23-06-2024

1751CMD303021240018 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays, the distance
between the objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. The focal length of lens are

(1) 18 cm, 2cm

(2) 11cm, 9 cm
(3) 10 cm, 10 cm
(4) 15 cm, 5 cm

2) If the focal length of the objective lens is increased then :-

(1) Magnifying power of microscope will increase but that of telescope will decrease.
(2) Magnifying power of microscope and telescope both will increase.
(3) Magnifying power of microscope and telescope both will decrease.
(4) Magnifying power of microscope will decrease but that of telescope will increase.

3) A compound microscope has an eye-piece of focal length 10 cm and objective of focal length 4 cm.
Calculate the magnifying power if final image of an object kept at a distance of 5cm, forms at least
distance of distinct vision :-

(1) +12
(2) –12
(3) +14
(4) –14

4) The height of the image formed by a converging lens on a screen is 8 cm. For the same position of
the object and screen again an image of size 12.5 cm is formed on the screen by shifting the lens.
The height of the object is :-

(1) 15 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) None

5) In displacement method using convex lens, We obtain two images for separation of d. One image
is magnified as much as other is diminished. If m is magnification of one image find magnitude of
focal length of lens :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) In Galilean telescope, if the powers of an objective and eye lens are respectively + 1.25 D and – 20
D, then for relaxed vision, the length and magnification will be :-

(1) 21.25 cm and 16

(2) 85 cm and 16
(3) 75 cm and 16
(4) 8.5 cm and 21.25

7) In a Young's double slit experiment the intensity at a point where the path difference is (λ being

0
the wavelength of the light used) is I. If I denotes the maximum intensity, is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3) 1/2
(4) 3/4

8) On a hot summer night, the refractive index of air is smallest near the ground and increases with
height from the ground. When a light beam is directed horizontally, the Huygens' principle leads us
to conclude that as it travels, the light beam :

(1) bends downwards

(2) bends upwards
(3) becomes narrower
(4) goes horizontally without any deflection

9)

The difference in the number of waves when yellow light propagates through air and vacuum
columns of the same thickness is one. The thickness of the air column is :-
[Refractive index of air = 1.0003, wavelength of yellow light in vacuum = 6000 Å]

(1) 1 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 3 mm
(4) 4 mm

10) In YDSE the ratio of the intensity at the centre of a bright fringe to the intensity at a point one-
quarter of the distance between two fringe from the centre is :-

(1) 2
(2) 1/2
(3) 4
(4) 16

11) Which of following is a true statement, if in Young's experiment, separation between the slits is
gradually increased :-

(1) fringe width increases and fringes disappear

(2) fringe width decreases and fringes disappear
(3) fringes become blurred
(4) fringe width remains constant and fringes are more bright

12) Two slits S1 and S2 illuminated by a white light source give a white central maxima. A
transparent sheet of refractive index 1.25 and thickness t1 is placed in front of S1. Another
transparent sheet of refractive index 1.50 and thickness t2 is placed in front of S2. If central maxima
is not effected , then ratio of the thickness of the two sheets will be

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1

13) In Young's experiment, the distance between the slits is reduced to half and the distance
between the slit and screen is doubled, then the fringe width

(1) Will not change

(2) Will become half
(3) Will be doubled
(4) Will become four times

14) λa and λm are the wavelengths of a beam of light in air and medium respectively. If θ is the
polarising angle, the correct relation between λa, λm and θ is :

2
(1) λa = λm tan θ
2
(2) λm = λa tan θ
(3) λa = λm cot θ
(4) λm = λa cot θ

15) Unpolarized light of intensity Ι0 is incident on surface of a block of glass at Brewster's angle. In
that case, which one of the following statement is true ?
(1) transmitted light is partially polarized with intensity Ι0/2
(2) transmitted light is completely polarized with intensity less than Ι0/2
(3) reflected light is completely polarized with intensity less than Ι0/2
(4) reflected light is partially polarized with intensity Ι0/2

16) The angle of polarisation for any medium is 60°, what will be critical angle for this :

(1) sin–1
cos–1
(2)

tan–1
(3)

(4)
sin–1

17) A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1.00 mm wide
and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between the
first dark on either side of the central bright is :-

(1) 1.2 cm
(2) 1.2 mm
(3) 2.4 cm
(4) 2.4 mm

18) The first diffraction minimum due to a single slit diffraction is at θ = 30° for light of 5000 Å. The
width of the slit is

(1) 5 × 10–5 cm
(2) 10 × 10–5 cm
(3) 2.5 × 10–5 cm
(4) 1.25 × 10–5 cm

19) When an electric heater is switched on, the current i following through it is plotted against time
(t). Taking into account the variation of resistance with temperature, which of the following best
represents the resulting curve ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

20)

The current in a conductor varies with time t as I = 2t + 3t2 where I is in ampere and t in second.
Electric charge flowing through a cross section of conductor in 3rd second, is:-

(1) 36 C
(2) 24 C
(3) 12 C
(4) 44 C

21) Two different conductors have same resistance at 0oC. It is found that the resistance of the first
conductor at t1oC is equal to the resistance of the second conductor at t2oC. The ratio of the
temperature coefficients of resistance of the conductors. α1/α2 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22)
A resistor of varying cross–section is attached with a battery as shown. Variation of area from both
ends are similar and areas are same at ends and maximum at centre. Match the approximate
graphical representation of various physical properties in columns, where x axis represents position
from end A of resistor and y–axis various physical properties.
 Column I Column II

A i (current) P

B j (current density) Q

C E (electric field) R
 D Vd (potential) S

(1) A → S;B → P;C → R;D → R

(2) A → Q;B → P;C → P;D → R
(3) A → T;B → Q;C → P;D → S
(4) A → Q;B → P;C → P;D → T

23)

A part of circuit is given in figure. If potential difference across 4Ω is 8V then find potential drop
across 8Ω :-

(1) 4 V
(2) 8 V
(3) 24 V
(4) 12 V

24) A cell drives a current through a circuit. The emf of the cell is equal to the work done in moving
unit charge :-
(1) From the positive to the negative plate of the cell
(2) From the positive plate, back to the positive plate
(3) From the negative plate, back to the negative plate
(4) From any point in the circuit back to the same point
Select the correct statement.

(1) 1,2,3
(2) 2,3,4
(3) 3,4,1
(4) Only 1

25) Figure shows a circuit in which a battery of unknown emf and polarity is connected as shown.
Battery of unknown emf is such that power dissipated in 200 Ω is zero then E will be :-

(1) 150 V with negative terminal at top

(2) 300 V with negative terminal at top
(3) 75 V with negative terminal at bottom
(4) 100 V with negative terminal at bottom

26) A battery of 10 V and internal resistance 0.5 Ω is connected across a variable resistance R. The
maximum power consumed in circuit is:

(1) 100 W
(2) 50 W
(3) 200 W
(4) 5 W

27) On increasing the value of Rh, the reading of voltmeter will :-

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) First increases then decreases
(4) Does not change

28) Two light bulbs shown in the circuit have ratings A(24 V, 24 W) and B (24 V and 36 W) as shown.
When the switch is closed.

(1) The intensity of light bulb A increases

(2) The intensity of light bulbs both A and B remains same
(3) The intensity of light bulb B increases
(4) The intensity of light bulb B decreases

29) Three resistances A, B and C have values 3R, 6R and R respectively. When some potential
difference is applied across the network, the thermal powers dissipated by A, B and C are in the

ratio :-

(1) 2 : 3 : 4
(2) 2 : 4 : 3
(3) 4 : 2 : 3
(4) 3 : 2 : 4

30) Assuming all bulbs are identical, rank the brightnesses of the bulbs, from brightest to dimmest.

(1) A > D = H > B = C > E = F = G

(2) A > B = C > D = H > E = F = G
(3) A > D = H > E = F = G > B = C
(4) All have equal brightness

31) In a meter bridge experiment, ammeter is connected to battery. The null point of this circuit is at
the middle point. As the jockey is slided from left end to right end on the wire, the reading of
ammeter :-

(1) Increases and then decreases

(2) Decreases continuously
(3) Increases continuously
(4) Decreases then increases

32) A galvanometer of resistance 20 Ω gives full scale deflection when a current of 0.04 A is passed
through it. It is desired to convert it into an ammeter reading upto 20A. The only shunt available is
0.05 Ω resistance. The resistance that must be connected in series with the coil of the galvanometer
is :-

(1) 4.95 Ω
(2) 5.94 Ω
(3) 9.45 Ω
(4) 12.62 Ω

33) There are two conducting spheres of radius a and b(b > a) carrying equal and opposite charges.
They are placed at a separation d (>>> a and b). The capacitance of system is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Assertion :- Circuits containing high capacity capacitors, charged to high voltages should be
handled with caution, even when the current in the circuit is switched off.
Reason :- When an isolated capacitor is touched by hand or any other part of the human body, there
is an easy path to the ground available for the discharge of the capacitor.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

35) In an isolated parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C, the four surfaces have charges Q1, Q2, Q3,

and Q4 as shown. The potential difference between the plates is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) A telescope consists of two thin lenses of focal lengths 0.3 m and 3 cm, respectively. It is focussed
on Moon which sutends an angle of 0.5° at the objective. Then, the angle subtended at the eye by
the final image at infinity will be :

(1) 5°
(2) 0.25°
(3) 0.5°
(4) 0.35°

2) In displacement method, the distance between object and screen is 96 cm. The ratio of length of
two images formed by a converging lens placed between them is 4, then

(1) Distance between the two positions of the lens is 48 cm

(2) Distance between the two positions of the lens is 32 cm
(3) Focal length of the lens is 64/3 cm
(4) Both (2) & (3) are correct

3) What is the maximum intensity of interference of n identical waves each of intensity in if the
sources are coherent and incoherent respectively.

2 2
(1) n I0, n I0
(2) nI0, nI0
2
(3) nI0, n 0
2
(4) n I0, nI0

4) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R. Assertion A: The phase difference of two light waves change if they travel through
different media having same thickness, but different indices of refraction.
Reason R: The wavelengths of waves are different in different media.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is not correct but R is correct
5) If a thin mica sheet of thickness t and refractive index μ = [5/3] is placed in the path of one of the
interfering beams as shown in fig. then the displacement of the fringe system is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) 4 polariods are placed in such a way that axis of each polaroid makes an angle of 30° with
preceeding polariod. unpolarised light of intensity I0 is incident on first polariod. The intensity of
emergent light from last polariod is :-

(1) I0

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A single slit Fraunhofer diffraction pattern is formed with white light. For what wavelength of
light the third secondary maximum in the diffraction pattern coincides with the second secondary
maximum in the pattern for red light of wavelength 6500Å ?

(1) 4400 Å
(2) 4100 Å
(3) 4642.8 Å
(4) 4462.8 Å

8) A uniform copper wire carries a current i amperes and has p charge carriers per metre3. The
length of the wire is ℓ metres and its cross-section area is s metre2. If the charge on a carrier is q
coulombs, the drift velocity in ms–1 is given by

(1) i/ℓsq
(2) i/psq
(3) psq/i
(4) i/psℓq
9) An electric current flows along an insulated strip PQ of a metallic conductor. The current density
in the strip varies as shown in the graph. Which one of the following statements could explain this

variation ?

(1) The strip is narrower at P than at Q

(2) The strip is narrower at Q than at P
(3) The potential gradient along the strip is uniform
(4) The resistance per unit length of the strip is constant

10) Equivalent resistance between A & B will be :

(1) 100Ω
(2) 10Ω
(3) 20Ω
(4) None

11) In the figure shown, voltmeter is not ideal. If voltmeter is removed from R1 and then put across

R2, what will be the effect on current I? Given R1 > R2 :-

(1) Decreases
(2) Remains same
(3) Increases
(4) None

12) In the given figure, all the batteries are ideal. Find the value of i (in amperes)
(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 2

13) The deflection in the galvanometer is reduced from 50 to 20 divisions when it is shunted by a
resistance of 12 ohm. The resistance of the galvanometer will be :-

(1) 18 Ω
(2) 24 Ω
(3) 30 Ω
(4) 35 Ω

14) A parallel plate capacitor is charged up to a potential of 300 volts. Area of the plates is 100 cm2
and spacing between them is 2 cm. If the plates are moved apart to a distance of 5 cm without
disconnecting the power source, then electric field inside the capacitor is :-

(1) 1.5 × 103 V/m

(2) 3 × 103 V/m
(3) 1.2 × 104 V/m
(4) 6 × 103 V/m

15) Capacity of the capacitor of plates area A1 and A2 (A2 < A1) in front of each other is given by
(plate separation is d)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A
1) IUPAC Name for given comp:-

(1) 3-Ethyl-4-isopropyl hexa-1-ene

(2) 3, 4-Diisopropyl hexa-1-ene
(3) 4-Ethyl-3-isopropyl-5-methylhex-1-ene
(4) 3-Ethyl-4-isopropyl-2-methylhex-5-ene

2) The incorrect IUPAC name is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Which of following is incorrect about homologous series :-

(1) The successive members of homologous series are differ by CH2.

(2) The successive members of homologous series are differ by mass – 14.
(3) The member's of homologous series can be presented by same general formula.
(4) The members of homologous series have identical physical properties.

4) Which of following is incorrectly matched?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) What is the IUPAC name of the given compound:-

(1) 1-Bromo-3-chloro-4-idoo cyclohexane

(2) 5-Bromo-1-chloro-2-iodo cyclohexane
(3) 4-Bromo-2-chloro-1-iodo cyclohexane
(4) None of these

6) The number of hetero atoms and lone pair in given compound is/are :-

(1) 3 and 4
(2) 5 and 6
(3) 3 and 6
(4) 3 and 7

7) Radical has IUPAC name:

(1) 4-methylpentyl
(2) 1,3-Dimethylbutyl
(3) 2,4-Dimethylbutyl
(4) 3-methylpentyl

8) What is the correct IUPAC name of the following

(1) 4-Cyano hex-2-ene

(2) Hex-4-ene-3-nitrile
(3) 2-Ethyl pent-3-ene nitrile
(4) 2-(prop-1-enyl) butane nitrile
9) How many π Bonds & Sigma bonds are present in Benzene

(1) 6 & 6
(2) 12 & 6
(3) 3 & 12
(4) 12 & 12

10) Statement - I : is called Cyclo hexanenitrile.

Statement - II : It contains six carbon atoms in the ring and –CN as substituent.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

11) Which of the following functional group is not present in given compound :-

(1) Ketone
(2) Aldehyde
(3) Ether
(4) Amine

12) The hybridisation of carbon atoms of C-C single bond in HC C–CH=CH2 is [Left to right] :-

(1) sp3– sp3

(2) sp2 – sp3
(3) sp – sp2
(4) sp3 – sp

13) Choose the correct series of functional group according to priority?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14) Structure of 2-Methylcyclohex-2-en–1–ol is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) IUPAC name of the given compound is ?

(1) 1–Bromo– 2–cyclopropenyl– 4–methyl cyclopentane

(2) 3–(2–Bromo– 3–ethyl– 4–Methyl cyclopentyl) cyclopropene
(3) 2–Bromo– 3–Cyclopropenyl– 1–Ethyl–5–methyl cyclopentane
(4) 5–Bromo– 1–Cyclopropenyl– 4–Ethyl– 3–methyl cyclopentane

16) The IUPAC name of given compound is :

(1) 3-carboxy-2-vinylbutanenitrile
(2) 3-cyano-4-carboxypentene
(3) 2-Methyl-3-cyanopent-4-enoic acid
(4) 3-cyano-2-methylpent-4-enoic acid

17)

β-Butylene has the structure :-

(1) CH2=CH–CH2–CH3
(2) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

(3)

(4) None of above

18) The number of secondary C-atom present in the following compounds respectively :-

(1) 7, 8, 3
(2) 7, 8, 4
(3) 6, 7, 4
(4) 6, 8, 3

19) Number of 1° carbon in isooctane ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

20) How many structural isomers form by C3H6BrCl is :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

21) Relation between (A) and (B) is :-

CH3–CH2–CH2–C≡N;
(A) (B)

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Positional isomer
(3) Functional isomer
(4) Metamers

22) Identify correct matched ?

(1)
& - Functional isomers

(2)
CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-COOH - Chain-isomers

&
(3)

Metamers
(4) All

23) How many open chain structural isomers are possible with the M.F. C5H8 :-

(1) 7
(2) 9
(3) 8
(4) 6

24) Match the columns :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) CH3–OH, CH3–CH2–OH (i) Chain isomer

Ring chain
(B) CH3–CH2–NH2, CH3–NH–CH3 (ii)
isomer

Functional
(C) (iii)
CH3–CH=CH2, isomer

(D) (iv) Homologous

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)

25) The minimum no of carbon atom requires for an aldehyde to show functional isomerism with
ketone is :-

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 2

26) The number of structural isomers possible from the molecular formula C3H9N is :-
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

27) Which of the following can show geometrical isomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) How many geometrical isomers is/are possible for the given compound :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

29)

List - II
List - I (Number of
(Compound) geometrical
isomers)
(P) CH3–CH=CH–CH=CH–CH3 (1) 4

(Q) (2) 3
(R) (3) 8

(S) (4) 2

(1) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 3;S → 4

(2) P → 4;Q → 3;R → 2;S → 1
(3) P → 2;Q → 4;R → 3;S → 1
(4) P → 1;Q → 4;R → 3;S → 2

30) In which pair of geometrical isomers, Ist compound has more boiling point than IInd compound :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Which of the following is correct :

(1)
Stability order

(2)

Stability order
(3)
Order of melting point

(4)
Stability order

32) Number of possible structural isomers of molecular formula C5H10 which can show geometrical
isomerism

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Which of the following has ‘Z’ configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Choose correct statement :

(1) Geometrical isomerism is possible in alkynes.

(2) Alkenes do not show geometrical isomerism.
(3) Geometrical isomerism can result when molecule has restricted rotation.
(4) Cycloalkanes can not show geometrical isomerism.

35) Which of the following order is correct according to CIP rules ?

(1) –Cl > –Br > –CH2Br > –CH2Cl

(2) –CH2Br > –CH2Cl > –Br > –Cl
(3) –Br > –Cl > –CH2Br > –CH2Cl
(4) –Cl > –CH2Cl > –Br > –CH2Br

SECTION-B

1) Correct relation between following compounds is: and

(1) functional group isomers

(2) position isomers
(3) chain isomers
(4) metamers

2)

CH2=C=C=C=CH2

How many maximum number atoms of the above compounds are present in one plane?
(1) 9
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 6

3)

Total number of geometrical isomers in the given compound are :

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 32
(4) 128

4) How many chiral centres are present in a given structure ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

5) Assign double bond configurations to the following

(1) E
(2) Z
(3) E,E
(4) Z,Z

6) The IUPAC name of is

(1) (N - Bromo) – 2 keto – 3 methyl butanamide
(2) (N - Bromo) – 2 keto – 4 methyl butanamide
(3) (N - Bromo) – 1, 2 diketo – 3 methyl butanamide carboxamide
(4) (N-Bromo) – 1 – keto – 2 methylpropane

7) Which one of the following structures has the IUPAC name

3-ethynyl-2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Degree of unsaturation of following compound is :

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 9

9) The principle functional group in following compound for IUPAC naming.

(1) Aldehyde
(2) Ketone
(3) Amine
(4) Amide

10)

Number of compounds with 3° amines in the following :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 8

11)

How many different types of functional groups are present in following compound :
(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 11

12)

Sum of the locants which are used to indicate unsaturation only in prefix and suffix of the IUPAC
nomenclature of the compound is

(1) 10
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 11

13) Find out different number of functional group in (excluding multiple bonds).
5-cyano-10-ethenyl-6-nitro-8-nitroso-dec-12-ynoic acid :

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 7

14)

Calculate DU of the following compound ?

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 10
(4) 8

15) In the given compounds how many are having hex word root and diene in primary suffix in their
IUPAC name :

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

(vi)

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 2

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Bt-cotton has which of the following special features?

(1) This plant is completely resistant to insects

(2) It requires less fertilizers
(3) It's leaf is resistant to pest but boll is destroyed by bollworms
(4) This plant is resistant to certain insects

2) Transgenic plants are the ones :-

(1) Grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the field

(2) Produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium
(3) Generated by introducing foreign DNA in to a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell
(4) Produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium

3) Plants, bacteria, fungi & animals whose genes have been altered by manipulation are called
genetically modified organisms (GMO). Which of the following statements is not applicable to GM
plants ?

(1) Reduced dependence on chemical pesticides

(2) Prevent early exhaustion of fertility of soil
(3) Crops are less tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat)
(4) Enhanced nutritional value of food

4) RNA interference (RNAi) technique has been devised to protect the plants from nematode. In this
technique mRNA of nematode is silenced by ____ , produced by the host plant

(1) dsDNA
(2) dsRNA
(3) ssRNA
(4) Target Proteins

5) The techniques that serve the purpose of early diagnosis of disease or pathogen :-

(1) Recombinant DNA technology

(2) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
(3) Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay (ELISA)
(4) All the above

6) DNA probe is used for :-

(1) Detection of gene mutation

(2) Medical genetics to find particular gene
(3) DNA finger printing
(4) All the above

7) The below diagram shows a diagrammatic sketch of maturation of insulin. Select the correct set

of the names labelled A, B, C and D.

(1) A-A-peptide, B-B-peptide, C-Proinsulin, D-Free C-Peptide

(2) A-Proinsulin, B-A-peptide, C-B-peptide, D-free C-Peptide
(3) A-Free C-Peptide, B-A-peptide, C-B-peptide, D-Proinsulin
(4) A-A-peptide, B-B-peptide, C-Free C-peptide, D-Proinsulin

8) In 1983, Eli Lilly an American company, first prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A
and B-chains of the human insulin and introduced them in the plasmids of Escherichia coli to
produce insulin chains. Chains A and B were produced separately, extracted and combined by
creating :

(1) hydrogen bonds

(2) disulphide bonds
(3) covalent bonds
(4) peptide bonds

9) Gene therapy first used in the treatment of :-

(1) Phenylketonuria
(2) Albinism
(3) SCID
(4) Haemophilia

10) Match column I contaning transgenic organism with their specific characterstics in column-II
and select the correct answer From codes given below ?

Column-I Column-II

A Golden Rice (i) alpha Lactalbumin Rich milk

B Bt cotton (ii) RNAi Interference

C Pest resistant plant Tobacco (iii) Crystal protein

D Rosie cow (iv) Ehriched with vitamin A

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

11) GEAC makes decisions regarding :-

(1) The validity of GM research

(2) The safety of introducing GM organisms for public services
(3) The validity of biopatents
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct

12) Consider the following statements.

I. Transgenic animals are more sensitive to the toxic substance than non-transgenic animals.
II. Useful biological products can be produced by introducing into transgenic animals the portion of
DNA which codes for a particular product.
III. Brazzein is a protein produced by a west African plant, Pentadiplandra brazzeana which is
approximately 2000 time as sweet as sugar.
How many of the statements are given above are correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) All are incorrect

13) Read the following statements and select the option which have correct statements :-
(A) Bt toxin gene has been cloned from bacteria.
(B) Genetic engineering works only as animals and has not yet been successfully used on plants.
(C) Strains of Bacillus thuringiensis are used in producing bioinsecticidal plants.
(D) Flavr savr tomato has been produced by RNAi technology.

(1) Statements (A) and (B)

(2) Statements (C)and (D)
(3) Statements (B) and (D)
(4) Statements (A) and (C)

14) Strategy used to prevent nematode infection of tobacco roots is :-

(1) Use of argochemicals

(2) Bt toxin gene
(3) Gene mutation
(4) RNA interference

15) RNA interference (RNAi) involves silencing of specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA
molecule. This is the method of cellular defence in :-

(1) Bacteria
(2) Virus
(3) Eukaryotes
(4) Only in monocots

16) The C-peptide is :-

(1) Not present in proinsulin

(2) Present in mature insulin
(3) Removed during maturation of insulin
(4) Also present in artificial insulin

17) Recombinent therapeutic drugs are preferred over products isolated from non-human sources,
because :-

(1) Recombinant therapeutics are cheaper

(2) Recombinant therapeutics don't induce unwanted immunological responses.
(3) Recombinant therapeutics are easy to produce
(4) Recombinant therapeutics provide permanant cure.

18) A human protein which is being obtained from transgenic animals and is used to treat
emphysema is :-

(1) alpha-lactalbumin
(2) thyroxine
(3) α-1-antitrypsin
(4) insulin

19) Which of the following is not true regarding the use of transgenic animals ?

(1) In study of normal physiology and development

(2) Understanding of development of diseases
(3) α-1 antitrypsin can be synthesised using them
(4) Toxicity testing in such animals is possible but it takes much time

20) The jumping genes are called :-

(1) Cistrons
(2) Mutons
(3) Transposons
(4) Recons

21) Conventional methods of diagnosis is -

(1) Serum analysis

(2) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
(3) Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent Assay (ELISA)
(4) All the above

22) Which of the following technique can not serve the purpose of early diagnosis of diseases ?

(1) PCR
(2) ELISA
(3) rDNA technology
(4) Urine analysis

23) Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria do not kill the bacteria themselves because :-

(1) Toxin is inactive

(2) Toxin is immature
(3) Bacteria are resistant to the toxin
(4) Bacteria encloses toxin in a special sac

24) The illegal and unlawful development of biomaterials without payment to the inhabitants of their
origin is called :

(1) Biopatent
(2) Biotechnology
(3) Bio-war
(4) Biopiracy

25) Genetically modified golden rice variety where a gene of ? was transferred :-

(1) β - carotene
(2) β - galactose
(3) Vitamin B
(4) α - carotene

26) Given below is the diagrammatic view of fertilized embryo sac. Identify the parts labelled [A],

[B], [C] and [D] and select the right option about them.

Part [A] Part [B] Part [C] Part [D]

1 Egg cell Central Cell PEN Egg apparatus

2 Egg cell PEC PEN Egg apparatus

Degenerating antipodal
3 Zygote PEN PEC
cells

Degenerating antipodal
4 Zygote PEC PEN
cells
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) One of the most resistant known biological material is:

(1) Lignin
(2) Hemicellulose
(3) Sporopollenin
(4) Lignocellulose

28) Which of the following structure is diploid ?

(1) Antipodals
(2) Synergids
(3) Secondary nucleus
(4) Gamete

29) Which of the following is not an adaptation for cross pollination :-

(1) Dichogamy
(2) Herkogamy
(3) Heterostly
(4) Cleistogamy

30) Largest cell of the embryo sac is :

(1) Antipodal cell

(2) Egg cell
(3) Synergid
(4) Central cell

31) Pollen of anemophilous plants are :

(1) Large, hairy and sticky

(2) Small, light and non sticky
(3) Small and sticky
(4) Large, light and hygroscopic

32) In a mature dehisced anther, the anther wall consists of :-

(1) Epidermis and middle layer

(2) Epidermis and endothecium
(3) Endothecium and tapetum
(4) Epidermis and tapetum

33) Which of following is wrong about formation of mature pollen grain from microspore?

(1) Large generative cell is formed.

(2) The nucleus of vegetative cell is irregular in shape.
(3) Generative cell floats in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell.
(4) Vacuole is formed in the vegetative cell.

34) Stages of a microspore maturing into a pollen grain are given in the diagrams. Identify labelled
cells [A] and [B] of given diagram :-

(1) [A] Generative cell, [B] Vegetative cell

(2) [A] Generative cell, [B] Tube cell
(3) [A] Vegetative cell, [B] Tube cell
(4) [A] Vegetative cell, [B] Generative cell

35) The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in dicot plants is:

(1) 2 + 4 + 2
(2) 3 + 2 + 3
(3) 2 + 3 + 3
(4) 3 + 1 + 3

SECTION-B

1) In Angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into :-

(1) Embryo
(2) Endosperm
(3) Embryo sac
(4) Ovule

2) Apomixis is .......... ?

(1) Special mechanism to produced seed without fertilization

(2) Special mechanism to produced seed with fertilization
(3) Mimics of sexual reproduction
(4) (1) and (3)

3) In angiosperms a mature male gametophyte is formed from pollen mother cell by -

(1) One meiotic division

(2) Two mitotic divisions
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Three meiotic divisions

4) Pollen kit is generally found in -

(1) Anemophilous flower

(2) Entomophilous flower
(3) Ornithophilous flower
(4) Malacophilous flower

5) The phenomenon where transfer of pollen grains from the anthers to the stigma of another flower
of the same plant is called

(1) Xenegamy
(2) Cleistogamy
(3) Geitonogamy
(4) Autogamy

6) Identify the A, B, C ,D in given diagram :-

A B C D

Proximal
(1) Anther Filament Distal end
end

Proximal
(2) Filament Distal end Anther
end

Proximal
(3) Anther Distal end Filament
end

Proximal
(4) Filament Anther Distal end
end
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Autogamy requires synchrony in pollen release and stigma receptivity

In a normal flower which opens and exposes anthers and the stigma, complete autogamy is
(2)
rather rare
(3) Syncarpous pistil is found in Michelia
(4) Syncarpous pistil is found in papaver

8) In hydrilla flower pollinating agent is :-

(1) Water
(2) Air
(3) Insect
(4) Bird

9) Consider the following statements regarding angiosperms and choose the correct option.
(a) Microspore represent the mature male gametophyte.
(b) Pollen tablets are used as food supplement
(c) Polar nuclei are situated below the egg apparatus.

(1) a and b are true but c is false

(2) b and c are true but a is false
(3) a and c are true but b is false
(4) a, b and c are false

10) Animal visitor are required for pollination in :-

(1) Zostera
(2) Grass
(3) Yucca
(4) Maize

11) Angiosperm exhibit double fertilization because

(1) One fusion events occur in each embryo sac

(2) Two fusion events occur in each embryo sac, like syngamy and triple fusion
Fusion of haploid polar nuclei and formed secondary nucleus and male gamete fused with
(3)
secondary nucleus
(4) Fusion of two male gametes with egg cell

12) Microsporogenesis occurs in :-

(1) Nucellus
(2) Filament
(3) Anther
(4) Integument

13) Typical angiosperm anther is :-

(1) Dithecous and bisporangiate

(2) Dithecous and bisporangiate
(3) Monothecous and bisporangiate
(4) Dithecous and tetrasporangiate

14)

End product of sexual reproduction is :-

(1) Gametes
(2) Spores
(3) Endosperm
(4) Seeds

15)

Aquatic plants like water-hyacinth and water lily are usually pollinated by :-

(1) Water
(2) Birds
(3) Insects
(4) Both (2) and (3)

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Cyclic menstruation is an indicator of :-

(1) Normal reproductive phase

(2) Period between menarche and menopause
(3) Both
(4) Pregnancy

2) First or free milk is called :-

(1) Colostrum
(2) Baby's milk
(3) Rostrum
(4) Cholesterol

3) In uterus, endometrium proliferates in response to :-

(1) Relaxin
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Progesterone
(4) Oestrogen

4) The female external genitalia include :-

(a) Mons pubis (b) Labia majora
(c) Hymen (d) Clitoris
(e) Labia minora (f) ovary
(g) Uterus

(1) a, b, c, d, e
(2) a, c, d, e, f, g
(3) c, d, e, f, g
(4) a, b, f, g

5) The funnel shaped part of fallopian tube near ovary is known as :-

(1) Isthmus
(2) Intra-mural part
(3) Ampulla
(4) Infundibulum

6) Meiosis-I is completed before coming out of oocyte from ovary and form :-

(1) Secondary oocyte

(2) First polar body
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Second polar body

7) Ovulation takes place around which day if the menstrual cycle is of 32 days ?

(1) 14th day

(2) 18th day
(3) 22nd day
(4) 10th day

8) Normally safe period is considered to be :-

(1) 1st to 8th day

(2) 10th to 17th day
(3) 20th to 28th day
(4) Both 1 and 3

9) Which cells of embryo (Blastocyst) help it in implantation ?

(1) Trophoblast
(2) Inner cell mass
(3) Zona pellucida
(4) Blastocoel

10)

In the female reproductive system, sperm follow the following route

(1) Vagina → Cervical canal → Fallopian tube → Uterus

(2) Vagina → Fallopian tube → Cervical canal → Uterus
(3) Vagina → Cervical canal → Uterus → Fallopian tube
(4) Cervical canal → Vagina → Uterus → Fallopian tube

11)

How many eggs and sperms are required to produce fraternal twins ?

(1) One egg, one sperm

(2) two eggs, one sperm
(3) one egg, two sperm
(4) two eggs, two sperms

12) Due to which of the following hormone, the sensitivity of myometrium for oxytocin hormone
increases several folds ?

(1) Relaxin
(2) Estrogen
(3) Prolactin
(4) HCG

13)

How many cells in the list given below have diploid chromosomes.
Interstitial cells, Leydig cells, Germ cells, Sertoli cells, Sperm, Ovum.

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

14)

There are three layers present in uterus. One of them is thick muscular, second is glandular and
third is thin visceral peritoneum. Layers are respectively :

(1) Perimetrium, Myometrium, Endometrium

(2) Perimetrium, Endometrium, Myometrium
(3) Myometrium, Endometrium, Perimetrium
(4) Endometrium, Perimetrium, Myometrium

15)

At the time of puberty how many primary follicle are left in each ovary ?

(1) 60,000 - 80,000

(2) 40,000 - 60,000
(3) 1,20,000 - 1,60,000
(4) 80,000 - 1,20,000

16) The muscles of penis are :-

(1) corpus cavernosum

(2) corpus spongiosum
(3) corpus albicans
(4) both (1) and (2)

17) Ejaculatory duct is formed by :-

(1) Urethra and vas defrens

(2) Urethra and duct of seminal vesicle
(3) Vas defrens and duct of seminal vesicle
(4) Vas defrens and epididymis

18) Most dilated part of fallopian tube is

(1) Infundibulum
(2) Ampulla
(3) Isthmus
(4) Intramuller part

19) Which statement is incorrect among following?

(1) Uterus is single

(2) Uterus is also known as womb
(3) Mons pubis is cushion of fatty tissue
(4) The shape of uterus is like bean

20) The first movement of the foetus usually observed during.

(1) Fifth month of pregnancy

(2) During second month of pregnancy
(3) During seventh month of pregnancy
(4) During last few month of pregnancy

21) The human male ejeculates about 200-300 million sperms during coitus. For normal fertility, how
many sperms must be with high motility:

(1) 30%
(2) 40%
(3) 20%
(4) 10%

22) Foetal ejection reflex induces mild uterine contraction. This trigger releases of ___ from maternal
pituitary.

(1) Prostaglandins
(2) Oxytocin
(3) CRH
(4) Relaxin

23) Which layer forms the lobules of testis

(1) Tunica vaginalis

(2) Tunica albuginea
(3) Tunica vasculosa
(4) Tunica propria

24) Milk ejecting hormone in human is

(1) Prolactin
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) LH

25) Select incorrect match

(1) Formation of embryo heart – After first trimester of pregnancy

(2) Limbs and digits develops – After 2nd month of pregnancy
(3) First movement of foetus – During the 5th month of pregnancy
(4) Eyelids separate – By the end 6th month

26) Read the following

(a) Periodic abstinence is a natural method
(b) In lactational amenorrhea, high concentration of PRL may lead to inhibition of menstrual cycle in
lactating mother
(c) Coitus interrptus is a barrier method
(d) Person who undergone vasectomy is unable to involve in sexual intercourse
In the above, the correct statements are

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

27) It is a diagrammatic sectional view of male reproductive system, In which identify common path

for the semen and urine :

(1) A
(2) B
(3) D
(4) C

28) The process of delivery of the foetus is called.

(1) Foetal ejection reflex

(2) Parturition
(3) Lactation
(4) 1 and 2 both

29) Which of the following structure is responsible for cleavage division in fertilized egg?

(1) Proximal centriole of sperm

(2) Distal centriole of seprm
(3) Nebenkern sheath
(4) Centriole of ovum

30) In the absence of fertilisation which of the following structure degenerates :-

(1) Corpus albicans

(2) Myometrium
(3) Corpus luteum
(4) Placenta

31) Cu ions released from copper–releasing intra uterine devices (IUDs) :-

(1) Prevent ovulation

(2) Make uteres unsuitable for implantation
(3) Increase phagocytosis sperms
(4) Suppress sperm motility

32) The main cause of the disintegration of the endometrial lining :-

(1) LH surge
(2) Degeneration of corpus luteum
(3) Ovulation during mid-cycle
(4) Implantation leads to pregnancy

33) Which of the following method of birth control can cause excessive menstrual bleedings pain and
inflammation of uterine wall ?

(1) Condom
(2) Cervical cap
(3) Oral contraceptive
(4) Intra uterine device

34) Artificial insemination means :-

(1) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary

(2) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing of Ova
(3) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing Ova
(4) Artificialy introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina.

35) Which is not a suitable method for population control ?

(1) Condoms
(2) IUD
(3) Oral pills
(4) M.T.P.

SECTION-B

1) When Indian population crossed 1 billion :-

(1) May, 2000

(2) March, 2000
(3) June, 2000
(4) July, 2000

2) Which of these are the complications associated with STD's ?

(i) Still birth
(ii) Abortion
(iii) Ectopic pregnancy
(iv) Infertility

(1) i, iii, iv
(2) i, ii, iii, iv
(3) ii, iv
(4) i, ii

3) Which of the following is not a natural method of birth control ?

(1) Lactational Amenorrhea

(2) Withdrawl method
(3) Periodic Abstinence
(4) Use of condoms during coitus

4) How many technologies in the list given below involve in-vivo fertilization ?
GIFT, ZIFT, ICSI, IUT, AI.

(1) Five
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

5) Choose the incorrect regarding the given diagram of a contraceptive method :-

(1) It is a surgical method, also called sterilisation

(2) It prevents gamete transport and thereby prevent conception
(3) In this, a small part of epididymis is removed or tied up through a small incision on the abdomen
In this, a small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision on the
(4)
scrotum

6) First country of world which adopt family planning programme :-

(1) Japan
(2) USA
(3) India
(4) Bangladesh

7) If zygote or early embryo upto 8 blastomere is transferred to fallopian tube. It is called :-

(1) GIFT
(2) ZIFT
(3) AI
(4) ICSI

8) Which of the following contraceptive methods can prevent ovulation ?

(1) CuT, Condoms

(2) Combination of estrogen and progesterone taken orally
(3) Diaphragms, cervical cap and vaults
(4) Coitus interruptus and lactational amenorrhoea

9) Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the

(1) suppression of gonadotropins

(2) hypersecretion of gonadotropins
(3) suppression of gametic transport
(4) suppression of fertilization

10) An IUCD is:-

(1) Vasectomy
(2) Copper T
(3) Condom
(4) All above

11) Immunologically competent cells are present in –

(1) Seminiferous tubule

(2) Outside the seminiferous tubule
(3) Sertoli cells
(4) Leydig cells

12) Temperature of testis is –

(1) 2 – 2.5°C lower than body temperature

(2) 2 – 2.5°C higher than body temperature
(3) 2 – 2.5°F lower than body temperature
(4) 2 – 2.5°K higher than body temperature

13) Choose the correct sequence for given diagrams (A,B,C and D) of human development events :-
(1) A → B → C → D
(2) B → C → A → D
(3) C → B → A → D
(4) A → D → C → B

14) Which one of the following options gives the correct match of animals according to the type of
fertilisation and site of development (A, B, C) :-

(A) (B) (C)

Animal Fertilisation Site of development

(1) Bird Internal Inside the female body

(2) Human Internal Inside the female body

(3) Insect External Inside the female body

(4) Amphibian External Inside the female body

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) The removal of both the testis before puberty results in the subject becomes

(1) Sterile
(2) Childish
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Not any effect
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 4 3 2 3 4 2 2 1 2 2 4 4 3 4 4 2 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 2 4 2 1 1 4 3 3 1 4 1 4 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 4 4 3 1 2 3 2 1 2 1 1 1 4 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 4 4 3 3 3 2 3 3 1 1 3 4 2 2 4 2 1 4 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 2 3 1 3 3 1 3 2 3 2 2 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 3 1 3 3 1 4 3 4 1 1 1 1 1 3

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 3 3 2 4 4 2 2 3 3 4 3 4 4 3 3 2 3 4 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 4 1 4 1 4 3 3 4 4 2 2 1 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 1 2 3 2 3 4 4 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 4 1 4 3 2 4 1 3 4 2 2 3 1 4 3 2 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 2 2 2 1 1 4 2 1 3 4 2 4 4 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 1 2 4 3 3 3 2 2 1 2 2 1 4 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

m=9= , L = fo + fe
L = 9fe + fe
20 = 10fe
fe = 2 cm
∴ fo = 18 cm

2)

A microscope consists of lens of small focal lengths. A telescope consists of objective lens of large
focal length.

0
3) m =

me =

∴ MP = m0 × me = –4 × 3.5 = –14

4) 0 = = = 10 cm

5)

d = y – x,
d = mx – x = (m – 1)x ……(i)
For position-1
u = –x, v = y

Focal length f, ⇒

⇒ f= ……(ii)
 Put x = in (ii)

f=

6)

0
f = × 100 = 80 cm

fe = = –5 cm

MP =
L.O.T = f0 – |fe| = 75 cm

7)

8)

9) Thickness t = nλ
So, n λvac = (n + 1) λair

n λ = (n + 1)

n=

t = nλ = = 2 mm

10)

Required ratio =

11)
Fringe width decreases and fringes disappear.

12)

(1.25–1)t1 = (1.50–1)t2

13)

If D becomes twice and d becomes half so β becomes four times.

14) tan θp = μ =
⇒ λm = λa cot θ

15)

According to law of Brewster reflected light of fully polarized. Also, more than half light goes in the
form of transmitted light.

16)

∵ μ = tanθP
∴ μ = tan 60° ⇒

Now

17) Linear width =

λ = 600 nm
a = 1 mm
D=2m

18) a sin 30 = 5 × 10–7

a = 10–6 m

25)

(50 – 100I) = (E – 300 I) = 0

⇒ E = 150 V

27)

Reading of voltmeter is always V

 32) Since the shunt is in parallel to (20 + R)Ω
⇒ 0.04 × (20 + R) = 0.05 × (20 – 0.04)
⇒ R = 4.95 Ω

35)
For isolated C no charge can transfer from right plate to left.
Charge of capacitor is charge present on inner face of the plates.
Qnet = CV

V=

36)

37)

and m1m2 = 1 ⇒ m1 = 2 , m2 =
x + y = 96; y/x = 2
y = 2x
3x = 96
x = 32
Distance between two position x – y = 32

38)

∵ I1 = I2 = I3 = ............. = I0
When2 sources are coherent, θ = 2π ∴ cos θ = 0

∴ Imax for for n waves =

02
∴ Imax = = n2I
When 2 sources are in coherent Imax = I1 + I2
For n waves Imax = I1 + I2 +.........
= I0 + I0 + .............. = nI0
∴ option (4) is correct

39) As medium changes, optical path changes.

Also,
Hence phase difference changes.

40)

41)

From Ist polariod ⇒

From IInd ⇒

From IIIrd ⇒

From IVth ⇒

42)

= 7λ = 5 × 6500 Å

λ = Å

44) The current density at P is higher than at Q. For the same current flowing through the
metallic conductor PQ, the cross-sectional area at P is narrower than at Q.

46)

Ans.
1(E),2(H)

48)
 20 I G = 30 I S

G= = 18 Ω

CHEMISTRY

57)

1,3-Dimethylbutyl

60) Statement - I:– is called cyclohexane carbonitrile.

Statement - II : - CN is not a substituent but principal F.G.

64)

69)

71) NCERT XI Pg. # 348

72) All are correct.

74) defination based

75) CH3CH2CHO &

 76)

78) For unsymmetrical compounds,

Total number of geometrical isomers is 2n where n = 1
so, total number of geometrical isomers is 2.

84)

Stereo-isomers which are obtained due to different orientation of atoms or group in the space
around restricted rotation are known as G.I.

86)

Fact

89) If a atom is attached to four different groups/ atoms then it is called as chiral centre.

91)

As per IUPAC Rules

92)

3-ethynyl-2-hydroxy-4-methyl-hex-3-en-5-ynoic acid.

99) DU = 8 + 1 – =5

100) (iii), (iv), (v), (vii), (ix), (x)

BOTANY

102)

NCERT XII, Pg # 212

 103)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 208

106)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 212

107)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 211

108)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 211

109)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 210

111)

NCERT XII Pg. # 213, िहदी Pg. # 234

112)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 213

113)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 208,209

119)

NCERT Pg. # 213

121)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 212

123)

NCERT Pg. # 208

124) XII Old NCERT Pg # 185

126)

NCERT XII, Page # 34 (E), Figure 2.13(a)

127)

NCERT XII, Page # 23

 130)

NCERT-XII Pg # 27

131)

NCERT-XII Pg # 29

133)

NCERT XII (E) Pg. # 23

134)

NCERT (XII) (E) Pg. # 23(E), 24(H) figure 2.5

136)

NCERT XII pg.# 26(E), 27(H)

137) NCERT XII Pg. # 38

140)

NCERT XII Pg. # 28

141)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 21 Fig. 2.2 (A)

143) NCERT XII Pg. # 29(E), 31(H)

ZOOLOGY

151) NCERT XII Page # 51

157)

Module-1, Pg. # 37

159)

Module-1, Pg. # 46, 47

180)

NCERT Pg. # 51

183)

NCERT XII, Page # 60

 185) NCERT Pg. # 62

186)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 59, para 2

187)

NCERT XII Pg.# 59,60

189)

NCERT XII Page # 64 (E), 71 (H)

190)

NCERT–XII, Pg. # 62, Para-1 (E)

NCERT–XII, Pg. # 68, Para-3 (H)

196)

NCERT - Pg. # 43

197)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 43 (E), 46 (H), Para-1