FIITJEECOMMON TEST

THREE YEAR CRP (2427) A LOT

REGULAR & SPL. WEEKEND
PHASE TEST-1
QP CODE:
Time: 2 hours Maximum Marks : 100

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Instructions

 The question paper consists of 100multiple choice questions divided into five sections.
Section – I contains 40 questions of SST.
Section – II contains 20 questions of Mathematics.
Section – III contains 13 questions of Physics.
Section – IV contains 13 questions of Chemistry.
Section – V contains 14questions of Biology.
 Each question carries a +1 mark for the correct answer.
 There is no negative marking.
 Attempt All questions.
 Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
 All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
 The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
 This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.

Name of the Candidate : ……………….………………………………….

Enrolment Number : ……………………………………………….....

 SECTION – I: SOCIAL SCIENCE
Straight objective type
This section contains 40 multiple-choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of human
development than India?
(A) Bangladesh (B) Sri Lanka (C) Nepal (D) Pakistan

2. What is the most common method of measuring the economic development of a Country?
(A) Equal Treatment (B) Freedom (C) Security (D) Income

3. Literacy rate measures the proportion of literate population in the

(A) 8 and above age groups (B) 7 and above age groups
(C) 9 and above age groups (D 10 and above age groups

4. Which area of the world has the largest crude oil reserves?
(A) USA (B) Russia (C) China (D) The Middle East

5. Read the following.

1. Different persons can have different goals.
2. What may be development for one may not be development for the other.
3. Development may even be destructive for the other.
Which is incorrect?
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 3 (C) All the above (D) None of these

6. Total income of the country divided by its total population is called

(A) National income (B) Domestic income
(C) Per capita income (D) Private income

7. One of the largest artificial lakes in the World in the medieval times was at
(A) Bhopal (B) Nagarjuna Sagar (C) Kolhapur (D) Bennur

8. Match the following.

1) Rana Pratap Sagar a) Andhra Pradesh
2) Salal Project b) Jammu and Kashmir
3) Nagarjuna Sagar c) Odisha
4) Hirakud d) Rajasthan
(A) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a (B) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c (C) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c (D) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c

9. Bamboo drip irrigation system is in vogue in

(A) Rajasthan (B) Meghalaya (C) Western Himalayas (D) None of these

10. Which of the following states went into a dispute because of diversion of water at Koyna?
(A) Maharashtra and Karnataka (B) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh (D) Tamilnadu and Karnataka

11. Which of the following are referred to as the temples of modern India?
(A) Villages (B) Industries (C) Schools (D) Dams

12. Which of the following state was the first in India to make roof top rain water harvesting
structures mandatory to all the houses?
(A) Tamilnadu (B) Meghalaya (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Kerala

13. Srinagaverapura, known for its sophisticated water harvesting system two thousand years
ago, was near.
(A) Allahabad (B) Bhopal (C) Delhi (D) Chennai
14. The relationship between nature, technology and institutions is
(A) Independent (B) interdependent (C) mutually exclusive (D) unclear

15. Resource planning is necessary because

(A) The distribution of resources is not equitable
(B) Resource distribution can affect global peace
(C) The present trend of resource depletion is alarming
(D) All of the above

16. Who were ‘Junkers’ in Germany?

(A) Big businessmen (B) Big Landowners (C) Big philosophers (D) Big scientists

17. Which of the following was the focus of Agenda 21?

(A) Sustainable development in the 21st century
(B) Global climatic change
(C) Biological diversity
(D) Forest principles

18. UNCED stands for

(A) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
(B) United Nations Council on Education and Development
(C) United Nations Conference on Ecological Diversity
(D) United Nations Conference on Emigration and Degeneration

19. Match the following.

1) Chattisgarh a) Rich cultural heritage
2) Arunchal Pradesh b) Rich in solar energy
3) Rajasthan c) Rich in minerals
4) Ladakh d) Rich in water resources
(A) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b (B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a (C) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a (D) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a

20. Match the following.

1) Plains a) 27%
2) Plateaus b) 30%
3) Mountains c) 43%
(A) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b (B) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b (C) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a (D) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c

21. Match the following.

1) Club of Rome a) Brundtland Commission Report
2) Schumacher b) 1968
3) 1987 c) Book on resource conservation
4) Our Common Future (d) Small is Beautiful
(A) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c (B) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c (C) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c (D) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a

22. Which of the following cities is the headquarter of the European Union?
(A) Beirut (B) Oslo (C) Brussels (D) London

23. Wallonia region in Belgium is dominated by

(A) Dutch-speaking people (B) French-speaking people
(C) German-speaking people (D) Spanish-speaking people

24. Federal division of power is absent in

(A) USA (B) India (C) Sri Lanka (D) Belgium
25. The French-speaking community accepted equal representation in Brussels because
(A) They are economically less prosperous than the Dutch-speaking Community
(B) The Dutch-speaking community accepted equal representation in the Central
Government
(C) They are a minority in the Country
(D) They are a minority in Brussels

26. Which of the following groups is the smallest in Sri Lanka?

(A) Buddhists (B) Christians (C) Indian Tamils (D) Sri Lankan Tamils

27. ‘Reserved constituencies’ are an arrangement towards power sharing

(A) Among social groups (B) Between Center and States
(C) Among the organs of the Government (D) Among political parties

28. What was ‘Carbonari’?

(A) A Secret Society (B) A Parliament (C) A Cricket Club (D) A city

29. Who were the ‘Red Shirts’?

(A) Armed volunteers led by Bismarck
(B) Group of armed volunteers led by King kaiser Williams
(C) Volunteers led by Lord Byron
(D) Group of Armed volunteers led by Garibaldi

30. When was the treaty of Vienna signed?

(A) 1818 (B) 1817 (C) 1815 (D) 1816

31. The Act of Union, united England and _______.

(A) Ireland (B) Scotland (C) France (D) Wales

32. Which English poet went to Greece to help them in War?

(A) Gottfried Herder (B) Lord Byron (C) Delacroix (D) None of these

33. Zollverein was

(A) Custom Union (B) Name of French army
(C) Trade Union (D) Language spoken in Germany

34. Who was called as ‘the most dangerous enemy our Social order’ 19 th Century?
(A) Otto Von Bismarck (B) Mazzini
(C) Napoleon (D) Cavour

35. In which of the following year the unification of Italy was completed?
(A) 1861 (B) 1871 (C) 1881 (D) 1891

36. In which revolution we see the clear expression of nationalism?

(A) French Revolution 1789 (B) British Revolution 1889
(C) German Revolution 1831 (D) Italian Revolution 1791

37. Who was the main architect of unification of Germany?

(A) Bismarck (B) Napoleon (C) Habsburg Empire (D) Louis Philippe

38. When was the Act of Union Signed?

(A) 1801 (B) 1707 (C) 1711 (D) 1811

39. When was Greece recognised as an independent Country?

(A) 1830 (B) 1831 (C) 1832 (D) 1834

40. Who was Frederic Sorrieu?

(A) A philosopher (B) A politician (C) A painter (D) A Revolutionary
 SECTION – II : MATHEMATICS
Straight objective type
This section contains 20 multiple-choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct
1 b
1. If the zeroes of the rational expression (3x + 2a) (2x + 1) are and , then the value of a
2 3
is
b b
(A) 2b (B) (C) (D) none of these
2 3

2. Find the square root of (4a + 5b+5c)2 – (5a + 4b + 4c)2 + 9a2

(A) 3(b  c) (B) 3(b + c – a) (C) 3(b + c) (D) 2(b + c – a)

1  1 
3. If ,  are the roots of the equation x2 – x – 1 = 0 then find the value of  ?
1  1 
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 7 (D) 9

4. The remainder of any perfect square divided by 3 is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) either (A) or (B) (D) neither (A) nor (B)

5. Applying Euclid’s division algorithm, the H.C.F. of 5256 and 18278 is

(A) equal to the H.C.F. of the remainders obtained in second and third step
(B) less than H.C.F. of the remainders obtained in second and third step
(C) greater than H.C.F. of the remainders obtained in second and third step
(D) none of these

6. The number of real roots of equation x(x + 2)(x2 – 1)–1 = 0 are

(A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2

7. A twodigit number is formed by either subtracting 17 from nine times the sum of the digits
or by adding 21 to 13 times the difference of the digits. Find the number.
(A) 37 (B) 73 (C) 71 (D) cannot be determined

8. The area covered by the lines x  y  1 = 0, x + 2y  4 = 0 and yaxis is

3 5
(A) 6 sq. units (B) 3 sq. units (C) sq. units (D) sq. units
2 2

9. The number of prime factors in 110250 is

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

10. H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two polynomials are (x + y) and (3x 5+5x4y+2x3y2–3x2y3–5xy4–2y5)
respectively. If one of the polynomials is (x2 – y2), the other one is:
(A) 3x 4  8x3 y  10x 2 y 2  7xy 3  2y 4 (B) 3x 4  8x3 y  10x 2 y 2  7xy3  2y 4
(C) 3x 4  8x 3 y  10x 2 y 2  7xy 3  2y 4 (D) 3x 4  8x 3 y  10x 2 y 2  7xy 3  2y 4

11. A three-digit number abc is 459 more than the sum of its digits. What is the sum of the 2
digit number ab and the 1-digit number a?
(A) 71 (B) 61 (C) 51 (D) cannot be determined

12. The linear equation 2x + 5y = 16 has

(A) a unique solution (B) two solutions (C) no solution (D) infinitely many
solutions
13. An examination consists of 100 questions. Two marks are awarded for every correct option.
If one mark is deducted for every wrong option and half mark is deducted for every question
left, then a person scores 135. Instead, if half-mark is deducted for every wrong option and
one mark is deducted for every question left, then the person scores 133. Find the number of
questions left un-attempted by the person.
(A) 14 (B) 16 (C) 10 (D) 12

14. The H.C.F. of (x3+x2+x+1) and (x4–1) is :

(A) (x2–1)(x2+1) (B) (x+1)(x2–1) (C) (x+1)(x2+1) (D) (x2+1) (x+1) (x3+1)

15. Ram, Shyam, Tarun and Varun together had a total amount of Rs 240 with them. Ram had
half of the total amount with the others. Shyam had one-third of the total amount with the
others. Tarun had one-fourth of the total amount with the others. Find the amount with
Varun (in Rs).
(A) 64 (B) 70 (C) 52 (D) 58

3x  y  1 2x  y  2 3x  3y  1
16. If (a, b) is the solution of the equations   , then
3 5 6
a 13 13 a 1 a 11
(A)  (B) a  b  (C)  (D) 
b 12 15 b 2 b 12

17. Factors of x(x-2)(x-4)+4x(1+x) + 8 are

(A) (x-2)2(x+2) (B) (x+2)3 (C) (x-2)3 (D) none of these

18. If ,  are the zeros of the polynomial = x2ax +2, then the polynomial g(x) whose zeros are
1 1
and 2 such that g(0) = 1, is
 2 
1 1
(A) 8x2ax +1 (B) (8x 2  ax  1) (C) (8x 2  2ax  1) (D) 8x2  2ax  1
8 8

x y x y
19. If   a  b, 2  2  2, then
a b a b
1 1
(A) x=a2, y=b2 (B) x = a, y=b (C) x  ,y  (D) none of these
a b

20. A number n leaves a remainder of 1 upon division by 5. If n2 is divided by 10, the sum of all
the possible remainders is
(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 12

SECTION – III: PHYSICS

Straight objective type
This section contains 13 multiple-choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. An object is placed at centre of curvature of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. The
image distance will be
(A) 20 cm (B) – 20 cm (C) 40 cm (D) None of these

2. Side view mirrors are convex mirror to

(A) produce magnified images (B) reduce amount of light incident on it
(C) increase field of view (D) produce at scale images

3. A concave mirror produced real image of a very far away object at 30 cm distance then the
radius of curvature of this mirror is
(A) 15 cm (B) 30 cm (C) 60 cm (D) None of these
 4. Which of the following mirror produces erect images of equal height for all the object
distances?
(A) plane mirror (B) parabolic mirror (C) concave mirror (D) convex mirror

5. Three lenses each having f1  20 cm, f2   40 cm, f3   40 cm are combined to form a single
lens. The power of this lens is?
(A) 5D (B) – 5D (C) 10D (D) – 10D

6. When an object is placed between focus and pole of a concave mirror, then the image
formed is
(A) real (B) enlarged
(C) behind centre of curvature (D) between focus and pole

7. Dentists use a concave mirror because

(A) It works best in low light environment (B) It produces a diminished image
(C) It can produce magnified images (D) None of these

8. If the behaviour of light rays through a convex lens is as shown in the adjoining
figure, then
(A)  = 2
2  2
(B) <2
(C) >2
(D) 2

9. If light cross a glass slab of refractive index 1.5 in 3 × 10–8 millisecond then thickness of the
glass slab is (given that speed of light in vacuum = 3 × 108 m/s)
(A) 6 cm (B) 3 cm (C) 6 mm (D) 4 mm

10. A convex lens of focal length 10 cm is painted black at the middle

portion as shown in figure. An object is placed at a distance of 20 cm
from the lens. Then O 2mm
(A) Only one image will be formed by the lens
20cm
(B) Two images are formed and distance between them is 6 mm
(C) Two images are formed and distance between them is 4 mm
(D) Two images are formed and distance between them is 2 mm

11. The rays parallel and close to the principal axis are called
(A) converging rays (B) divergent rays (C) coherent rays (D) paraxial rays

12. With respect to air the refractive indices of water and benzene are 1.33 and 1.50
respectively. The refractive index of benzene w.r.t. water is
(A) 1.13 (B) 1.8 (C) 1.7 (D) 1.52

13. An object placed at a distance of 3 cm from a concave lens of focal length 12 cm. The
position of the image is
(A) 2.4 cm (B) – 2.4 cm (C) 1.2 cm (D) – 1.2 cm
 SECTION–IV: CHEMISTRY
Straight objective type
This section contains 13 multiple-choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The term rancidity represents
(A) Acid rain (B) Oxidation of fatty food
(C) Rottening of fruit (D) Fading of coloured clothes in the Sun
2. Change of Na2CO3.10H2O to Na2CO3.H2O on exposure to air is called
(A) effervescence (B) efflorescence
(C) deliquescence (D) hygroscopic
3. The conjugate base of HCO 3 is
(A) H2CO3 (B) CO 23 
(C) H+ (D) CO2
4. Which of the following is a dibasic acid?
(A) AlCl3 (B) H3PO4
(C) HNO3 (D) H2SO4
5. aP + bI2 + H2O  H3PO3 + HI
The coefficients a & b in the balanced chemical equation respectively will be
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 2 and 6 (D) 3 and 6

6. SnCl2 + 2HCl + I2 SnCl4 + 2HI

In the above reaction, the number of electrons lost by SnCl2 are
(A) 4 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 3

7. Metal which do not corrode in polluted air

(A) Cu (B) Ag (C) Fe (D) Al

8. Which substance is reduced in the following reaction?

3MnO2 + 4AI  3Mn + 2Al2O3
(A) MnO2 (B) Al (C) Al2O3 (D) Mn

9. The balanced net ionic equation for the reaction of aluminium sulphate and sodium
hydroxide contains which of the following terms?
(A) 3Al3+(aq) (B) OH(aq) (C) 3OH(aq) (D) 2Al3+(aq)
10. Aluminium window frames do not corrode away because aluminium is?
(A) not reactive enough with oxygen (B) coated with a layer of aluminium oxide
(C) not capable of forming an oxide (D) not reactive enough to form an oxide
11. In the following chemical reaction
Cr2O72  14H  X e  2Cr 3  7H2O
The value of X required to balance the above reaction completely is
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 6
12. Which one is not a redox reaction?
(A) Cu + 2AgNO3 Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag
(B) 2Hg + O2 2HgO
(C) 2KI + Cl2 2KCl + I2
(D) Li3N + 3NH4NO3 3LiNO3 + (NH4)3N
13. When a chemical change occurs?
(A) Atoms are rearranged
(B) The law of conservation of mass is always obeyed
(C) The chemical properties of new substances are different from the ones you started with
(D) All of these
 SECTION–V: BIOLOGY
Straight objective type
This section contains 14 multiple-choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The light energy is absorbed and get changed to chemical energy by the help of
(A) Chlorophyll (B) NADP (C) ADP (D) ATP

2. The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by the _____.
(A) Mitral valve (B) Bicuspid valve (C) Semi-lunar valve (D) Tricuspid valve

3. Which of the following statement is false regarding photosynthesis?

(A) Light reaction takes place in light only (B) Dark reaction is not dependent on light
(C) Light reaction occurs in grana of chloroplast (D) Dark reaction takes place in dark only

4. If you arrange the following structures in the order in which air will pass during inspiration,
which would be the correct option?
(I) Bronchioles (II) Trachea (III) Alveoli (IV) Pharynx
(A) (I), (II), (III), (IV) (B) (IV), (II), (I), (III) (C) (II), (I), (III), (IV) (D) (IV), (III), (II), (I)

5. Which of the following is the correct statement about RBCs in mammals?

(1) RBCs circulating in the blood have a nucleus (2) RBCs have a similar function to WBCs
(3) RBCs are produced by the bone marrow
(A) 1st& 2nd only (B) 1st& 3rd only (C) 2nd only (D) 3rd only

6. The length of small intestine in a deer is more as compared to the length of small intestine of
a tiger. The reason for this is:
(A) Mode of intake of food
(B) Type of food consumed
(C) Presence or absence of villi in intestines
(D) Presence or absence of digestive enzymes

7. The common stage between aerobic and anaerobic respiration is called

(A) Oxidation (B) Reduction (C) Photosynthesis (D) Glycolysis

8. Which one of the following statements is wrong regarding Rh incompatibility?

(A) No natural antibodies are present against Rh antigen.
(B) Rh incompatibility develops only when the mother is Rh-negative, and the foetus is Rh-
positive
(C) Rh antibodies are formed in a Rh-negative individual when his immune system is
exposed to Rh antigen.
(D) Rh incompatibility develops only when the mother is Rh-positive, and the foetus is Rh-
negative.

9. Consider the following statements in connection with the functions of the blood vessels
marked A and B in the diagram of human heart as shown.

(i) Blood vessel A - It carries carbon dioxide rich blood to the lungs.
(ii) Blood vessel B - It receives oxygen rich blood from the lungs.
(iii)Blood vessel B - Left atrium relaxes to receive blood from this blood vessel.
 (iv)Blood vessel A - Right atrium has thick muscular wall as it must pump blood to this
blood vessel.
The correct statements are
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

10. Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding excretion in plants and animals?
(A) Waste products may be stored in leaves that fall off
(B) Some of the plant waste products are useful to man
(C) Dialysis is necessary when the kidneys are not able to filter the blood
(D) Translocation of food from the leaves to other parts of the plant occurs through xylem
and phloem

11. Emulsification is required for the digestion of ______________.

(A) Proteins (B) Carbohydrates (C) Vitamins (D) Fats

12. The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the lungs takes place by
(A) Osmosis (B) Simple diffusion (C) Passive transport (D) Active transport

13. Which one of the following is not involved in blood clotting?

(A) Thromboplastin (B) Fibrinogen (C) Ca++ (D) Haemoglobin

14. In which part of the nephron the filtrate is referred as urine?

(A) When it is in distal convoluted tubule (B) when it is in Loop of Henle
(C) When it is in collecting duct (D) when it is in proximal convoluted tubule