PAPER 1

1. An MMA electrode which is classified as an E6013 (according to AWS A5.1 16) is a:

A. Basic type
B. Cellulose type
C. Rutile type
D. Thick coated iron powder type

2. Which polarity is normally used for GTAW welding of aluminium?

A. AC
B. DC electrode negative
C. DC electrode positive
D. It would make little difference which was used

3. A code gives the acceptance standard for excess weld metal “h” as h<=1mm+0.1b,
max. 5mm; which “b” is the width of the weld cap. For which of the following situations is
the excess weld metal acceptable?

A. b = 15 h = 3.0
B. b = 22 h = 3.0
C. b = 28 h = 4.0
D. b = 40 h = 5.4

4. A fillet weld has a design throat thickness of 8mm. That is the minimum leg length that
is required?

A. 5.6mm
B. 11.2mm
C. 11.8mm
D. It can not be determined from the information given

5. The number 111 is shown at the tall-end of a weld symbol reference line. According to
BS EN ISO 2553 17. What does this number indicate?

A. Welding process
B. Type of welding electrode
C. Welding position
D. Total weld length
6. Which of the following alloying elements is used mainly to improve the toughness of
steels?

A. Chromium
B. Manganese
C. Sulphur
D. Carbon

7. When MIG/MAG welding, wire feed speed is proportional to:

A. Travel speed
B. Welding current
C. Arc length
D. Inductance

8. An electrode is classified to BS EN 499 6 as E 35 3 B. What does 35 ?

A. 350 N/mm2 yield strength

B. 35 Joules at 30 degree C
C. 350 N/mm2 tensile strength
D. 35kpsi tensile strength

9. A large diameter pipe with a wall thickness of 10mm is to be used for a cross country
pipeline. Which electrode type could be used to combine high welding speed and deep
penetration?

A. Basic covered
B. Cellulosic covered
C. Rutile covered
D. Iron power loaded

10. Which NDT method is associated with the use of a yoke?

A. Radiographic testing
B. Helium leak testing
C. Magnetic particle testing
D. Ultrasonic testing

11. A transverse tensile test piece from a weld joint will give the:

A. Tensile strength of the weld

B. Tensile strength of the joint
C. Stress/strain characteristics of the weld
D. Stress/strain characteristic of the joint
12. Weldments in carbon-manganese steels, made by low heat input welding may shown

A. Greater ductility
B. Higher distortion
C. Higher dilution
D. Higher hardness

13. When measuring arc length voltage, where should be measure at

A. Across the terminals of the power source

B. Across the arc and as near practical to the arc
C. Across the power source positive terminal and earth cable
D. It does not matter – anywhere in the circuit

14. A drawing with symbols to BS EN ISO 2553 17 will show a 5 mm leg fillet by which of the
following:

A. a5
B. s5
C. z5
D. 5z

15. Using a stabilized stainless steel will reduce the risk of:

A. Excessive distortion
B. Weld decay
C. Formation of iron-sulphides
D. Sour service cracking

16. Standard oxy-fuel gas cutting equipment can be applied to:

A. Aluminum alloys
B. Carbon steel
C. Austenitic stainless steel
D. Copper

17. Which of the following types of imperfection is generally considered to be the most
serious?

A. Surface breaking planar

B. Root concavity
C. Buried planar
D. Surface breaking non-planar
18. Weldment in carbon-manganese steels, made using a heat input higher than the
maximum specified by the WPS, may show:

A. Higher integrity
B. Lower distortion
C. Lower toughness
D. Higher hardness

19. The output characteristic of typical MIG/MAG set is

A. Constant voltage
B. Constant current
C. Drooping
D. Pulsing

20. Which of the following standards is concerned with welder approval?

A. ISO 2533
B. ISO 15614
C. ISO 2553
D. ISO 9606

21. A long centerline crack has been detected in a submerged arc weld bead this may be
due to

A. Use of a high manganese filler wire

B. Use of a damp flux
C. Weld bead is deep and narrow
D. Use of too high voltage

22. A steel designated as “Z” quality will have:

A. Through-thickness ductility values > 20%

B. Through- thickness ductility values <20%
C. Been specially heat treated
D. Zirconium added to improve weldability

23. The penetrating power of an X-ray set is expressed in:

A. Curies
B. kV
C. IQI values
D. The number after the isotope type
24. The included angle used for MMA welding of a 15mm thick steel single V butt joint is
most likely to be:

A. 35 Deg.
B. 120 Deg.
C. 70 Deg.
D. 90 Deg.

25. Which of the following is not a fusion welding process?

A. Friction welding
B. Gas tungsten arc welding
C. Resistance welding
D. Laser welding

26. A typical baking temperature for basic low hydrogen electrodes is:

A. 120 Deg. C.
B. 350 Deg. C.
C. 500 Deg. C.
D. 200 Deg. C.

27. Burn through may occur because the:

A. Current is too high.

B. Root gap is too small.
C. Root face is too small.
D. Current is to low.

28. Which of the following defects will have the more severe effect on the load-bearing
capacity of a weld?

A. Undercut.
B. Incompletely filled groove.
C. Irregular width.
D. Excess penetration.
29. While inspecting a weld on a 100mm thick high carbon steel plate with a … the weld is
visually acceptable, however the parent material has severse … the weld approximately
3mm deep, what course of action would you …

A. None, I am only inspecting the weld.

B. Recommend that the area be dressed smooth.
C. Recommend that the area be dressed smooth followed by MPI.
D. High carbon steel is not susceptible to cracking so I would weld over.

30. Which of these statements are true concerning Lamellar tearing?

A. As hydrogen levels increase Lamellar tearing is more likely.

B. As material thickness increases ductility decreases making Lamellar
tearing more likely.
C. Lamellar tearing occurs in the HAZ.
D. Lamellar tearing affects all joint types.
PAPER 2

1. Who should have access to the WPS?

A. NDT operators
B. Inspectors only
C. Welders only
D. Welders and inspectors

2. How do we determine what the correct weld preparation (root gap, root face, included
angle) should be?

A. By consulting the WPSs

B. The fabrication drawing will give all the information
C. The welder will decide
D. The inspector will recommend what is suitable

3. How are the length of tack welds during assembly and fit-up determined?

A. By the welder as they have extensive knowledge

B. The fabrication specification will give minimum tack length requirements
C. The fabrication drawing will give all the information
D. Any length of tack weld will do for assembly

4. Is it always necessary to preheat the base material before welding?

A. Not on sunny day

B. Only in accordance with the WPS
C. If the equipment is available it must be used
D. If using cellulosic rods these will provide enough heat

5. Which of the following would not be required to be checked before welding?

A. The welding consumables

B. The weld root gap
C. PWHT temperature range
D. The weld preparation

6. What does the term WPS mean?

A. Weld productivity specification

B. Welding production scheme
C. Welding Procedure Specifications
D. Work Productivity standards
7. Which EN standard is used for the basic requirements for visual inspection?

A. BS EN 17637
B. API 1104
C. BS EN 7079
D. BS EN 4515

8. Who is responsibilities for site safety?

A. Site engineer
B. Welding supervisor
C. An approved inspector
D. Everyone

9. Is it permissible to allow welding to be carried out in bad weather?

A. Never
B. Yes as long as there is adequate protection from the poor weather
conditions
C. Yes a long as basic low hydrogen welding electrodes are used
D. Yes as long as the welder is prepared to work in the rain

10. Who has the responsibility of ensuring the welder is using the correct consumables
during fabrication?

A. The Q/A department

B. Store man and the welder
C. Welding Engineering
D. The welder and the welding inspector

11. When would you measure the interpass temperature?

A. The highest temperature recorded in the welded joint immediately prior to

depositing the next run
B. Immediately prior to commencing the first pass
C. When the welding is complete
D. Only required if the heat input is lower than that specified in WPS

12. During root welding, which if the following would be the main cause of burn through?

A. The current is too high

B. The root gap is too small in accordance with WPS
C. Preheat not used
D. Root face is too large
13. You notice the welders are adjusting the current on the welding set, is the allowable?

A. Never
B. The welder has the final say on voltage and current
C. Only if the current is within the range recorded on the WPS
D. As long as the welder has approval from the welding foreman

14. What course of action should be taken upon finding a welder using incorrect welding
consumables?

A. Report the incident and record all relevant information

B. Allow welding to proceed if the workmanship is good
C. None if the tensile strength of the consumable is the same as the approved one
D. Change the electrode for the correct type and continue welding

15. What is the maximum OCV allowable to initiate an arc when using AC current?

A. 1000V
B. 10V
C. 90V
D. 900V

16. Why is the OCV capped at the voltage setting?

A. To save electricity
B. To prevent exploding of consumables
C. Allow smooth transition into welding voltage range
D. To reduce the risk of fatality

17. What information should be recorded as a minimum, on completed production weld?

A. Size and type of electrode used

B. Welding supervisor’s name
C. Welder’s identification, date and weld number
D. Welding inspector name

18. What is meant by the term PWHT?

A. Pipe weld heat treatment

B. Pre weld heat treatment
C. Post weld hydrogen tearing
D. Post weld heat treatment
19. Why would visual inspection of the excess weld metal at the bottom of a cross country
pipeline be important?

A. It is the most difficult area to weld

B. It is the dirtiest part of the pipe as it is near the ground
C. Welders always forget to weld the bottom
D. It is the most difficult area to radiograph

20. Who has the final responsibility of sentencing and accepting a weld on completion?

A. The contractor’s inspector

B. Site manager
C. The welder
D. The client’s inspector or certifying authority

21. Why is it essential to clean the excess weld metal on completion of the production
weld?

A. So it can be ready for painting

B. To remove any rust
C. To ensure it is suitably clean for visual inspection and NDT
D. To remove slag from the undercut

22. To assess the surface of a weld for direct inspection, the distance from the surface to
the eye should be maximum of?

A. 200mm
B. 600mm
C. 60mm
D. 6000mm

23. Who should select the specific welds for NDT, to cover the 10% contractual percentage
required by the specification/code?

A. Anyone can select the welds as its just a random choice

B. The welder as he knows which welds are likely to produce the least defects
C. This will be referenced in the inspection and test plan
D. Nobody, as welding is always carried out to a high standard the use of the
percentage NDT is of no real value
24. In a welding procedure transverse joint tensile test the following observation were
made. The specimen CSA was recorded as 25mm x 12mm and the maximum load
applied was recorded as 150kN. What is the UTS?

A. 50kN/mm2
B. 5500N/mm2
C. 500N/mm2
D. 50N/mm2

25. In a transverse weld tensile test, if the break was in the weld metal, the sample would
be:

A. Rejected
B. Retested
C. Acceptable if the UTS is equal to or greater than the specified UTS of the
plate
D. Acceptable if the UTS is between 80-90% of specified UTS of the plate

26. In an all weld tensile test, the original specimen gauge length was 50mm, and after the
test the increased gauge length was 60mm, what is the elongation percentage?

A. %A is 50
B. A is 20
C. %A is 29
D. %A is 36

27. Some codes require the excess weld metal (weld cap) on cross weld joint tensile
specimens to be flush, this is because:

A. Flushed caps will always break in the weld metal area

B. This is to remove any porosity in the excess weld metal (weld cap)
C. It is easier to calculate the cross sectional area of the joint when flushed
D. Flushed caps have fewer stress raisers and therefore give a more accurate result

28. In welder qualification testing of 20mm plates, why are side bends used instead of root
and face bends?

A. They are easier to produce

B. The testing equipment can not handle thick root/face bends
C. Root defects are not important for welder qualification
D. They give more accurate indications
29. Mechanical tests are divided in two areas, identify these from the list below:

When examining a completed bend test, the angle of the bend was found to be 175
degree. The testing specification calls for the sample to have been formed through 180
degree.

A. The bends should be considered as failed

B. They should be bent to 180 degree re-examined
C. They should be acceptable as the reduction in angle is due to material
spring back
D. They should be rejected as the angle is not close enough to be acceptable.

30. Charpy testing is carried out on a welding procedure test plate because?

A. It gives an indication of the through thickness ductility (in the Z direction)

B. The impact test results can be used to verify that the material has not been
adversely affected by the heat of the welding
C. It give an indication of the materials elongation properties
D. It give a quick indication of the weld quality for welder qualification test.
PAPER 3

1. Charpy impact tests allowing a flat but rough surface after the completed test, this would
indicate which type of failure?

A. Fatigue
B. Ductile
C. Fatigue to ductile
D. Brittle

2. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 50mm thick impact tested steel plate. The
welding electrode used was a basic type, 5mm diameter. The measured welding
parameters for one of the runs was 220 amps, 21 volts, using DC+ve polarity and a
ROL of 270mm per minute. What would be the arc energy?

A. Insufficient information given to calculate the arc energy

B. 1.54 kJ/mm
C. 1.026 kJ/mm
D. 2.82 kJ/mm

3. When using DC+ve polarity, what is the typical OCV?

A. 20V
B. 50V
C. 90V
D. 240V

4. When MMA welding what will be the effect on the weld if the power source was change
from DC+ve to AC?

A. None
B. It would have been easier for the welder to strike the arc
C. It would be slightly increase the depth of penetration
D. It would slightly decrease the depth of penetration

5. What would the effect be if the polarity were changed from DC+ve to DC-ve?

A. None
B. Greater deposition rate
C. Greater penetration
D. Less deposition rate
6. Would you consider which of the following processes uses a flat characteristic?

A. 131
B. 111
C. 141
D. 121 using greater than 1000 amps

7. When welding medium carbon steel plates over 50mm in thickness for basic electrodes
require any pre-treatment before use?

A. None if they were in a vacuum pack

B. None if they were used in a factory
C. Heat to 500 degree C for 2 hours is used outside
D. Baked at 150 degree C for 4 hours prior to use

8. Which of the following defects are not associated with MMA (SMAW) welding process?

A. Isolated pores
B. Lack of fusion
C. Undercut
D. Tungsten inclusions

9. Slag line found in MMA welds are usually associated with:

A. The voltage being too low

B. The open circuit current being too hight
C. Improper cleaning between weld runs
D. Low open circuit voltage

10. With which of the following NDE processes is it possible to detect both surface and
slight sub-surface detect up to 2mm below the surface.

A. Visual
B. Dye penetration
C. Magnetic particle using DC
D. Magnetic particle using AC

11. For MPI using the prods method, which of the following statements is true:

A. It may cause arc damaged on the specimen material surface

B. It requires fewer operators therefore is easier
C. It can be used with ferrite and non-ferrite materials
D. It is quicker than using a yoke type electromagnet
12. With the DPI method of inspection, after the contact time has elapsed the dye should be
removed by:

A. Spraying the surface with the remover till all dye has gone then wipe with a clean
cloth.
B. Spraying with the developer the wiping with a cloth.
C. Wipe clean, using a clean cloth soaked in the solvent remover.
D. It does not matter how it is done as long as all traces of dye are removed.

13. Which of the following commonly used radioactive isotopes has the longest half life?

A. Iridium 192
B. Cobalt 60
C. Thulium 170
D. Ytterbium 169

14. A 300mm diameter pipe, 8mm wall thickness is to be radiographed using the double
wall single image technique. The source to be used is iridium-192. Which if the following
statement is true?

A. It should not be done as the thickness is below that recommended

B. It would be better to use a cobalt 60 source in the instance
C. There are not problem with the technique
D. Only the double wall, double image technique should be used with iridium

15. Half life is a term used to describe

A. The penetrating ability a gamma source

B. Half the total time a gamma source will be useful
C. The time taken for the gamma source to reduce its strength be half
D. The rate of decay of an X-ray tube

16. What is the greatest disadvantage of radiographic inspection?

A. Its inability to size defect accurately

B. The physical size of the equipment
C. The skill level of the inspectors
D. The harmful effects of ionizing radiation

17. Which of the following defects are unlikely to be detected by normal radiographic
techniques?

A. Intergranular corrosion cracking

B. Porosity
C. Slag
D. Lack of penetration
18. For ultrasonic testing, which of the following statements is true?

A. It is easy to identify all defects

B. The equipment should be calibrated before use
C. The equipment can not be automated
D. Sound waves will not travel through copper

19. Hydrogen cracking is considered a cold crack as it will not form till the weldment cools
to below:

A. 500 Deg C
B. 300 Deg C
C. 300 Deg F
D. 730 Deg C

20. Inspection for hydrogen cracking is often specified to be done between 48 to 75 hours
after completion of the weld, this is because?

A. The stress level will have reduced by then

B. Applying a stress relief heat treatment after welding
C. Avoiding stress concentrations
D. It is the maximum time it takes for all the H2 to diffuse out of the weld

21. At what level is H2 considered to be more critical in cracking?

A. Less than 5ml per 100g of weld metal deposited

B. Between 5 and 10ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
C. Between 10 and 15ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
D. Over 15ml per 100g of weld metal deposited

22. Which of the following electrode types would produce the highest levels of hydrogen?

A. Basic electrode when baked correctly

B. Cellulose in a sealed tin
C. Rutile
D. Heavy rutile

23. Assuming the same materials and welding procedure were used, which of the following
situation would require the highest preheat?

A. Butt weld in 30mm plate

B. Tee joint but weld in 20mm plate
C. Tee joint fillet weld in 20mm plate
D. Cruciform joint in 20mm plate
24. In general term which is the following would require the highest preheat if all other factor
were the same as per ISO BS EN 1011?

A. MMA weld with cellulose electrodes

B. MMA weld with rutile electrodes
C. MMA weld with basic electrodes
D. MAG weld with solid wire

25. Which of the following microstructures is critical to the likely formation of hydrogen
cracks?

A. Austenite
B. Ferrite
C. Pearlite
D. Martensitic

26. Basic electrodes are often sold vacuum packed. The reason is:

A. They have been packed at the manufacturers at a hydrogen level less than
5ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
B. They are mass produced which makes there electrodes cheap
C. They require less baking time after removal from the packet
D. They are formulated that once open they will pick up no more moisture

27. On inspecting a completed weld which has charpy impact requirements some small
areas of undercut have been found. The welder says he can quickly put this right by
depositing a thin narrow bead along the undercut. In the situation would you?

A. Agree to go ahead with no preheat as the weld is so small

B. Agree to go ahead with the same preheat as the original weld
C. Agree to go ahead with a preheat 50 degree C below original
D. Only allow the welder to cosmetically blend out the undercut

28. With regards to Lamellar tearing, a buttering layer will:

A. Improve ductility
B. Disperse heat
C. Improve toughness
D. Improve hardness

29. Lamellar tearing can be detected by which of the following NDE methods?

A. Radiography
B. Ultrasonic
C. Eddy current
D. MPI using AC
30. A fatigue fracture can be identified (from examination of the fracture …):

A. The presence of beach marks

B. The presence of plastic deformation
C. Being rough and torn
D. Being flat and rough
PAPER 4

1. Which of the following welding processes may be described, as a low hydrogen process
in comparison with general MMA welding?

A. TIG
B. MIG
C. MAG
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

2. Post heat treatment:

A. Must be applied to welds if a crack free weld is required

B. Should never exceed 300 dg C
C. May stress relieve
D. Must always be applied using gas flames

3. Why have a high O.C.V. with MMA welding

A. To initiate the arc

B. To obtain penetration
C. To avoid lack of fusion
D. MMA welding does not have a high O.C.V.

4. Which of the following NDT methods would not detect sub-surface defects?

A. MPI
B. Dye penetrant testing
C. Ultrasonic testing
D. Radiography
E. All of the above would detect sub-surface defects

5. What is the purpose of a ‘rectifier’ in relation to welding plant?

A. To adjust the voltage

B. To adjust the amperage
C. To convert A.C to D.C.
D. To prevent arc strikes

6. Fish – eyes, chevron cracks and fissures are:

A. Not associated with welding

B. Types of cracks
C. Only encountered in MMA welds
D. Hydrogen related problems
7. Pre heating prior to welding:

A. Must always be carried out

B. Need not be carried out if post heat treatment is to follow welding
C. Is always carried out using gas flame
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

8. What does preheat prior to welding have an affected on?

A. Hardenability
B. Weldability
C. Cooling rate
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

9. Which of the following butt-weld preparations is generally most susceptible to ‘lack of

side wall fusion’ during MMA welding?

A. A ‘U’ preparation
B. A ‘V’ preparation
C. A ‘double V’ preparation
D. Lack of side wall fusion does not exist with MMA

10. The toes of the cap on a butt weld:

A. Must overlap on the external surface of a pipe or plate by at least 1.5 mm

B. Must be grounded
C. Must never be grounded
D. None of the above

11. What is the leg length of a fillet weld?

A. The distance from the toe to the face

B. The distance from the root and to the face center
C. The distance from the root to the toe
D. The distance from toe to toe

12. What is ‘throat’ thickness of the fillet weld?

A. The distance from toe to the face

B. The distance from the root to face center
C. The distance from the root to the toe
D. The distance from toe to toe
13. Quality assurance is:

A. The inspection of a product or service

B. A management system designed only to ensure material compatibility
C. Not solely related to planning and inspection
D. The implementation of quality control

14. Which welding process is considered the most versatile?

A. SAW
B. TIG
C. MIG/MAG
D. MMA

15. Quality assurance:

A. Is another term for inspection

B. Related to all activities and functions concerned with the attainment of
quality
C. Is the activity of ensuring documents relating to specific contracts are in order
D. Is the activity of carrying out quality control

16. Which NDT method would never be use on a 6” aluminium pipe weld?

A. Radiography
B. Magnetic particle inspection
C. Ultrasonic testing
D. Dye penetrant testing

17. Why is hot-pass so called?

A. Because it is applied at a high amperage

B. Because it is applied when the root is still hot
C. Because it could cause ‘hot – shortness’
D. Because it heat treats the root

18. Generally speaking a welding inspector, as a minimum requirement:

A. Must have at a thorough knowledge of NDT

B. Must know how to interpret radiographs
C. Must have a thorough knowledge of welding metallurgy
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
19. Which of the following is not an inert gas?

A. Argon
B. Xenon
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Helium

20. Why TIG welding is shielded?

A. To eliminate hydrogen
B. To retard the cooling rate of the weld
C. To eliminate the atmosphere
D. To ensure maximum heat input

21. The primary duty of welding inspector:

A. Is ensure welds are defect free

B. Is to ensure the weld is free from residual stresses
C. Is to write job specifications
D. Is to ensure all welding and associated activities are carried out in
accordance with the procedure(s)

22. Which of the following welding process is most susceptible to lack of fusion?

A. Submerged arc
B. CO2 (135)
C. Manual metal arc
D. Tungsten inert gas

23. Fillet welds are

A. Preferable to butt welds due to high strength

B. Difficult to assess with Non Destructive Testing in comparison with butt
(grove) welds
C. Used only for ‘appearance’ purpose
D. Only feasible on steels
E. All of the above

24. API standards for

A. Associated Pipeline Industries

B. American Pipe Institute
C. American Pipeline Institute
D. American Petroleum Institute
25. When welding using the MMA process, varying the arc length will give the most
variation of:

A. Voltage
B. Amperage
C. Polarity
D. None of the above

26. Lap joints contain:

A. Fillet welds
B. Corner joints
C. Butt welds
D. Single bevel butt welds

27. Which arc welding process utilizes a non-consumable electrode?

A. MIG
B. TIG
C. MMA
D. SAW
E. All of the above

28. A welding Inspector:

A. Must know how to interpret radiographs

B. May be required to interpret radiographs on certain contracts
C. Should be able to weld
D. Both b and c
E. All of the above

29. Which electrodes are very susceptible to causing porosity in the deposited welds if long
arc employed?

A. Basic
B. Cellulosic
C. Rutile
D. None of the above

30. What do you understand by the term “minimum interpass temperature”

A. Minimum pre heat temperature

B. Minimum stress relieve temperature
C. The lowest temperature to be used when normalizing
D. The lowest temperature allowed during welding and between passes
PAPER 5

1. How could arc blow be avoided?

A) Use A.C.
B) Use D.C.+
C) Use D.C.-
D) Increase travel speed

2. During a transverse tensile test, the first stage the specimen goes through is known as:
A) Plastic stage
B) Elastic stage
C) Deformed stage
D) UTS stage

3. Which of the following joint designs is preferred in cyclic loading condition?

A) View A
B) View B
C) View C
D) View D

4. The WPS calls for a root gap to be between 2 and 3mm, the actual measured gap is
4mm, what course of action would you take?
A) Accept it as its only 1mm.
B) Reject it.
C) The welder will decide, if it fails it will be his problem.
D) The welder insists he can weld the butt joint easily so let him go ahead.
5. Which Tungsten electrode is usually used to weld Aluminum?
A) Zirconiated
B) Thoriated
C) Large diameter
D) Pointed electrodes

6. A procedure is a document which:

A) Specifies the way to carry out an activity or a process
B) Provides binding legislative rules that are adopted by an authority
C) Specifies which resources shall be applied by whom and when, to a specific project,
product, process or contract
D) A written and verbal description of the precise steps to be followed

7. Which one of these statements is true concerning solidification cracking?

A) Only occurs in MMA welding
B) Increased depth to width ratio will increase stress
C) Never occurs in MIG/MAG welding
D) All of the above

8. Which one of these tests would most probably be used for welder qualification on a
plate butt weld using 13mm low carbon steel
A) CTOD
B) Nick break test
C) Fracture fillet test
D) IZOD

9. An arc strike on a high carbon steel plate is likely to have the following microstructure
beneath its surface
A) Austenite
B) Martensite
C) Ferrite
D) Pearlite
10. If the torch was trailing when using the MIG/MAG process, which of the following
appearances of the weld is most likely to be observed during visual inspection?
A) No undercut and shallow penetration
B) Severe undercut and deep penetration
C) Moderate undercut and penetration
D) Minimum undercut and excess weld metal

11. The welders have increased the electrode stickout length of the SAW set, what would
be the effect on the weld?
A) No effect.
B) The weld width would be narrower.
C) Penetration will be increased.
D) The deposition rate would be greater if wire feed rate is increased also.

12. Who should have access to the WPQRs?

A) NDT operators.
B) Inspectors only.
C) Welders only.
D) Welding engineer.

13. Half life is a term used to describe

A) The penetrating ability a gamma source
B) Half the total time a gamma source will be useful
C) The time taken for the gamma source to reduce its strength to a half
D) The rate of decay of an X-ray tube

14. A typical minimum OCV requirements for MMA (111) using basic electrodes would be:
A) 70 Volts
B) 40 Volts
C) 100 Volts
D) 20 Volts
15. Why is the OCV voltage capped at certain level?
A) Save electricity
B) Reduce the risk of fatality
C) Prevent exploding of the consumable
D) Allow smooth transition into welding voltage range

16. Austenitic stainless steels are not susceptible to HIC because:

A) They are non-magnetic
B) They are stainless and contain chromium
C) They don’t harden during heating and cooling
D) They are highly ductile

17. Which type of weld would you associate with the joint below?

A) A plug weld in a T joint

B) A spot weld is an edge joint
C) A fillet weld in a corner joint
D) An edge weld in a lap joint

18. In a martensitic grain structure which of the following mechanical properties would be
more likely to increase?
A) Ductility
B) Hardness
C) Softness
D) Toughness

19. Who should select the specific welds for NDT, to cover the 10% contractual percentage
required by the specification Code?
A) Anyone can select the welds as its just a random choice
B) The welder as he known which welds are likely to produce the least defects
C) This will be referenced in the inspection and test plan
D) Nobody, as welding is always carried out to a high standard the use of percentage
NDT is of no real value
20. To assess the surface of a weld for direct inspection, the distance from the surface to
the eye should be a maximum of?
A) 200mm
B) 600mm
C) 60mm
D) 6000mm

21. Which of the following defects are unlikely to be detected by normal radiographic
techniques?
A) Intergranular corrosion cracking
B) Porosity
C) Slag
D) Lack of penetration

22. To prevent hydrogen cracking which of the following would require the lowest preheat if
all other factors were the same as per ISO BS EN 1011?
A) MMA welding with cellulosic coated electrode
B) MMA welding with rutile coated electrode
C) MMA welding with heavy rutile coated electrode
D) MMA welding with solid

23. Which BS EN standard is used for welding symbols on drawings?

A) BS EN 970.
B) BS EN 287.
C) BS EN 22553.
D) BS EN 4515.

24. The higher the alloy content of steels:

A) The lower the tendency for HIC to occur
B) The higher the tendency for HIC to occur
C) High alloy steels do not influence HIC susceptibility
D) None of the above
25. In an all weld tensile test, the original specimen gauge length was 50mm, and after the
test the increased gauge length was 65mm, what is the elongation percentage?
A) % A is 40
B) % A is 60
C) % A is 30
D) % A is 36

26. A large grain structure in C-Mn steels is said to produce:

A) Low ductility values
B) Low fracture toughness values
C) High fracture toughness values
D) High tensile strength

27. The likelihood of brittle fracture in steels will increase with:

A) A large grain formation
B) A reduction of in service temperature to sub zero levels
C) Ferritic rather than austenitic steels
D) All of the above

28. An austenitic stainless steel may suffer:

A) Weld decay
B) Sensitization
C) Solidification cracking
D) All of the above

29. Carbon equivalent values are useful to determine:

A) Weld ability aspects
B) Crack sensitivity aspects
C) Typical mechanical properties
D) All of the above
30. Repair welding is often more difficult than new fabrication due to:
A) The material being ingrained with in-service contaminates
B) Restricted access with the repair area
C) The possible position of the weld
D) All of the above
PAPER 6

1. The type of SAW flux is more resistance to moisture absorption:

A) Fused
B) Agglomerated
C) Basic
D) All of about the same resistance

2. A common gas mixture used in process 131 welding nickel alloys to combine good
levels of penetration with good arc stability would be:
A) 100% CO2
B) 100% argon
C) 80% argon 20% CO2
D) 98% argon 2% oxygen

3. A high level of surface cleaning is important prior to penetrant testing in order to

A) Reduce the amount of penetrant used.
B) Reduce the level of false indications.
C) Ensure a good bond for the developer
D) Improve the viscosity of the penetrant

4. A typical minimum OCV requirement for MMA(111) using either rutile or cellulosic
electrode would be;
A) 40 Volts
B) 120 Volts
C) 100 Volts
D) 50 Volts

5. The main problem with solution treatment of stainless steel is that

A) Controlling the rate of the temperature rise
B) Controlling the cooling rate
C) The length of the “soak” period
D) High risk of distortion
6. An advantage of the 111 process is that it
A) Has higher current density than SAW (121) welding
B) Has a very is large of consumables for most welding applications
C) No core wire is lost during the process
D) Requires a lower skill level than other manual forms of welding

7. While inspecting a weld on a 100mm thick carbon steel plate with a tolerance of ±5mm
you notice the weld is visually acceptable, however the parent material has several arc
strikes present adjacent to the weld approximately 3mm deep, what course of action
would you like?
A) None I am only inspecting the weld
B) Recommend that the area be dressed smooth
C) Recommend that the area be dressed smooth by MPI
D) High carbon steel is not susceptible to cracking so I would weld over the arc strikes
then blend them

8. When reviewing a radiograph of a weld made by the MAG(GMAW) process, you notice
a very bright white inclusion in the weld, which of the following best describes this
indication:
A) Tungsten inclusion
B) Spatter on the cap
C) Copper inclusion
D) It is most likely to be a film mark

9. What unit of measurement is used for Charpy impact testing?

A) Joules
B) Nmm²
C) KJ
D) VPN

10. Which of the following commonly used radioactive isotopes has the longest half life?
A) Iridium 192
B) Cobalt 60
C) Thulium 170
D) Ytterblum 169
11. Which process uses a constant current electrical characteristic
A) 131
B) 111
C) 136
D) All processes use this

12. Using the MMA process, which polarity produces the greatest penetration?
A) A.C
B) D.C
C) D.C+
D) Depends on electrode size

13. Which of the following would be most unlikely to be found in a butt welded joint using
the conventional radiographic method of NDT?
A) Linear elongated slag inclusions in the root (wagon tracks)
B) Burn through
C) Lack of sidewall fusion
D) An elongated gas cavity

14. The welders have increased the voltage on the SAW set, what would be the effect on
the weld appearance?
A) No effect.
B) The weld width would be narrower.
C) Penetration will be increased
D) The weld width would be wider.

15. Heat input can be altered from the original procedure according to EN 1011, but by new
much?
A) +10%
B) +20%
C) +25%
D) +30%
16. A maximum interpass temperature is generally given to control
A) High HAZ hardness
B) Low HAZ toughness
C) Lack of inter-run fusion
D) Excess levels of penetration

17. When transverse tensile testing a welded joint the excess weld metal is often removed.
This action is done to:
A) Allow the test piece to fit accurately into the equipment
B) Reduce stress concentrations to the weld toes.
C) Allow strain gauges to be placed over the weld face area.
D) Allow weld metal ductility to be measured.

18. Charpy impact tests show a 50% rough torn surface and a 50% flat crystalline surface
after the completed test, this would indicate which type of failure?
A) Fatigue to brittle.
B) Ductile to brittle
C) Ductile with gross yielding
D) Fatigue to ductile

19. A STRA test is carried out to determine which of the following?

A) A quick indication of the weld quality for welder qualification tests
B) The test results can be used to verity that the material has not been adversely
mechanically damaged by the heat during welding
C) An indication of the material’ elongation properties
D) An indication of the through thickness ductility (in the Z direction)

20. Due to the high heating effect in the electrode when TIG welding(141) with AC it is
important that a tungsten electrode used for AC welding is:
A) Ground to a fine vertex angle of <30˚ before welding
B) Used straight from the packet without any grinding
C) Lightly ground to a slight chamfer (corners only removed.)
D) Used without grinding and baked at 300˚C for an hour before use.
21. An advantage of the SAW process is that:
A) It can be used in the vertical down (PG) position
B) Little or no ozone or UV light is produced/emitted
C) It is not affected by arc blow
D) It is not prone to solidification cracking

22. When welding vertically up with the MMA process weaving is sometimes restricted to
2.5 x electrode diameter, this restriction is mainly applied to
A) Reduce the overall width of the weld
B) Limit the heat input into the joint
C) Reduce the number of electrodes used in the joint
D) Reduce the time required to finish the weld

23. A post weld heat-treatment may also be of benefit in minimizing the risk of weld decay.
This heat treatment would be called:
A) Stress relief
B) Normalizing
C) Quench and Tempering
D) Solution treatment over 1000˚C

24. After PWHT, it has been noticed that a repair must be carried out. How should this be
done?
A) With the minimum amount of heat input.
B) Welded, checked and PWHT again.
C) Defect removed via non-thermal process then checked.
D) Welded and allowed to cool in air.

25. What does the term WPQR mean?

A) Weld productivity quality review
B) Weld production quality requirements
C) welding procedure qualification record
D) Work production quality review
26. Which of the following electrode types would produce the lowest of hydrogen?
A) Cellulose coated electrodes sealed in a tin immediately after manufacture
B) Basic coated electrodes when baked correctly immediately prior to use
C) Rutile coated electrodes when dried at 150˚C prior to use
D) Heavy rutile coated electrodes when dried at 180˚C for 2 hours prior to use

27. With regards to Lamellar tearing, a buttering layer will:

A) Improve ductility
B) Disperse heat
C) Improve toughness
D) Improve hardness

28. Why is it sometimes necessary to preheat the base material before welding?
A) Remove oil and grease
B) Remove moisture from the inside of the material.
C) Prevent the possible risk of cracking
D) Not required if using cellulosic electrodes, as these will provide enough heat.

29. What is the recommended minimum range of illumination required by EN Standard for
inspection of a welded surface?
A) 90-120 lux
B) 150-250 lux
C) 350-500 lux
D) 35-50 lux

30. While making a symbol for a symmetrical fillet weld.

A) the size does not need not be mentioned.
B) the length can be mentioned to the left of the symbol
C) the finish is assumed to be flat.
D) the broken line can be omitted.
PAPER 7

1. The purpose of a hot pass is to:

A) Improve fusion
B) Improve profile
C) Remove hydrogen
D) Remove Sulphur

2. Which of the following processes uses a flat characteristic?

A) 131
B) Oxy-fuel gas welding
C) Resistance spot welding
D) 121 using more than 1000 amps

3. When welding medium carbon steel plates over 100mm in thickness would basic
electrodes require any pre-treatment before use?
A) None if they were in a vacuum pack opened 8 hours prior to use
B) None if they were in a sealed vacuum pack prior to use
C) Heat to 500˚C for 2 hours if used outside
D) Baked at 150˚C for 4 hours prior to use

4. Standard on the same subject approved by different standardizing bodies, that establish
inter-changeability of products, processes and services, or mutual understanding of test
results or information provided according to these standards are called:
A) Codes of practice
B) Harmonized standards
C) Quality plan
D) Quality management systems

5. When welding medium carbon steel plates over 120 mm in thickness would the basic
electrodes require any pre-treatment before use?
A) None if they were in a vacuum pack
B) None if they were used in a factory
C) Heat to 500˚C for 2 hours if used outside
D) Baked at 150˚C for 4 hours prior to use
6. Which of the following is NOT a quantitative test?
A) Root bend
B) Macro hardness
C) Charpy
D) Tensile

7. When would you measure the minimum preheat temperature?

A) On completion of each pass
B) Immediately prior to commencing the first pass and subsequent passes
C) When the welding is complete
D) Minimum preheat temperature measurement is only required if the heat input is lower
than that specified in WPS

8. When SAW welding using twin wires with separate power supplies what should the
electrical characteristics be?
A) Both wires DC+ve
B) Both wires AC
C) The lead wire DC+ve polarity followed by the trailing wire using a AC polarity
D) Both wires DC-ve

9. What would the effect be if the polarity were changed from DC-ve to DC+ve when 111
welding?
A) More penetration
B) None
C) Greater deposition rate
D) Less penetration

10. Voltage and amperage meters have been removed from GMAW equipment making
calibration invalid, the equipment should be:
A) Quarantined
B) Only used for tack welds
C) Only used if validated
D) Monitored closely by the welding inspector for amperage and voltage
11. Why is it essential to clean the weld area on completion of the production weld?
A) So it can be ready for painting
B) To remove ant test
C) To ensure it is suitably clean for visual inspection and NDT
D) To remove slag from the undercut

12. An 80 mm diameter pipe, 10 mm wall thickness is to be radiographed using the double

wall single imagine technique. The source to be used is iridium. Which of the following
statements is true?
A) It should not be done as the thickness is below that recommended
B) It would be better to use a cobalt 60 source in this instance
C) There in no problem with the technique
D) The preferred method is the double wall, double image technique

13. In a welding procedure transverse joint tensile test the following observation were
made. The specimen CSA was recorded as 40mm X 20mm and the maximum load
applied was recorded as 190kN. What is the UTS
A) 237.5kN/mm2
B) 247.5N/mm2
C) 24.5N/mm2
D) 237.5N/mm2

14. What is the most important information that the welding inspector should enter on an
electrode vacuum pack at the point of breaking the vacuum?
A) Welder’s name.
B) Weld ID number
C) Air humidity content
D) Time and date of opening

15. Which of the following defects is usually associated with MAG welding process when
using Dip Transfer?
A) Centreline cracking
B) Lack of side wall fusing
C) Undercut
D) Tungsten inclusions
16. Weld decay can be minimised specifying a steel with:
A) higher carbon level
B) higher caromium level
C) lower carbon level
D) lower caromium level

17. Which welding process and mode is more susceptible to lack of sidewall fusion?
A) MAG Dip
B) SAW DC +
C) MAG Spray
D) TIG Pulsed

18. The welding procedure calls for a minimum of 50˚C preheat: you notice the welder is
using an oxy-acetylene cutting torch to preheat butt weld joint, what course of action
would you take?
A) I would check the preheat with a temperature indicating crayon (tempelstick) to
ensure it is correct
B) I would stop him and insist he used an approved method which is nominated
on the WPS
C) It is acceptable to use this method of applying preheat so there is no problem
D) As long as he had a neutral flame it would be acceptable

19. During root welding. Which of the following would be the main cause of excess
penetration?
A) The root gap is too small in accordance with WPS
B) Preheat not used
C) The current is too high
D) Root face is too large

20. Asymmetrical weld symbols to ISO 2553 are:

A) The same both sides of the arrow
B) Different each side of the arrow
C) Show fillet welds only
D) Show butt welds only
21. What information should be recorded as a minimum on a completed production weld?
A) Size and type of electrode used
B) Welding supervisor’s name
C) Welder’s identification, date and weld number
D) Welding inspectors name

22. A ‘weld all around’ symbol is not required when:

A) Indicating a circumferential joint
B) Indicating a pipe to pipe butt weld
C) Indicating a nozzle to shell weld
D) All of the above

23. What would be the most likely SAW flux type for welding medium carbon steel which
requires impact testing:
A) Callulosic
B) Rutile
C) Fused
D) Agglomerated

24. Which one of these statements is true concerning lamellar tearing?

A) As material gets thicker the ductility decreases
B) As materials gets thicker the resistance to Lamellar tearing improves
C) As materials gets thicker the ductility improves
D) Thick materials don’t suffer from Lamellar tearing

25. Which of the following defects are not associated with the SAW process?
A) Centreline cracking
B) Chevron cracking
C) Copper inclusions
D) Tungsten inclusions
26. Clustered porosity found internally in the body of an MMA weld is usually associated
with:
A) Poor inter-pass cleaning
B) The open circuit current being too high
C) Poor stop start technique or damp electrode coating
D) Low open circuit voltage

27. In which of the following modes of transfer is inductance usually a variable parameter in
welding process 135 ?
A) Dip transfer
B) Spray transfer
C) Pulse transfer
D) Globular transfer

28. What are the three metal transfer modes when using 131/135?
A) Dip, drop and drag
B) Trailing, vertical, and leading
C) Pulse, dip and flood
D) Dip, spray and pulse

29. A 300mm diameter pipe, 10mm wall thickness is to be radiographically tested using the
double wall single image technique (DWSI). the source to be used is Ir192. Which of the
following statements is true?
A) It should not be done as the thickness is below that recommended
B) It would be better to use a cobalt 60 source in this instance
C) There is no problem with the technique
D) Only the double wall, double image technique should be used with Iridium

30. Hot cracking occurs:

A) In the HAZ
B) In the parent metal
C) In the weld
D) All of the above
PAPER 8

1. Which of the following defects do you not expect to find by visual examination of
completed welds?

A. Linear slag inclusions

B. Under cuts
C. Overlap
D. Linear misalignment

2. Stress relief is not helpful in one of the following cases. Which one?

A. In improving resistance to stress corrosion cracking

B. In dimensional stability after machining improving
C. In lowering the peak residual stress
D. In softening the steel

3. Welding a steel plate of CE of 0.45 would require preheating to?

A. Prevent the formation of sulphides

B. Prevent hardening in the HAZ
C. Prevent the formation of carbides
D. To improve mechanical properties in the weld

4. What effect to low ductile steel plate normally has when they are located outside weld
zone?

A. Cause lamellar tearing

B. Fuse together to form a bond
C. Affect the weld metal composition
D. Cause internal tearing on a micro-scale

5. Which of the following processes uses the “keyholing” system of fusion?

A. Friction welding
B. Diffusion bonding
C. Electron beam welding
D. Autogenous TIG welding

6. When hydrogen control is specified for a manual metal arc-welding project the electrode
would normally be:

A. Cellulosic
B. Iron oxide
C. Acid
D. Basic
7. You would with certainty recognize a hydrogen controlled flux covered electrode from
it’s:

A. Color
B. Length
C. Trade name
D. AWS/EN Code Letter

8. When 111 process is being carried out on an country pipeline, which groups of welder
are most likely to require continuous monitoring?

A. Concrete shuttering welding team

B. Pipe welders
C. Platter welders
D. Plant maintenance welders

9. You noticed manual metal arc welding electrodes, stripe of flux, are being used as filler
wire, for TIG welding. You would object because:

A. It is too expensive
B. The wire would be too thick
C. The weld metal composition may be wrong
D. The wire is too short

10. When open site working, serious porosity in manual metal arc welding is brought to your
attention. What would you investigate?

A. Electrode type
B. Power plant type
C. Electrode storage
D. Day temperature

11. The steel composition in structural contract is changed form 0.15% carbon, 0.6%
manganese, to 0.2% carbon, 1.2% manganese. Might this influence the incidence of:

A. Porosity
B. Cracking in the weld area
C. Under cut for fillet welds
D. Lack of root fusion defects

12. One of the following alloys is non-magnetic, Which?

A. 4.0% Cr Mo
B. 12.0% Cr
C. 18% Cr ,8% Ni
D. 9.0% Ni
13. When the TIG welding austenitic stainless steel pipe. Argon gas backing is called for.

A. Prevent oxidation
B. Prevent under bead cracking
C. Prevent porosity
D. Control the penetration bead shape

14. Pre-heating a carbon steel manual metal arc welding is carried out to minimize the risk
of

A. Scattered porosity
B. Worm hole porosity
C. Parent metal cracking
D. Lack of penetration

15. In ISO 2553 specifies that the drawing dimension quoted for a fillet weld is the:

A. Leg length, z
B. Actual throat thickness
C. Deposit thickness
D. Design throat thickness

16. For open site manual metal arc welding the following equipment is available. Which
would you choose for safe working?

A. Single operator transformer

B. Multi operator transformers
C. AC/DC composite power unit
D. Diesel engine driven motor generator

17. If submerged welding to be used to make butt welds, which would you be most critical
of:

A. The root gap tolerance

B. The angle of penetration
C. The root face width
D. The gas cut finish

18. During CO-2 welding, the arc length is most likely to be affected by:

A. The wire diameter

B. The current return connections
C. The gas flow rate
D. The torch to work angle
19. Pre heating for arc welding applies to:

A. Assembly welding only

B. Assembly and tack welding
C. Joint over 25 mm thick only
D. Cruciform welds only

20. You see a welder using oxy-acetylene flame with along feathered inner cone. What
would be the effect of this on carbon steel?

A. The weld could be hard and brittle

B. The weld metal could be too soft
C. There will be no effect on the weld
D. The weld have under cut

21. A welder qualification test is o verify:

A. The skill of the welder

B. The quality of the materials
C. The non-destructive procedures
D. The manufacturing methods

22. A fabricating procedure calls for fillet welds to be blended in by grinding. This is to
influence:

A. HAZ cracking
B. Fatigue life
C. Residual stresses
D. Yield strength

23. Bend test specimens have been taken from a 25 mm thick carbon steel butt weld.
Which would show lack of inter-run fusion:

A. Side bend
B. Root bend
C. Face bend
D. Guided bend

24. Lamellar tearing has been occurred in steel fabrication. BEFORE welding could it have
been found by:

A. X-ray examination
B. Dye penetrant
C. Ultrasonic inspection
D. It would not have been found by any inspection method
25. You are to over see arc welding of some machine fittings and find they are cadmium
plated. What you:

A. Permit it to proceed
B. Permit it to proceed with fume extraction
C. Stop the operation at once
D. Advise the welder to drink milk and proceed

26. What two functions in arc welding must be in equilibrium to enable a stable arc to be
established?

A. Arc voltage
B. Current
C. Wire/electrode feed rate
D. Metal burn-off rate

27. In MMA welding, what parameter is used for the control penetration into the base
material?

A. Voltage
B. Welding speed
C. Iron powders in the coating
D. Current

28. In the welding of butt joint from one side, which of the following controls the profile of the
root bead?

A. Root Face
B. Bevel Angle
C. Root Gap
D. One of the above

29. What type of power source characteristic is required for manual welding?

A. Constant voltage
B. Flat Characteristic
C. Drooping Characteristic
D. Motor Generator

30. Which of the following destructive tests would indicate the toughness of weld
metal/parent metal - HAZ.

A. Macro
B. Nick break
C. Hardness
D. CVN
PAPER 9

1. A preliminary Welding Procedure Specification for qualifying a welding procedure test

weld are:

A. WPS
B. pWPS
C. uWPS
D. pWPT

2. Which defect would you expect to obtain in TIG welds in non-deoxidized steel?

A. Under cut
B. Porosity
C. Tungsten inclusions
D. Linear misalignment

3. A large diameter pipe with a wall thickness of 10mm is to be used for a cross-country
pipeline. Which electrode type could be used to combine high welding speed and deep
penetration?

A. Basic covered
B. Cellulosic covered
C. Rutile covered
D. Iron powder loaded

4. If the maximum inter-pass temperature is exceeded in a carbon manganese butt weld

… affected most

A. Hardness
B. Toughness
C. Fusion
D. Penetration

5. A MMA electrode which is classified as an E7024 (according to AWS) is a:

A. Basic type
B. Cellulosic type
C. Rutile type
D. Thick coated iron powder
6. When using DC+ve polarity, what is the typical OCV?

A. 20V
B. 50V
C. 90V
D. 240V

7. On inspecting a completed 150mm OD pipe weld some small smooth, shallow areas of
undercut have been found < 0.25mm deep. The welder says he can quickly put this
right by depositing a thin narrow bead along the undercut. In this situation would you?

A. Agree to go ahead with no preheat as the weld is so small.

B. Only allow the welder to cosmetically blend out the undercut providing the
wall thickness remains within the specification tolerances.
C. Agree to go ahead with a preheat 50oC above original.
D. Cut out the joint and re-weld.

8. Which of the following welding processes uses a resistive heating system to achieve
weld metal deposition?

A. Manual metal arc welding

B. Submerged-arc welding
C. Electro slag welding
D. Resistance spot welding

9. Which of the following actions can help to prevent the production of spatter during a
welding process:

A. Switch to AC power
B. Use dry electrodes
C. Reduce arc current
D. All of the above

10. Under normal contract conditions, weld procedure approval tests for pipe work are:

A. Mandatory
B. Depend upon site and weather conditions
C. Dependent upon the contractor’s confidence in his procedures
D. Only required when CO2 welding is to be used.

11. Which standard is used for European welding procedure qualifications?

A. ASME IX
B. BS EN ISO 4872
C. BS EN ISO 15614
D. BS EN ISO 287
12. Basic electrodes are often sold vacuum packed. The reason is:

A. They have been packed at the manufactures at a hydrogen level less than
5ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
B. They are mass produced which makes these electrodes cheap
C. They require less baking time after removal from the packet
D. They are formulated that once open they will pick up no more moisture

13. How could arc blow be avoided?

A. Use AC
B. Use DC+
C. Use DC-
D. Increase travel speed

14. Manual metal arc welding of low alloy steels is more likely to be performed with:

A. Rutile electrodes
B. Cellulosic Electrodes
C. Iron powder electrodes
D. Basic hydrogen controlled electrodes

15. The usual method of assessing the sensitivity of radiograph is by means of a:

A. Dosimeter
B. Fluoroscope
C. IQI ( Penetrameter)
D. Clinometer

16. Cast and Helix are terms that refer to:

A. Ingredients in the flux covering

B. Bead deposition techniques for distortion control
C. Quality of the welding wires
D. Sources from which wires are drawn

17. Which of the following defects is unlikely to be found by visual inspection?

A. Linear misalignment
B. Undercut
C. Overlap
D. Linear slag inclusion
18. Which of the following destructive tests is not normally required for welder approval test
for mild steel?

A. Bend test
B. Macro examination
C. Impact tests
D. Fracture tests

19. Which of the following can arise from copper inclusions is a ferrite steel weld?

A. Weld metal cracks

B. HAZ cracks
C. Lamellar tearing
D. Porosity

20. Which of the following methods of NDT would be most likely to detect lack of side fusion
in ferritic steel welds?

A. Penetrants
B. Magnetic particles
C. Radiography
D. Ultrasonic flaw detector

21. A typical minimum OCV requirements for MMA (111) using basic electrode would be:

A. 70V
B. 40V
C. 100V
D. 20V

22. When welding medium carbon steel plates over 90mm in thickness would the basic
electrode require any pre-treatment before use?

A. None if they were in a vacuum pack

B. None if they were used in a factory
C. Heat to 5000C for 2 hours if used outside
D. Baked at 1500C for 4 hours prior to use

23. Why would visual inspection of the excess weld metal at the bottom of a * cross country
pipeline be important?

A. It is the most difficult area to weld.

B. It is the dirtiest part of the pipe as it is near the ground.
C. Welders always forget to weld the bottom.
D. It is the most difficult area to radiograph.
24. When MMA welding what will be the effect on the weld if the electrode was changed
from DC+ve to AC

A. None
B. It would have been easier for the welder to strike the arc
C. It would slightly increase the depth of penetration
D. It would give less penetration

25. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 50mm thick impact tested steel plate. The
welding electrode use was a basic type, 5mm diameter. The measured welding
parameters for one of the runs was 250 amps, 24 volts, using DC+ve polarity, and a
ROL of 180mm per min. What would be the Arc energy?

A. Insufficient information given to calculate the arc energy

B. 1.9kJ/mm
C. 1.87kJ/mm
D. 2.0kJ/mm

26. Which of the following electrode types would produces the lowest levels of hydrogen?

A. Cellulose coated electrodes sealed in a tin immediately after manyfature

B. Basic coated electrodes when baked correctly immediately prior to use
C. Rutile coated electrodes when dried at 1500C prior to use
D. Heavy rutile coated electrodes when dried at 1500C for 2 hours prior to use

27. You observe centerline cracking a weld that as been made one of five work stations
each making similar components. The first action to take is:

A. Impound all welding consumables

B. Report the occurrence to high authority
C. Stop all welding
D. Call for full NDT checks

28. Which of the following defects is more common to weld deposited by the CO-2 welding
process than weld deposited by manual metal arc?

A. Slag inclusion
B. Excess penetration
C. Lack of side fusion
D. Tungsten inclusions
29. Which of the following is likely to give the highest impact strength in ferritic weld metal?

A. Cellulosic electrodes
B. Submerged arc with acid flux
C. Spray transfer Co-2-welding
D. Basic coated normal metal arc electrodes

30. For which of the following is pre-heating most likely to be required?

A. Austenitic stainless steels

B. High strength alloy steels
C. Low and medium strength steels
D. Low carbon steels
PAPER 10

1. In a welding procedure transverse joint tensile test the following observations were
made. The specimen CSA was recorded as 30mm × 20mm and the maximum load
applied was recorded as 200kN. What is the UTS?
A) 33 kN/mm2
B) 333 N/mm2
C) 3333 N/mm2
D) 33 N/mm2

2. At what level is residual stress a problem when trying to minimize the risk of H2
cracking?
A) The stress levels have no influence on H2 cracking
B) The stress levels will need to be between 30 to 40% of the material yield stress
C) The stress levels will need to be greater than 50% of the material yield stress
D) The stress levels will need to be greater than 75% of material UTS

3. The similarities between BS EN 22553 and AWS A2.4 in depicting welding symbols are:
A) Both have the same rule for depicting “weld all around”
B) Both have the same rule for depicting the “other side”
C) Both have the same rule for depicting “sequence of operations”
D) Both have the same method for depicting “welding processes”

4. Which is the most accurate method of ensuring that the correct preheat is applied?
A) Measure it with heat sensitive crayons (tempilsticks)
B) Using a calibrated digital thermometer
C) Using heat treatment equipment with thermocouples attached and a chart
recorder
D) Temperature measuring paint

5. Hydrogen cracking is considered a cold crack as it will not form until the weldment cools
to below:
A) 500℃
B) 300℃
C) 300℉
D) 730℃
6. Is it permissible to allow a welder to carry out a MMA (SMAW) welding procedure test if
he is not qualified?
A) No
B) Yes as long as the Welding Engineer is happy to allow it
C) Yes as long as he has a TIG (GTAW) qualification
D) Yes as long as no NDT is required on the finished weld

7. When using DC-ve polarity, what is the typical OCV?

A) 10-40V
B) 50-90V
C) 100-400V
D) 200-240V

8. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 20mm thick impact tested steel plate. The
welding electrode used was a basic type, 4mm diameter. The measured welding
parameters for one of the runs was 185 amps, 24 volts, using AC polarity, and an ROL
of 145mm/min. What would be the arc energy?
A) Insufficient information given to calculate the arc energy
B) 1.8 kJ/mm
C) 2.9 kJ/mm
D) 0.96 kJ/mm

9. When MMA welding what will be the effect on the weld if the electrode was changed
from DC-ve to AC?
A) None
B) Higher deposition rates
C) There would be more penetration or a slight decrease in deposition rate
D) The arc would become unstable

10. In a cross joint tensile test the following observations were made: Specimen width:
20mm, Material thickness: 20mm, Max Load: 180kN, Break position: Parent Plate. What
is the UTS?
A) 45 KN/ ㎟
B) 450 N/ ㎟
C) 39 KN/ ㎟
D) 39 N/ ㎟
11. In a transverse tensile test, if the break was in the weld metal, the sample would be:
A) Acceptable if the UTS is equal to or greater than the specified UTS of the plate
B) Acceptable if the UTS is equal to or greater than the specified welding consumable
UTS but below the minimum UTS of the parent material
C) Rejected
D) Retested

12. The ease in which materials can be welded together is termed?

A) Weldability
B) Jointability
C) Bonding
D) All of the above

13. Charpy impact tests showing a rough with torn surface after the completed test would
indicate which types of failure?
A) Fatigue
B) Ductile
C) Fatigue to ductile
D) Brittle

14. One of the advantages of ultrasonic inspection in relation to radiographic testing is:
A) Access is generally only required from one side (surface) of the component
being tested
B) The designated work area must be closed off by barriers, therefore safety is
increased
C) Thin materials can be easily examined
D) A permanent image of the defect can be obtained

15. With which of the following NDE processes will BEST detect internal lack of side wall
fusion on a MAG(GMAW) weld.
A) Visual
B) Dye penetrant
C) Ultrasonic
D) Radiography
16. With the DPI method of inspection, after the contact time has elapsed the dye should be
removed by:
A) Spraying the surface with the remover till all dye has gone then wipe with a clean
cloth
B) Spraying with the developer then wiping with a cloth
C) Wipe clean, using a lint free cloth soaked in a solvent remover
D) It doesn’t matter how it is done as long as all traces of dye are removed

17. Which of the following would you not need to check in a welding consumable store?
A) The oven temperatures
B) Quarantined consumables
C) Calibration of the oven
D) The humidity

18. Prior to production welding commencing you notice that the drawing has been revised
and now include a pipe with a wall thickness of 30mm, your WPS only covers wall
thickness of 28mm, what course of action would you follow?
A) Continue with production welding as the difference is less than 10%
B) Apply for a concession to change the thickness to permit the welding on the
30mm wall thick pipe
C) Change the range on the WPS to 30mm and allow welding to commence
D) Allow welding to commence then apply for a concession

19. Who has the final responsibility of sentencing and accepting a weld on completion?
A) The contractor’s inspector
B) Site manager
C) The welder
D) The client’s inspector or certifying authority

20. Which one of these joints would be more susceptible to Lamellar tearing
A) U butt
B) Vee butt
C) Double butt
D) Compound weld
21. In general terms which of the following would require the highest preheat if all other
factors were the same as per ISO BS EN 1011?
A) MMA weld with cellulosic electrodes
B) MMA weld with rutile electrodes
C) MMA weld with basic electrodes
D) MAG weld with solid wire

22. Which of the following microstructures is critical to the likely formation of hydrogen
cracks?
A) Austenite
B) Ferrite
C) Pearlite
D) Martensite

23. When examining a completed macro test, the recorded hardness figures were 5HV
points over the maximum permitted what would your course of action be?
A) Apply for a concession
B) Reject the whole procedure
C) Request a retest
D) Accept it as it is only just over the permitted value

24. In an all weld tensile test, the original specimen gauge length was 50mm, and after the
test the increased gauge length was 70mm, what is the elongation percentage?
A) % A is 40
B) % A is 60
C) % A is 30
D) % A is 36

25. Which of the following is a quantitative test:

A) Bend test
B) Macro
C) Tensile test
D) Radiography
26. What is a typical carbon equivalent for carbon manganese steel?
A) 4.0%
B) 0.40%
C) 0.5%
D) 0.12%

27. During root welding, which of the following would be the main cause of lack of root
penetration?
A) The root gap is too large in accordance with WPS
B) Preheat was not used
C) The current is too low
D) Root face is too small

28. At what level is the hardness value a problem when trying to minimise the risk of H2
cracking?
A) 270 to 290HV
B) 300 to 350HV
C) 100 to 150HV
D) 160 to 200HV

29. Why would visual inspection of the excess weld metal at the bottom of a cross country
pipeline be important?
A) It is the most difficult area to weld
B) It is the dirtiest part of pipe as it is near the ground
C) Welders always forget to weld bottom
D) It is the most difficult area to radiograph

30. Weld decay may be minimized by adding elements called stabilisers. These may be:
A) Vanadium/ Titanium
B) Titanium/ Niobium
C) Niobium/ Vanadium
D) Vanadium/ Titanium/ Niobium
PAPER 11

1. Why is it essential to clean the excess weld metal on completion of the production
weld?

A. So it can be ready for painting

B. To remove any rust
C. To ensure it is suitably clean for visual inspection and NDT
D. To remove slag from the undercut

2. During root welding, which of the following would be the main cause of excess
penetration?

A. The root gap is too small in accordance with WPS

B. Preheat not used
C. The current is too high
D. Root face is too large

3. Which of the following would not be required to be checked before welding?

A. The welding consumable

B. The welder qualification
C. Calibration of the welding equipment
D. The workshop humidity

4. Asymmetrical weld symbols to BS EN ISO 2553 9 are:

A. The same both sides of the arrow

B. Different each side of the arrow
C. Show fillet welds only
D. Show butt welds only

5. What does the term WPS mean?

A. Weld productivity specification

B. Weld production scheme
C. Welding procedure specification
D. Work productivity standard

6. An electrode is classified to BS EN ISO 2560 1 as E 35 3 B. What does 35 signify?

A. 350 N/mm2 yield strength

B. 35 Joules -300C
C. 35 N/mm2 tensile strength
D. 35 ksi tensile strength
7. What does the term WPQR mean?

A. Weld productivity quality review

B. Weld productivity quality requirements
C. Welding procedure qualification record
D. Work production quantity review

8. According to AWS 2.4, where does the symbol go for welding on the arrow side?

A. Below reference line

B. Above reference line
C. Depends on the joint
D. Always weld where the arrow is pointing

9. What is the recommended minimum range of illumination required by BS EN ISO 17637

for inspection of a welded surface?

A. 90-125 lux
B. 150-250 lux
C. 350-500 lux
D. 35-50 lux

10. The term manual welding is often used when the welder controls:

A. Arc length
B. Wire speed
C. Burn off rate
D. Transfer mode

11. Who should have access to the WPQRs?

A. NDT operators
B. Inspectors only
C. Welders only
D. Welding engineer

12. Is it permissible to allow a trainee welder to carry out production welding?

A. Never
B. Yes as long as the supervisor is happy with his workmanship standard
C. Yes as long as he has the approved qualification to cover the intended scopr of
work
D. Yes as long as no NDT is required on the finished weld
13. A procedure is a document which:

A. Specifies the way to carry out an activity or a process

B. Provides binding legistative rules that are adopted by an authority
C. Specifies which resources shall be applied by whom and when, to a specific
project, product process or contract
D. A written and verbal description of the precise steps to be followed

14. What information should be recorded as a minimum, on a completed production weld?

A. Size and type of electrode used

B. Welding supervisor’s name
C. Welder’s identification, date and weld number
D. Welding inspectors name

15. Which BS EN standard is used for welding symbols on drawings?

A. BS EN 970
B. BS EN287
C. BS EN ISO 2553
D. BS EN 4515

16. Who has the final responsibility of sentencing and accepting a weld on completion?

A. The contractor’s inspector

B. Site manager
C. The welder
D. The client’s inspector or certifying authority

17. What is meant by the term duty cycle?

A. How long a welder can weld for in a given period

B. The amount of time the electrode is being used
C. The amount of time a welding machine can be used
D. The amount of electricity being consumed

18. Which process uses a constant current characteristic?

A. MIG/MAG
B. MMA
C. FCAW
D. All processes use this
19. Who determines what the correct weld preparation (root gap, root face, included angle)
should be?

A. The welding engineer

B. The welding supervisor
C. The welder will decide
D. The inspector will recommend what is suitable

20. The strength of a fillet weld is primary controlled by:

A. Leg length.
B. Design throat thickness.
C. Actual throat thickness.
D. All of the above.

21. A document that is established by consensus and approved by a recognized body and
provides, for common and repeated use, guidelines, rules, characteristics for activities
or their results, aimed at the achievement of the optimum degree of order in a given
context is called:

A. Normative document
B. Regulation
C. Specification
D. Standard

22. While making a symbol for a symmetrical fillet weld

A. The size does not need not be mentioned

B. The length can be mentioned to the left of the symbol
C. The finish is assumed to be flat
D. The dashed line should be omitted

23. Is it permissible to allow a single ‘V’ butt weld to cool down passes?

A. It is solely the decision of the welder

B. It depends on the requirement of the procedure and specifications
C. It is solely the decision of the welding inspector
D. No, all welds should be completed before dropping the temperature to ambient

24. What is the problem with ‘restraint’ during welding?

A. It does not cause a problem

B. It may lead to cracking, especially with small welds between large
components
C. It causes distortion
D. Restraint is term not used in relation to welding
25. Which mechanical test can be used to make an assessment of surfacing breaking
defects?

A. Bend test
B. Nick – break test
C. Macro test
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

26. What is the purpose of a tensile test?

A. To assess tensile strength

B. To assess ductility
C. To assess yield strength
D. All of the above could be assessed

27. When a metal returns to its original shape after an applied load has been removed, the
metal is said to have:

A. Plasticity
B. Ductility
C. Elasticity
D. Malleability

28. Fluctuating load is: cyclic stresses, below the UTS on a weld component may lead to:

A. Tensile failure
B. Yield failure
C. Fatigue failure
D. Shear failure

29. Stress is equal to:

A. Stress
B. Load divided by cross – sectional area
C. Extension of gauge length divided by original gauge length
D. Toughness

30. Strain is equal to:

A. Stress
B. Load divide by cross – sectional area
C. Extension of gauge length divided by the original gauge length
D. Toughness
PAPER 12

1. Stress can be measured in:

A. N/mm²
B. PSI
C. mm
D. Both a and b

2. What is a crater pipe?

A. An oval tube
B. Another term for burn through
C. A type of porosity
D. A shrinkage defect

3. Which standard for welding term and symbols?

A. ISO 15614
B. ISO 5817
C. ISO 2553
D. ISO 2253

4. How could you accurately measure the root radius of a charpy or Izod specimen?

A. With a machine called shadowgraph

B. With a rule
C. With a vernier caliper
D. With a densitometry

5. Herringbone porosity is:

A. A particular pattern of porosity

B. Made up of wormholes
C. Made up of piping
D. All the above are correct
E. None of the above

6. A crack is a weld zone:

A. Is repairable
B. Always results in s cut – out and complete reweld
C. Is acceptable up to 2mm in length
D. May be repaired or cut – out depending on specification requirements.
7. If the amperage were too low during the welding of a root bead the possible result would
be:

A. Lack of penetration
B. Lack of fusion
C. The freezing of the electrode
D. All of the above

8. Stress acting in the opposite direction of compressive stress is known as:

A. Residual stress
B. Shear stress
C. Hoop stress
D. Tensile stress

9. Distortion may be affected by:

A. Restraint
B. Heat – input
C. Material properties
D. Material thickness
E. All of the above

10. Distortion:

A. Is plastic deformation
B. Is elastic deformation
C. Is another term for stress
D. May be elastic or plastic deformation
E. All of the above