Holiday Homework

Class : XI
 ENGLISH
Dear Student
Summer has arrived and brought with it amazing and fun filled holidays. Summer break is a well-
deserved opportunity to relax and unwind by indulging in various activities. Your holiday
homework has been specially designed for you to be creative, innovative and imaginative while
completing your tasks. It will also enable you to recapitulate what was taught in the classrooms.
We hope you will play, learn, research, analyze, experiment, imagine, think, value, appreciate and
above all enjoy during your holidays.
Wishing you happy holidays!
General Instructions:
 Do your holiday homework on A4 size sheets.
 Mention date and day when you do your work.
 Use your creativity and imagination wherever required.
 Submit your holiday homework on 8th July,2024.
 Use the holidays to thoroughly prepare chapters and poems completed in the class.

1. Prepare a PPT
How to do :- Make a PPT/ Collage on the sailing terminology and parts of a ship and gather
information about Isle.
Where to do :- In a Pen drive/ Coloured A4 Sheet.
Parameters :- Creativity, Content,Presentation.

2. Comic Strip
How to do :- Make a comic strip of the chapter The Portrait of a Lady.
Parameters :- Content , Creativity, Relevance .

3. Being Innovative with Values:-

What could be the alternate ending of the lesson ‘The Address’
Parameters:- Creativity, content, authentication.
4. Prepare a Model
How to do:
1.Research about the Egyptian Civilizations-with particular reference to Tut’s Mummy and its
discovery. (Roll No. (01-07)
2.Explain any 6 Literary Devices using examples (Roll No. 08-14)
3.Create a visual timeline of Shakespeare’s life. (Roll No. 15-21)
4.Create visual timeline of your favourite poet. ( Roll No. 22-28)
5.Explore the impact of World War II on society. ( Roll No. 29-35)
Parameters for Assessment :- Content, language and accuracy, Presentation

7.Advertisements
Cut and paste minimum 5 of the following advertisements from any English newspaper
1. For Sale (Property, Vehicle)
2. To Let
3, Situation Wanted
4. Situation Vacant
5. Matrimonial

8. Make a beautiful handmade folder for your Project.

 LESSON: WE’RE NOT AFRAID TO DIE…….
LESSON: THE SUMMER OF THE BEAUTIFUL WHITE HORSE
TOPIC: WRITING SKILLS

1. Read the given extract to attempt the questions that follow:

My cousin Mourad was considered the natural descendant of this man, although Mourad's father was
Zorab, who was practical and nothing else. That's how it was in our tribe. A man could be the father of
his son's flesh, but that did not mean that he was also the father of his spirit. The distribution of the
various kinds of spirit of our tribe had been from the beginning capricious and vagrant.

We rode and my cousin Mourad sang. For all anybody knew we were still in the old country where,
at least according to some of our neighbours, we belonged. We let the horse run as long as it felt like
running.
a) According to the passage, why was Mourad considered the natural descendant of a particular man?
i) He possessed similar physical traits.
ii) His father was known for his practical nature.
iii) He demonstrated a strong connection to the man's spirit.
iv) He inherited a significant fortune from him.

b) What does the passage suggest about the distribution of spirit within the tribe?
i) It follows strict hereditary patterns.
ii) It is influenced by external factors.
iii) It is capricious and unpredictable.
iv) It is solely determined by biological lineage.

c) How does the passage characterize the relationship between biological and spiritual fatherhood
within the tribe?
d) What does the act of riding and singing with Mourad symbolize in the passage?

2. Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow:

The first indication of impending disaster came at about 6 p.m., with an ominous silence.
The wind dropped, and the sky immediately grew dark. Then came a growing roar, and
an enormous cloud towered aft of the ship. With horror, I realized that it was not a cloud,
but a wave like no other I had ever seen. It appeared perfectly vertical and almost twice
the height of the other waves, with a frightful breaking crest.

(a) What do you mean by ‘the wind dropped’?

i) wind fell down ii) wind slipped out of the hands of author
iii) speed of wind greatly reduced iv) wind started coming from below the ship

b) Which of the following was not a sign of impending disaster?

i) ominous silence ii) wind dropped
iii) a growing roar iv) clock struck at 6 p.m.

c) Which word in the extract means ‘forthcoming’’?

i) growing ii) roaring iii) impending iv) ominous
 d) Why was the author horrified?
i) he had never seen such big wave
ii) the wave was perfectly vertical
iii) the wave was almost twice the size of normal waves
iv) all of the above

3.Answer the following questions in about 40-50 words each.

a) "January 2 was crucial for the voyagers" How?
b) Why could the Captain not find any words to respond to his children's show of bravery in the face of
the storm?
c) Describe in your own words encounter with John Byro.
d) Briefly sum up Murad's character in your own words.

4. Answer the following questions in about 100-120 words each.

a) The hurdles of life can be challenged if we have confidence to make optimum use of our
potential. Elaborate.

b) Imagine you are Mourad. On the basis of the reading of the lesson ‘The Summer of the
Beautiful White Horse’, draft a conversation between Aram and Mourad.
5. “Academic excellence is the only requirement for a successful career” . Write a debate either
for or against the motion. (120-150words)
6. Many children get nervous before the board exams, which affects their health and
performance. Good counselling is needed to help them overcome what is called ‘exam fever’.
Draft a speech in 150-200 words on ‘Need for Counselling before Board Exams’. You are
Mallika/Mihir.

7. Design a poster in not more than 50 words for your school library on the value of books and
good reading habits. You may use slogans.

NOTE: DO QUESTIONS ON A4 SIZE RULED COLOURED SHEET

 PHYSICS

1. Which of the following have same dimensions?

(a) Specific heat and latent heat
(b) Momentum and impulse
(c) Moment of inertia and moment of momentum
(d) Tension and surface tension.
2. The physical quantities not having same dimensions are :
(b) speed and (µ 0 ∈0 )
−1 / 2
(a) momentum and Plank’s constant
(c) spend and p/ρ (d) Surface tension and spring constant
3. The dimensions of capacitance are (where Q is the dimension of charge) :
(a) M−1L−2T2Q2 (b) MLT−2Q−2
(c) M1L−1T2 (d) M−1L−2T2Q
a
4. In the standard equation S nth = u + [2n − 1] , what dimensions do you view for S nth ?
2
1
(a) M°L T° (b) M°L−1T1
(c) M°L1T−1 (d) M°L°T1
5. Which one of the following quantities has not been expressed in proper units ?
(a) Coeff. Of elasticity : N/m2 (b) Surface tension : N/m
(c) Energy : kg m/s (d) Pressure : N/m2
6. A ball is thrown up, it reaches a maximum height and then come down. If t1 ( 2 > t1) are the
times that the ball takes to be at a particular height then the time taken by the ball to reach
the highest point is
(a) (t1 + t 2 ) (b) (t1 − t 2 ) (c) (t 2 − t1 ) / 2 (d) (t 2 + t1 ) / 2
7. A stone is dropped from a certain height and at the same time another stone is thrown
horizontally from the same height which one will reach the ground earlier.
(a) first stone (b) second stone
(c) simultaneously (d) not sure
8. A particle is forced to move on a straight line path. It returns to the starting point after 10
seconds. The total distance covered by the particle during this time is 20 m. Which of the
following statements is false regarding the motion of the particles ?
(a) The average velocity of the particle is zero.
(b) The displacement of the particle is zero.
(c) The average speed of the particle s 2.0 ms−1
(d) The displacement of the particle is 20 m.
9. A lift is coming from 8th floor and is just about to reach 4th floor. Taking ground floor as
origin and positive direction upwards for all quantities, which one of the following is correct
?
(a) x < 0, v < 0, a > 0 (b) x > 0, v < 0, a < 0
(c) x > 0, v < 0, a > 0 (d) x > 0, v > 0, a < 0
10. A particle covers half of its total distance with speed v1 and the rest half with speed v2. Its
average speed during the complete journey is
v12 v22 v1 + v2
(a) 2 (b)
v1 + v22 2
v1v2 2v1v2
(c) (d)
v1 + v2 v1 + v2
For question numbers 11 to 15, two statements are given-one labeled Assertion (A) and the
other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a),
(b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
11. Assertion (A) : For the uniform motion, the slope of the position-time graph will be
constant.
Reason (R) : The slope of the position – time graph represents velocity of the object and
for uniform motion it is constant.
12. Assertion (A) : The total displacement of a student will be zero, if he rode a bicycle from
point A to B and then came back to A.
Reason (R) : Displacement is a scalar quantity
13. Assertion : Two masses in ratio 1 ; 2 are thrown vertically up with same speed, reach
the top simultaneously.
Reason : Acceleration due to gravity is directly proportional to the mass of a body.
14. Assertion (A) : In case of a body falling down freely near the surface of earth, displacement
is directly proportional to square of time elapsed.
Reason (R) : The freely falling body has constant acceleration.
15. Assertion (A) : The area vector is associated with plane area drawn outward normal to the
plane.
Reason (R) : the area under velocity – time graph represents acceleration.

Case Study Based Questions

16. Read the following and answer the questions:
A monkey climbs up a slippery pole for 3s and keeps on slipping for 3s. At time t, its velocity
is given by v(t ) − 2t (3 − t ); 0 < t < 3 and v(t ) = −(t − 3)(6 − t ) for 3 < t < 6s (in m/s). It repeats
this cycle till it reaches the height of 20 m.
(i) At what time is its velocity maximum ?
(a) 0.5 s (b) 1 s (c) 1.5 s (d) 2 s
(ii) At what time is its average velocity maximum ?
(a) t = 0 s (b) t = 2.25 s (c) t = 4.5 s (d) t = 7 s
(iii) At what time is its acceleration is maximum in magnitude ?
(a) t = 0 s (b) t = 3 s (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Never
OR
(iv) The motion of the monkey over the pole is
(a) Periodic (b) non-periodic (c) retarded (d) accelerated
17. Read the following and answer the questions:
It must be clearly understood that distance is not the same as displacement. Distance is a
scalar quantity and is given by the total length of the path travelled by the body in a certain
interval of time. Displacement is a vector quantity and is given by the shortest distance (in a
specified direction) between the initial and the final positions of the body. The direction of
the displacement vector is form the initial position to the final position of the motion. Speed
is a scalar quantity. The average speed and average velocity are differet in many respect.
The direction of the velocity vector is the same as that of the displacement vector.
Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity and it is a vector quantity.
(i) Distance and displacement are equal in magnitude when
(a) A body is moving in the opposite direction.
(b) A body is moving in the straight line in a specific direction.
(c) A body is moving in any path, but in a specific direction.
(d) A body is moving in the straight line but in opposite direction.
(ii) The position – time graph for uniform accelerated motion is

(iii) The area under velocity-time graph signifies

(a) Acceleration of the body (b) displacement of the body
(c) average velocity of the body (d) retardation of the body
(iv) The slope of position-time graph represent (at any instant)
(a) Average velocity (b) Acceleration
(c) Instantaneous velocity (d) Instantaneous acceleration
(v) When a body is moving in a circular path with uniform speed, the average velocity
during one complete revolution is
Total distance covered
(a)
Total time taken
(b) Zero
2πr
(c) , r is radius of circular path
Total time taken
(d) Speed × time

18. In CGS system, the value of Stefan’s constant (σ) is 5.67 × 10–5 erg s–1 cm–2 K–4. Write down
its value in SI units.
19. The distance covered by a body is found to be directly proportional
to the square of time. Is the body moving with uniform velocity or
uniform acceleration ? If the distance travelled be directly
proportional to time.
20. The speed time graph of a particle moving along a fixed direction is
as show below. Obtain the distance traversed by the particle between
(a) t = 0 s to 5 s,
(b) t = 2 s to 6 s.
21. Draw velocity – time graph of uniformly accelerated motion in one dimension. From the
velocity time graph of uniform accelerated motion, deduce the equations of motion in
distance and time.
22. A calorie is a unit of heat or energy and it equals about 4.18 J where 1 J = 1 kg m2 s–2.
Suppose we employ a system of units in which the unit of mass equals α kg, the unit of
length equals β m, the unit of time is γ s. Show that a calorie has a magnitude 4.2 α–1 β–2 γ2
in terms of the new units.
23. The speed of a train increases at a constant rate α from zero to v and then remains constant
fro an interval, and finally decreases to zero at a constant rate β. If L be the total distance
L v  1 1
described prove that the total time taken is +  + .
v 2  α β 
24. Given that the amplitude of the scattered light is (i) directly proportional to that of incident
light, (ii) directly proportional to the volume of the scattering dust particle (iii) inversely
proportional to its distance from the scattering particle, and (iv) dependent upon the
1
wavelength (λ) of the light. Show that the intensity of scattered light varies as 4 .
λ
25. Rule out or accept the following formulae for kinetic energy on the basis of dimensional
arguments.
2 2 2
(i) K = 3/16 mv (ii) K = 1/2 mv + ma (iii) K = 1/2 mv
26. The frequency ‘f’ of vibration of a stretched string depends upon :
(i) Its length ‘l’
(ii) The mass per unit length ‘m’
(iii) The Tension ‘T’ in the string.
27. Find the displacement and distance travelled by a body in 10 seconds, using the v – t graph
given below :

28. Write the dimensional formula for the following :

(i) Wein’s constant
(ii) Planck’s constant
(iii) Specific heat
(iv) Latent heat
(v) Rydberg’s constant.
29. Name the physical quantity of the dimension given below :
(i) ML0T−3
(ii) ML−1T−1
(iii)M−1L3T−2
(iv) ML2T−3
(v) ML0T−2
(vi) T−1
30. A man runs across the roof-top of a tall building and jumps horizontally with the hope of
landing on the roof of the next building which is of a lower height than the first. If his speed
is 9 m/s, the (horizontal) distance between the two buildings is 10 m and the height difference
is 9 m, will he be able to land on the next building ? (Take g = 10 m/s2).
31. Four persons K, L, M and N start from the vertices of a square of side ‘a’, simultaneously
and move towards the neighbor in order always with the same speed of v. When and where
do they meet ?
32. A book with many printing errors contains four different formulae for the displacement y of
a particle undergoing a certain periodic motion :
2πt
y = a sin
(i) T
2πt
y = a sin
(ii) T
(iii) y = (a / T ) sin(t / a )

(iv) y = (a 2 )(sin 2πt / T + cos 2πt / T )

where a = maximum displacement of the particle, v = speed of the particle, T = time-period
of motion. Rule out the wrong formulae on dimensional grounds.
33. The displacement-time graph o two bodies P and Q are represented
by OA and BC respectively. What is the ratio of velocities of P and
Q ? ∠OBC = 60° and ∠AOC = 30°.
34. Assuming that the mass (m) of the largest stone that can be moved by
a flowing river depends only upon the velocity v, the density ρ of water and the acceleration
due to gravity g. Show that m varies, with the sixth power of the velocity of the flow.
35. The displacement (in metre) of a particle moving along x-axis is given by x = 18t + 5t 2 .
Calculate :
(i) The instantaneous velocity at t = 2s.
(ii) Average velocity between t = 2s and t = 3s, and
(iii) Instantaneous acceleration.
36. The two straight rays OA and OB on the same displacement – time
graph make angle 30° and 60° with time axis respectively as shown in
figure.
(i) Which ray represents greater velocity ?
(ii) What is the ratio of two velocities represented by OA and OB ?
37. A drunkard walking in a narrow lane takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps
backward, followed again by 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward, and so on. Each step is
1 m and requires 1s. Plot the x-t graph of his motion. Determine graphically and otherwise
how long the drunkard t
 CHEMISTRY
BASIC CONCEPT OF CHEMISTRY
Q.1 Calculate the number of moles of NaOH in 27 cm3 of 0.15 M NaOH solution.
Q.2 56 gm of N2(g) and 10 kg of H2(g) are mixed to produce NH2(g). Calculate the number of moles of
ammonia gas formed.
Q.3 How many atoms of calcium are there in 2 g of Ca? (At. mass of Ca = 40 u)
Q.4 (i) What is shape of orbital with I = 2 and l = 3
(ii) Account for the following:
(a) Chromium has configuration 3d6 4s1 and not 3d4 4s2.
(b) Bohr’s orbits are called stationary orbits or states.
Q.5 (i) Define the principal quantum numbers(n).
(ii) Write the electronic configuration of Cr+ [Atomic number of Cr = 24].
(iii)Define Pauli’s exclusion principle.
Q.6 How many electrons will present in sub-shell having spin quantum number value of -1/2 for n = 4?
Q.7 A compound on analysis found to contain following percentage composition:
Na = 43.4% , C = 11.4 % and O = 45.3 %. Determine the empirical and molecular formulae.
Give the relative molecular mass of the compound is 106.
Q.8 An organometallic compound on analysis was found to contain, C= 64.4% , H = 5.5% and Fe =
29.9% . Determine its empirical formula (AT. Mass of Fe = 56 u).
Q.9 The electronic energy of the ground state of hydrogen atom works out to be -1.312 x 106 J mol -1 .
What change will occur in the position of electron in this atom if energy of 9.84 x 105 J mol-1 is
added to the hydrogen atom?
Q.10 What is the concentration of sugar (C12H22O11) in mol L-1 if its 20g are dissolved in enough water
to make a final volume up to 2 L?
Q.11 Why there is simultaneous appearance of lines in the spectrum of hydrogen at though it contains one
electr on? Justify the statement and draw the spectrum of hydrogen.
Q.12 Write the electronic configuration of following elements
(a) Cl (b) Cu (c) Cr (d) Na
STRUCTURE OF ATOM
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Q.1Two atoms are said to be isobars if.
(a) They have same atomic number but different mass number.
(b) They have same number of electrons but different number of neutrons.
(c) They have same number of neutrons but different number of electrons.
(d) Sum of the number of protons and neutrons is same but the number of
protons is different.
Q.2 In which of the following pairs, the ions are iso-electronic?
I . Na+ , Mg2+ II. Al3+ , O-
III. Na+ , O2- IV. N3- , Cl-
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) III and II (c) I and IV

Q.3Which of following is wrong statement?

ℎ
(a) The uncertainty principle is ∆𝑥𝑥. ∆𝑣𝑣 ≥ 4𝜋𝜋
(b) Half filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
symmetry and more balanced arrangement
(c) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p-orbitals in case of hydrogen like atoms.
ℎ
(d) de Broglie wavelength , 𝜆𝜆 = 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
Q.4 Angular moment of electron in d-orbital is equal to
(a) 2√3ℎ ` (b) 0 h
ℎ
(c) √6 ℎ (d) √2 ℎ where h = 2𝜋𝜋
Q.5 Which of the following is responsible to rule out the existence of definite paths or trajectories of
electrons?
(a) Pauli ‘s exclusion principle.
(b) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
(c) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity.
(d) Aufbau principle.
Q.6 The radius of which of the following ions is same as that of first orbit of hydrogen atom?
(a) He+ ( n = 2) (b) Li2+ ( n = 1)
(c) Li2+ ( n = 2) (d) Be3+ ( n = 2)
Q.7 Which of the following is true about 𝜑𝜑 2 ?
(a) It represents atomic orbital
(b) Probability of finding electron
(c) Always positive
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.8 Number of radial nodes in 3p orbitals are
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
Q.9Lyman series belong to
(a) UV region (b) IR region
(c) Visible region (d) None of these
Q.10 The possible values of four quantum numbers for an electron in 4 f -orbital
(a) 4 ,2 , 2 , + 1/2 (b) 4 , 3 , 2 , +1/2
(c) 5 , 3, 2 , - 1/2 (d) 4 , 2 , 3 , +1/2
Q.11 The electronic configuration of Pd(46) is
(a) [Kr]5s2 4d8 (b) [Kr] 5s0 4d10
1 10
(c) [Kr] 5s 4d (d) [Kr] 5s0 4d8
Q.12Which of the following set of quantum numbers represent the highest energy level in an atom?
(a) Fe2+ (b) Mn2+
(c) Cr3+ (d) Cu2+
Q.13 Which of the following set of quantum numbers represent the highest energy level in an atom?
(a) n = 3 , l = 1 , m = -1 , s = +1/2
(b) n = 3 , l = 2 , m = -1 , s = +1/2
(c) n = 4 , l = 0 , m = 0 , s = +1/2
(d) n = 3 , l = 0 , m = 0 , s = +1/2
Q.14 If an isotope of hydrogen has e neutrons in its atom, its atomic number and mass number
respectively are
(a) 2 , 1 (b) 3 , 1
(c) 1 , 1 (d) 3 , 2
Q.15 Isotones have same number of
(a) electrons (b) protons
(c) neutrons (d) All of these
Q.16 The H – spectrum proves
(a) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle (b) diffraction
(c) interference (d) presence of quantized energy level

Q.17 n = 3 , l = 2 , m = 2 is possible for how many orbitals

(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Q.18 The second Bohr’s orbit has energy -328 kJ mol-1 , the energy of 4th Bohr’s orbit is
(a) -1312 kJ (b) -82 kJ
(c) -145.3 kj (d) -41 kJ mol-1
Q.19 The number of electrons in an atom with atomic number 105 having n + l = 8 is
(a) 15 (b) 16
(c) 17 (d) 18
 ASSERTION AND REASON BASED MCQs
Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Bothe A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true But R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Q.20 Assertion (A) : All isotopes of a given element show the same type of chemical behavior.
Reason (R): The chemical properties of an atom are controlled by the number of electrons in the atom.
Q.21 Assertion (A): Black body is an ideal body that emits and absorb radiations of all frequencies.
Reason (R): The frequency of radiation emitted by a body goes from a lower frequency to
higher frequency with an increase in temperature.
Q.22 Assertion (A): 4 f orbital is filled before 3d orbital.
Reason (R) : Orbitals are filled with electrons according to Aufbau’s Principle.
Q.23 Assertion (A) : The energy of an electron is largely determine by ‘n’.
Reason (R): ‘n’ is measure of most probable distance of finding the electron around nucleus.
Q.24 Assertion (A) : Atomic number of Na+ is 10.
Reason (R ) : Na+ has 11 protons and 10 electrons.
Q.25 Assertion (A) : Wave number is reciprocal of wavelength.
Reason (R ) : Unit of wave number is m.
Q.26 Assertion (A) : Cr(24) has electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 sp6 4s1 3d5
Reason (R ) : Both 4s and 3d are half filled which are more stable.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
Spectrum is combination of radiation of different wavelength. Atomic spectrum is characteristic of
an element by which it can be identified. Hydrogen spectrum is simplest spectrum which is obtained
by passing electrical discharge through gaseous hydrogen, the hydrogen molecules dissociate and
the energetically excited hydrogen atoms produced emit electromagnetic radiations of discrete
frequencies. Hydrogen consist of several series named after their discoverers. Bohr could
successfully explain hydrogen spectrum and spectrum of unielectron species and also stability of
atom. Cations are smaller then neutral atoms whereas anions are bigger than neutral atom. Electron
gain enthalpy depends on atomic size, stability of electronic configuration, inter-electronic
repulsion.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.
(i) Which of the following are isoelectronic with Ne?
(a) O2- (b) F- and Na+ (c) Mg2+ (d) All of these
(ii) Heat treatment of muscular pain involves radiation of wavelength 700 nm. Which
spectral line of H-atom is suitable for this purpose?
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series (c) Paschen series (d) Balmer series
(iii) Which series of transition in the spectrum of hydrogen falls in U . V. region?
(a) Lyman series (b) Humphree series (c) Pfund series (d) Balmar series
(iv) What is ratio of velocity of electron and proton if both are associated with same de
Broglie wavelength? me = 9.1 X 10-31 kg, mp = 1.67 X 10-27 kg
(a) 1800 times (b) 1836 times (c) 1/1836 (d) None of these
(v) Arrange 4d, 3d, 4p and 3p orbitals in increasing order of energy according to Aufbau principle.
(a) 3p < 3d < 4d < 4p (b) 3p < 3d < 4p < 4d
(c) 4d < 4p < 3d < 3p (d) 3d < 3p < 4d < 4p
 SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.1Chlorophyll absorbs radiations of wavelength 700 nm. What is the frequency of this radiation?
Q.2Give the essential postulates of Bohr’s model of an atom. How did it explain?
(i) The stability of the atom
(ii) Origin of the spectral lines in H-atom
Q.3 A 100 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of wavelength 400 nm. Calculate the number of photons
emitted per second by the bulb.
Q.4 What is the wave number of an electron with shortest wavelength radiation in Lyman spectrum of
He+ ions?
Q.5 How were cathode rays discovered? With the help of suitable experiments show that:
(i) Cathode rays travel in straight lines.
(ii) Cathode rays consists of material particles.
(iii) Cathode rays consists of negatively charged particles
Q.6 What is photoelectric effect? Explain it on the hasis of quantum theory.
Q.7(i) The energy associated with first orbit in the hydrogen atom is -2.18 X 10-18 J atom-1 . What is the
energy associated with the fourth orbit?
(ii) Calculate the radius of Bohr’s third orbit for hydrogen atom.
Q.8 What are the properties of electromagnetic waves? Explain briefly.
Q.9 (i) The electronic energy in Bohr’s orbit is negative. How will you account for it?
(ii) The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. What will be the energy of the first orbit of
He+ and Li2+ ions?
Q.10 Can a moving cricket ball have a wave character? Justify your answer.
OR
De Broglie concept cannot be applies to a moving cricket ball. Why?
Q.11 Why did Heisenberg replace the concept of definite orbit by the concept of probability?
Q.12 A proton is moving with kinetic energy 5 X 10-27 J. what is the velocity of the proton?
Q.13 Calculate the uncertainty in the velocity of a cricket ball of mass 150 g , if uncertainty in its position
is of the order of 1 A0 .
 BIOLOGY
1. Expand ICBN and ICZN.
2. What is the scientific name of human beings?
3. Name the smallest known prokaryote.
4. What are bacteriophages?
5. Name the two main part of a stamen.
6. Name the two red algae that yield agar.
7. What are unicellular organisms? Give two examples.
8. Who devised the binomial nomenclature?
9. What is speciation?
10. Explain the term systematics and classification.
11. Rearrange the following taxonomic categories in a proper sequence from smaller taxon to
higher one: Class, Genus, Phylum, Order, Species, Kingdom and Family.
12. Who introduced the 5-kingdom classification? Give names of these 5-kingdoms.
13. How diatomaceous earth is formed?
14. Mention the criteria used for classifying kingdom fungi into classes.
15. Draw a well labelled diagram of Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) and bacteriophage?
16. Differentiate between viroids and prions.
17. Give the various types of pigments in red, brown and green algae.
18. Why are bryophytes called amphibians of plant kingdom?
19. Define protonema stage.
20. Discuss the development of seed habit.
21. Explain why gymnosperms fail to produce fruits?
22. What are plasmids? Describe their role in bacteria.
23. Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane? Briefly describe it with the help of diagram.
24. Apart from nucleus which two other cell organelles have independent DNA? How do
these two organelles differ from each other functionally?
25. Give important difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells.
26. List the function of rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi bodies.
27. Draw a well labelled diagram of animal cell and plant cell.

NOTE: Read the questions and answer them as per the options given below: -

A. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C. Assertion is true but reason is false.
D. Assertion is false but reason is true.
28. Assertion: In binomial nomenclature, both words are separately underlined.
Reason: Underlining indicates their Latin origin.
29. Assertion: Species is a group of individuals with fundamental similarities.
Reason: indica, leo, tuberosum represent such group of individuals.
30. Assertion: Archaebacteria are able to survive in harsh habitats.
Reason: Presence of peptidoglycan in cell wall help archaebacteria to survive in extreme conditions.
31. Assertion: Virus is an obligate parasite.
Reason: Virus is host specific.
32. Assertion: Spores in mosses are contained within the capsule.
Reason: Spores are formed by mitotic division in mosses.
33. Assertion: Gymnosperms do not produce fruit.
Reason: Ovule of gymnosperm are enclosed within ovaries.
34. Assertion: Mitochondria are called power house of the cell.
Reason: Mitochondria produce cellular energy in the form of ATP.
35. Assertion: Ribosomes are non-membrane bound organelles found in the prokaryotic cells.
Reason: Ribosomes are present in the cytoplasm and in some organelles.
 ACCOUNTANCY

1. Which of the following is not a sub-field of accounting?

a) Book Keeping c) Financial Accounting
. b) Management accounting d) Cost Accounting
2. Basic function of financial accounting is to:
a) Record all business transactions. c) Assist the management
(b) Interpret financial data d) None of these.
3. Which is the important objective of accounting
a) To keep systematic records of financial - transactions
b) To ascertain the net profit or loss of business.
c) To ascertain the financial position of a business
d) All of the above
4.Capital is:
a) internal liability c) both a) and b)
b) external liability d) None
5. Goods taken by proprietor for personal use is :
a) Sale c) Purchase
b) Drawings d) None
6. Which of the following is revenue?
a) Purchase c) Sales
b) Purchase Return d) Salary payable.
7. Which of the following is not an expense?
a) Furniture c) Rent
b) Salary d) Electricity
8. Which of the following transaction is not of financial character?
a) purchase of asset on credit c) withdrawing of money by proprietor from business
b) purchase of asset for cash d) strike by employees.
9. Which of the following are goods?
a) machine manufactured for sale c) Books and stationery purchased by a book seller
b) Furniture purchased for sale d) All of the above.
10. Which one is the advantage of accounting?
a) Replacement of Memory c) Accounting does not record price level changes
b) Show the present value of business d) Accounting is not fully exact
11. Accounting provides information about the profitability and financial soundness of a
concern. In addition, it provides various other valuable information also. However,
accounting has certain limitations. Explain any two of such limitations.
12.Give any two examples of revenues.
13. Explain any three qualitative characteristics of accounting information
14. Explain the following terms:
(i) Fictitious Assets (ii) Capital Expenditure (iii) Inventory
15. Give five points of distinction between book keeping and Accounting.
16. Gopal started business for buying and selling of readymade garments with Rs. 8,00,000 as
an initial investment. Out of this he paid Rs. 4,00,000 for the purchase of garments and Rs.
50,000 for furniture and Rs.50,000 for computers and the remaining amount was deposited
into the bank. He sold some of the ladies and kids garments for Rs.3,00,000 for cash and
some garments for Rs.1,50,000 on credit to Rajesh.
Subsequently, he bought men's garments of Rs.2,00,000 from Satish. In the first week of the
next month, a fire broke out in his office and stock of garments worth Rs.1,00,000 was
 destroyed. Later on, some garments which cost Rs. 1,20.000 were sold for Rs.1,30,000.
Expenses paid during the same period were Rs.15,000. Gopal withdrew Rs. 20,000 from
business for his domestic use.
From the above, answer the following:
(i) What is the amount of capital with which Gopal started the business?
(ii) What fixed assets did he buy?
(iii) What is the value of the goods purchased?
(iv) Who is the creditor and state the amount payable to him?
(v) Who is the debtor and what is the amount receivable from
Q.17 A customer of X Ltd. has discounted his business. He used to purchase 30% of the total goods
produced by X Ltd. Is it relevant information in your opinion and should be disclosed by X Ltd.
Q.18 Pass the following Journal entries:

I.May 02, 2019:- Goods purchased from Rajesh for Rs. 59,000
II.May 06, 2019:- Goods Sold to Narmada for Rs. 24,000
III.May 12, 2019:- Insurance premium paid by cheque of Rs. 35,000
IV. May 18, 2019:- Cheques received from Manu of Rs. 16,000
V. May 24, 2019:- Sam paid Rs. 14,000 in cash
VI. May 25, 2019:- Payment of salary made in cash for Rs. 24,000
VII. May 30,2019:- Goods purchased from John on credit for Rs. 32,000
Q.19 Raja Ltd. purchased securities for ₹50lakh. At the end of the year, the market value of such securities
was ₹40 lakh. While preparing the financial statement, the company valued the securities at cost i.e at
₹50 lakh. Is it a correct treatment?
Q.20 In a business provision for doubtful debts is created @5% on debtors every year. Name two accounting
principles followed in this process.
Q.21 Raghu had the following transactions in an accounting year:

(i) Commenced business with cash ₹ 50,000.

(ii) Paid into bank ₹ 10,000.
(iii) Purchased goods for cash ₹ 20,000 and credit ₹ 30,000.
(iv) Sold goods for cash ₹ 40,000 costing ₹ 30,000.
(v) Rent paid ₹ 500.
(vi) Rent outstanding ₹ 100.
(vii) Bought furniture ₹ 5,000 on credit.
(viii) Bought refrigerator for personal use ₹ 5,000.
(ix) Purchased motorcycle for cash ₹ 20,000.
Create an Accounting Equation to show the effect of the above and show his Balance Sheet.
Q.22 Journalise the following transactions:

1. Business started with cash Rs.1,00,000

2. Goods purchased from Harish for Rs.20,000
3. Stationary purchased for cash for Rs.2,200
4. Opened a bank account with SBI for Rs. 30,000
5. Goods sold to for Rs.10,000
6. Received a cheque of Rs.10,000 from Sachin.
 BUSINESS-STUDIES
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Match the correct options of column-I with column-II:
Column-I Column-II
a) Economic Activities i) Profit
b) Business ii) Road Transport
c) Business Risk iii) Production
d) Door to door service iv) Uncertainty
2. Which of the following does not characterize business activity?
a) Production b) Risk element c) Sale or exchange d) Salary or wages
3. To which category of industries can oil refinery and sugar mill be put?
a) Primary b) Secondary c) Tertiary d) None of the above
4. Identify the activity which is not an auxiliary to trade.
a) Mining b) Insurance c) Warehousing d) Transport
5. Name the occupation in which people work for others in return for wages and salaries.
a) Business b) Employment c) Profession d) None of them
6. Irrational approach of manager and carelessness may cause spoilage of resources and bring losses to a
business. In which of the following can it be included?
a) Economic Causes b) Human Causes c) Political Causes d) Natural Causes
7. Which of the following cannot be classified as an objective of business?
a) Investment b) Productivity c) Innovation d) Profit earning
8. The Foreign Trade Policy (FTP 2015-20) is expected to help the Indian economy in terms of:
a) Exports b) Imports c) Trade Balance d) All of the above
9. Match the correct options of column-I with column-II:
Column-I Column-II
a) Company Act i) 7
b) Partnership Act ii) Unlimited
c) Minimum number of members in a Public Ltd. Co. iii) 2013
d) Maximum number of members in a Public Ltd. Co. iv) 1932
10. Identify the type of organization which ensures separation of ownership and management.
a) Sole proprietorship b) Partnership c) Company d) None of the above
11. The Karta in Joint Hindu family business has:
a) Limited liability b) Unlimited liability
c) No liability for debts d) Joint liability with other coparceners
12. Cooperative society is called a democratic organization because of the principle:
a) One share one vote b) One man one vote
c) No voting rights for members d) Voting rights only for founder members
 13. The board of directors of a joint stock company is elected by:
a) General public b) Government bodies
c) Shareholders d) Employees
14. The partner whose identity is not disclosed to the outsiders is called:
a) Sleeping partner b) Dormant partner
c) Nominal partner d) Secret partner
15. Profits do not have to be shared. This statement refers to ____________form of business.
a) Partnership b) Joint Hindu family business
c) Sole proprietorship d) Company
16. The capital of a company is divided into number of parts called:
a) Dividend b) Profit c) Interest d) Share
17. Application for approval of name of a company is to be made to:
a) SEBI b) Registrar of companies
c) Government of India d) Government of the state in which company is to be registered
18. Rules regarding internal management of a company is mentioned in the:
a) Memorandum of Association b) Prospectus
c) Articles of Association d) Certificate of incorporation
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. List any five leading trade centres of ancient India.
2. Define: (i) Hundi (ii) Maritime routes.
3. What were the reasons for slow growth of Indian economy despite implementing five year plan?
4. Name the initiatives of the Government of India that are expected to help the economy in terms of
exports and imports.
5. Shivangi moves from one place to another selling vegetables. She earns from the work and meets her
daily requirements. She saved money and opened a shop where she sold vegetables and also provided
home delivery services. Identify the type of economic activity she is involved in.
6. ‘Delhi Metro has made provision for the sitting of differently abled persons.’ State the objective achieved
by Delhi Metro.
7. “These industries are concerned with using the material extracted at the primary stage for further
processing by other industrial units.” Identify the name and types of these industries.
8. Simi Ltd. is engaged in manufacturing of washing machines. Two new firms enter into the market with
same product. Due to unexpected increase in competition, profits of Simi Ltd. may decrease. Identify
the cause of business risk.
9. Compare the status of a minor in a Joint Hindu Family business with that in a partnership firm.
10.Which document is important to settle and avoid all possible disputes among partners?
11.‘These societies provide loans to members out of the amounts collected as capital and deposits from the
members and charge low rates of interest’. Identify this type of cooperative society.
12. Mansi and Tarun decided to start a partnership business of manufacturing computer keyboards. Mansi is
of the view that they should have a written agreement and they should register their partnership firm.
However, Tarun wants to have a verbal agreement. Mansi explained the consequences of non-registration
to Tarun. State the consequences of non-registration of a firm.
13.Name the document by which a company becomes a distinct legal entity.
14.Ten directors of a public company were travelling in an aircraft that crashed and unfortunately, all the
directors died. Does the company cease to exist? Justify your answer with a valid argument.
15.The documents for a XYZ company for the purpose of registration were filed on January 8, 2023. The
certificate of incorporation was issued on January 10, 2023 but the date mentioned on the certificate was
January 8, 2023. With respect to validity, what would be the legal position of the contract entered into
by the company on January 8, 2023?
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Define business. Describe its important characteristics.
2. Explain various types of manufacturing industries with the help of suitable examples.
3. Trisha runs a well-known fashion store in Pune. She procures garments from different fashion designers
and sell them to dealers all over the country. She also holds a godown to hold the surplus stock. Due to
sudden increase in demand and to maintain stock for peak period, Trisha took loan of Rs. 10,00,000 from
Kotak Bank. She has also taken an insurance policy worth Rs. 2 Crores for her business.
Identify the auxiliaries to trade being used by Trisha in her business by quoting lines from the given case.
4. “Profits play an important role in the business”. Give any four reasons to justify the statement.
5. Given below are the situations in different businesses. Identify and explain the business risks referred to
in the given cases:
a) Lakshay had a transport company in Gujarat that got destructed by the recent cyclone.
b) Simco Ltd. was charged with the evasion of tax and asked to pay fine in crores which would lead to
heavy losses for the company.
c) Mr. Gaurav, a telecom engineer in Tylo Co. shared confidential information about the company with
the new competitor company. This led to heavy losses and decrease in share value.
d) Carbon Paper is becoming redundant.
6. “One man control is the best in the world if that man is wise enough to manage everything”. Explain
the statement.
7. Rajesh and Unnat decided to start a construction business in partnership. They started their business
without registration of their partnership firm. Is the registration of partnership firm compulsory
according to Indian Partnership Act, 1932? What are the consequences their partnership firm will face
if any dispute arises in future?
8. Differentiate between a private company and a public company.
9. What do you mean by the term ‘promotion’? Discuss the legal position of promoters with respect to a
company promoted by them.
10. Discuss the various factors, which should be kept in mind while choosing an appropriate form of
organization.
11.Akash and Arshia come together to start a business. All legal formalities pertaining to promotion and
incorporation have been complied with. After the receipt of ‘Certificate of Incorporation’ the company
has legally come into existence. Now the company wishes to raise funds from public. Discuss the next
two stages in the formation of a company.
12.Give the meaning of ‘Memorandum of Association’. How is it different from articles of association?
 ECONOMICS

Section- A
Economics Project: As a part of your assessment, a project (research work) has to be submitted.
Students may choose to write a research work on any of the topics suggested in the list.
The project must have a title page, main content, references and bibliography.
The paper should be handwritten and there should be 25 – 25 pages, excluding tables, diagrams
and references.
Steps involved-
1. Students select s general topic for research and make a list of key words to help search for
information, and get an overview of their topic.
2. Identify the best sources to use, and begin making note cards, and create a ‘working’ thesis
statement.
Assigned topics-
● Demonetisation
● Make in India
● Foreign Direct Investment
● Unemployment in India
● Goods and Service Tax
● Current challenges facing Indian Economy
● Poverty
● Human Capital Formation in India
● Impact of OBOR by China
● Rural Development

Section- B
Answer the following question in your Economics notebook
Q1. How is the demand for a good affected by a rise in the prices of other goods? Explain.
Q2. In order to encourage tourism in Goa, Indian Airlines reduces the air fare to Goa. How it will
affect market demand curve for air travel to Goa?
Q3. Distinguish between an inferior and normal good. Is a good which is inferior for one
consumer also inferior for all the consumers? Explain.
Q4. Explain the effect of the change in the prices of related goods on the demand for a given
good.
Q5. How would the demand for a commodity be affected by a change in “tastes and preferences”
of the consumer in favor of the commodity? Explain using diagram.
Q6. When two demand curves intersect each other, which one is more elastic.
Q7. Discuss various factors which affect price elasticity of demand.
Q8. Explain in brief, the following kind of price elasticities of demand: (i) Highly elastic demand;
(ii) less elastic demand; (iii) Unitary elastic demand.
Q8. The quantity demanded increases from 100 units to 200 units when the price decreases from
Rs 12 to Rs 10. Calculate the elasticity of demand.
Q9. As the price of a commodity increases from Rs 4 per unit to Rs 5 per unit, demand falls from
20 units to 10 units. Find out the elasticity of demand.
Q10. The coefficient of price elasticity of demand for a commodity is 0.2. When price was Rs 10
per unit, the quantity demanded was 40 units. If the price falls to Rs 5 per unit, how much
will be the quantity demanded?
Q11. As a result of 5 percent fall in the price of good, its demand rises by 12%. Find out the price
elasticity of demand.
Q12. At a price of Rs 20 per unit, the quantity demanded of a commodity is 300 units. If the price
falls by 10%, its quantity demanded rises by 0 units. Calculate its price elasticity.
Q13. “Only scarce goods attract price.” Comment.
Q14. “An economy always produces on, but not inside, a PPF”. Defend or refute.
Q15. Why is production possibility curve concave? Explain.
Q16. Why does the problem of ‘what to produce ‘arise? Explain.
Q17. What will be the impact of recently launched ‘Clean India Mission’ on the Production
Possibilities curve of the economy and why?
Q18. State the problems relating to ‘allocation of resources’ in an economy.

Q19. Explain the effects of floods in Jammu and Kashmir on its production possibilities frontier.
Q20. What is the likely impact of towards reducing unemployment on the production potential on
the economy? Explain.
Q21. Differentiate between Microeconomics and Macroeconomics, with suitable examples.
Q22. Explain the meaning of opportunity cost with the help of production possibility schedule.
Q23. Draw a production possibility curve and show the following sitiuations: (1) Fuller utilization
of resources; (2) Economic growth; (3) Decrease in resources; (4) Under- utilization of
resources.
Q24. Distinguish between positive and normative economics. Give an example of each.
Q25.Using a diagram, explain what will happen to the PPC of Bihar if the river Kosi causes
widespread floods?
 COMPUTER SCIENCE
Worksheet
Q1. Find errors in the following code:
a. stu_marks = 90
print(Students Score stu_marks)
b. a=30, b=40
print(a:b)
Q2. Find the output of the following:
a. a=5
b=a
c=b-3
print(a,b,c)
b. cname= ‘Raman’
bill_amount=1500
print(“Customer Name & Bill:”, cname+1500)
c. a, b = 10, 30
a, b, a = b, b + 3, a – 5
print(a, b)
d. a = 55
b=a+4
a = 30, b + 2
print(b, a)
Q3. What do the following stands for? (a) ALU (b) RAM
Q4. Define secondary memory. Give one example
Q5. What is an Operating System? Give one example.
Q6. Define following devices. (a) MICR (b) OMR
Q7. Differentiate between System Software and Application Software. Give one example
for each.
Q8. Who developed Python language?
Q9. Write two advantages of Python language.
Q10. In how many ways, can you work in Python?
Q11. What are the limitations of Python?
Q12. What are literals in Python? How many types of Literals allowed in Python?
Q13. Write rules for preparing Truth Table.
Q14. Prepare a Truth Table of the following:
a. X.Y+Z=(X+Y).(X+Z)
b. abc= ab’+b’c
c. P+Q+R=(P+R’)+(Q’.R)
Q15. Draw the Logic Circuits of the following:
a. A'.B+(A+B)
b. (P+Q).(R+S')
 PRACTICAL FILE WORK

Do the following python programs and make a practical file while attaching the python
code and output screenshot.
1. Write a python program to input a welcome message.
2. Write a python program to input two numbers and display the smallest and largest no.
3. Write a python program to print sum of first 10 natural numbers.
4. Write a python program to print first 10 even numbers.
5. Write a python program to print table of a number entered from the user.
6. Write a python program to check whether a number is prime or not.
7. Write a python program to convert binary to decimal.
8. Write a python program to print the following series till n terms:
1 4 9 16 25 _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ n terms.
9. Write a python program to print all the characters in the string ‘COMPUTER’ using for
loop.
10. Write a python program to print all the factors of a number using for loop.
सामान्य विदे श:-

(क) कायय एक ह फाइल में क विए।

(ख) कायय साफ व सींदर लेख में क विए।

1 . कब र दास िे वकि उदाहरण ीं द्वारा वसद्ध वकया है वक िग में एक सत्ता है ?

2 . म रा िे ि वि का सार वकस उदाहरण से समझाया है ? स्पष्ट क विए l

3. म रा के र िे और खश ह िे का कारण स्पष्ट क विए l

4. 'लड़वकयााँ हैं , वह घास-फूस क तरह बढ़त चल िात हैं ।' वाक्य समाि में लड़वकय ीं क स्थिवत क वकस
वास्तववकता क प्रकट करता है ?

5. 'िमक का दार गा' कहाि 'धि पर धमय क वविय' क कहाि है । प्रमाण द्वारा स्पष्ट क विए।

5 . बीं श धर के वपता िे उन्हें कौि-कौि स िस हतें द , वलस्खए

6 . पीं वित अल प द ि के व्यवहार में िैवतकता का अभाव है , स्पष्ट क विएl

7 . अखबारवाल ीं के प्रवत वमयााँ िस रुद्द ि का दृवष्टक ण कैसा है ? वणयि क विए l

8 . 'कमरे में लग द वार घड़ क दे खकर मि में उठिे ववचार 'और 'स्वच्छ भारत- स्वथि भारत ' ववषय पर 80 से
100 शब् ीं में अिच्छे द लेखि क विए।

9 . विम्नवलस्खत उपन्यास ीं क ध्यािपू वयक पवढ़ए व अपिे वप्रय पात्र का चररत्र वचत्रण क विए:-

(क) ग दाि (मींश प्रे मचींद)

(ख) श्र काीं त (शरतचींद्र चट्ट पाध्याय )

10 . वहीं द सावहत्य पर आधाररत वकस कवव/कववयत्र अिवा लेखक/लेस्खका के ि वि, रचिाओीं व भाषा-शैल
का वणयि तिा सींबींवधत वचत्र पररय ििा कायय हे त एकवत्रत क विए l

कक्षा में करवाए गए सींपूणय पाठ्यक्रम का अभ्यास क विए ।

ग्र ष्मावकाश आपके वलए मींगलमय ह !

 HOME SCIENCE
Do the given projects: -
 Make a project on Balance diet, write its importance, benefits and draw the seven components
of a balance diet.
 Prepare a chart on the dietary sources of vitamin’s required by the body.
 On an A4 size sheet prepare a table on the different areas of home science. Write the different
career options of Home Science.
 Read chapters 1 to 4, write the question answers in your register & learn.

Choose the correct answer and write the correct option: -

1. In which state was Home Science first introduced?

(a) Delhi
(b) Baroda
(c) Chennai
(d) Chandigarh.

2. Which was the first college imparting Home Science education at college level?
(a) Lady Irwin College
(b) Institute of Home science
(c) Avinash Lingam Home Science College
(d) Lady Shriram College

3. The Avinash Lingam Home Science college is situated in which city?

(a) Bangalore
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Mumbai

4. Which university in India offered Home Science for the first time at degree level?
(a) Bombay university
(b) Delhi university
(c) Madras university
(d) Baroda university

5. Lady Irwin college was established in which year?

(a) 1952
(b) 1960
(c) 1932
(d) 1944

6. During which period children start making social comparison?

(a) Middle childhood
(b) Early childhood
(c) Adolescence
(d) Infancy.

7. A sense of personal continuity and of uniqueness from other people is called?

(a) Self-Concept
(b) Self Esteem
(c) Identity
(d) All of these.

8. Development of selfhood and identity is not influenced by which of the following factor?
(a) Age
(b) Gender
(c) Culture
(d) Money.
9. Sudden and rapid increase in height, weight, and body proportions is called?
(a) Puberty
(b) Growth Spurt
(c) Maturation
(d) Development

10. Period of adolescence is generally called a ‘Period of Storm of Stress’ due to various changes in
their: -
(a) Physical & Cognitive Domain
(b) Emotional Domain
(c) Social Domain
(d) All the Domains.

11. The first two weeks after birth are called _______.
(a) Neonate period
(b) Babyhood
(c ) Infancy
(d). Toddler.

12. ________ period is also known as ‘Smart Age’ as children learn to tell lies.
(a) Infancy
(b) Early Childhood
(c) Late Childhood
(d) Adolescence.

13. Which stage of the lifecycle is the most unstable stage?

(a) Infancy
(b) Childhood
(c) Adulthood
(d) Old Age

14. Crying, smiling, being angry all these are what kind of development?
(a) Physical
(b) Social
(c) Emotional
(d) Cognitive

15. For growth and expansion of blood volume, the most important nutrient is _____.
(a) Calcium
(b) Energy
(c) Protein
(d) Iron
16. Due to rapid growth infants in the age group of 0-6 months need ____ K cal/ Kg/ day.
(a) 80
(b) 92
(c) 110
(d) 120.
17. What is the first yellow thick milk from mother called?
(a) Colostrum
(b) Cholesterol
(c) Colosteria
(d) Casein.
18. Which disease occurs due to excessive water deficiency in the body?
(a) Malaria
(b) Diarrhea
(c) Diphtheria
(d) Scurvy
19. Name the disease caused by the deficiency of Vitamin ‘D’.
(a) Rickets
(b)Anaemia
(c) Goitre
(d)Hepatitis

20. A body weighing less then _____Kgs at birth is considered as low birth weight.
(a) 1.5
(b) 2
(c) 2.5
(d) 3.

Answer the following short questions: -

1) In adolescence one experiences pear pressure. Explain.
2) Write the characteristics of self during early childhood?
3) Write the difference between macro nutrients and micronutrients.
4) With the help of a diagram explain the classification of nutrients.
5) What do you understand by balanced diet? While preparing a balanced diet what points should
you keep in mind.
6) Mention some of the characteristics of adolescence
7) What do you mean by management process. Explain each process in detail.
8) What do you mean by Home Science? Explain the different fields of Home Science.
9) Classify the influences on the formation of Identity and Explain.
10) Write the aim and objectives of Home Science education.
11) Write four opportunities of self-employment you can get after studying child development.
12) What are the constituent areas of home science?
13) Suggest four ways in which knowledge of home science can be helpful in self-employment.
14) What are the main characteristics of adolescence sense of self.
15) Mention any two characteristics of self during infancy.
16) To what extent does culture shape the adolescent identity? Explain with examples.
17) How development of identity is different in our culture as compared to western culture?
18) What are the benefits and components of fitness?
19) Why should resources be managed?
20) Write the importance of textile finishing.
Answer the following long questions: -

Q1. Home science subject is equally important for boys and girls, comment.
Q2. Explain what you understand by the term ‘self; Discuss its various dimensions giving examples.
Q3. It is said that identity is multi-dimensional; explain.
Q4. Discuss identity and its types.
Q5. Explain development of self during adolescence.
Q6. What are the major cognitive changes during adolescence?
Q7. What are the major emotional changes during adolescence?
Q8. Explain how the use of food groups simplifies planning of balanced meals.
Q9. Explain the two eating disorders that many arise at adolescence. What would be the best way to
prevent their occurrence?
Q10. What is a balanced diet? Explain micro and macro nutrients of diet.
Q11. Discuss the factors that influence eating behavior in adolescence.
Q12. Classify resources in their different ways giving the definition of each resource and two
examples of each?
Q13. Explain the steps in the management process, using one example to classify each step.
Q14. How are textile fibers classified? Briefly discuss their characteristic.
Q15. What is yarn? Explain different methods of yarn processing?
Q16. Write the processes in fabric production?
Q17. Write the importance of dyeing and printing.
Q18. Write the principles of growth & development.
Q19. Write the different types of resources and explain each in detail.
Q20. Prepare a vaccination table for preschool children.
 LEGAL STUDIES

Q1-What is the process by which the judges of Supreme court are appointed? Explain.

Q2-Explain the process by which the judges of Supreme court can be removed? Explain the process

Q3-What do you mean by Adversarial method of dispute resolution. Write it's features.

Q4-Explain the features of Inquisitional method of dispute resolution. Is it followed in India?

Q5-Write in few words all articles from 14 to 32 and what does it say?

Q6-Explain the features of fundamental rights.

Q7-What do you mean by Parliamentary system of government? Write its features

Q8-Write the powers and functions of the president of India.

Q9-Write the preamble of Indian constitution

Q.10-Explain the terms

a) Sovereignty
b) Socialism
c) Secularism
d) Democracy
e) Republic.

Q11-What are the different forms of government?

Explain them.

Q12-What are the different sources of law? Explain them.

Q13- Explain the following

a) Shruti
b) Smriti
c) Dharmsutras

Q14-What are the features of customs which makes it a law?

Q15-What are the rights of an accused? Which article explains it?

Q16-What are the various functions of Legislature?

● Do the project report as discussed in class

 MATHEMATICS
COMPLEX NUMBERS
Q.1 Evaluate the following :
(i) 𝑖𝑖 −79 (iii) 1 + 𝑖𝑖 10 + 𝑖𝑖 100 + 𝑖𝑖 1000
(iv) 2𝑖𝑖 2 + 6𝑖𝑖 3 + 3𝑖𝑖 16 − 6𝑖𝑖 19 + 4𝑖𝑖 25
2
𝑖𝑖 592 + 𝑖𝑖 590 + 𝑖𝑖 588 + 𝑖𝑖 584 1 25
Q.2 Evaluate : (i) (ii) �𝑖𝑖 19
+ � 𝑖𝑖 � �
𝑖𝑖 582 + 𝑖𝑖 576 + 𝑖𝑖 574 + 𝑖𝑖 580

Q.3 Find the value of x and y

3 1 1 3
(i) � 𝑥𝑥 − 8� + 𝑖𝑖4√5𝑦𝑦 = √2 (ii) �3 𝑥𝑥 − 4 𝑦𝑦� + 4 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 = −4 + 3𝑖𝑖
√5

1+𝑖𝑖 3 1−𝑖𝑖 3
(iii) �1−𝑖𝑖� − �1+𝑖𝑖� = 𝑥𝑥 + 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖

Q.4 Evaluate the following :

(i) √−9 𝑋𝑋 √−121 (ii) 3√−25 𝑋𝑋 4√−49 𝑋𝑋 2√−16
Q.5 Find the complex number which when multiplied by 5 + 3i shall give 4 – 3i
(1+𝑖𝑖)2
Q.6 If = x + iy , then find the value of x + 3y.
2−𝑖𝑖
Q.7 Find the multiplicative inverse of the following :
(i) √7 + √−7
𝑖𝑖(2+3𝑖𝑖)(3+2𝑖𝑖)
(iii)
5+𝑖𝑖

Q.8 Find the number of non-zero integral solutions of the equation |1 − 𝑖𝑖|𝑥𝑥 = 2𝑥𝑥
Q.9 Simplify the following and write the result in the form of a + ib
(i) (1 + 𝑖𝑖)6 + (1 − 𝑖𝑖)3
2− √−25
(ii)
1− √−121

𝑎𝑎−𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑎𝑎2 + 𝑏𝑏2

Q.10 If 𝑥𝑥 − 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = �𝑎𝑎+𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 , 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑥𝑥 2 + 𝑦𝑦 2 = �𝑐𝑐 2+ 𝑑𝑑2
𝑢𝑢 𝑣𝑣
Q.11 If (𝑎𝑎 + 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖)3 = 𝑢𝑢 + 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 , then show that 𝑎𝑎 + 𝑏𝑏
= 4(𝑎𝑎2 − 𝑏𝑏 2 )

Q.12 Find the additive inverse of the following :

−2− √−25
(i) (ii) -2 + 2√3𝑖𝑖
−1− √−49

Q.13 If a = 3 + 2i , b = 3 – 2i , show that a2 + ab + b2 = 23

(1+𝑖𝑖)2𝑛𝑛+1
Q.14 find the complex conjugate of (1−𝑖𝑖)2𝑛𝑛−1 , 𝑛𝑛 ∈ 𝑁𝑁

Q.15 Find the real value of x and y for which the complex numbers -3 + I x2y and
x2 + y + 4i are the conjugate of each other.
107 107
√3 𝐼𝐼 √3 𝑖𝑖
Q.16 𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼 𝑍𝑍 = � 2 + 2� + � 2 − 2� , then show that Im(Z) = 0
𝑧𝑧 + 𝑧𝑧 +1
Q.17 If Z1 = 2 – I , Z2 = 1 + I , Find �𝑧𝑧1 − 𝑧𝑧2+1�.
1 2
 3 + 2𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
Q.18 Find the real 𝜃𝜃 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 1−2𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
is purely real .

ASSERTION AND REASON BASED MCQs

Directions: In the following questions , A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by
a statement of Reason (R) . Mark the correct choice as .
(A) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Bothe A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true But R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Q.19 Assertion : The value of √−25 𝑋𝑋 √−49 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 − 35
Reason : √𝑎𝑎 𝑋𝑋√𝑏𝑏 = √𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 (𝑎𝑎 > 0 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏 > 0)
𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 ( 𝑎𝑎 > 0 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏 < 0 ) 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 (𝑎𝑎 < 0 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏 > 0)
Q.20 Assertion : If 4x + i(3x – y) = 3 – 6i , then x = 33/4 and y = ¾.
Reason : Two complex numbers are equal if their corresponding real and imaginary parts
are equal.
Q.21 Assertion : Conjugate of 𝑖𝑖√−9 + 5𝑖𝑖 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 − 3 − 5𝑖𝑖.
Reason : If Z = a + ib , a , b ∈R is a complex number , then its conjugate is given by -a – ib.
1 1
Q.22 Assertion : Modulus of 2−3𝑖𝑖 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 .
√13

Reason : If Z and 𝑍𝑍̅ 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛, 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 |𝑍𝑍|2 = 𝑍𝑍𝑍𝑍̅.
1 1
Q.23 Assertion : Multiplicative inverse of 7 + √7𝑖𝑖 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 + 7√7 𝑖𝑖.
√7
𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏
Reason : Multiplicative inverse of a + ib = �𝑎𝑎2 +𝑏𝑏2� − 𝑖𝑖 �𝑎𝑎2+𝑏𝑏2�.

CHAPTER - TRIGONOMETRIC FUNCTIONS

Q.1 Find the value of the following
(i) Sin7650 (ii) tan(19𝜋𝜋/3) (iii) Cosec(-14100) (iv) tan (-15750)
(v) Cos (-20700) (iv) tan 36450
Q.2 Find the radians measures of 200 45’ 27”
Q.3 If the two circle arcs of the same length subtend angle of 600 and 750 at the center. Find the ratio of
their radii.
Q.4 Find the degrees and radians the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock
when the time is half past three.
Q.5 Minute hand of a watch is 1.5 cm long . How far does its tip move in the 40 minute (pie = 3.14)
Q.6 Evaluate tan 1050 (i) Cos 750
Q.7 Find the degree measures corresponding to the following radians measures
3𝜋𝜋 17𝜋𝜋 1
(𝑖𝑖) � � (𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖) � � (𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖) � �
3 3 4

Q.8 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 √3Cos 230 – Sin230 = 2 Cos 530

Q.9 If A + B = 450 ; Prove that (CotA – 1) (CotB – 1) = 2
12
Q.10 If Sinx =13 and x lies in second quadrant, Find the value of Secx + tanx

Q.11 If CosA = 1/7 , Cos B = 13/14 ; Prove that A – B = 600 Where A and b are positive acute angles.
 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
Q.12 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 = 1−𝑛𝑛𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆2 𝛼𝛼
Prove that 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡(𝛼𝛼 − 𝛽𝛽) = (1 − 𝑛𝑛) 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡
√3
Q.13 Prove that sin100 sin500 sin600 sin700 = 16
√3
Q.14 Prove that sin200 sin400 sin800 sin900 = 8

√3
Q.15 cos100 cos500 cos600 cos700 = 16

Q.16 tan100 tan500 tan600 tan700 = 1

Q.17 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡(𝛼𝛼 + 𝜃𝜃) = 𝑛𝑛 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡(𝛼𝛼 − 𝜃𝜃) 𝑆𝑆ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 (𝑛𝑛 + 1)𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠2𝜃𝜃 = (𝑛𝑛 − 1)𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠2𝛼𝛼
𝛼𝛼+𝛽𝛽 𝛽𝛽+𝛾𝛾 𝛾𝛾+𝛼𝛼
Q.18 Prove That 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 + 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 + 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 + 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐(𝛼𝛼 + 𝛽𝛽 + 𝛾𝛾) = 4𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 2
𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 2
𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 2
𝛼𝛼+𝛽𝛽 𝛽𝛽+𝛾𝛾 𝛾𝛾+𝛼𝛼
Q.19 Prove That 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 + 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 + 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 − 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠(𝛼𝛼 + 𝛽𝛽 + 𝛾𝛾) = 4𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 2
𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 2
𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 2

Q.20 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 = 𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼𝛼(2𝛼𝛼 + 𝛽𝛽), 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 (𝑏𝑏 + 𝛼𝛼) cot(𝛼𝛼 + 𝛽𝛽) = (𝑏𝑏 − 𝛼𝛼)𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
Q.21 Prove that sin(3x+y) + sin(x+3) = 2 sin(2x+y) cos(x-2y)
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆8𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥−𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆6𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥3𝑥𝑥
Q.22 Prove that 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶2𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥−𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆3𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥4𝑥𝑥 = 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡2𝑥𝑥
1−𝑚𝑚
Q.23 If cos(x + y) = m cos(x – y), then prove that 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 = 1+𝑚𝑚 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐.

ASSERTION AND REASON BASED MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by
a statement of Reason (R) . Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Bothe A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true But R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
𝜋𝜋
Q.24 Assertion : The degree measures of angle 8 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 22𝑜𝑜

Reason : 𝜋𝜋 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = 1800

Q.25 Assertion : Sin function is negative in third and fourth quadrant.
Reason : sinx lies between – 1 and 1.
19𝜋𝜋
Q.26 Assertion : The value of 3
𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 √3 .
𝜋𝜋
Reason : 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡(2𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 + 𝑥𝑥) = 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 3 = √3.
√6− √2
Q.27 Assertion : The value of 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐750 = .
4

Reason : 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐750 = 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐(450 + 300 ) = 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐300 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠450 − 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠300 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐450

7𝜋𝜋
Q.28 Assertion : Radian measure of angle 1080 is 12 .
𝜋𝜋
Reason : Radian measure = Degree measure x 180
.
 PHYSICAL EDUCATION

Record File shall include:

Fitness Test -SAI Khelo India Fitness Test.
Practical-1: Fitness Tests Administration.
1. BMI (Body Mass Index Test).
2. Flamingo Balance Test.
3. Plate Tapping Test.
4. 50M.Speed Test.
5. 600 M. Run\Walk.
6. Sit and Reach Flexibility.
7. Strength Test (Abdominal Partial Curl Up for Boys.)
8. Push- Up for (Boys and Modified Push-Up for Girls.)
Practical-2: Any one Game of your choice out of the list. Labelled
diagram of field & equipment (Rules, Terminologies & Skills.)
Athletics, Badminton, Boxing, Judo, Rifle shooting
Swimming, Taekwondo, Lawn Tennis & Gymnastics
 POLITICAL SCIENCE
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
KINDLY DO THE TOPICS ALLOTED TO YOU IN THE CLASS.
Handwritten Project:
• The project should be handwritten.
• It should not exceed 20-25 pages.
First page should include the following entries:
a. Name
b. Class & section
c. Roll number
d. Academic session:
e. Topic
f. Submitted to:
Cover Page:
• Introduction
• Acknowledgement
• Conclusion
• Bibliography
• Index
Introduction Page:
Second page will be INTRODUCTION.
Emphasize what all you are going to cover in the project in short
Acknowledgement:
Acknowledge all those who helped you in making the project.
Remember to organize your project neatly and legibly according to these instructions.
BIBLIOGRAPHY mention the books you have consulted, their author and publisher (There
should be at least four books)
CONCLUSION should cover the summary of your topic

1.NAM- 1961 to present times.

2. Making of the Constitution.
3. Elections in India.
4. Working of the Indian Judiciary System.
5. Social Justice: Are ethics followed in Indian Politics
6. Human Rights Act and its gratification in India
7. Political impact on Indian Legislation.
8. Indian Judiciary
9. Local Governments- Democracy at the grass root levels
10. Executive
11. Legislature
DO THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS IN YOUR HOMEWORK NOTEBOOKS
PASSAGE BASED QUESTIONS:
Q1. Constitutions limit the power of government in many ways. "The most common way of
limiting the power of government is to specify certain fundamental rights that all of us possess
as citizens and which no government can ever be allowed to violate. The exact content and
interpretation of these rights varies from constitution to constitution. But most constitutions
will protect a basic cluster of rights. Citizens will be protected from being arrested arbitrarily
and for no reason. This is one basic limitation upon the power of government. Citizens will
normally have the right to some basic liberties: to freedom of speech, freedom of conscience.
freedom of association, freedom to conduct a trade or business etc. In practice, these rights
can be limited during times of national emergency and the constitution specifies the
circumstances under which these rights may be withdrawn.
(i). What is the most common way constitutions limit the powers of the govt.
(ii) What are some examples of basic liberties typically provided by the constitution.
(iii) Under what circumstances can the limitations on basic rights be temporarily lifted
according to the constitution
Q2.

(i) Which country’s constitution is depicted in this picture?

(ii) Why does the cartoonist describe the new Iraqi Constitution as the castle of cards?
(iii) Would this description apply to the Indian Constitution?

MCQ QUESTIONS:
Q1. Which of the following is a characteristic of a unitary system of government?
A) Division of powers between central and regional governments
B) Strong regional autonomy
C) Centralization of power at the national level
D) Equal distribution of power among all levels of government
Q2. Who is considered the father of modern political science?
A) Aristotle
B) Plato
C) Machiavelli
D) Thomas Hobbes
Q3. Who has the power to declare a financial emergency in India?
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Parliament
D) Chief Justice of India
Q4. The Indian Parliament is composed of how many houses?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q5. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty of Indian citizens as per the Constitution?
A) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India
B) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India
C) To vote in elections
D) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
Q6. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of which of the following bodies
to investigate and report on matters of ethics and corruption in government agencies?
A) Election Commission
B) Central Vigilance Commission
C) Planning Commission
D) National Human Rights Commission
Q7. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Election Commission of India?
A) It is an autonomous body.
B) It conducts free and fair elections.
C) It is headed by the Chief Election Commissioner.
D) It is controlled by the central government.
Q8. The term of the Lok Sabha is:
A) 4 years
B) 5 years
C) 6 years
D) 7 years
Q9. The Right to Constitutional Remedies enables citizens to:
A) File a PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
B) Challenge the violation of fundamental rights in courts
C) Participate in elections
D) Appeal to the President for justice
Q10. Which of the following statements about the framing of the Indian Constitution is true?
A) It was completed in a few months.
B) The drafting committee was headed by Jawaharlal Nehru.
C) The Constitution was adopted on 15th August 1947.
D) The Constitution came into force on 26th January 1950.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:

Q1. What is a constitution? What are the types of constitutions in the world? Give an example each
Q2. Distinguish between Evolved and Enacted constitutions
Q3. Assess the provisions related to the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian
Constitution. Analyze their objectives, nature, and role in guiding state policy towards socio-
economic justice, welfare, and the establishment of an egalitarian society.
Q4. Differentiate between the Fundamental Rights and DPSP
Q5. Why are elections important?
Q6. Why, do we have reserved constituencies?

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS:

Q7. Why did India adopt FPTP system?
Q8. Distinguish between the FPTP System and the PR System?
Q9. Why do we need a constitution? Explain all the functions in details.
Q10. What are the functions of EC?
Q11. What are the functions of EC?
Q12. Explain in detail the Objectives resolution?
Q13. Discuss the significance of fundamental rights in the Indian Constitution. Explain the nature
and scope of fundamental rights, their classification, and the mechanisms available for their
enforcement and protection against infringement.
Q14. Analyse the significance of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution. Discuss its
evolution, objectives, and the principles it embodies. How does the Preamble serve as a
guiding light for the functioning of the Indian polity?