2022-2023

F5 DSE PHY
F.5 FINAL EXAMINATION 2022 – 2023
SECTION A
PHYSICS
7th June, 2023
8:30 am – 11:00 am (2½ hours)
This paper must be answered in English

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

(1) There are TWO sections, A and B, in this Paper. You are advised to finish Section A in about 50 minutes.

(2) Section A consists of multiple-choice questions in this question paper, while Section B contains
conventional questions printed separately in Question-Answer Book B.

(3) Answers to Section A should be marked on the Multiple-choice Answer Sheet while answers to Section B
should be written in the spaces provided in Question-Answer Book. The Answer Sheet for Section A and
the Question-Answer Book for Section B will be collected separately at the end of the examination.

(4) The diagrams in this paper are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.

(5) The last page of this question paper contains a list of formulae and relationships which you may find useful.

INSTRUCTIONS FOR SECTION A (MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS)

(1) Read carefully the instructions on the Answer Sheet. After the announcement of the start of the
examination, you should insert the information required in the spaces provided. No extra time will be
given after the ‘Time is up’ announcement.

(2) When told to open this book, you should check that all the questions are there. Look for the words ‘END
OF SECTION A’ after the last question.

(3) All questions carry equal marks.

(4) ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS. You are advised to use an HB pencil to mark all the answers on the
Answer Sheet, so that wrong marks can be completely erased with a rubber. You must mark the answers
clearly; otherwise you will lose marks if the answers cannot be captured.

(5) You should mark only ONE answer for each question. If you mark more than one answer, you will receive
NO MARKS for that question.

(6) No marks will be deducted for wrong answers.

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There are 33 questions. Answer all questions.
1. Which of the following physical properties is the least likely to be used to make a thermometer?
A. Volume
B. Mass
C. Density
D. Electrical resistance

2. Hot milk of mass m1 at 90 °C is poured into a glass of cold milk of mass m2 at 10 °C. The final temperature of the milk
after mixing is 60 °C. Find m1 : m2.
A. 1:9
B. 3:5
C. 5:3
D. 9:1

3. Ice cubes at 0°C are mixed with steam at 100°C. They eventually attain thermal equilibrium and change to water at 50 °C.
What is the initial ratio of the mass of ice to the mass of steam?
Given: Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg-1°C-1
Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.34×105 J kg –1
Specific latent heat of vaporization of water is 2.26×10 6 J kg-1
A. 1:1
B. 1 : 6.77
C. 4.54 : 1
D. 6.77 : 1

4. Which of the following describes the situation in which a real gas behaves like an ideal gas?
Pressure Temperature
A. Low Low
B. Low High
C. High Low
D. High High

5. At 40 °C, the r.m.s. speed of the gas molecule of an ideal gas is v. If the temperature drops to 10 °C, what is the new r.m.s.
speed of the molecules?
A. 0.25 v
B. 0.5 v
C. 0.904 v
D. 0.951 v

6. A bus travelling at 20 m s-1 along a straight road passes a stationary car at time t = 0. At t = 5 s, the car begins to move
with uniform acceleration of 1.5 m s-2 in the same direction as the bus. How far has the car travelled when it is about to
overtake the bus?
A. 385 m
B. 513 m
C. 540 m
D. 719 m

7. A car is moving along a horizontal road with a constant velocity. The force acting on the car by the ground
A. is zero.
B. is the weight of the car.
C. is the air resistance experienced by the car.
D. balances the resultant of the weight of the car and the air resistance on it.

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8. A man pulls a suitcase with a force of 100 N at 40 above the horizontal as shown. The suitcase accelerates horizontally.

When he applies the force with the same magnitude horizontally on the suitcase, its acceleration is increased by 50%. Find
the friction on the suitcase.
A. 14.9 N
B. 15.6 N
C. 29.8 N
D. 46.8 N

9. A horizontal force F is pushing three blocks (m1,m2 and m3) to the right on a smooth table as shown. The ratio of the
masses m1:m2:m3 is 2:3:5. The magnitude of the force between the block m2 and m3 is f.

If the applied force F is exerted on m3 to the left, what is the magnitude of the force between the blocks m2 and m3?
A. 0.4 f
B. 0.6 f
C. f
D. 2.5 f

10. A rider of mass m placed on a linear air track is connected to a slotted mass M by a light string over a light smooth pulley
as shown. The magnitude of acceleration of the rider is a.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) When the mass of the slotted mass is doubled, the acceleration of the rider is smaller than 2a.
(2) When the mass of the rider is halved, the acceleration of the rider is smaller than 2a.
(3) The total momentum of the rider and the slotted mass is conserved.
A. (2) only
B. (3) only
C. (1) and (2) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)

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11. A trolley moves down along a friction-compensated runway with constant speed. Which of the following graphs best
represents the variation of mechanical energy E of the trolley with time t?
A. B.

C. D.

12. Two balls, X and Y, are originally at rest. When a net force F applied on ball X for time t, the kinetic energy of X is K.
Find the kinetic energy of Y if the same net force F is applied on it for time 5t. Given that the mass of Y is twice that of X.
A. 2.5 K
B. 5K
C. 12.5 K
D. 25 K

13. A ball of mass 1 kg moving at 1.2 m s-1 collides head on with a 2-kg ball which is initially at rest. After the collision, the
heavier ball moves away at 0.6 m s-1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) The 1 kg ball rebounds backwards after the collision.
(2) The collision is elastic.
(3) The magnitude of the momentum of lighter ball decreases after the collision.
A. (3) only
B. (1) and (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)

14. A motorcycle stunt-rider takes off from a platform 3 m above the ground. After 1.25 s, he lands on the ground 10 m away
from the bottom of the platform. What is the speed of the motorcycle during take-off?
A. 8.00 m s-1
B. 8.53 m s-1
C. 8.83 m s-1
D. 11.7 m s-1

15. A bob of mass 0.2 kg is attached to one end of a string. The other end of the string is fixed to the top of a vertical glass
tube. The bob is set into horizontal uniform circular motion of radius 20 cm. The period of the motion is 0.6 s.

Find the tension in the string.

A. 1.96 N
B. 4.39 N
C. 4.81 N
D. 23.1 N
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16. Which of the following statements about a satellite’s orbit around the Earth are correct?
(1) The plane of the orbit must pass through the Earth’s centre.
(2) The orbit with a period equal to 24 hours is called the geostationary orbit.
(3) A geostationary orbit must be directly above the equator.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)

17. Amy uses a plane mirror of 10 cm tall to look at Bob who is standing 2 m behind her. Bob is 1.7 m tall. Given that the
mirror is held vertically, what is the maximum distance between Amy and the mirror so that she can see the whole image
of Bob?

Bob

Amy
Plane mirror

10 cm
1.7 m

2m

A. 0.118 m
B. 0.125 m
C. 0.133 m
D. Cannot be determined as the height of Amy’s eyes from the ground is not given

18. A 5 cm object is placed 10 cm in front of a lens and an erect image of 1.5 cm is formed. Which of the following is/are the
possible focal length(s) of the lens?
(1) 0.233 cm
(2) 2.31 cm
(3) 4.29 cm
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only

19. A train of water waves travels from a deep region to a shallow region and the wavelength of the water waves is reduced to
one-fourth of the original. What is the ratio of the frequency of the water waves in the deep region to that in the shallow
region?
A. 1:1
B. 1:4
C. 4:1
D. Cannot be determined as the original speed and the new speed of the water waves are not given.

20. Which of the following are possible applications of infrared radiation?

(1) Remote control
(2) Auto-focus on a camera
(3) Weather imagery
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)

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21. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the distance between the slits and the screen is 2 m. The wavelength of the incident
light is 7×10-7 m and the slit separation is 3×10-5 m. If a bright fringe X is approximately 18.7 cm away from the central
bright fringe, what is the order number of X ?
A. 1st order
B. 2nd order
C. 3rd order
D. 4th order

22. Why is it easier to notice the diffraction of sound in daily life than the diffraction of light?
A. Light travels much faster than sound.
B. Light is an electromagnetic wave while sound is a mechanical wave.
C. Light is a transverse wave while sound is a longitudinal wave.
D. The wavelength of light is much smaller than that of sound.

23. A positively charged sphere X of mass m is suspended from a fixed point O by a nylon thread. Another positively charged
sphere Y at the end of an insulating rod is held in various positions as shown. O, X and Y are in the same vertical plane.

(1) (2) (3)

Y
+ Y
+

+Y
In which situations could X be kept at rest as shown?
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3) only

24. When a point charge +Q is placed at X as shown, the strength of the electric field at M is E0.

What is the strength of the electric field at N?

A. 0.850 E0
B. 0.922 E0
C. 1.085 E0
D. 1.176 E0

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25. The photo shows a rechargeable dry cell in a portable electric fan.

Which of the following statements must be correct for the above dry cell when it is connected to a toy car under normal
operation?
(1) The current it delivers is 2200 mA.
(2) Its output power is 8.14 W.
(3) Its total output electrical energy is 29304 J.
A. (2) only
B. (3) only
C. (1) and (2) only
D. (1) and (3) only

26. The following diagram shows a circuit with three resistors, and an ideal voltmeter and a battery. The e.m.f. of the battery
is 12 V. The reading of the voltmeter is 6 V.

V
X

Which of the following statements must be INCORRECT?

A. The three resistors are identical.
B. The internal resistance of the battery is negligible.
C. Resistor X is shorted.
D. The current flowing through the voltmeter is zero.

27. The following diagram shows a circuit with six identical resistors connected as shown.

If the total power is 11 W, what is the power of resistor X ?

A. 2W
B. 3W
C. 5.5 W
D. 6W

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28. The following diagram shows a circuit with three identical light bulbs. Another identical light bulb is then added to the
circuit.

Which of the following connections will make L3 brighter?

A. B. C. D.

29. In the circuit, the e.m.f. of the dry cells is 3.0 V. The ammeters are ideal while the dry cells are not. The reading of
ammeter is 0.5 A.

Find the internal resistance of the dry cells.

A. 4
B. 3.33 
C. 0.667 
D. 0.3 

30. A light bulb is connected to a sinusoidal AC source. The peak voltage and the average power of the source are V0 and P
𝑉
respectively. If the r.m.s. voltage of the source is changed to 0 , express the average power consumed by the light bulb in
2
terms of P.
A. P/√2
B. P/2
C. P/4
D. P/√8

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31. The diagram below shows two long straight current-carrying wires passing through the opposite vertices of a square. The
directions of the two equal currents are opposite to each other.

If the magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the square is B, what is that at the top right vertex of the square?
A. B /2
B. B /√2
C. √2B
D. 2B

32. The diagram below shows a heart-shaped wire frame pivoted at the positive terminal of a dry cell. Several pieces of
permanent magnets are attached to the negative terminal of the dry cell so that the wire frame, the dry cell and the magnets
formed a complete circuit.

The top surface of the magnets is a south pole. What is the direction of motion of the wire frame when viewed from the
top?
A. Rotates clockwise
B. Rotates anticlockwise
C. Flips up and down
D. Does not move at all

33. The diagram below shows a particle being projected horizontally into a region with a uniform magnetic field pointing into
the paper. There is also a uniform electric field (not shown) in the same region.

The particle travels horizontally and then leaves the region with the same speed. Which of the following is/are possible?
Ignore the weight of the particle.
(1) The particle is positively charged.
(2) The particle is negatively charged.
(3) The particle is electrically neutral.
A. (3) only
B. (1) and (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)

End of Section A

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