Test Booklet No. Test Booklet Code HE/HALEBI/6/21 MEDIUM : HINDI + ENGLISH fram INSTRUCTIONS 1. Fe yea afer Fa aT S| aT “aH” aftr Ff 50 984 2, fd So wee & fare 3 aim Puli am “a” aH a, HT “7” TST Si ATT “a” wat (Sefesia) F259 , ead a oes fet 2 stm Pratita @ | pct freer, we-va H pet 300 sienl & fore, 125 sea S| art wei sae “Sfare 1 This Question Paper Booklet contains four Sections. Section “A” Mathematics contains 50 questions of 3 marks each. Section “B” General Knowledge, Section “C” Language and Section “D” Intelligence contain 25 questions of 2 marks per question. In all, the paper consists of 125 questions for a total of 300 marks. Answer all questions. 2. arr or a fafae anor @ ok sa ght es rer Fa ware art See fear ora @ | (safcant & fee frafafed 13 arrait # a feet ft oe ae et gat arava on: Haft, ae, sist, qd, fea, wag, eT, Had, sits, done, afta, aay sit 31) Section “C” is language specific and is to be attempted in the chosen language only. (Candidates were required to choose any of the following 13 languages : Assamese, Bengali, English, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odiya, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.) 3. Wier ft staf 2 de aft 30 fie (150 fire) FI 8 | The test is of 2 hours and 30 minutes (150 minutes) duration. 4. for cit 9 feed ar oitsh wi gar 2, sre fore sea-ca gferam faeries (art fed sik sits 4) ert | The Question Paper Booklet for those who have opted for Hindi or English would be bilingual (ie. in Hindi and English). 5. faa cit 3 fate sree a, feet ft om at ga 2, He foe were geo, sae oT ari fafée sit aft ag sre oie fish F weft At ng Meh | adler H, fare wer a segare Aor feat oft seuea & ame i, sae sil depen (ar wet & wedi wt sigan) a sifea AMT eT | The Question Paper Booklet for those who have opted for any of the specified languages would be in the language opted and indicated on the Admit Card and in English. In case of any ambiguity in translation/eonstruction of a question in the exam, its English version (except for the Language section questions) shall be treated as final. = collegedu EY6. ye yfera 36 FSi HI 8 1 Be sifee sik ae ghee Afore PH wea gfe Ge oie wai at ps 2 1 The Question Paper Booklet is of 836 pages. Please check and ensure that the Question Paper Booklet is complete and contains all the pages 7. at geal & oe act SHUM. TH at S| Answer all questions in the OMR Answer Sheet only. 8. ALU, TACT, Wea Ofer & iat A 8 | Ge STIL wea yfeteH tert aT Feet fear Gr @, aa si... seta Pepra of sik fear al earyde, tact sieve aici sige 84 a at The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Question Paper Booklet. When you are directed to open the Question Paper Booklet, take out the OMR Answer Sheet and fill the particulars carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. 9, metas er fore aay Tee aH wa Haart we et al a ve (ret we) | ale ay sel wer a fare Uh F SH Mel Hl eT Hed B, al STs Gara Hl Ted AT STAT | Darken only one circle as your answer for each question. If you darken more than one circle for the same question, your answer will be treated as wrong. 10. Tea eR > fere Fries ahr waz 1 ‘There is no negative marking for a wrong answer. 11. S.an, Fat sarees fone a sand ar oles 4 at an aa ferefta (feta) He oar wee wat | af org tar aed 8 a eh a... Sao Sr eat Ae flee TET | Do not make unnecessary marks on the OMR Answer Sheet or fold or attempt to deface it. If you do so, your OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated. 12.4 3S 0 fear ait ot fat & few Sa Avera aia vie ow orn wt | IE aT yeaa 7 FE | Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page and for writing answers. Do not use pencil. = collegedu13.0% ab, werua glare 4, fab ga sea a see wag ae ore HA fen eT afew 3 fe FL, TAF FE | Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Question Paper Booklet only and not on the OMR Answer Sheet. 14. tier Gt a oH, Saved set S ved Ades (fafa) st aan. ae dit a On completion of the test, hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. 15, Heh] $a Wea Ofer SI BGT aT SATA AT aagHa @ | You are allowed to take away this Question Paper Booklet with you. 16. 34 Yferor & faa fen en ais D2 | sel ghfead sen 2 fH SOM. sae OH OE fear Tar ws, sa seaaa gfeae & Al gare 2 | fade a a yeaa gfere oie ail.cH.an. Sears Sri a acest & fere are Hl Yaa Acar Piers (gafafateter) St Z| ‘The CODE for this Booklet is D. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is, the same as that on this Question Paper Booklet. In case of discrepancy, report the matter immediately to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Question Paper Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. 17, sn sais (ie a.) We Berea. was. Tere H fee re fee ear at sigan ae sik wel fra | Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Question Paper BooklevOMR Answer Sheet. 18, TLS, Tata TH feet oi ae Gan wel & few ae aa Teel (white fluid) 1 Sea wal ae | Do not use white fluid for carrying out any correction on the OMR Answer Sheet. MP collegedu jas‘AMT & / SECTION A aftra / MATHEMATICS hat fired aga ea nF orate fiat at cater 2 2 aj) fet <3. @ | fab atics 8 12 4 16 8 12 1 4 @ §<38. lies, are (1) Oand1 (2) 5and7 (3) 5and6 (4) 6and7 frafefiad 4 a aa fra aa wer 2? a 4 @ 3 @ 3 w 3 Which of the following is the smallest fraction ? wm @ 3 @ 3 w 2 fara afer % sit quis tiga (aa) sa 82 ()) Fert (2) ORT (3) 7H 4 saat Whole numbers are closed under which operation ? (1) Subtraction (2) Division (3) Multiplication (4) Allofthese AP colleged17. 18. 19. 20. 21. we aad der ara Fife fas 37, 56, 93 Fl uMT BA HATHA HAT: 1,2 sit 3 wT | wM 9 (2) 18 (3) 15 (4) 12 Find the greatest number that will divide 37, 56, 93 leaving remainder 1, 2 and 3 respectively. a 9 (2) 18 @) 15 (4) 12 @ dest #1 HCF Tat LCM HAT: 6 Sik 864% | Be UH He 96%, a Ges Hem at ifaw | a) 84 (@) 45 (3) 54 (4) 24 The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 6 and 864 respectively. If one number is 96, find the other number. (1) 84 (2) 45 (3) 54 (4) 24 2 Hens a HCF 122 den SAH sik 12 2 | ae Heme Frafefad Fa ahah a werd a? (1) 84,96 (2) 66,78 (8) 70,82 (4) 62,78 ‘The HCF of two numbers is 12 and their difference is 12. Which of the following can be the numbers ? (1) 84, 96 (2) 66,78 (3) 70,82 (4) 62,78 eh waa A der ara Sifse Th 9, 12 15 Wes A TTA | a) 60 (2) 90 (3) 120 (4) 180 Find the smallest number that is divisible by each one of 9, 12 and 15. (i) 60 (2) 90 (3) 120 (4) 180 Ae -sst a Us faire avs = 15 wld Ache H Sen sre 2 | sah Ta T 144 Sha 21 8 oe tei & vite § oy feet er? (1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 24 (4) 36 A certain brand of soap-powder is sold at = 15 per packet. It costs = 144 a dozen. What is the profit in percent on 8 dozen packets ? (1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 24 (4) 3622. a x:y=3:5, a 3x4 dy: 8x + Sy Hl qa ae Fife | (1) 39:49 (2) 29:50 (3) 29:49 (4) 39:50 If x:y=3:5, find the ratio 3x + 4y: 8x + By. (1) 39:49 (2) 29:50 (3) 29:49 (4) 39:50 23. aff 10 aref feet ort at 4 fer i a aad %, at eh aed at 5 fe a ae fae fear areftat Ft sagan ert 2 (1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 40 (4) 12 If 10 men can do a piece of work in 4 days, how many men will be required to get the same work done in 5 days ? (@ 10 (2) 8 (3) 40 (4) 12 24, 21 aenftal 15 ath are ara aed & | fare seat 365 Tea a aR aT seh? (38 (2) 49 (3) 37 (4) 41 21 goats eat as much as 15 cows. How many goats eat as much as 35 cows ? () 38 (2) 49 (3) 37 (4) 41 25. wh tbe o ori & = 36,000 war 2 | ae 1 fer FA o7 wt om ae 2, A ae 1 fea feet sare 2 (1) = 1,08,000 (2) = 1,80,000 (3) & 1,00,800 (4) & 1,00,080 A mechanic earns & 36,000 on 9 cars. How much will he earn in 1 day, if in a day he receives 27 cars ? (1) & 1,08,000 (2) & 1,80,000 (3) = 1,00,800 (4) = 1,00,08026, TH anatt up what Ft 20% % IM T = 7,500 4 Jaa 2 sik Gat wllar FT 10% A aft a & 8,100 4 daar @ | sect Ge eh Serer aT gra Sf | () afi == 300 (2) afi== 350 (3) MH = =F 300 (4) @H= =F 350 A man sells one speaker for % 7,500 at a profit of 20% and another speaker for = 8,100 at a loss of 10%. Find his total loss or profit. (1) Loss = = 300 (2) Loss = = 350 (3) Profit = = 300 (4) Profit = = 350 27. af@ 3, 18, m, 42 FAA A , at m a AM ae if | () 6 (2) 54 (a) 7 (4) 252 Find the value of m, if 3, 18, m, 42 are in proportion. a) 6 (2) 54 (3) 7 (4) 252 28. & NCC Hy F 1200 wftaneff wr ci we @ fv 8 900 Hi da fess Gey & fore Gar Tea | A Be Wa eT A ee eal Ht Ge & she agar feet ai? (1) 300: 120 (2) 4:1 (3) 8:1 (4) 120: 130 In an NCC Camp, 1200 trainees are participating out of which 900 are selected for Republic Day Camp. What is the ratio between the number of selected and non-selected cadets ? (1) 300: 120 (2) 4:1 (3) 3:1 (4) 120: 130 29. afe um cea feet germ tt 450 FT aaa a, a a 10% St a ate 1 10% TT re ae & fare faa aera fac eh afer 2 (@Q) = 500 (2) = 600 (3) = 550 (4) © 525 If a boy sells a book for = 450, he makes a loss of 10%. To gain 10%, what should be the selling price ? (@) = 500 (2) = 600 (3) = 550 (4) 7525 AP colleged30. wh aye A 7 fenflai grr we sited sim 2268 | afe saa a we gr a ae Te sis HAT: 340, 180, 260, 56, 275 TM 307 8, WM aad faeneff gro sme feu me sis aT aifare | (1) 160 (2) 162 (3) 163 (4) 164 ‘The average marks obtained by 7 students in a group is 226. If the marks obtained by six of them are 340, 180, 260, 56, 275 and 307 respectively, find the marks obtained by the seventh student. (160 (2) 162 (3) 163 (4) 164 31. ater Fife (8 + 4 — 2) x (17 - 12) x 10-89 = a (1) 3950 (2) 411 (3) 412 (4) 3949 Simplify (8 + 4 — 2) x (17 - 12) x 10-89 = m (1) 3950 (2) 411 (3) 412 (4) 3949 32, ater Sify 0-05 + 1:5 x5 + 10x 0-5 = (4:25 (2) 425 (3) 0-425 (4) 0-42 Simplify 0-05 + 1:5 x5 + 10x05 = (1) 425 (2) 42:5 (3) 0-425 (4) 0-42 33, ate Fife 7 + 5 —2x (7+ 89)- 94424 (33+3+9x2-7)+11= (1) 254 (2) - 225 (3) - 235 (4) 245 Simplify 7 + 5 — 2 x (7 + 89)-94+2+(33+34+9x2-7)+11 (254 (2) 225 (3) - 235 (4) 245 34, Uh HAT F 20 cecal HI silad AK 160 kg BIT WG 5 CS HI SO kg @ | Hat} at agai a sites un ara Afra | (1) 138kg (2) 183kg (3) 140 kg (4) 150 kg ‘The average weight of 20 boys in a class is 160 kg and that of the remaining 5 boys is 50 kg. Find the average weight of all the boys in the class. (1) 138 kg (2) 183 kg (3) 140 kg (4) 150 kg MP collegedunia35. 36. 37. 38. 39. faeat tem & 5a & us-feerg wr upcteng 15 2 | sa ae ar 40% feat eh ? (140 (2) 150 (3) 180 (4) 200 One-fourth of one-third of two-fifth of a number is 15. What will be 40% of that number ? (D140 (2) 150 (3) 180 (4) 200 we orga F start 510 ariga tear st sit 240 ora fea ord @ | eaan a Ye std ee 30 fer & wate Ho siviget Hi sitea deat fret ait > (D280 (2) 285 (3) 290 (4) 295 A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. The average number of visitors in a month of 30 days starting with Sunday is (1) 280 (2) 285 (3) 290 (4) 295 we aga 174 fa F 87 Gi aw GER aa 2 SK ga THR sem sied 3 a ag IT 21 17a aa % og sem sited ara Fifa | (1) 36 (2) 37 (3) 38 (4) 39 A batsman makes a score of 87 runs in the 17‘ match and thus increases his average by 3. Find his average after the 17th match. () 36 (2) 37 (3) 38 (4) 39 1, 3,5, 7,9, 11, 13 I sitaa & a 7 2) 8 (3) 75 (4) 85 Average of 1, 3,5, 7,9, 11, 13 is @ 7 @ 8 (3) 75 (4) 85 afey HI x% 100 8 TM zl y% 2002, a x ait 2% dhe Say ara if | @ (2) Q2=x (3) (4) 2=3x If x% of y is 100 and y% of z is 200, then find the relation between x and z. Q) 2=x (2) 2% (3) z=2x (4) 2=3x AP colleged40. Fa Te A 7:15 pm aa Al, a gad aA Hr wr aH fflan | @ =p a (2) BRB (3) aiff ator (4) aler erer Write the name of the angle formed when the clock time is 7:15 pm. (1) Acute angle (2) Right angle (3) Obtuse angle (4) Straight angle 41, aff 40 a 15% feat dem % 25% 4 2 afte ater 2, at ae dem ert (14 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4) 20 If 15% of 40 is greater than 25% of a number by 2, then the number is, a @) 16 (3) 18 (4) 20 42. Uh sade Ga & Aaa AM ceed Sahl F ara Aifare free daa 700 Hf A. cen ass 25H. 2 | () 28 (2) 280 (3) 2800 (4) 2500 Find the length of a rectangular playground in cm whose area is 700 sq.m and breadth is 25 m. (1) 28 (2) 280 (3) 2800 (4) 2500 43, TF & 1,200 1 aN Ta Sa HS A al & fare fern fart ara a 2 | ale ser = 432 a1 Sars ae orale & sia F fear, ct ears & fener oft 2 () 36 @) 6 (3) 18 (4) 10 Reena took a loan of 1,200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If she paid = 432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest ? Q) 36 (@) 6 (3) 18 (4) 1044, SIGS I TTA - 10°C oT Sik are om Fe 3 fast ae wen an | aeare Fa ‘fern an? a -7C (2) -23°C (3) - 13°C (4) -12°C In the morning, the temperature was - 10°C and it decreased 3 degrees by the evening. What was the temperature in the evening ? a -7C (2) -23°C (3) - 13°C (4) -12°C 45. Th HAH Hier 185 A. cat sit 220 Af. ster @ | gah Sta A aah. Al cea tees ol at ass 8, UH gest ara &H Bara sik gad gach Steg } aK | F 1-25 via wT Wh. & aga a dae (aaa) BoA Al cra ate Fifa | (1) & 3,900 (2) = 3,010 (3) = 4,010 (4) & 2,005 A rectangular garden is 185 m long and 220 m wide. It has two roads in its centre of uniform width of 4 m, one parallel to its length and the other parallel to its breadth. Find the cost of levelling the roads at © 1-25 per sq.m. (Ql) = 3,900 (2) = 3,010 (3) = 4,010 (4) = 2,005 46. 48 afer A ais ge fea af & afeecs ama eaie ae é | ga afer at sirantt ar sain afifae sik frafatiad & sax afc : apis wa F fred af & da wae a, gerd sik faaen or sitecs often a (2 ance earai da) fea at ? wat waft | ard Hg gens | fae | qarat siftraar a, CH | 3 9 21 29 24 i (1) 21-65°C (2) 24-66°C (3) 25:52°C (4) 26-23°C The table below shows the maximum temperatures in New York City last year. Use the information in this table and answer the following : What was the average maximum temperature (upto 2 decimal places) of three months May, July and September last year in New York City? Month Jan. | Mar. | May | Jul. | Sept. | Nov. ara 3 9 21 29 24 rr temperature, in °C (1) 21-65°C (2) 24-66°C (3) 25:52°C (4) 26-23°C MP collegedunia47, ime Gen vefa a, ale arg chara aa tral @, al sae A Set aR AT at fee rat farerft ame ae STAT 2 | Q) we (2) Wat (3) er Ae ST BeRAT 4) daiwa In Roman numeration, if a symbol is repeated, its value is not multiplied as many times as it occurs. () True (2) False (3) Cannot say (4) Both are equal 48. Fa fer fag m alga & ore ger sich Sr a (1) 45° (2) 180° (3) 90° (4) 60° ‘The angle subtended by the diameter of a semicircle on any point on the circle is (1) 45° (2) 180° (3) 90° (4) 60° 49, wh as wt a yes aT 44 Hh 2 | gaa Tew 4 HH aT | Tew wa wre a HAH wh aa gre PAL ae fees wie wa elt 7 (1) 888 (2) 729 (3) 164 (4) 33 ‘A big cube has each portion of 44 em. Tiny cubes of 4 cm portion each are cut from that. Then how many tiny cubes will be formed that are surrounded by at least one cube ? (1) 888 (2) 729 (3) 164 (4) 33 50. wh Seictex aarar ata 2 (1x 10-1. (2) 1x 10-24. (3) 1x 1024. (4) 1x 1034. One decimeter is equal to () 1x104m (2) 1x102m (3) 1x 102m (4) 1x103 m51. 52. 53. 54, 55. ‘am @/ SECTION B ares a / GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 4G. Fare (et serach) sea a area wer Teta ste A? (Fen fae (2) fe. or (3) Avr fasen cet cfsa (4) atten Seer aie Who was the first Indian to be the President of U.N. General Assembly ? (1) Natwar Singh (2) V.K. Krishna Menon (3) Smt. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit (4) Smt. Indira Gandhi ara wit & feafafad a a8 arr Fag afta argue ate & 2 () fitaes (2) aie (aT) (3) #e (343) (4) eafeat In which of the following parts of the human body are sweat glands absent ? (1) Scalp (2) Armpits (3) Lips (4) Palms are % Ge Fea FI GH FA Hed B? QQ) wet (2) alee (3) sig (4) Fa What do we call the young one of a Kangaroo ? (1) Foal (2) Colt (3) Joey (4) Cub ares afte 4 ad & (Fes (2) Fae (3) we ft igi & (4) amet Clouds are mostly made of (snow (2) dust (3) water droplets (4) smog frafafad 4 8 ahh pa & fore areca ait +t Qoat aad wear vere feet aT 2 () dite faega sree (2) Teas (3) 7 te sata (4) Uae Uys For which of the following works has Vasdev Mohi been awarded the 29" Saraswati Samman ? (1) Lost Children Archive (2) Chequebook (3) The Stranger Diaries (4) ASong for a New Day AP colleged56. 57. 58. 59. 60. und 3 fee care & att oedia wets Ga ? (1) ferry, (2) efearrgt (3) arene (4) oriaa From which monument did India adopt its National Emblem ? (1) Kapilavastu (2) Hastinapur (3) Sarnath (4) Panipat frafeftad 4 8 fra qa teh 4 eric sien Hered sie Tara a ht sarc B 2 () Aifefisrgn (2) strétat (3) ARTETA (4) aeigst In which of the following styles of dance is the story/theme always taken from Mahabharata and Ramayana ? (1) Mohiniattam (2) Odissi (3) Bharatanatyam (4) Kuchipudi wat usa seve (we dad) & orem we wedi a ad we a oafeea Sif — alta DAME 53S dT : (2) abed (2) beda (8) dacb (4) edab Arrange the months based on our National Calendar (Saka Era) in correct. serial order — a-Chaitra b-Vaishakha c-Jyaishtha d-Aashada : (1) abed (2) beda (3) dacb (4) edab frafefad 9 @ ara aere aa 2? @ we (2) 9a (3) atgn C-17 weitere 4) aaH Which one of the following is a combat aircraft ? (1) Tejas (2) Dhruv (3) Boeing C-17 Globemaster (4) Chetak feoa aa ar wan ated at aver AT & fore fore ara @ ? (1) Heivfee (2) Patera (3) mgtrenia (4) fercitefier Which device is used to measure the speed of vehicles ? (1) Gravometer (2) Speedometer (3) Gyroscope (4) Kilometer61. 62. 63. 64, 65. sft a eft att 2 tt aise F aera aftiean wet Z 1 (Fare alerent (2) sratfafat (aerial) (3) aa (4) wet ‘The cover the tongue and react to chemicals in food. (1) Taste Buds (2) Sphineters (3) Teeth (4) Skin are vicar ed ee fetter aA HEAT ze ? (1) Gra sere # HSK TET (2) Gad qa Si aT aa 2 (3) estat Ht gly ai tea & (4) sede a a ag aa What does freezing do when preserving foods ? (1) Keeps the food product hard (2) Keeps the flavours of the food fresh (3) Stops growth of micro-organisms (4) None of the above frafatad 4 a erat ayvetht geare 8 defer & 2 Q) Sfaa a (2) Sftrera ght (3) adits ett (4) tae git Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with football ? (1) Davis Cup (2) Champions Trophy (3) Santosh Trophy (4) Deodhar Trophy fife om amg oft fea at a veer B 2 (ar gRT (2) Set grt (3) Wa grt (4) Sarg grea How do ants recognize ants from their group ? (1) By colour (2) By face (3) By smell (4) By height frofefad 4 8 area tied rat FH ore 2 ? () watt @) ¥s (3) af (4) ae Which of the following is domesticated in poultry farms ? (1) Goat (2) Sheep (3) Hen (4) Horses AP colleged66. 67. 68. 70. frofatad 4 a etm aa Ht ger ? (1) Hal (2) Sh WSst (3) ft (4) da Which of the following will dissolve in water ? (1) Soil (2) Chalk Powder (3) Sugar (4) Oil freafefad 4 8 sha darts om 2 2 a) Hale (srafadis) (2) ota aren (Paar ize) (3) STeaTgAt (4) SRR Which of the following is a communicable disease ? (1) Diabetes (2) Chicken pox (3) Alzheimer’s (4) Cancer addi % aed & feu, a (Dat A ait gat aree (2) td i ait germ afen, (3) aa aera =rfen (4) fater (Gae-aeeT) Ber aTfeT ‘To climb the mountains, we have to (1) Bend forward (2) Bend backwards (3) Walk straight (4) Walk sideways wal, ara (guise) sik feet (After) & sisi a cea eh caw ct ad 8 aeifes gaa (1) aaa ais aa S 1 (2) a8 sik are are sta dia & | (3) aa sit mem are Fa aa a | (4) yeh ts aaa 1 Seeds of drumstick and maple are carried over long distances by wind because they possess (1) winged seeds. (2) large and hairy seeds. (3) long and ridged fruits, (4) spiny seeds. TRIM Al HET asia aan dais 2 | Cy tter (2) afer (3) wagt (4) Bait is a traditional rainwater harvesting technique of Rajasthan. (1) Taanka (2) Khadin (3) Bavadi (4) Kuan AP colleged71. 72. 7B. 74. . wag At eiteefira frog 21 () Vigan srt (2) tsa 3) are @) ferra ver Rasgulla is a popular sweet of . (1) West Bengal (2) Punjab (3) Kerala (4) Himachal Pradesh frofefed 4 & area Nd a UH sola aaACs a 2 a afsa (2) aT (3) et (4) tart Which of the following is a tribal community of India ? (1) Pandits (2) Jaat (3) Bhil (4) Punjabi THEI & wag ToT wer wa fae a set sreredt F srarg wg Sritetta Terran aI AT ware | (are fear (2) oga AAR (3) FRR Fa (4) aN Het Name an astronomical observatory built in the 18' century by Rajput King Sawai Jai Singh of Rajasthan. (1) Red Fort (2) Qutub Minar (3) Jantar Mantar (4) Taj Mahal 4 arate agri, afta, anfe afeafers aa 2 1 @ qT (2) Sarvs (3) Trend (4) Ysa includes internal rocks, minerals, ete. (1) Atmosphere (2) Biosphere (3) Hemisphere (4) Geosphere ara aot ved & Hh sit aad & co fee 7e sats a AT aa & () area fig (2) Serer ga (3) Saar get (4) asta afte ‘The remains of plants and animals that were buried millions of years ago are known as (1) potential reserves (2) fossil fuels (3) biomass fuel (4) animate power AP colleged76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. ant fet art (ae eh Bret at sara aA aTeit ch fez) frefefied meq & fare adi af-frede (famea) ar oer ifr fry a free (2) fi +¥% 3 ft+a @ fig freafafiad seq 4 eam soe & aa famed ar ae fare : frraet (faa (Qf (3) fa (4) fer eter ser & fie feu are feraeat H @ share famed gir : frafefsa 4 & shar weg argc ar vatzareft weg @ ? Q) seat (Q) 7H (3) ee 4) Aer eel reg opr fect req 2 @M 3a (2) fame (3) 38a (4) Fe frafafad arra/aeq aye & fer feu me fapedt 4 a shea weg ar oem Aifare Gi aaa war gfe 8 tae a (Q) ar (2) ere (3) wares (4) weer apis area aan & fee freaferiad wediseeq agi wt orafeera fife | fernedt Fa wat faaca ar wer Aifire : maa / atat / gutter & / 8 a) (B) © (Dy (1) DBAC (2) DABC (3) ABCD (4) BCDA et & oie faq ae faced i 8 ofa facrea oer wae if : Sai ar afer a7 (rea (2) ofa (3) ma 4) am Freaferfisd areq & fore aa fartteretas req (feened) ar aera Hf : wat @M (2) Fees (3) fear 4 3a84. Prefered 9 8 par meq ven aH vaPrarehh ereg were? (Dy da (2) Re (3) we 4 TT 85. fume freed a ad ahh ara weg oh ae fre: (1) sareffata (2) aifrata (3) aaffere (4) ateftate 86. fom eam wer & fore sage fered gf : fare a cafe cere tren a ae weATT z | Q) afrarit (2) are 3) afar (4) ANTS 87. 9a & ata feu ae famed HO faa famed ar ae Sif : frafefisd 4 8 ahaa weg aifedia or gatrarcht seq 8 2 (D ae (2) sraT 3) sar (4) and Ferner ory exrrgeer wear gO rt seat fore eh Foerea Ghee (ae em 88 #92): Pt am eet @ eit Gael tec 2 | aa F sficinen tt cect 1 ale ae HET Bis feat we at east ates al sre | ae et arden H at A mere Tit A HET MM — a aT HET tt seem or vai a fee are aieisA & scores am ar aie ae 2 fH an a Ho ais St wife a, ara aa at, are safe a gaa a ee A og ore | am & vfs fassr oie aa A set ead wea vate eri afew | aeqa: aan fara a, eer sala wr yea 8 — aH | weed a Heda ait unfa A aidl vies @ A ura ari 2 1 ofem, wea ak wt ar Steiger ar ara 2 | sit ager afer wea @, ae area of aia a 88. allan req a faci eq 8 () area (2) -wreftrerat (3) frekea (4) saatfira 89. a ae A ae Ha aT? (1) Wa ea eee ai, (2) aera A afer ae arth (3) Waa ger Ft sre arf 4 sama go cis A ote at 90. aes ek % fer an sary z 2 (1) Ra BET (2) Pata (3) Stearn 4) xfer 91. item, area sit aa a dici-cma a day ha 2? () Gfert ott ered citi at veg frat Sra 2 1 (2) are afar ata 2 1 (3) Si age ad ara 8 oe Gree ot ata 2 | (4) vfem, wee waa & ye a F 1 92. Tieish A am A arin faa art 8 2 () vem ae (2) wear St ae a (3) wa & ofa freer a 4) sere aa93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. Werat wi wat aref ferfan : ayer fear () a ae (3) We WHER BET Herat sr wal srl ferfian : AFA KH Fe ISAT @ Waa (3) area fear aft eran a tea caraciet & fore wat faemes Sf: aden 2 arent (1) adler (3) wens faci weg df : at a (2) AR (2) (4) (2) (4) (2) (4) (3) frefefied seq A ram sera aa ferpes ar ae fife : ferearerat Q wa (2) Sita Prafefed eq a cifern ea afc ; ae (1) Serf (2) fer faraferfiaa # & gf ae 2: (Da (3) feat IGE Bre AHI ATE BY & (1) aeterat (2) asst (3) (3) (3) aaarardt et aren @ afg ward a ST ad de wt ST fereneff Frrereff a CO a (4) ae Sore (4) frerga at aga asia (4) agedSECTION C LANGUAGE (Only for those attempting English Language) Read the following passage and answer the questions (Q. 76 - 78) by choosing the most appropriate option : Zeus and Prometheus From the very first, humans had trouble with the Greek Gods. Most Gods thought of humans as toys. But Gods made friends with the humans. One of those Gods was Prometheus. The first people created by the Gods lived happily together. They thought the Gods were wonderful. But their children were not as grateful or as content. The children argued among themselves, and sometimes even argued with the Gods. Zeus was very disappointed at mankind. He decided to punish mankind by depriving them of a very important tool — fire. Prometheus felt sorry for his human friends. Fire was important for many things such as heat and cooking. Prometheus stole a lightning bolt from Zeus and gave it to mankind. That’s when man discovered fire. Zeus was furious as Prometheus had defied Zeus. He ordered Prometheus be chained to a rock as punishment for stealing his lightning bolt, and for going behind his back to help the humans. To make Prometheus even more miserable, Zeus sent storms to beat angry waves against Prometheus, helplessly chained to his rock. Zeus made the sun shine really brightly now and then to burn his skin. It was Hercules who finally released the helpless God from his chains. 76. Which of the following statements is not true about Zeus and Prometheus ? (1) Most Greek Gods saw humans as a means of their entertainment. (2) Prometheus was chained to a rock as he was a God. (3) Zeus was an unforgiving God who did not like to be disobeyed. (4) Hercules emerged as the saviour of Prometheus. MP collegedunia77. What is the meaning of the underlined word : ‘Prometheus had defied Zeus’ ? (1) Prometheus had worshipped Zeus all his life. (2) Prometheus had defamed Zeus. (3) Prometheus detested Zeus for his attitude. (4) Prometheus had disregarded the authority of Zeus. 78. Why was Zeus angry and disappointed at humans ? (1) They kept asking him for fire. (2) The humans misused his lightning bolt. (3) The humans were quarrelsome and didn’t respect the Gods. (4) The humans were not intelligent enough to discover fire. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate option. 79. The news is all the internet. (1) on (2) through (3) over (4) near 80. There was no one else in the room Collin. (2) accept (2) except (3) axcept (4) acept 81. We studied about Roman Empire in school. () a (2) an (3) the (4) no article Rearrange the following wordslphrases to make meaningful sentences. Choose the correct sequence. 82. I/ immediately / salary / my / want @ @) © oO ® (1) BAEDC (2) AEDCB (3) DCAEB (4) EADCB 83. the sun/you/of/ must / stay out (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) ECADB (2) ABCDE (3) BDECA (4) DECAB MP collegedunia84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. Choose the correct spelling : (1) appartment (2) aparttment (3) apartment (4) apartmant Today is the day of my life. (Choose the correct adjective) (1) more important (2) less important (3) important (4) most important Poets are known to fly in their thoughts. (Choose the word nearest in meaning to the underlined word) (1) sore (2) sour (3) soar (4) sure Do as directed : There are some diseases that are inherited. (Identify the kind of Noun) (1) ‘diseases’ is a proper noun (2) ‘diseases’ is an abstract noun (3) ‘diseases’ is a collective noun (4) ‘diseases’ is a common noun After school you and _ must discuss a few things. (Choose the correct pronoun) (1) him (2) me @) 1 (4) we It is quite warm, 2 (Use a Question Tag) (1) isit (2) wasn't it (3) isn’t it (4) was it Leave your bags at the gate. (Identify the type of sentence) (1) Imperative (2) Declarative (3) Interrogative (4) Exclamatory Near the equator, the sun greater quantities of water. (Choose the correct form of the verb) (1) is evaporating (2) evaporates (3) has evaporated (4) evaporate MP collegedunia92. 93. 94, 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. There were several at the conference. (1) women (2) woman (3) wemens (4) womans “To beat around the bush’ means (1) to turn violent against a stranger. (2) to avoid saying something because it is uncomfortable. (3) to come to the main point of the conversation. (4) to start a fire in the forest. My father is a bookworm, he books to films and sports. (1) is prefer (2) prefer (3) prefers (4) are prefer Choose the most appropriate option : Which of the following options is the meaning of the word ‘exhausted’ ? (1) Very hot (2) Very polluted (3) Very fresh (4) Very tired Aconfectioner is a person who (1) sells tools (2) sells confetti (3) sells sweets (4) sells clothes ‘The captain along with the players. (1) was present (2) was presenting (3) have been presenting (4) has been presenting Choose the word that means the opposite of MORTAL. (1) Unmortal = (2) Immortal ~—(3)__-Inmortal (4) Dismortal A of thieves was caught by the Police. (1) swarm (2) pack (3) team (4) batch It has become his habit to do his homework and then copy it from others. (1) always (2) often (3) frequently (4) never MP collegedunia101. 102. 103. 104, 105. ‘am W / SECTION D wat (g¢fersia) / INTELLIGENCE wa Fact Fi sx eflaw : 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ... ant a ate den at ert 2 @ u3 (2) U8 (3) 2 (4) 116 Look at this series : 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ... What number should come next ? a ws @ vs 3) 28 (4) 116 ae wd face afi Breil aft ade & 1 SCD, TEF, UGH, , WKL () CMN (2) UsI (3) Vid (4) WT Choose the correct alternative that has the same relation. SCD, TEF, UGH, , WEL () CMN (2) UE @) VW (4) UT afe WAY I 679 & ea 4 eed fire soa @, MAY &l 579 & © F afed fear aren 2, a vaw @ ea feet stem () 976 (2) 769 (3) 679 (4) 579 If WAY is coded as 679, ‘MAY’ is coded as 579, then ‘YAW’ will be coded as (1) 976 (2) 769 (3) 679 (4) 579 45 feenflat Gt we han 4, orf or He SH A 6st 2 | eis, snk a 6 HAA? I ra & agit oI eH HIT z ? () 28at (2) 32at (3) 24a (4) 3087 In a class of 45 students, Amir’s rank from the top is 16**, Ashok is 6 ranks below Amir. What is Ashok’s rank from the bottom ? (1) 23rd (2) 32nd (3) 24th (4) 30th sett & aa we ape at dag sen jacn & welt cat Fo waqER wet a jeer ei arti 2 _ab_b_aba__abab. (1) abbaa (2) bbaab (3) abaab (4) aaaba Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ? _ab_b_aba__abab. (1) abbaa (2) bbaab (3) abaab (4) aaaba AP colleged106. 107. 108. 109. gare : ates (fares) : : aaeH HT: a) mea (2) Heer we (3) -eeafert (4) SETS mend : sewing: : edit : (darn (2) repair (3) manuscript (4) makeshift for car A afd fifa | am : aig :: Sei Aa: (1) arem (rete) (2) fare (3) waa (4) sear Fill in the blank. rein : horse : : control panel : (1) pilot (2) bit (3) plane (4) rider ae weg Bre St aye & wedi a waa oa ftrera 2 | GQ) wma. te (2) tage (3) ereEea (4) eae Choose the word which is least like the words in the group. (1) MS Paint (2) Facebook (3) WhatsApp (4) Twitter aie yar af 8 “aa”, 2 apr ate 8 “UM”, oe wr anf 2 “Gig”, at 10x5+3-2 HA we? (1) 24 (2) 52 3) 9 (4) 10 If‘ means “Minus”, ‘ means “Multiply”, %’ means “Add”, then what is the value of 10x5+3-2? (24 (2) 52 (3) 9 (4) 10 AP colleged110. 111. 112. OEIC sag fered ol =e eh fede am aT ga AE | -O +(e] -(O -B OC) (OFE):L Complete the second pair by selecting the appropriate alternative. @ © @) @) C) (4) AA Te arattt 6 fat afro ft ait aera 2, art geet 4 feet aren 2, fie Garr art gsc & ait 5 feet aera @ | ota seat He fo fee ft sik 8 2 (Defer (2) TR 3) a (4) ie Aman walks 6 km south, turns left and walks 4 km, again turns left and walks 5 km. Which direction is he facing now ? (1) South (2) North (3) East (4) West ae weg Bite Sit Tait weg a satan wT ze | fren (ae (2) frre (3) 7 (4) at Choose the word that is a necessary part of the underlined word. Guitar (1) Band (2) Teacher (3) Songs (4) Strings AP colleged113. 3a fae & Ca HE SAT BA STE ? ts) 4) MO & O@ & a N (2) 0 (3) P (4) M Which letter replaces the question mark ? @) @ Ke) OO® a N (2) 0 (3) P (4) M 114, For 3 wa waa BI et, “A 45 fire & Fafa sia w sort @ | sifes al 5 fire vee oof oft | amet dat 7:45 am Hah |” gard 3 waa at ae Ga fea ara HOt aft? (1) 6:55 am (2) 7:00 am (3) 7:05 am (4) 7:40 am ‘The priest told the devotee, “The bell rings at regular intervals of 45 minutes. The last bell rang 5 minutes ago. The next bell is due to be rung at 7:45 am.” At what time did the priest give this information to the devotee ? (1) 6:55 am (2) 7:00 am (3) 7:05 am (4) 7:40 am MP collegedunia115. 42 feu Te faa # faa figs 8 2 Mm 4 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 10 How many triangles are there in the figure given below ? a 4 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 10 116. UH Fz 4, BOMBAY’ FI ‘CNNABX’ & 4 4 @fea feat sia @, dl ‘DELHY # &e AT am? ()) EDMJG (2) GMDEJ (3) DEGMJS (4) EDMGJ In a code, ‘BOMBAY is coded as ‘CNNABX’, then what will be the code of ‘DELHI ? (1) EDMJG (2) GMDEJ (3) DEGMJS (4) EDMGJ 117. fom tare i afd aifare, | STA UT = UH a GAT: A UT : Q) We at (2) Sea SAT (3) feng er (4) ae arere6t @ ara Sar Fill in the blank. segregate : unify : : repair : (1) approach (2) push (3) damage (4) outwit AP colleged118. Tea 4 Ha At sit Ger arty feat | ae HS | as Ten ait fet are apf sie Wat wen fie @ ae | aa saan ye fre fee Ha 2 @) wR @) (3) efor (4) ofan Rahul started walking straight towards East. He walks a certain distance and then turns towards his right and walks again. In which direction is he heading now ? (1) North (2) East (3) South (4) West 119. feu 1 fanedi 4 4 fase a aa Fifer | (1) airemeer : cbr (2) sister : Rarer (3) AIETa : See 4) a: fare From the given options, choose the odd one out. (1) Bangladesh : Taka (2) Brazil : Real (3) Cyprus : Dollar (4) Tran : Rial 120, aT UH B TS 2 | fre ara Sat 2 | ute faerm & ag 8 | afg gam a wer aca 3, at tam qa 2 7 (2) saa (3) afafeera (4) 3H a are vet Tanya is older than Eric. Cliff is older than Tanya. Eric is older than Cliff. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is () True (2) False (3) Uncertain (4) None of these 121, a 48 een F seven en se 7 A,C, F,H, K, My ne (a) N () Y (3) P (4) M What comes next in the given series ? A, C, F, H, K, M,....... @ N (2) ¥ (3) P (4) M122.4, Ba aa 21 CBA AAI DCH EDA AWA IAA HDA wT aaa 2? @ we (2) aa (3) vA (4) oh Ais B’s sister. C is B’s mother. D is C’s father. E is D's mother. Then how is A related toD? (1) Grandfather (2) Grandmother (3) Daughter (4) Grand-daughter 123, wH fafise He uTsT ¥ COMPUTER #1 RFUVQNPC & &4 # ferat arar @ | set He ‘urgt # MEDICINE @ fea seer fear rem ? (1) MFEDJJOE (2) EOJDEJFM (3) MFEJDJOE (4) EOJDJEFM In a certain code language, COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How will MEDICINE be written in that code language ? (1) MFEDJJOE (2) EOJDEJFM (3) MFEJDJOE (4) EOJDJEFM 124, af cog om tt ome, soc after tt ore itt ge waER wer oT, ch afeer aT at STEN ? QM weg (2) sacafeer (3) aferorgd (4) cferoafger If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on, what will West become ? (1) North-East (2) North-West. (3) South-East (4) South-West. 125, 34 fae & CoH PT eT ? 10, 100, 200, 310, ? (1) 420 (2) 410 (3) 430 (4) 400 What will come at the place of the question mark ? 10, 100, 200, 310, ? (1) 420 (2) 410 (3) 430 (4) 400we ar & fer ae SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKTH ard & feu ae SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK