances are transported:
From blood into renal tubules
From renal tubules into blood
From Renal tubules into urine
From urine into blood
1928. Under what conditions does increased sweating not lead to an increase in heat transfer?
with the formation of a large amount of sweat
with the formation of highly concentrated sweat
at very low humidity
at very high humidity
1929. Low pressure capillary bed is formed by
Renal glomerular capillaries
Afferent arterioles
Efferent arterioles
1930. How much energy is released during the utilization of 1 g of glucose in the body?
9.3 kcal
4.1 kcal
5.0 kcal
3.75 kcal
1931. 85% of all nephrons are:
Cortical nephrons
Collecting nephrons
Mixed nephrons
1932. Chemical thermoregulation provides ...
change in the rate of breakdown of carbohydrates
change in the intensity of fat hydrolysis
change in the intensity of protein breakdown
change in the intensity of heat production
1933. Which of these lies closest to the renal cortex?
the parietal peritoneum
the renal fascia
the renal capsule
the adipose capsule
Renal tubule
Macula densa
Both
None
1935. The daily minimum volume of obligatory H2O loss that must accompany excretion of wastes is ml.
500
50
100
1000
1936. What are the daily energy consumption of people who are predominantly engaged in mental work?
2500-3000 kcal
2100-2450 kcal
3000-4000 kcal
1500-1700 kcal
1937. Increasing alveolar ventilation increases the blood pH because
it activates neural mechanisms that remove acid from the blood.
it makes hemoglobin a stronger acid.
it increases the PO2 of the blood.
it decreases the PCO2 in the alveoli.
1938. The amount of energy exchange after eating protein food
decreases by 10-20%
does not change
increases by 30-40%
increases by 10-20%
1939. In which of the following are microvilli most abundant?
Bowman’s capsule
Glomerular capillaries
Distal tubule
Proximal tubule
1940. . The juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney secretes into the blood:
aldosterone
sodium ureteric factor
angiotensin
renin
1941. Which one is an important constituent of rennin angiotensinogen aldosterone system?
Macular cells
Plasma cells
JGA cells
Erythropoietin
1942. The total calorie content of the daily diet (in%) is distributed between breakfast, lunch, dinner and the second dinner
approximately as follows:
10, 20, 45, 25
30, 40, 20, 10
25, 25, 35, 15
50, 25, 15, 10
1943. Reabsorption of the substances occur at the following sites:
Loop of henle
All
1944. In the kidneys are secreted:
glucose and amino acids
vitamins and water
proteins and salts
Potassium ions and medicinal substances
1945. The juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney is:
a triangle formed by the walls of the carrying and removing arterioles and the cells of the distal convoluted tubule
a triangle formed by the walls of the carrying and removing arterioles and the cells of the proximal tubules
a triangle formed by proximal and distal convoluted tubule
loop of Henle, collecting tubules and vessels that surround them
1946. The lowest body temperature of a healthy person is observed at
7 am
13 pm
16 pm
4 am
19 pm
1947. What vitamins are fat-soluble?
C, B1, B2, B6
B6, H, B3, C
A, D, E, K
PP, B12, B6, B1
1948. The most abundant cation in the ICF is _______ .
Na+
K+
CL-
Ca+
1949. Tubular secretion of hydrogen is directly linked to
tubular secretion of potassium
tubular secretion of sodium
tubular reabsorption of potassium
tubular reabsorption of sodium
1950. The skin loses water by two processes, sweating and _______ .
evaporation
conduction
convection
radiation
1951. The daily fat requirement of a middle-aged person is
100-150 g
400-450 g
200-300 g
70-90 g
1952. In the distal convulated tubules, the sodium reabsorption is stimulated by hormone:
Angiotensin
Erythropoiten
Aldosterone
Parathormone
1953. Hypotonic hydration can result from
ADH hypersecretion.
ADH hyposecretion.
aldosterone hypersecretion.
aldosterone hyposecretion.
1954. How does the basal metabolic rate change after 35-40 years?
increases
decreases
does not change
1955. Which of the following filtered substances is normally not present in the urine?
Na+
H+
glucose
urea
1956. During the day in the body of an adult, ATP is formed in an amount of up to ...
200-250 kg
5-10 kg
1-3 kg
50-70 kg
1957. Each kidney has got about 8:
Minor calyx
Major calyx
Pyramids
Arcuate artries
1958. What are nutrients?

these are food components that maintain the body's water balance
food components that provide energy consumption and synthetic processes of the body
these are protective substances
1959. In micturition _____
Urethra relaxes
Ureters relax
Ureters contract
Urethra contracts
1960. Under normal conditions, the transfer of heat by the body can be carried out by ...
increase muscle tone and tremors
activation of non-contractile thermogenesis
heat radiation, convection, heat conduction, evaporation
only heat radiation, convection, heat conduction
heat radiation, convection, evaporation and thermogenesis
1961. Glomerular filtrate contains _________
Plasma without sugars
Blood without blood cells and proteins
Blood with proteins but without cells
Blood without urea
1962. Which of the following is not a part of renal pyramid?
Collecting ducts
Loops of Henle
Convoluted tubules
hydrostatic pressure, oncotic pressure of blood
osmotic pressure, blood pH
only intrarenal pressure and oncotic pressure of blood

partial pressure of gases
1964. In the descending parts of the loop of Henle nephrons occurs:
dilution of urine
urine concentration
the formation of ultrafiltrate
secretion of water and salts
1965. What is the most optimal ratio of proteins, fats and carbohydrates in the diet?
1:4:1
4:1:1
1:1:4
1:2:4
1966. Physical thermoregulation is a mechanism
increase sweating
changes in heat transfer
increasing heat transfer
reducing the intensity of metabolism
1967. How much energy is released when 1 g of body fat is utilized?
3.75 kcal
4.1 kcal
6.1 kcal
9.3 kcal
1968. The renal pyramids are separated from each other by extensions of the renal cortex called ________.
renal medulla
minor calyces
medullary cortices
renal columns
1969. Somatic motor neurons must be ________ to relax the external urethral sphincter to allow urination.
stimulated
inhibited
1970. Main function of Henle’s loop is ___________
Passage of urine
Filtration of blood
Formation of urine
Conservation of urine
1971. . Beavers have relatively little need to conserve water and could therefore be expected to have _______ than humans do.
fewer nephrons
longer nephron loops
shorter nephron loops
longer collecting ducts
1972. The highest body temperature in a healthy person is observed in 1) 24 hours 3) 7 hours 4) 10 hours
at 18 pm
at 4 am
at 7 am
at 10 am
1973. Angiotensin II produced under the effect of Renin, produces which of the following effects?
Increases blood pressure directly by noradrenaline
Increases blood pressure indirectly vasoconstriction
Increases blood pressure by vasodilation
1974. Which part of the urinary system is not completely retroperitoneal?
kidneys
ureters
bladder
nephrons
1975. Micturition occurs in response to
Relaxation of the detrusor muscle.

e a at o o t e det uso usc e.
Contraction of the internal and external urethral sphincters.
Activation of parasympathetic neurons to the bladder.
Activation of somatic motor neurons to the bladder.
1976. The amount of energy exchange after eating carbohydrate food
decreases by 10-20%
does not change
increases by 30-40%
increases by 10-20%
1977. All are the structural components of kidney, except:
Inner medulla
Trigone
Renal sinus
Nephron
1978. Which of the indicated values is the upper lethal temperature of the human body (0C)?
42,5
18
45
41
1979. What are the names of the capillaries following the efferent arteriole?
arcuate and medullary
interlobar and interlobular
peritubular and vasa recta
peritubular and medullary
1980. Secretion, one of the processes of urination, occurs:
in Bowman capsules
from the blood to the renal tubules of the nephrons
from the blood in the loop of Henle nephrons
from distal tubules of nephrons into the blood

1981. Following are functions of the kidneys, except:
Uric acid production
Maintenance of water balance
Maintaince of acid base balance
Erythropietic production
1982. The primary structure found within the medulla is the ________.
loop of Henle
minor calyces
portal system
ureter
1983. Hyperchloremia is most likely to result in
alkalosis
acidosis
hypernatremia
hyperkalemia
1984. The kidneys help to maintain acid-base balance by
the secretion of H+ in the distal regions of the nephron.
the action of carbonic anhydrase within the apical cell membranes.
the action of carbonic anhydrase within the cytoplasm of the tubule cells.
the buffering action of phosphates and ammonia in the urine.
all of these means.
1985. The daily requirement of a middle-aged person for carbohydrates is
150-200 g
400-450 g
80-100 g
up to 800 g
1986. Micturition occurs when the _______contracts.
detrusor muscle
internal urethral sphincter
external urethral sphincter
muscularis of the ureter
all of the above
1987. _______ increases water reabsorption without increasing sodium reabsorption.
Aldosterone
Atrial natriuretic peptide
Parathyroid hormone
1988. . Increased ADH secretion should cause the urine to have
a higher specific gravity.
a lighter color.
a higher pH.
a lower urea concentration.
1989. About 90% of kidney stones can pass out through urinary system by drinking _______
Juice
Water
Sugar drinks
Milk
1990. The most abundant cation in the ECF is _______ .
Cl-
K+
Na+
Ca+
1991. Kidney reabsorption is:
the process of transition of water and substances dissolved in it from blood into the Bowman capsule
the process of transition of water and substances dissolved in it from blood to the renal tubules
the process of transition of water and substances dissolved in it from blood in the loop
the process of transition of water and substances dissolved in it from tubules in the blood
1992. Juxtaglomerular hormone secretes which hormone:
Progesterone
Prostaglandin
Testosterone
None of the above
1993. How does the tone of skin vessels change under the influence of cold?
decreases
increases
does not change
1994. Assume that fluid enters the distal tubule with an osmolarity of 100 mOsm, and that the maximum osmolarity of
medullary interstitial fluid is 1100 mOsm. As plasma ADH levels rise, what happens to the osmolarity of the urine?
It approaches 100 mOsm as a lower limit.
It approaches 1100 mOsm as an upper limit.
It eventually exceeds 1100 mOsm.
It approaches 300 mOsm, the normal osmolarity of plasma.
1995. During the day, under normal conditions, how much water is excreted from the body through the skin and lungs?
900 ml
2000 ml
5000 ml
100 ml
1996. Glomerular filteration is which of the following process?
Microfiltration
Macrofiltration
Ultrafiltration
Autofiltration
1997. Which of the following does not stimulate aldosterone release?
Atrial natriuretic peptide

An increase in plasma potassium
An increase in renin secretion
An increase in angiotensin II production
1998. The protein content in meat products is about ...
20%
10%
50%
100%
1999. GFR and permeability of Glomerular capillary membrane has one of the following relationship:
Directly propotional
Indirectly proportional
Inversely proportional
Negative feedback
2000. Micturition occurs when the _______contracts.
detrusor muscle
internal urethral sphincter
external urethral sphincter
muscularis of the ureter
2001. GFR is directly proportional to:
Tempreature of body
Renal blood flow
Pulse rate
Respiratory rate
2002. What are the characteristics of homeothermic animals?
the constancy of body temperature
the dependence of body temperature on ambient temperature
the constancy of the metabolic rate
the constancy of body temperature, regardless of the ambient temperature

2003. How much energy is released during the utilization of 1 g of protein in the body?
3.75 kcal
4.1 kcal
9.3 kcal
5.1 kcal
2004. A person has the following symptoms: arterial pH = 7.48, PCO2= 44 mm Hg, plasma bicarbonate concentration = 27 mM
What is the diagnosis?
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
2005. A glomerulus and glomerular capsule make up one
renal capsule.
renal corpuscle.
kidney lobule.
kidney lobe.
2006. The comfort zone of a dressed person with an air humidity of 50% is the ambient temperature (in degrees Celsius)
16-18
22-24
26-28
18-20
2007. A calorie is ...
unit of measure for heat, equal to 0.239 Joule
the unit of measure for heat is 2.4 Joules
unit of measure for heat, equal to 4.2 Joules
unit of measurement of heat equal to 1 watt
2008. . If 180 liters of primary urine are produced per day, then in 1 minute of ultrafiltrate:
25 ml.
18 ml.
125 ml.
1.5 liters.
2009. Which of the following is the principal buffer in interstitial fluid?
hemoglobin
other proteins
carbonic acid
H2PO4
2010. A blood pH of 7.2 caused by inadequate pulmonary ventilation would be classified as _______ .
Respiratory alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
2011. In the presence of which hormone, distal convulated tubule and collecting duct of renal tubule become permeable to
water so that it is reabsorbed?
Aldosterone
Parathormone
Growth hormone
Anti diuretic hormone
2012. The process of the transition of water and the capillaries dissolved in it from the blood into the Bowman capsule is called:
synthesis
secretion
reabsorption
filtering
2013. Glomerular filtrate collected at Bowman's capsule contains all the substances of plasma except protiens which makes it:
Hypotonic to plasma
Hypertonic to plasma
Isotonic to plasma
None of the above

2014. The basal metabolic rate is ...
the amount of energy required to maintain life under normal conditions
the minimum energy required at resting state
the maximum amount of energy required for life
all the energy needed to maintain life
2015. The principal determinant of intracellular osmolarity and cellular volume is
protein
phosphate
potassium
sodium
2016. How much energy in the body is ultimately released from the body in the form of heat?
20%
100%
40%
60%
2017. The color of urine is determined mainly by ________.
diet
filtration rate
byproducts of red blood cell breakdown
filtration efficiency
2018. Production of less than 50 mL/day of urine is called ________.
normal
polyuria
oliguria
anuria
2019. Podocytes are found in ______________
Cortex of nephron
Outer wall of Bowman’s capsule
I ll f B ’ l
Inner wall of Bowman’s capsule
Wall of glomerular capillaries
2020. Yellow color of urine is due to ____________
Creatinine
Urea
Bilirubin
Uric acid
2021. What amount of heat is removed from the body under normal conditions at room temperature by heat radiation?
26%
30%
46%
66%
2022. Normal GFR is about:
125 ml/min
180 L/day
none of the above
both a and b
2023. Each kidney consists of:
1 to 1.3 million nephrons
3 to 5 million nephrons
10 billion nephrons
0.5 million nephrons
2024. The _______ sphincter is under involuntary control and relaxes during the micturition reflex.
ileocecal
Oddy's
Internal urethra
2025. The kidney has more _______ than any of the other structures listed.
arcuate arteries
minor calices
medullary pyramids
afferent arterioles
2026. Principal and intercalated cells form:
Ascending limb
Proximal convoluted tubules
Collecting duct
Glomerulus
2027. How will the basal metabolic rate change with a decrease in thyroid function?
will increase
decrease
will not change
2028. Which structure acts as the countercurrent exchanger?
Vasa recta
Macula densa
Glomerulus
Bowman's capsule
2029. In which area of the human body is the highest temperature?
in the liver
in the rectum
in the armpit
under the tongue
2030. What energy is not used in the body to do work?
chemical
mechanical
electric
thermal
2031. The right kidney is slightly lower because ________.

it is displaced by the liver
it is displace by the heart
it is slightly smaller
it needs protection of the lower ribs
2032. The greatest percentage of the body’s water is in
the blood plasma.
the lymph.
the intracellular fluid.
the interstitial fluid.
2033. Renal clearance (clearance) of inulin is a method of assessment:
renal blood flow
tubular secretion
glomerular filtration
tubular reabsorption
2034. The process of transition of substances from the blood of capillaries into the nephron canaliculi is called:
synthesis
secretion
reabsorption
filtering
2035. Water produced by the body’s chemical reactions is called _______ .
waste product
metabolic water
blood plasma
lymph
2036. In the tubules of the nephrons are completely reabsorbed:
amino acids and glucose
urea and creatinine
dyes and radiopaque substances

high molecular substances
2037. What are the characteristics of poikilothermic animals?
the constancy of body temperature, regardless of the ambient temperature
lack of constancy of body temperature
the dependence of body temperature on ambient temperature
the constancy of the metabolic rate
2038. Which of these is the most abundant nitrogenous waste in the blood?
uric acid
urea
ammonia
creatinine
2039. The renal clearance of _______ is normally zero.
sodium
potassium
uric acid
amino acids
2040. Which structure of the urinary system stores urine until it is excreted?
Kidneys
Bladder
Ureter
Urethra
2041. The functional unit of the kidney is called ________.
the renal hilus
the renal corpuscle
the nephron
Bowman’s capsule
2042. The most effective buffer in the intracellular fluid is
phosphate
protein
bicarbonate
carbonic acid
2043. The daily requirement for vitamin C is ...
50-100 mg
5-10 mg
20-30 mg
0.5-5 mg
2044. A substance of renal origin, which increases blood pressure:
ammonia
urokinase
renin
urea
2045. The compact ball of capillaries in a nephron is called
the nephron loop.
the peritubular plexus.
the renal corpuscle.
the glomerulus.
2046. Mark the mismatch pair.
Henle’s loop – concentration of urine
DCT – Absorption of glucose
PCT – Absorption of sodium and potassium ions
Bowman’s capsule – Glomerular filtration
2047. The fat content of vegetable oil is about ...
50-60%
10-20%
70-80%
100%
2048. In adults, during resting conditions both the kidneys receive 1,300 ml/min blood which is:
2049. Blood filtrate is captured in the lumen of the ________.
glomerulus
Bowman’s capsule
calyces
renal papillae
2050. Peristaltic contractions occur in the ________.
urethra
bladder
ureters
urethra, bladder, and ureters
2051. ADH makes the urine hypertonic with osmolarity of:
1,200 mOsm/L
2000 mOsm/L
5000 mOsm/L
500 mOsm/L
2052. The composition of the primary urine does not include:
urea
red blood cells
vitamins
amino acids
2053. Urea synthesis occurs in ______________
Kidney
Liver
Pancreas
Muscles
2054. Excretion is the process by which unwanted substances and metabolic wastes are:
Produced in the body
Utilized in the body
Eliminated from the body
Accumulated in the body
2055. _______ is the ability of a nephron to adjust its GFR independently of external nervous or hormonal influences.
renal autoregulation
nervous regulation
hormonal regulation
tubulaglomerular regulation
2056. Concentration and dilution of urine occurs in:
Bowman - Shimlyansky capsule
loops of Henle and collecting ducts
only in the collecting tubules of nephrons
only in the proximal tubules of the nephrons
2057. The countercurrent exchange in the vasa recta
removes Na+ from the extracellular fluid.
maintains high concentrations of NaCl in the extracellulnlar fluid.
raises the concentration of Na+ in the blood leaving the kidneys.
causes large quantities of Na+ to enter the filtrate.
does all of these.
2058. Vasopressin is called as ___________
Synovial fluid
Neurotransmitter
Growth regulating substance

2059. Part of nephron impermeable to salt is ____________
DCT
Ascending limb of loop of Henle
Collecting ducts
2060. Water, electrolytes and other substances are taken back into the blood from glomerular filterate, in a process called:
Tubular reabsorption
Tubular secretion
Glomerular extraction
Tubular transport
2061. What hormone directly opposes the actions of natriuretic hormones?
renin
nitric oxide
dopamine
aldosterone
2062. Pressure exerted by plasma protiens:
Hydrostatic pressure
Net filtertion pressure
2063. 88% filtrate is reabsorbed in:
Loop of Henle
Collecting duct
2064. The transfer of heat from a person in cold water is carried out mainly by
evaporation
radiation
heat conduction
2065. Epithelial cells with pedicles on the basement membrane are called:
Podocytes
Astrocytes
Lymphocytes
Phagocytes
2066. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is present in ________
Tubule of kidney
Bowman’s capsule
Malpighian tubule
Glomerulus
2067. Normal urinary out put is:
1 to 1.5 liters/day
5 to 10 liters/day
70 liters/day
20 liters/day
2068. Following substances are completely reabsorbed from the renal tubules, except:
Glucose
Vitamins
Amino acids
Minerals
hydrostatic pressure, oncotic pressure of blood, intrarenal pressure
osmotic pressure, blood pH
only intrarenal pressure and oncotic pressure of blood
partial pressure of gases
2070. The daily protein requirement of a middle-aged person is

120-150 g
150-200g
85-90 g
400-450 g
2071. The daily human need for water under normal conditions is ...
2,5 l
5l
1l
0,5 l
2072. Macula densa is the part of:
Renal hilum
Renal pelvis
Ureter
2073. Which of these is the most abundant nitrogenous waste in the blood?
uric acid
urea
ammonia
creatinine
2074. Assuming that arterial PCO2 is normal, metabolic acidosis promotes which of the following?
Increased hydrogen ion secretion by the renal tubule
Decreased alveolar ventilation
Increased bicarbonate reabsorption
Both a and c
2075. Glucose is mainly reabsorbed in _______
Henle’s loop
DCT
PCT
N h
Nephron
2076. In the lumen of the proximal tubule, secreted hydrogen ions are primarily buffered by
Bicarbonate.
Phosphates.
Proteins.
Sulfates.
2077. The condition where urea accumulates in blood is
Anemia
Glycosuria
Uremia
Acidosis
2078. Increased excretion of ammonium chloride in the urine most likely indicates
hypercalcemia
hyponatremia
hypochloremia
alkalosis
acidosis
2079. Substance which is not reabsorbed from loop of Henle:
Sodium
Phosphate
Chloride
None of the above
2080. Juxta glomerular cells of renal cortex synthesize a hormone called __________
ADH
Renin
Oxytocin
Urochrome
2081. The protein content in the edible part of the egg is about ...
12%
6%
50%
100%
2082. How much energy will enter the body when consuming 10 g of NaCl?
50 kcal
100 kcal
0 kcal
25 kcal
2083. Macula densa of the Juxtaglomerular apparatus is sensitive to:
Sodium chloride in the tubular fluid
Sodium Bicarbonate in tubular fluid
Protiens in tubular fluid
Pressure in glomerulus
2084. The osmolarity of tubular fluid increases as it flows through the descending limb of the loop of Henle because
Solutes are passively transported into the descending limb.
Solutes are actively transported into the descending limb.
Solutes are passively transported out of the ascending limb.
Water moves passively into the descending limb.
Water moves passively out of the descending limb.
2085. . Renal clearance (clearance) of inulin is a method of assessment:
renal blood flow
canalicular secretion
glomerular filtration
tubular reabsorption
2086. Which one of the following is the types of Sleep:
REM sleep
NREM sleep

REM, NREM & NTM Sleep
2087. The NREM sleep is divided into how many stages?
II
III
IV
2088. Electrical activity recorded by EEG may have:
synchronized waves
desynchronized waves
Both
None of the above
2089. It is the storage of information in brain for a longer period. The information could be recalled after hours, days, months or
years. It is:
Long term memory
Short term memory
Secondary memory
Primary memory
2090. Which functions are related to the higher nervous activity
Higher Intellectual functions
Higher Brain Functions
Higher Cortical Functions
All of these
2091. Which is not the stage of Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep
Stage of Drowsiness
Stage of Light Sleep
Stage of Medium Sleep
Stage of Deep Sleep
None of these
2092. Which one of the following is Skilled memory?
Non decorative memory
Explicit memory
Long term memory
Short term memory
2093. Types of conditioned reflex:
Classical
Instrumental
Permanent
Both a and b
Both b and c
2094. In the diagnosis of neuro logical disorders and sleep disorders, is useful:
Electroencephalogram
Electrocardiogram
Electrogram
Electroneurogram
Electrobrainogram
2095. Which of these is not a reflex reaction?
Salivation
Secretion of sweat
Flexion due to needle prick
Blinking of eyes due to strong light
2096. What forms the basis of higher mental functions?
congenital reflexes
Memory
Sleep
Conditional reflexes
2097. Sometimes which is also referred as negative memory:

Facilitation
Habituation
Short term memory
Long term memory
2098. An EEG:
rovides indication of intelligence
tends to show waves of smaller amplitude during deep sleep than alert state
show waves with a lower frequency during intense thought than during deep sleep
is bilaterally symmetrical
2099. Demonstration of conditioned reflex was first made by:
Pavlov
William Harve
Robert Brown
Karl von Frisch
2100. Which is the type of sleep associated with rapid conjugate movements of the eyeballs, which occurs frequently?
REM Sleep
NREM Sleep
Both NREM & REM Sleep
None of these
2101. During Sleep:
Formation of urine decreases
Specific gravity decreases
Systolic pressure falls to about 90-110mm Hg
All of these
2102. Bulbar or medullary reflexes are named because:
They have their centers in cerebral cortex
They are non protective
They have their centers in medulla oblongata

2103. Beta rhythm includes frequency waves:
15-28 per second
15-60 per second
1-5 per second
8-12 per second
2104. When atleast one part of reflex arc is formed by the autonomic nerve fiber, the reflex is termed:
Visceral reflex
Somatic reflex
Spinal reflex
Congenital reflex
2105. Alpha rhythm includes frequency waves:
15-60 per second
1-5 per second
8-12 per second
22-26 per second
2106. Long term memory, points to:
Weeks to months
Years
Life time
All of the above
2107. Learning is:
The process by which new information is acquired
The process by which old information is revised
Not helpful
Very higher in the age of above 90
2108. What are the types of Inhibition of Conditioned reflexes
External inhibition & Internal inhibition

Primary, Secondary & Tertiary Inhibition
Associative and Non- associative inhibition
None of the above
2109. Source of EEG:
A potential of pyramidal cells
A potential of ganglion cells
EPSP and IPSP of cortical cells which behave like dipoles
After potentials of parietalc cortex
2110. Recalling first day of schooling, birthday celebration of previous year, picnic enjoyed last week:
Short term Memory
Long term Memory
Tertiary Memory
2111. Reflexes that protect body against gravitational force:
Flexor reflexes
Extensor reflexes
Aquired reflexes
Protective reflexes
2112. In vertebrates, simple reflex action is:
monosynaptic
polysynaptic
bisynaptic
trisynaptic
2113. Tone in all the muscles of body except ocular muscles decreases very much during sleep. It is called as:
Sleep Paralysis
Dehydrated Sleep
Tired Sleep
Normal Sleep
2114. Depending upon duration, memory is classified into all, except:
Sensory
Primary
Secondry
Tertiary
2115. On the basis of past experience, which alters the behaviour of a person?
Memory
Learning
Reading
Writing
2116. Stretch reflex is the best example of:
Polysynaptic reflex
Monosynaptic reflex
Both of the above
None of the above
2117. Hippocampus and Papez circuit (closed circuit between hippocampus, thalamus, hypothalamus and corpus striatum) are
the main sites for:
Memory encoding
Memory strengthening
None
2118. Acquired reflexes are developed mostly after:
Conditioning
Watching
Trauma
Disease
2119. When an electric shock is given to the leg of a pathed frog, it:
shows reflex response by contraction of leg muscles
blinks its eyes

shows no response
put out its tongue
2120. Activation of Raphe Nucleus results in:
None of these
2121. Ability to recall past experience or information is called:
Cognition
Memory
Coordination
Facilitation
2122. Which is not involved in Unconditioned reflex?
learning and memory
associative learning and associative memory
non associative learning and non-associative memory
None of above
2123. The EEG rhythm having the lowest frequency is:
Alpha
Beta
Delta
Theta
2124. Recognition memory is the other name of:
Short term Memory
Long term Memory
Explicit Memory
Implicit Memory
2125. - Threshold for most of the reflexes increases. Pupils are constricted. Light reflex is retained. Eyeballs move up and
down. These occur in:
Bad Learning
Good Learning
Sleep
Muscle Tone increasing
2126. Synchronized waves are:
regular and invariant waves
None
2127. Inhibition of Conditioned reflexes is of how many types?
II
III
IV
2128. Skilled memory is the other name of:
Short term Memory
Long term Memory
Explicit Memory
Implicit Memory
2129. Short term memory, points to:
seconds to minutes
Months to years
Hours to days
Weeks to months
2130. Desynchronized waves are:

Regular and invariant waves
None
2131. Which is not the type of Learning:
Habituation
Sensitization
None of these
2132. Reflex action is controlled by:
Autonomic nervous system
Peripheral Nervous system
Central Nervous System
None of these
2133. Which is the natural periodic state of rest for mind and body with closed eyes characterized by partial or complete loss of
consciousness:
Memorizing older information
Sleep
Learning
Body Rest
2134. Which is responsible for Higher nervous activity:
extensive outer layer of gray matter
inner layer of white matter
Outer layer of White matter
Extensive Inner layer of gray matter
2135. Example of Polysynaptic reflex is:
Extensor reflex
Intersegmental reflex
Withdrawal reflex
Acquired reflex
2136. There are how many types of Learning?
2137. Which of the following is controlled by autonomous nervous system?
Papillary reflex
Swallowing food
Knee-jerk response
peristalsis of intestine
2138. Recollection of past experience for a very short period, on the basis of which an action is executed. It is related to:
Short term Memory
Long term Memory
Primary Memory
2139. Working memory is the second name of:
Short term Memory
Long term Memory
Medium term Memory
Primary Memory
2140. Non-declarative memory is the other name of:
Short term Memory
Long term Memory
Explicit Memory
Implicit Memory
2141. Nightmares occur due to all, except

Improper food intake
Drug or alcohol withdrawal
Digestive or Nervous disorders
Sleeplessness
2142. Negative conditioned reflex is of the following types:
External
Internal
Both a and b
None of the above
2143. In which disease, EEG patterns are not altered:
Subdural Hematoma
Disorders of midbrain
Epilepsy
Influenza
2144. Type of learning that involves response of a person to only one type of stimulus:
Both of above
None
2145. The two centers Raphe nucleus and Locus ceruleus of pons which induce the Sleep are located in:
Brainstem
Cerebellum
Left Hemisphere
Right Hemisphere
2146. Anatomical basis of Memory is:
Synapses
Basal ganglia
lateral ventricle
Corona radiata
2147. Unconditioned reflexes are:
Natural reflexes
Inborn reflexes
None of the above
Both a and b
2148. Followings are the components of Reflex arc, except:
Sensory nerve
End organ
Effector organ
Dura matter
2149. The main difference between REM sleep and wakefulness is:
EEG desynchronization
Rapid eye movements
Decreased muscle tone
Penile erection
2150. What type of memory can be recalled after hours, days, months or years?
working memory
Secondary memory
Sensory memory
remote memory
2151. In what memory storage is enhanced and involves increase in synaptic transmission and increased postsynaptic activity.
Habituation
Facilitation
Fast learning
None of these
2152. What association is formed in secondary conditioning?
Association between two unconditioned responses

Association between the first conditioned stimulus and a second conditioned stimulus in the absence of the unconditioned
stimulus
Association between unconditioned stimuli and conditioned responses
Association between two conditioned responses without conditioned stimuli
2153. Which type of reflexes excite the Conditioned reflexes?
Primary Conditioned Reflexes
2154. Activation of Locus ceruleus of pons results in:
None of these
2155. Which one illustrates a reflex arc?
brain-Spinal cord- muscles
muscle-receptors-brain
muscles- spinal cord- brain
receptor-spinal cord-muscles
2156. What is Sensitization?
A process by which person gets used to something, to which a person is constantly exposed.
A process by which the body is made to become more sensitive to a stimulus
A process by which old information is revised
None of these
2157. Explicit memory, points to:
Forgetfullness
Subjective recalling
Conscious recollection of past experience
Objective recalling
2158. Retaining sensory signals in sensory areas of brain, for a very short period of few seconds after the actual sensory
experience, i.e. few hundred milliseconds:
Sensory memory
Secondary memory
Long term memory
Short term memory
2159. Which is the type of sleep without the movements of eyeballs?
REM or Paradoxical Sleep
NREM or Slow-wave Sleep
None of these
2160. Recalling of events of weeks, months, years or sometimes lifetime. It is related to:
Special type of Long term memory
Long term Memory
Primary Memory
2161. In normal person EEG has:
Three frequency bands
Five frequency bands
Nine frequency bands
Seven frequency bands
2162. What is punishment?
Any consequence where something pleasurable is added
Any consequence which makes behavior likely to reoccur in the future
Another form of negative reinforcement
Any consequence which makes behavior unlikely to reoccur in the future
2163. Sweat and Lacrimal secretion increases during:
Sleep
Remembering
learning
Associative Learning
2164. After searching and finding telephone number in the directory, we remember the number for a short while. It is an
example of:
Primary memory
Secondary memory
Long term memory
Short term memory
2165. Which learning involves relations between two or more stimuli at a time.
Sensitization
habituation
2166. Delta rhythm includes frequency waves:
15-60 per second
1-5 per second
8-12 per second
15-28 per second
2167. Which involves the conscious recollection of past experience?
Associative Memory
Short term
Long term memory
Explicit memory
2168. How many types there are of Sleep?
II
III
IV
V
2169. Which of these is an example of conditioned reflex?
Sneezing
Yawning
withdrawl of hand on touching a hot plate
watering of mouth at the smell of food
2170. During Sleep:
Plasma level reduces
Plasma level increases
Plasma level is not changed
None of these
2171. Memory depends on:
duration
non-associative learning
way of learning
associative learning
2172. During sleep following changes occur, except:
Rate and force of respiration is decreased
Salivary secretion is decreased
Formation of urine is decreased
Sweat secretion is decreased
2173. Implicit memory, points to:
Skilled memory
Non skilled memory
Crude memory
Raw memory
Negative memory
g y
Positve Memory
Habituation
2175. Loss of memory is a dangerous phenomenon. Which one is loss of memory?
Amnesia
Tremor
non-fixed memory
viral encephalitis
2176. Delta waves in EEG are seen in:
Deep sleep
REM sleep
awake with eyes open
awake with eyes closed
2177. Theta waves are obtained generally in:
Children below age of 5 years
Teen agers
Adults
Aged women
2178. During Sleep:
Heart rate increases
Heart rate is not changed much
2179. Following are the types of spinal reflexes, except:
Segmental
Intersegmental
Suprasegmental
Extra segmental
2180. Buerger waves ( alpha waves) of EEG have the rhythm per second of:
0-4
4-7
8-13
13-30
2181. Epilepsy is divided into how many categories:
III
II
IV
2182. Which of these is an unconditioned stimulus?
Food
Loud noise
Shock
Pain
None of these
all of these
2183. Which is the category of the Epilepsy:
Generalized Epilepsy
Localized Epilepsy
Both
None of these
2184. Conditioned reflex forms the basis of
all higher intellectual functions
all higher nervous activity
all higher cortical functions
all higher brain functions
All of these
2185. Nightmares are seen in:
REM sleep
NREM stage II
NREM stage III
NREM stage IV
2186. Which instrument is used to record EEG?
Electroencephalograph
Electrocardiograph
Electrogram
Electromusclograph
2187. Which drugs are shown to improve learning and memory:
Caffeine, nicotine, strychnine, Metrazol
epinephrine, adrenaline, Caffeine
None
All of these
2188. Which type of reflex is developed with one unconditioned stimulus and one conditioned stimulus?
Negative conditioned reflexes
2189. Which type of reflexes inhibit the Conditioned reflexes?
Tertiary Conditioned Reflexes
2190. Which of these is an unconditioned response?
Sweating
Blink
Salivation
Startle response
None of these
All of these
2191. Which type of reflex is developed with one unconditioned stimulus and two conditioned stimuli?
Primary Conditioned reflex
2192. The greatest resistance in the systemic circulation is observed at the level ...
elastic arteries
muscular arteries
capillaries
arterioles
small veins
Vessel diameter
Blood volume
Contractility
Heart rate
2194. What is the velocity of blood flow in the aorta?
10-15 cm / sec
0.25-0.05 m / s
2.0-5.0 m / s
1.5-2.0 m / s
2195. The low pressure zone of the cardiovascular system does not include:
capillaries of the systemic circulation
capillaries of the pulmonary circulation
right atrium left atrium

right atrium, left atrium
arteries of the systemic circulation
2196. Average blood flow velocity through a given vessel ...
is directly proportional to the cross-sectional area of the vessel
is inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of the vessel
is directly proportional to the square of the vessel radius
is directly proportional to the radius of the vessel
2197. The procedure for listening to the heart sounds is called cardiac __ ____.
pulpation
auscultation
inspection
percussion
2198. What humoral factor has a more pronounced vasoconstrictor effect?
adrenaline
acetylcholine
norepinephrine
adenosine
2200. In which example is the blood pressure increased, mainly due to vasoconstriction?
140/90 mm Hg
140/100 mm Hg
140/80 mm Hg
140/70 mm Hg
2201. The maximum pressure in the right ventricle is normal:

25 to 30 mmHg
10 to 15 mmHg
60 - 80 mmHg
120-130 mmHg
2202. Mean arterial pressure increases in all following cases, except ...
an increase in the cardiac output
an increase in the peripheral vascular resistance
a decrease in the cardiac output
increased venous return
increased blood viscosity
2203. With age, the size of the heart ...
decrease due to atrophy
remain relatively constant
increase due to hypertrophy
2204. The cardiac conduction system includes all of the following except
the SA node.
the AV node.
the bundle branches.
the chordae tendineae.
the Purkinje fibers.
2205. What is the function of resistance vessels?
ensuring the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between blood and tissues
ensuring the return of blood to the heart
are a blood reservoirs in the body
maintaining the proper value of systemic blood pressure, regulation of local blood flow
2206. What is the value of the blood pressure at the arterial end of the capillaries of the systemic circulation?
15-20 mm Hg
6-8 mm Hg
g
30-37 mm Hg
2-4 mm Hg
2207. Choose the correct statement ...
the blood flow velocity is constant in the vascular system
the blood flow rate and blood flow velocity are constant in the vascular system
the blood flow rate is constant in the vascular system,
the blood flow rate and blood flow velocity are not constant in the vascular system
2208. All arteries in the body contain oxygen-rich blood with the exception of
the aorta.
the pulmonary artery.
the renal artery.
the coronary arteries.
2209. What chamber of the heart performs a harder work?
right ventricle
left ventricle
both fulfill the same job
left atrium
softens friction
forms valves
generates pulses
provides a reduction of chambers in the heart
2211. How will the lumen of the vessels of the skin and internal organs change at a high external temperature?
the vessels of the skin will narrow, the internal organs will expand
the vessels of the skin and internal organs will narrow
the vessels of the skin will expand, the internal organs will narrow
the vessels of the skin will not change, and the internal organs will expand
2212. If the radius of the blood vessel decreases 2 times, and the mean arterial and venous pressure remain unchanged, then ...
blood flow will decrease 4 times
2213. Aorta and arteries are:
vessels of elastic type
muscle vessels
muscle and elastic vessels
armless vessels
2214. The depolarization phase of the action potential of the of contractile cardiomyocytes is due to ...
opening of Na+ channels of the cell membrane and inflow of Na+
opening of Na+ channels of the cell membrane and outflow of Na+
opening of K+ channels of the cell membrane and inflow of K+
opening of K+ channels of the cell membrane and outflow of K+
2215. What processes in the heart does the QRS complex of the electrocardiogram reflect?
depolarization of the atria
atrial repolarization
repolarization of the ventricles
depolarization of the ventricles
2216. The plateau in action potential of a contractile cell is due to:
the rapid entry of sodium into the cell;
sodium inactivation;
passive release of potassium ions;
slow entry of calcium ions in the background of the release of K + ions.
2217. The role of breathing in venous return is called the ___ ____ .
cardiac pump
muscle pump
thoracic pump
all of the above
2218. How does pulse pressure change in small arteries?
does not change
increases
decreases
2219. Which mechanisms of these acts when blood flow to brain decreased?
Chemoreceptor reflexes.
Baroreceptor reflexes.
CNS ischemic response.
Atrial regulation.
2220. Slow diastolic depolarization in the pacemakers of the heart arises as a result ...
all the answers are correct
closure of K+ channels of the cell membrane
the gradual opening of the slow Ca+ channels of the cell membrane
a gradual increase in the permeability of the cell membrane for Na+
2221. The highest degree of autorhythmicity in:
sinoatrial node;
Bachmann's bundle;
bundle of His.
2222. What is the basis of autorhythmicity of the heart?
Rhythmic oscillation of carbon dioxide and oxygen concentration in coronary vessels
Rhythmic spontaneous depolarization of the atrioventricular node
rhythmic spontaneous depolarization of the bundle of His
rhythmic spontaneous depolarization of the sinoatrial node
70 ml
5000 ml
7l
1200 ml
2224. Stroke volume in a healthy young man at rest is equal ...
60 - 100 ml
200 - 1000 ml
1-3l
3.5 - 5.5 liters
20 - 50 ml
2225. Blood flow velocity is maximal in:
aorta;
arteries;
arterioles;
capillaries.
2226. What is the mechanism of genesis of the first heart sound ...
closing the atrioventricular valves
closing the semilunar valves
relaxation of the ventricles
atrial contraction
2227. Which of these statements is false?
Most of the total blood volume is contained in veins.
Capillaries have a greater total surface area than any other type of vessel.
Exchanges between blood and tissue fluid occur across the walls of venules.
Small arteries and arterioles present great resistance to blood flow.
2228. Which of these statements about tissue fluid is false?
It contains the same glucose and salt concentration as plasma.
It contains a lower protein concentration than plasma.

Its colloid osmotic pressure is greater than that of plasma.
Its hydrostatic pressure is lower than that of plasma.
2229. The action potential of a contractile ventricular cardiomyocyte lasts about ...
1 ms
300 ms
20 ms
3000 ms
pulmonary trunk
two pulmonary arteries
the aorta
two vena cava
2231. Cardiac muscle does not exhibit tetanus because it has
scanty sarcoplasmic reticulum.
a long absolute refractory period.
electrical synapses.
exclusively aerobic respiration.
fast Ca2 channels.
2232. What structures are transmitted AP from the atrioventricular node to the bundle of His?
by the Bachman pathways
by atrioventricular node
by Purkinje fibers
by internodal pathways
2233. Which of the following factors have a vasodilator effect?
vasopressin, angiotensin II
norepinephrine, angiotensin I
prostacyclin, nitric oxide
renin, thyroxine
2234. The maximum pressure in the left ventricle during their systole:
18 - 30 mm Hg.
125-130 mm. Hg
60 - 80 mm Hg.
18 - 30 mm Hg.
2235. The methods of recording sound phenomena in the heart include
electrocardiography
echocardiography
ballistocardiography
phonocardiography
2236. The highest arterial blood pressure attained during ventricular contraction is called ____ ___ pressure.
systolic pressure
diastolic pressure
pulse pressure
mean arterial pressure
2237. Blood pressure is lowest in
arteries.
arterioles.
capillaries.
venules.
veins.
2238. This famous physiologist discovered the circulation of blood:
Ernest Starling
William Harvey
Marcello Malpighi
Andreas Vesalius
2239. At what level of the vascular system does the most pronounced reduction in blood pressure occur?
arterioles
arteries
veins
capillaries
2240. The blood moves according to the conditions of cardiac hemodynamics:
against pressure gradient
from the ventricles to the atria
from the atrium to the veins
from the atria to the ventricles
2241. The ST interval of the electrocardiogram corresponds to ...
the spread of excitation through the myocardium of the ventricles
slow spread of excitation in the atrioventricular node
complete depolarization of the ventricles
2242. At what level of the vascular system is the lowest blood pressure noted?
venules
capillaries
arteries
vena cava
arterioles
2243. In a typical human cardiac cycle, the volume of blood remaining in the left ventricle at the end of ventricular systole is
10 ml
25 ml
50 ml
100 ml
2244. When will the blood flow velocity increase?
with an increase in the total cross-sectional area of all vessels
with a decrease in the blood flow rate

with an increase in the blood flow rate
with a decrease in the total cross-sectional area of all vessels
2245. The greatest resistance to blood flow is created in:
arteries;
arterioles;
capillaries;
veins.
2246. With age, the maximum consumption of O2 by the myocardium ...
decreases
increases
remains unchanged
2247. Which of these humoral factors stimulate heart work?
acetylcholine
potassium ions
adrenaline
endothelin
2248. Choose the correct sequence of action potential conduction along the conductive tissues of the heart:
SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers → Bundle branches
SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Bundle branches → Purkinje fibers
SA node → AV node → Bundle branches → Bundle of His→ Purkinje fibers
SA node → AV node → Purkinje fibers → Bundle of His → Bundle branches
2249. The linear velocity of blood flow in the capillaries is equal to:
5 m / s.
0.5 m / s.
0,5mm / sec.
0.3 m / s
2250. At rest the hearth rate is equal ...

50-60 beats / min
60-90 beats / min
75-100 beats / min
80-110 beats / min
2251. Which answer correctly indicates effects of angiotensin II?
severe vasodilation, inhibition of the release of aldosterone from the adrenal glands
severe vasoconstriction, stimulation of the release of aldosterone from the adrenal glands
angiotensin II does not significantly affect vascular tone
angiotensin II is not a vasoactive substance
2252. Who first discovered blood circulation?
K. Galen
I.F. Zion
W. Harvey
I.P. Pavlov
2253. Cells of the sinoatrial node are the primary pacemakers of the heart. In the absence of any input from the autonomic
nervous system, how many action potentials do these cells generate every minute?
none
2254. What changes in heart function can an increase in the patient's blood content of Ca2 + lead to?
an increase in heart rate
to weakening of heart contractions
to increase heart rate
to weakening and shortening of heart contractions
2255. Atrial systole at heart rate = 75 beats / min lasts ...
0.3 s
0.1 s
0.2 s
0.8 s
2256. At what level of branching of the vascular system is the minimum blood flow velocity observed?
arteries
veins
capillaries
arterioles
aorta
the mouth of the aorta
the mouth of the vena cava
the mouth of the pulmonary veins
between the atria and ventricles
2258. Ventricular pressure peaks during
the first heart sound.
the second heart sound.
the QRS complex.
the P–Q segment.
the S–T segment.
2259. Mean arterial pressure mainly depends on ...
contraction of large arteries and relaxation of large veins
the velocity of blood ejection by the ventricle
cardiac output and peripheral vascular resistance
the average blood flow velocity in the aorta
elasticity of the aorta
2260. Nitrogen monoxide (NO) is produced in ...
erythrocytes
macrophages
endothelium
neurons
2262. What effect does nitrogen monoxide (NO) have on vascular tone?
vasoconstriction
no effect
vasodilation
2263. During the phase of isovolumetric relaxation of the ventricles, the pressure in the ventricles is
rising.
falling.
first rising, then falling.
constant.
2264. Elderly people have resting heart rate ...
decreases
increases
does not change significantly
2265. Pacemaker potentials of the SA node result from:
slow Na+ influx
K+ influx
Cl− influx
fast Na+ influx
2266. The velocity of blood flow decreases if
vessel radius increases.

viscosity increases.
afterload increases.
vasomotion decreases.
2267. What component of the microcirculation is missing among the above: arterioles, precapillaries, capillaries, venules,
lymphatic capillaries?
arteriolar-venular anastomoses
arteriovenous anastomoses
arteries
veins
aorta
2268. What processes in the heart does the T wave of the electrocardiogram reflect?
2269. High excitation rate through Purkinje fibers provides:
consistent atrial and ventricular contractions
successive contractions of the right and left ventricles
asynchronous contraction of ventricular myocardium fibers
synchronous contraction of ventricular myocardium fibers
2270. The value of blood pressure depends on:
strength, heart rate
peripheral resistance
volume and viscosity of circulating blood
all of the above
2271. Which part of the central nervous system provides a change in heart rate during mental activity?
medulla oblongata
hypothalamus
hypothalamus
limbic system
cerebral cortex
spinal cord
2272. The blood pressure in the area of the confluence of the veins in the heart is:
120–130 mm Hg;
70–80 mm Hg;
12-15 mm Hg;
about O.
2273. Indicate which of the listed humoral factors has a positive effect on the myocardium:
acetylcholine
bradykinin
metabolites
epinephrine
2274. The Frank-Starling Law states that its ...
the force of contractions increases as the inflow of Ca2 + increases into the cell
the stroke volume is directly proportional to the strength developed by the ventricles in the isometric phase
the stroke volume increases as the myocardium is stretched by end-diastolic pressure
the force of contraction does not depend on the resistance to blood flow
2275. According to the functional classification resistance vessels include:
arteries
venules
capillaries
arterioles
2276. Atrioventricular valves open ...
at the beginning of the diastole of the ventricles
at the beginning of the phase of isovolumetric contraction of ventricles
at the end of the isoovolumetric relaxation of the ventricles
none of this phases and periods

2277. What is approximately the velocity of blood flow in the capillaries?
about 5 mm / s
about 20 mm / s
about 0.5 mm / s
about 10 mm / s
2278. In a healthy person in the right ventricle at the peak of systole and diastole, blood pressure is, respectively, approximately
...
125/80 mm Hg
120/0 mm Hg
25/0 mm Hg
0/25 mm Hg
2279. The blood contained in a ventricle during isovolumetric relaxation is
the end-systolic volume.
the end-diastolic volume.
the stroke volume.
the ejection fraction.
none of these; the ventricle is empty.
2280. First heart tone:
diastolic
is not heard with a stethoscope
deaf, long, deep
short, thin, ringing
2281. In an individual at rest, approximately this percentage of total blood volume can be found in the venous system:
5%
10%
35%
64%
2282. Which of the following substances with only a vasodilator effect?

acetylcholine, serotonin, vasopressin, renin
adrenaline, serotonin, histamine
acetylcholine, prostacyclin, bradykinin, histamine, acidic metabolic products
renin, acidic metabolic products, acetylcholine
2283. According to the Frank-Starling law of the heart, the strength of ventricular contraction is
directly proportional to the end-diastolic volume.
inversely proportional to the end-diastolic volume.
independent of the end-diastolic volume.
2284. Repolarization of the ventricles produces the ____ __ of the electrocardiogram.
QRS complex
P wave
T wave
PR interval
2285. Function of the ventricles:
the throw of blood in the circles of blood circulation;
suction of blood to the ventricles;
hydrodynamic shock for the atria;
unilateral movement of blood through the heart.
2286. Cardiac output during hard muscle exercises in a healthy man is equal ...
8-10 l
5-8 l
25-35 l
10-12 l
2287. The cardiac cycle begins with:
ventricular systole
a general pause
atrial systole
atrial diastoles
2288. What is the value of blood pressure at the venous end of the capillary of the systemic circulation?
30-35 mm Hg
6-8 mm Hg
2-4 mm Hg
15-20 mm Hg
2289. At the peak of the systole, the blood pressure in atria reaches ...
25-30 mm Hg
70-80 mm Hg
4-12 mm Hg.
40-50 mm Hg.
2290. If the hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries and tissues is 30 and 3 mm Hg, and oncotic blood pressure 25 and 2 mm Hg,
respectively, then what is the net filtration pressure?
4 mm Hg
0 mm Hg
2 mm Hg
6 mm Hg
2291. In which example is the highest pulse pressure?
120/80 mm Hg
110/60 mm Hg
130/90 mm Hg
140/95 mm Hg
2292. Where are the baro- and chemoreceptors involved in the regulation of the cardiovascular system located?
aortic arch
carotid sinus
the mouth of the hollow veins
the endocardium of the atria and ventricles
ubiquitous in the cardiovascular system
pulmonary trunk
2293. What is the name of the blood pressure, which reflects the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure?
systolic pressure
diastolic pressure
pulse pressure
2294. The capillaries of skeletal muscles are of the structural type called __ _____
sinosoids
continuous capillaries
fenestrated capillaries
arterioles
2295. Atrioventricular valves separate:
the ventricles from the main arteries;
atria from the ventricles;
vena cava from the right atrium;
pulmonary veins from the left atrium.
2297. Bradycardia is observed if the heart rate is less ...
60 beats / min
75 beats / min
80 beats / min
90 beats / min
2298. The volume of blood pumped per minute by the left ventricle is
greater than the volume pumped by the right ventricle.
less than the volume pumped by the right ventricle.
the same as the volume pumped by the right ventricle.

either less or greater than the volume pumped by the right ventricle, depending on the strength of contraction.
2299. What changes in heart function can result in a significant increase in the patient's blood content of K +?
to an increase and increase in heart rate
to increase heart rate
to weakening of heart contractions
an increase in heart rate
2300. How does irritation of the sympathetic nerve affect the excitability and conduction of the heart?
reduces
does not affect
increases
excitability - decreases, conductivity – increases
2301. What innervation does most of the vessels lack?
sympathetic
trophic
parasympathetic
peripheral
2302. What is the average mean arterial pressure?
45-50 mm Hg
80-90 mm Hg
120-125 mm Hg
90-100 mm Hg
2303. Which parts of the cardiovascular system contain up to 60-70% of the total blood volume?
arteries
capillaries
veins
aorta
2304. Which of the following substances with only a vasoconstrictor effect?
adrenaline, acetylcholine, renin, histamine, vasopressin

norepinephrine, serotonin, acidic metabolic products
bradykinin, prostacyclin, acetylcholine
norepinephrine, vasopressin, angiotensin
2305. If a patient has high systolic blood pressure with normal or low diastolic blood pressure, it can be assumed that ...
increased peripheral vascular resistance as a result of narrowing of arterioles
increased stroke volume and decreased aortic stiffness
decreased stroke volume and peripheral vascular resistance
increased cardiac output and slightly decreased peripheral vascular resistance
2306. An increase in arterial blood pressure occurs in all cases except ...
increasing the tone of smooth muscles of the arteries
an increase in the excitability of aortic baroreceptors
an increase in the cardiac output
reducing the excitability of aortic baroreceptors
2307. How does the velocity of blood flow from the aorta to the vena cava change?
remains constant at all levels of the vascular system
increases to the level of capillaries, then decreases
decreases to the level of capillaries, then increases
gradually decreases at all levels of the vascular system
2308. The duration of the cardiac cycle is considered by the ECG interval:
P–Q
Q–T
T–P
R–R
2309. In which of the vessels 30 mm long, the resistance to blood flow will have the greatest value if the radius of the vessel is
...
4 mm
6 mm
2 mm
5 mm
2310. The sequence of contractions first atrial and then ventricles is due to:
the work of semilunar valves
sineatrial node pacemaker function
pressure gradient between the atria and ventricles
atrioventricular delay
2311. If you damage the sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves going to the heart, then ...
heart rate will decrease
heart rate will increase
the rhythm of the atrioventricular node will appear
slow diastolic depolarization in the sinus node stops
the heart will stop beating
2312. Peristaltic waves of contraction move fluid within which of these vessels?
Arteries
Veins
Capillaries
Lymphatic vessels
All of these
2313. In which part of the central nervous system is the cardiovascular center located?
in the spinal cord
in the hypothalamus
in the medulla oblongata
in the thalamus
2314. How does the blood flow rate change in different types of the vascular system?
more in arteries and less in veins
the largest in the aorta and large arteries
does not change
the largest in the veins and the smallest in the arteries

2315. The Frank-Starling law is:
heart failure;
violation of the activity of the heart;
increase in heart rate;
an increase in the strength of heart contractions in response to the stretching of the heart chambers.
2316. What is the reason for the increase in the cardiac output during exercise in an untrained person?
predominantly an increase in heart rate
predominantly an increase in systolic blood volume
an increase in heart rate and a decrease in systolic volume
a decrease in heart rate and an increase in systolic volume
2317. The atria contract during
the first heart sound.
the second heart sound.
the QRS complex.
the P–Q segment.
the S–T segment.
2318. Pulse pressure is:
minimum pressure in the arteries
pressure in the arteries
the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure
maximum pressure in the arteries
2319. Atrial systole lasts:
0.1 s
0.8 s.
0.33 s
0.47 s
2320. What is the hemodynamic law calculated by the formula Q = ∆P / R?
blood viscosity
blood flow velocity
vessel length
blood flow rate
2321. Under normal conditions, the excitation of the myocardiac cells of the ventricles does not spread to the atrium, since ...
the duration of the plateau phase and the refractory period of the excitatory cells is greater than the contractile cells
excitation in an atrioventricular node usually goes only in one direction
atrial muscle fibers are at this time in the refractory period
ventricular muscles fibers are at this time in the refractory period
2322. In an individual at rest, approximately this percentage of total blood volume can be found in all capillaries:
5%
10%
35%
65%
2323. A large duration of the action potential of contractile cardiomyocytes depends on the plateau phase due to ...
extended sodium activation time
opening of K+ channels of the cell membrane and inflow of Ca2+
delayed sodium activation, delaying opening of K+ channels of the membrane and the delaying of repolarization
extended potassium activation time
2324. What is the mechanism of genesis of the fourth heart sound?
vibration of the walls of the ventricles when filling with blood
slamming the semilunar valves
turbulence of blood flow
vibration of the atrial walls during their contraction
2325. What does the duration of the PQ segment, equal to 0.25 seconds, indicate?
on the acceleration of the conduction of excitation from the atria to the ventricles
on the slowing down of the conduction of excitation in the musculature of the ventricles
about slowing down the conduction of excitation from the atria to the ventricles
on the acceleration of the conduction of excitation through the atria

2326. The spike phase of the action potential of the sinoatrial node pacemaker cells of the heart is caused by:
Opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels
Opening of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
Closure of voltage-gated K+ channels
Opening of voltage-gated Cl− channels
2327. How will the blood pressure change if, as a result of slow blood loss, the amount of circulating blood has decreased by
10%?
will not change
decrease
will increase
2330. What factor does peripheral vascular resistance mainly depend on?
on the length of the vessel
from the radius of the vessel
from blood viscosity
from the area of the vessel
2331. How does the blood pressure change in the vascular system from the aorta to the vena cava?
remains constant throughout the entire vascular system
decreases throughout the entire vascular system

decreases to the level of capillaries, then rises
rises to the level of capillaries, then decreases
2332. Autoregulation of blood flow in the vessels means ...
maintaining the constancy of the blood flow rate
the effect of plasma accumulation and a decrease in hematocrit in small vessels
relatively constant blood flow rate despite fluctuations in blood pressure
maintaining a constant tone of the vasomotor nerves
2333. What is the name of the myocardial excitability phase, which correlates to the plateau phase of action potential?
relative refractory period
the phase of supernormal excitability
absolute refractory period
phase of subnormal excitability
The hydrostatic pressure in the left ventricle is lower than the hydrostatic pressure in the aorta.
2335. Indicate violation of myocardial contractility:
tachycardia
sinus arrhythmia
heart failure
premature contraction
ventricles just before ventricular contraction (referred to as enddiastolic volume), enters the ventricles as a result of passive
venous return of blood flowing through the atria and into the ventricles.
10%
20%
50%
80%
2337. The normal pulse pressure value is:
110-30 = 70 mmHg
140-60 = 80 mmHg
110-70 = 40 mmHg
100-90 = 10 mmHg
2338. At what type of blood pressure do Korotkoff sounds appear when measuring blood pressure?
with diastolic
with systolic
with pulse
with stroke
2339. Electrocardiography is a method of assessing ...
the work of the heart
the strength of the heart
excitement of the heart
heart contractions
2340. What is the function of the heart:
blood depot;
organ hematopoiesis;
double action pump;
organ excretion.
2342. A properties of action potential of a contractile cell is:
the value of action potential;
depolarization phase;
the presence of a peak point in action potential;
slow repolarization - plateau.
2343. During the isovolumetric contraction phase of the cardiac cycle:
2344. The pressure sensors in the major arteries near the head are called __ ___ __ .
chemorecetors
baroreceptors
mechanoreceptors
all of the above
2345. In a typical ventricular myocyte, the refractory period is approximately:
1 ms
5 ms
10 ms
100 ms
250 ms
2346. During the isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle:
2347. Approximately how much pressure drops in the left ventricle during diastole?
100 mm Hg
0 mm Hg
80 mm Hg
40 mm Hg
120 mm Hg
2348. What structures are transmitted AP from a sinus node to an atrio-ventricular node?
by the Bakhman and internodal pathways
by the bundle of His
by Purkinje fibers
by the right branch of the bundle of His
ensuring metabolism in organs and tissues
discharge of blood from arterioles into venules, bypassing capillaries
the transformation of intermittent blood flow in continuous
the transformation of the laminar flow of blood into a turbulent
2350. Which part of the central nervous system provides an increase in heart rate during emotional reactions?
medulla oblongata
the limbic system
cerebral cortex
spinal cord
2351. What structures are the excitement from the bundle of His to the myocardiac cells of ventricles?
by Purkinje fibers
by internodal pathways
by atrioventricular node
by the Bachman pathways
2352. The endings of the vagus nerve that innervates the heart are secreted ...
adrenaline
serotonin
histamine
acetylcholine
2353. The duration of the ventricular systole at heart rate = 75 beats / min is ...
0.44 s
0.23 s
0.8 s
0.33 s
0.52 s
2354. Tachycardia is observed if the heart rate is more ...
60 beats / min
75 beats / min
80 beats / min
90 beats / min
2355. All efferent fibers of the vasomotor center belong to the ___ ____ division of the autonomic nervous system.
parasympathetic
sympathetic
enteric
all of the above
2356. Factors contributing to the continuity of blood flow through the vessels:
elasticity of large arteries, resistivity of small vessels
cyclical activity of the heart
anastomoses work
the presence of sphincters and valves in the heart and veins
2357. Cardiac output in a healthy young man at rest is equal ...
1.5-2, 0 l
2.0-3.0 l
3.5-5.0 l
6-7 l
2358. What is the systolic / diastolic pressure in the pulmonary artery under normal conditions?
120/80 mm Hg
80/40 mm Hg
25/10 mm Hg
150/100 mm Hg
heart rate
stroke volume
heart rate and stroke volume
blood flow
2360. Which of the following is correct?
the blood flow velosity in large veins is greater than in capillaries
the total cross-sectional area of large veins is much smaller than that of capillaries
the blood flow velocity in the aorta is greater than in the vena cava
2361. Where is the cardiovascular center located?
in the upper thoracic segments of the spinal cord
in the pons
in the hypothalamus
in the upper cervical segments of the spinal cord
2362. Indicate the pressure at which the semilunar valves of the pulmonary trunk open:
25 to 30 mmHg
10 to 15 mmHg
60-80 mmHg
120-130 mmHg
2363. Which of the indicated humoral factors inhibit the work of the heart?
norepinephrine
calcium ions
acetylcholine
gastrin
ions Mg2 +
2364. Common for cardiac and skeletal muscle fibers is ...
autorhythmicity of cells
the presence of intercalated disks
the dependence of action potentials from concentration gradients of K+ and Na+
the presence of the "plateau" phase
2365. What are Korotkoff sounds?
a sound phenomenon that occurs above the artery when it is incompletely pressed
the sound accompanying the work of the heart
the sound phenomenon that occurs when the veins are pressed
the sound phenomenon that occurs above the artery when it is fully pressed
2366. Blood flows faster in a venule than in a capillary because venules
have one-way valves.
exhibit vasomotion.
are closer to the heart.
have higher blood pressures.
have larger diameters
2367. Closing of the __ ____ valves produces turbulence in the bloodstream, which contributes to heart sound S2.
pulmonary
semilunar
aortic
mitral
2368. What neurotransmitters are involved in the transmission of excitation from nerves to the heart?
glycine, gamma-aminobutyric acid
norepinephrine, acetylcholine
dopamine
histamine, serotonin
spinal cord
the midbrain
medulla oblongata
cerebral cortex
2370. Slow diastolic depolarization is characteristic to cells of ...
cardiac muscle fibers
skeletal muscle fibers
pacemakers
nervous fibers
2371. Where is the center of the sympathetic innervation of the heart?
in the upper cervical segments of the spinal cord
in the upper thoracic segments of the spinal cord
in the pons
2372. The sympathetic nerve fibers that innervate the heart secrete ...
acetylcholine
histamine
norepinephrine
serotonin
2373. What is extrasystole?
another contraction of the heart
increased heart contraction
extraordinary contraction of the heart
regular contraction of the atria
2374. Atrioventricular delay:
regulates the strength of contractions of the heart
provides blood flow to the heart
provides consistent atrial contractions and ventricles
sets the heart rhythm

2375. In a healthy adult in the left ventricle at the peak of systole and diastole, blood pressure is, respectively, about ...
150/100 mm Hg
120/60 mm Hg
120/0 mm Hg
120/80 mm Hg
2377. The contraction of myocardial cells is ...
isometric
isotonic
auxotonic
all the answers are correct
2378. The velocity of excitation in Purkinje fibers is:
0.05 m / s.
0.3 - 0.5 m / s.
0.02 - 0.04 m / s.
2 - 4 m / s.
2379. What is the reason for the increase in the cardiac output during physical activity in a trained person?
predominantly an increase in heart rate
predominantly an increase in systolic blood volume
an increase in heart rate and a decrease in systolic volume
a decrease in heart rate and an increase in systolic volume
2380. At the peak of systole in the right ventricle, blood pressure reaches about ...
70-80 mm Hg
120-130 mm Hg
50-60 mm Hg
25-30 mm Hg
2381. What is the name of the process of rhythmic spontaneous excitation of the heart?
Autorhythmicity
conductivity
Refractory period
contractility
2382. Increasing the tone of the vagus nerves during sleep:
strengthens and improves the functioning of the heart
weakens and slows down the heart
does not have a noticeable effect on the heart
has a phase reinforcing - weakening effect
2383. Blood pressure in the arterial part of the capillary is equal to:
70–80 mm Hg.
15–20 mm Hg.
35–40 mmHg
120–130 mm Hg
2384. Blood pressure in an adult (18–45 years old) normally amounts to:
100/50 mmHg
120/80 mm Hg.
70/40 mm Hg.
170/90 mm Hg.
2385. Which part of the central nervous system provides an increase in heart rate with an increase in body temperature?
cerebral cortex
hypothalamus
the limbic system
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
2386. Which of the following factors causes an increase in local blood flow?
an increase in the concentration of CO2 in the tissues
a decrease in the concentration of CO2 in the tissues
an increase in the concentration of O2 in the tissues
a decrease in the concentration of lactic acid in the tissues
2387. What hormone is of particular importance in regulating the activity of the heart under conditions of physical and
emotional stress?
vasopressin
adrenaline
histamine
serotonin
insulin
2388. The second heart sound immediately follows the occurrence of
the P wave.
the QRS wave.
the T wave.
2389. The aortic valves are opened at pressure in the left ventricle ...
more than 120-130 mm Hg
2390. The pacemaker potential of the SA node cells results from the slow inflow of ___ ___.
Ca ions
K ions
Na ions
Cl ions
2391. The basis of the autorhythmicity of the heart is:
potassium hyperpolarization
resistant sodium depolarization

interaction of acetylcholine with M- cholinergic receptors
spontaneous slow diastolic depolarization
2392. In the right ventricle, the ejection of blood begins at a pressure ...
120-130 mm Hg
70-80 mm Hg
8-12 mm Hg
40-60 mm Hg
2393. The greatest resistance to blood flow occurs in
large arteries.
medium-size arteries.
arterioles.
capillaries.
2394. Which of the following is true of ventricular filling phase?
Atrioventricular valves are open
Semilunar valves are open
Atria contract all throughout this phase
All heart valves are close
2395. What is approximately the total exchange surface area of capillaries?
10 000 m2
100 m2
600 m2
300 m2
2396. What heart ventricle pumps blood under great pressure?
right
no differences
identical pressure
left or right depending on the tension
left
Small arteries
Arterioles
Capillaries
Venules
Veins
2398. Autorhythmicity has:
myocardial contractile cell
pericardium
myocardium conductive cell
endocardium
2399. Blood pressure in the left ventricle of the heart is lowest during ...
isovolumetric contraction
slow ejection
the start of rapid filling phase
the of slow filling phase
2400. Endothelin is ...
analogue of prostacyclin
vasodilator peptide released by the endothelium
vasoconstrictor peptide released by the endothelium
vasoconstrictor peptide of the adrenal medulla
0.008 sec
0.5 sec
0.8 sec
8 sec
2402. The first heart sound, is produced by closing of
the aortic semilunar valve.

the pulmonary semilunar valve.
the tricuspid valve.
the bicuspid valve.
both AV valves.
2403. What processes in the heart does the P wave of the electrocardiogram reflect?
2404. What is the mechanism of the genesis of the third heart sound?
vibration of the walls of the atria when they are filled with blood
vibrations of the atrial walls during their contraction
vibration of the walls of the ventricles when they are filled with blood
turbulence of blood flow
2405. What is the mechanism of genesis of the second heart sound ...
closing the AV valves
closing the semilunar valves
contraction of the ventricles
atrial contraction
2406. What ventricle of the heart pumps a larger blood volume per 1 minute?
Left
right
identical volumes
during exercise - right
2407. To get from the right atrium to the right ventricle, blood flows through
the pulmonary valve.
the tricuspid valve.
the bicuspid valve.
the aortic valve

the aortic valve.
the mitral valve.
2408. During the filling phase of the ventricles with blood atrioventricular valves ...
closed
open
left closed, right open
right closed, left open
2409. The high pressure zone of the cardiovascular system includes:
left ventricle, aorta, arteries and arterioles of the systemic circulation
right ventricle, arteries and arterioles of the pulmonary circulation
right atrium, venules and veins of the systemic circulation
right atrium, left atrium and pulmonary circulation
2410. Disturbances of excitability in the heart manifest themselves:
blockade;
premature contraction;
decompensation;
tachycardia.
2411. Nitrogen monoxide (NO) is produced in the greatest amount by ...
erythrocytes
macrophages
endothelium
neurons
2412. Spontaneous impulses in the sinoatrial node occur with a frequency ...
20 imp / min
40-50 imp / min
30-40 imp / min
60-80 imp / min

2413. The circulatory route from aorta to the venae cavae is the _ _____ circuit.
systemic
pulmonary
coronary
enteric
2414. If the radius of the vessel has doubled, and the blood pressure remains unchanged, then ...
the average blood flow rate increases 4 times
blood flow increases 16 times
2415. Arterial blood pressure increases under the influence of all following factors, except ...
an increase in the stroke volume of the heart
increasing rate of blood ejection by the left ventricle
an increase in the peripheral vascular resistance
a decrease in the peripheral vascular resistance
decrease in the elasticity of the aortic wall
2416. The RQ interval on the ECG shows:
the spread of excitation in the ventricles
the spread of excitation in the atria and through the atrioventricular node
general pause of the heart
atrial cycle duration
2417. How will the lumen of the vessels of internal organs change at low external temperatures?
decrease
will increase
will not change
2418. At what blood pressure do Korotkoff sounds disappear when measuring blood pressure?
with diastolic
with systolic
with lateral
with pulse
2419. The lowest attained during ventricular relaxation is called ____ ___ pressure.
systolic pressure
diastolic pressure
pulse pressure
2420. What hormone that reduces the reabsorption of Na + and Cl- in the nephron tubules is synthesized in atrial myocytes?
endothelin
vasopressin
natriuretic peptide
adrenaline
2421. When the volume of the ventricles of the heart is the smallest?
during the closure of atrioventricular valves
at the lowest pressure in the atria
during the first heart sound
in the period of common relaxation
during the closure of the semilunar valves
2422. The first heart sound is produced at
the beginning of systole.
the end of systole.
the beginning of diastole.
the end of diastole.
2423. What pressure can be measured by palpation?
diastolic
systolic and diastolic
systolic
pulse
2424. Blood normally flows into a capillary bed from
the distributing arteries.
the conducting arteries.
a metarteriole.
a thoroughfare channel.
the venules.
2425. Within the cardiovascular system, the highest hydrostatic blood pressure is found in the:
Left ventricle during ventricular systole
Left ventricle during ventricular diastole
Left ventricle during atrial systole
Left ventricle during atrial diastole
2426. What is the heart rate if the value of the R-R interval on the ECG is 1 sec?
100 bpm
90 bpm
60 beats / min
120 bpm
opening of voltage-gated K+ and Ca2+ channels
2428. A compensatory pause occurs when:
atrial extrasystoles
ventricular extrasystoles
tachycardia
bradycardia
2429. In a healthy adult man at the peak of systole in the left ventricle, blood pressure reaches about ...
70-80 mm Hg
120-130 mm Hg
25-30 mm Hg
40-50 mm Hg
2430. The increase in the volume of circulating blood during physical activity is mainly provided by ...
the flow of interstitial fluid into the vessels
an increase in heart rate and strength
the flow of blood from the blood reservoirs
activation of erythropoiesis
2431. The P wave of the ECG represents _______________
ventricular depolarization
atrial depolarization
ventricular repolarization
2432. In which of the phases or periods of the heart cycle, all the heart valves are at the same time open ...
in the phase of isovolumetric contraction
during the period of rapid filling of ventricles
none of the phases of the cardiac cycle
at the beginning of isovolumetric relaxation
2433. Таламус является…
регулятором всех двигательных функций
регулятором мышечного тонуса
коллектором афферентных путей, высшим центром болевой чувствительности
регулятором гомеостаза
2434. Какую функцию выполняют вегетативные ганглии?
обеспечивают передачу возбуждения с преганглионарных волокон на постганглионарные
рефлекторную (в нем могут замыкаться периферические рефлекторные дуги)
все ответы правильные
транзиторную (через ганглий могут проходить транзитом афферентные и эфферентные волокна)
обладают свойствами нервных центров

обладают свойствами нервных центров
2435. Где располагаются вставочные нейроны соматической рефлекторной дуги спинномозгового рефлекса?
в передних рогах спинного мозга
в боковых рогах спинного мозга
в задних рогах спинного мозга
в спинномозговых узлах
2436. Голод и жажда определяются деятельностью
Гиппокампа
Гипоталамуса
Спинного мозга
Мозжечка
Полосатого тела
2437. Метод вызванных потенциалов - как метод исследования ЦНС применяется для изучения
Интенсивности биохимических процессов в структурах головного мозга
Суммарной электрической активности мозга
Состояния афферентных путей головного мозга
Химических основ работы нейрона
2438. Кто сформулировал основные принципы рефлекторной теории?
Р. Декарт
Я. Прохазка
И.М. Сеченов
И.П. Павлов
2439. По каким волокнам импульсы из спинного мозга поступают к мышечным веретенам?
Альфа-афферентным
Гамма-эфферентным
Гамма-афферентным
Волокнам группы С
Волокнам группы В
2440. Скорость распространения возбуждения в преганглионарных симпатических и парасимпатических нервных
волокнах равна :
70-120 м/с
20-50 м/с
30-70 м/с
3-15 м/с
0,5-2,0 м/с
2441. Эмоциональная реакция определяется деятельностью
Мозжечка
2442. ГАМКергические нейроны …
способны вызывать пресинаптическое торможение
способны вызывать постсинаптическое торможение
блокируются стрихнином
блокируются столбнячным токсином
2443. Нервные центры обладают…
низкой чувствительностью к недостатку кислорода
отсутствием чувствительности к недостатку кислорода
высокой чувствительностью к недостатку кислорода
2444. Где «замыкается» дуга ахиллова рефлекса?
В крестцовом отделе спинного мозга
В продолговатом мозге
В шейном отделе спинного мозга
В среднем мозге
2445. В чем заключается роль синапсов ЦНС?
являются местом возникновения возбуждения в ЦНС
проводят токи покоя
передают возбуждение с одного нейрона на другой
формируют потенциал покоя нервной клетки
2446. Правое полушарие у правшей обеспечивает
Эмоциональные состояния
Интегративные функции
Образное мышление
Анализ сенсорной информации
Функции речи
2447. При поражении мозжечка имеет место:
Расстройство психики
Нарушение памяти
Атаксия
Расстройство зрения и слуха
2448. Какие из перечисленных структур являются центральными звеньями лимбической системы?
обонятельная луковица, передние ядра таламуса
таламус, свод, септальная область
гиппокамп, миндалина, сводчатая извилина
обонятельный тракт, крючок, поясная извилина
2449. Как называется торможение нейронов собственными импульсами, поступающими по коллатералям аксона к
тормозным клеткам?
вторичным
реципрокным
поступательным
возвратным
латеральным
2450. Эффекты повышения артериального давления и увеличения частоты сокращений сердца могут быть получены
при раздражении:
3адней группы ядер гипоталамуса.
Любой группы ядер гипоталамуса
Передней группы ядер гипоталамуса.
3адней группы ядер гипоталамуса.
В области воронки гипоталамуса
2451. Какие основные физиологические функции глии?
опорная, трофическая, изолирующая
интегративная
обеспечение процесса центрального торможения
оказание восходящего активирующего влияния на кору головного мозга
2452. По каким волокнам импульсы из мышечных веретен поступают в спинной мозг?
Альфа-афферентным
Волокнам группы С
Волокнам группы В
Гамма-афферентным
Гамма-эфферентным
2453. Чем обусловлено возникновение в нервном центре пространственной суммации?
увеличением частоты следования импульсов по афферентному входу
высокой утомляемостью
односторонностью проведения возбуждения
одновременным возбуждением нескольких близко расположенных синапсов
2454. При блокаде симпатической иннервации можно наблюдать
Расширение кровеносных сосудов кожи
Расширение зрачков
Снижение артериального давления

Уменьшение частоты сердечных сокращений
2455. Какой чувствительностью обладают нервные центры к действию различных химических веществ?
низкой
практически нечувствительны
вообще нечувствительны
высокой
2456. На каком уровне необходимо перерезать ствол мозга для получения у животного состояния децеребрационной
ригидности?
Выше ядер переднего двухолмия
Ниже уровня красных ядер
Выше уровня красных ядер
На уровне черной субстанции
2457. Какой из отделов вегетативной нервной системы может оказывать на один и тот же орган двоякое влияние?
симпатический
симпатический и парасимпатический
никакой
парасимпатический
2458. Как называется схождение различных путей проведения нервных импульсов к одной и той же нервной клетке?
дивергенция
трансформация
суммация
конвергенция
пролонгирование
2459. Торможение в ЦНС – это…
активный нервный процесс, ослабляющий или прекращающий возбуждение, а также препятствующий его
возникновению
пассивный процесс, связанный с развитием утомления
активный нервный процесс, сопровождающийся развитием утомления

2460. Чем обусловлено возникновение в нервном центре временной суммации?
одновременным возбуждением нескольких близко расположенных синапсов
увеличением частоты следования импульсов по афферентному входу
высокой утомляемостью
односторонним проведением возбуждения
2461. «Лифтные» рефлексы относятся к…
статокинетическим
позно-тоническим
выпрямительным
статическим
2462. Какая из указанных структур ЦНС осуществляет активирующее влияние на кору больших полушарий и
координирует рефлекторную деятельность спинного мозга?
стриопаллидарная система
гипоталамус
ретикулярная формация
подкорковые ядра
2463. Коленный рефлекс возникает при ударе молоточка по…
сухожилию четырехглавой мышцы бедра ниже надколенника
сухожилию четырехглавой мышцы бедра выше надколенника
надколеннику
четырехглавой мышце бедра
2464. Какие из ниже перечисленных функций обеспечивает большой круг Пейпеса?
агрессивно-оборонительное поведение
процессы обучения и памяти
пищевое поведение
сексуальные формы поведения
2465. Рефлекторные реакции какого отдела ЦНС имеют непосредственное отношение к поддержанию позы, жеванию,
глотанию пищи, секреции пищеварительных желез, дыханию, деятельности сердца, регуляции тонуса сосудов?
среднего мозга
таламуса
заднего мозга
спинного мозга
2466. Могут ли быть на теле одного нейрона и возбуждающие, и тормозные синапсы?
Нет, не могут
Только на нейронах спинного мозга
Могут быть на нейронах всех отделов мозга
Только на нейронах вегетативной нервной системы
Только на мотонейронах
2467. Какое количество нейронов включает эфферентная часть вегетативной рефлекторной дуги?
2 нейрона
1 нейрон
3 нейрона
4 нейрона
2468. Обозначьте вид торможения, представленного на рисунке.
Реципрокное
Возвратное торможение
Постсинаптическое
Пресинаптическое
2469. При двусторонней перерезке блуждающих нервов можно наблюдать
Расширение просвета бронхов
Увеличение кровяного давления
Увеличение частоты сердечных сокращений
Уменьшение слюноотделения
2470. Ядерно-магнитный резонанс как метод исследования ЦНС применяется для изучения

2471. Кто впервые предложил термин «рефлекс» использовать в физиологии?
Р. Декарт
И.П. Павлов
2472. Кто впервые выдвинул представление о рефлекторной деятельности?
И.П. Павлов
Р. Декарт
2473. Какое влияние оказывает парасимпатический отдел вегетативной нервной системы на слюнные железы?
усиление секреции более концентрированной слюны
торможение секреции слюны
усиление секреции менее концентрированной слюны
2474. Как называется явление, при котором возбуждение одной мышцы сопровождается торможением центра
мышцы-антагониста?
отрицательной индукцией
реципрокным торможением
утомлением
облегчением
окклюзией
2475. Что такое рефлекс?
ответная реакция организма на действие раздражителей при обязательном участии высших отделов нервной
системы
ответная реакция организма на действие раздражителей без участия нервной системы
ответная реакция организма на действие раздражителей при обязательном участии нервной системы
ответная реакция организма на действие раздражителей при возможном участии нервной системы
2476. Где локализуются центры насыщения?
в медиальной группе ядер гипоталамуса
в латеральной группе ядер гипоталамуса
в передней группе ядер гипоталамуса
в задней группе ядер гипоталамуса
2477. Кто впервые предположил рефлекторный характер психических процессов?
Р. Декарт
И.П. Павлов
2478. Какая из функций стриопаллидарной системы является наиболее важной?
регуляция тонуса мышц
регуляция реакций организма на восприятие раздражений (соматических, слуховых, зрительных)
регуляция вегетативных функций
участие в формировании, хранении и реализации сложных двигательных программ
2479. Быстрый сон определяется деятельностью
Мозолистого тела
Варолиева моста
Височной коры
2480. Как называются рефлексы, обеспечивающие равновесие при изменении скорости и направления движения?
статические
статокинетические
кинетические
вегетативные
2481. Где «замыкается» дуга коленного рефлекса?
В поясничном отделе спинного мозга
2482. Лимбические отделы коры обеспечивают
2483. В каких взаимоотношениях находятся между собой симпатический и парасимпатический отделы вегетативной
нервной системы?
полного синергизма
полного антагонизма
относительного антагонизма и синергизма
2484. Эмоциональная память определяется деятельностью
2485. Нервная клетка выполняет
Интегративную функцию
Трофическую функцию
Функцию синтеза медиатора
Функции генерации потенциала действия
Все перечисленные функции
2486. Возбуждение в нервном центре распространяется…
от эфферентного нейрона через промежуточный к афферентному
от промежуточного нейрона через эфферентный к афферентному
от афферентного нейрона через промежуточный к эфферентному
от промежуточного нейрона через афферентный к эфферентному

от промежуточного нейрона через афферентный к эфферентному
2487. Как называется способность нейрона устанавливать многочисленные синаптические связи с различными
нервными клетками?
конвергенция
трансформация ритма
дивергенция
суммация
пролонгирование
2488. Где «замыкается» дуга глотательного рефлекса?
2489. Двустороннее поражение гиппокампа сопровождается нарушением:
Памяти
Движений
Сознания
Восприятия устной и письменной речи
Возвратное торможение
2491. Укажите скорость распространения возбуждения в постганглионарных симпатических нервных волокнах:
70-120 м/с
20-50 м/с
30-70 м/с
3-15 м/с
0,5-2,0 м/с
2492. Как называется способность нервного центра к восстановлению функций после повреждения части нейронов
центра?
трансформация ритма возбуждений
пластичность
лабильность
утомляемость
2493. Где расположены тела преганглионарных нейронов симпатического отдела нервной системы?
В среднем мозге, продолговатом мозге и крестцовом отделе спинного мозга.
В шейном и грудном отделах спинного мозга.
В продолговатом мозге и крестцовом отделе спинного мозга.
В боковых рогах грудного и поясничного отделов спинного мозга.
В передних рогах грудного и поясничного отделов спинного мозга.
2494. Кем было открыто явление центрального торможения?
А.А. Ухтомским
И.П. Павловым
И.М. Сеченовым
Ч. Шеррингтоном
2495. Какое влияние оказывают симпатические нервы на тонус сосудов сердца?
повышают
снижают
не влияют
2496. Что понимают под пролонгированием?
беспорядочное распространение возбуждения в ЦНС
направленное распространение возбуждения в ЦНС
увеличение времени импульсации на выходе из нервного центра по сравнению с длительностью раздражения
уменьшение числа импульсов на выходе из нервного центра по сравнению с длительностью раздражения
2497. Затылочные и височные отделы коры обеспечивают
2498. Тремор определяется деятельностью
Мозжечка
2499. При блокаде симпатической иннервации можно наблюдать:
Расширение кровеносных сосудов кожи.
Расширение зрачков
Снижение артериального давления.
Уменьшение частоты сердечных сокращений.
2500. Где расположены тела преганглионарных нейронов парасимпатического отдела нервной системы?
В среднем мозге, продолговатом мозге и крестцовом отделе спинного мозга.
В шейном и грудном отделах спинного мозга.
В продолговатом мозге и грудном отделе спинного мозга.
В грудном и поясничном отделах спинного мозга.
В среднем мозге, в грудном и поясничном отделах спинного мозга.
2501. Возбуждение ядер передней группы гипоталамуса вызывает в иннервируемых органах…
симпатические эффекты
смешанные эффекты: симпатические и парасимпатические
парасимпатические эффекты
Латеральное
2503. Нервные центры являются…
быстро утомляемыми
медленно утомляемыми
практически неутомляемыми
вообще неутомляемыми
2504. Какие функциональные зоны выделяют в коре больших полушарий?
только сенсорные
только моторные
моторные, сенсорные, ассоциативные
моторные и сенсорные
2505. В коре мозжечка…
корзинчатые клетки - возбуждающие, все остальные тормозные
все клетки являются тормозными
клетки зерна - возбуждающие, все остальные тормозные
все клетки являются возбуждающими
грушевидные клетки - возбуждающие, все остальные тормозные
2506. При поражении базальных ядер нарушается:
Регуляция вегетативных реакций
Координация двигательной активности
Проведение афферентной импульсации от органов чувств
Все перечисленные функции
2507. Глицин увеличивает проницаемость постсинаптической мембраны для ионов…
калия
хлора
натрия
кальция

2508. При повреждении мозжечка не наблюдается…
нарушения координации движений
нарушения коленного рефлекса
потери сознания
изменения мышечного тонуса
вегетативных расстройств
2509. Левое полушарие у правшей обеспечивает
2510. Гипертермия определяется деятельностью
Мозжечка
2511. Какие нейроны способны генерировать импульсы без воздействия раздражителей?
фоновоактивные
униполярные
полимодальные
моносенсорные
2512. Какая форма взаимодействия нейронов показана в основе механизмов распространения возбуждения в ЦНС?
Конвергенция
Пролонгирование
Окклюзия
Иррадиация
2513. Какой отдел ЦНС является ведущим в формировании статокинетических рефлексов?
Продолговатый мозг
Средний мозг
Промежуточный мозг
Кора мозга
2514. Лобные отделы коры обеспечивают
2515. Межполушарный перенос информации определяется деятельностью
2516. В норме испытуемый при проведении пробы Ромберга сохраняет устойчивость, находясь в вертикальном
положении, когда…
пятки и носки слегка соприкасаются, руки скрещены на груди, глаза открыты
ноги расставлены на уровне плеч, руки скрещены на груди, глаза закрыты
пятки и носки слегка соприкасаются, руки вытянуты вперед, глаза закрыты
ноги расставлены на уровне плеч, руки вытянуты вперед, глаза закрыты
2517. Электроэнцефалография как метод исследования ЦНС применяется для изучения
2518. Какой из перечисленных отделов ЦНС является ведущим в формировании произвольного движения?
Спинной мозг
Моторные области коры
Гипоталамус
Лимбическая система
2519. Возбуждение в нервных центрах проводится односторонне, что обусловлено…
синаптической задержкой
низкой лабильностью
свойством химических синапсов проводить возбуждение в одном направлении
2520. Какую роль играет торможение в работе нервных центров?
служит для замыкания рефлекторной дуги в ответ на раздражение
стимулирует работу нервных центров
выполняет охранительную, регулирующую и координирующую функции
обеспечивает объединение клеток ЦНС в нервные центры
2521. Какое явление возникает в нейроне, если в результате пространственной или временной суммации
возбуждающий постсинаптический потенциал достигает критического уровня деполяризации?
Гиперполяризация
Поляризация
Тормозной постсинаптический потенциал
Потенциал действия
Потенциал покоя
2522. Для развития торможения в ЦНС необходимо все, кроме…
медиатора
нарушения целостности нервного центра
открытия калиевых каналов
открытия хлорных каналов
энергии АТФ
2523. Замедление проведения возбуждения через синапсы нервного центра обусловлено…
синаптической задержкой
пролонгированием
пластичностью нервного центра
посттетанической потенциацией
2524. Слуховые ощущения определяется деятельностью
2525. Где «замыкается» дуга локтевого сухожильного рефлекса?
2526. Какая форма взаимодействия нейронов показана в основе механизмов распространения возбуждения в ЦНС?
Конвергенция
Окклюзия
Пролонгирование
Иррадиация
2527. Мембранный потенциал нейрона в покое равен:
1-2 мВ
0,5 мВ
10 мВ
Около 60 мВ
Около 20 мВ
2528. Влияние инсулина на организм...
стимулирует гликолиз, катаболизм белка, угнетает липолиз
стимулирует гликолиз, липолиз и анаболизм белка
стимулирует гликолиз, анаболизм белка, угнетает липолиз
стимулирует гликолиз, липолиз и катаболизм белка

2529. В цветовом восприятии основную роль играют…
амакриновые клетки
пигментные клетки
палочки
колбочки
2530. Рецепторами какой части языка лучше всего воспринимается горький вкус?
края
верхушки
основания
боковой поверхности
спинки
2531. Пространство, видимое глазом при фиксации взгляда в одной точке называется
близорукость
поле зрения
аккомодация
острота зрения
астигматизм
2532. В организме в условиях сильного стресса уровень катехоламинов возрастает в…
2 раза
10 и более раз
2533. Какие из указанных образований слухового анализатора относятся к звукопроводящим?
преддверие и полукружные каналы
кортиев орган, полукружные каналы
евстахиева труба, преддверие
барабанная перепонка, слуховые косточки
2534.
2535. Проводниковый отдел сенсорной системы включает ...
специфические проводящие пути
неспецифические проводящие пути
специфические подкорковые образования
неспецифические подкорковые образования
2536. Какой гормон практически не имеет специального органа-мишени?
окситоцин
соматотропин
тиреотропин
антидиуретический гормон
2537. Общие принципы строения анализаторов
многоканальность
многослойность
дифференциация по вертикали и горизонтали
2538. Наибольшее поле зрения отмечается при восприятии…
синего цвета
красного цвета
зеленого цвета
черно-белого цвета
2539. Рецепторами слухового анализатора являются…
волосковые клетки
образования внутреннего уха
клетки спирального ганглия
опорные клетки
2540. Для какого из нижеперечисленных цветов границы поля зрения самые узкие?
желтого
синего
зеленого
красного
2541. Рецептивное поле нейрона -
совокупность рецепторов, сигналы от которых поступают на данный нейрон
совокупность высокопороговых рецепторов, сигналы от которых поступают на данный нейрон
совокупность низкопороговых рецепторов, сигналы от которых поступают на данный нейрон
совокупность нейронов мозга, сигналы от которых конвергируют на данный нейрон
2542. Приспособление глаза к ясному видению удаленных на разное расстояние предметов называется…
дальнозоркостью
аккомодацией
близорукостью
астигматизмом
2543. Влияние адреналина на зрачок
суживает
расширяет
не влияет
2544. Какая железа является местом интеграции иммунной и эндокринной систем организма?
эпифиз
аденогипофиз
нейрогипофиз
тимус
надпочечники
2545. Сенсорные системы, в отличие от анализаторов, включают …
специфические подкорковые образования
неспецифические проводящие пути
специфические проводящие пути
обратные связи
обратные связи
етикулярную формацию ствола мозга
2546. При паракринном типе действия вещество влияет на …
клетку, секретирующую данное вещество
клетки, окружающие секретирующую клетку
клетки, расположенные на значительном расстоянии от места выработки вещества
клетку, расположенную в тесном контакте с клеткой, секретирующей вещество
2547. Где в клетке расположены рецепторы для большинства пептидных гормонов?
в цитоплазме
на мембране
в оболочке ядра
на хромосомах
2548. Первичный мессенджер является фактором, который…
обеспечивает передачу сигнала от рецептора к конкретным внутриклеточным структурам
активирует комплекс гормон-рецептор
действует на рецепторы клеток в органах мишенях
вызывает диссоциацию молекулярного ингибитора
2549. Какие из нижеперечисленных эффектов присущи окситоцину?
стимуляция сокращения матки при родах
все перечисленные эффекты
сокращение гладких мышц протоков молочных желез
регуляция водно-солевого обмена и питьевого поведения
2550. Какие эффекты оказывает гормон клубочковой зоны надпочечников альдостерон?
стимулирует секрецию Na+ и реабсорбцию К+
стимулирует реабсорбцию воды и вторично Na+
стимулирует реабсорбцию Na+ и секрецию K+
стимулирует реабсорбцию воды и вторично К+
2551. Рефракция глаза -

преломление лучей в оптической системе глаза
способность видеть раздельно две точки
приспособление глаза к ясному видению разноудаленных предметов
искажение хода лучей в хрусталике
2552. Интеграция сенсорных сигналов наблюдается .....
в спинном мозге
в ретикулярной формации
в проекционных зонах коры
в таламусе
2553. Болевой анализатор располагается в ......
височной области коры
соматосенсорной области коры
лобной области коры
таламических ядрах
2554. К интерорецепторам относятся…
вестибуло-, обонятельные, вкусовые
тактильные, термо-, механо-
вестибуло-, проприо-, висцеро-
висцеро-, фото-, фоно-
2555. Рецепторный потенциал…
является постсинаптическим
не подчиняется закону «все или ничего»
подчиняется закону «все или ничего»
подчиняется закону «все или ничего»
2556. Чувствительность слухового анализатора человека максимальна при восприятии звуковых колебаний с
частотой…
5000-8000 Гц
100-400 Гц
1000-4000 Гц
600-800 Гц
2557. Гормоны циркулируют в крови…
в свободном виде
в виде комплекса со специфическими белками
2558. Отсутствие способности восприятия красного цвета называется
протанопией
дейтеранопией
тританопией
2559. Какая эндокринная железа принимает участие в регуляции циркадианных ритмов у млекопитающих и человека?
тимус
надпочечники
щитовидная железа
эпифиз
половые железы
2560. Адаптация в сенсорных системах
в снижении активности процессов возбуждения и торможения
в изменении чувствительности к длительно действующему раздражителю
в повышении активности процессов возбуждения и торможения
2561. Статины и либерины гипоталамуса имеют большое значение в регуляции функционирования…
нейрогипофиза
адено- и нейрогипофиза
аденогипофиза
гипоталамуса и некоторых зон таламуса
2562. Основным результатом действия вазопрессина является стимуляция…

реабсорбции воды
реабсорбции Na+ и вторично - воды
реабсорбции калия
реабсорбции ионов Н+
2563. Какие ощущения могут возникать при возбуждении висцерорецепторов?
позывы на мочеиспускание и дефекацию
голод и жажда
одышка
2564. Вторичный мессенджер является фактором, который…
действует на рецепторы клеток в органах мишенях
активирует комплекс гормон-рецептор
вызывает диссоциацию молекулярного ингибитора
обеспечивает передачу сигнала от рецептора к конкретным внутриклеточным структурам
2565. При увеличении содержания эстрогенов в плазме крови наблюдается увеличение секреции окситоцина
нейрогипофизом, что является примером …
положительной обратной связи
отрицательной обратной связи
пермиссивного эффекта
морфогенетического эффекта
2566. Какой из нижеперечисленных гормонов повышает активность остеокластов, вызывая резорбцию кости?
антидиуретический гормон
глюкагон
инсулин
паратгормон
2567. Какой из приведенных ниже пептидных факторов не участвует в регуляции секреции гипофиза?
кортиколиберин
тиреостатин
тиреолиберин
меланолиберин
2568. Рецепторами какой части языка лучше всего воспринимается кислый и соленый вкус?
спинки
верхушки
края
боковой поверхности
основания
2569. Аксоны каких клеток сетчатки образуют зрительный нерв?
амакриновых
ганглиозных
биполярных
горизонтальных
2570. Гормоны, приводящие к снижению уровня глюкозы крови
все перечисленные
тироксин, глюкокортикоиды
глюкагон, паратгормон
нет правильного ответа
адреналин, альдостерон
глюкагон, окситоцин
2571. Факторы, стимулирующие секреции и инсулина
повышение уровня глюкозы в крови
повышение уровня глюкозы и аминокислот в крови
повышение уровня аминокислот в крови
снижение всасывания глюкозы из кишечника в кровь
2572. Какое в среднем количество гормонов связано со специфическими белками-переносчиками в плазме крови?
20%
80%
60%
100%
2573. Область восприятия звуковых частот слуховым анализатором человека имеет границы…
6-10000 Гц
6-2000 Гц
16-20000 Гц
10-2000 Гц
2574. Максимальной остротой зрения обладает…
желтое пятно
слепое пятно
центральная часть сетчатки
периферическая часть сетчатки
2575. Какие пептиды относятся к стимуляторам антиноцицептивной системы?
вазопрессин, окситоцин
амилитин, скотофобин
эндорфины, энкефалины
соматолиберин, меланолиберин
2576. Разрушение ассоциативной коры головного мозга сопровождается грубыми нарушениями…
обучения и памяти
вегетативных функций
гомеостаза
2577. Возбуждение рецепторов полукружных каналов наблюдается…
при угловых ускорениях в начале движения и в момент его окончания
при линейных ускорениях постоянно
при угловых ускорениях только в начале движения
при угловых ускорениях постоянно
2578. Какие преимущественно влияния в сенсорных системах передаются по эфферентным путям?
тормозные
облегчающие
возбуждающие
тонические
2579. Если у испытуемого основной обмен повышен на 45%, то, вероятнее всего, имеет место гиперфункция…
эпифиза
аденогипофиза
-клеток островков Лангерганса
коры надпочечников
щитовидной железы
2580. При увеличении содержания глюкокортикоидов в кровеносном русле наблюдается снижение выделения
адренокортикотропного гормона аденогипофизом, что является примером…
положительной обратной связи
отрицательной обратной связи
кинетического действия
пускового действия
2581. Основная часть антидиуретического гормона (примерно 5/6 от общего количества) синтезируется в …
паравентрикулярном ядре гипоталамуса
вентромедиальном ядре гипоталамуса
супраоптическом ядре гипоталамуса
нейрогипофизе
2582. Эстрогены ....
подавляют лактацию и тормозят эритропоэз
подавляют лактацию и стимулируют эритропоэз
стимулируют лактацию и эритропоэз
стимулируют лактацию и подавляют эритропоэз
2583. Какой гормон снижает уровень Ca2+ крови?
тиреокальцитонин
тироксин
тироксин
адреналин
2584. Рецепторы гормонов находятся в…
гемоглобине крови
транспортном белке крови
клетках органов-мишеней
эндотелии сосудов
2585. Какой гормон является основным представителем глюкокортикоидов?
альдостерон
дезоксикортикостерон
кортизол
кортикостерон
2586. В каком из вариантов ответа неправильно указано влияние тиреоидных и стероидных гормонов на генетический
аппарат клетки?
включение-выключение определённых генов
репрессия некоторых генов
ускорение-замедление транскрипции функционирующих генов
стимуляция транскрипции определённых генов
2587. При аутокринном типе действия вещество влияет на …
клетку, секретирующую данное вещество
клетки, окружающие секретирующую клетку
клетки, расположенные на значительном расстоянии от места выработки вещества
клетку, расположенную в тесном контакте с клеткой, секретирующей вещество
2588. Для какого из нижеперечисленных цветов границы поля зрения самые широкие?
синего
желтого
зеленого
красного
2589. Благодаря наличию обратных связей от высших отделов сенсорной системы к низшим…
тормозится избыточная и облегчается проведение наиболее важной информации
облегчается проведение слуховой и зрительной информации
тормозится проведение всех видов информации
тормозится проведение болевой и облегчается проведение тактильной информации
2590. Какие гормоны обладают выраженным противовоспалительным действием?
минералокортикоиды
катехоламины
инсулин
глюкокортикоиды
тиреоидные гормоны
2591. Какие гормоны являются производными аминокислот?
тироксин, трийодтиронин
адреналин, норадреналин
дофамин
все перечисленное
2592. Рецепторный потенциал имеет характер…
иррадиирующего возбуждения
распространяющегося возбуждения
локального возбуждения
застойного возбуждения
2593. При гиперфункции щитовидной железы масса тела …
повышается
не изменяется
возникает ожирение
снижается
2594. Что является непосредственной причиной возбуждения рецепторов кортиева органа?
колебания текториальной мембраны
колебания основной мембраны

деформация волосков рецепторных клеток
деформация барабанной перепонки
2595. Что обеспечивает гипоталамо-гипофизарная портальная кровеносная система?
поступление статинов и либеринов в переднюю долю гипофиза
поступление окситоцина и вазопрессина в заднюю долю гипофиза
выделение окситоцина и вазопрессина из задней доли гипофиза в кровь
выделение гормонов аденогипофиза в кровь
2596. Какой гормон регулирует выделение глюкокортикоидов?
окситоцин
соматотропин
кортикотропин
пролактин
2597. Раздражитель, к действию которого рецептор приспособлен в процессе эволюции, называется…
биологическим
физическим
физиологическим
адекватным
2598. Отсутствие способности различать отдельные цвета называется
дальтонизмом
2599. Отсутствие способности к восприятию синего и фиолетового цветов называется…
ахромазией
тританопией
дейтеранопией
протанопией
2600. Какой из нижеперечисленных гормонов повышает активность остеобластов, увеличивая отложение Са2+ в
костях?
глюкагон
соматостатин
2601. Кортикотропин главным образом стимулирует выработку гормонов…
клубочковой зоны надпочечников
сетчатой зоны надпочечников
пучковой зоны надпочечников
мозгового вещества надпочечников
2602. Недостаток каких гормонов в детском возрасте вызывает задержку роста, непропорциональное телосложение,
задержку умственного развития?
тироксина, трийодтиронина
соматотропина
паратгормона
тестостерона
2603. Какой из катехоламинов в наибольшем количестве содержится в крови в покое?
дофамин
адреналин
норадреналин
диоксифенилаланин
2604. Какой гормон усиливает воспалительные явления?
адреналин
кортикотропин
2605. Уровень центральной нервной системы, где осуществляется взаимодействие сенсорных систем
таламический
ретикулярный
спинальный
корковый
2606. При близорукости изображение будет фокусироваться…
за сетчаткой
перед сетчаткой
в передней камере глаза
на сетчатке
2607. Где в клетке расположены рецепторы к стероидным гормонам?
на мембране
в оболочке ядра
на хромосомах
в цитоплазме
2608. Где вырабатывается натрий-уретический пептид?
в задней доле гипофиза
в правом предсердии
в гипоталамусе
в юкстагломерулярном аппарате почки
в плаценте
2609. Гормоны, оказывающие анаболическое действие, стимулирующие рост костей и закрытие зон роста,
увеличивающие эритропоэз
эстрогены
андрогены
гестагены
лейкопоэтины
2610. Какое из нижеперечисленных веществ относится ко вторичным посредникам (мессенджерам)?
ЦАМФ
ЦГМФ
ионизированный Ca2+ и кальмодулин

все перечисленные вещества
2611. Быстроадаптирующиеся рецепторы...
фоторецепторы
болевые (ноцицепторы)
давления (диски Меркеля)
ускорения, вибрации (тельца Паччини)
2612. Какие расстройства могут возникать при раздражении рецепторов вестибулярного аппарата?
неврозы
психозы
кинетозы
сумеречное состояние сознания
2613. Уровень секреции соматотропина во время глубокого сна …
уменьшается
увеличивается
не изменяется
2614. Каким минимальным количеством квантов света может быть возбуждена одна палочка?
40
2615. При гормональном (гемокринном) типе действия гормон влияет на …
эндокринную клетку, секретирующую гормон
клетки, окружающие эндокринную клетку
клетки, расположенные на значительном расстоянии от места выработки гормона
клетку, расположенную в тесном контакте с клеткой, секретирующей гормон
2616. Гормоны, приводящие к повышению уровня глюкозы крови
паратгормон, пролактин
р р , р
тироксин, кортизол, адреналин
альдостерон, инсулин, тиреокальцитонин
мелатонин, инсулин, эстрадиол
2617. Признаки боли включают изменения ...
ритма дыхания
лейкоцитарной формулы и гормонального спектра плазмы крови
кровяного давления
ритма сердечной деятельности
2618. При дальнозоркости изображение будет фокусироваться…
перед сетчаткой
в задней камере глаза
за сетчаткой
на сетчатке
2619. На какой участок нефрона преимущественно действует антидиуретический гормон?
капилляры клубочков
юкстагломерулярный аппарат
собирательные трубочки нефрона
проксимальный каналец нефрона
2620. Гормоны тормозящие секрецию пищеварительных соков
вазопрессин
адреналин
инсулин
2621. Абсолютная чувствительность сенсорной системы
минимальнй порог рецепторов
порог отдельного рецептора
максимальный порог рецепторов

порог реакции (ощущения)
2622. Удаление паращитовидных желез вызывает…
гиперкальциемию
не влияет на обмен кальция
гипокальциемию
гипокалиемию
2623. Расстройство сумеречного зрения возникает при недостатке витамина...
В6
В1
2624. Неодинаковое преломление лучей в разных плоскостях оптической системы глаза называется…
2625. Каков суточный ритм выделения глюкокортикоидов?
уменьшаются утром и увеличиваются к вечеру
каждые 3-4 часа наблюдается их выброс с последующим снижением
каждые 60 мин наблюдается их выброс с последующим снижением
повышаются утром и уменьшаются к вечеру
2626. Где синтезируется основное количество эстрогенов в женском организме?
в клетках желтого тела
в сетчатой зоне надпочечников
в клетках фолликула
в плаценте
2627. Учёный, который создал учение об анализаторах
Н.Е. Введенский
И.П. Павлов
У. Гарвей
П.К. Анохин
2628. Какой из нижеперечисленных гормонов не относится к катехоламинам?
норадреналин
гистамин
адреналин
дофамин
2629. Гиперпродукция глюкокортикоидов характерна для…
базедовой болезни
болезни Иценко-Кушинга
микседемы
аддисоновой болезни
2630. Для полной характеристики положения тела в пространстве, кроме вестибулярной импульсации, необходима
дополнительная, от…
проприорецепторов шейных мышц
проприорецепторов мышц конечностей
проприорецепторов мышц туловища
проприорецепторов всех скелетных мышц
2631. Медленноадаптирующиеся рецепторы ...
вестибуло- и проприорецепторы
болевые, обонятельные, давления (диски Меркеля)
осязательные (тельца Мейснера)
ускорения, вибрации (тельца Паччини)

2632. Болевые рецепторы это
ноцицепторы
проприорецепторы
дистантные рецепторы
осморецепторы
2633. В состоянии покоя основной формой транспорта гормонов кровью к органам мишеням является…
в свободном виде
комплекс с белками-переносчиками
комплекс с форменными элементами крови
комплекс с катионами
Test System 2022

Physiology Exam 2022

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Physiology Exam 2022

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Physiology exam 2022

1. How does angiotensin II raise blood pressure?

Directly by increasing vasoconstriction and indirectly by stimulating aldosterone release

Only by increasing sodium (and, thus, water) reabsorption in the kidney

Only by causing vasoconstriction

3. At the end of the atrial diastole

Right ‘ventricle is completely full

Left ventricle is completely empty

Left ventricular pressure is about 35 mmHg

Left atrial pressure is about 20 mmHg

Right ventricular pressure is about 10 mmHg

Sarcoplasmic/endoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ ATPase (SERCA)

Plasma membrane Na+/Ca2+ exchanger

Plasma membrane Ca2+ ATPase

Sarcoplasmic/endoplasmic reticulum Na+/Ca2+ exchanger

Begins with the isometric relaxation phase

Lasts about 0.5 s in healthy adults at rest

6. The purkinje tissue cells in the heart :

conduct impulses faster than some neurons

lead to contraction of the base before the apex of the heart

are responsible for the short duration of the QRS complex

are responsible for the configuration of the QRS complex

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

9. Which of the following is true of ventricular diastole?

Atrioventricular valves are open

Semilunar valves are open

Atria contract all throughout this phase

10. Peripheral resistance is maximum in:

isometric ventricular relaxation, Isometric ventricular contraction

ventricles contract at a rate of 30-40 beats / minutes

atria beat irregularly

QRS complexes vary in shape from beat to beat

P-R interval remains constant from beat to beat

S.A node stops discharging

13. This famous physiologist discovered the circulation of blood:

Decreased firing rate of the carotid sinus nerve

Increased parasympathetic outflow to the heart

Decreased heart rate

Decreased mean systemic pressure

15. In human being the duration of cardiac cycle is ___________

isometric contraction phase.

atrial systole phase.

maximum ejection phase.

reduced ejection phase

An inferior myocardial infarction

An anterior myocardial infarction

A posterior myocardial infarction

18. Diacrotic notch is due to:

sudden closure of AV valves.

sudden closure of aortic valve.

sudden decrease in aortic pressure.

marked decrease in ventricular pressure

20. The ventricular repolarisation in ECG is best seen in:

They have the greatest surface area

they have the greatest cross-sectional area

the velocity of blood flow through them is the highest

the velocity of blood flow through them is the lowest

they have the greatest resistance

22. What view of the heart do leads V3 and V4 represent?

23. An electrocardiogram is a graphic illustration of ____________

cardiac conduction system

systemic and pulmonary circuits

Cells of the sinoatrial (SA) node

Cells of the atrioventricular (AV) node