20/03/2022 RM_CODE-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 REVISION TEST SERIES Time : 3.00 Hrs.

(for NEET-2022)
Test - 1
Answers
1. (4) 41. (3) 81. (4) 121. (2) 161. (2)
2. (2) 42. (2) 82. (2) 122. (4) 162. (4)
3. (2) 43. (3) 83. (4) 123. (2) 163. (3)
4. (1) 44. (1) 84. (1) 124. (3) 164. (3)
5. (1) 45. (2) 85. (1) 125. (3) 165. (3)
6. (3) 46. (4) 86. (3) 126. (4) 166. (2)
7. (4) 47. (2) 87. (2) 127. (4) 167. (4)
8. (3) 48. (1) 88. (4) 128. (1) 168. (4)
9. (3) 49. (3) 89. (2) 129. (2) 169. (4)
10. (4) 50. (1) 90. (1) 130. (3) 170. (2)
11. (2) 51. (2) 91. (1) 131. (4) 171. (4)
12. (1) 52. (3) 92. (1) 132. (4) 172. (2)
13. (4) 53. (3) 93. (4) 133. (4) 173. (2)
14. (1) 54. (1) 94. (4) 134. (3) 174. (1)
15. (1) 55. (2) 95. (2) 135. (2) 175. (1)
16. (3) 56. (2) 96. (3) 136. (1) 176. (2)
17. (2) 57. (1) 97. (1) 137. (1) 177. (2)
18. (3) 58. (2) 98. (2) 138. (3) 178. (3)
19. (4) 59. (3) 99. (2) 139. (2) 179. (4)
20. (1) 60. (1) 100. (1) 140. (2) 180. (4)
21. (2) 61. (4) 101. (2) 141. (4) 181. (3)
22. (4) 62. (4) 102. (4) 142. (2) 182. (3)
23. (2) 63. (1) 103. (2) 143. (2) 183. (2)
24. (3) 64. (3) 104. (2) 144. (3) 184. (1)
25. (2) 65. (4) 105. (4) 145. (4) 185. (1)
26. (4) 66. (2) 106. (1) 146. (2) 186. (1)
27. (1) 67. (2) 107. (3) 147. (1) 187. (2)
28. (3) 68. (2) 108. (1) 148. (3) 188. (4)
29. (2) 69. (1) 109. (2) 149. (2) 189. (2)
30. (3) 70. (2) 110. (4) 150. (3) 190. (3)
31. (4) 71. (2) 111. (2) 151. (3) 191. (2)
32. (3) 72. (4) 112. (1) 152. (1) 192. (4)
33. (3) 73. (3) 113. (2) 153. (1) 193. (4)
34. (4) 74. (2) 114. (3) 154. (2) 194. (1)
35. (2) 75. (4) 115. (2) 155. (1) 195. (2)
36. (2) 76. (4) 116. (4) 156. (2) 196. (1)
37. (3) 77. (2) 117. (2) 157. (2) 197. (3)
38. (3) 78. (1) 118. (4) 158. (2) 198. (4)
39. (2) 79. (4) 119. (3) 159. (2) 199. (2)
40. (2) 80. (2) 120. (4) 160. (1) 200. (2)

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 20/03/2022 RM_CODE-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 REVISION TEST SERIES Time : 3.00 Hrs.

(for NEET-2022)
Test - 1

Answers & Solutions

PHYSICS
SECTION - A 9  109  10 10 –6
V 
1. Answer (4) 0.1

66 V = 9 × 105 V
Cab 
12
4. Answer (1)
= 3 F
Q
2. Answer (2) V i.e. if C changes with shape thenV also
C
Potential of a earthed body will be zero. changes.
KQ1 KQ2
+ =0 5. Answer (1)
R1 R2
In series combination of capacitors, potential
Q R Q
Q1 = – 2 1 =  divides as
R2 2
1 1 1 1
V1 : V2 : V3 : V4 = : : :
C1 C 2 C 3 C 4

Potential drop across each capacitor is 6 V.

Vx – Vy = 3 × 6 = 18 V
3. Answer (2)
6. Answer (3)
kq
For r < R; V 
R F12  F21  0
kq
V= F12  F21
R

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-1_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
7. Answer (4) 13. Answer (4)
  P E Ball will not collide with right wall.

P   2i  3 j  Cm
14. Answer (1)
qen

E   3i  2 j   105 N/C 0

i j k qen  4R2  
  2 3 0  10 1
4R 2  
3 2 0 
0
 i (0  0)  j (0  0)  k (4  9)  105
  162  (1.2)2  9  109  80  106
   5k Nm
  160  1.44  9  109  80  106
8. Answer (3)
  160  1.44  9  80  103
Torque on the dipole may be zero.
9. Answer (3) = 165888 × 103

EA  EC  EB  1.64  108

10. Answer (4) 15. Answer (1)

qen r1  r  r0
Total 
0
 6i  8 j
11. Answer (2)
kqr
E
r3

9  109  20  106  6i  8 j 
E
R =  103

   360  3i  4 j  N/C
R 

16. Answer (3)
q   2  1
E
20 R
= (4a2 – a2)R2
q
 = 3R2a2
 20 
 17. Answer (2)
q q1q2
 F
20 2
40 r r 2
12. Answer (1) 18. Answer (3)
qE
a
m
v = u + at
qEt

m
P = mv Angle between electric dipole moment and
= qEt electric field strength is 180°.

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Test-1_Code-A_Answers & Solutions Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
19. Answer (4) r 2
 = PEsin  E  dA  0
= 9 × 10–6 × 6 × 105 × sin30° r 2
E 2r 
= 2.7 N m 0
20. Answer (1) r
E
 20
E
20 R 25. Answer (2)
2 p
E E 3cos2   1
40 R 40 r 3

2k  p 3
 E 1
r 40 r 3 4
21. Answer (2)
7p
E
80 r 3
F = qE
7 pq

80 r 3
26. Answer (4)
Fnet  2F

Qq0
F
40a2

2Qq0
Fnet 
40a2
22. Answer (4)
P, R are axial point and Q is equatorial point.

E1  E3 , E1  2E2 and E3  2E2 Enet  0

27. Answer (1)
23. Answer (2)
k (Q  Q )
pdE E
F along positive z axis (25R )2
dz
=0
F  106  105 along negative z axis
28. Answer (3)
= 0.10 N along negative z axis.
24. Answer (3)
k 4Q kQ

x2 (3  x )2
2(3 – x) = x
6 – 2x = x
3x = 6
x = 2 m from 4Q
qen  r 2
1 m from Q

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-1_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
29. Answer (2)
U
1
2
 
2  106 10  J
2

 
t  
 v0  = 10–6 × 100 J

v y  u  at U = 0.1 mJ
33. Answer (3)
eE

m v0

vy
tan  
vx

eE

mv 02
Qmax 1  CV
 eE 
  tan1  2  Qmax 2  CV
 mv 0 
then for CV charge
30. Answer (3)
qCR V 3V
V 
2 2
 R2 
then q2    Qtotal 34. Answer (4)
 R1  R2 
  E.A
= 
10  6
  80  10
 40  10i .4i
= 20 × 10–6
N 2
= 40 m
q2 = 20 C C
31. Answer (4) 35. Answer (2)
Cparallel plate = Csphere Here voltage is changing. That means battery is


0   0.04 
2
  4 0.80 disconnected. Therefore, charge remains constant
Q = CV
0
d
1
0   16  10–4 i.e C 
then d  V
40  0.8
KC0 16

40 C0 4
=  104
8
K=4
d = 0.5 mm
SECTION - B
32. Answer (3)
36. Answer (2)
The circuit is a balanced wheatstone bridge
a 1 2 1 qE 2 m
S at  t  t
C C 2 2 m q
b
t1 m1 q2 4 1 2
     
C C t2 m2 q1 1 2 1

37. Answer (3)

20 V V = V1 + V2 + V3 + V4 + ……

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Test-1_Code-A_Answers & Solutions Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
q 1 1 1 1 1  1 42. Answer (2)
V         2
4 0 1 2 4 8 16  10 Unet = 0 
 1 1 1 1    U12 + U23 + U31 = 0
 (9  109 )( 2  109 ) 1   2  3  4    102
 2 2 2 2 
1  q2 
 Qq  Qq  0
  40 (2 cm)  2 
 1 
 [ 1800] 
1
V
1   q2
 2  2Qq
2
= –3600 V
 q = 2 2Q
38. Answer (3)
43. Answer (3)
V  n V  8
2/3 2/3
2V
 V 
Ex      [2 xy  z ]
2
=4×2V   x 
 E x ( 1, 1, 1)  1
=8V
39. Answer (2)  V 
Ey       [ x 2  2yz]
Let Cs is the effective capacitance.  y 
1

1

1

1 1 1 1
    Ey  1
( 1, 1, 1)
Cs C1 C2 C3 3 6 12
 V 
12 Ez       [ y  2zx ]
2
 Cs  F  z 
7
Charge on C2 = Charge on Cs  Ez( 1,1,1)  3

C2V2 = CsV
 
E  Ex iˆ  Ey jˆ  Ez kˆ  iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ V/m
12 
[6 F]V2   F  [14 V] 44. Answer (1)
 7 
The charge on each outer face of the two plates
 V2 = 4 V
is
40. Answer (2)
 ( 20 C)  ( 60 C) 
A    20 C
 2 
 VA – VB =
 E.dr
B The charge configuration on the plates A and B is
shown below.
= – E. rA – rB 
A B
– +40 C – –20 C
=  – Ejˆ  xiˆ + –
– + – –
=0 – + –
– –
+
41. Answer (3) –20 C + –40 C –

1  C1C2  Charge on capacitor, Q = 40 C

 (V1  V2 )
2
Loss in energy = 
2  C1  C2 
 Potential difference between the plates A and
163 B is
 (25  15)2  106 J
2  6  3  Q 40 C
V   2V
C 20 F
= 1600 J

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-1_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
45. Answer (2) qE

The Wheatstone bridge is in the balanced m
condition.
2  106  10
Ceff = 6 F 
2  106
Total charge stored, Q = Ceff V
= 10 m/s
Q = (6 F) × 2 V
V = U + at
= 12 C
Vmax  5  3  10
46. Answer (4)
= 35 m/s
Vmin  5  3  10
= 25 m/s
Vmin  V  Vmax
49. Answer (3)
P
E
40 r 3
47. Answer (2)
2P
E1 
40 (4r )3

P

40  32r 3

E

32
Pnet  2P cos45 j
50. Answer (1)
P  2q 2

4q 2
Pnet  j
2
Pnet  4q j
48. Answer (1)
F
a Enet  0
m

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A 53. Answer (3)

51. Answer (2) Cl
Given reaction is Finkelstein reaction which is Elimination reaction will be fastest in as
based on SN2 mechanism.
52. Answer (3) it leads to the formation of an aromatic compound
i.e., benzene. Moreover the -H atom is also
most acidic as it is allylic in conjugation.
on losing Br– will acquire aromatic
54. Answer (1)
character therefore most readily give yellow ppt
of AgBr with AgNO3. Grignard reagent used in THF solution.

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Test-1_Code-A_Answers & Solutions Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
55. Answer (2) 61. Answer (4)
OH RMgX reacts with acidic hydrogen to form alkane.
Zn dust CH3Cl/FeCl 3 62. Answer (4)

(A)
56. Answer (2)
Dichlorocarbene is the electrophile (:CCl2) have non-zero dipole moment

57. Answer (1)

The reaction is followed by addition-elimination
mechanism 63. Answer (1)
– +
Cl ONa 3° alcohols are more reactive with HBr.
NO2 NO2 64. Answer (3)
H+
(–)
OH

100°C

HO
2
Across period nucleophilicity decrease
NO2 NO2  CH3- > NH2– > OH– >F–
OH
NO2 65. Answer (4)
+ NaCl The compound which have plane of symmetry
are optically inactive
NO2
(95%)
e.g.
58. Answer (2)
Those haloalkane which have least steric
crowding are highly reactive SN2.
59. Answer (3)

H3C O
C CH2
H3C –
OC2H5
–
O
H–OC2H5
H3C – C – CH2 – OC2H5
SN2

CH3
OH
–
H3C – C – CH2 – OC2H5 + OC2H5
CH3
60. Answer (1)
Number of optical isomers = 2n 66. Answer (2)
where n = number of chiral centre
Tertiary alkyl iodide undergoes reaction with
AgNO3 to give yellow precipitate.
67. Answer (2)
 The presence of an electron withdrawing group at
ortho and para-positions increases the reactivity
of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution
  Number of optical isomers = 4 reaction.

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-1_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
68. Answer (2) 75. Answer (4)
Higher is the electron density greater will be
nuclecphilicty
 Correct order of Nucleophilicity is
 
OH > CH3CO O> H2O

69. Answer (1)

is the most stable anion.

70. Answer (2)

76. Answer (4)

(Hoffman alkene)
71. Answer (2)

77. Answer (2)

Br+ acts as an electrophile.

72. Answer (4)
Swarts reaction prepares alkyl fluorides by
heating suitable chloroalkanes with SbF3, AgF, 78. Answer (1)
Hg2F2 etc.
Nitrite ion has two different point of linkage
73. Answer (3)
Fischer projections of different stereoisomers of
tartaric acid: 79. Answer (4)

Compounds A and B are enantiomers and each

one is optically active. Compound C is optically
inactive as it contains plane of symmetry within
the molecule.
74. Answer (2)

80. Answer (2)

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Test-1_Code-A_Answers & Solutions Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
81. Answer (4) 87. Answer (2)

88. Answer (4)

In all reactions, only propene will be formed.
89. Answer (2)

82. Answer (2)

90. Answer (1)

91. Answer (1)
83. Answer (4)
It follow S Ni pathway
Friedal-craft alkylation
92. Answer (1)
93. Answer (4)

Mechanism

i. CH3 — Cl  AlCl3  CH3  AlCIΘ4

ii.
94. Answer (4)

84. Answer (1)

CCI
CH3COOAg  Br2 
4
 CH3  Br  CO2  AgBr

This reaction is called Hunsdiecker reaction.

85. Answer (1)
95. Answer (2)
Anti-Markovnikov’s rule

SECTION - B 96. Answer (3)

86. Answer (3) Density :- CH3I > CH3Br > H2O > CH3F
97. Answer (1)

98. Answer (2)

99. Answer (2)
This anion is stabilized by –NO2 group(s)
On symmetrical alkenes, peroxide effect is not
So, –NO2 groups at all o, p positions stabilizes
observed.
carbanion most, hence rate of reaction will be
fastest. 100. Answer (1)

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-1_Code-A_Answers & Solutions

BOTANY

SECTION - A 111. Answer (2)

101. Answer (2) Antipodal cells (n) = 8
Zygote forms the vital link between successive Cells of aleurone layer (3n) = 3 × 8 = 24
generations that ensures continuity of species Scutellum (2n) = 2 × 8 = 16
from one generation to the next.
112. Answer (1)
102. Answer (4)
In parthenocarpy, fruit is formed without
In gymnosperms, pollination is anemophilous. fertilization.
Transfer of pollen grains to the stigma is relatively Apomictic embryos are formed without
easy in pea as it is monoecius. fertilization as well.
In majority of organisms, male gamete is motile So both the phenomenon lack fusion of gametes.
and female gamete is non-motile.
113. Answer (2)
103. Answer (2)
Pollen grains germinate on stigma. Growth of
The ‘eyes’ of Solanum tuberosum are nodes. In pollen tube is chemotrophic. Generative cell
Bryophyllum, adventitious buds arise from divides mitotically to produce two male gametes.
notches present at margins of leaves.
114. Answer (3)
104. Answer (2)
Coleoptile – Hollow foliar structure that covers
Interflowering period is used for building up plumule.
resources and therefore is a recovery phase. It is
Coleorhiza – Undifferentiated sheath like
part of mature phase. structure that protects radicle and
105. Answer (4) root cap.
Epidermis, endothecium and middle layers Scutellum – Single cotyledon.
perform the function of protection of pollen grains. 115. Answer (2)
106. Answer (1) Dioecious condition of plant prevents autogamy
Vegetative cell of pollen grain is bigger in size as well as geitonogamy.
and has abundant food reserve. 116. Answer (4)
107. Answer (3) Central cell is largest cell of embryo sac.
As anther matures and dehydrates, microspore 117. Answer (2)
tetrad dissociates to release pollen grains.
Female sex organ of Chara is called nucule. It
108. Answer (1) occupies upper position than globule and has
Coconut milk is the free nuclear endosperm of jacket composed of five tube cells.
coconut which contains thousands of nuclei. 118. Answer (4)
109. Answer (2) A represents tapetum which is nutritive layer and
Xenogamy (allogamy) or cross pollination nourishes developing pollen grains.
involves transfer of pollen grains from one plant 119. Answer (3)
to the another of the same species.
Pollen grains of carrot grass, Amaranthus and
110. Answer (4) many anemophilous plants can cause pollen
Pea and groundnut – Dicot seeds which are allergy.
exalbuminous. 120. Answer (4)
Wheat, maize, barley – Monocot and albuminous Endosperm is a product of triple fusion (1 male
seeds. gamete + 2 polar nuclei) and develops from
Castor – Dicot seed but endospermic. central cell of embryo sac.

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Test-1_Code-A_Answers & Solutions Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
121. Answer (2) 132. Answer (4)
Hydrophily occurs in Zostera, Vallisneria etc. Most of the algae and fungi has haploid gamete
122. Answer (4) mother cell which undergoes mitosis to produce
gametes.
Apomixis is a kind of asexual reproduction to
produce seeds without fertilization. 133. Answer (4)

123. Answer (2) Roots of Dahlia plant bear adventitious buds.

Out of 4 megaspores only 1 remains functional in 134. Answer (3)

most of the angiosperms (monosporic Zoospores are pyramid shaped microscopic
development). motile spores in Chlamydomonas.
135. Answer (2)
Eichhornia is highly invasive aquatic weed found
growing in standing water.
SECTION - B
136. Answer (1)
Life span is a specific trait of each organism.
124. Answer (3)
137. Answer (1)
All the embryos formed other than zygote are
apomictic embryos. Offset is seen in Eichhornia. Bulbil helps in
vegetative reproduction in Agave.
Apomictic embryos are not formed by fusion of
gametes. Therefore they are clones of each 138. Answer (3)
other. Angiosperms have non-motile male gametes.
125. Answer (3) 139. Answer (2)
Rice does not have cleistogamous flowers. Fusion of gametes occurs in sexual reproduction
126. Answer (4) and produces variations in offspring.

Tapetal cells of anther show increase in their 140. Answer (2)

DNA content due to endomitosis, restitution Both Chara and Marchantia produce flagellated
nucleus and polyteny. antherozoids and jacketed sex organs.
127. Answer (4) 141. Answer (4)
Date palm is a dioecious plant. Maize and castor are monoecius plants.
128. Answer (1) 142. Answer (2)
In majority of angiosperms, generative cell is Pollen viability is period for which pollen grains
present in pollen grains and pollen is shed at 2- retain the ability to germinate on stigma in
celled stage. angiospermic plants.
129. Answer (2) 143. Answer (2)
Rice and carrot are monocarpic plants. Micropyle is the pore or passage present at the
130. Answer (3) tip of ovule where integument is absent.

Syngamy refers to fusion of egg with male 144. Answer (3)

gamete. Flowering plants show internal fertilization.
131. Answer (4) 145. Answer (4)
Hilum is the junction between ovule and stalk of Integuments are the protective envelopes of the
ovule. ovule.

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-1_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
146. Answer (2) 149. Answer (2)
A typical angiospermic anther is bilobed, Number of meiotic divisions to produce seeds
dithecous, tetragonal and tetrasporangiate.
n
n
147. Answer (1) 4
1 microspore mother cell forms 1 microspore 80
tetrad which produces, 4 pollen grains which  80 
4
finally forms 8 male gametes.
= 100
148. Answer (3)
150. Answer (3)
In 60% of the angiosperms, pollen grains are
shed at two celled stage. Gametogenesis is a pre-fertilisation event.

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A 159. Answer (2)

151. Answer (3) Oxytocin facilitates parturition while estrogen,
Spermatogonia and oogonia are diploid cells. inhibin, progesterone, prolactin, thyroxine and
cortisol perform varied functions during or before
152. Answer (1)
pregnancy.
Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular
160. Answer (1)
hormones called androgens.
Bartholin's gland is the part of female
153. Answer (1)
reproductive system.
In fertilization event, fusion of gametes occur.
161. Answer (2)
154. Answer (2)
Amnion is derived from extraembryonic
In secretory phase, corpus luteum is formed
mesoderm and ectoderm.
which secretes high concentration of
progesterone and low concentration of estrogen. 162. Answer (4)
Progesterone forms thick mucous in cervix so Ovarian cycle is regulated by hormones of
that it protects pathogens from entering the adenohypophysis i.e., FSH and LH.
uterus. 163. Answer (3)
155. Answer (1) Corona radiata and granulosa are cellular
Corona penetrating enzyme dissolves corona layers. Theca externa is made up of fibrous
radiata. connective tissue. Zona pellucida is made up of
156. Answer (2) glycoproteins.

Day of ovulation is 34 (48–14) and mammary 164. Answer (3)

glands are exocrine glands. Meiosis-I is completed within tertiary follicle to
157. Answer (2) form a tiny 1st polar body and a large haploid
secondary oocyte.
Proliferative phase in uterus runs parallel to
follicular phase. Estrogen in proliferative phase 165. Answer (3)
is responsible for repair of endometrium shed Insemination is transfer or deposition of sperms
during menstrual phase. into the female genital tract. Acrosomal reaction
158. Answer (2) involves release of hydrolytic enzymes from
sperm's head. Spermiation is a process when
IgG moves from maternal to foetal circulation not
vice versa. sperms are released from seminiferous tubules.

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Test-1_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
166. Answer (2)
Oxytocin released from posterior pituitary is
responsible for release of stored milk in
mammary glands.
167. Answer (4)
LH maintains corpus luteum which secretes
progesterone and estrogen. hCG mimics the
role of LH in a pregnant female.
Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
178. Answer (3)
The correct sequence w.r.t. embryonic stages in
humans:-
Morula  Blastocyst Gastrula
179. Answer (4)
Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the germ cells.
Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular
hormones called androgens.

168. Answer (4) 180. Answer (4)

Cortisol is a glucocorticoid synthesized from First polar body is formed after completion of 1st
meiotic division.
zona fasciculata layer of adrenal cortex and not
from placenta. 181. Answer (3)

169. Answer (4) Transfer of sperms into the female genital tract is
called insemination.
The oviducts, uterus and vagina constitute the
182. Answer (3)
female accessory ducts.
In humans, both sperms and ovum consist of 23
170. Answer (2)
pair of chromosomes.
In human adults, each testis is oval in shape,
183. Answer (2)
with a length of about 4 to 5 cm and a width of
Transverse binary fission takes place in
about 2 to 3 cm.
Paramoecium.
171. Answer (4)
184. Answer (1)
Transverse binary fission takes place in
Sexual reproduction involves formation of the
Paramoecium, diatoms, Planaria. male and female gametes either by the same
172. Answer (2) individual or by different individuals of the
opposite sex.
Each oviduct is differentiated into three parts
namely infundibulum, ampulla and isthmus. 185. Answer (1)

173. Answer (2) Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity of
species between organisms of one generation
Prostate gland is an unpaired male accessory and the next.
gland.
SECTION - B
174. Answer (1)
186. Answer (1)
Cockroach is a dioecious organism while Syngamy occurs in the external medium
earthworm, leech and tapeworm are (water), i.e., outside the body of the organism
monoecious. in case of external fertilisation.
175. Answer (1) 187. Answer (2)
Maximum life span is the characteristic of The chromosome number in meiocyte of Musca
species and life expectancy is the characteristic (House fly) is 12.
of a population. 188. Answer (4)
176. Answer (2) The approximate life span of butterfly is 1-2
All individuals are mortal except single-celled weeks.
organisms. 189. Answer (2)
177. Answer (2) During embryogenesis, zygote undergoes cell
division (mitosis) and cell differentiation.
Spermatozoa is a haploid cell.

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-1_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
190. Answer (3) 196. Answer (1)
The chromosome number in meiocyte of cat is The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into
38. the vasa efferentia through rete testis.
191. Answer (2) 197. Answer (3)
Earthworm is a monoecious organism. Seminal vesicles secrete viscous fluid which
constitute the main part of the ejaculate.
192. Answer (4)
198. Answer (4)
Birds living in nature lay eggs only seasonally.
The middle piece of sperm possesses numerous
193. Answer (4)
mitochondria, which produce energy for the
Asexual reproduction is a rapid mode of movement of tail.
reproduction.
199. Answer (2)
194. Answer (1)
Several mammary ducts join to form a wider
In Protists and Monerans, the organism or the mammary ampulla which is connected to
parent cell divides by mitosis into two to give lactiferous duct through which milk is sucked out.
rise to new individuals.
200. Answer (2)
195. Answer (2) Primary spermatocytes are the first cell to
Life span can be defined as the period from birth undergo 1st meiotic division to form secondary
to the natural death of an organism. spermatocytes.

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