Exam Topic: [Full Marks – 100]

 Vedic Age

 Mauryan Empire

 Post-Mauryan Period

 Gupta and Post—Gupta.

 South India Chola Chalukya,

 Stone Age and Indus Valley Civilization

 Buddhism, Jainism and Bhagvatism

Question number 1

According to the excavated evidence, the domestication of animal began in –

(A) Lower Paleolithic Period

(B) Middle Paleolithic Period

(C) Upper Paleolithic Period

(D) Mesolithic Period

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : The first attempts of domestication of animals and plants apparently were made in

Mesolithic period. The first evidences of the domestication of animals have been found from
Adamgarh

(M.P) and Bagor (Rajasthan).

Question number 2

Bhimbetka is famous for -

(A) Rock Painting

(B) Buddhist statues

(C) Minerals

(D) Origine os Sone River

Ans-(A)
EXPLANATION : The Bhimbetka rock shelters compose an archaeological site and World Heritage Site

located in Madhya Pradesh. The rock shelters and caves of Bhimbetka have a number of interesting

paintings which depict the lives and times of people who lived in the caves including the scene of

childbirth, communal dancing and drinking; religious rites and the natural environment around them

Question number 3

Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer from the code given below -

List I List II

(Harappan Site) (Location)

(A) Manda 1. Rajasthan

(B) Daimabad 2. Haryana

(C) Kalibangan 3. Jammu And Kashmir

(D) Rakhigarhi 4. Maharashtra

Code –

ABCD

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 4 1 2

(D) 4 1 2 3

Ans-(C)

Question number 4

Yavanika or curtain was introduced in Indian theatre by which of the following?

A Shakas

B Parthians

C Greeks

D Kushans
Answer: Option C

Yavanika (Curtain) was introduced in Indian theatre by the Greeks

. Question number 5

Port City of Indus Valley Civilization was -

(A) Harappa (B) Kalibangan

(C) Lothal (D) Mohanjodaro

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Lothal was an important port city of Indus Valley Civilization and was located in the

today's Bhal region of Indian state of Gujarat.

Question number 6

Which of the following sites has yielded evidences of double burial?

(A) Kuntasi (B) Dholavira

(C) Lothal (D) Kalibangan

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Lothal is the only site of the Indus Valley Civilization which reveals the evidence of

double burials of male and female suggesting the practise of Sati.

Question number 7

Which of the following animal is not depicted on the Harappan Seal?

(A) Bull (B) Elephant

(C) Horse (D) Sheep

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : A large number of animals have been depicted on the seals. These includes sheep,

goat, humped bull, buffalo, elephant, tiger, lion, the gour or Indian bison, the rhinoceros, a short-
horned

humpless bull, but there has been no evidence of horse on Harappan seals.

Question number 8
The Great Bath was found from the Indus Valley Civilization at –

(A) Mohenjodaro (B) Harappa

(C) Lothal (D) Kalibangan

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : The most important public place of Mohenjo-daro seems to be Great Bath

comprising the tank which is situated in the citadel mound. It is an example of beautiful brickwork
(floor

was made of burnt brick). Great Bath served ritual bathing.

Question number 9

Which of the following is the oldest among all Vedas?

(A) Yajur Veda (B) Rig Veda

(C) Sama Veda (D) Atharva Veda

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Rig Veda is the oldest among the four Vedas. It is an ancient Indian collection of

Vedic Sanskrit Hymns along with associated commentaries on liturgy, ritual and mystical exegesis.

Rigveda Samhita was composed in the north western region of Indian subcontinent most likely
between

1500 and 1200 BC.

Question number 10

Aitareya Brahmana is associated with -

(A) Rig Veda (B) Yajur Veda

(C) Atharva Veda (D) Sama Veda

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : The Brahmanas are a collection of ancient Indian text with commentaries on the

hymns of the four Vedas. Aitareya brahmana is the Brahmana of the Shakala Shakha of Rig Veda, an

ancient Indian collection of sacred hymns.

Question number 11

Match the following -

List-I List-II

(A) Atharva Veda 1. Hymns and Prayers

(B) Rig Veda 2. Rituals and Sacrificial process

(C) Yajur Veda 3. Medicine

(D) Sama Veda 4. Music

Code:

ABCD

(A) 3 1 2 4

(B) 1 2 3 4

(C) 2 3 4 1

(D) 3 4 1 2

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : (A) Rigveda - Hymns and Prayers

(B) Atharvaveda – Medicine

(C) Samveda – Music

(D) Yajurveda – Ritual and Sacrifical Process

Question number 12

The main theme of Upanishads is -

(A) Social Structure (B) Philosophy

(C) Law (D) State

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Upanishads are regarded as a part of the Vedas and are ancient text which contain

some of the central philosophical concepts and ideas of Hinduism. They also discuss about
meditation
and nature of God

Question number 13

The famous dialogue between Nachiketa and Yama is mentioned in the -

(A) Brihadaranyaka Upanishad

(B) Chhandogya Upanishad

(C) Katha Upanishad

(D) Kena Upanishad

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : The famous dialogue between Nachiketa and Yama is mentioned in the Katha

Upanishad. The dialogue is a conversation between Yama and Nachiketa, a 12-year-old boy, who left

home in search of the meaning of death and beyond

Question number 14

Satyamev Jayate which is engraved on the Indian Emblem has been taken from -

(A) Rig Veda (B) Bhagavad Gita

(C)Mundakopnishad/Mundaka Upanishad

(D) Matsya Purana

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Satyameva Jayate is an ancient Sanskrit verse meaning truth alone triumphs. It is

taken from the ancient Indian Scripture Mundaka Upanishad.

Question number 16

Which of the events of Buddha's life is known as Mahabhinishkramana?

(A) His death

(B) His birth

(C) His departure from home

(D) His attainment of enlightment

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Gautama Buddha, at the age of 29 years, left his home so that he could overcome
old

age, illness and death by living a life of an ascetic. This is called the great departure or

Mahabhinishkramana.

Question number 17

Who was Alara Kalama?

(A)A disciple of Buddha

(B) A distinguished Buddhist Monk

(C) A king of Buddhism Time

(D) A teacher of Buddha

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Alara Kalama was a hermit saint of ancient meditation. He was the specialist of

Samkhya philosophy. According to Pali canon scripture, he was first teacher of the Gautama Buddha.

Question number 18

What is Tripitaka?

(A)Three monkeys of Gandhiji

(B) Brahma, Vishnu, Mahesh

(C) Triratnas of Mahavira

(D) Collection of the preachings of Buddha

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Tripitaka or three baskets is a traditional term used for various Buddhist literature. It

is known as Pali canon in English. The three pitakas are Sutta Pitaka Vinaya Pitaka and Abhidhamma

Pitaka.

Question number 19
In the Mahayana Buddhism, the Bodhisattva Avalokiteshvara was also known as -

(A) Vajrapani (B) Manjusri

(C) Padmapani (D) Maitrya

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Bodhisattva Avalokitesvara was also known as Padmapani who embodies the

compassion of all the Buddha's. This Bodhisattva is variably depicted, described and portrayed in

different cultures as either male or female deity.

Question number 20

Who was the first Tirthankara of Jain religion?

(A) Parshvanatha (B) Rishbhanatha

(C) Mahavira (D) Chetaka

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Lord Rishabhadeva was the first Tirthankara of Jainism. He was born at Ayodhya in

the Ikshawaka kula or clan. Hinduism, he is known to be an avataraor incarnation of Vishnu

Question number 21

Match List I with List II and select the correct using the code given below -

List I List II

(Tirthankara) (Cognizance)

(A) Adinatha 1. Bull

(B) Mallinatha 2. Horse

(C) Parshvanatha 3. Snake

(D) Sambhavanatha 4.Water Jal

Code –

ABCD

(A 1 4 3 2

(B) 1 3 2 4

(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 1 4 2

Ans-(A)

Question number 22

Cultivation of cereals first started in -

(A) Neolithic Age

(B) Mesolithic Age

(C) paleolithic Age

(D) Proto-Historic Age

Ans-(A)

The Neolithic settlers were the earliest farming communities. Cereals such as wheat, barley, rice
were

among the first crops cultivated by Neolithic farming communities. Koldihwa and Mehrgarh are two

important Neolithic sites where evidences of wheat and rice have been found.

Question number 23

Mahavira Jaina breathed his last at –

(A) Rajgir (B) Ranchi

(C) Pavapuri (D) Samastipur

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Mahavira also known as Vardhamana was the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism. He was

born in 599 BC as son of King Siddhartha and Queen Trishala. At the age of 30, Mahavira renounced
the

royal life and world possessions and spent 12 years as an ascetic. Then he attained Kaivalya-Gyana

(Supreme knowledge). He attained Nirvana at Pavapuri (current Nalanda District) at the age of 72
years

Question number 24

. Ajivika Sect was founded by -

(A) Ananda
(B) Rahulabhadra

(C) Makhali Gosala

(D) Upali

Ans-(C)

Ajivika Sect is one of the heterodox school of Indian philosophy founded in 5th century BC by
Makhali

Gosala (early disciples of Mahavira).

Question number 25

Where was the first republican system of the world during 6th century BC located?

(A) Vaishali (B) Athens

(C) Sparta (D) Pataliputra

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Vaishali considered to be the world’s first Republic is presently, an archaeological

site situated in the state of Bihar. It was established by the Lichchhavi dynasty.

Question number 26

By which ruler Pataliputra was chosen as the capital for the first time -

(A) Ajatshatru (B) Kalashoka

(C) Udayin (D) Kanishka

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Udayin was a ruler of Haryanaka dynasty. His reign is important because he laid the

foundation of the city of Pataliputra at the confluence of the Son and Ganges and shifted the capital
from

Rajagriha to Pataliputra.

Question number 27

. Jivaka, the famous physician of the time of Mahatma Buddha was associated with the court of –

(A) Bimbisara (B) Chanda Pradyota

(C) Prasenjit (D) Udayin

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Jivaka, the famous physician was associated with the court of Bimbisara. Bimbisara

sent him to Ujjain

Question number 28

when Avanti king Pradyota was attacked by Jaundice Deimachus came to India during the reign of -

(A) Chandra gupta Maurya

(B) Bindusara

(C) Ashoka

(D) Kanishka

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Deimachus was sent by Syrian King Antiochus-I as an Ambassador in the court of

Bindusara in Patliputra in India.

Question number 29

Rajjukas were -

(A) Traders in Chola Kingdom

(B) Officers in the Mauryan Administration

(C) Feudal lords in the Gupta Empire

(D) Soldiers in the Saka Army

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Rajjukas were the officials in the Mauryan Adminstration who worked as a surveyor

and performed Judicial functions

Question number 30

Who was the author of Indika?

(A) Vishnugupta (B) Megasthenese

(C) Deimachus (D) Pliny

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : The author of Indika was Megasthenes, ancient Greek historian, who gave complete

account of Mauryan Period during 300 BC.

Question number 31

Ashokan Inscriptions were first deciphered by -

(A) James Princep (B) Ceorge Buhler

(C) Vincent Smith (D) William Jones

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Ashokan Inscriptions found in the central and eastern part of India were written in

Magadhi prakrit using the Brahmi script. These inscriptions were first deciphered by British
archaeologist

and historian James Prinsep.

Question number 32

Who renovated Sudarshan Lake without using forced labour?

(A) Chandragupta Maurya

(B) Bindusara

(C) Ashoka

(D) Rudradaman I

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : The Junagadh inscription gives the information about the Sudarshan Lake. It was an

artificial reservoir which was built by the Mauryan emperors for checking floods. Around 150 AD, the

lake was repaired by the Saka ruler, Rudradaman-1.

Question number 33

The largest number of copper coins in the north and western India were issued by -

(A) Indo-Greeks (B) Kushans

(C) Sakas (D) Pratiharas

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Kushan issued the largest number of copper coins in north and north-western India.

They also issued Gold coins

Question number 34

Famous Greek ambassador Megasthenes came to the court of which emperor?

(A) Ashoka (B) Harsha vardhana

(C) Chandra gupta Maurya

(D) None of these

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Megasthenes was a Greek historian sent by Selucus Nikator as an ambassador in the

court of Chandragupta Maurya. He lived here for five years. His famous book Indika gives an account
of

Mauryan

Question number 35

Gandhar a School of Art is the synthesis of –

(A) Indian and Persian Art

(B) Indian and Chinese Art

(C) Indian and Turk-Afghan Art

(D) Indian and Greek Art

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Gandhara School of Art is the synthesis of India and Greek School of Art. It was

developed in the first century AD along with Mathura School during the reign of Kushana emperor,

Kanishka. Both Sakas and Kushans were patrons of Gandhara School, which is known for the first

sculptural representation of the Buddha in human form.

Question number 36
The Prakrit text Gatha Saptasati is attributed to the Satvahana King -

(A)Gautamiputra Satakarni

(B) Hala (C) Yajna Satakarni

(D) Vashishtputra Pulumayi

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Gatta Saptasai is an ancient collection of poems in Prakrit language of Maharashtra.

The poems are about love and joy. This collection is attributed to Hala King

Question number 37

Vikrama era started from -

(A) 57 BC (B) 78 AD

(C) 57 AD (D) 78 BC

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : The Vikram era or Vikram Samvat is an Indian calender starting in 57 BC. It is said

to have been founded by emperor Vikramaditya of Ujjain following his victory over Saka in 56 BC. It
is

lunar calender based on ancient Hindu tradition and is 56.7 years ahead of the solar Gregorian
calender.

Question number 38

Which of the following ruler controlled the silk route?

(A) Gondopherenes (B) Kanishka

(C) rudradaman-I (D) Menander

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Kanishka, the Kushan ruler controlled the silk route which started from China and

passed through Central Asia, Afghanistan and Western Asia.

Question number 39

Who is known as the Napolean of India?

A) Chandragupta Maurya

(B) Chandragupta II

(C) Great Ashoka

(D) Samudragupta

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Samudragupta of the Gupta dynasty is known as the Napolean of India. Historian

A.V. Smith called him so because his great military conquest known from the Prayag Prashati written
by

his courtier and poet Harisena who also describes him as the hero of hundred battles.

Question number 40

The Hunas invaded India during the reign of -

(A) Chandragupta II

(B) Kumargupta I

(C) Skandagupta

(D) Budhagupta

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Hunas were a nomadic tribe of Central Asia, who invaded Indian territory during the

reign of Skandagupta, ruler of the Gupta Dynasty. They attacked the Gupta dynasty and were able to
win

Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal, Pradesh, Rajasthan, Punjab and parts of Malwa

Question number 41

Who is known as Shaka conqueror?

(A) Chandragupta I

(B) Samudragupta

(C) Chandragupta II

(D) Kumaragupta
Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Chandragupta II adopted the title of Vikramaditya, which had been first used by an

Ujjain ruler in 57 BC as a mark of victory over the Shaka Kshatrapas of western India. Therefore, he is

known as Shaka conqueror.

Question number 42

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below -

List-I List-II

(Emperor) (Titles)

A. Ashoka 1. Prakrmank

B. Samudragupta 2. Kramaditya

C. Chandragupta II 3. Kramaditya

D. Skandagupta 4. Vikramaditya

Code -

ABCD

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 3 2 1 4

(C) 2 1 4 3

(D) 4 3 2 1

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : The correct match is given below

Ashoka - Piyadasi/Priyadarshini

Samudragupta - Parakramank

Chandragupta II- Vikramaditya

Skandagupta - Kramaditya

Question number 43
Mrichchhakatika an ancient Indian book written by Shudraka deals with -

(A)The love affair of a rich merchant with the daughter of courtesan

(B)The victory of Chandragupta II over the Shaka Kshatraps of western India

(C)The military expedition and exploits Samudragupta

(D)The love affairs between a Gupta king princess of Kamrupa.

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Mrichchhakatika, an ancient Indian book, deals with love affair between Charudatta

(rich Merchant) and Vasantasena (daughter of courtesan).

Question number 44

The Gupta king who was good player of veena?

(A) Chandragupta (B) Vikramaditya

(C) Samudragupta (D) Kumaragupta

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Samudragupta was an expert veena player. He adopted the title of Kaviraja (King of

Poets). He was also a great patron of Art and literature.

Question number 45

What type of land was called as Aprahat?

(A) Uncultivated forest land

(B) Irrigated land

(C)Dense forest land

(D) Cultivated land

Ans-(A)

The term aprahat was used for the uncultivated forest land.

Question number 46

Who was the court poet of Samudragupta?

(A) Harisena (B) Asanga

(C) Veerasena Saba (D) Vasubandha

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Harisena was the court poet of Samudragupta bravery. His famous poem written in

345 AD describes the bravery of Samudragupta which is inscribed on the Allahabad pillar as Prayag

Prashasti

Question number 47

Brihadeshwara temple of Thanjavur was built during the reign of -

(A) Parantaka-I (B) Rajaraja-I

(C) Rajendra-I (D) Rajadhiraja-I

Ans-(B)

Brihadeshwara temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva located in Thanjavur in the Indian state
of

Tamil Nadu. It is well known as Brihadeshwara Temple, Raja Rajeshwara and Rajarajeswaram temple

and was edified by Rajaraja Chola-I in the year 1010 AD.

Question number 48

The famous bronze image of Nataraja is a fine example of –

(A) Chola Art (B) Gandhara Art

(C) Gupta Art (D) Mauryan Art

Ans-(A)

The famous bronze image of Nataraja is a fine example of Chola Art. The image is symbolic of Shiva
as

the lord of dance and dramatic arts, with its style and proportion made according to the Hindu texts
on

arts

Question number 49

Which of the following South Indian State was famous for its naval power?
(A) Chola (B) Chera

(C) Pallava (D) Pashtrakatu

Ans-(A)

Cholas were famous for their powerful Navy. It played an important role in expanding the Chola

Kingdom. It includes invasion of Sri Lanka, Rajaraja naval expeditions against the Maldive Island and

conquest of Ceylon from the King Mahindra V showed their naval power

Question number 50

The author of Silappadikaram was -

(A) Ilango (B) Parmara

(C) Karikala (D) Vishnu Swami

Ans-(A)

Ilango Adigal is the author of Silappadikaram, one of the epic of Tamil Literature. It contains three

chapters and a total of 5270 lines of poetry. The story of Silappadikaram narrates the events in the
three

Tamil Kindgoms: Chola, Chera and Pandya.

Question number 51

In Sangam Literature, Tolkappiyam is a text of -

(A) Tamil poetry (B) Tamil grammar

(C) Tamil architecture (D) Tamil polity

Ans-(B)

Tolkappiyam is a work on the grammar of Tamil language and the earliest work of Tamil literature
and

linguistic.

Question number 52

Who among the following was the author of Tamil Ramayanam or Ramavataram?

(A) Kamban (B) Kuttan

(C) Nannaya (D) Tikkana

Ans-(A)

Ramavataram or Tamil Ramayanam is a Tamil epic authored by Kamban. It is based on the Valmiki's

Ramayana and describes the story of the life of Rama in Ayodhya

Question number 53

Why was Uraiyur famous in the Sangam Era?

(A) An important trade centre of spices

(B) An important trade centre of cotton

(C) An important centre of foreign trade

(D) An important centre of domestic trade

Ans-(B)

Uraiyur is a famous place in the area of Tiruchirapalli in Tamil Nadu. It was a capital of the early
Cholas.

It is famous because it was an important trade centre of cotton.

Question number 54

Who of the following was the writer of Mudrarakshasa?

(A) Ashvaghosha (B) Vishakadatta

(C) Kalidas (D) Bhasa

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : The Mudrarakshasa is a Sanskrit play by Vishakadatta that narrates the ascent of the

king Chandragupta Maurya to power in India

Question number 55

Who wrote Abhigyan-Shakuntalam?

(A) Bana Bhatta (B) Ved Vyas

(C) Kalidasa (D) Bhavabhuti

Ans-(C)
Abhigyan-Shakuntalam, a sanskrit play written by Kalidasa, narrates the story of Shakuntala and

Dushyant as told in the epic Mahabharata.

Question number 56

The Sun temple of Modhera lies in which state?

(A) Bihar (B) Gujrat

(C) Odisha (D) Bengal

EXPLANATION : Sun temple, a hindu temple dedicated to the solar deity Surya located at Modhera

village of Mehsana district, Gujarat. It is situated on the bank of River Pushpavati, It was built by king

Bhimadeva of Solanki dynasty in 1026 AD.

Question number 57

Dasakumaracharitam was composed by -

(A) Surdas (B) Dandin

(C) Tulsidas (D) Kalidas

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Dasakumaracharitam is a prose romance in Sanskrit, attributed to Dandin, believed

to

have flourished in the seventh to eigth centuries.

Question number 58

Ashtadhyayi was written by -

(A) Ved Vyas (B) Panini

C) Shukadeva (D) Valmiki

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Ashtadhyayi is sanskrit treatise on grammar written in the 6th to 5th century BC by

the Indian grammarian Panini

Question number 59

Who wrote Abhigyan-Shakuntalam?

(A) Bana Bhatta (B) Ved Vyas

(C) Kalidasa (D) Bhavabhuti

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Abhigyan-Shakuntalam, a sanskrit play written by Kalidasa, narrates the story of

Shakuntala and Dushyant as told in the epic Mahabharata.

Question number 60

Who had composed the Gita Govinda?

(A) Dhoyin (B) Goviardhanacharya

(C) Jayadeva (D) Lakshmana Sena

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Gita Govinda is a lyrical epic composed by Jayadeva, a sanskrit poet of the last

quarter of the twelfth century. He was the royal poet in the court of King Lakshmana Sena of Bengal.

Question number 61

Who founded the Vikramshila University?

(A) Dharmapala(B) Devapala

(C) Gopala (D) Mahendrapala

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Vikramshila University was founded by Pala king Dharmapala in the late 8th or

early 9th century. It was the premier university of the era and one of the most important centres of

Buddhist learning in India and grew to become the intellectual centre for Tantric Buddhism.

Question number 62

Which is representative of Dravida style of temple architecture?

A : Viman

B: Shikhara

C: Mandapa
D : Gopuram

Answer: Option A

EXPLANATION : Vimana is the structure over the garbhagriha or inner sanctum in the Hindu temples

of South India and Odisha in East India. In typical temples of Odisha using the Kalinga style of

architecture. A typical Hindu temple in Dravidian style have gopurams in the four directions.

Question number 63

Which one of the following works deals with the history of Kashmir?

A : Gaudavaho

B: Harshacharita

C: Rajatarangini

D : Vikramankadevacharita

Answer: Option C

EXPLANATION : Rajatarangini is a metrical legendary and historical chronicle of the north-western

Indian subcontinent, particularly the kings of Kashmir. It was written in Sanskrit by Kashmiri historian

Kalhana in the 12th century CE. The work consists of 7826 verses, which are divided into eight books

called Tarangas.:

Question number 64

Who established Nalanda Mahavihara ?

A : Kumaragupta

B: Skandagupta

C: Devgupta

D : Vedgupta

Answer: Option A

EXPLANATION : It was established in 1951 under Rajendra Prasad to revive the ancient seat of

learning in Nalanda. It became a Deemed university in 2006. Nava Nalanda Mahavihara was founded
to

develop as a centre of higher studies in Pali and Buddhism along the lines of ancient Nalanda
Mahavihara
Question number 65

Which of the following was the capital of Surasena Mahajanapada?

A : Viratnagar

B: Junagarh

C: Mathura

D : Kashi

Answer: Option C

EXPLANATION : Surasena and other Mahajanapadas in the Post Vedic period. Kingdom of Surasena

(or Sourasena) was an ancient Indian region corresponding to the present-day Braj region in Uttar

Pradesh, with Mathura as its capital city.

Question number 66

Which is a work of Tamil Grammar that is said to be the earliest extant work of Tamil Literature?

A : Tolkappiyam

B: Patinenmelkanakku

C: Patinenkilkanakku

D : None of the above

Answer: Option A

EXPLANATION : The oldest 'extant' Tamil literature is Tholkaapiyam. It is a grammar treatise.

Tholkaapiyam is variously dated by scholars from 100 CE to as far back as 500 BC (a few even stretch
it

back upto 1000 or 5000 BC, but those claims cannot be established solidly!)

Question number 67

Which ancient account describes the Nandas expedition over all their rival monarchs that make
them

powerful rulers of North India?

A : Manusmriti
B: Vedas

C: Puranas

D : Brahamanas

Answer: Option C

EXPLANATION : Mahapadma, a Shudra, who has been described in the Puranas as "the destroyer of
all

the Kshatriyas", defeated many other kingdoms, including the Panchalas, Kasis, Haihayas, Kalingas,

Asmakas, Kurus, Maithilas, Surasenas and the Vitihotras. He expanded his territory south of the
Vindhya

Range into the Deccan Plateau. The Nandas, who usurped the throne of the Shishunaga dynasty c.
345

BCE, were thought to be of lowly origin. Mahapadma Nanda was said in the Puranas to be the son of

Mahanandin and a Shudra mother.

Question number 68

Which of the following is/are poetry and drama?

A : Kumarasambhava

B: Raghuvamsa

C: Abhijnanashakuntalam

D : All of the above

Answer: Option D

EXPLANATION : Kumarasambhava, Raghuvamsa and Abhijnanashakuntalam all the three are poems.

Question number 69

Which of the following is not a religious text?

A : Rigveda

B: Sangam

C: Upanishad

D : None of the above

Answer: Option B

EXPLANATION : The Sangam texts are different from the Vedic texts, particularly the Rig Veda. They

do not constitute religious literature. The short and long poems were composed by numerous poets
in

praise of various heroes and heroines and are in secular nature. They are not primitive songs, but
literature

of high quality.

Question number 70

Which of the following is related to Etymology?

A : Shiksha

B: Kalpa

C: Nirukta

D : Vyakaran

Answer: Option C

EXPLANATION : Nirukta means explanation or interpretation. It is related to one of the six ancient

Vedangas. Nirukta mainly works on Etymology and deals with the correct interpretation of Sanskrit

words in the Vedas.

Question number 71

The Virupaksha Temple was built by the

A : Chalukyas

B: Pallavas

C: Kakatiyas

D : Satavahans

Answer: Option A

EXPLANATION : The Virupaksha Temple is located in Hampi near Bangalore, in the state of

Karnataka in southern India. Virupaksha is a form of Shiva and has other temples dedicated to him.
The

temple's history is uninterrupted from about the 7th century when it was built by the Chalukyas.
Evidence
indicates there were additions made to the temple in the late Chalukyan and Hoysala periods,
though most

of the temple buildings are attributed to the Vijayanagar period.

Question number 72

Who is the founder of Haryanka Dynasty?

A : Ajatashatru

B: Harshvardhan

C: Bimbisara

D : Ghananand

Answer: Option C

EXPLANATION : Initially, the capital was Rajagriha. Later, it was shifted to Pataliputra, near the

present-day Patna in India. The founder of this dynasty was Bimbisara himself. According to the
Buddhist

text, the Mahavamsa, Bimbisara was anointed king by his father at the age of fifteen.

Question number 73

The revolutionary like Ashfaqullah Khan, Chandra Shekhar Azad, Ram Prasad Bismil, Roshan Singh

and Rajendra Lahiri were all associated with :

A : The Kakori Conspiracy case (1925)

B: 1857 Revolt

C: Chauri Chaura Case

D : The Jallianwala Bagh massacre

Answer: Option A

EXPLANATION : The Kakori Conspiracy (or Kakori train robbery or Kakori Case) was a train robbery

that took place between Kakori and, near Lucknow, on 9 August 1925 during the Indian
Independence

Movement against the British Indian Government. The robbery was organised by Hindustan
Republican
Association (HRA).

Question number 74

The Moplah Rebellion in 1921 in Malabar was Muslim Peasants Rabellion against :

A : Muslim Land Holders

B: The British Government Authority

C: The non-tribal outsiders

D : Hindu Land Holders

Answer: Option D

EXPLANATION : Hindu Land Holders. The Malabar rebellion (also known as the Moplah rebellion and

Māppila Lahaḷa in Malayalam) was an armed uprising in 1921 against British authority in the Malabar

region of Southern India by Mappilas and the culmination of a series of Mappila revolts that recurred

throughout the 19th century and early 20th century.

Question number 75

The Rowlatt Act was passed in

A : 1905

B: 1913

C: 1919

D : 1925

Answer: Option C

EXPLANATION : The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919 , popularly known as the

Rowlatt Act or Black Act, was a legislative act passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in Delhi on
10

March 1919, indefinitely extending the emergency measures of preventive indefinite detention,

incarceration without trial and judicial review enacted in the Defence of India Act 1915 during the
First

World War.

Question number 76

Mahatma Gandhi launched Kheda Satyagrah on Gujrat in 1918 to support the cause of :
A : Mill Owners

B: Land Lords

C: The peasants

D : Kol Rebellion

Answer: Option C

EXPLANATION : The Kheda Satyagraha of 1918, in the Kheda district of Gujarat, India during the

period of the British Raj, was a Satyagraha movement organized by Mohandas Gandhi. It was a
major

revolt in the Indian independence movement. It was the third Satyagraha movement after
Champaran

Satyagraha and Ahmedabad mill strike. Gandhi organised this movement to support peasants of the

Kheda district. People of Kheda were unable to pay the high taxes levied by the British due to crop
failure

and a plague epidemic.

Question number 77

The East India Association was set up in :

A : 1866

B: 1857

C: 1836

D : 1885

Answer: Option A

The East India Association was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866, in collaboration with Indians
and

retired British officials in London. It superseded the London Indian Society and was a platform for

discussing matters and ideas about India, and to provide representation for Indians to the
Government.

Question number 78
'Ayurveda' has its origin in

A : Rig Veda

B: Sama Veda

C: Yajur Veda

D : Atharva Veda

Answer: Option D

EXPLANATION : The fundamentals on which the Ayurvedic system is based are essentially true for all

times and do not change from are to age. These are based on human actors, on intrinsic causes. The
origin

of Ayurveda is attributed to Atharva Veda where mention is made several diseases with their
treatments

Question number 79

Two popular Assemblies of the Vedic period were

A : Sabha and Mahasabha

B: Mahasabha and Ganasabha

C: Sabha and Samiti

D : Ur and Kula

Answer: Option C

EXPLANATION : The term Sabha denotes both the assembly (in early Rig-Vedic) and the assembly

hall (Later Rig-Vedic). Women who were called Sabhavati also attended this assembly. It was
basically a

kin-based assembly and the practice of women attending it was stopped in later-Vedic times. The

references to samiti come from the latest books of the Rig-Veda showing that it assumed
importance only

towards the end of the Rig-Vedic period. Samiti was a folk assembly in which people of the tribe
gathered

for transacting tribal business. It discussed philosophical issues and was concerned with religious
ceremonies and prayers. References suggest that the Rajan was elected and re-elected by the
Samiti.

Question number 80

The Rigvedic Aryans were governed by a

A : Tribal republic

B: Form of democracy

C: Monarchical government

D : Rule by elders

Answer: Option C

EXPLANATION : Monarchy was the normal form of Government. Kingship was hereditary. But there

was a sort of hierarchy in some states, several members of the royal family exercising the power in

common. There were references of democratic form of government and their chiefs were elected by
the

assembled people.

Question number 81

In the early Vedic-period, Varna system was based on

A : Education

B: Birth

C: Occupation

D : Talent

Answer: Option C

EXPLANATION : The terms varna (theoretical classification based on occupation). The classical

authors scarcely speak of anything other than the varnas. 'Varna' defines the hereditary roots of a

newborn, it indicates the colour, type, order or class of people.

Question number 82

The ritualistic precepts pertaining to the hymns of the Vedas are known as the

A : Samhitas

B: Aranyakas
C: Brahmanas

D : Upanishads

Answer: Option C

EXPLANATION : The Brahmanas are chiefly religious documents, including ritualistic precepts and

sacrificial duties.

Question number 83

The name of the Indian Astronomer (who knew five astronomical systems), who lived in the 6th
century

was

A : Varahamihira

B: Bhandarkar

C: Pujyapada

D : Prasastapada

Answer: Option A

EXPLANATION : Vārāhamihira (c. early 6th-century), also called Vārāha or Mihira, was a Hindu

polymath who lived in Ujjain (Madhya Pradesh, India). He was born in the Avanti region, roughly

corresponding to modern-day Malwa, to Adityadasa, who was himself an astronomer.

Question number 84

Who among the following was the pioneer of Yoga?

A : Patanjali

B: Banabhatta

C: Atreya

D : Vrudukanta

Answer: Option A

EXPLANATION : The compiler of the Yoga sūtras, a text on Yoga theory and practice, and a notable

scholar of Samkhya school of Hindu philosophy. There is a fourth Hindu scholar also named Patanjali,
who likely lived in 8th-century CE and wrote a commentary on Charaka Samhita and this text is
called

Carakavarttika.

Question number 85

The philosophical essence, The world is but God manifest and God is my own soul may be traced to

the

A : Vedas

B: Upanishadas

C: Puranas

D : Manusmriti

Answer: Option B

EXPLANATION : God is not merely the transcendent numinous other, but is also the universal spirit,

which is the basis of human personality and its ever renewing vitalizing power.

Question number 86

Which one of the following Vedas contains sacrificial formula?

A : Sama Veda

B: Rig Veda

C: Yajur Veda

D : Atharva Veda

Answer: Option C

EXPLANATION : Yajurveda is a compound Sanskrit word, composed of yajus and veda. Michael

Witzel interprets Yajurveda to mean a "knowledge text of prose mantras" used in Vedic rituals.
Ralph

Griffith interprets the name to mean "knowledge of sacrifice or sacrificial texts and formulas".

Question number 87

The Mauryan administration was highly

A : Decentralized

B: Bureaucratic

C: Centralized

D : Despotic

Answer: Option C

EXPLANATION : It can be appropriately claimed that the Mauryan administration system, though

monarchical, was sufficient because it had the privilege of possessing successful administrators such
as

Chandragupta Maurya, Bindusara Maurya and Ashoka

Question number 88

Harshavardhana organised his religious assembly at

A : Mathura

B: Prayag

C: Varanasi

D : Varanasi

Answer: Option B

EXPLANATION : Harsha organised religious assemblies every fifth year of his reign at Prayag

(Allahabad). He held six such assemblies during his reign. Whatever was left in the state treasury
after

five years, Harsha used to give it all in charity at that time. It is said that he used to distribute in
charity

even his personal belongings.

Question number 89

The author of 'Arthashastra' was a contemporary of

A : Ashoka

B: Chandragupta Maurya

C: Samudragupta

D : Chandragupta Vikramaditya

Answer: Option B
EXPLANATION : Kautilya, also known as Chanakya, was believed to be the chief minister in the court

of Chandragupta Maurya, a contemporary of Alexander and the first great emperor of India who
ruled the

subcontinent in the 4th Century BC.

Question number 90

Which event brought about a profound change in Ashoka's administrative policy?

A : The third Buddhist Council

B: The Kalinga War

C: His embracing of Buddhism

D : His sending missionary to Ceylon

Answer: Option B

EXPLANATION : The Kalinga War (ended c. 262 BCE) was fought in what is now India between the

Maurya Empire under Ashoka and the state of Kalinga, an independent feudal kingdom located on
the

east coast, in the present-day state of Odisha and north of Andhra Pradesh . The Kalinga War
included

one of the largest and bloodiest battles in Indian history. Despite an unexpectedly fierce resistance
from

the Kalingans, the Maurya Empire claimed victory and annexed the state of Kalinga. Kalinga did not
have

a king as it was culturally run without any. This is the only major war Ashoka fought after his
accession

to the throne. The bloodshed of this war is said to have prompted Ashoka to adopt Buddhism

Question number 91

Arrange the following Magadhan dynas es in chronological order I. Nandas

II. Shisu nagas

III. Mauryas

IV. Hariyankas
A : IV, II, III and I

B: II, I, IV and III

C: IV, II, I and III

D : III, I, IV and II

Answer: Option C

EXPLANATION : Magadhan dynasties in chronological order: Haryankas (544 - 412 BC) Shishunags

(412 - 344 BC) Nandas (344 - 322 BC) Mauryans (323 - 184BC)

Question number 92

The year of accession of Kanishka to throne was

A : 108 AD

B: 78 AD

C: 58 AD

D : 128AD

Answer: Option B

EXPLANATION : Earlier scholars believed that Kanishka ascended the Kushan throne in 78 CE, and

that this date was used as the beginning of the Saka calendar era. However, historians no longer
regard

this date as that of Kanishka's accession.

Question number 93

Which of the following does not represent an important source material for the Mauryan period?

A : Literary works

B: Foreign accounts

C: Numismatic evidence

D : Epigraphic sources

Answer: Option C

EXPLANATION : Numismatic evidence indicates that they controlled territory in the subcontinent
until

the beginning of the Common Era. The Scythian tribes, renamed Indo-Scythians, brought about the
demise of the Indo-Greeks in 70 B.C.E., seizing the region of Mathura, and Gujarat

Question number 94

The capital of Kanishka was

A : Puruspura

B: Benares

C: Allahabad

D : Sarnath

Answer: Option A

EXPLANATION : Purushapura(Peshawar) was the capital of Kanishka.

Question number 95

Charak was the famous court physician of

A : Harsha

B: Chandra Gupta Maurya

C: Ashoka

D : Kanishka

Answer: Option D

EXPLANATION : Charak was the court physician of Kanishka I. He was one of the principal

contributors to the ancient art and science of Ayurveda, a system of medicine and lifestyle
developed in

Ancient India. He is sometimes referred to as the Father of Indian Medicine.

Question number 96

Who among the following has written the play of Mudrarakshasa (narrates the ascent of the king

Chandragupta Maurya)?

A : Kautilya

B: Vishakhadatta

C: Kalidasa
D : Panini

Answer: Option B

EXPLANATION : The Mudrarakshasa is a Sanskrit-language play by Vishakhadatta that narrates the

ascent of the king Chandragupta Maurya ( r . c. 324 – c. 297 BCE) to power in India.

Question number 97

Assertion (A): Chandragupta Maurya failed in his first campaign against Magadha.

Reason (R): He did not begin with the frontiers, but invaded the heart of Magadha.

A : Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A

B: Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A

C: A is true but R is false

D : A is false but R is true

Answer: Option A

EXPLANATION : The Maurya Empire was a geographically-extensive Iron Age historical power based

in Magadha and founded by Chandragupta Maurya which dominated ancient India between 322 and
187

BCE

Question number 98

The Sultan of Delhi who transferred two monolithic Mauryan pillars to Delhi to beautify his capital,
was

A : Iltutmish

B: Alauddin Khalji

C: Firuz Tughluq

D : Muhammad-bin-Tughluq

Answer: Option C

EXPLANATION : Firuz Tughluq, The Sultan of Delhi who transferred two monolithic Mauryan pillars

to Delhi to beautify his capital. Sultan Firuz Shah Tughlaq was a Turkic Muslim ruler of the Tughlaq
Dynasty, who reigned over the Sultanate of Delhi from 1351 to 1388. His father's name was Rajab
who

had the title Sipahsalar.

Question number 99

The Monk whom Chandragupta Maurya accompanied to South India was __________

A : Asvaghosa

B: Vasumitra

C: Upagupta

D : Bhadrabahu

Answer: Option D

EXPLANATION : Acharya Bhadrabahu (c. 367 - c. 298 BCE) was, according to the Digambara sect of

Jainism, the last Shruta Kevalin in Jainism. He was the last acharya of the undivided Jain sangha. He
was

the last spiritual teacher of Chandragupta Maurya.

Question number 100

Who were the first kings to issue gold coins in India?

A : Mauryas

B: Indo-Greeks

C: Guptas

D : Kushans

Answer: Option B

EXPLANATION : The Indo-Greeks were the first rulers in India to issue coins which can definitely be

attributed to the kings. They were the first to issue gold coins in India.

Exam Topic: [Full Marks – 100]

1) Cell Structure

2) Human Anatomy
3) Photosynthesis

4) Vitamins

5) Digestive System

6) Circulatory System

7) Endocrine Glands and Hormones

8) Respiratory System

9) Diseases and Vaccines

10) Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology

11) Environment and Ecology

1. Which organelle in the cell, other than the nucleus contains DNA?

(A) Centriole

(B) Golgi apparatus

(C) Lysosome

(D) Mitochondrion

Ans-D) Mitochondrion

Mitochondrion is a double-membrane bound organelle found in most Eukaryotic organism. They

are known as power house of cell and help in cellular respiration. The mitochondrion has its own

independent genome (DNA) and is substantially similar to bacterial genomes.

2. What is not found in the animal cell?

(A) Cell wall of cellulose

(B) Nucleus

(C) Mitochondria

(D) None of these

Ans-(A) Cell wall of cellulose

Cell wall is a structural layer present outside the cell membrane. It can be tough, flexible or

sometimes rigid. It is found only in plants, fungi, algae, most bacteria and archaea but not in

animal cells. The cell wall helps to maintain the Turgor Pressure.
3. Which part of the animal cell is called power house?

(A) Cell wall

(B) Nucleus

(C) Mitochondria

(D) Entire cell

Ans-(C) Mitochondria

Mitochondria are tiny organelles inside cells that are involved in releasing energy from food.

This process is called Celular Respiration. It is for this reason that mitochondria are called power

house of the cell.

4. Which of the following cell organelles plays the mostsignificant role in protein synthesis?

(A) Lysosome and Centrosome

(B) Endoplasmic Reticulum and Ribosome

(C) Golgi apparatus and Mitochondrion

(D) Lysosome and Mitochondrion

Ans-(B) Endoplasmic Reticulum and Ribosome

Endoplasmic reticulum is an organelle found in Euka Cell and it together with ribosomes is

involved in pro synthesis and secretion. Ribosomes are large membranous RNA-protein

complexes which are neces for protein synthesis.

5. Which of the following is not a part of nucleous?

(A) Ribosome

(B) Nucleolus

(C) Chromosome

(D) Gene

Ans-(A) Ribosomes

Ribosomes are found free in the cytoplasm or bound to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). They
are composed of special proteins and nucleic acids. While Nucleus comprises of Nucleoplasm (a

thick fluid forming the ground substance of the nucleus similar to cytoplasm which is present

outside the nucleus), Chromatin (thread like structure comprising of DNA, which are also

carriers of genes), Chromosomes (rod shaped nuclear structure carrying DNA which itself carries

numerous genes), Nucleolus (a little round granular structure containing RNA and some

proteins).

6. Bacterial cell wall is mainly composed of?

(A) Cellulose

(B) Lignin

(C) Peptidoglycan

(D) Glycoprotein

Ans-(C) Peptidoglycan

The major component of the bacterial cell wall is Peptidoglycan or Murein which is made from

polysaccride chairs cross-linked by unusual peptides. Which is specific to Prokaryotes Plant cell

wall is mainly composed of strong fibers of carbohydrate polymer cellulose while Fungal cell

wall are composed of chitin, glucans and proteins.

7. Engullment of liquid particle into cell is known as?

(A) Endocytosis

(B) Pinocytosis

(C) Phagocytosis

(D) Transcytosis

Ans-(A) Endocytosis

Endocytosis is the process of actively transporting molecules into the cell by engulfing it with it's

membrane. Exocytosis pushes molecules out of the cell. Pinocytosis or fluid endocytosis is the

process by which cell absorbs liquid from extra cellular fluid through invagination of the cell
membrane. Phagocytosis involves greater intake of solid particles also called cell eating.

Transcytosis refers to transportation of cell molecules within the cell.

8. Which cells are capable of changing shapes?

(A) Amoeba

(B) Leukocytes

(C) Both of them

(D) None of the above

Ans-C) Both of them

Leukocytes or White Blood Cells are capable of changing their shape which helps them to kill

germs by engulfing them. Amoeba can change its shape with the help of pseudopodia

(projections of it's body). The pseudopodia helps Amoeba to capture it's food and move from one

place to another.

9. Which of the following facts are true about Eukaryoticcells?

(1)They are advanced and complete cells, but membrane bound cell organelles are absent.

(2) Bacteria and Mycoplasma are examples of Euraryotic cells.

(A)Only (1)

(B) Only (2)

(C)Both (1) and (2)

(D) None of them

Ans-D) None of them

Eukaryotic cells are well advanced complete cells with the presence of membrane bound cell

organelles and have a well defined Nucleus. Animal and Plant cells are examples. Prokaryotic

cells are primitive and incomplete, lacking a well defined nucleus and membrane bound cell

organelles. Examples: Bacteria and Mycoplasma.

10. Which of these is the most abundant element foundin the human body?

(A) Iron

(B) Sodium
(C) Oxygen

(D) Iodine

Ans-C) Oxygen

The human body is composed mainly of six elements: oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen,

calcium and phosphorus. The most abundant element is Oxygen which constitutes about 65% of

the body.

11. The number of bones in an adult human body is?

(A) 204

(B) 206

(C) 208

(D) 210

Ans-(B) 206

The human skeleton is the internal framework of the body. It is composed of around 270 bones at

birth. It decreases to around 206 bones by adulthood due to fusion of some bones.

12. What is arthroplasty in surgery?

(A) Open heart surgey

(B) Hip joint replacement

(C)Kidney transplant

(D)Blood transfusion

Ans-C) Kidney transplant

Arthroplasty is an orthopedic surgical procedure where the articular surface of a musculoskeletal

joint is replaced, remodelled or realigned. The replacement of hip joint is called Hip-arthroplasty.

13. How many pairs of nerves arise from the spins?

(A) 13

(B) 31
(C) 33

(D) 12

Ans-B) 31

In humans, 31 pair of peripheral nerves arise from the spinal cord. It consists of 8 cervical, 12

thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coceygeal. Each pair connects the spinal cord with a specific

region of the body.

14. Which of the following is the strongest part of ourbody?

(A) Bone

(B) Enamel

(C) Dentin

(D) Cementum

15. The brain is responsible for which of the following?

(A) Thinking

(B) Regulating the heartbeat

(C) Balancing the body

(D) All of the above

16. In a human brain, Memory is stored in?

(A) Medulla oblongata

(B) Cerebrum

(C) Brain cavity

(D) Cerebellum

17. Stem cells are present in?

(A) Brain

(B) Skeletal muscles

(C) Bone marrow

(D)All of them

Ans-(D) All of them

Stem cells are undifferentiated cells that can turn into specific cells as per the need of body.

They originate from two main sources : Adult body tissues and Embryos.

Somatic stem cells or Adult stem cells exist throughout the body from the time an embryo

Ans-(B) Enamel

Enamel is a thin outer covering of the tooth. This tough shell is the hardest tissue in the

human body. Enamel covers the crown which is the part of the tooth that is visible outside

of the gums.

Ans-(D) All of the above

The brain is an organ that is made up of large mass of nenes tissues, protected within the

skull. It plays many vitamin functions. The Cerebrum is associated with thinking."

Medulla Oblongata is associated with the control functions of heart and lungs and the

Cerebellum is associate with maintaining posture, equilibrium and balance.

Ans-(B) Cerebrum

The Cerebrum is the largest part of the human brain, associated with higher brain

functions such as thought and action. It controls voluntary functions through Central

Nervous system along with thinking, vision and hearing. The frontal lobe of Cerebrum

handles thinking, planning and memory. Cerebellum receives information from sensory

parts spinal cord and regulates motor movements. Medulla Oblongata controls

involuntary functions like breathing, heart and blood vessel function.

develops. Stem cells are present in brain, bone marrow, blood vessels, skeletal muscles and liver.

They can divide or self renew indefinitely i.e. they can generate various cell types from the

originating organ or even regenerate the original organ. Around 3-5 days after the sperm

fertilizes an egg, the embryo takes the form of a blastocyst (ball of cells) that contains stem cells
called embryonic stem cells that are used for research purposes.

18. A degenerative condition associated with the wearingaway of the protective caps of

carilage covering the bone ends is called –

(A) Osteoporosis

(B) Osteoarthritis

(C) Tendinitis

(D) Rheumatoid

Ans-(B)Osteoarthritis

Osteoarthritis is wearing down of protective tissue of at the ends of bones. Osteoporosis is a

disease affecting older, postmenopausal women due to lack of calcium. Tendinitis and bursitis

are inflammations of the tendon sheaths. Rheumatoid arthritis is a severely damaging arthritis

that begins with inflammation and thickening of synovial membrane.

19. Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) Tendons attach skeletal muscles across joints

(2) Sternum allows for the flexibility of the rib cage.

(A) Only (1)

(B) Only (2)

(C) Both of them

(D) None of the above

Ans- (A) Tendons attach skeletal muscles across joints

Tendons attach skeletal muscles across joints, allowing muscle contraction to move the bones

across the joint. When one muscle flexes the other relaxes through a process known as

antagonism.

The Sternum is connected to all the ribs except the lower pair while it's the Cartilage that allows

for the flexibility of the ribcage during breathing.

20. Which are of the following gas is essential forphotosynthesis process?

(A) CO
(B) CO,

(C) N,

(D) 0

Ans-(B) CO

Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants utilize CO, and water in the presence of

sunlight to form glucose and oxygen.

21. Oxygen which is liberated during photosynthesis, comes from which of the following?

(A) Water

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Chlorophyll

(D) Phosphoglyceric acid

22. Most of the oxygen on earth is produced by?

(A) Grasses

(B) Algae

(C) Trees

(D) Paddy field

23. Photosynthesis occurs in which of these?

(A) Nucleus

(B) Mitochondria

(C) Chlorophyll

(D) Peroxisome

24. Artificial light can lead to which of these?

(A) Destroy chlorophyll

(B) Synthesize chlorophyll

(C) Bring about photosynthesis

(D) Not bring about photosynthesis

25. Phloem in plants is mainly responsible for -

Ans-A)Water

In the process of photosynthesis, photolysis of water is the main source of

oxygen. Photolysis is defined as the splitting OTH, O molecule into

hydrogen ions, electrons and oxygen in the presence of light (photons).

Ans- (B) Algae

It is observed that 50-85% of the oxygen in the earth's atmosphere is produced by

phytoplanktons (algae) and released into the water. The rest is produced via

photosynthesis on land by trees, shrubs, grasses and other plants.

Ans- (C) Chlorophyll

Photosynthesis begins when energy from light is absorbed by proteins called reaction

centres that contain a green pigment called chlorophyll.

Ans- (C) Bring about photosynthesis

Artificial light can bring out photosynthesis, as photon from the sun may be no different

from one emitted by a light bulb, they may only be different in intensity or color.

However, the rate at which photosynthesis occurs is dependent on the spectral emissions

of the light source.

(A) Transportation of food

(B) Transportation of amino acid

(C) Transportation of oxygen

(D) Transportation of water

26. In case of cellular respiration the electron transport chain occurs at the beginning while in

case of photosynthesis it comes at the end of the process.

(A) Only (1)

(B) Only (2)

(C) Both (1) and (2)

(D) None of them

Ans- (A) Only (1)

Photosynthetic organisms attempt to foment glucose as a food source whereas organisms that

utilize cellular respiration break down glucose into ATP, which is the main energy carrier of

the cell. Photosynthesis uses the energy obtained from light to free electrons from the

chlorophyll pigments that collect the light. Chlorophyll molecules do not have an infinite supply

of electrons, so they gain the lost electron from a molecule of water. Oxygen is created as a by

product, and expelled into the atmosphere. In cellular respiration the electron transport chain

occurs after glucose has been broken down. Eight molecules of NADPH and two molecules of

FADH, remain, these molecules donate electrons and hydrogen ions to the electron transport

chain.

27. Which of the following statement, is incorrect about NADPH?

(A) It is a product of first stage of photosynthesis

(B) It fuels the reactions to the second stage

(C) It acts as an oxidant

(D) It is a source of electrons in nitrogen fixation

28. Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) ADP is formed when a phosphate group is added to ATP.

Ans- (A) Transportation of food

Phloem, also called bast is a tissue in plant that transports food made in the leaves to all

parts of the plant. Whereas, Xylem is concerned with the transportation of water.

Ans- (C) It acts as an oxidant

NADPH acts as an antioxidant. It provides the reducing equivalents for oxidation

reduction involved in protecting against species (ROS).

(2)The reactions in the first stage of photo may not require light to proceed.

(A) Only (1)

(B) Only (2)

(C) Both of them

(D) None of them

29. Chlorophylls are most sensitive to which light?

(1) Blue (2) Green (3)Red

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (2) and (3)

(C) (1) and (3)

(D) All of them

30. Which of the following is a major source of Vitamin C?

(A) Raw and fresh fruits

(B) Milk

(C) Ghee

(D) Pulses

31. Which vitamin helps in healing the wounds?

(A) Vitamin B

(B) Vitamin C

(C) Vitamin A

Ans- (D) None of them

ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) is formed when a pho group is added to ADP

(Adenosine diphosphatelina called photophosphorylation, when light en converted to

chemical energy. The reactions in the stage of photosynthesis require light in order to

an the main objective is to convert light energy (from the sun to chemical energy

Ans- (C) (1) and (3)

Chlorophyll, present on the membrane of Thylakoids absorbs the Red and Blue segment

of the white light since photosynthesis occurs most effectively at these wavelengths.

When the light falls on the plant, the chlorophyll pigment absorbs this light and electrons

in it get excited. The process occurs inal complex protein system collectively called

Photosystem.

Ans- (A) Raw and fresh fruits

Vitamin C is a water soluble vitamin, needed for normal growth and development.

Vitamin C is found in Broccoli, cauliflower, citrus fruits, spinach, green and red

peppers, turnip greens and other leafy greens etc.

(D) Vitamin D

32. Which of the following is a major source of Vitamin D?

(A) Lemon

(B) Sunrays

(C) Orange

(D) Cashewnut

33. Which of the following vitamins is used as an antidote to anticoagulant poisons?

(A) Vitamin A

(B) Vitamin D

(C) Vitamin E

(D) Vitamin

Ans- (D) Vitamin

Vitamin K plays an important role in blood clotting. It is also called anti hemorrhagic factor.

Hence, it is used as an antidote to anticoagulant poisons as it helps in the formation of clot and

reduces bleeding.

34. Which of the following is synthesised by intestinal bacteria?

(A) Vitamin B2

(B) Vitamin C

(C) Vitamin K

(D) Both (A) and (C)

Ans-(B) Vitamin C

Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is required for the synthesis of collagen. It

is an effective antioxidant, protecting cells from damage by free radicals. It also

helps in the healing process of wounds.

Ans- (B) Sunrays

The best source of Vitamin D is sunrays. It is produced by body in response to skin

being exposed to sunlight. It also occurs naturally in fish, fish liver oils, egg yorks etc.

Hence, it is also called sunshine vitamin.

Ans- (D) Both (A) and (C)

Intestinal bacteria are apparently of much greater importance to animal nutrition.

Vitamin K, thiamine, riboflavin, niacin and biotin are synthesized by Intestinal bacteria.

35. The deficiency of vitamin D causes which disease?

(A) Rickets

(B) Beri-Beri

(C) Osteoporosis

(D) Both (A) and (C)

36. Which of the following converts milk to curd?

(A) Bacteria

(B) Vitamin

(C) Enzyme

(D) None of the above

37. Cow milk is yellowish white in colour due to the presence of which of the following?

(A) Caesin

(B) Lactose

(C) Carotene together with Casein

(D) Butyric acid together with Lactose

Ans- (C) Carotene together with Casein

Cow fat contains a coloring pigment called Beta-carotene (a Carotenoid which is precursor of

Vitamin-A). The pigment gets carried over into the fat in their milk. Cow's milk is about 87%

water and 13% solids.

38. Which of the following substance responsible for bread making quality in wheat?

(A) Gluten

(B) Globulin

(C) Glycine

Ans- (D) Both (A) and (C)

The low Vitamin D levels can cause Osteoporosis, Cancer, Depression, Rickets etc.

Osteoporosis causes bones to become weak and brittle, with body bones. Rickets is

caused in children, leads to weak bones and bowed legs. Both are caused due to

Vitamin D deficiency.

Ans-(A) Bacteria

Milk is converted into curd or yogurt by the process of fermentation. Milk

consists of globular protein called casein. The curd is formed by chemical

reaction between lactic acid bacteria and casein.

(D) Lysine

39. Hair is composed of which of the following protein?

(A) Globulin
(B) Mucin

(C) Keratin

(D) Casein

40. Which Vitamin is also known as Thiamine?

(A) Vitamin C

(B) Vitamin B,

(C) Vitamin B6

(D) Vitamin B

41. Deficiency of which vitamin causes night blindness?

(A) Vitamin B

(B) Vitamin C

(C) Vitamin A

(D) Vitamin E

Ans- (A) Gluten

Gluten is the protein found in wheat which helps food maintain their shape, acting

as a glue. It is associated with bread making. It gives elasticity to dough and

provides it texture.

Ans- (C) Keratin

Keratin is a fibrous structural protein and is the key material making up hair, horns,

claws, hooves and outer layer of human skin. It is insoluble in water and organic

solvents.

Ans-(D) Vitamin B

Thiamine is a Vitamin, also called Vitamin B,. It is found in many foods including

yeast and cereal grains, assiste body to properly use carbohydrates. Its deficiency

causes a disease called beri-beri.

Ans- (C) Vitamin A

Night blindness is also called nyctalopia. It's a type of vision impairment. Vitamin
A deficiency is one of the reason for night blindness. Vitamin A, also called retinol,

plays a role in transforming nerve impulses into images in the retina.

42. In human body, Vitamin A is stored in which of them?

(A) Liver

(B) Pancreas

(C) Spleen

(D) Stomach

43. In human body most of the digestive process, takes place in which of these?

(A) Pancreas

(B) Large intestine

(C) Small intestine

(D) Stomach

44. The saliva helps in the digestion of which of these?

(A) Starch

(B) Proteins

(C) Fibres

(D) Fat

45. Cellulose is made up of which of the following?

(A) Glucose

Ans- (A) Liver

Vitamin A is a fat soluble vitamin and the fat soluble vitamins are stored in Liver.

Other such vitamins are D, E and K.

Ans- (C) Small intestine

Some digestion begins in the stomach, most digestion and absorption takes place in the

small intestine. The nutrients freed by digestion are absorbed through the lining of the
intestine got as corption occurs in it and microvilli help in increased absorption.

Ans- (A) Starch

Saliva contains the enzyme called amylase that breaks starch into maltose and dextrin. It

also helps in moistoning of food, cleaning of food debris and has antibacterial effect. It

also prevents a sudden change in pH.

(B) Fructose

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) (+) – Galactose

46. Enzymes are which of the following?

(A) Fats

(B) Sugars

(C) Proteins

(D) Vitamins

47. Which enzyme can catalyze the conversion of glucose to ethanol?

(A) Zymase

(B) Invertase

(C) Maltose

(D) Diastase

48. Which one of the following is not a digestive enzyme in the human system?

(A) Trypsin

(B) Gastrin

(C) Ptyalin

(D) Pepsin

Ans- (A) Glucose

Cellulose in a polysaccharide consisting of a linear chain of several hundereds to many to

thousands of glucose units. It is an important structural component of the primary cell

wall of green plants.

Ans- (C) Proteins

Enzymes are macromolecular biological catalysts. They accelerate chemical reactions.

Most enzymes are proteins, although a few are catalytic RNA molecules. Enzymes increase

the reaction rate by lowering its activation energy.

Ans- (A) Zymase

Zymase is an enzyme complex that catalyses the fermentation of sugar into ethanol and

carbon dioxide. It occurs naturally in yeast.

Ans- (B) Gastrin

Gastrin is a Peptide hormone that stimulates secretion of gastric acid (HCL) by the

parietal cells of the stomach. It is released by G-cells of the stomach, duodenum and the

pancreas. It is directly responsible for release of gastric acid, which breaks down proteins.

49. Which enzyme helps in digestion of protein?

(A) Urease

(B) Sulfatase

(C) Trypsin

(D) Protease

50. In the human body, which structure is the appendix attached to?

(A) The large intestine

(B) The small intestine

(C) The gall bladder

(D) The stomach

51. Nutraceuticals are products which have?

(A) Nutrients, Vitamins and Minerals

(B) Nutrients, Proteins and fatty acids

(C) Nutrients and toxic effect

(D) Nutrients and Medicinal effects

52. The process by which blood is purified in human body is known as?

(A) Dialysis

(B) Haemolysis

Ans- (C) Trypsin

Trypsin is a found in the digestive system and helps in hydrolyzing the proteins. It is in

the small intestine. It cleaves peptide chains. Trypsin was discovered in 1876 by Wilhelm

Kuhne.

Ans- (A) The large intestine

Appendix sits at the junction of small and large intestine. It is a thin tube about four

inches long. It is in the lower right side of the abdomen. Lympathic tissue in the appendix

aid in immune function. Although it is a part of our gastrointestinal tract, it's a vestigial

organ.

Ans- (D) Nutrients and Medicinal effects

A Nutraceutical also called bioceuticals is a pharmaceutical grade and standarised

nutrient. They are derived from food sources that provide extra health benefits in addition

to the basic nutritional value found in foods.

(C) Osmosis

(D) Paralysis

53. When kidney fails to function, there is accumulation of which of the following?

(A) Fats in the body

(B) Proteins in the body

(C) Sugar in the body

(D) Nitrogenous waste products in the body

54. Which among the following is responsible for the formation of stone in human kidney?

(A) Calcium acetate

(B) Calcium oxalate

(C) Sodium acetate

(D) Sodium benzoate

55. Albumin is produced by which of these?

(A) Pancreas

(B) Jejunum

(C) Liver

(D) Stomach

Ans- (A) Dialysis

Dialysis is the process of removing excess water, solutes and toxins from the blood in

people whose kidneys can no longer perform these functions naturally. They help in

keeping a safe level of potassium, sodium and bicarbonate.

Ans- (D) Nitrogenous waste products in the body

The term renal failure denotes inability of the kidneys to perform excretory functions

leading to retention of nitrogenous waste products in the blood.

Ans- (B) Calcium oxalate

Kidney stones are the result of accumulation of dissolved minerals on the inner lining of

the kidneys. They usually consist of Calcium oxalate. People with kidney stones are at| a

higher risk of developing chronic kidney disease.

Ans- (C) Liver

Albumin is a blood protein that makes up a significant portion of the blood plasma (Plasma

is the liquid portion | of the blood that holds the proteins and blood cells). AS a major

protein in blood plasma, albumin plays a vital role maintaining pressure in the blood vessels

and transports substances low level of albumin in blood causes Hypoalbuminemia, because
of which the blood may be able to transport essential materials effectively. Album is

produced by liver, hence Hypoalbuminemia can result of cirrhosis, liver cancer, hepatitis or

any alco related liver malfunction.

56. Average blood pressure of a human is?

(A) 60/100

(B) 20/80

(C) 60/140

(D) 120/80

57. Which of the following instrument measures blood pressure?

(A) Spherometer

(B) Anemometer

(C) Sphygmomanometer

(D) Ammeter

58. The blood group of a universal donor is?

(A) B

(B) O

(C) A

(D) AB

59. Blood group AB can accept blood from a person of which blood group?

(A) Aonly

(B) Bonly

(C) ABonly

(D) Any Group

Ans-(D) 120/80

Blood pressure is the force that moves blood through our circulatory system.
The Blood pressure reading consists of two figures- the systolic pressure and diastolic

pressure. The normal systolic pressure is 120 mm Hg and diastolic is 80 mm of Hg

Ans-(C) Sphygmomanometer

A sphygmomanometer also known as a blood pressure meter, isa device used to measure

blood pressure. It is composedof an inflatable cuff, a mercury or mechanical manometer

to measure the pressure.

Ans-(B) O

Type O negative blood is called the universal donor type because it is compatible with

any blood type. Type AB" blood is called the universal recipient type because a person

who has it can receive blood of any type. O makes up only 6.6% of the population.

Ans-(D) Any Group

Type AB' blood group is called the universal recipient type because a person who has it

can receive blood of any type.

60. Rh factor derives its name from a type of?

(A) Ape

(B) Human

(C) Monkey

(D) Rat

61. A married couple adopted a male child. A few year later twin boys were born to them.

The blood group of the couple is AB' and O. The blood group of the three son is A', B'

and O'. The blood group of adopted son is?

(A) O positive

(B) A positive

(C) B positive

(D) Cannot be determined on the basis of given data

62. Which of the following is the pH value of blood?

(A) 5.0

(B) 6.4

(C) 7.4

(D) 8.0

63. Insulin is produced by which of the following?

(A) Islets of Langerhans

(B) Pituitary gland

(C) Thyroid gland

(D) Adrenal gland

Ans-(C) Monkey

Rhesus (Rh) Blood Group was discovered by Laudsteiner andWiener inthe blood of

rhesus monkey. Depending upon the presence and absence of rhesus antigen on the

surface ofRBC, individualsare categorized as Rh positive (Rh*) and Rh negative (Rh).

Ans- (A)O positive

As per the statement the blood groupof parentsisAB'andO group will be A or B and Rh'

being dominant will itself.

Hence, the blood group of twins will be A', B' and the child will be O'.

Ans-(C) 7.4

Blood is the most common body fluid consisting of plasma blood corpuscles etc. It is

slightly alkaline with a PH of 7.4.

Ans-(A) Islets of Langerhans

Insulin is a peptide hormone produced by Beta cells of pancreatic islets. Beta cells are

sensitiveto concentration, when glucose level is high they secrete and when the glucose level

is low they inhibit its secretion.

64. Which glandsecretes the milk ejecting hormone oxytocin?

(A) Pituitary gland

(B) Thyroid gland

(C) Parathyroid gland

(D) Adrenal gland

65. Which hormone is injected in cows and buffaloes to make the milk descend to the

udders?

(A) Somatotropin

(B) Oxytocin

(C) Interferon

(D) Insulin

66. Which hormone is related to drought tolerance?

(A) Abscisic acid

(B) Gibberellin

(C) Indole acetic acid

(D) Cytokinin

67. Which of these is the lodine containing hormone?

(A) Thyroxine

(B)Insulin

(C) Adrenaline

(D)Estrogen

Ans-(A) Pituitary gland

Oxytocin is produced in the hypothalamus and is secreted into the bloodstream by posterior

pituitary gland Secretion on electrical activity of neurons in the hypothalamus. The two main

actions are - Contraction of during child birth and lactation.

Ans- (B) Oxytocin

Oxytocin is a pituitary hormone, in dairy farming it is injected to increase milk production by

3%. Food safety regulations in India are silent about its use.

Ans-(A) Abscisic acid

Abscisic acid (ABA) is the central regulator of abiotic stress resistance in plantsand
co ordinatesanarray of func ons enabling plants to cope with different stresses like - drought salt

tolerance and low temperature.

Ans-(A) Thyroxine

Thyroxine is the main hormone secreted into the blood stream by the thyroid gland. It is

composed partially of iodine the deficiency of iodine leads to decreased production of

thyroxin and results in a condition called goitre.

68. Of the following, which hormone is associated with fight or flight concept?

(A) Insulin

(B) Adrenaline

(C) Estrogen

(D) Oxytocin

69. In human body, which one of the followinghormones regulates blood calcium and

phosphate?

(A) Glucagon

(B) Growth hormone

(C) Parathyroid hormone

(D) Thyroxine

70. Short chainsof amino Acids secretedby parathyroid, liver and kidneys are Called?

(A) Steroids

(B) Peptides

(C) Amines

(D) Hormones

71. Antidiuretic hormone is produced by which of the following gland?

(A) Thyroid

(B) Adrenal

(C) Pancreas

(D) Hypothalamus

Ans-(B) Adrenaline

Adrenaline is also calledepinephrine, is ahormone, and medication. It is produced both by

glands and neurons. It plays a vital role in the flightresponse by increasing blood flow to

muscles, blood level and output of heart.

Ans-(C) Parathyroid hormone

Parathyroid hormone is secreted by parathyroid gland in response to low calcium level. This

hormone indirectly stimulates boneforming cells (osteoclasts) by elevating the blood serum

level of Ca *2. Thus, helping in bone formation.

Ans-(B) Peptides

Hormones are trifurcated into Steroids, Peptide sane Steroids are lipids derived from

cholesterol. Steric are secreted bygonads, adrenalcortex are Peptides are short chains of

amino acids (mon are peptides) secreted bypituitary, parathyroid stomach, liver and kidneys.

Amines are derived from acid tyrosine and are secreted from thyroid adrenal medulla.

72. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is associated with a disease that affects organs of –

(A) Respiration

(B) Excretion

(C) Reproduction

(D) Digestion

73. Which membrane covers the lungs?

(A) Pleura

(B) Peritonium
(C) Pericardium

(D) Mesothelium

74. Respiration is which among the following?

(A) Oxidation

(B) Reduction

(C) Hydrolysis

(D) Amination

75. During respiration exchange of gases takes place in?

Ans- (D) Hypothalamus

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and Oxytocin are produced in the Hypothalamus. ADH

regulates water balance and blood pressures. Oxytocin is a peptide hormone that

stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth.

Ans-A) Respiration

Mycoplasma is a bacteria that is associated with lung Infection (Mycoplasma

pneumoniae). It most oftenly affects the children and young adults. It spreads through

contact with droplets from nose and throat.

Ans-A) Pleura

Pleura is a delicate membrane that closely covers the surface of the lungs and protects the

lungs in the thoracic cavity.

Ans-A) Oxidation

Respiration is an oxidation reaction process in cellular metabolism that involves the

sequential degradation of food substances and generation of energy. It is of two types •

Aerobic (in presence of Oxygen) and Anaerobic Respiration (in the absence of Oxygen).

Ans-A) Respiration is an oxidation reaction process in cellular metabolism that involves

the sequential degradation of food substances and generation of energy. It is of two types

• Aerobic (in presence of Oxygen) and Anaerobic Respiration (in the absence of Oxygen).
(A) Bronchi (B) Alveoli (C) Trachea (D) Oesophagus

76. The normal range of breathing rate per minute of an average adult person is?

(A) 9-12

(B)21-24

(C) 12-20

(D)30-33

77. Which of the following lack lungs for gas exchange/respiration?

(A) Annelids

(B) Sponges

(C) Anthropods

(D) All of them

78. Which one of the following human organ is responsible for detoxification of alcohol?

(A) Liver

(B) Lung

(C) Heart

(D) Kidney

79. Dengue is a fever caused and transmitted to another human by -

(A) Virus and female Aedes mosquito

(B) Bacteria and female Culex mosquito

Ans-B)Alveoli

Alveoli a basic functional unit of lungs, (approx 300 million in number in humans)

specialisedairfilled sacks which are richly supplied with blood capillarles, Exchange of

gases takes place at the alveolar level.

Ans-(B) 21-24

Respiratory rate is the number of the breath a person takes per minute. The normal

respiration rate for an adult at rest is 12-20 breaths per minute.

Ans-D) All of them

Sponges and Jelly fish respire directly from pores in the epidermis, similarly flatworms

and annelids use body walls for respiration, while anthropods, annelids and fish use gills

while mose of terrestrial vertebrates utilize internal lungs for respiration.

Ans-(A)

The liver helps filter and detoxify the alcohol with the help of enzymes and oxygen. The

enzyme used in alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH). ADH breakdowns alcohol into

acetaldehyde and later another enzyme breaks it to acetate. It is further metabolised to

carbon dioxide and water.

Alcohol ADH Acetaldehyde ALDH, Acetate

(C) Fungus and female Aedes mosquito

(D) Protozoan and female Anopheles mosquito

80. Yellow fever is spread by which of these?

(A) Air

(B) Water

(C) Housefly

(D) None of these

81. Which of the following parasite is responsible for 65 of the cases of malaria in India?

(A) P. malariae

(B) P. vivex

(C) P. talciparum

(D) P. ovale

82. Anthophobia is a fear of -

(A) Boss

(B) Fire
(C) Flowers

(D) Dogs

83. Which ofthe following disease is caused by swelling of the membrane ofspinal cord and

brain?

(A) Leukemia

(B) Paralysis

Ans-(A) Virus and female Aedes mosquito

Dengue fever is a mosquito-borne tropical disease caused by the dengue virus. It is spread

by several species of mosquito of the Aedes type, principally AedesAegypti. It causes

high fever, headache, vomiting, muscle and joint pain.

Ans-(D) None of these

Yellow fever is a disease caused by yellow fever virus and is spread by the bite of an

infected female mosquito. It infects only humans and primates. It is spread primarily by

Aedesaegyptis. The virusis endemic in tropical areas of Africa a central and South

America.

Ans-(B) P. vivex

Malaria is a life threatening disease causedby parasite belonging to plasmodium group.

Plasmodium vivex is responsible for 65% of the cases of malaria.

Ans-(C) Flowers

The extreme and often irrational fear of flowers is calledAnthophobia. Sufferers

experience anxiety though they nowthat they face nothreat from flowers.

(C) Sclerosis

(D) Meningitis

84. The blue baby pollutiondiseaseor blue baby syndrome is due to excessive presence of

which of the following indrinkingwater?

(A) Fluoride

(B) Chloride

(C) Nitrate

(D) Arsenic

85. In medical terminology Golden Hour is related with?

(A) Terminal stage of Cancer

(B) Pregnancy detection

(C) Hour following a traumatic injury

(D) Actual Child Birth

86. The famous Bubble Baby Disease is so called because

(A) It is caused by water bubble

(B) The suffering baby makes bubbles of saliva

(C) The suffering baby is treated in a germ-free plastic bubble

(D) It is cured through water bubble

87. Which of the followingis the first living cloned engineered organism by human?

(A) Dolly

Ans-(D) Meningitis

Meningitis is the inflammation ofthemembranes meninges) surrounding our brain and

spinal cord. Viral infections are the most common cause of meningitis.

Ans-(C) Nitrate

Blue baby pollutiondisease orBluebabysyndrome is by nitrate contamination from

drinking water to methemoglobinemia, thus decreasing theability blood to carry oxygen.

Ans-(C) Hour following a traumatic injury

It is the first hour following a traumatic Injury; who are in the operating room within one

hour of injury have a higher survival rate. Death can be prevented if houris utilised

properly.

Ans-(C) The suffering baby is treated in a germ-free plastic bubble

Bubble baby disease is a severe combined immuno deficiency (SCID), a rare genetic

disorder characterized by the disturbed development of T cells and B cells caused by

geneticmutations. It iscalled Blue bubble disease because its victims are treated in a sterile

environment as they are highly vulnerable to infectious diseases.

(B) Herman bull

(C) Bony

(D) Super bug

88. Scientists of NDRL, Karnal (Haryana) developed the second clone of which of the

following animals?

(A) Sheep

(B) Buffalo

(C)Cow

(D) Goat

89. Which country has produced the first transgenic glowing pigs that are all green from

inside out?

(A) Korea

(B) Japan

(C) Singapore

(D) Taiwan

90. Injaz, is the name of world's first cloned-

(A) Camel

(B) Goat

(C) Pig

(D) Sheep

Ans- (A) Dolly

Dolly was a female domestic sheep, and thefirst cloned from an adult somatic cell, using

the process of nuclear transfer. Superbug isaninformal term for a bacterium thathas

developed resistance to antibiotics.

Ans-(B) Buffalo

The world's second cloned buffalo calf was born at NDRL Karnal on6th June, 2009 by

using Advanced Hand-guided cloning technology. In this technique the cells isolated from

abattoir ovaries were matured in vitro.

Ans- (D) Taiwan

In 2008, scientists in Taiwan produced the first pig that glowed from inside out. DNA

from fluorescent jellyfish was added to pig embryos.

Ans- (A) Camel

Injaz is a female dromedary camel credited with being the world's first cloned camel. It

was created at the Cam Reproduction Centre in Dubai, UAE on April 14, 2009.

91. What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Trans Technology?

(A) Production of biolarvicides

(B) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics

(C) Reproductive cloning of animals

(D) Production of organisms free of diseases

92. Worldlevelprogram Human Genone Project is with which of the following?

(A) Establishment of Superman society

(B) Identification of color distinct breeds

(C) Genetic improvement of human breeds

(D) Identification and mapping of human genes and its sequence

93. Hybridoma technology is a new biotechnological approach for commercial production

of?
(A) Monoclonal antibodies

(B) Interferon

(C) Antibodies

(D) Alcohol

94. The world Environment Day is celebrated on?

(A) December 1

(B) June 5

(C) November 14

(D) August 15

Ans-(C) Reproductive cloning of animals

Somatic Cell Nuclear Technology is a laboratory for creating a viable embryo from a

body cell (somatic and an egg cell. It can create clones for both reproductive and

therapeutic purposes. In January 2018, announcedthe successful cloning of two female by

the use of SCNT.

Ans-(D) Identification and mapping of human genes and its sequence

HumanGenoneProject (HGP) wasaninternational scientific research project which got

successfully completed in 2003 b sequencing the entire human genome of 3.3 billion base

pairs. The HGP led to growth of bioinformatics, HGP will help to solve the mystery of

many disorders in humans.

Ans-(A) Monoclonal antibodies

Hybridomatechnology is a method of producing large numbers of identical antibodies

(monoclonal antibodies). The term hybridoma was coined by Leonard Herzenberg 1970-

1977.

Ans-(B) June 5

World Environment Day is celebrated on the 5" of June every year and it is United

Nation's principle vehicle for encouraging awareness and action for the protection of our

environment. Theme for 2019 is Air Pollution. The host nation is China.
95. Where is the headquarter of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)?

(A) The Hague

(B) Nairobi

(C) New York

(D) Washington D.C.

96. Environment Protection Act is also known as?

(A) Umbrella Legislation

(B) Chhadi Mubarak

(C) Environmentlegislation

(D) Eco safety Law

97. 10 percent law is related to which of these?

(A) Transfer of energy as food from one tropic level toother

(B) Transfer of heat from one matter to another

(C) Transfer of birds from one zone to another

(D) Transfer of water from one zone to another

98. The transition zone between two distinct communities is known as?

(A) Ecotype

(B)Arcade

(C) Ecosphere

(D) Ecotone

Ans-(B) Nairobi

The UNEP is an agency of United Nations which coordinates the organisation's

environmental activities and assists developing countries in implementing

environmentally sound policies and practices. Its headquarter is in Nairobi, Kenya.

Ans-(A) Umbrella Legislation

In the wake of Bhopal gas tragedy, the Government of India enacted the Environment

Protection Act, 1986 under Article 253 of the Indian Constitution. The Act is an umbrella

legislation designed to provide framework for central government coordination of

activities of various central and state authorities.

Ans- (A) Transfer of energy as food from one tropic level toother

The Ten percent law of transfer of energy from one tropic level to the next was introduced

by Raymond Lindeman According to this law, during the transfer of energy from one

tropic level to the next, only 10% of the energy from organic matter is restored.

Ans-(D) Ecotone

Ecotone, a transitional area of vegetation between two biomes such as forest and

grassland. It has some of the characteristics of each bordering biological community and

often contains species not found in the overlapping communities. It may also manifest as a

sharp boundary line.

99. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot of biodiversity in India?

(A) Aravali hills

(B) Indo-Gangetic plain

(C) Eastern Ghats

(D) Western Ghats

100. Red Data Book is concerned with which of these?

(A) Facts about biodiversity

(B) Organisms and animals facing the danger of extinction

(C) Plantation

(D)Illegal hunting of forest animals by smugglers

Ans- (D) Western Ghats

Biodiversity hot spot is a biogeographic region that is both a significant reserviour of

biodiversity and is threatened with destruction. Biodiversity hot spots in India includes -

the Western Ghats and the Eastern Himalayas.

Ans- (B) Organisms and animals facing the danger of extinction

The IUCN publishes the Red Data Book of Threatened Species. It is the world's most

comprehensive inventory of global conservation status of biological species.

Exam Topic: [Full Marks – 100]

1) Atomic Structure

2) Physical and Chemical

3) Transformation of Matter

4) Metal, Mineral and Ores

5) Alloys

6) Non-Metals

7) Organic Chemistry

8) Fuels

9) Food, Preservatives, Nutrition,

10) Medicines etc.

1. Which of these are constituents of atomic nucleus?

(A) Electron and Proton

(B) Electron and Neutron

(C) Proton and Neutron

(D) Proton, Neutron and Electron

Ans – (C) Proton and Neutron

The mass of atom is concentrated in a very smallCentral portion of the atom which is called

theAtomic nucleus. The atomic nucleus is made upElectrically positive protons and electrically

neutralNeutrons. The nucleus is surrounded by negative Charged Electrons.

2. Neutron was discovered by who among the following?

(A) J.J Thomson

(B) Chadwick

(C) Rutherford

(D) Newton

Ans – (B) Chadwick

The essential nature of the Atomic Nucleus was established with the discovery of the neutron by
James

Chadwick in 1932.He was assigned the task of tracking down evidence of Rutherford tightly bound

proton-electron pair. In 1930, it was discovered thatBeryllium, when bombarded by alpha particles

emitted a very energetic stream of radiations with the emergence of electrically neutral particles
Called

neutrons.

3. Which of the following is not a subatomic particle?

(A) Neutron

(B) Proton

(C) Deutron

(D) Electron

Ans – (C) Deutron

Subatomic particles are particles that are smaller than the Atom. Proton, neutron and Electron are
the

subatomic particles Of an atom. Hence correct option is (C). While Deutron is theDeuterium (an

isotope of Hydrogen)

4. In an atom , the order of filling up of orbital’s is governed

by which of the following principle?

(A) Aufbau principle

(B) Heisenberg uncertainty principle

(C) Hunds rule

(D) Paulis exclusion principle

Ans- (A) Aufbau principle

According to Aufbaus principle, filling up of electrons in atomic orbitals should be in increasing

energy level where the electrons are filled up in lowest energy level first moving towards the

highest. This principle also known as building up principle which has significant role in filling up of

electrons in atomic orbitals.

5. The nucleus of Helium has?

(A) Only one neutron

(B) Two protons

(C) Two protons and Two neutrons

(D) One protons and Two Neutrons

Ans- (C) Two protons and Two neutrons

Helium (2 He4

)is an atom of the chemical element helium. It is composed of two electrons bounded

by the electromagnetic force to a nucleus containing two protons and two neutrons held together by

strong force.

6. Isotopes are those atoms of the same elements which have?

(A) Atomic mass is same but Atomic number is different

(B) Atomic mass is different but Atomic number is same

(C) Atomic number and Atomic mass both are same

(D) None of the above

Ans- (B) Atomic mass is different but Atomic number is same

Elements with the same atomic number but different mass number are called Isotopes. The number
of

protons and neutrons combined together is called atomic mass or mass number of

An elements, whereas number of protons in the nucleus of an atom represents the Atomic number
of the

elements, which determines its position in the periodic table.

7. Atoms of different element that have same number of neutrons?

(A) Isobars

(B) Isomers

(C) Isotones

(D) Isotopes

Ans – (A) Isobars

Isobars are atoms of different elements that have the same number of neutrons.

Corresponding, isobar differs in atomic number but have same mass number.

8. Radioactivity is measured by which of these?

(A) Hydrometer

(B) Geiger counter

(C) Seismometer

(D) Ammeter

Ans – (B) Geiger counter

Radioactivity is typically measured by a Geiger counter (also called Geiger Mueller counter), which

is an Instruments that detects and measure ionizing radiation. Different models of Geiger counter

detect alpha particles, beta particles, or gamma particles. Ammeter is used to measure electric

current Seismometer responds to earthquakes and volcanic eruptions Hydrometer is used to

measure

density of liquids

9. Which Isotope of Hydrogen contains only one portion and no neutron in its nucleus?

(A) 1H

1 ( Protium)

(B) 1H

(Deuterium)

(C) 1H

3
(Tritium)

(D) A and B both

Ans – (A) 1H

1 ( Protium)

There is only one stable atom that does not have neutrons. It is an isotope of the elements hydrogen

called protium, which contains a single proton and a single electron In the simplest atom.

10. The atomic theory of matter was first proposed by?

(A) John Dalton

(B) Rutherford

(C) J.J. Thomson

(D) Niels Bohr

Ans- (A) John Dalton

The Atomic theory of matter was first proposed by John Dalton. His atomic theory proposed that

matter was composed of atom, smallest indivisible and indestructible building blocks.

11. Electron present in the outermost shell are called?

(A) Valency electrons

(B) Duplet electrons

(C) Octateelectrons

(D) Valence electrons

Ans – (D) Valence electrons

Valence electrons are the electronic residing in the outermost shell surrounding an atomic nucleus.

They are crucial in deciding chemical proprieties of an atom. Duplet electrons are those following

Duplet rule that states some elements can be stable with two electrons in their Shell, Similarly
Octate

electrons are those following Octate rule, where most stable ions many elements have eight
electrons

in their valence shell (through there have been exception of expanded valence octets, where
elements

period 3 and beyond can have more than 8 electrons in their outer valence shells).
12. Which of the following defines pasteurization?

(A) Milk is preserved at a very low temperature

(B) Milk is a heated for 8 hours

(C) First milk is heated up for a longer time and then cooled suddenly within specified time.

(D) None of these

Ans- (C) First milk is heated up for a longer time and then cooled suddenly within specified time.

Pasteurization was invented by French scientist Louis Pasteur during 19th century which involves

heating milk at certain temperature for at least 15 seconds. Once the milk has been heated, it is
cooled

quickly to less than 3oC. Pasteurization makes sure that milk is safe to drink and helps to prolong its

shelf life.

13. Transformation of matter from one state to another leads to?

(A) Change in Kinetic energy

(B) Change in Intermolecular distance

(C) Both of them

(D) None of the above

Ans- (B) Change in Intermolecular distance

The space between particles of matter is called intermolecular distance, which keeps increasing as
the

matter transforms from Solid to Liquid to Gas due to the increase inKinetic energy of the particles

with the application of heat. Hence achangeinthe Kinetic energy leads to thetransformation of state
of

matter not vice-versa

14. Process of conversion of solid camphor into camphor vapour is known as?

a. Vaporisation

b. Freezing

(C)Melting

(D) Sublimation
Ans—(D) Sublimation

The process of conversion of Solid camphor into camphor vapour is calledsublimation. It is a process

in which a solid turns into gas or vapour without passing through intermediate liquid state
depending

on the temperature and pressure of the environment. Other examples are: solid carbon dioxide,

Naphthalene etc.

15. Because of impurities the boiling point of a liquid?

(A)Increases

(B)Decreases

(C)Remains constant

(D)They are not related

Ans—(A) Increases

By adding impurities to a liquid, the boiling point of the liquid increases. This is because the

presence of impurities decrease the number of water molecules available to become vaporised

during boiling. Once this happens, it takes a greater amount of heat to cause the same amount of

impure solution to vaporize, thus raising the solutions overall boiling point.

16. Why does water boils at a temperature below 100oC at higher altitudes?

a. The atmospheric pressure decreases and hence boiling point is lowered

b. The gravitational attraction is less

c. Because of heavy winds in mountains

d. None of the above is correct

Ans-(A) The atmospheric pressure decreases and hence boiling point is lowered

Pressure decreases with elevation. The boiling point is lower at high altitudes due to the

decreases atmospheric pressure. Lower pressure means it takes less energy to bring water to

boiling point. Less energy means less

Heat which means water boils at a lower temperature at a higher altitudes.

17. Galvanisation is a process used to prevent the rusting of which of the following?
a. Iron

b. Zinc

c. Aluminium

d. Copper

Ans-(A) Iron

Galvanisation is the process of applying a protective Zinc coating to iron to prevent rusting

Zinc is used because it is more reactive than iron. When oxygen in the air reacts with the

surface of Zinc, a very dense and impermeable layer of Zinc oxide is formed acting as a

physical barrier that protects the zinc surface from further attack.

18. The technique of chromatography is used to?

a. Identify colour substances

b. Determine the structure of substances

c. Dry distillation of colouring substances

d. Separate the substances from a mixture

Ans – (D) Separate the substances from a mixture

Chromatography is a versatile separation technique widely used to obtain pure compounds

from mixtures. All Chromatography techniques depends on a stationery phase, usually a

finely divided solid or coated solid, that a mobile phase usually a gas or liquid, moves

through.

19. Which of the following substances as an aqueous solution would be a better

conductor of electricity than water?

a. Cane sugar

b. Common salt

c. Glucose

d. Ethyl Alcohol

Ans – (B) Common salt

Sodium chloride (NaCl) / common salt is an ionic compound. Pure water is not a very good

conductor, but when common salt or sodium chloride is added, it forms sodium (Na) and

chloride (Cl) ions since it forms an electrolyte and conductivity is increased. Similarly sea

water (comprising a Mixture of salt) is a better conductor as compared to fresh water,

Glucose, Cane sugar and Ethyl alcohol are not ionic compounds, rather they from covalent

bonds, hence their aqueous solution (in water) does not releases ions (charged particles)

which is a prerequisite for conduction.

20. Fermentation of glucose releases which of these?

a. CO2 and H2O

b. CO2 and alcohol

c. CO2 and methyl alcohol (CH3OH)

d. CO2 and ethyl alcohol ( C2H5OH)

Ans- (D) CO2 and ethyl alcohol ( C2H5OH)

Fermentation is the process of breaking down of a compound into simpler substances in

presence of microorganisms like Yeast and Bacteria, it is also defined as chemical process

by which molecules (as glucose) are broken down anaerobically (in the absence of oxygen)

If oxygen is not available to animal cells, then pyrovate is converted into lactate (lactic

acid). In plant and yeast cells pyrovate is converted into carbon dioxide and a type of

alcohol called ethanol (C2H5OH).

As an end product, in case of Aerobic respiration carbon dioxide and water formed,

while in case of Fermentation carbon dioxide and ethanol are the end products.

21. Which of the following procedures can be used for separation of mixtures/

(1) Decantation

(2) Crystallisation

(3) Fractional distillation

a. (1) and (2)

b. (2) and (3)

c. (1) and (3)

d. all of them

Ans – (D) all of them

Decantation is the process of separating insoluble solid particles from a liquids or two

different liquids with different densities (which have separate into two layers) by pouring

the less dense liquid out.

Crystallisation is used for the separation and purification of solid substances when impure solid or

mixture is heated with the solvent (alcohol, water, acetone etc.) to its boiling point and the hot

solution is filtered. Then the clear solution is cooled to room temperature and the pure solid

crystallises out. Similarly fractional distillation is used to separate two or more volatile liquids

(having different boiling points) by heating the liquid to various boiling paints and separately

collecting the vapours through a fractionating column and then cooling back the vapours to liquid

form (condensation). Fractional distillation is used in industries for separation of petrol, diesel oil,

kerosene oil, heavy oiletc. from crude oil

22. Which of the following is a physical change?

a. Burning of candle

b. Melting of wax

c. Rusting of iron

d. Food metabolism

Ans – (B) Melting of wax

The melting of solid wax to liquid from is a physical change since it is reversible, while Burning of

Candle leads to evaporation of liquid wax into vapours and subsequent burning of wax vapours

involves a chemical change.

23.Which of the following is the most reactive metal?

(A) Sodium

(B) Calcium
(C) Iron

(D) Potassium

Ans-(D) Potassium

The general periodic trend for material is that reactivity increases going down and to the left.

Zone – Shell electrons in higher energy orbits are easier to remove from the materials. For

non-metals, the trend is the exact opposite. From the above option, potassium is the most

reactive metal.

24.The chemical composition of pearl is —

(A) Calcium carbonate

(B) Calcium carbonate and Magnesium carbonate

(C) Calcium Chloride

(D) Calcium Sulphate

Ans- (A) Calcium carbonate

Pearl is composed of calcium carbonate (mainly aragonite or mixture of aragonite and calcite) in

minute crystalline form, which has been deposited in concentric layers. The ideal pearl is perfectly

round and smooth but many others Shapes known as baroque pearls can occur.

25. Which one of the following pairs of metals constitutes the lightest metal and the

heaviest metal, respectively?

(A) Lithium and Mercury

(B) Lithium and Osmium

(C) Aluminium and Osmium

(D) Aluminium and Mercury

Ans –(B) Lithium and Osmium

Lithium is the lightest metal and Osmium is the heaviest.

Osmium and Iridium are the densest metals in the world.

26. The days yellow lamps are frequently used as street light. Which
one of the following is used in these lamps?

(A) Sodium

(B) Neon

(C) Hydrogen

(D) Nitrogen

Ans- (A) Sodium

Sodium-vapour lamp, using ionized sodium is used for street lighting and other illumination. A low

pressure sodium-vapour have been used widely for street lightning since the 1930s because of their

efficiency and ability of the yellow light to penetrate fog.

27. Which of the following are the most commonly usedsubstance in the

fluorescent tubes?

(A) Sodium oxide and Krypton

(B) Sodium vapour and Xenon

(C) Mercury vapour and Argon

(D) Mercuric oxide and Radon

Ans- (C) Mercury vapour and Argon

The fluoroscent lamp is filled with a gas containing low pressure mercury vapour and argon, xenon,

neon or Krypton. It uses electricity to excite mercury vapours in Argon or Neon gas, resulting in a

plasma that produces short-wave ultraviolent light. Radon is useful for cancer therapy.

28. Which of the following is commonly Known as PlasterOfParis?

(A) Calcium Sulphate

(B) Calcium Carbonate

(C) Calcium Oxide

(D) Calcium Oxalate

Ans-(A) Calcium Sulphate

Plaster of Paris is the common name for calcium sulphate hemihydrate

(CaSO4.1/2H2O) prepared by heating the mineral gypsum, the common

name for sulphate of light. It is used for the protective or decorative coating

of walls and ceiling and for moulding and casting decorative elements.

29. Which one of the following metals is liquid Ordinary temperature?

(A) Lead

(B) Nickel

(C) Mercury

(D) Tin

Ans – (C)Mercury

Mercury is the only metal which is liquid at room temperature, and is

among the heaviest owing to its density. It is poor conductor of heat and

fair conductor of electricity.

30. Aluminium metal is obtain from –

(A) Pitch blends

(B) Graphite

(C) Bauxite

(D) Argentile

Ans – (C) Bauxite

Aluminium metal is obtained from the Bauxite ore. Bauxite is purified to yield a white power,

aluminium oxide from which aluminium can be extracted. The extraction is done by electrolysis

31. Iron is obtained from-

(A) Limestone

(B) Pitch-blende

(C) Monazite sand

(D) Hematite

Ans – (D) Hematite

Iron ores are usually rich in iron-oxides and vary in colour from dark grey, bright yellow, deep

purple, to rusty red. The four different types of iron ores are magnetite (Fe3O4), hematite

(Fe2O3), limonite and siderite.

32. Which of the following metal occurs in its pure form in earths crust?

(A) Sodium

(B) Potassium

(C) Platinum

(D) All of them

Ans –(C) Platinum

Native metal is a metal found in nature in its metallic form either pure or as on alloy. Native

materials were pre historic man’s only excess to metal since smelting was discovered around 6500

BC. Very few metals can resist natural weathering process (like Oxidation) hence only less

reactive metals as gold as platinum are found as Native metals. Others examples being: Silver,

Copper, Arsenic, Bismuith, Coal, Diamond, Sulphur, Graphite, Petroleum, Amber etc.

33. Which of the following are the functions of slag in metallurgy?

(A) Absorbing impurities

(B) Thermally insulate the metal both

(C) Protect the molten metal from atmosphere

(D) All of them

Ans- (D) All of them

Slag is the by-product formed during smelting, Welding, and other metallurgical processes,

from impurities in the ore (of material). It mainly consists of oxides of element as silicon,

sulphur, phosphorus and aluminium. Ground granueated slag is often used in concrete in

combination with poroland cement as part of a blended cement.

34. Mica is intensively used in which of the following industries?

(A) Steel and Iron

(B) Petroleum refineries

(C) Glass and pottery

(D) Electrical Industry

Ans- (D) Electrical Industry

Mica is a non-conductor of electricity. It is used in electrical industry due to it is de-electric

strength, resistance to high voltage, insulating property and low power loss factor.

35. Leaching involves which of the following?

(A) Roasting

(B) Electrolysis

(C) Smelting

(D) Electrical Industry

Ans—{D) Electrical Industry

Hydrometallurgyconsistsof leaching and electro winning. Leaching is a chemical process in

mining for extracting valuable minerals from ore by dissolving them in a liquid. Leaching is a

Hydro metallurgic process where metallic compounds are selectively dissolved from an ore by

an aqueous solvent. Electrolysis is the dissolving of metal from one electrode of an electrolytic

cell and its deposition in a purer form onto the other electrode. Under electro-winning metallic

ions are deposited onto an electrode when electric current is passed through the solution.

Smelting refers to extraction of a metal from its ore by heating and melting Pyro metallurgy

involves roasting where compounds are heated below meting point.

36. Out of the following which is not an alloy?

(A) Steel

(B) Brass

(C) Bronze

(D) Copper

Ans- (D) Copper

All of the above are alloys Copper because it is a metal. Alloys are made by combining two or

more metallic elements, to give Greater strength or resistance to corossion.

37. Solder used in soldering metal pieces consists of an alloy of which of these?

(A) Tin and Zinc

(B) Tin and Lead

(C) Tin, Zinc and Copper

(D) Tin, Lead and Zinc

Ans- (B) Tin and Lead

Solder is a fusible metal alloy with a low melting point (it is easily melted with soldering irons).

For electronics, it is traditionally a mix of tin and Lead.

38. Bronze is an alloy of which of the following?

(A) Copper and Tin

(B) Copper and Silver

(C) Copper and Zinc

(D) Copper and Lead

Ans- (A) Copper and Tin

Bronze is an alloy made of copper and another metal usually tin. Composition varies, but most of

modernbronze is 38% Copper and 12% Tin.

39. Brass is an alloy of which of the following?

(A) Copper and Nickel

(B) Nickel and Zinc

(C) Copper and Zinc

(D) Iron and Nickel

Ans- (C ) Copper and Zinc

Brass is an alloy of Copper and Zinc. It is one of the most widely used alloys. Brass sheets and

brass plates are more malleable than bronze. Brass is used in fittings, appliances, ammunition,

musical instruments and decorative goods (owning it’s golden yellow colour).
40. Alloy of which metal is used to make aeroplane and part of the compartment of the

train?

(A) Copper

(B) Iron

(C) Aluminium

(D) None of these

Ans- (C ) Aluminium

Duralumin is an alloy, Which is made up of 90% aluminium, 4% copper, 0.5-1% magnesium and

widely used in aircraft industry, owing to it’s strong, hard and light weighted nature.

41. Aluminium surface is often anodized. This means deposition of a layer of which of

these?

(A) Chromium Oxide

(B) Aluminium Oxide

(C) Nickel Oxide

(D) Zinc Oxide

Ans- (B) Aluminium Oxide

Anodizing is an electrochemical process that converts the metal surface into a decorative, durable,

corrosion resistant, anoetic oxide. A layer of Aluminium Oxide is deposited on Aluminium

42. Which of the following is not present in the German silver?

(A) Copper

(B) Aluminium

(C) Zinc

(D) Nickel

Ans- (B) Aluminium

German silver is an alloy of Copper, Zinc and Nickel. The usual formulation of German silver is

60% copper, 20% nickel and 20% zinc. It is extensively used because of its hardness and
resistance to corrosion

43. Manganin is an alloy of which of the following?

(A) Manganese and Aluminium

(B) Copper and Magnesium

(C) Copper, Manganese and Nickel

(D) Manganese, Aluminium and Iron

Ans- (C) Copper, Manganese and Nickel

Manganinis an alloy made of 84% copper, 12% manganese and 4% nickel. Manganin foil and

wire is used in the manufacture of resistance value and long term stability.

44. Buckminster fullerene is –

(A) A form of Carbon compound of clusters of 60 carbon atoms bound together in polyhedral

structure composed of pentagon or hexagon.

(B) A polymer of fluorine

(C) An isotope of carbon heavier than CCI.

(D) None of these

Ans- (A) A form of Carbon compound of clusters of 60 carbon atoms bound together in

polyhedral structure composed of pentagon or hexagon.

Buckminster fullerene with the formula C60. Has a cage like fussed ring structure that resembles a

soccer ball made of twenty hexagons and twelve pentagons. In April 2019, the scientist working

with the Hubble space telescope dectetedlarge and complex ionized molecules of C60

45. Which lubricant is used for heavy machines?

(A) Bauxite

(B) Phosphorus

(C) Graphite

(D) Silicon Oil

Ans- (C ) Graphite

Graphite is a crystalline, low density and soft allotrope of carbon. It is a solid lubricant. Graphite

forms a lubricated film strongly adhered to the substrate surface. The lubrication film provides

good wear resistance and seizure resistance.

46. Which of the following is known as Dry ice?

(A) Solid water

(B) Mountain ice

(C) Solid CO2

(D) Solid carbon monoxide

Ans- (C ) Solid CO2

Dry ice also calledCardice is a solid form of carbon dioxide. It used as a cooling agent. It is used

for preserving foods where mechanical cooling is unavailable.

47. Water Gas is which of the following?

(A) CO+ H2

(B) CO+ H2O

(C) CO2 +H2

(D) CO2 + H2O

Ans- (A) CO+ H2

Water Gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrogen (H2) produced from synthesis

gas. Synthesis gas is produced by passing stream over a red – hot cock. The reaction is

endothermic.

H2O + C→H2 + CO

48. Which of the following fuels causes minimum air pollution?

(A) Kerosene oil

(B) Hydrogen

(C) Coal
(D) Diesel

Ans- (B) Hydrogen

Hydrogen is a zero –emission fuel when burner with oxygen. It can be used in electrochemical

cells or internalcombustion engines to power vehicles or electric devices. It is considered as an

alternative fuel. NASA has used liquid hydrogen since the 1970’s to propel space shuttles and

other rockets into orbit.

49. What is heavy water?

(A) Oxygen + Heavy hydrogen

(B) Hydrogen + Oxygen

(C) Hydrogen + New Oxygen

(D) Heavy Hydrogen + Heavy Oxygen

Ans- (A) Oxygen + Heavy hydrogen

Heavy water also called deuterium oxide, the hydrogen isotope with

a mass double that of hydrogen and oxygen. The heavy water produced

is used as a moderator for neutrons in nuclear power plants

50. Which gas is used in the purification of drinking water?

(A) Helium

(B) Chlorine

(C) Fluorine

(D) Carbon dioxide

Ans- (B) Chlorine

Chlorine is the process of adding chlorine to drinking water to disinfect it and kill germs. It is

done to prevent spread of water borne diseases such as cholera, dysentery and typhoid. Chlorine is

manufactured from salt by electrolysis

.
51. Which gas is used with oxygen for respiration by divers in deep sea?

(A) Helium

(B) Nitrogen

(C) Xenon

(D) Ammonia

Ans- (A) Helium

Helium is added to the breathing mix to reduce the proportion of nitrogen and oxygen below those

of air, to allow the gas mix to be breathed safety on deep dives. A lower proportion of nitrogen is

required to reduce nitrogen narcosis and other physiological effects of the gas at depth. Ammonia

is used as a refrigerant gas and in purification of water supply.

52. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of?

(A) Sulphates of Calcium and Magnesium

(B) Calcium bicarbonate Sulphates

(C) Magnesium bicarbonate

(D) Chloride of silver and potassium

Ans- (A) Sulphates of Calcium and Magnesium

Permanent hardness is hardness that cannot be removed by boiling. It is due to the presence of

Sulphates of Calcium and Magnesium ions causing permanent hardness of water which can be

removed using a water softener or ion exchange column

53. Which of these is Laughing gas used as anesthesia by doctors?

(A) Nitrogen

(B) Nitrogen Oxide

(C) Nitrous oxide

(D) Nitrogen Dioxide

Ans- (C ) Nitrous oxide

Laughing gas is the common name for an inhaled sedative, used in dental care and in medical

care. The active ingredient in Laughing gas Nitrogen Oxide gas. It consists of 30% oxygen and
70% nitrous oxide (N O). Nitrous Oxide also acts as a Green House Gas in troposphere. The term

was coined by Humphrey Devy.

54. Which one of the following is also called Stranger gas?

(A) Argon

(B) Neon

(C) Xenon

(D) Nitrous Oxide

Ans- (C ) Xenon

Xenon is a noble gas (8 electrons in the valence shell), expected to be inert but it readily reacts

with Fluorine and Oxygen. Xenon was undiscovered for a very long time. It is subject of curiosity

owing to its reactivity with several elements under specialized and controlled environment, hence

the name stranger gas

55. Which of the following is known as Tear gas?

(A) Ammonia

(B) Chlorine

(C) Hydrogen Carbide

(D) Hydrogen Sulphide

Ans- (B) Chlorine

Tear gas, also called lacrimator, cause irritation of the mucous membrane of the eyes which

causes stinging sensation and tears. It was used in World War I as a chemical warfare. Tear gas

contains chemical agent 2-chloro- benzaldenemalononitrile (CS).

56. Goldsmiths use aqua regia, which is prepared by mixing?

(A) Nitric acid and Sulphuric acid

(B) Nitric acid and Hydrochloric acid

(C) Sulphuric acid and Hydrochloric acid

(D) Citric acid and Benzoic acid

Ans- (B) Nitric acid and Hydrochloric acid

Aqua regia is a mixture of nitric acid and Hydrochloric acid, optimally

in a molar ration of 1:3. Aqua regia is yellow orange fuming liquid,

which can dissolve noble metals like gold platinum

57. What is Nilathotha?

(A) Copper sulphate

(B) Calcium sulphate

(C) Iron sulphate

(D) Sodium sulphate

Ans- (A) Copper sulphate

Copper sulphate is called Nilathotha or Neelathota. It is blue in colour. It exothermically

dissolved in water to give the aqua complex which has octahedral molecular geometry.

58. Which chemical compound is present in Bleaching powder?

(A) Calcium hydroxide

(B) Calcium hypochlorite

(C) Calcium carbonate

(D) Ammonium chloride

Ans- (B) Calcium hypochlorite

Calcium hypochlorite is an inorganic compound. It is the main active ingredient of bleaching

powder, used for water treatment and also as a bleaching agent.

59. Which of the following is present in Biogas?

(A) Bhutane

(B) Propane

(C) Mathane
(D) Ammonia

Ans- (C ) Mathane

Biogas is a biofuel, naturally produced from the decomposition of organic waste in the absence of

oxygen releasing methane and CO. While Propane and Butane are major components of L.P.G.

60. Which is the fundamental element of all organic compounds?

a. Nitrogen

b. Oxygen

c. Carbon

d. Brimstone

Ans- ( C) Carbon

Carbon is the basic element of organic compounds and is tetravalent in nature. It is the second most

abundant element in the human body by mass (about 18.5%) after oxygen.

61. Which one of the following was used as a chemical weapon in the First World War?

a. Carbon Monoxide

b. Hydrogen Cyanide

c. Mustard Gas

d. Water Gas

Ans- ( C) Mustard Gas

Germans used the mustard gas for the first time during World War in 1917. Mustard gas is a

prototypical substance of the sulfur based family of cytotoxic and vesicant chemical warfare agents.
It

can form large blisters on exposed skin and in the lungs. Mustard agents are regulated under the
1993

chemical weapons convention.

62. Leakage of which of the following gases caused the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?

a. Methyl Isocyanate

b. Carbon Monoxide

c. Nitric Oxide
d. Sulphur Dioxide

Ans- (A) Methyl Isocyanate

Bhopal gas tragedy took place on 2-3 December, 1984 at the UnionCarbide India pesticide plant in

Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. The gas released was Methyl Isocyanate (MIC). It is a highly toxic

substance.

63. Which of the following chemical helps in fruit ripening?

a. Ethylene

b. Atrozine

c. Isoproturon

d. Malathion

Ans- (A) Ethylene

Ripening is a process in fruit that causes then to become more palatable. Artificial ripening is done

by gasingwith ethylene.

64. Which one of the following catalysts is used for hydrogenation of vegetable oils?

a. Zinc dust

b. Nickel

c. Phosphate

d. Copper

Ans- (B) Nickel

Hydrogenation refers to treatment with Hydrogen (H2) as a chemical reaction between molecular

hydrogen and another compound or element, usually in the presence of a catalyst such as nickel,

palladium or platinum.

65. From the decomposition of which of the following painting ink is formed?

a. Methane

b. Acetylene

c. Benzene
d. Carbon tetrachloride

Ans- (A) Methane

Methane is colourless, tasteless, odorless gas having chemical composition CH4. It is used for

making printing ink. Carbon tetrachloride is used as a cleaning fluid, fumigant and in fire

extinguishers.

66. Fermentation of sugar leads to –

a. Ethyl alcohol

b. Methyl alcohol

c. Acetic acid

d. Chlorophyll

Ans- (A) Ethyl alcohol

Fermentation is a metabolic process that produces chemical changes in organic substrate through

the action of enzymes. On fermentation of sugar, ethyl alcohol is formed.

67. Which of the following is the polymer of Natural Rubber?

a. Ethylene

b. Isoprene

c. Acetylene

d. Hexane

Ans- (B) Isoprene

Natural rubber also called Indian rubber consists of polymer of Isoprene with minor impurities of

other organic compounds. Isoprene is a colourless liquid made by destructive distillation of

petroleum. Acetylene is used for welding and cutting known as gas cutting.

68. Which one of the following polymer is used in making bullet-proof vests?

a. Bakelite

b. Polyamides

c. Teflon
d. Polyurethanes

Ans- (B) Polyamides

Kevlar is a polyamide, a type of synthetic polymer. It is used in bulletproof jackets, cryogenics etc.
The

material has a high strength and was first commercially used in the early 1970’s as a replacement for

steel. It is best known for use in ballistic and slab-resistant body armour.

69. A polymer used for making nonstick surface coating for utensils is –

a. Polyvinyl chloride

b. Teflon

c. Polystyrene

d. Polypropylene

Ans- (B) Teflon

Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) is a synthetic fluropolymer or tetrafluroethylene. It consists of

carbon and fluorine. It is best known by brand name Teflon. PTFE is used as a non- stick coating

for pans and other cookware.

70. Which one of the following substance is used in glazing the pottery?

a. Alum

b. Calomel

c. Zinc Chloride

d. Zinc Oxide

Ans- (D) Zinc Oxide

Zinc Oxide is a high temperature flux that promotes brilliant glossy surfaces. Some glazes can

encourage opacity. Hence, it is used in pottery to give a fine finishing.

71. Phenol is used in the manufacture of which one of the following?

a. PVC

b. Nylon

c. Polystyrene

d. Bakelite
Ans- (D) Bakelite

Bakelite was the first plastic made from synthetic components. It is thermosetting phenol

formaldehyde resin formed from a condensation reaction of phenol with formaldehyde.

The creation was revolutionary for its electrical non-conductivity and heat-resistant properties.

72. Accumulation of which one of the following in the muscles lead to fatigue?

a. Lactic acid

b. Benzoic acid

c. Pyruvic acid

d. Uric acid

Ans- (A) Lactic acid

Lactic acid build-up occurs when there’s not enough oxygen in the muscles to break down glucose

and glycogen. This causes sereness / fatigue of muscles.

73. Which acid is found in lemons?

a. Acetic acid

b. Ascorbic acid

c. Citric acid

d. Nitric acid

Ans- (C) Citric acid

Citric acid is a weak organic acid with chemical formula C6 H8O7. It occurs naturally in citrus

fruits. Lemons have about 8% of the dry weight as acid.

74. Which of these is the predominant organic acid in grapes?

a. Acetic acid

b. Citric acid

c. Malic acid

d. Tartaric acid

Ans- (D) Tartaric acid

Tartaric acid is a white, crystalline organic acid that occurs naturally in many fruits, especially

grapes. The other acids present in grapes include malic and citric. But, the highest concentration is

of tartaric acid.

75. Which of the following acid is used in photography?

a. Formic acid

b. Oxalic acid

c. Citric acid

d. Acetic acid

Ans- (B) Oxalic acid

Oxalic acid is a colourless crystalline powder and a strong organic acid. Oxalic acid was used in

the solution for black and white photography.

76. Vinegar is chemically known as?

a. Acetic acid

b. Butyric acid

c. Formic acid

d. Tartaric acid

Ans- (A) Acetic acid

Vinegar is an aqueous of acetic acid. It contain 5-20% by volume of acetic acid. Acetic acid is

produced by fermentation of ethanol by acetic acid bacteria. It is commonly used in food

preparations, picking, salad dressings etc.

77. Most of the explosions in mines occur due to the mixing of which of the following?

a. Carbon dioxide with Methane

b. Methane and Air

c. Oxygen with Acetylene

d. Hydrogen with Oxygen

Ans- (B) Methane and Air

Methane, a major component of natural gas, is combustible and a mixture of 5% to 15% in air is
explosive. The heat generated by this process raises the temperature of air in the mine which

causes explosion.

78. Noble oil is the name of which one of the following explosives?

a. TNG

b. TNP

c. TNA

d. TNT

Ans- (A) TNG

Tri Nitro Glycerine (TNT) is a colourless oily liquid which is utilized in making dynamite. TNG is

also called Nobel’s Oil. It was invented in 1846. It is prepared by mixing concentrated H2 SO4 and

concentrated HNO3 with Glycerine.

79. Which one of the following is another name of RDX?

a. Cyanohydrin

b. Dextran

c. Cyclohexane

d. Cyclonite

Ans- (D) Cyclonite

RDX was first invented by a German Chemist Hanning in 1899 in the form of pure white

crystallised powder. The chemical name of RDX is cyclotrimethylenetrinitramine. In USA it is

called Cyclonite, in Germany it is called Hexogen and in Italy it is called T-4.

80. Self linking ability of carbon is called?

a. Carbonation

b. Catenation

c. Texas Carbon

d. None of the above

Ans- (B) Catenation

Catenation is the binding of an element to itself through covalent bonds to form chain or ring

molecules. Carbon exhibits catenation by forming long hydrocarbon chains and rings like Benzene

(C6 H6).

Carbon shows the property of catenation to maximum extent. Sulphur, silicon also show this

property to some extent. Sulphur show catenation upto 8 atoms in formation of S - 8 molecules of

sulphur. Carbonation refers to reactions of carbon dioxide to form carbonates, bicarbonates and

carbolic acid.

81. Which of the following element is used in the Vulcanization of rubber?

a. Sulphur

b. Carbon

c. Silicon

d. Chlorine

Ans- (A) Sulphur

Vulcanisation is a chemical process in which natural rubber (that is often soft) is heated with

Sulphur at 140-150°C to improve elasticity, resilience, tensile strength, viscosity, hardness and

weather resistance; higher resistance to oxidation, wear and tear abrasion; resistance to organic

solvents etc.

82. Rate of reaction is comparatively slower in organic compounds due to?

a. Amphoteric nature

b. Ionic bonding

c. Coordinate covalent bonding

d. Covalent bonding

Ans- (D) Covalent bonding

Organic compounds generally have covalent bonds (formed by the mutual sharing of electrons in

the valence shells), which are harder to break (as compounded to the iconic bonds) subsequently

slowing down the rate of reaction.

83. The term used for unsatisfied hydro carbons containing at least one carbon – carbon double

bonds?

a. Alkanes

b. Alkenes

c. Alkynes

d. None of them

Ans- (B) Alkenes

Alkenes or Olefins having a general formula(Cn H2n) are hydrocarbons (containing only carbon and

hydrogen) with atleast one carbon carbon double bond. The presence of double bond (through

covalent bonding) makes it highly reactive in nature. Alkanes are useful as fuels like propane and

butane while alkenes are used to make plastics.

84. Why Silver halides are used in photographic plates?

a. It is easily soluble in hypo solution

b. They are cost effective

c. It is colourless and odourless

d. They undergo reduction

Ans- (D) They undergo reduction

Silver chloride, Silver bromide and Silver iodide are the three Silver halide compounds used in

photography. Light sensitivity of silver halides is the reason why they are used. Tiny crystals of

these compounds are used in making photographic film. When exposed to light, a chemical

reaction darkens the film to produce an image. When film containing Ag+

and Cl is exposed to

light energy, the chlorine ion's extra electron gets ejected and captured by a silver ion. So, silver

ion undergoes reduction while chlorine is said to be oxidized.

85. Which of the following is a natural fuel?

(A) Coal gas

(B) Tar
(C) Coke

(D) Petroleum

Ans- (D) Petroleum

Petroleum is a naturally occurring liquid created by the decomposition of organic matter over

millions of years. It is a fossil fuel which is used as fuel to power vehicles, heating units and

machines etc.

86. Cooking gas is mainly which of these?

(A) Carbon dioxide

(B) Carbon Monoxide

(C) Methane

(D) Nitrogen and oxygen

Ans- (C) Methane

Methane (CH4) is the simplest alkane and a major constituent of natural gas. It burns easily and

produces a hot flame that can be used to boil water or cook food.

87. Which of the following is the main component of Gobargas?

(A) Methane

(B) Ethane

(C) Propane

(D) Chlorine

Ans- (A) Methane

Gobar gas is a mixture of different gases produced by breakdown of organic matter in the absence

of oxygen. Its main component is methane and carbon dioxide and may have small amount of

hydrogen sulphide, produced by anaerobic digestion with methanogens.

88. LPG used as domestic fuel chiefly contains?

(A) Methane

(B) Acetylene
(C) Ethylene

(D) Butane

Ans- (D) Butane

Liquified petroleum gas also referred to as simply propane or butane is a flammable mixture of

hydrocarbon gases used as fuel in heating appliances, cooking equipments and vehicles.

89. CNG is chemically which of these?

(A) Compressed Natural Gas

(B) Cyanogen Natural Gas

(C) Condensed Nitrogen Gas

(D) Controlled Natural Gas

Ans- (A) Compressed Natural Gas

Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is a fuel which can be used in place of gasoline, diesel fuel and

propane. It produces lesser pollution compared to petrol and diesel.

90. Which of the following has the least ignition temperature?

(A) Wood

(B) Paper

(C) Vegetable oil

(D) Kerosene oil

Ans- (D) Kerosene oil

Ignition temperature is the lowest/minimum temperature at which a combustible substance starts

to

burn. Fuels having low ignition temperature are highly inflammable like kerosene.

91. Calorific value is measured in?

(A) Kilo Joule

(B) Kilo Kelvin

(C) Kilo Joule per kg

(D) Kilo Kelvin per kg

Ans- (C) Kilo Joule per kg

Calorific value is the amount of heat generated on complete combustion of 1 kg of fuel. It's unit

being K calorie/kg, kj/kg, j/mol.

92. Which of the following is/are advantage of cryogenic fuel which makes it preferable as a

Rocket propellant?

(1) Greatest efficiency in terms of thrust generated.

(2) Can carry payload of higher mass

(3) It is cheaper as compared to solid fuels

(4) The technology is indigenous to India

(A) Only (1)

(B) (1) and (2)

(C) (1), (2) and (3)

(D) All of them

Ans- (B) (1) and (2)

The most common cryogenic propellant used in Rocket engines are Liquid hydrogen and Liquid

oxygen. They are preferred as rocket propellants when rockets have to carry payload of high mass

because they have the greatest efficiency in terms of thrust generated.

93. Which one of the following substance is used in the preservation of food stuff?

(A) Citric Acid

(B) Potassium Chloride

(C) Sodium Benzoate

(D) Sodium Chloride

Ans- (C) Sodium Benzoate

Sodium Benzoate (NaC7H5O2) is a preservative widely used in acidic foods such as salad

dressings, carbonated drinks, jams and fruit juices etc. It is produced by reacting sodium hydroxide

with benzoic acid.

94. Which of the following is a common refrigerant used in domestic refrigerators?

(A) Neon

(B) Oxygen

(C) Freon

(D) None of the above

Ans- (C) Freon

Freon are stable, non flammable, moderately toxic gases or liquids which are used as aerosol

propellant. It is manufactured by Chemours Company. They include R-12, R-13B1, R-22, R 410A, R-
502 and R-503.

95. Exposure to which of the following causes lead poisoning?

(A) Gasoline

(B) Contaminated dust

(C) Paints

(D) All of the above

Ans- (D) All of the above

Lead is a toxic metal, which can accumulate inside body if it enters through mouth, inhalation,

through skin or mucous membranes. Most common sourcesare lead based paints (on walls) and

water pipes in old buildings, lead based dust, gasoline, environment contamination (through

mining, smelting, manufacturing and recycling activities). More than three quarters of global lesd

consumption is for the manufacture of lead acid batteries for motor vehicles. Lead is also used in

soldering, stained glass, lead crystal glassware, ceramic glazes, cosmetics and even some

traditional medicines.

Lead in the body is distributed to the brain, liver, kidney and bones. It is stored in teeth and bones

(where it accumulates over time). Lead in bone is released into blood during pregnancy which

may harm the fetus too.

96. Charcoal which is used in decolouring raw sugar is?

(A) Wood Charcoal

(B) Sugar charcoal

(C) Animal charcoal

(D) Coconut charcoal

Ans- (C) Animal charcoal

Animal charcoal is produced from bones, horn, blood etc. It is obtained by destructive distillation

of bones in iron retorts. It is used as a filtering agent in sugar refining.

97. Asprin is chemically which of these?

(A) Antibiotic

(B) Antipyretic

(C) Reliver

(D) None of the above

Ans- (B) Antipyretic

Aspirin is a medication used to treat pain, fever (antipyretic) or inflammation. Aspirin is known as

salicylate and a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID). It works by blocking a certain

natural substances to reduce pain and swelling.

98. Which of the following oil is an extract of clove oil?

(A) Methenol

(B) Eugenol

(C) Metheol

(D) Benzyladehyde

Ans- (B) Eugenol

Oil of cloves or eugenol is commonly used by den sts because it is an sep c and an inflammatory.
It is applied to the gum to kill germs and relieve pain of dental surgery such as

tooth extractions, fillings and root canals.

99. Which of the following cannot be used as an insecticide?

(A) Malathion

(B) Bleaching powder

(C) Gammexane
(D) DDT

Ans- (B) Bleaching powder

Calcium hypochlorite is the main ingredient of bleaching powder, chlorine powder of chlorinated

lime used for water treatment and as bleaching agents.

Insecticides are pesticides formulated to kill, harm, repel or mitigate one or more species of

insects. Some insecticides disrupt the nervous system while other may damage exoskeleton, repel

them.

100.Which of the following defines pasteurization?

(E) Milk is preserved at a very low temperature

(F) Milk is a heated for 8 hours

(G) First milk is heated up for a longer time and then cooled suddenly within specified time.

(H) None of these

Ans- (G) First milk is heated up for a longer time and then cooled suddenly within specified time.

Pasteurization was invented by French scientist Louis Pasteur during 19th century which involves

heating milk at certain temperature for at least 15 seconds. Once the milk has been heated, it is

cooled quickly to less than 3oC. Pasteurization makes sure that milk is safe to drink and helps to

prolong its shelf life.

Exam Topic: [Full Marks – 100]

1. National Income

2. Banking

3. Monetary Policy

4. Fiscal Policy And‘ Taxation

5. Money Market and Capital Market

6. Inflation t

7. Poverty and Unemployment

8. Balance of Payment
9. Agriculture

10. Industry

11. Government Schemes

12. Index and Reports

1. Which of the following factor(s) is/are involved in calculation of GDP using expenditure

method?

1. Consumption 2. Government Expenditure

3. Investment 4. Exports

5. Imports

Select the correct answer using the codes given below —

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2,3 and 4 only

(C) 2,3,4 and 5 only (D) Allofthe above

Ans-(D)

According to the expenditure method the GDP (Y) is

calculated by the sum of Consumption (C), Investment (I)

Government Expenditure (G), and Net Export [NX = Export(X) — Import

M)].Y=C+14+G+4(X—M).

2.National Income is the —

(A) Net National Product at market price

(B) Net National Product at factor cost

(C) Net Domestic Product at market price

(D) Net Domestic Product at factor cost

Ans-(A)

National Income = NNP at Market Price- Indirect Tax +

at Factor Cost Subsidies

[NNP - Net National Product]

India officially used to calculate its national income at factor

cost. Since January, 2015 the CSO has switched over to

calculating at market price or market cost.

3. In India, service sector includes which of these?

I. Mining and Quarrying

II. Transport and Communication

III. Hotels

IV. Forestry and Fishing

Select the correct answer from the codes given below —

(A) Only I and II (B) Only II and III

(C) Only III and IV (D) Only I and IV

Ans-(B)

In India Service sector is a Tertiary Sector which provides

services. Service sector includes - retail, banks, hotels, 2,

estate, education, health, social work, computer Services

recreation, media, transport and communication, electricity

gas and water supply. The Primary Sector produces some,

original goods like Agriculture, Fishing or Forestry: and

Secondary sector deals with the processing or manufacturing

like Mining, Industries or food processing.

4. Hindu Rate of Growth refers to the rate of growth of ?

(A) GDP (B) Population

(C) Food grains (D) Per capita Income

Ans-{A)

The term Hindu rate of Growth was coined by Professor Raj

Krishna in 1978 to characterise the slow growth of Indian

economy and to explain it against the backdrop of socialist

economic policies. The term came into being to show India’s

contentment with the low growth rate, Post-Independence.

5. Who wrote the book describing the theory of economic drain of India during British rule?

(A) LalaLajpat Rai (B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) DadabhaiNaoroji

Ans-(D)

DadabhaiNaoroji’s work focused on the drain of wealth

from India to England during colonial rule of British in India.

One of the reasons that the Drain Theory is attributed to

Naoroji is his decision to estimate the net national profit of

India and by extension, the effect that colonisation had on

the country, and it's economy.

6. As the economy develops, the share of the tertiary

sector in the GDP?

(A) Decreases

(B) Decreases than Increases

(C) Increases

(D) Remain constant

Ans(C)

As the economy develops, the share of tertiary sector Increases

in the economy. As the economy develops more Number of

people get education and acquire skills thus boosting the

tertiary sector and the economy develops lot of services due

to increase in competition and infusion of technology.

7. National Income estimates in India are Prepared by?

(A) NITI Aayog

(B) Reserve Bank of India

(C) Central Statistics Office

(D) Indian Statistical Organisation

Ans-(C)

During the post - independence Period, the estimate of

National Income was primarily conducted by National Income

Committee. Later on, it was carried over by Central Statistics

Office (CSO).

8. Depreciation is equal to which of these?

(A)Gross National Product -Net National Product

(B) NetNational Product - Gross National Product

(C) Gross National Product - Personal Income

(D) Personal Income - Personal Taxes

Ans-(A)

Net National Product = Gross National Product -

Depreciation NNP is the total market value of all final

goods and services produced by the factors of production of

a country during a given time period, minus depreciation.

Depreciation is simply wear and tear (i.e.) the cost of goods

that go into replacement of existing worn out capital.

9. Which is not included in the private income arising in a country?

(A) Factor income from net domestic product

(B) Net factor income from abroad

(C) Current transfers from Government

(D) Current Payments on foreign loans

Ans(D)

Private income is the total of factor incomes and transfer

Incomes received from all sources by private sector (private

enterprise and households) within and outside the country.

I also includes Net factor income from abroad. Private

income consists of not only factor income earned within the

domestic territory and abroad but also all current transfers

from government and rest of the world. It does not include

current payments on foreign loans.

10. Mixed economy means —

(A) Where agriculture and industry are given equal importance.

(B) Where public sector exists along with the private sector in national economy.

(C) Where globalisation is transferred with heavy dose of swadeshi in national economy.

(D) Where centre and states are equal partners in economic planning and development.

Ans-(B)

A mixed economy isa system that combines aspects of both

Capitalism and socialism. It protects private property and

allows a level of economic freedom in the use of capital, but

also allows the governments to interfere in economic

activities in order to achieve social aims.

11. Which base year is used to calculate per capita income in India?

(A) 2004-05 (B) 2011-12

(C) 2001-02 (D) 2014-15

Ans-(B)

The per capita income in India is calculated by taking 2011-12

as the base year. It is released by Central Statistics Office

(CSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme

Implementation.
12. Which sector contributes the most to India’s economy?

(A) Service sector (B) Manufacturing sector

(C) Agriculture sector (D) Small scale industries

Ans-(A)

Service sector contributes the most to GDP in India’s

economy. It contributes about 54.40% of the Indian GDP.

Service 'sector includes financial, real estate and professional

services, public administration, defence and other services,

trade, hotels, transport etc. However, Agriculture sector is

the largest employer in India’s economy.

13. Transfer Payments do not include?

(A) Old age pensions

(B) Subsidy paid to exporters

(C) Universal basic income (UBI)

(D) Student grants

Ans-(B)

Expenditures like pensions, scholarships, UBI are direct

transfer of money and do not directly absorb resources Or

create output. They are called transfer payments. It includes

social security, old age or disability pension, student grants,

unemployment compensation. Subsidies paid to farmers,

exporters and manufacturers are not included in transfer

payments because they are linked to economic transactions.

14. Happiness Index is released by -

(A) IMF (B) World Bank

(C) UNCTAD

(D) UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network

Ans-(D)

Happiness Index is a part of the World Happiness Report

which is annually published by UN Sustainable Development

Solutions Network. Finland topped the list and India got

140" rank out of 156 countries in Happiness Index-2019.

Madhya Pradesh became the first state in India to set up

happiness department.

15. Consider the following statements about Green GDP —

1. Itis an index of economic growth with environmental

consequences of the growth factored in.

2. From the final value of goods and services produced,

the cost of ecological degradation is added to get Green GDP.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 only (D) None

Ans-(A)

Green GDP is an index of economic growth with environmental

consequences of growth factored in. In calculating Green

GDP, the cost of ecological degradation is deducted from

the cost of final value of goods and services produced.

16. Share of various sectors in India's GDP in descending order is as —

(A) Agriculture and allied activities > Industry >

Services

(B) Industry > Agriculture and allied activities >

Services

(C) Services > Industry > Agriculture and allied

activities

(D) Services > Agriculture and allied activities Industry

Ans-(C)

According to Ministry of statistics and Programme Implementation contribution of service sector is

54.40% of with Industry sector contributing 29.73% while Agriculture and allied activities contribute

15.87%.

17. Make in India initiative of the Indian Government aims-

(A) To strengthen informal sector of the Indian economy

(B) To provide vocational education and skills promote

(C) To strengthen manufacturing sector of the Indian economy

(D) To facilitate FDI in the service sector of Indian economy

Ans-(C)

Make in India aims to provide impetus and reboot to the

manufacturing sector and shifting Indian economy from

a service provider to a manufacturing hub.

18. With an increase in Remittance money from abroad to India —

1.India's Gross Domestic Product will increase

2. India's Gross National product will increase

3.India's National Income will increase

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) l and 3 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans-(B)

Remittance money is Net factor Income from Abroad

(NFIA). GDP does not include NFIA. GNP is sum of GDP and

NFIA. National income is Net National Product at factor

cost and hence, it also includes NFIA.

19. National Income accounting ignores —

(A) Sales of a firm

(B) Salary of employees

(C) Exports of the IT sector

(D) Sale of Land

Ans-(D)

National Income 'ignores sale of land.

20. Which of the following functions are being performed by the Reserve Bank of India?

(A) Regulation of Banks in India

(B) Regulation of Foreign Direct Investment in India

(C) Foreign Currency Management in India

(D) Control and supervision of Money supply

(E) All of the above

Ans-(E)

All of the above are functions of Reserve Bank of India.

21. Banking Ombudsman Scheme is applicable to the business of —

(A) All Scheduled Commercial Banks excluding RRBs

(B) All Scheduled Commercial Banks including RRBs

(C) Only Public Sector Banks

(D) Only Private Sector Banks

Ans-(B)

The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is an expiditious and

inexpensive forum for bank customers for resolution of

complaints relating to certain services rendered by banks. All

Scheduled Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks and

Scheduled Primary Cooperative Banks are covered under

the scheme.

22. A centralised database with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM network
which has been adopted by all major banks of our country is known as?

(A) Investment banking (B) Core Banking

(C) MobileBanking (D) Specialised Banking

Ans-(B)

Using core banking customers can access their accounts

from any branch, internet as well as ATM, anywhere

irrespective of where they have physically opened their account.

23. Which of the following is known as plastic money?

1. Demand draft 2. Credit card

3. Debit card

Code -

(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2

(C) 2 and 3 only (D) All of the above

Ans-(C)

Plastic Money includes debit card, credit card, ATM card

charge card, etc. The basic purpose of the plastic money is

to provide a durable form of money, reducing expenditure

on printing notes, making transactions transparent and

convenient.

24. MICR code is used for which of these?

(A) For code banking solution

(B) For electric fund transfer

(C) For electronic clearance of cheques

(D) None of these

Ans-(C)
Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) is a technology used to verify the legitimacy and

originality of paper

documents, especially cheques. It is used mainly by the banking industry to ease the processing and

clearance of cheques.

25. Which of the following institutions is/are responsible for the supervision of RRBs?

(A) RBI (B) SEBI

(C) NABARD (D) Government of India

(E) Both A and C

Ans-(E)

NABARD has been sharing with the Reserve Bank of India

certain supervisory functions in respect of Regional Rural

Banks (RRBs) and Cooperative Banks.

26. The Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLC) can be traded using the RBIs -

(A) e-kuber platform (B) NEFT

(C) RTGS (D) None of these

Ans-(A)

The priority sector lending certificates can be traded using the RBI e-kuber platform. It is the core

banking solution of the RBI

27.FCNR accounts are maintained in the form of -

(A) Saving account (B) Current account

(C) Term deposit (D) None of these

Ans-(C)

A foreign Currency Non Resident (FCNR) account is a fiexd

term bank account that can be opened in India by an NRI or

a Person of Indian Origin (PIO) to transfer their foreign income in the same currency.

28. On the basis of which commission's recommendations RBI was established?

(A) Hilton Young Commission

(B) Federal Commission

(C) British Commission

(D) Federation Commission

Ans-(A)

The Reserve Bank 6f India was set up on the basis of the recom menda ons of the Hilton Young
Commission, The Reserve

Bank of India Act, 1934 provides statutory basis of the func oning of RBI which commenced
operations on April 1, 1935.

29. Which of the following agreement accord is related to banking reforms?

(A) Vienna agreement (B) Basel accord

(C) Nagoya protocol (D) Cartagena protocol

Ans-(B)

Basel accords are three sets of banking regulations and

recommendationthat the Basel Committee on Banking

Supervision (BCBS) created over several years (1988, 2004

and 2010). The purpose of the accord is to ensure that

financial institutions have enough capital on account to

meet obligations and absorb unexpected losses.

30. RTGS enables which of the following?

(A) Immediate transfer of money from customer of one bank to customer of another bank

(B) Immediate transfer ofmoney from customer of one bank to customer of another branch within
the

same bank Prompt Corrective Action or PCA is a mechanism to ensure

(C) Immediate transfer of money from customer to another country

(D) None of these

Ans-(A)

RTGS stands for Real Time Gross Settlement. It is an

electronic payment system which allows individuals to

transfer funds between banks. Itis only applicable for money

transfer within the country. This system is maintained by RBI.

31. Which of the following is not classified as a commercial bank?

(A) Public Sector Banks

(B) Foreign Banks

(C) Private Sector Banks

(D) Regional Rural Banks

(E) Urban Cooperative Banks

Ans-(E)

All of the above except Urban Cooperative Banks are commercial banks in India.

32. Coins in India are minted at which of them?

(A) Hyderabad (B) Kolkata

(C) Noida (D) All of the above

Ans-(D)

Coins in India are minted at four India Government Mints

at Mumbai, Alipore (Kolkata), Saifabad (Hyderabad),

Cherlapally (Hyderabad) and Noida (Uttar Pradesh).

33. White label ATM means which of these?

(A) The ATM that does not have any bank logo

(B) The ATM carries logo of RBI

(C) Both of the above

(D) ATM carries funds

Ans-(A)

The ATMs owned and operated by non-banking entities are

called white label ATM. Thus they do not carry any specific

bank logo.
34. Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) was recently in news,is related to which of the

following?

(A) RBI (B) SEBI

(C) NITI Aayog (C) PFRDA

Ans-(A)

Prompt Corrective Action or PCA is a mechanism to ensure

that banks do not go bust. Under it, RBI has put in place

some trigger point to assess, monitor, control and takecorrective actions on banks which are weak

and troubled.

35. In the context of Indian economy, Open Market operations refers to?

(a) Borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI

(B) Lending by commercial banks to Industry and Trade

(C) Purchase & sale of government securities by the RBI

(D) None of the above

Ans-(C)

Open Market Operations (OMO) is the sale and purchase of

the government securities by RBI.OMO is one of the monetary

policy tools that RBI uses to smoothen liquidity conditions

through the year and regulate money supply in the market.

36. The main objective of the Monetary policy in India is?

(A) Growth and stability

(B) Reduce poverty and achieve stability

(C) Overall Monetary Stability

(D) None of these

Ans-(A)

The main objective of the Monetary policy in India is rapid

economic growth and to maintain price stability. The other

objectives of the monetary policy are exchange rate stability,

to maintain Balance of payment equilibrium, to generate

employment, equal income distribution etc.

37. Which of the following is not a quantitative credit control technique?

A) Bank Rate

(B) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)

(C) Increase of Interest Rate on saving deposit

(D) Statutory Liquidity Ratio

Ans-(C)

Credit control is done by RBI to maintain monetary stability

in the economy. There are two methods to control credit

that are Qualitative and Qualitative Credit control

method. The Quantitative is used to control the

volume of the total credit through open market operations,

CRR,SLR, Repo Rate, Bank Rate etc

38. An instrument of qualitative credit control in India is?

(A) Open market operations

(B) Credit Rationing

(C) Change in Reserve ratio

(D) Bank Rate

Ans-(B)

Qualitative credit control method is used to control the flow

of credit through direct actions like, moral suasion, marginal requirement, Consumer Credit

Regulations, Rationing of credit etc.

39. Bank rate refers to which of the following?

(A) Rate of Interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers

(B) Rate of Interest at which commercial banks discount bills of their borrowers

( C) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits

(D) The rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks

Ans-(D)

Bank rate refers to the official interest rate at which RBI will provide loans to the banking system

which includes commercial-cooperative banks, development banks etc. for along period. Such loans

are given out either by direct lending or by rediscounting the bills of commercial banks and treasury

bills.

40. Reverse Repo Rate refers to?

(A) It is a rate at which RBI sells Government securities to banks

(B) It is a rate at which RBI buys Government securities from banks

(C) Improving the position of availability of securities in the market

(D) Itis arate which is offered by banks to their most valued customers or prime customers

Ans-(A)

Reverse Repo Rate is the rate at which the central bank of the country borrows money from the

commercial banks within the country. In this case RBI sells government securities to the

banks and thus regulates the money supply in the market.

41. What is Repo rate?

(A)It is arate at which RBI sells government securities to banks

(B) It is a rate at which RBI buys government securities from banks

(C) It isa rate at which RBI allows small loans in the market

(D) It isa rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks

Ans-(B)

Repo rate is a rate at which the central bank of the country lends money to the commercial banks in

the event of the short- fall of funds. Itis done by purchasing the government securities

from the bank thus increasing the money supply in the market.
42. Which of the following statements correctly explains the Marginal Standing Facility?

(A) It is the interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides overnight liquidity to banks against the

collateral of the banks

(B) It isa facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional amount of

overnight money from the Reserve Bank

(C) Itisarateat which RBI is ready to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial papers

(D) None of the above

Ans-(B)

Marginal Standing Facility or MSF is a window for bank sto borrow form the Reserve Bank of India

in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely. Banks avail this facility

by pledging government securities at a rate higher than the

43. National Income is the —

(A) Net National Product at market price

(B) Net National Product at factor cost

(C) Net Domestic Product at market price

(D) Net Domestic Product at factor cost

Ans-(A)

National Income = NNP at Market Price- Indirect Tax +

at Factor Cost Subsidies

[NNP - Net National Product]

India officially used to calculate its national income at factor

cost. Since January, 2015 the CSO has switched over to

calculating at market price or market cost.

44. In India, service sector includes which of these?

I. Mining and Quarrying

II. Transport and Communication

III. Hotels

IV. Forestry and Fishing

Select the correct answer from the codes given below —

(A) Only I and II (B) Only II and III

(C) Only III and IV (D) Only I and IV

Ans-(B)

In India Service sector is a Tertiary Sector which provides

services. Service sector includes - retail, banks, hotels, 2,

estate, education, health, social work, computer Services

recreation, media, transport and communication, electricity

gas and water supply. The Primary Sector produces some,

original goods like Agriculture, Fishing or Forestry: and

Secondary sector deals with the processing or manufacturing

like Mining, Industries or food processing.

45. Hindu Rate of Growth refers to the rate of growth of ?

(A) GDP (B) Population

(C) Food grains (D) Per capita Income

Ans-{A)

The term Hindu rate of Growth was coined by Professor Raj Krishna in 1978 to characterise the slow

growth of Indian economy and to explain it against the backdrop of socialist economic policies. The

term came into being to show India’s contentment with the low growth rate, Post-Independence.

46. Who wrote the book describing the theory of economic drain of India during British rule?

(A) LalaLajpat Rai (B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) DadabhaiNaoroji

Ans-(D)

DadabhaiNaoroji’s work focused on the drain of wealth from India to England during colonial rule of
British in India. One of the reasons that the Drain Theory is attributed to Naoroji is his decision to

estimate the net national profit of India and by extension, the effect that colonisation had on

the country, and it's economy.

47. As the economy develops, the share of the tertiary

sector in the GDP?

(A) Decreases

(B) Decreases than Increases

(C) Increases

(D) Remain constant

Ans(C)

As the economy develops, the share of tertiary sector Increases in the economy. As the economy

develops more Number of people get education and acquire skills thus boosting the tertiary sector
and

the economy develops lot of services due to increase in competition and infusion of technology.

48. National Income estimates in India are Prepared by?

(A) NITI Aayog

(B) Reserve Bank of India

(C) Central Statistics Office

(D) Indian Statistical Organisation

Ans-(C)

During the post - independence Period, the estimate of

National Income was primarily conducted by National Income

Committee. Later on, it was carried over by Central Statistics

Office (CSO).

49. Depreciation is equal to which of these?

(A)Gross National Product -Net National Product

(B) NetNational Product - Gross National Product

(C) Gross National Product - Personal Income

(D) Personal Income - Personal Taxes

Ans-(A)

Net National Product = Gross National Product -Depreciation NNP is the total market value of all

final goods and services produced by the factors of production of a country during a given time

period, minus depreciation. Depreciation is simply wear and tear (i.e.) the cost of goods

that go into replacement of existing worn out capital.

50. Which is not included in the private income arising in a country?

(A) Factor income from net domestic product

(B) Net factor income from abroad

(C) Current transfers from Government

(D) Current Payments on foreign loans

Ans(D)

Private income is the total of factor incomes and transfer Incomes received from all sources by
private

sector (private enterprise and households) within and outside the country. I also includes Net factor

income from abroad. Private income consists of not only factor income earned within the

domestic territory and abroad but also all current transfers from government and rest of the world.
It

does not include current payments on foreign loans.

51. Mixed economy means —

(A) Where agriculture and industry are given equal importance.

(B) Where public sector exists along with the private sector in national economy.

(C) Where globalisation is transferred with heavy dose of swadeshi in national economy.

(D) Where centre and states are equal partners in economic planning and development.

Ans-(B)

A mixed economy isa system that combines aspects of both Capitalism and socialism. It protects

private property and allows a level of economic freedom in the use of capital, but also allows the
governments to interfere in economic activities in order to achieve social aims.

52. Which base year is used to calculate per capita income in India?

(A) 2004-05 (B) 2011-12

(C) 2001-02 (D) 2014-15

Ans-(B)

The per capita income in India is calculated by taking 2011-12 as the base year. It is released by

Central Statistics Office (CSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

53. Which sector contributes the most to India’s economy?

(A) Service sector (B) Manufacturing sector

(C) Agriculture sector (D) Small scale industries

Ans-(A)

Service sector contributes the most to GDP in India’s

economy. It contributes about 54.40% of the Indian GDP.

Service 'sector includes financial, real estate and professional

services, public administration, defence and other services,

trade, hotels, transport etc. However, Agriculture sector is

the largest employer in India’s economy.

54. Transfer Payments do not include?

(A) Old age pensions

(B) Subsidy paid to exporters

(C) Universal basic income (UBI)

(D) Student grants

Ans-(B)

Expenditures like pensions, scholarships, UBI are direct

transfer of money and do not directly absorb resources Or

create output. They are called transfer payments. It includes

social security, old age or disability pension, student grants,

unemployment compensation. Subsidies paid to farmers,

exporters and manufacturers are not included in transfer

payments because they are linked to economic transactions.

55. Happiness Index is released by -

(A) IMF (B) World Bank

(C) UNCTAD

(D) UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network

Ans-(D)

Happiness Index is a part of the World Happiness Report

which is annually published by UN Sustainable Development

Solutions Network. Finland topped the list and India got

140" rank out of 156 countries in Happiness Index-2019.

Madhya Pradesh became the first state in India to set up

happiness department.

56. Consider the following statements about Green GDP —

1. Itis an index of economic growth with environmental

consequences of the growth factored in.

2. From the final value of goods and services produced,

the cost of ecological degradation is added to get Green GDP.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 only (D) None

Ans-(A)

Green GDP is an index of economic growth with environmental

consequences of growth factored in. In calculating Green

GDP, the cost of ecological degradation is deducted from

the cost of final value of goods and services produced.

57. Share of various sectors in India's GDP in descending order is as —

(A) Agriculture and allied activities > Industry >Services

(B) Industry > Agriculture and allied activities >Services

(C) Services > Industry > Agriculture and allied activities

(D) Services > Agriculture and allied activities Industry

Ans-(C)

According to Ministry of statistics and Programme Implementation contribution of service sector is

54.40% of with Industry sector contributing 29.73% while Agriculture and allied activities contribute

15.87%.

58. Make in India initiative of the Indian Government aims-

(A) To strengthen informal sector of the Indian economy

(B) To provide vocational education and skills promote

(C) To strengthen manufacturing sector of the Indian economy

(D) To facilitate FDI in the service sector of Indian economy

Ans-(C)

Make in India aims to provide impetus and reboot to the

manufacturing sector and shifting Indian economy from

a service provider to a manufacturing hub.

59. With an increase in Remittance money from abroad to

India —

1.India's Gross Domestic Product will increase

2. India's Gross National product will increase

3.India's National Income will increase

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) l and 3 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans-(B)

Remittance money is Net factor Income from Abroad

(NFIA). GDP does not include NFIA. GNP is sum of GDP and

NFIA. National income is Net National Product at factor

cost and hence, it also includes NFIA.

60. National Income accounting ignores —

(A) Sales of a firm

(B) Salary of employees

(C) Exports of the IT sector

(D) Sale of Land

Ans-(D)

National Income 'ignores sale of land.

61. Which of the following functions are being performed by the Reserve Bank of India?

(A) Regulation of Banks in India

(B) Regulation of Foreign Direct Investment in India

(C) Foreign Currency Management in India

(D) Control and supervision of Money supply

(E) All of the above

Ans-(E)

All of the above are functions of Reserve Bank of India.

62. Banking Ombudsman Scheme is applicable to the business of —

(A) All Scheduled Commercial Banks excluding RRBs

(B) All Scheduled Commercial Banks including RRBs

(C) Only Public Sector Banks

(D) Only Private Sector Banks

Ans-(B)

The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is an expiditious and

inexpensive forum for bank customers for resolution of

complaints relating to certain services rendered by banks. All

Scheduled Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks and

Scheduled Primary Cooperative Banks are covered under

the scheme.

63. A centralised database with online connec vity to branches, internet as well as ATM network
which has been adopted by all major banks of our country is known as?

(A) Investment banking (B) Core Banking

(C) MobileBanking (D) Specialised Banking

Ans-(B)

Using core banking customers can access their accounts

from any branch, internet as well as ATM, anywhere

irrespective of where they have physically opened their account

64. Which of the following is known as plastic money?

1. Demand draft 2. Credit card

3. Debit card

Code -

(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2

(C) 2 and 3 only (D) All of the above

Ans-(C)

Plastic Money includes debit card, credit card, ATM card

charge card, etc. The basic purpose of the plastic money is

to provide a durable form of money, reducing expenditure

on printing notes, making transactions transparent and

convenient.

65. MICR code is used for which of these?

(A) For code banking solution

(B) For electric fund transfer

(C) For electronic clearance of cheques

(D) None of these

Ans-(C)

Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) is a technology used to verify the legitimacy and

originality of paper

documents, especially cheques. It is used mainly by the banking industry to ease the processing and

clearance of cheques.

66. Which of the following institutions is/are responsible for the supervision of RRBs?

(A) RBI (B) SEBI

(C) NABARD (D) Government of India

(E) Both A and C

Ans-(E)

NABARD has been sharing with the Reserve Bank of India

certain supervisory functions in respect of Regional Rural

Banks (RRBs) and Cooperative Banks.

67. The Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLC) can be traded using the RBIs -

(A) e-kuber platform (B) NEFT

(C) RTGS (D) None of these

Ans-(A)

The priority sector lending certificates can be traded using the RBI e-kuber platform. It is the core

banking solution of the RBI

68.FCNR accounts are maintained in the form of -

(A) Saving account (B) Current account

(C) Term deposit (D) None of these

Ans-(C)

A foreign Currency Non Resident (FCNR) account is a fiexd

term bank account that can be opened in India by an NRI or

a Person of Indian Origin (PIO) to transfer their foreign income in the same currency.

69. On the basis of which commission's recommendations RBI was established?

(A) Hilton Young Commission

(B) Federal Commission

(C) British Commission

(D) Federation Commission

Ans-(A)

The Reserve Bank 6f India was set up on the basis of the recom menda ons of the Hilton Young
Commission, The Reserve

Bank of India Act, 1934 provides statutory basis of the func oning of RBI which commenced
operations on April 1, 1935.

70. Which of the following agreement accord is related to banking reforms?

(A) Vienna agreement (B) Basel accord

(C) Nagoya protocol (D) Cartagena protocol

Ans-(B)

Basel accords are three sets of banking regulations and

recommendationthat the Basel Committee on Banking

Supervision (BCBS) created over several years (1988, 2004

and 2010). The purpose of the accord is to ensure that

financial institutions have enough capital on account to

meet obligations and absorb unexpected losses.

71. RTGS enables which of the following?

(A) Immediate transfer of money from customer of one bank to customer of another bank

(B) Immediate transfer ofmoney from customer of one bank to customer of another branch within
the
same bank Prompt Corrective Action or PCA is a mechanism to ensure

(C) Immediate transfer of money from customer to another country

(D) None of these

Ans-(A)

RTGS stands for Real Time Gross Settlement. It is an

electronic payment system which allows individuals to

transfer funds between banks. Itis only applicable for money

transfer within the country. This system is maintained by RBI.

72. Which of the following is not classified as a commercial bank?

(A) Public Sector Banks

(B) Foreign Banks

(C) Private Sector Banks

(D) Regional Rural Banks

(E) Urban Cooperative Banks

Ans-(E)

All of the above except Urban Cooperative Banks are commercial banks in India.

73. Coins in India are minted at which of them?

(A) Hyderabad (B) Kolkata

(C) Noida (D) All of the above

Ans-(D)

Coins in India are minted at four India Government Mints

at Mumbai, Alipore (Kolkata), Saifabad (Hyderabad),

Cherlapally (Hyderabad) and Noida (Uttar Pradesh).

74. White label ATM means which of these?

(A) The ATM that does not have any bank logo

(B) The ATM carries logo of RBI

(C) Both of the above

(D) ATM carries funds

75. Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) was recently in news,is related to which of the following?

(A) RBI (B) SEBI

(C) NITI Aayog (C) PFRDA

Ans-(A)

Prompt Corrective Action or PCA is a mechanism to ensure

that banks do not go bust. Under it, RBI has put in place

some trigger point to assess, monitor, control and take

corrective actions on banks which are weak and troubled.

76. In the context of Indian economy, Open Market operations refers to?

(a) Borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI

(B) Lending by commercial banks to Industry and Trade

(C) Purchase & sale of government securities by the RBI

(D) None of the above

Ans-(C)

Open Market Operations (OMO) is the sale and purchase of

the government securities by RBI.OMO is one of the monetary

policy tools that RBI uses to smoothen liquidity conditions

through the year and regulate money supply in the market.

77. The main objective of the Monetary policy in India is?

(A) Growth and stability

(B) Reduce poverty and achieve stability

(C) Overall Monetary Stability

(D) None of these

Ans-(A)

The main objective of the Monetary policy in India is rapid

economic growth and to maintain price stability. The other

objectives of the monetary policy are exchange rate stability,

to maintain Balance of payment equilibrium, to generate

employment, equal income distribution etc.

78. Which of the following is not a quantitative credit control technique?

A) Bank Rate

(B) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)

(C) Increase of Interest Rate on saving deposit

(D) Statutory Liquidity Ratio

Ans-(C)

Credit control is done by RBI to maintain monetary stability

in the economy. There are two methods to control credit

that are Qualitative and Qualitative Credit control

method. The Quantitative is used to control the

volume of the total credit through open market operations,

CRR,SLR, Repo Rate, Bank Rate etc

79. An instrument of qualitative credit control in India is?

(A) Open market operations

(B) Credit Rationing

(C) Change in Reserve ratio

(D) Bank Rate

Ans-(B)

Qualitative credit control method is used to control the flow

of credit through direct actions like, moral suasion, marginal requirement, Consumer Credit

Regulations, Rationing of credit etc.

80. Bank rate refers to which of the following?

(A) Rate of Interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers

(B) Rate of Interest at which commercial banks discount bills of their borrowers

(C) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits

(D) The rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks

Ans-(D)

Bank rate refers to the official interest rate at which RBI

will provide loans to the banking system which includes

commercial-cooperative banks, development banks etc.

for along period. Such loans are given out either by direct

lending or by rediscounting the bills of commercial banks

and treasury bills.

81. Reverse Repo Rate refers to?

(A) It is a rate at which RBI sells Government securities to banks

(B) It is a rate at which RBI buys Government securities from banks

(C) Improving the position of availability of securities in the market

(D) Itis arate which is offered by banks to their most valued customers or prime customers

bills of exchange of commercial banks

Ans-(D)

Bank rate refers to the official interest rate at which RBI

will provide loans to the banking system which includes

commercial-cooperative banks, development banks etc.

for along period. Such loans are given out either by direct

lending or by rediscounting the bills of commercial banks

and treasury bills.

82. Reverse Repo Rate refers to?

(A) It is a rate at which RBI sells Government securities to banks

(B) It is a rate at which RBI buys Government securities from banks

(C) Improving the position of availability of securities in the market

(D) Itis arate which is offered by banks to their most

valued customers or prime customers

Ans-(A)

Reverse Repo Rate is the rate at which the central bank of the

country borrows money from the commercial banks within

the country. In this case RBI sells government securities to the

banks and thus regulates the money supply in the market.

83. What is Repo rate?

(A)It is arate at which RBI sells government securities

to banks

(B) It is a rate at which RBI buys government

securities from banks

(C) It isa rate at which RBI allows small loans in the market

(D) It isa rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts

bills of exchange of commercial banks

Ans-(B)

Repo rate is a rate at which the central bank of the country

lends money to the commercial banks in the event of the short fall of funds. I s done by purchasing
the government securities

from the bank thus increasing the money supply in the market.

84. Which of the following statements correctly explains the Marginal Standing Facility?

(A) It is the interest rate at which the Reserve Bank

provides overnight liquidity to banks against the

collateral of the banks

(B) It isa facility under which scheduled commercial

banks can borrow additional amount of overnight

money from the Reserve Bank

(C) Itisarateat which RBI is ready to buy or rediscount

bills of exchange or other commercial papers

(D) None of the above

Ans-(B)

Marginal Standing Facility or MSF is a window for bank sto borrow form the Reserve Bank of India

in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely. Banks avail this facility

by pledging government securities at a rate higher than the

85. Atal BimitVyaktiKalyanYojna was launched by —

(A) Ministry of Finance

(B) Pension Fund Regulatory Development Authority

(C) Employee's state Insurance Corporation

(D) Employee Provident Fund Organisation

Ans-(c)

Atal BimitVyaktiKalyanYojna was launched by Employees’

State Insurance (ESI) for providing unemployment allowance

to workers rendered jobless due to changing employment

Pattern. ESlis self-financing social security and health finance

Scheme for Indian workers. It is an autonomous corporation

under Ministry of Labour and Employment.

86. Capacity Development Scheme belongs to the Ministry

of?

(A) Skill Development

(B) Finance

(C) Railways

(D) Statistics and Programme Implementation

Ans-(D)

Capacity Development scheme is a central sector scheme

of Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation

(MoSPI).Its objective is to augment infrastructural, technical as well as manpower resources for

making available credible and

timely official statistics for policy makers and public at large.

87. Smart India Hackathon 2019 was launched by —

(A) Ministry of Electronics and Information

Technology

(B) Ministry of Human Resource Development

(C) Ministry of Civil Aviation

(D) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.

Ans-(B)

Smart India Hackathon is the world’s biggest open innovation

model which aims to provide students with platform to solve

some of the problems faced by people in their daily life. Union

Ministry of Human Resource Development organised the

third edition of Smart India Hackathon 2019 (SIH-2019). It

also seeks to inculcate culture of product innovation and

problem- solving mindset among young children.

88. Which of themis the Nodal Ministry for Pradhan Mantri

Gram SadakYojana (PMGSY)?

(A) Ministry of Road Transport

(B) Ministry of Rural Development

(C) Ministry of Tourism

(D) Ministry of Home Affairs

Ans-(A)

Pradhan Mantri Gram SadakYojana was launched with an

aim to provide single all- weather road connectivity to all

eligible unconnected habitations in rural India with a

population of 500 persons and above (in plain areas) and

250 persons and above (in Hilly areas), The Nodal ministry

is Ministry of Road Transport.

89. Which of the following scheme were amalgamated in Pradhan antriKrishiSinchayeeYojana

(PMKSY)?

(A) Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Program (AIBP)

(B) Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP)

(C) On Farm Water Management (OFWM)

(D) All of these

Ans-(D)

Pradhan MantriKrishiSinchayeeYojana was launched on

July 2015 by amalgamating AIBP, Integrated Watershed

Management Programme (I|WMP) and On Farm Water

Management (OFW/M) to ensure access to some means of

protective irrigation for all agricultural farms in the country

to produce per drop more crop.

90. IMPRINT scheme is an initiative of —

(A) Department of Science and Technology

(B) Ministry of Tourism

(C) Ministry of Human Resource Development

(D) Both (A) and (C)

Ans-(D)
Impacting Research Innovation and Technology

(IMPRINT-II) is an initative of Ministry of Human Resource

Development and Department of Science & Technology.

The aim is to address major science and engineering

challenges and boost original scientific and technical

research in 10 technology identified domains.

91. Housing for all (URBAN) was created by subsuming the

Rajiv AwasYojana and Rajiv RinnYojana, which the

nodal agency created to channelize this subsidy to

the lending institutions?

(A) HUDCO (B) NHB

C) A&B (D) NABARD

Ans-(C)

NHB and Housing and Urban Development Corporati,

(HUDCO) has been desiginated as a Central Nodal Agency,

Agencies (CAN) for implementation of CLSS.

93 . Which programme was launched, on the 149" birth

anniverssary of SardarVallabhbhai Patel, with the

objective of promoting greater mutual understanding

amongst states & UTS?

(A) RashtriyaEktaShivir

(B) Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat

(C) Unnat Bharat

(D) All of the above

Ans-(B)

The Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat programme, aims to actively enhance interaction between people of

diverse cultures living in different states and UTs in India, with the objective of promoting greater
mutual understanding amongst them.

94. Which state has implemented SAKALA scheme?

(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Kamataka

(C) Rajasthan (D) Madhya Pradesh

Ans-(B)

SAKALA is a scheme which assures timely delivery ofgovernment services to citizens launched by

Karnataka government.

95. Under Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spirituality

Augmentation Drive (PRASAD) how many sites have

been identified for development as pilgrimage tourist

destination?

(A) 25 (B) 15

(C) 13 (D) 11

Ans-(C)

Thirteen cities namely Amravati (Andhra Pradesh), Gaya (Bihar), Dwaraka (Gujarat), Amritsar

(Punjab), Ajmer (Rajasthan), Kanchipuram (Tamil Nadu), Vellankani (Tamil Nadu), Puri (Odisha),

Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh), Mathura (Uttar Pradesh), Kedarnath (Uttarakhand), Kamakhy4

(Assam), Patna (Bihar) has been identified for development under Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and

Spirituality Augmentation Drive by the ministry of Tourism.

96. who releases the Human Development Index?

(A) World Bank

(B) United Nations Development Programme

(C) United Nations Development Programme

(D) UNCTAD

Ans-(C)

Human Development Index (HDI) is a summary measure

of human development. It measures the average achieve

ments in a country on three basic parameters of human

Global Financial Development Report is released by the

development: a long and healthy life, access to knowledge,

a decent standard of living. It is released by the United

nation Development Programme (UNDP).

97. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about World Happiness Report?

1. It is published by the World Bank

2. In 2018, India’s rank is lower than the other SAARC Countries.

Code -

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans-(B)

The World Happiness Report is a measure of Happiness Published by United Nations Sustainable

Development So- lution Network (UN-SDSN). It measures happiness based on six criterias which

include: GDP per capita, Healthy of life expectancy, social support, trust, percieved freedom

to make life decisions and Generosity. India’s rank is lower compared to other SAARC Countries.

98. Who releases the Global Corruption Report?

(A) World Press Freedom Index

(B) Amnesty Intemational

(C) Transparency International

(D) None of these

Ans-(D)

It is released by Transparency International. In 2019.

Denmark is the least corrupt country followed by New

Zealand. Somalia has been ranked last in the list.

99. Global Financial Development Report is released by?

(A) World Bank (B) IMF

(C) UNCTAD (D) UNEP

Ans-(A)

Global Financial Development Report is released by the

World Bank, The 2017-18 report (Bankers without Borders)

provides a unique contribution to financial sector policy

debates, building on novel data, survey research and wide ranging country experience, with
emphasis on emerging

markets and developing economies.

100. Who publishes the World Economic Outlook?

(A) International Monetary Fund ( IMF)

(B) World Bank

(C) UN-SDSN

(D) None of these

Ans-(A)

World Economic Outlook is a survey conducted and listed by IMF, It is published biannually and

partly updated two times a year. Its forecasts include key macro economic indicators such as GDP,

inflation, current account and fiscal balance of more than 180 countries around the globe.

Exam Topic: [Full Marks – 100]

 General Introduction of India

 Indian Physiography

 Indian Drainage System

 Climate of India

 Soils and Natural Vegetation of India

 Agriculture
 Irrigation and Multipurpose

 Projects of India

 Mineral Resources of India

 Energy Resources of India

 Industry

 Transport

 Tribes and Languages

 States and Union Territories of India

Question Number: 1

India is situated between which of the following coordinates?

(A) 37° 17'53" North and 8° 6'28" South

(B)37° 17'53" North and 8° 4'28" South

(C) 37° 17'53" North and 8° 28" North

(D) None of the above

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : India is situated north of the equator between 8° 04' to 37° 06' North latitude and

68°07' to 97°25' East longitude. None of the option is correct, hence option (D) is correct

Question Number: 2

What is the approximate number of total villages in India?

(A) 5 lakh (B) 6,49,481

(C) 8 lakh (D) None of these

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : As per census 2011, the total number of villages in India is 6 lakh 40 thousand 8

hundred and 67 (6,40,867).

Question Number:3

The southern most point of India is -

(A) Kanyakumari (B) Rameshwaram

(C) Indira Point (D) Point Calimere

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION :

Extreme points of India -

1. Northern most point- Indira Col, Siachin Glacier

2. Southern most point- Indira Point in the Nicobar island

3. Eastern most point- Kibithu (Arunachal Pradesh)

4. Western most point- Sir Creek in Kutch near guhar moti village, Gujrat

Question Number: 4

Which of the following country share the longest land frontier with India?

(A) China (B) Nepal

(C) Pakistan (D) Bengladesh

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Bangladesh shares the longest land frontier with India of 4096 km where Indian

states of West Bengal, Tripura, Meghalaya, Assam and Mizoram sharing the International boundary.

Question Number:5

The Boundary line between Indian and China is called?

(A) Durand Line (B) Maginot Line

(C) Mc Mohan Line (D) Radcliffe Line

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : McMahon Line is the boundary between India and China. The line was named after

Sir Arthur Henry McMahon in 1914. He proposed the line in the Simla Accord to separate Tibet from

India

Question Number 6

Aksai Chin lies in which of the Indian states?

(A) Sikkim

(B) Arunachal Pradesh

(C) Uttarakhand

(D) Jammu and Kashmir

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Aksal Chin lies in the eastern Jammu & Kashmir under Ladakh region currently

under Chinese occupation post 1962 war.

Question Number:7

Which of the following have the oldest rocks in the country?

(A) Himalayas

(B) Indo-gangetic plain

(C) Siwaliks

(D) Aravallis

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Aravallis or the relic mountains is the oldest mountain range in India running South

west to North East from Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana to Delhi in form of a ridge.

Question Number:8

The latitude that divides India into almost two equal parts is -

(A)23° 30' South (B) 33° 30' South

(C) 0° (D) 23° 30' North

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : The Tropic of Cancer (23°30' N) is an imaginary line that divides India into almost

two equal parts.

Question Number: 9

The time difference between the western most village of Gujarat and the eastern most village of
Arunachal Pradesh is -

(A) 1 hour (B) 2 hours

(C) 3 hours (D) ½ hours

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Gujarat extends 68°16' to 74°48' East Longitude and Arunachal Pradesh extends

from 91°30' to 97°30' East Lon gitude. The longitudinal difference is 97°37'-68°4' = 29°26'. The

difference between each longitude is 4 min thus 29°26' x 4 = 118 minutes (approximately 2 hours).

Question Number: 10

Which of the following pair of Indian states indicates the Eastern most and Westernmost state?

(A) Assam and Rajasthan

(B) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan

(C)Assam and Gujarat

(D) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : The easternmost and westernmost states of India are Arunachal Pradesh and
Gujarat

respectively.

Question Number: 11

The Indian subcontinent was once the part of a huge landmass called -

(A) Jurassic land mass

(B) Aryavarta

(C) Indiana

(D) Gondwana Land

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : The Indian sub-continent was once a part of Gondwanaland. It is the name given to

the most southern part southerly of the two super continents that were part of the Pangea
supercontinent

that existed approximately 510 to 180 million years ago. Gondwana included most of the landmasses
in
today's Southern Hemisphere including Antarctia, South America, Africa, Madagascar, Australia,
Indian

subcontinent and Arabian Peninsula

Question Number: 12

Kuttanad (or Kuttanadu) of Kerala is famous for –

A) A fresh water lake

(B) The region with the lowest altitude in India

(C) A coral island

(D) The western most point of India

Ans-(B)

Kuttanad also called the rice bowl of Kerala is a region in Kerala's Alappuzha district having the
lowest

altitude in India, recognized for its paddy field. FAO has declared the Kuttanad farming system as a

Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS).

Question Number:13

New Moore Island lies in the vicinity of?

(A) Andaman (B) Nicobar

(C) West Bengal (D) Odisha

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : New Moore Island/South Talpatti is an unhabitated offshore sandbar island in Bay of

Bengal. It lies in the Vicinity of West Bengal. It emerged in the aftermath of Bhola Cyclone (1970) but

disappeared and re-emerged in 2010. Disputed between India and Bangladesh.

Question Number: . 14

Which of the following is the oldest mountain range in India?

(A) Himalaya (B) Aravalli

(C) Vindhya (D) Satpura

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Aravalli is the oldest mountain range of India. It runs from north east to south west

direction for about 800 km between Delhi and Palanpur (Gujarat). It is a relict mountain formed as a

result of folding at the end of the Archean era.

Question Number: 15

Consider the following relief features -

1. Mahadeo Range

2. Maikal Range

3. Chhotanagpur plateau

4. Khasi Hills

The correct west to eastward sequence of the above relief features is –

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 4, 3, 2 and 1

(C) 2, 3, 4 and 1(D) 1, 3, 2 and 1

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : The correct west to eastward sequence of the above relief features is Mahadeo
Range,

Maikal Range, Chhotanagpur plateau and Khasi Range

Question Number: 16

The series of mountain/hill which lies at the junction/meeting point of eastern and western ghats is -

(A) Annamalai Hills (B) Cardamom Hills

(C) Nilgiri Hills(D) Shevaroy Hills

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats meet at Nilgiri Hills. It lies at the tri-junction of the

states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

Question Number: 17

Mikir Hills: North-East India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4 (D) 2 and 4

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION :

1. Cardamom Hills: These are a part of western ghats located in the south east of Kerala and south

west of Tamil Nadu for about 2,800 km. Their name comes from the Cardamom spice grown on

the hills elevation, which also supports the cultivation of pepper and coffee,

2. 2. Kaimur Hills : Located in central India passing through Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and

Bihar having a length of 483km. It is the eastern portion of the Vindhya Range.

3. 3. Mahadeo hills: Located in the state of Madhya Pradesh in the northern section of Satpura

Range.

Question Number:18

Arrange the following from North to South lying towards the Eastern Coast of Indian Peninsula?

(A) Point Calimere, False Divi Point, Palmyras Point

(B) Palmyras Point, False Divi Point, Point Calimere

(C) False Divi Point, Palmyras Point, Point Calimere

(D) Point Calimere, Palmyras Point, False Divi Point

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Palmyras point lies on the northern tip of Mahanadi delta in Odisha. False Divi Point

lies at the tip of mouth of Krishna in Andhra Pradesh. Point Calimere lies south of Cauvery delta in
Tamil

Nadu.

Question Number: 19

Which of the the following is not correctly matched -

(A)Shipki La: Himachal Pradesh

(B) Lipu Lekh: Uttar Pradesh

(C) Nathu La: Sikkim

(D) Zoji La: Jammu and Kashmir

Ans (B)

EXPLANATION : Lipu lekh pass is located in the state of Uttarakhand on the India-China border

Question Number: 20

Which of the following Indian states has the longest coastline?

(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Maharashtra

(C) Gujarat (D) Tamil Nadu

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : The total coastline of India measures about 7517 km. Gujarat has the longest coast

line (1915.29 km) followed by Andhra Pradesh (1037 km) and Tamil Nadu (864.73).

Question Number: 21

The longest flowing river in India is -

(A) Mahanadi (B) Godavari

(C) Ganga (D) Narmada

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : The Ganga is the longest river in India having total length of 2525 km within Indian

Subcontinent. The Godavari is the second longest river in India having length of 1465 km.

Question Number: 22

The river Yamuna originates from -

(A) Chaukhamba

(B) Banderpunch

(C) Nanda Devi

(D) Neelkanth

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : The Yamuna, the western most and the longest tributary of Ganga, originates as the
Yamunotri glacier on the western slopes of Banderpunch range (5,387 km) in western Uttarakhand.

Question Number: 23

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using code given below -

List-I List-II

(River) (Source)

1. Narmada 1. Mahabaleshwar

2. Godavari 2. Amarkantak plateau

3. Krishna 3. Sihawa

4. Mahanadi 4. Trimbak plateau

Code –

ABCD

(A) 1 3 2 4

(B) 2 4 1 3

(C) 3 2 4 1

(D) 4 1 3 2

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION :

(A) Narmada - Amarkantak plateau

(B)Godavari - Trimbak plateau

(C) Krishna - Mahabaleshwar

(D) Mahanadi - Sihawa

Question Number: 24

Which of the following rivers is not the tributary of River Yamuna?

(A) Kem (B) Betwa

(C) Son (D) Chambal

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Son is the tributary of Ganga. Yamuna is the largest tributary of River Ganga. Its
right bank tributaries are Chambal, Sind, Betwa, Ken and its left bank tributaries are Hindon, Giri,
Rind,

Vauna, Senga, etc.

Question Number: 25

.Which of the following river system does not form delta?

(A)Mahanadi (B) Godavari

(C) Narmada (D) Kaveri

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Narmada does not form delta rather it forms estuary be. cause of the presence of
hard

rocks during its course in the Western Ghats.

Most of the east rivers flowing in India form delta. The delta is formed when a river loses its velocity
and

capacity to carry sediments, thus the sediments are dropped at the mouth of the river in the form of
layers

Question Number: 26

Which of the following is/are tributaries of Brahmaputra?

1. Dibang 2. Kameng

3. Lohit

Code -

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Brahmaputra river originates from Chemyungdung glacier and flows as Tsang Po in

Tibet. It is youngest among the world rivers and is known as the moving ocean. The length of

Brahmaputra is about 2900 km. The main tributaries of Brahmaputra are Kameng, Manas, Raidak,
Teesta
from right and Dibang, Lohit, Dhansiri, Kalong towards left.

Question Number: 27

With the reference to Teesta River, consider the following statements -

1. The source of Teesta River is the same as that of Brahmaputra but its flows through Sikkim.

2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and is a tributary of river Teesta.

3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Teesta River originates in the Himalayas in North Sikkim from the Cholamu lake and

flows through the Indian states of Sikkim and West Bengal before entering Bangladesh where it
drains

into the Brahmaputra. Hence, statement (1) is wrong. Rangeet is the tributary of Teesta originating

fromthe Rathong glacier, meets it at the border between Sikkim and West Bengal. Hence statement
(2) is

right. Teesta is a tributary of Brahmaputra and joins it near Rangpur town in Bangladesh, hence it
does

not flow into Bay of Bengal.

Question Number: 28

Which of the following is not a tributary of the Krishna river?

(A) Bhima (B) Doni

(C) Tel (D) Tungabhadra

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Krishna river originates in the Western Ghats near Mahabaleshwar at an elevation of

about 1,300 meter in the state of Maharashtra. Its left bank tributaries are Bhima, Dindi, Peddouagu,

Halia, Musi, Paleru, Munneru and its right bank tributaries are Venna, Koyna, Panchganga,
Dudhganga,

Ghatprabha, Malprabha and Tungabhadra.

Question Number: 29

Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) Ahmedabad- Sabarmati

(B) Hyderabad - Krishna

(C) Kota - Chambal

(D) Nasik - Godavari

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : All of the above options are correctly matched except option (B) because Hyderabad

is located on the bank of river Musi not on the bank of Krishna river

Question Number: 30

Mach List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below

List-I List-II

(Lakes) (Location)

A. Asthamudi 1. Haryana

B. Pulicat 2. Kerala

C. Roopkund 3. Tamil Nadu

D. Surajkund 4. Uttarakhand

Code –

ABCD

(A) 3 2 1 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 4 2 3 1

(D) 1 4 2 3

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : The correct match of the List-I and List-Il is given below –
Lake Location

Asthamudi Kerala

Pulicat Tamil Nadu – Andhra Pradesh

Roopkund Uttarakhand

Surajkund Haryana

Question Number: 31

The term Monsoon is derived from -

(A) Arabic (B) Spanish

(C) Hindi (D) English

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Monsoon has been derived from the Arabic word Mausim which means season. It is

a seasonal reversal of winds of Indian Ocean and Southern Asia blowing from the Southwest in
summer

and from Northeast in winter.

Question Number: 32

Indian monsoon is indicated by seasonal displacement because of -

(A)Differential temperature of land and sea

(B)Cold wind of middle Asia

(C) Excess similarity of temperature

(D) None of the above

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : According to the thermal concept of monsoon, propounded by Halley that monsoon

are more than just seasonal winds and are also directly thermally induced. Thus, the origin of
monsoon

may be ascribed to the thermal difference between land and sea

Question Number:33
Consider the following statements -

1. The duration of monsoon decrease from Southern India to Northern India.

2. The amount of annual rainfall in the Northern Plains of India decreases from east to west.

Which of the given statement(s) above is/are correct?

(A) only 1 (B) only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : The amount of rainfall in the northern India decreases from east to west because of

the progressive decrease in humidity of winds. The duration of the monsoon decreases from
Southern

India to Northern India because, of the proximity of the southern part of India to sea which gets
early

rainfall from the south-west monsoons and for a longer duration than its northern counterpart

Question Number:34

Consider the following statements -

1. The winds that blow between 30°N and 60°S latitude throughout the year are known as
Westerlies.

2. The moist air masses that cause winter rain in North Western region of India are part of
Westerlies.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : The westerly winds are planetary winds occupying/flowing between 30° N to 60° N

in the Northern hemisphere and 30° Sto 60° Sin the Southern Hemisphere. A western disturbance is
an

extratropical storm originating in the Mediterranean region that brings rain in the North Western
part of

the Indian subcontinent under the influence of westerlies

Question Number: 35
Amritsar and Shimla are almost on the same latitude, but their climate difference is due to -

(A) The difference in the altitude

(B) Distance from the sea

(C) Snowfall in Shimla

(D) Pollution in Amritsar

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Though both the cities lie on the same latitude, Shimla is situated at a much higher

altitude (Temperature decreases with the rise in altitude) causing Shimla to have a lower
temperature than

Amritsar.

Question Number: 36

Mango shower is –

(A) Shower of Mango

(B) Dropping of Mango

(C) Rainfall in March-April in Karnataka, Kerala and Goa

(D) Crop of Mango

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Mango shower is the name of the pre-monsoon shower in Karnataka, Kerala and

Konkan coast (Goa) that helps in the ripening of mangoes.

Question Number: 37

India gets maximum rainfall mainly from –

(A)North-East Monsoon

(B) Retreating Monsoon

(C) South-West Monsoon

(D) Convectional Rainfall

Ans-(C)
EXPLANATION : India gets maximum rainfall- mainly from South-West monsoon. It is the rain

bearing seasonal winds that flows from Arabian sea to the mainland of India from the south west

direction. As per the Indian Meteorological Department, the official monsoon is between June to

September.

Question Number: 38

A rainy day as defined by the Indian Meteorological department is a day when the rainfall at a point

received is –

(A) 0.5 mm to 1 mm in 24 hours

(B) 1.1 mm to 1.5 mm in 24 hours

(C) Above 2.5 mm in 24 hours

(D) 1.6 mm to 2 mm in 24 hours

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : According to Indian Meteorological Department, a day is defined as a rainy day

when it recieves a rainfall of 2.5 mm in 24 hours.

Question Number: 39

What are the major causes of droughts in India?

(1) Inadequate rainfall

(2) Rainfall is highly variable Absence of forests due to deforestation, mining,

(3) agriculture and infrastructure

(4) Rainfall period is confined to few months

Code -

(A) (1), (2) and (3) are correct

(B) (2), (3) and (4) are correct

(C) (1), (3) and (4) are correct

(D) All are correct

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Major proportion of rainfall occurs in between June-September which often results
in
flash flooding at some point while it remains drought for the rest part. High variability of rainfall,
both in

duration and regional disparity end up in droughts. Since Western ghats witness Orographic rainfall,
a

major part of rainfall is received by the windward side leaving the leeward side dry. Also southern
states

have a longer monsoon duration when compared to their Northern counterparts. Deforestation
owing to

industrialization, mining, infrastructural expansion and bringing more land under agriculture has
shrinked

the tree cover reducing water retaining capacity of the soil that most often become a leading cause
of

droughts in India.

Question Number: 40

Which of the following types of rainfall are witnessed in the Indian Subcontinent?

(A) Conventional (B) Orographic

(C) Frontal (D) Both (B) and (C)

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : India witnesses South west monsoons through Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal

Branch, Arabian sea branch hits windward side of western ghats resulting in Orographic/Relief
Rainfall,

similarly Bay of Bengal branch hit's Garo-Khasi Jaintia hills that regulates rainfall in North East and

eastern India, Coastal states of India like Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu witness frontal
rainfall

through the tropical depressions or cyclones in the Bay of Bengal

Question Number: 41

Regur is another name for -

(A) Res Soil (B) Alluvial Soil

(C) Black Soil (D) Latertic Soil

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Black soil or Regur soil is also called Black cotton soil as its colour is black and is

suitable for cotton cultivation. Black soil is rich in calcium, potassium and magnesium but has poor

nitrogen content. Crops like tobacco, chilli, oilseeds, Jawar, ragi and maize grow well in it.

Question Number: 42

Which of the following statements regarding laterite soil of India are correct?

1. They are generally red in colour

2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash

3. They are well developed in Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh

4. Tapioca and Cashew nuts grow well on these soils.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 3 only

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Laterite soils are formed under condition of high temperature and high rainfall with

alternate wet and dry period These soils have oxides of Iron in it. They are well developed in South

Maharashtra, parts of Karnataka in Eastern Ghats, Rajmahal Hills, Vindhyan and Satpura ranges.

Question Number: 43

Laterite Soil is found in -

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Himachal Pradesh

(C) Punjab

(D) Maharashtra

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Laterite soils are well developed in parts of Western Ghats Eastern Ghats, South

Maharashtra, parts of Karnataka Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam
and

Meghalaya
Question Number: 44

Which of the following is known as self-ploughed soil of the country?

(A) Alluvial soil (B) Laterite soil

(C) Black soil (D) Dessert soil

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Black soil is known as self-ploughed soil because it has the ability to retain great

amount of water. During summers, huge cracks develop in it getting it exposed to sunlight and air.
With

the arrival of rainfall, the upper layer of soil fills the cracks, resulting in self ploughing

Question Number:45

Which one of the following crop enriches the Nitrogen content in soil?

(A) Potato (B) Sorghum

(C) Sunflower (D) Pea

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Leguminous plants like peas, alfalfa and beans enrich the nitrogen content of the
soil,

through the process known as Nitrogen fixation

Question Number:46

Which of the following types of soil has minimum water retention capacity?

(A) Alluvial Sand Soil

(B) Loamy Sand Soil

(C) Clayey Loamy Soil

(D) Loamy Soil

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Alluvial sand soil has the least water retaining capacity. The soils ability to hold

water depends upon the size of its particles. Sandy Alluvial soil have coarse particles so they have
low
water and nutrient holding capacity.

Question Number:47

Which one of the following particles have less than 0.002 mm diameter?

(A) Clay (B) Silt

(C) Fine Sand (D) None of the above

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Relative size of sand, silt and clay particles

1. Clay - less than 0.002 mm 0.002-0.05 mm

2. Silt - 0.002-0.05 mm

3. Sand - 0.05-2.00 mm

Question Number:48

When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil. What is the main reason for this

colour?

(A) Abundance of Magnesium

(B) Accumulated Humus

(C) Presence of Ferric Oxide

(D) Abundance of Phosphate

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : The red colour of the soil is due to the presence of ferric oxide. It is found in Tamil

Nadu, Southern Karnataka, north eastern Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Orissa.

Question Number:49

Teak and Sal are the products of?

(A) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest

(B) Tropical Evergreen Forest

(C) Tropical Thorn

(D) Alpine forests

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Teak and Sal are hardwood tree species found in Tropical Moist Decidous forest of

India. These trees are expensive due to their applicability in making furniture and building materials

Question Number:50

Salinization occurs when the water accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and
minerals.

What are the effects of Salinization on the irrigated land?

(A) It greatly increases the crop production

(B) It makes some soil impermeable

(C) It raises the ground water level

(D) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Salinization is the increase of salt concentration in the soil. It deteriorates the soil

structure, makes the soil impermeable, affects crop's yield and can make soil unsuitable for growing

crops.

Question Number: 51

First Agriculture University in India was established in the year?

(A) 1955 (B) 1960

(C) 1965 (D) 1970

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : The first state agriculture university of India was G.B. Pant University of Agriculture

and Technology, established in Pantnagar (then in Uttar Pradesh, now in Uttarakhand) in the year
1960.

Question Number:52

The term Evergreen Revolution has been used for increasing agriculture production in India by?

(A) Norman Borlaug

(B) M. S. Swaminathan
(C) Raj Krishna

(D) R.K.V. Rao

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Dr. M.S. Swaminathan led Green Revolution in India that comprised of technological

improvements targeted to increase agriculture productivity. It led to the adoption of new agriculture

strategy during mid 60’s by Government of India to achieve self-sufficiency in the food grain
production,

as mechanization of farming, artificial irrigation modes as tube wells and canals, use of HYV seeds
and

NPK fertilizers

Question Number:53

The average size of operational land holding in India is largest in?

(A) Punjab (B) Gujarat

(C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Rajasthan

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : As per Agriculture Census 2011 the average size of operational land holding in India

is largest in Rajasthan.

Question Number:54

Pink revolution is associated with which of those?

(A)Cotton (B) Garlic

(C) Grapes (D) Onion

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : In India pink revolution is associated with Onion. Overall pink revolution is related

to meat production.

Question Number:55

Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer from the code given below -
List-I List-II

A. Growth in Food 1. Green Revolution

Production

B. Milk Production 2. Blue Revolution

C. Fisheries 3. White Revolution

D. Fertilizers 4. Grey Revolution

Code –

ABCD

(A) 1 3 2 4

(B) 3 1 4 2

(C) 2 4 3 1

(D) 3 2 4 1

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : The correct match of List-I with List-Il is given below

Growth of Food Production- Green Revolution

Milk Production- White Revolution

Fisheries- Blue Revolution

Fertilizers- Grey Revolution

Hence option (A) is correct

Question Number: 56

Golden Revolution is related to which of them?

(A) Horticulture(B) Poultry

(C) Agriculture (D) Milk

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Golden Revolution focuses on Honey production and Horticulture (Cultivation of

flowers, fruits and vegetables

Question Number: 57

Which state is the Largest producer of wheat in India?

(A) Haryana (B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Punjab (D) Bihar

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : The state of Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of wheat, accounting for over 34

per cent of the wheat produced in India. It has the largest area under wheat cultivation. It is grown
in

almost every part of the state; but the greatest concentration is in the western part.

The important wheat producing districts of the state of Uttar Pradesh are Meerut, Aligarh, Agra,

Muzaffarnagar, Saharanpur, Bulandshahar, Kanpur and Mathura.

Question Number:58

Which of the following is the oilseed crop?

(A) Lentil (B) Lobia

(C) Sunflower (D) Barseem

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Oil seed crops are grown primarily for the oil contained in the seeds. From the above

crops, Sunflower is oilseed crop. The other oilseed crops are camelina, mustard, rapeseed, camola,

soyabeans etc.

Question Number:59

Which of the following region is known as Rice Bowl of India?

(A) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

(B) Delta region of Krishna-Godawari

(C) North-East region

(D) Indus Gangetic plain

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Deltaic region of Krishna and Godavari is known as the Rice bowl of India. Coming
to Indian states, Chhattisgarh is known as rice bowl of India.

Question Number: 60

Balanced fertilizers ratio (NPK) for legume crops is

(A)1 : 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 2 : 1

(C) 4: 2 : 1 (D) 2: 2: 1

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : The best fertilizer for legumes is one that has approximately half as much Nitrogen

(N) as Phosphorous (P) and Potassium (P) i.e. in the ration of 4:2:1.

Question Number: 61

Harike Barrage (source of water for Indira Gandhi Canal) is at the confluence of the rivers -

(A) Ravi and Beas

(B) Jhelum and Chenab

(C) Chenab and Sutlej

(D) Beas and Sutlej

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Harike barrage is built upon the confluence of the rivers Sutlej and Beas in Punjab. It

channels water into the Indira Gandhi Canal, which runs for about 640 km to the southwest to
irrigate the

lands of Punjab and North Western Rajasthan

Question Number: 62

The beneficiary states of Sardar Sarovar Project are?

(A) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan

(B) Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra

(C) Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra

(D) Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka and Maharashtra

Ans-(A)
EXPLANATION : Sardar Sarovar Project is one of the largest water resources project in India covering

four major states - Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan

Question Number:63

On which of the following river is Sardar Sarovar dam being constructed?

(A) Narmada (B) Chambal

(C) Sutlej (D) Mahanadi

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Sardar Sarovar Dam is constructed on river Narmada in Gujarat and is a part of

Narmada Valley Project comprising 30 major dams.

Question Number:64

Cauvery River Water Dispute (CRWD) is related to which of the following states?

(A) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka

(B) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala

(C) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka

(D) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala, Puducherry

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : The states involved in the Cauvery River Water Dispute (CRWD) are Tamil Nadu,

Karnataka, Kerala and Puducherry

Question Number: 65

Hirakund Dam is constructed on which of them?

(A) Shivnath/Seonath

(B) Narmada

(C) Mahanadi

(D) Son

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Hirakund dam is built across the Mahanadi river, about 15 km from Sambalpur in the

state of Odisha. It is the longest man made dam in the world. It is one of the first major multipurpose
river
valley projects started after Independence

Question Number: 66

Which of the following are not associated with the Chambal Valley Project?

1. Gandhi Sagar

2. Jawahar Sagar

3. Govind Sagar

4. Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar

Select correct answer from the code given below

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : There are four dams associated with the Chambal Valley Project: Gandhi Sagar Dam,

Rana Pratap Sagar Dam, Jawahar Sagar Dam and Kota barrage. Govind Sagar is a man made reservoir

formed by Bhakhra Dam in Himachal Pradesh.

Question Number:67

. Maithon, Belpahari and Tilaiya dams are constructed on which of the following river?

(A)Damodar (B) Barakar

(C) Konar (D) Bokaro

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Maithon, Balpahari and Tilaiya dams are constructed on the Barakar river. Tilaya

dam was the first of the four multi purpose dams included in the first phase of the Damodar Valley

Corporation (1950-53).

Question Number:68

Gobind Ballabh Sagar is located in which of them?

(A) Uttarakhand (B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Bihar (D) Odisha

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Gobind Ballabh Sagar Dam built over river Rihand a (tributary of River Son) in

Sonbhadra district of Uttar Pradesh is India's largest artificial lake.

Question Number:69

Tulbul project is associated with which of following River?

(A) Beas (B) Ravi

(C) Jhelum (D) Sutlej

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Tulbul Navigation Project is built on river Jhelum in the state of Jammu and

Kashmir. Pong dam/Beas dam is located on River Beas in Himachal Pradesh. Baglihar project and Dul

hasti are located on Chenab in Jammu and Kashmir. Thien Dam and Chamera Project are located on
Ravi

River in Punjab.

Question Number: 70

Teesta hydro power project is located in which state?

(A) Himachal Pradesh

(B) Uttarakhand

(C) Arunachal Pradesh

(D) Sikkim

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Teesta hydro power project is built on river Teesta in the state of Sikkim. Teesta Low

Dam Project-III and IV are related to West Bengal

Question Number: 71

Which plateau is known as the mineral heart of India?

(A) Bhander Plateau

(B) Chota Nagpur Plateau

(C) Deccan Plateau

(D) Tibetan Plateau

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Chota Nagpur Plateau is known as the mineral heartland of India because the region

is rich in natural resources like coal, iron, manganese, mica, bauxite, copper, chromites and kyanite

Question Number: 72

Which among the following is the largest mechanised mine in India?

(A) Ratnagiri mine (B) Jaipur mine

(C) Sundergarh mine (D) Bailadila mine

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Bailadila mine is the largest mechanised mine in India. It is located near Kirandul

town in Dantewada district of southern Chhattisgarh.

Question Number:73

Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists -

List-I List-II

(Copperfields) (State)

A. Chanderpur 1. Maharashtra

B. Hasan 2. Telangana

C. Khammam 3. Rajsathan

D. Khetri 4. Karnataka

Code –

ABCD

(A) 1 4 2 3

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 4 2 3 1

(D) 3 1 2 4
Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : The correct match of List I with List II is given below

(A) Chanderpur- Maharashtra

(B) Hasan- Karnataka

(C) Khammam- Andhra Pradesh

(D) Khetri- Rajsathan

Question Number: 74

Which state is the largest producer of mica?

(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Uttarakhand(D) Jharkhand

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Andhra pradesh is the largest producer of Mica in India. Nellore district of Andhra

Pradesh is famous for its mica production. Rajasthan, Bihar and Jharkhand are also major producers
of

Mica

Question Number:75

Jharia coalfield is located in which of the following states?

(A) West Bengal (C) Odisha

(C) Jharkhand (D) Chattisgarh

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Jharia coalfield is one of the most important coalfields in India located in Dhanbad

district of Jharkhand. It is the most exploited coalfield because of the availability of metallurgical
grade

coal reserves.

Question Number:76

. In which of the following region of India shale gas resources are found?
1. Cambay Basin

2. Cauvery Basin

3. Krishna-Godavari Basin

Select the correct answer using the code given below –

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Godavari onshore (East cost), Cauvery onshore and Indo-Gangetic basin. Hence (D)

is the correct answer

Question Number:77

Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct code given below the lists –

List-I List-II

(Iron-ore mines) (State)

A. Alampara 1. Jharkhand

B. Dalli Rajhara2. Kerala

C. Kudremukh 3. Chhattisgarh

D. Noamundi 4. Karnataka

Code -

ABCD

(A) 4 2 3 1

(B) 1 3 4 2

(C) 2 3 4 1

(D) 2 1 4 3

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : The correct match of the List I with List II is given below

(Iron ore mines)(States)

Alampara Kerala
Dalli-Rajhara Chhattisgarh

Kudremukh Kerala

Noamundi J8arkhand

Question Number: 78

Bauxite in India occurs primarily as?

(A) Gibbsite (B) Kaolinite

(C) Shieldite (B) Kernite

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Bauxite (an ore from which aluminium is derived) in India occurs primarily as

gibbsite (Al₂O3). Its percentage carrying between 40-60 per cent and containing silica, iron, oxides
and

titania as important accessory constituents.

Question Number: 79

The most mineralised rock system of India is?

(A) Cuddapah (B) Dharwar

(C) Gondwana (D) Vindhyan

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : Dharwar Rock system is the most mineralised rock system in India. These are the

economically most important rocks because they possess valuable minerals like high grade iron ore

manganese, copper, lead, gold etc. Dharwar Rock system is the first metamorphic sedimentary rocks
in

India.

Question Number: 80

Khetri is famous for which of the following?

(A) Iron ore

(B) Coal
(C) Manganese

(D) Copper

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Khetri is situated at the foothills of Aravalli Range, which hosts copper

mineralization, giving rise to 80 km long metallogenetic province from Singhana in the north to the

Raghunathgarh in the south, popularly known as Khetri Copper Belt.

Question Number: 81

Stainless steel is an alloy of –

(A) Iron and Copper

(B) Iron and Zinc

(C) Iron and Chromium

(D) Iron and Graphite

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Stainless steel also known as Inox steel contains Iron, Chromium and Nickel. It is

most notable for its corrosive resistance which increases with increasing chromium content.

Question Number: 82

. In order to produce solar energy during sunlight, the energy is stored in the batteries of?

(A) Nickel Sulphur

(B) Zinc Cadmium

(C) Nickel Cadmium

(D) Nickel Zinc

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Nickel Cadmium cells offer a long service life ensuring high degree of the economy.

In the PV industry, nickel cadmium battery cells are majorly used for the energy storage technology
from

manufacturers and users of PV grid system

Question Number: 83

. In hydroelectric power -

(A) Kinetic Energy is transferred to Potential

(B) Potential Energy is transferred to Kinetic

(C) Solar Energy is transferred to Wind Energy

(D) Wind Energy is transferred to Solar Energy

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : In hydropower generation, the Potential Energy (tapped in water reservoir) is

transferred to Kinetic Energy (when released).

Question Number:84

Bokaro steel plant was constructed with the collaboration of?

(A) USA (B) Germany

(C) England (D) Russia

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Bokaro Steel Plant is located in the Bokaro district of Jharkhand. It was built in

collaboration with Russia (earlier Soviet Union). It was incorporated as a public limited company in
1964.

The plant is hailed as the country's first Swadeshi Steel Plant.

Question Number:85

Granite polishing Industry of Jharkhand State Mineral Development Corporation (JSMDC) is located
at?

(A) Tupudana (Ranchi)

(B) Madhupur

(C) Pakur

(D) Saraikela

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Granite Polishing Industry of JSMDC is located at Tupudana (Ranchi) in the state of

Jharkhand
Question Number:86

Match List-I and List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below -

List-I List-II

Brajrajnagar 1. Cement

Kymore 2. Fertilizer

Haldia 3. Petrochemical

Phulpur 4. Paper

Code –

ABCD

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 3 4 1 2

(C) 4 1 3 2

(D) 4 3 2 1

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : The correct match is -

Units Industry

Brajrajnagar Paper

Kymore Cement

Haldia Petrochemical

Phulpur Fertilizer

Question Number:87

In which of the following area, the first cotton textile factory had begun in 1818?

(A) Fort gloster in West Bengal

(B) Mumbai in Maharashtra

C)Ahmedabad in Gujarat
(D)Kanpur in Uttar Pradesh

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Bowreah cotton mills was India's first cotton cloth mill, established in 1818 by

British at Fort Gloster. The true foundation of India's modern cotton mill cloth industry was and
weaving

company in 1854. established when KGN Daber established Bombay spinning

Question Number: 88

Which place in Punjab is known for the hosiery Industry?

(A) Gurdaspur (B) Amritsar

C) Ludhiana (D) Jalandhar

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Over 90% of hosiery units are located in Punjab and Haryana. Ludhiana in Punjab

being the centre of hosiery industry. It dates back to 150 years when artisans from Kashmir came
and

started manufacturing of woollen products. It is also said that the Sheikh of Dubai uses products

manufactured in Ludhiana

Question Number: 89

Which of the following are favourable factors for localisation of Industry?

(A) Availability of raw material

(B) Infrastructure

(C) Proximity to water bodies

(D) All of them

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Industrial locations are determined by the following geographical factors: raw

material, land, labour, water resources, power, transport and market linkage. Proximity to raw
material

resources cut down the input costs. Almost all industries need a frequent and abundant supply of

waterhence geographical proximity to a water body is a prerequisite.Infrastructure supports

transportation
of raw materials and finished goods to the market. That is the reason why north eastern regions of
India

have remained industrially backward despite being rich in natural resources.

Question Number:90

Consider the following pairs -

National Highway Cities Connected

1. NH4:Chennai and Hyderabad

2. NH6:Mumbai and Kolkata

3. NHI5: Ahmedabad and Jodhpur

Which of the following pair(s) is/are correctly matched?

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) None of these

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Correct pairs are -

1. NH4- Thane to Chennai

2. NH4- Surat to Kolkata

3. NH15- Samakhayali (Gujarat) to Pathankot (Punjab)

Question Number:91

Pradhan Mantri Bharat Jodo Yojana is related to -

(A) Communication

(B) Social Integration

(C) Linking of Rivers

(D) Development of Highways

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : Pradhan Mantri Bharat Jodo Pariyojana is an initiative of government of India to

develop 10,000 km of highways apart from 14,000 km being already developed by NHAI.
Question Number: 92

Golden Quadrilateral project of India joins –

(A) Delhi-Mumbai-Chennai-Kolkata

(B) Delhi-Jhansi-Bengaluru-Kanyakumari

(C) Srinagar-Delhi-Kanpur-Kolkata

(D) Porbandar-Bengaluru-Kolkata-Kanpur

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Golden Quadrilateral is a network of highways connecting India's top four

metropolitan cities namely Delhi-Mumbai Chennai-Kolkata thereby forming quadrilateral. It is the

largest

highway project in India launched in 2001 as a part of National Highways Development Project
(NHDP).

Question Number:93

North-South and East-West corridors coincide at -

(A) Bhopal (B) Nagpur

(C) Gwalior (D) Jhansi

Ans-(D)

EXPLANATION : East west corridor connecting Porbandar (Gujarat) to Silchar (Assam) and North

South corridor connecting Srinagar (Jammu and Kashmir) to Kanyakumaricoincide at Jhansi (Uttar

Pradesh).

Question Number: 94

Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) Chennai – Deppest port of India

(B) Cochin – Natural port

(C) Jawaharlal port – Sole mechanized

(D) Kandla – Tidal port

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Chennai is an artificial port and is the oldest port of India. Vishakhapatnam, located
in Andhra Pradesh is the deepest land locked and the safest port in India. It is an important port and

handles most of the iron export from Mayurbhanj Kendujhar etc.

Question Number: 95

Which one of the following stretches of river Ganga has been declared as National waterway?

(A) From Allahabad to Haldia

(B) From Haridwar to Kanpur

(C) From Kanpur to Allahabad

(D) From Narora to Patna

Ans-(A)

EXPLANATION : Bhagirathi Hoogly river system from Allahabad to Haldia was declared as National

Waterway-1 The waterway extends from Haldia to Allahabad for a distance of 1620 km and is the
longest

waterway of India. The Haldia Varanasi National and is the Waterway-1has been made operational
12

November, 2018. The Government of India has declared 111 waterways to be made National
Waterways

across the country under The National Waterways Act, 2016

Question Number: 96

Which one of the following racial groups is found in hilly and forested area of north-eastern India?

(A) Dinarics

(B) Meditteranean

(C) Mongloids

(D) Proto-Austroloids

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : Mongoloid are the racial groups found in hilly and forested areas of north-eastern

India. The original homeland of this race was Mongolia. The mongoloids came to India through the

passes of northern and eastern mountain ranges. They have pale or light pale skin, short height,
comparatively large head, half open eyes, flat face and broad nose

Question Number:97

Gaddis are inhabitants of -

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Himachal Pradesh

(C) Arunachal Pradesh

(D) Meghalaya

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : The concentration of Gaddi tribe is mainly found on both sides of the Dhauladhar

Range in the state of Himachal Pradesh. They are also found in Jammu and Kashmir. They make their

living by sheep raising and farming

Question Number: 98

Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) Bhutia- Sikkim

(B) Khasi- Meghalaya

(C) Santhal- Maharashtra

(D) Toda- Tamil Nadu

Ans-(C)

EXPLANATION : All of the above match is correct except option (C) because Santhal Tribe is an

indigenous tribe found mainly in the states of Jharkhand, West Bengal and Odisha. Santhali spoken
by the

Santhal tribe has been incorporated as a scheduled language in Schedule 8 of the Indian
Constitution. In

2018, Santhali became the first Indian tribal language to get a wikipedia edition in its own script.

Question Number: 99

Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer from the code given below -
List-I List-II

(Tribe) (State inhabited)

A. Garo1. 1. Sikkim

B. Birhor 2. Uttar Pradesh

C. Raji 3. Jharkhand

D. Lepcha 4. Meghalaya

Code -

ABCD

(A) 1 2 4 3

(B) 4 3 2 1

(C) 2 1 3 4

(D) 2 1 3 4

Ans-(B)

EXPLANATION : The correct match of List-I with List-Il is given below

Tribe State inhabited

Garo Meghalaya

Birhor Jharkhand

Raji Uttar Pradesh

Lepcha Sikkim

Hence option (B) is right.

Question Number: 100

In which of the following Union Territories do the people of the Onge tribe live?

(A) Andaman and Nicobar

(B) Dadar and Nagar Island

(C) Daman and Diu

(D) Lakshadweep

Ans-(A)
EXPLANATION : Onge tribal people are one of the ancient four Negrito tribal communities found in

the Andaman and Nicobar Island. They were semi-nomadic and fully dependent on hunting and food

gathering

Exam Topic: [Full Marks – 100]

1) Making of Indian Constitution

2) States and Union Territories

3) Preamble

4) Citizenship

5) Directive Principles of State

6) Policy and Fundamental Duties

7) Fundamental Rights.

8) Constitutional Amendment

9) Emergency Provisions

10) Centre State/Inter-State Relations

11) President and Vice President

12) The Council of Ministers

13) Parliament

14) The Governor

15) The State Legislature

16) Supreme Court and High Court

17) Panchayati Raj and Municipal

18) Official Language

19) Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies

1.By which of the following Act, Legislative Council of British India received the Power to discuss the

budget?

(A) Indian Council Act, 1861

(B) Indian Council Act, 1892

(C) Indian Council Act, 1909

(D) Indian Council Act, 1919

Ans(B)

The Indian Council Act, 1892 increased the functions and

size of legislative councils and gave them the power of

discussing the budget without right to vote on it and

addressing questions to the executive, However Budget was

introduced in British India in 1860.

2, Match list—1 with list-I and select the correct answer

from the codes given below —

List-I List-II

(A) Establishment of Board 1. Regulating Act,of Control 1773

(B) EstablishmentofSupreme 2. Pitt’s India Act,Court 1784

(C) Permission to English 3. Charter Act,Missionaries to work in India 1813

(D) AppointmentofLaw Member 4. Charter Act,in Governor-General Council. 1833

Code —

A B C D A BC D

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 13 4

(C) 1243

(D) 2 4 1 3

Ans-(B)

 The Regulating Act of 1773 provided for theestablishment of the Supreme Court at Calcutta
(1774)comprising of one

Chief Justice’'and three other judges.

 The Pitt’s India Act of 1784 provided for theestablishment of Court of Directors to manage
thecommercial affairs and

also created a new body calledBoard of Control to manage the political affairs. Thiscame to be
known as Double

government.

 The Charter Act of 1813 gave permission to the Christianmissionaries to work in India.

 A law member was appointed in the Governor General Council through the Charter Act of 1833

3. Which of the following Acts introduced the Principle of Constitutional Autocracy?

(A) The Indian Council Act of 1909

(B) The Government of India Act of 1919

(C) The Government of India Act of 1935

(D) The Indian Independence Act of 1947

Ans-(C)

Constitutional control was introduced in every field, by GOI

Act of 1935 which made the whole governance system relying

on constitution with everything was being directed by it.

4. The distribution of power between Centre and States (as in the Constitution of India) is based on

which of

the following plans?

(A) Minto— Morley Reforms, 1909

(B) Montagu — Chelmsford Reforms, 1919

(C) Government of India Act, 1935

(D) Indian Independence Act, 1947.

Ans-(C)

The Government of India Act 1935 provided for the

establishment of Federation of India consisting of British

India Provinces and Princely States as units. The Act also

separates power between the centre and provinces in form

of three lists — Federal List (for centre with 59 items),

Provincial List (54 items) and the Concurrent List (36 items).

5. Which Act for the first time made it possible for Indians to take part in the administration of their

country?

(A) Charter Act, 1833

(B) Charter Act, 1853

(C) Government of India Act, 1858

(D) Indian Council Act, 1861

Ans-(A)

The Section 87 of the Charter Act of 1833, declared that no native of the British Territories in India,
nor any natural born subject of his majesty

therein, shall by any reason only by his religion, place of birth, descent, colour or any of them be
disabled from holding any place, office or

employment under the company. Thus, the Charter Act of 1833 was the first act which made
provisions to freely admit the natives of India to take

part in administration of the country.

6. Which one of the following was not a salient feature of the Government of India Act, 1935?

(A) The Act provided for an Al India Federation.

(B) pee subjects were allotted to provincial

(C) It marked the beginning of the ProvinciaL Autonomy.

(D) It abolished Diarchy at the Provincial level and introduced it at the centre,

Ans-(B)

The Government of India Act of 1935 provided that all residuary powers were conferred to the
Viceroy and

not to the central or the Provincial legislature.

7. The objective of Ibert Bill with reference to colonial rule in India was —
(A) To bring Indians and Europeans at equal status as far as the penal jurisdiction of the courts was
concemed.

(B) To puta strict restriction on local press because

they were considered anti—colonial.

(C) Toconduct Administrative Service Exams in India to encourage Indians to participate in it,

(D) To amend the Arms Act for weapon permit to Indians.

Ans-(A)

The bill was introduced by Viceroy Riponin 1883to abolish the racial prejudice from the Indian Penal
Code.

The bill advocated to allow Indian Judges and Magistrates, the jurisdiction to try British offenders in
criminal

cases at the district level,

8. Who among the following person was not a member of the Cabinet Mission?

(A) William wood

(B) Pethick—Lawrence

(C) Stafford Cripps

(D) A.V. Alexander

Ans-(A)

The Cabinet Mission consisted of three members Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and A.V.

Alexander. The Cabinet Mission arrived in India on March 24, 1946.

9. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly of Independent India?

(A) Dr.BhimraoAmbedkar

(B) C. Rajagopalachari

(C) Dr.Rajendra Prasad

(D) K.M. Munshi

Ans-(C)

Dr.Sachchidananda Sinha was appointed the first Chairman (temporary) of Constituent Assembly on
9* December,
1946. Later, Dr.Rajendra Prasad became the president of Constituent Assembly on 11% December,
1946 and

Professor HarendraCoomarMookerjee was the Vice President, (former Vice-Chancellor of Calcutta

University).

10. With reference to Indian History, the members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces
were —

(A) Directly elected by the people of those Provinces

(B) Nominated by the Indian National Congress andthe Muslim League.

(C) Elected by Provincial Legislative Assemblies.

(D) Selected by the government for their expertise in

constitutional matters.

Ans-(C)

Members of the Constituent Assembly were indirectlyelected by the Provincial Legislative

Assemblies. They

wereelected by the method of single transferable vote throughproportional representation.

11. Which of the following political feature(s) is/are

common to India and USA -

1. Residuary powers vested in the centre

2. Residuary powers vested in the states

3. President has the power of pocket veto

4. The upper house has some nominated members

Code -

(A) 3 only

(B) 3 and 4 only

(C) 2, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1,3 and 4 only

Ans-(A)
Under the Pocket Veto the President neither ratifies nor rejects nor returns the bill, but keeps the
bill pending for an

indefinite period. In USA, the president has to return the bill for reconsideration within 10 days, but
no such

time frame has been prescribed for the Indian President. The other common features of US and
Indian

Constitution are Written Constitution, Supremacy of Union Government, Bill of right or Fundamental
rights,

Division of power, Judicial review, etc.

12. The concept of Fundamental Duties has been taken from —

(A) American Constitution

(B) British Constitution

(C) Russian (Former Soviet Union) Constitution

(D) French Constitution

Ans-(C)

The Fundamental duties in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the constitution of erstwhile
USSR. No other

constitution of major democracies contain a list of duties for citizens except Japan. They were not
present

originally and were introduced in 1976 in Indian Constitution on the recommendations of Swaran
Singh

Committee. Later one more Fundamental duty was added by 86" Constitutional Amendment Act,
2002

regarding Right to Education.

13. How many Parts, Articles and Schedules were there in the original Indian constitution?

(A) 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules

(B) 24 Parts, 450 Articles and 12 Schedules

(C) 22 Parts, 390 Articles and 12 Schedules

(D) 24 Parts, 425 Articles and 8 Schedules

Ans-(A)
The original constitution consisted of 22 Parts, 395 Articles and8 Schedules. Currently, there are 448
Articles,

25 Parts and 12 Schedules.

14. Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with—

(A) Allocation of seats for the Council of States

(B) Political defection

(C) Panchayat system

(D) Languages

Ans-(A)

The Fourth Schedule contains allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and Union
Territories (Delhi

and Puducherry). Whereas Anti-defection is mentioned in Tenth schedule, Panchayati Raj system
under

Eleventh schedule and Languages under Eighth schedule of the Constitution

15. If a new State of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following Schedules of the

Constitution must be amended?

(A) First

(B) Second

(C) Third

(D) Fourth

Ans-(A)

The first schedule will be amended to create a new state. The first schedule contains names of the
States and

their territorial jurisdiction and name of Union Territories and their extent.

16. Education which was initially a State subject was later transferred to the Concurrent List by the -

(A) 24"Amendment

(B) 25Amendment

(C) 42"Amendment
(D) 44"Amendment

Ans-(C)

The 42™ Amendment of the Constitution, 1976 brought about major changes in the Constitution and
it also

led Education to shift from State List to the Concurrent List providing both the

17. In the context of Preamble of Indian Constitution which of the following sequence is correct?

(A) Republic, Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic

(B) Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic, Republic, Secular

(C) Secular, Socialist, Sovereign, Democratic, Republic

(D) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic

Ans-(D)

The text of the Preamble mentions India to bea Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic and
Republic. The

words Socialist and Secular were added by the 42™ Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Although
Article

25 to 28 (Right to freedom of Religion) embodied the concept of Secularism implicity.

18. Consider the following statements with regards to the Preamble of the Constitution and give
correct

answer using the code given below

1. The Objective Resolution by Jawaharlal Nehru laid the foundation of Preamble

2. It is Non—Justiciable

3. The basic features of the Constitution cannot be amended under Article 368

4. The Preamble is a source of power to legislature

Code —

(A) only 1 and 2 (B) only 2, 3 and 4

(C) only 1, 2 and3 (D) only 1,3 and 4

Ans-(C)
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the Objective Resolution drafted and moved by
Pt.

Jawaharlal Nehru and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. It is Non—Justiciable, that is, its
provisions are

not enforceable in the court of Law. The Supreme Court held that Preamble is Part of the
Constitution and can

be amended subject to the condition of basic features of the Constitution. The preamble is neither

a source of power to Legislature nor a prohibition upon the power of Legislture.

19. India is a Republic means —

(A) It is the people who are the final authority in all matters

(B) Thereisno Parliamentary System of Government in India

(C) There are no hereditary rulers in India

(D) India is a Union of States

Ans-(C)

The term republic means vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual
like king

as under Monarchy. Secondly it means, the absence of any privileged class and absence of
hereditary rulers in

India. President is the Head of State in a Republic.

20. Which of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

(A) Liberty of thought

(B) Economic liberty

(C) Liberty of expression

(D) Liberty of belief

Ans-(B)

The Preamble in its present context provides Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and
worship.

Economic Liberty or Economic freedom is the ability of people to take economic decisions freely.
This is
embodied in rule of law, Property Rights, Openness of the Market, Protection of

Property Rights.

21. Who said Preamble is the Soul of the Constitution?

(A) K.M. Munshi

(B) NA. Palkhiwala

(C) ThakurdasBhargav

(D) J.L. Nehu

Ans-(C)

Pandit Thakur Das Bhargava, member of Constituent Assembly said that the Preamble is the most
precious

part and soul of the Constitution. According to B.R. Ambedkar, Article 32 i.e Right to Constitutional

Remedies is the Soul and Heart of the Constitution.

22. Consider the following statements —

1. The ideal of Justice — Social, Economic and Powers of Legislature. Political are taken from the
French

Revolution.

2. The ideals of Liberty, Equality and F raternity have been taken from the Russian Revolution.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans-(C)

The ideals of Justice i.e. Social, Economic and Political are taken from the Russian Constitution
(Russian

Revolution 1917) and the ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity are taken from French
Constitution (French

Revolution 1789-1799).

23. The Preamble given in the Constitution -

1. Is non enforceable in Courts,

2. Is important and have utility.

3. Describes the aim of Governance.

4. Helpstogivea Judicial meaning to our Constitution.

Which of the following statement(s) are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 2,3 and 4 only.

Ans-(C)

Preamble is Non—Justiciable, that is, its Provisions are not enforceable in the court of law. The ideals
and

aspirations enshrined init provide the vision for the governance of the Country.

24. In which case the Supreme Court held that The Preamble forms a part of the Constitution?

(A) Union of India v/s Dr.Kohli

(B) Banarsidas v/s State of Uttar Pradesh

(C) Keshvananda Bharti v/s State of Kerala

(D) Malak Singh v/s State of Punjab

Ans-(C)

In the Berubari Union Case, 1960 the Supreme Court stated that preamble is not a part of the
Constitution. But

in Keshvanand Bharti Case Supreme Court held that the opinion tendered in Berubari Union (1960)
was wrong

and Preamble is a part of the Constitution. It was observed that the

preamble is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light
of the grand

and noble vision expressed in the Preamble. In the LIC of India case (1995) also, the Supreme Court
again held

that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.

25. Which of the following notion of Justice is/are referred in the Preamble?

(A) Economic (B) Social

(C) Political (D) All of them

Ans-(D)

The ideals of Justice - Social, Economic and Political are referred in the Preamble. Social Justice refers
to the

equal treatment of all Citizens irrespective of Caste, Colour, Race, Religion or Sex. It also denies any

privileges being extended to any particular Social Class (as was the case in feudal society). Economic
Justice

involves elimination of economic inequalities based on wealth, income or property. Political Justice
provides

for equal political rights.

26. Which of the following combination is referred as distributive Justice?

(A) Social-Political

(B) Social-Economic

(C) Economic-Political

(D) Social Economic—Political

Ans-(B)

Indian Society has remained both Socially and Economically Stratified since the Ancient and
Medieval order

of the feudal form on the basis on Caste and Class. Hence, the Notion of Distributive Justice is to
realign the

Social—Political matrix of the Indian society by eliminating discrimination or privileges

27. Equality referred in the Preamble denotes —

(1) Absence of special privileges

(2) Provisions of adequate opportunities

Code -

(A) Only (1) Only (2)

(C) Both(1) and (2) (D) None of these

Ans-(C)
The Preamble secures to all citizens of India equality of status and opportunity, embracing
dimensions of civic,

political and economic equality. It also refers to denial of special privileges to certain social classes
and

discrimination against any section of the socially.

28. Which of following statement(s) is/are correct?

(1) Preamble provides for the basic structure.

(2) The Preamble is amendable

(3) The Preamble provides for the date of adoption of the Constitution

Code —

(A) Only (1) and (2) (B) Only (2) and (3)

(C) (1), (2) and (3) (D) None of them

Ans-(C)

Preamble provides for the basis features of Constitution like by the 42"4 Amendment Act of 1976 by
adding

secular and socialist words in it. It also provides for the date of adoption Equality, Liberty, Freedom
and

Justice. It has been amended of Constitution 26" of November, 19

29. Indian Parliament has the power to create a new State and alteration of areas, boundaries or
name

of existing States, under which of the following Constitutional

provision?

(A) Article 1 (B) Article 2

(C) Atricle3 (D) Article 4

Ans-(C)

Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to form a new State by separation of
territory

from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to any
part of the
state, Thus it deals with the internal rearrangement of the territories of the Constituent States of the
Union of

India.

30. The power to carve out a new State is vested in -

(A) The Parliament

(B) The President

(C) The Council of Ministers

(D) States' Reorganisation Commission

Ans-(A)

The Parliament under Article 2 is empowered to admit into the Union of India new states and to
establish new

states. Under Article 3 the Parliament can form new state by separation of territory from any State,
increase the

area of any state, diminish the area of any State, alter the boundaries of any State and alter the
name of any

state.

31. Which one of the following is not correct in the matter of formation of new States?

(A) Parliament may by law form a new State (B) Such law shall contain provisions for the
Amendment of the

First Schedule and the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution.

(C) Such law shall be deemed to be an Amendment of the Constitution for the purpose of Article 368
(D) No

Bill for enacting such law shall be introduced

in the Parliament unless it has been referred to the Legislature of the States, whose areas,
boundaries or name

is affected.

Ans-(C)

Article 4 of the Constitution describes that laws range for admission or establishment of new states
(under

Article 2) and formation of new states or alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing State
(under
Article 3) will not be considered as Amendment of the Constitution under Article

368. Hence, they can be passed by ordinary Legislative process.

32. How many States and UTs did the State Reorganisation Commission created in 1956?

(A) 14statesand6UTs

(B) 17 states and 6 UTs

(Q Wstatesand8UTs

(D) 17 states and 8 UTs

Ans-(A)

The State Reorganisation Act (1956) removed the distinction between Part A and Part B States and
Part C

States were abolished. They were merged with the adjoining States and some were declared Union
Territories,

thus, creating 14 States and 6 Union Territories as on 1* November, 1956. The State Reorganisation

Committee was constitued in December 1953, under the Chairmanship of Justice Fazl Ali.

33. Which one of the following is the correct chronological

order of the formation of following Indian States?

1. Chhattisgarh 2. Arunachal Pradesh

3. Jharkhand 4. Sikkim

Code-

(A) 4, 1,3 and 2 (B) 4, 2,1 and 3

(C) 3,2,1 and 4 (D) 1,4,2 and 3

Ans-(B)

The 36" Constitutional Amendment Act (1975) made Sikkim as full-fledged State of Indian Union.
Arunachal

Pradesh became full fledged state on 26 February, 1987. Arunachal Pradesh (originally called North
East

Frontier Agency) was given status of Union Territory by the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation)
Act, 1971
with effect fram January 20, 1972. Chhattisgarh was carved out of Madhya Pradesh as the 26" state
on 1

November, 2000 and Jharkhand was carved out of Bihar as the 28" State on 15 Navember, 2000.
Currently, the

total number of States are 28 and 8 UTs.

34. Which State enjoys the distinction of being the first to have been created on Linguistic basis in

India?

(A) West Bengal (B) Punjab

(C) Tamil Nadu (D) Andhra Pradesh

Ans-(D)

In October 1953, Andhra Pradesh was created by separating the Telugu speaking areas from the
Madras State.

Thus, giving it the distinction of being the 1" linguistic State which triggered the demand from other
regions

also.

35. Creation of a new State requires a ............ majority for Constitutional Amendment —

(A) Simple

(B) Two-third

(C) Three—fourth

(D) Two-third plus ratification by half of all States

Ans—(A)

Article 4 states that the laws made for admission/ establishment of new states (under Article 2) and
formation

of new states and alteration of area, boundary or name of existing States (under Article 3) will not be

considered as Amendments under Article 368. Hence, they can be passed

by simple majority with ordinary Legislative process.

36. Consider the following statements —

1. India is described as Union of States under Article 1

2. This is because it is result of an agreement among the States.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) Both 1 and 2

(C) 2 only (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans-(A)

Article 1 describes India, that is Bharat as a Union of States rather than Federation of States. Hence,
statement

1 is correct. Dr. BR Ambedkar described Union of States has been preferred over Federation of
States for two

reasons — one, the Indian Federation is not result of an agreement

among the States (hence, statement 2 is incorrect). Second, the States have no right to secede from
the

Federation.

37. Which of the following Commissions/Committees were related to Reorganisation of States?

(1) Dhar Commission

(2) Paul Appleby Committee

(3) JVPCommittee

(4) FazlAliCommission

Code —

(A) Only (2) (B) (1), (2) and (3)

(C) (2), (3) and (4) (D) (1), (3) and (4)

Ans-(D)

Linguistic Provinces Commission under the Chairmanshj of S.K. Dhar (Dhar Commission) was formed
in June

1948 tp examine the feasibility of organising States on Linguistic basis, JVP Committee comprised of
J.L.

Nehru, Patel and PattabhiSitaramayya was formed in December 1948 to re-examine the issue. A
three
membered State Re-organisation Commission under the Chairmanship of Fazl Ali was appointed in
December

1953 to re-examine the demands of Linguistic Provinces that intensified after the creation of State of
Andhra

Pradesh in October 1953. Paul Appleby

Committee is related to Administrative Reforms.

38. Arrange the formation of following States in the correct Chronological order as per year of

formation -

(1) Goa

(2) Haryana

(3) Gujarat

(4) Nagaland

Code -

(A) 3,4, 1,2 (B) 3,4, 2,1

(C) 4,2,3,1 (D) 4, 2, 1,3

Ans-(B)

Bombay was bifurcated in 1960 into Maharashtra and Gujarat. Nagaland was formed as a State by
the

incorporation of Naga Hills and Tuensang area (from Assam) in 1963. Punjab was bifurcated in 1966
to create

Haryana and Union Territory of Chandigarh. Goa, Daman and Diu

were acquired from the Portuguese in 1961 and constituted as a Union Territory by 12° Amendment
Act 1962

but Goa was conferred the Status of statehood only in 1987.

39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(1) Madras was the first State to have been renamed (Post—Independence)

(2) Altering the name of a State is provided under

Article 2 of the Indian Constitution

Code —

(A) Only (1) (B) Only (2)

(C) Both of them (D) None of them

Ans-(D)

Article 3 authorises the Parliamentto alter the name of any State. Uttar Pradesh was the first state to
have

renamed in 1950 from United Province followed by Madras, which was renamed Tamil Nadu in
1969.

40. The citizenship Provided by the Constitution of India is —

(A) Dualcitizenship

(B) Single citizenship

(C) Both of the above

(D) None of the above

Ans-(B)

The Indian Constitution is Federal and envisages a dual Polity (Centre and State), it provides only
single

citizenship that is Indian Citizenship. The citizen of India Owe allegiance only to the Union and there
is no

Separate State citizenship.

41. Indian citizenship cannot be obtained by —

(A) Birth

(B) Naturalization

(C) Incorporating any part of Land in India

(D) Depositing money in Indian Banks

Ans-(D)

The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship by birth, decent,
registration,

naturalisation and incorporation of territory. Hence, option (D) is incorrect.

42. Who among the following is not eligible for registering

as Overseas citizen of India cardholder under the.

Citizenship Amendment Act, 2015?

(A) Aminor child whose parents are an Indian citizen

(B) Spouse of foreign origin of an Indian citizen

(C) Indian who migrated to Pakistan after partition

(D) A great grandchild of a person who is a citizen of another country but whose grandparents were
a citizen

of India at the time of commencement of the Constitution.

Ans-(C)

As per the Citizenship Act of 1955, if an applicant had everbeen a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh,
he/she

will notbe eligible for Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI).

43. Which country accepted the policy of Dual citizenship?

(A) India

(B) Canada

(C) Australia (D) United State of America

Ans-(D)

USA adopted the system of Dual Citizenship that is, in USA, each Person is not only a citizen of USA
but also

of the particular State to which he/she belongs. Thus, he/she owes allegiance to both and enjoys
dual set of

rights. Switzerland also provides for a Dual Citizenship

44. Who/which of the following is competent to prescribe conditions for acquisition of citizenship?

(A) Election Commission

(B) President

(C) Parliament and State Legislatures jointly

(D) Parliament

Ans-(D)

As per the provisions of the Indian Constitution under Article 11, Parliament shall has the power to
make any

provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters related
to

citizenship. Hence, answer is option (D).

45. How many years does a person of Indian origin need to reside in India to become a citizen of
India

under the Citizenship Act, 1955?

(A) 5 years

(B) 3 years

(C) 7 years

(D) 9 years

Ans-(C)

As per the provisions of Citizenship Act, 1955 a person of Indian origin who is an ordinary citizen in
India for

seven years is eligible for Indian citizenship and can apply for registration.

46. Consider the following statements —

1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of
Nagaland,

Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh,

Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.

2. Constitution of India and the United States of America envisages a dual polity (The Union and the
States)

but a single citizenship.

3. A Naturalised citizen of India can never be deprived of his/her citizenship.

Which of the stitement(s) piven above is/are correct?

(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 3 only (D) 1 only

Ans-(D)

The United States of America provides a dual citizenship and India though a dual polity provides for
single

citizenship. A Naturalised Citizen of India can be deprived of his/her citizenship subject to the
provisions of

section 10 of Citizenship Act, 1955.

47. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(1) Citizenship is mentioned in Part IT of the Constitution

(2) Article 4-11 deals with Citizenship

Code -

(A) Only (1) (B) Only (2)

(C) Both of them (D) None of them

Ans-{A)

Citizenship is mentioned under Part Il of the Indian Constitution, which incorporates Article 5 to
Article 11.

48. Which of the following Rights (Fundamental) are exclusively conferred to the citizens of India?

(1) Article 15 (2) Article 17

(3) Article 18 (4) Article, 19

(5) Article 28 (6) Article 29

Code —

(A) 1,2,3,5 and 6 (B) 1,2,4,5 and 6

(C) 1,4 and 6 (D) 1,3 and 6

Ans-(C)

Article 17, 18 and 28 are provided to all irrespective of his/ her citizenship, i.e. Abolition of
Untouchability and

Titles, and Freedom of attending Religious instructions or Worship in certain Educational

Institutions; but Article

15 (Prohibition of Discrimination on certain grounds) Article 19 (Freedom of

Speech), Article 29 (Protection of Minorities) are exclusively the privilege of Indian Citizens i.e.
Article 15, 19 and

29 are denied to aliens (someone who is not a citizen of India).

49. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(1) A person becomes a citizen of India with the incorporation of a Foreign Territory to which he/ she
belongs

through Naturalisation

(2) Naturalisation refers to acquiring of Indian Citizenship if either of the parents were Indian Citizen
(for a

person born after J July, 1987 at

the time of his birth.

Code —

(A) Only (1) (B) Only (2)

(C) Both of them (D) None of them

Ans-(D)

Naturalisation refers to acquiring of Indian Citizenship on the fulfillment of certain criterion and
receiving a Certificate

of Naturalisation from the Government.

 By renouncing the Citizenship of one's parents/natiyecountry and applying for Indian Citizenship.
Residing in

India or been in the service of Government of india throughout a period of 12 months before
applying,

 Adequate knowledge ofa language specified in 8th schedule.

50. Single Citizenship serves which of the following functions?

(A) Providing Uniform Rights

(B) Promoting Fratemity

(C) Both of them

(D) None of them

Ans-(C)
U.S.A provides citizenship for both the Union and State, India adopted the Canadian model of
Citizenship on

thebasis of Single Citizenship to promote Unity and Fraternitycreating uniformity in Laws, Rights and
Duties.

SingleCulturally, Linguistically and Ethnically diverse India.

Supplemented by Article 19(1)(d) and 19(1)}(e) it providesEquality of Opportunities, though there

have

beenexemptions in certain States and Schedule areas inhabitedby certain PTG's to preserve their
cultural

identity.

51. The Citizenship Act, 1955 provides for the loss of citizenship through which of the following
modes?

(A) Renunciation (B) Termination

(C) Deprivation (D) Allofthem

Ans-(D)

ACitizen may lose his Citizenship, if he/she voluntarily renounces his citizenship along with the minor
son of

his/her, also when a citizen acquires the citizenship of another country, he may lose his privileges as
an Indian

Citizen. The Government can deprive someone of his citizenship if he/she shows disloyalty to the
Constitution, has

communicated or traded unlawfully with hostile Countries, or has stayed out of India for 7 years in
continuation and

during that period, has neither been at any time a student nor registered annually in the prescribed
manner at an

IndianConsulate his intention to retain his citizenship of India.

52. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of the state policy in the Indian Constitution
is

to establish-

(A) Political Democracy

(B) Social Democracy

(c) Gandhian Democracy

(D) Social and economic Democracy

Ans-(D)

The Directive Principles of State policy aim at fulfilling the vacuum in Part – III are the supplementary
to the

fundamental rights. The fundamental rights in see or political democracy whereas directive
principles of

state policy aims to ensure Social and Economic Democracy

53. Consider the following statements regarding the directive principles of state policy

1.this principle spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country

2. The provisions contained in these principles are not enforceable by any court

Reach up which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans – (C)

Directive principles of state policy aimed at establishing social and economic democracy they were
enshrined

to fill the vacuum in Part- III

54. Directive principles of state policy of the constitution of India is adopted from which of the

following country?

(A) Australia (B) America

(C) France (D) Ireland

Ans- (D)

The farmers of the constitution adopted the idea of directive principles of state policy from the Irish

constitution of 1937

55. The concept of welfare state is included in the constitution of India in which among the
following?

(A) directive principles of state policy

(B) 4th schedule of the constitution

(C) fundamental rights

(D) preamble of the constitution

Ans-(A)

The directive principles constitute a very comprehensive economic social and political program for a
modern

democratic state this embody the concept of welfare state and aiming at establishing social and
Economic

Democracy

56.According to the constitution off India which of the following are fundamental to the
governments of

the country

(A) Fundamental rights

(B) Fundamental duties

(C) Directive principles of the state policy

(D) Fundamental rights and fundamental duties

Ans –(C)

The constitution in article 37 itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governments of
the

country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply this principle while making the laws

57.In the constitution of India promotion of peace and security is included in which Article?

(A) Article 51 (B) Article 38A

(C) Article 44 (D) Article 46

Ans –(A)

Article 51 says that the state shell India word to promote international peace and security maintain
just and

honourable relations between nations, foster respect for international law and treaty obligations
and

encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration

58.Consider the following provisions under the Directive principles of state policy as enshrined in the
constitution of India 1. security uniform civil code for ci zens of India

2.Organizing village panchayats

3.Promoting cottage industries in rural area

4.Securing rights of workers

Which of the above are the Gandhian principles that are reflected in the directive principles of state
policy?

(A)1,2&4 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1,3 and 4 (D) 1,2,3 and 4

Ans-(B)

Gandhian principles represent constitutional program of Gandhi like evolve in villages as units of sale

governments promotions of handicraft and cottages industries to infuse self-reliance best on

Economic

Cooperation securing educational and economic interests of marginalized prohibiting in

consumption of

intoxicants and prohibiting slaughter of my milch animals.

Article 40 requires the state to organize village panchayats and in Dothan with necessary powers and

authorities to enable them to function as units of self-government.

Article 43 promotes cottage industry while Article 44 proposes uniform Civil Code (Liberal-
intellectual ) and

particle 4 T3 provides for securing rights of workers (socialist principle)

59. Which of the following directive principles of state policy was added to the constitution at a later

date?

(A) Organization of village panchayats

(B) Prohibition of cow slaughters

(C) Free legal aid (D) uniform Civil Code

Ans –(C)

Article 39A was inserted by the 42nd amendment act Of 1976 which aim to promote equal justice
and to
provide free legal aid to the poor hence, C option is correct all other are present in the original

Constitution.

60. Equal pay for equal work has been inserted in the Indian constitution as one of the -

(A) Fundamental rights

(B) Directive principles

(C) Fundamental duties

(D) Economic rights

Ans-(B)

Article 39 eight was inserted by the 42nd amendment act of 1976 which aim to promote equal
justice and to

provide free legal aid to the poor hence C option is correct. All other were present in the original

constitution

61. Which principle among the following was added to the directive principles of state policy by the
42nd

amendment of the constitution?

(A) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

(B) Participation of workers in the management of industries

(C) Right to work education and public assistance

(D) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

Ans-(B)

Article 43- A is with the steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries
was

inserted by 42nd amendment act of 1976. Hence proved (B) is the answer

62. Under which article of Indian constitution, provision for fundamental duties has been made by
the 42nd

constitutional amendment act

A. Article 50

B. Article 51(A)

C. Article 52
D. Article 53

Ans-B

Swaran Singh Committee in 1976 made recommendations for fundamental duties and stressed that
the

citizens should begin conscious of their duties while enjoying the rights. Hence, but I VA and new

particle 51 were inserted by the 42nd amendment to enumerate the 10 fundamental duties.
Currently, there

are eleven fundamental duties.

63. Which one of the following committees black/permissions recommended the inclusion of
fundamental

duties in the constitution?

A. Swaran Singh committee

B. Ashoke Mehta committee

C. BalramJakhar Committee

D. Sarkaria Committee

Ans-A

Swaran Singh Committee what’s constituted in 1976 to make recommendations for the inclusion of

fundamental duties, which lead to the incorporation of fundamental duties by 42nd Amendment act
1976

as part IV- A

64. Under which articles of the constitution of India, fundamental rights have been provided to

citizens?

A. Article 100 and 115 B. Article 12 to 35

C. Article 222 to 235 D. None of these

Ans-B

The fundamental rights enshrined in Part-III of the constitution from article 12 to 35. Part-III of the
Indian

constitution is called Magna Carta of the Indian constitution. These rights are incorporated in the
constitution by makers inspiring from the Bill of Rights of USA. The fundamental rights are made for

promoting the idea of political democracy.

65. Right to equality is given by 1. Ar cle 13 2. Ar cle 14

3. Article 15 4. Article 16

Use the code given below to choose the correct answer A. 1 and 2 only B. 1,2 and 3 only

C. 2,3 and 4 only D. All of these above

Ans-C

Article 13 is related to the profession of judicial review which declares that all laws that are
inconsistent with

or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be null and void. Right to equality includes
articles

from 14-18

Article 14- equality before law and equal protection of law

Article 15 -prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, cast, 6 or place of birth.

Article 16- Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.

Article 17- abolition of untouchability.

Article 18- abolition of titles.

66. Prohibition of discrimination on the ground of religion etc. [Article 15 or the constitution of India)

is a Fundamental Right classifiable under-

(A) Right to freedom of Religion

(B) Right against exploitation

(C) Cultural and Educational Rights

(D) Right to Equality

Ans-(D)

Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of
religion, race,

caste ,sex, place of birth or any of them.

67. As a part of the Right to Freedom, which one of the following does not form part or Freedom to
Assemble Peaceably and without arms?

A) Gherao officials not performing their duties.

(B) Peaceful assembly

(C) People who assemble should not bear arms

(D) State can make a law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of their Rights.

Ans. (A)

Article 33 gives power to the Parliament to restrict/abrogate the rights of the members of the forces

charged in maintenance of public order so as to ensure the proper discharge of duties and
maintenance

of discipline among them. All other options are covered under Freedom of Assembly.

68. Which one of the following does not fall within the purview of Article 21 of the constitution?

(A) Medical aid to injured by a doctor

(B) Sexual harassment of women at workplace

(C) Pollution of the quality of wate

(D) Capital Punishment

Ans-(D)

Article 21-It ensures protection of life and personal liberty and states that no person shall be
deprived of his

life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by Law. The Bachan Singh v/s State
of

Punjab case laid down the extraordinary circumstances which define whether or not death sentence
was

required. It held that capital punishment is not violative of Article 21. So, capital punishment does
not

come within the ambit of Article 21 of the Constitution.

69. Which Article of the Constitution is related with

Freedom of Press?

(A) Article 19

(B) Article 20
(C) Article 21

(D) Article 22

Ans-(A)

The Supreme Court under Article 19(1Ma) held that freedom of speech and expression also includes
Freedom

of Press. The Freedom of Press has three essential elements. They are-

 Freedom of access to all sources of information

 Freedom of publication

 Freedom of circulation.

70. Which of the following is not among the Six Fundamental Rights provided by the Constitution of

India?

(A) Right to Equality

(B) Right to Protest

(C) Right against Exploitation

(D) Right to Freedom of Religion

Ans-(B)

Under Article 19 every citizen has the Right to Assemble peaceably and without arms. However, this

provision does not protect violence, disorderly, riotous assemblies or which disturbs peace or
involves

arms. Hence, Right to Pro- test is not explicitly mentioned in Part III.

71. By which one of the following amendments Right to Property has been omitted?

(A) 40h Amendment of Constitution

(B) 42h Amendment of Constitution

(C) 44h Amendment of Constitution

(D) 46 Amendment of Constitution

Ans-C)

The Right to Property was abolished as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.
Article
19(1)(f) and Article 31 were Repealed and Right to Property was added in part XII under Article 300A.

72.Amendments to the Constitution may be initiated

(A) Only in Lok Sabha

(B) Only in Rajya Sabha

(C) Only in State Legislative Assemblies

(D) Either House of the Parliament

Ans-(D)

According to Article 368(2) of the Constitution, an amendment of the Constitution may be initiated
only by

the introduction of a bill for a purpose in either house of the Parliament and the bill must be passed
by a

special majority in both the Houses i.e the majority of the total membership of the house and the
majority

of not less than 2/3 of the person present and voting.

73. According to which Article of Constitution of India, the Chief Minister is appointed by the

Governor of a state?

(A) Article 163

(B) Article 164

(C) Article 165

(D) Article 166

Ans-(B)

Under Article 164 of the Indian Constitution, the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor

and other ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.

74.Which one of the following is the period for the Legislative Council to detain the ordinary bills-?

(A) 3 months

(B) 4 months

(C) 6 months

(D) 14 days
Ans-(B)

As per the Article 197 of the Indian Constitution, if the bill passed by the Legislative Assembly of

a State having the Legislative Council, then the bill is transmitted to the Legislative Council. If

the Legislative Council would not take any action for three months, the Assembly may again pass

the bill and transmit them to the Council. If then, the Council would not take any action on the

bill for another one month, and then the bill deemed to have been passed by both the Houses in

the form in which it was passed by the Legislative Assembly.

75. Which state among the following has the maximum number of members in Legislative

Assembly?

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) West Bengal

(C) Maharashtra

(D) Uttar Pradesh

Ans- (D)

Uttar Pradesh has the maximum number of Legislative Seats in the Assembly. It has 403

members excluding one Anglo-Indian Member who is nominated by the Governor.

76. Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution contains the provision of the election

of Legislative Assembly of the State?

(A) Article 170

(B) Article 176

(C) Article 178

(D) None of the above

Ans- (A)

According to Article 170 of the Indian Constitution, the Legislative Assembly of each state shall

consists of not more than five hundred and not less than sixty members chosen by direct election

from the territorial constituencies in the state.

77. Who conducts the State Assemble Elections?

(A) Chief Justice of High Court

(B) State Election Commission

(C) Election Commission of India

(D) Governor of the State

Ans- (C)

As per Article324 (1), the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the

electoral rolls, for and the conduct of all the elections to the parliament and to the Legislature of

every State and of elections to the office of President and Vice President shall be vested in

Election Commission of India.

78. Which among the following is the final authority to decide any question relating to

disqualification of a member of a House of Legislature of a state?

(A) Governor

(B) Speaker of the Legislative Assemble

(C) Chief Minister

(D) High Court

Ans – (A)

As per Article 191, if any question arises as to whether a member of a house of the State

Legislature has become subject to any of the disqualification mentioned in clause(1) of the article

191, the question shall be final. Before giving his decision, the Governor shall obtain the opinion

of the Election Commission and act according to it.

79. If the Speaker of the Legislative Assemble of a State ants to resign, he will give his resignation to

(A) Chief Minister

(B) Governor

(C) Deputy Speaker

(D) President of India

Ans- (C)

Usually, Speaker remains in the office during the term of the assembly, But if he wants to resign

from the office, he will give his resignation to Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assemble of

that the State. [Article 17(b)]

80. The Speaker continues to be speaker even after the dissolution of the Assembly until –

(A) Chief Minister

(B) Governor

(C) Deputy Speaker

(D) President of India

Ans- (A)

According to Article 179, whenever the assembly is dissolved, the speaker shall not vacate his

office until immediately before first meeting of the assembly after dissolution.

81. How long can a minister continue without being elected to the State Assembly?

(A) One year

(B) Six months

(C) Three years

(D) Three months

Ans- (B)

As per Article 164(4) of the Constitution, minister who for a period of six months is not a

member of the Legislative of the State shall at the expiration of that period ceases to be a

Minister.

82. Pay and allowances of the Minister of a State Government and determined my the –

(A) Chief Minister

(B) Governor

(C) Chief Secretary

(D) State Legislative Assembly

Ans- (D)

As per Article 164(5), the salary and allowances of ministers shall be determined by the

Legislative of the State from time to time.

83. What is the minimum age limit prescribed for the membership of Legislative Assembly?

(A) 18 years

(B) 25 years

(C) 21 years

(D) No age Limit

Ans- (B)

As per Article 173(b), a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislature

unless he is not less than 25 years of age in case of seat in the Legislative Assembly and not less

than 30 years of age in case of Legislative Council.

84.State Legislative Assembly can participate in the election of which of the following –

(A) President of India

(B) Vice President of India

(C) Members of Rajya Sabha

(D) Members of the State Legislative Council

Select the correct answer –

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 1 and 3

(D) 1, 2 and 4

Ans- (B)

The members of the State Legislative Assembly can participate in the election of president of India,

Members of Rajya Sabha and the Members of State Legislative Council but they cannot

participate in the election of Vice President.

85.Which is the only State in India to have the Common/Uniform Civil Code?

(A) Jammu and Kashmir

(B) Mizoram

(C) Nagaland

(D) Goa

Ans- (D)

Goa is the only State that has Uniform Civil Code regardless of religion, gender and caste. In Goa

Hindu, Muslim, Christians all are bound with same law related to marriage, divorce and

succession. It is based on Portuguese civil code of 1867 but in a reformed form.

86.When was the Supreme Court inaugurated in India?

(A) 27 January, 1950

(B) 28 January, 1950

(C) 29 January, 1950

(D) 30 January, 1950

Ans- (B)

Supreme Court was inaugurated on 28 January, 1950. It succeeded the Federal Court of India,

established under Government of India Act, 1935. It also succeeded the Privy Council, which

was the highest judicial body in the country during British era.

87.The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vestedin-

(A) The president of India

(B) The Parliament

(C) The Chief Justice of India

(D) The Law Commission

Ans- (B)

Though the Constitution under Article 124, fixed the strength of Supreme Court to 8 (one Chief

Justice and seven other judge). The Constitution also empowered the Parliament to increases the
strength of Supreme Court. For this, the Parliament increased the number to 11 in 1956, to 14 in

1960, to 18 in 1978, to 26 in 1986 and to 31 in 2009; the strength of SC Judges including Chief

Justices of India was raised 34.

88. A judge of the Supreme Court may resign his office by writing a letter to-

(A) The Chief Justice

(B) The President

(C) The Prime Minister

(D) The Law Minister

Ans- (B)

As per Article 124(2) (a) of the Constitution, a judge of the Supreme Court may resign from his office

by writing under his hand addresses to the President.

89.The Judges of Supreme Court of India are appointed by the President-

(A) After recommendation by Rajya Sabha

(B) On the advice of Lok Sabha

(C) On the advice of Prime Minister

(D) In consolation with the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

Ans- (D)

As per Article 124(2) of the Constitution every judge of the supreme court shall be appointed by

president by warranty under his hand and seal after consultation with such number of the judges

of the Supreme Court and of the High courts in the States as the President may deem necessary

for the purpose. In case of appointment of a judge other than chief justice the Chief justice shall

always be consulted.

90. Which Article of the Constitution permits the Supreme Court to review its Judgement

or order?

(A) Article 137

(B) Article 130

(D) Article 138

(C) Article 139

Ans-(A)

The Constitution empowers the Supreme Court under Article 137 to review its judgement or

order It means it is a

self-correcting body.

91. Who is the custodian of the Indian Constitution?

(A) President

(B) Parliament

(C) Council of Ministers

(D) Supreme Court

Ans-(D)

Supreme Court of India is final Interpreter, Custodian and Guardian of the Indian Constitution.

92. The minimum number of Judges of the Supreme Court required for hearing any case

involving interpretation of the Constitution is:

(A) Ten

(B) Nine

(C)Seven

(D) Five

Ans-(D)

Constitutional cases or the cases involving the interpretation of the Constitution are decided by

the at least five judges of the Supreme Court.

93. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged on the-

(A) Consolidated Fund of India

(B) Consolidated Fund of the State

(C) Contingency Fund of India

(D) Contingency Fund of the State

Ans-(B)

According to Article 202(3) (d), the salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are

charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State. However, their pension is charged on the

Collimated Fund of India.

94. Which one of the following subjects come under the common Jurisdiction of the

Supreme Court and High Goa Court?

(A)Mutual disputes among States

(B) Disputes between Centre and States

(C) Protection of Fundamental Rights

(D) Protection from the violation of the Constitution

Ans-C)

The protection of Fundamental Rights comes under the common jurisdiction of the Supreme

Court and the High Court. The Supreme Court under Article 32 and the High Court under Article

226 have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any Fundamental Right conferred by

Part III of the Constitution of India.

95. in which writ, Judiciary orders executives to perform their duty?

(A) Habeas Corpus

(B) Mandamus

(D) Quo Warrantor

(C) Prohibition

Ans-(B)

Mandamus is a writ or order that is issued from a Court of superior Jurisdiction that commands

an inferior Court, tribunal, Municipal Corporation or public official to perform his official duties.

96. in which writ, Judiciary orders executives to perform their duty?

(A) Habeas Corpus

(B) Mandamus

(D) Quo Warrantor

(C) Prohibition

Ans-(B)

Mandamus is a writ or order that is issued from a Court of superior Jurisdiction that commands

an inferior Court, tribunal, Municipal Corporation or public official to perform his official duties.

97. The term of District Judge is mentioned in which of the following Article of the

Constitution?

(A) Article 230

(B) Article 231

(C) Article 232

(D) Article 233

Ans-(D)

According to Article 233, the appointment, promotion and posting of the District Judge in any

state shall be made by the Governor of that state in consultation with the High

Court concerned.

98. A High Court Judge addresses his letter of resignation to-

(A) The President

(B) The Chief Justice of India

(C) The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court

(D) The Governor of the State

Ans-(A)

According to Article 217(1) of the Constitution, a Judge of High Court can resign from his office

by writing under his

Hand addressed to the President.

99.In which Article, the provision on reservation of Scheduled Caste and Tribes to Panchayats has
been given?

(A) 243A

(B) 243B

(C) 243C

(D) 243D

Ans- (D)

Article 243D of the Constitution provides reservation in seats for the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes.

The number of seats so reserved shall be in proportion of their population of their population to the
total

population in the Panchayats area.

100.Reservation of seats in Panchayats election for Scheduled Castes shall not apply to the state of-

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Assam

(C) Arunachal Pradesh

(D) Haryana

Ans-(C)

Reservation of seats in Panchayats election for Scheduled Castes shall not apply to the state of
Arunachal

Pradesh because as per Census 2011, there is no population of Scheduled Castes in the state.

Exam Topic: [Full Marks – 100]

 Turkish Invasion of India

 Delhi Sultanate

 Delhi Sultanate-Literature,

 Architecture and Art

 Vijayanagara Empire
 Bhakti and Sufi Movement

 Mughal Empire

 Mughal Administration, Music,

 Painting and Literature

 Maratha

Question Number: 1

First Muslim Invader in India was

(A) Qutbuddin Aibak

(B) Muhammad Ghazni

(C) Muhammad-bin-Qasim

(D) Muhammad Ghuri

Ans-(C)

Muhammad bin Qasim in 672 AD at the age of 17 was the first Muslim invader who managed to

reach Sindh. He defeated Dahir, a king of Sindh in 712 AD at the request of the king of Ceylon

(now Sri Lanka).

Question Number: 2

The famous historian who visited India with Mahmud of Ghazni was -

(A) Ferishta (B) Al-Beruni

(C) Atif (D) Ibn Battuta

Ans-(B)

Al-Beruni spent much of his life in Ghazni, the capital of Ghaznavid dynasty (central

Afganistan). In 1017, he travelled to South Asia and wrote a study of Indian culture (Tahqiq

mali-l-hind) after exploring the Hinduism practised in India. He was given the title the founder of

Indology.

Question Number: 3
The first Muslim who studied puranas was

(A) Abul Fazal

(B) Abdul Qadir Badayuni

(C) Al-Beruni

(D) Dara Shikoh

Ans-(C)

Beruni was one of the most important Muslim authorities in the history of religion. Al-Beruni

was a pioneer in the study of comparative religion. He was the first Muslim who studied Puranas.

Question Number: 4

Who among the following issued silver coins with Sanskrit legend on one side -

(A) Muhammad-bin-Qasim

(B) Sher Shah

(C) Mahmud of Ghazni

(D) Akbar

Ans-(C)

The coins of Mahmud Ghazni struck in India with Arabic and Sanskrit legends at obverse and

reverse respectively. Some carried Islamic titles together with the portrayal of the Shiva's bull,

Nandi and the Legend Sri Samta Devi.

Question Number: 5

In which battle Muhammad Ghori defeated Jaichand?

(A) First Battle of Tarain (1191 AD)

(B) Second Battle of Tarain (1192 AD)

(C) Battle of Chandawar (1194 AD)

(D) Battle of Kanauj (1194 AD)

Ans-(C)
The Battle of Chandawar (1193-1194) was fought between Muhammad Ghori and Jaichand of

Kanauj of the Gahadavala dynasty, close to Agra along the banks of Yamuna river in which Jai

Chand wasdefeated giving Muhammad control over a major part of northern India.

Question Number: 6

Battle that laid the foundation of Muslim domination in India?

(A) First Battle of Tarain

(B) Second Battle of Tarain

(C) First Battle of Panipat

(D) Second Battle of Panipat

Ans-(B)

The Second Battle of Tarain in 1192 AD is regarded as one of the turning points in the Indian

History. It was fought between Ghurid forces and Prithviraj Chauhan. Ghurid's came out

victorious and this laid the foundation of Muslim domination in India.

First Battle of Tarain 1191 AD

Second Battle of Tarain 1192 AD

First Battle of Panipat 1526 AD

Second Battle of Panipat 1556 AD

Question Number: 7

Muhammad Ghori granted first Iqta in India to -

(A) Tajuddin Yalduz

(B) Qutbuddin Aibak

(C) Shamshuddin Iltutmish

(D) Nazir-ud-din-Qubacha

Ans-(B)

The conquest of Muhammad Ghuri and establishment of the Sultanate brought major changes in
the land revenue system in India. He granted the first Iqta in India to Qutbuddin Aibak. He was

called Farishta by Muhammad Ghori.

Question Number: 8

Who was the founder of Slave dynasty?

(A) Iltutmish

(B) Alauddin Khalji

(C) Balban

(D) Qutubuddin Aibak

Ans-(D)

The Slave dynasty was founded by Qutubuddin Aibak, a favourite slave of the muslim general

and later sultan Muhammad of Ghur. Aibak rose to power when a Ghurid superior was

assassinated. However, his reign was short lived (1206-10) as he died in 1210 while playing

(Polo) chaugan.

Question Number: 9

Which Sultan of Delhi Sultanate is called as Lakh Baksh?

(A) Iltutmish (B) Balban

(C) Muhammad-bin-tughlaq

(D) QutbuddinAibak

Ans-(D)

Qutbuddin Aibak gave large sum of money in charity, thus earning the name Lakh Baksh or

giver of lakhs.

Question Number: 10

Who among the following did not contributed in building the famous Qutab Minar?

(A) Qutbuddin Aibak

(B) Iltutmish
(C) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

(D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

Ans-(C)

Construction of Qutab Minar was started by Qutubuddin Aibak, but he only constructed the

basement. The construction of the tower was later done by Iltutmish byadding three storeys. In

1369, a lightening stroke destroyed the top storey. Firoz Shah Tughlaq replaced the damaged

storey and added one more. Sher Shah Suri added an entrance to this tower. Hence, option (C) is

the correct answer.

Question Number: 11

Who among the following established Delhi as the capital of Sultanate?

(A) Qutbuddin Aibak

(B) Iltutmish

(C) Raziya

(D) Muizzuddin Ghuri

Ans-(B)

Shamsuddin Iltutmish (1211-1236) was the third ruler of Mamluk dynasty. He was a slave of

Qutbuddin Aibak who later became his son-in-law. He shifted his capital from Lahore to Delhi,

remained the ruler until his death on May 1,1236.

Question Number: 12

Who was called a slave of a slave?

(A) Muhammad Ghuri

(B) Qutibuddin Aibak

(C) Balban

(D) Iltutmish

Ans-(D)
Shamsuddin Iltutmish was called the slave of slave, Since he was a slave of Qutbuddin Aibak

who himself was a slave to Muhammad Ghori.

Question Number: 13

Which Sultan of Delhi is said to have followed the policy of blood and iron?

(A) Iltutmish

(B) Jalaluddin Firuz Khalji

(C) Balban

(D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

Ans-(C)

Blood and Iron policy was used by Balban. This policy emphasised on being ruthless to the

enemies, use of sword, harshness, strictness and shedding blood. He used this policy to rise to

high post, betrayed Raziya and engineered revolts against her.

Question Number: 14

After consolidating his power, Balban assumed the title of -

(A) Tuti-e-Hind

(B) Kaiser-i-Hind

(C) Zil-i-Ilahi

(D) din-i-Ilahi

Ans-(C)

Balban took the title of Zil-i-Ilahi meaning Shadow of God. He also started Iranian customs of

Sijda and Paibos to Sultan in India. He also introduced the Persian festival Navroz. He

propounded the Niyabat-i-Khudai.

Question Number: 15

Which dynasty of Delhi Sultanate ruled for the shortest period?

(A) Khalji
(B) Tughlaq

(C) Saiyid

(D) Lodi

Ans-(A)

Khalji dynasty ruled for the shortest period (1290-1320) of only 30 years. The other dynasties of

Sultanate period - Mamluk dynasty (1206-90), Tughlaq Dynasty (1320-1414), the Sayyid

dynasty (1414-51) and Lodi dynasty (1451-1526).

Question Number: 16

The Sultan who is said to have raised the land revenue to one-half of the produce was -

(A) Balban

(B) Alauddin Khalji

(C) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

(D) Firoz Tughlaq

Ans-(B)

Alauddin Khalji made several sweeping reforms in the field of revenue system. His land and

revenue reforms are not able for two measures viz. abolition of small Iqtas and land

measurement (Paimaish). He made the harshest possible hike in tax demand till that time. He

fixed state demand to be half of the produce per Biswa yield. This scale of agrarian tax at 50%

was the highest under Khalji among all other Sultans and Kings so far in India.

Question Number: 17

Which of the following kings of the medieval India began the Public Distribution System?

(A) Alauddin Khalji

(B) Balban

(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

(D) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

Ans-(A)

Alauddin Khalji introduced the Public Distribution System through his market reforms. Alauddin

sought to fix the cost of all commodities from food grains, sugar and cooking oil to a needle and

from costly imported cloth to horses, cattle and slave boys and girls.

Question Number: 18

Ghazi Malik was the founder of which dynasty?

(A) Tughlaq

(B) Khalji

(C) Saiyid

(D) Lodi

Ans-(A)

The Tughlaq dynasty was founded by Ghazi Malik in 1320 in Delhi. He assumed the title of

Ghiasuddin Tughlaq. The dynasty ended in 1413. He founded the city of Tughluqabad.

Question Number: 19

The most learned ruler of the Delhi sultanate who was well versed in various branches of

learning including Astronomy, Mathematics and Medicine was -

(A) Iltutmish

(B) Alauddin Khalji

(C) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

(D) Sikander Lodi

Ans-(C)

Muhammad bin Tughlaq was the most learned ruler of Delhi Sultanate. He was interested in

medicine and well versed in several languages- Persian, Arabic, Turkish and Sanskrit. According

to the 19th century AD British historian Stanley Lane- Poole, apparently courtesans had hailed

Tughlaq as a Man of knowledge owing to his interest in subjects like Philosophy, Medicine,
Mathematics, Astronomy, Religion, Persian, Urdu and Hindustani poetry.

Question Number: 20

For the first time token currency was introduced in India by -

(A) Akbar

(B) Alauddin Khalji

(C) Bahlol Lodi

(D) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

Ans-(D)

Muhammad bin Tughlaq is known for his active interest in experimenting with the coinage.

When famine like conditions struck, he introduced a token currency system and minted vast

quantities of new copper and brass coins that could be exchanged for fixed amount of gold and

silver coins.

Question Number: 21

Ibn Battuta, the Moroccan traveller, visited India during the reign of -

(A) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

(B) Babur

(C) Akbar

(D) Mahmud Ghazni

Ans-(A)

Ibn Battuta was a Muslim Moroccan explorer. He came to India during the reign of Muhammad

bin Tughlaq. He is known for his extensive travel, accounts compiled in Rihala.

Question Number: 22

Who among the following sultans of Delhi established an Employment Exchange to help the

unemployed?

(A) Balban
(B)Alauddin Khalji

(C) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

(D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

Ans-(D)

Firoz Shah Tughlaq developed an Employment Bureau resembling the modern Employment

Exchange to find out jobs for the unemployed. His other works of public u lity include Diwan ia-
Khairat to help the poor and needy.

Question Number: 23

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(A) Diwan-i-Bandagan - Tughlaq

(B) Diwan-i-Mustakharaj - Balban

(C) Diwan-i-Kohi – Alauddin Khalji

(D) Diwan-i-Arz – Muhammad Tughlaq

Ans-(A)

Diwan-i-Bandagan was the department of slaves and was created by Firoz Shah Tughlaq. Diwan i-
Mustakharaj (to release arrears) was created by Alauddin Khalji. Diwan-i-kohi (department of

agriculture) was created by Muhammad bin Tughlaq.

Question Number: 24

Diwan-i-Arz department was associated with?

(A) Royal correspondence

(B) Foreign

(C) Defence

(D) Finance

Ans-(C)

Diwan-i-arz was the Ministry of Defence headed by Arz-i Mamlik. He was responsible for

organization and maintenance of the royal army. The review of the army and branding of the
horses was done by Arz-i-mamlik.

Question Number: 25

Sharab was a tax levied on which of the following?

(A) Trade

(B) Irrigation

(C) Non-Muslims

(D) Industry

Ans-(B)

Firoz Shah Tughlaq imposed four taxes sanctioned by Islam viz., Kharaj (land tax), Khams

(1/5th of the looted property during wars), Jizyah (religious tax on the Hindus) and Zakat (12%

percent of the income of the muslims which was spent for the welfare of Muslim subject and

their religion). He also introduced sharab or shart, it was 1/10th of crop production levied on

farmers to develop and maintain water supply facilities.

Question Number: 26

The tem Hadis refers to which of these?

(A) Islamic laws

(B) Settlement laws

(C) Tax of sultanate period

(D) Mansabdars

Ans-(A)

Hadis or Hadith in Islam are teachings, traditions and legends of Prophet Mohammed and his

followers, used as a basis of Islamic laws. It acts as a source of Religious laws and ethical

guidance.

Question Number: 27

Which Sultan built Alai Darwaza?

(A) Iltutmish

(B) Alauddin Khalji

(C) Balban

(D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

Ans-(C)

Alai Darwaza is a magnificient gateway built by Alauddin Khalji of the Delhi Sultanate, having

exquisite inlaid marble decorations and latticed stone screens. It represents the Indo-Islamic style

of architecture.

Question Number: 28

Who was the famous author of Kitab-ul-Hind?

(A) Masan Nizami

(B) Minhaj-us-Siraj

(C) Al-Beruni

(D) Shams-e-siraj-Atif

Ans-(C)

Al-Beruni was the first Muslim scholar to study India and its Brahmanical tradition. He authored

Kitab-ul-Hind in which he praises a very high degree of proficiency of Indians in construction of

Tanks and reservoirs at holy places.

Question Number: 29

Who among the following called himself the Parrot of India or Tota-e-hind?

(A) Qutban

(B) Usman

(C) Amir Khasrau

(D) Amir Hasan

Ans-(C)
Amir Khusrau is known as Parrot of India. He wrote numerous works, among them five divans,

which were. compiled at different periods in his life. He enjoyed the patronage of 7 Sultans and

was a disciple to Nizamuddin Aulia (Chisti Silsila Sufi Saint).

Question Number: 30

Kirti Stambh of Chittor was constructed during the rule of which Rajput ruler?

(A) Rana Kumbha

(B) Rana Hammir

(C)Rana Ratan Singh

(D)Rana Sangram Singh

Ans-(A)

The Kirti Stambha was built to commemorate the victory of Rana Kumbha. It is also called

Tower of Fame.

Question Number: 31

Which Delhi Sultan among the following wrote his memoirs?

(A) Iltutmish

(B) Balban

(C) Alauddin Khalji

(D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

Ans-(D)

Futuhat-i Firuzshahi is an autobiography of Firoz Shah Tughlaq where his orthodox views were

revealed

Question Number: 32

Which of the following taxes were introduced during Sultanate period?

(A) Ushr

(B) Zakat
(C) Kharaj

(D) All of them

Ans-(D)

Ushr was a land revenue paid by Muslims only and Zakat was a religious tax to be paid by rich

muslims while Kharaj was a land revenue tax to be paid by non-muslims.

Question Number: 33

The Kingdom of Vijayanagara was founded by -

(A) Vijay Raya

(B) Harihara II

(C) Harihara and Bukka

(D) Bukka II

Ans-(C)

The Vijayanagara Kingdom was founded by Harihara and Bukka. They had been the feudatories

of the Kakatiyas of Warangal and later became ministers in the Kingdom of Kampili in modern

Karnataka. The date of Harihara's coronation is placed at 1336.

Question Number: 34

The lady poet who described the victorious expedi on of her husband in her work Madhura Vijayam
was -

(A) Bharats

(B) Ganga Devi

(C) Varadambika

(D) Vijjika

Ans-(B)

Madura Vijayam meaning the conquest of Madurai is a 14th century AD sanskrit poem written

by the poet Gangadevi. The poem describes in detail, the invasion and conquest of the Madurai

Sultanate by the Vijayanagara empire.

Question Number: 35

Who were the Ashtadiggajas in the court of Krishnadevraya?

(A) Eight ministers

(B) Eight Telugu poets

(C) Eight great warriors

(D) Eight advisors

Ans-(B)

Ashtadiggajas is the collective title given to the eight Telugu poets in the court of the emperor

Sri Krishnadevaraya who ruled the Vijayanagara Empire from 1509-1529.

Question Number: 36

Which city was founded by Krishnadevaraya -

(A) Warangal

(B) Nagalapuram

(C) Udayagiri

(D) Chandragiri

Ans-(B)

Nagalapuram the temple town was built at the time of Krishnadevaraya of Vijayanagara Empire

in memory of his mother Nagala Devi. Before the change of its name to Nagalapuram, this

village was known as Harigandapuram.

Question Number: 37

Who was Nicolo de Conti?

(A) A famous painter

(B) An Italian traveller who visited Vijayanagaram

(C) A Portugese traveller

(D) A Persian traveller

Ans-(B)

Nicolo de Conti was an Italian traveller who visited Vijayanagar in 1420. He visited India during

the reign of Deva Raya I, leaving behind a graphic account.

Question Number: 38

Sayana, the famous commentator of the Vedic texts was patronized by -

(A) Paramara rulers

(B) Satavahana rules

(C) Vijayanagara rulers

(D) Vakataka rules

Ans-(C)

Sayana was a Sanskrit scholar from the Vijayanagara Empire of South India. He was an

important commentator on the Vedas, who flourished under king Bukka Raya I and his successor

Harihara II.

Question Number: 39

Ruins of which of the following represent the old capital of Vijayanagara?

(A) Ahmadnagar

(B) Bijapur

(C) Golconda

(D) Hampi

Ans-(D)

The Vijayanagara empire is named after capital city of Vijaynagar, whose ruins surround present

day Hampi. It is now a World Heritage Site in Karnataka. It was founded by Harihara I and

Bukka Raya I in the early 14th century.

Question Number: 40

Krishna deva Raya was known as -

(A) Abhinava Bhoja

(B) Andhra Pitamaha

(C) Andhra Bhoja

(D) All of them

Ans-(D)

Krishnadeva Raya belonging to Tuluva dynasty was known as Abhinava Bhoja, Andhra

Pitamaha and Andhra Bhoja. He wrote Usha parinayam and Jambavati Kalyanam in Sanskrit and

Amukta Malyada in Telgu.

Question Number: 41

The Bhakti movement was started by -

(A) Alvar Saints

(B) Sufi Saints

(C) Surdas

(D) Tulsidas

Ans-(A)

The development of Bhakti movement took place in Tamil Nadu between the seventh and

twelfth centuries. It was reflected in the emotional poems of the Nayannars (devotees of Shiva)

and Alvars (devotees of Vishnu). Bhakti ideology used local language to spread their ideas and

beliefs.

Question Number: 42

Vaishnavism in Kamarupa was popularised by -

(A) Chaitanya

(B) Nimbarka

(C) Ramananda

(D) Shankaradeva
Ans-(D)

Srimanta Sankaradeva was a socio-religious reformer who popularised Vaishnavism in

Kamarupa. He preached dasya-bhakti as the relationship between Sri-Krishna and his devotee.

The Neo-Vaishnavism in Assam is an offshoot of the Chaitanya movement in Bengal.

Question Number: 43

Which one of the following is correctly matched?

(A) Advaitvada - Ramanuja

(B) Vishist advaitavada - Shankaracharya

(C) Dvaitavada - Madhavacharya

(D) Dvaitaadvaitavada - Vallabhacharya

Ans-(C)

The correctly matched pairs are -

Advaitavad - Shankaracharya

Vishishtadvaitavada - Ramanuja

Dvaitadvaitavada - Nimbarka

Hence, only option (C) is correctly matched.

Question Number: 44

Who among the following was the first Bhakti Saint to use Hindi for the propagation of his

message?

(A) Dadu

(B) Kabir

(C) Ramananda

(D) Tulsidas

Ans-(C)

Ramananda was a 14th century Vaishnava devotional poet saint, in the Ganga region of Northern
India. Ramananda was known for composing his works and discussing spiritual themes in Hindi.

He stated that use of Hindi (Vernacular language) will help to make knowledge accessible to the

masses.

Question Number: 45

Who composed Bijak?

(A) Surdas

(B) Kabir

(C) Ravidas

(D) Pipaji

Ans-(B)

Bijak is the best known of the compilations of verses of Kabir. It is one of the earliest of the

major texts in modern Hindi. It is holy scripture for Kabirpanthi. The main commentary on the

Bijak is by Mahatma Puransaheb.

Question Number: 46

In whose reign Guru Nanak Dev founded Sikh religion?

(A) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

(B) Sikander Lodi

(C) Humayan

(D) Akbar

Ans-(B)

Guru Nanak (1469-1539) was saint, a preacher and a social reformer during the reign of Sikandar

Lodhi, who founded Sikhism during the 15thcentury.

Question Number: 47

The book Ramcharitramanas was written by –

(A) Tulsidas
(B) Valmiki

(C) Surdas

(D) Ved Vyas

Ans-(A)

Ramcharitramanas is an epic poem in Awadhi, composed in 16th century by Goswami Tulsidas.

It literally means of the deeds of Rama. It is considered one of the works of Hindi literature.

Question Number: 48

The Chishti Sufi Order in India was established

(A) Khwaja Badaruddin

(B) Khwaja Moinuddin

(C) Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi

(D) Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya

Ans-(B)

Moinuddin Chishti was a Persian Muslim preacher from Sistan. He promulgated the famous

Chishti order of Sunni mysticism. This particular order became the dominant spiritual group in

medieval India.

Question Number: 49

Who among the following is called Sadi of India?

(A) Amir Hasan

(B) Amir Khusrau

(C) Abu Talib Kalim

(D) Chandrabhan Brahman

Ans-(A)

Amir Hasan Dehalvi belonged to the literary society in the city of Multan from 1280 to 1285 and

later moved to Delhi with his friend Amir Khusrau. In Delhi, he was the first to write the verse in
the view of free thinking but later joined a Sufi order, the Chishti. He was called Sadi of India.

Question Number: 50

Which Sufi was called Mahboob-ellahi?

(A) Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti

(B) Baba Farid

(C) Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki

(D) Shaikh Nizammudin Auliya

Ans-(D)

Syed Muhammad Nizamuddin Auliya, also known as Hazrat Nizamuddin and Mahboob-e-llahi,

was a sufi saint of Chishti order and the most famous sufi on the Indian sub-continent. He

stressed love as a means of realising God. For him, his love of God implied Love of humanity.

Question Number: 51

Which of the following were similarities between Saguna and Nirguna bhakti?

(A) Attack on caste system, rejecting the authority of Brahmanas.

(B) Theme of poetry being Premashrayi

(C) Believe in omnipresence of God as a divine consciousness

(D) Use of Vermacular languages

Ans-(D)

Focussing on mystical love for God, use of vernacular languages and emphasis on singular

devotion towards God were the similarities between Saguna (with traits/Gunas) and Nirguna

(without traits) bhakti.

Question Number: 52

Who among the following defeated Babur in the Battle of Sar-e-Pul?

(A) Abdullah Khan Uzbek

(B) Shaibani Khan

(C) Ubaydullah Khan

(D) Juni Beg

Ans-(B)

The battle of Sar-e-Pul (April-May 1501) was an early defeat suffered by Babur after he captured

the city of Samarkand. The city then fell to the Uzbek leader Muhammad Shaibani Khan in 1500,

but later in the same year Babur managed to capture the city after a surprise attack made with

only 200 men.

Question Number: 53

The first battle of Panipat was fought between -

(A) Babur and Rana Sanga

(B) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar

(C) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodi

(D) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi

Ans-(D)

First battle of Panipat was fought, on 21 April 1526 between the invading forces of Babur and

the Lodi Kingdom. This was one of the earliest artillery used in a battle in the Indian

subcontinent.

Question Number: 54

During which of the following battle, did Babur declare Jihad?

(A) Battle of Panipat

(B) Battle of Khanwa

(C) Battle of Chanderi

(D) None of the above

Ans-(B)

The Battle of Khanwa was fought on March 16, 1527, between Babur and Rana Sanga of
Mewar. The victory in the battle consolidated the Mughal empire in India. Babur declared Jihad

in Battle of Khanwa.

Question Number: 55

Which of the following rulers at first assumed the title of Hazrat-e-Ala and afterwards Sultan?

(A) Bahlul Lodi

(B) Sikander Lodi

(C) Sher Shah Suri

(D) Islam Shah Suri

Ans-(C)

Sher Shah Suri was the founder of Sur Empire in the northern part of the Indian sub-continent

with its capitalin Sasaram in modern-day-Bihar and assumed the title of Hazrat-e-Ala in 1592

after defeating Nusrat Shah and assumed the title of Sultan after defeating Humayun in 1539 in

the Battle of Chausa.

Question Number: 56

After the downfall of Delhi Sultanate, who was the first ruler to issue the gold coins?

(A) Akbar

(B) Humayun

(C) Shah Jahan

(D) Sher Shah

Ans-(B)

Humayun issued the gold coins after the downfall of Delhi Sultanate. He also issued gold coins

of Shahruki type from Agra and minted some tiny gold coins from Badakshan.

Question Number: 57

In which of the following place Akbar was enthroned on getting the information of Humayun's

death?
(A) Kabul

(B) Lahore

(C) Sarhind

(D) Kalanaur

Ans-(D)

Akbar succeeded Humayun on 14th February 1556, while in the midst of a war against Sikandar

Shah to reclaim the Mughal throne. In Kalanaur, Punjab the 13 year old Akbar was enthroned by

Bairam Khan.

Question Number: 58

The main aim of Akbar in fighting the Battle of Haldighati was -

(A) To subdue Rana Pratap

(B) To polarise Rajputs

(C) To satisfy sentiments of Man Singh

(D) Imperial Policy

Ans-(A)

The Battle of Haldighati was fought on 18 June, 1576 between cavalry and archers supporting

the Rana Sanga of Mewar, Maharana Pratap and Mughal forces led by Man Singh I of Amber.

The main aim of the battle was to subdue Rana Pratap

Question Number: 59

Which of the following Muslim ruler abolished the pilgrimage tax?

(A) Bahlul Lodi

(B) Sher Shah

(C) Humayun

(D) Akbar

Ans-(D)
Akbar abolished the pilgrimage tax, on Hindus in 1564 while Jizyah was finally abolished in

1579. However, Aurangzeb, reintroduced it in 1679. Jizyah was a per capita yearly tax

historically levied on non-Muslim Subjects.

Question Number: 60

Military system in reign of Akbar was based on -

(A) Mansabdari

(B) Zamindari

(C) Feudalistic

(D) Ain-i-dahsala

Ans-(A)

The Mansabdar was a military unit within the administrative system of the Mughal Empire

introduced by Akbar. The word mansab meant rank or position. In this system, nobles were

granted the rights to hold a jagir, which meant revenue assignment for services rendered by them

but the authority bestowed upon them was not unbridled but with the direct control of these

nobles in the hands of the king.

Question Number: 61

Zabti system was introduced by -

(A) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

(B) Sikander Lodi

(C) Sher Shah

(D) Akbar

Ans-(D)

Akbar introduced the Dahasala or Zabti System of land revenue collection in 1580-82 to alleviate

the problems arising due to fixing prices every year and doing settlements of revenues of

previous years.
Question Number: 62

Akbar launched Din-i-llahi in the year -

(A) 1570

(B) 1578

(C) 1581

(D) 1582

Ans-(D)

Din-i-llahi was a syncretic religion propounded by the Mughal emperor Akbar in 1582 AD,

intending to merge some of the elements of the religions of his empire and reconcile tolerance of

faith and he also encouraged debate on philosophical and religious issues. This led to creation of

Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri.

Question Number: 63

Who introduced Du-aspa and Sih-aspa sytem?

(A) Akbar

(B) Jahangir

(C) Shah Jahan

(D) Aurangzeb

Ans-(B)

The terms du-aspa and sih-aspa were used for the first time in the 10th year of Jahangirs reign. It

was a device to encourage the competent mansabdars.

Question Number: 64

In whose reign was the Treaty of Chittor signed between Mughal and the Rana Sanga of Mewar?

(A) Akbar

(B) Jahangir
(C) Shah Jahan

(D) Aurangazeb

Ans-(B)

Treaty of Chittor was signed between Amar Singh and Shah Jahan (who negotiated on behalf of

Jahangir) in 1615. It was agreed that the fort of Chittor would never be repaired.

Question Number: 65

Mughal Emperor Jahangir gave the title English-Khan to:

(A) Albuquerque

(B) Francisco Almedia

(C) William Hawkins

(D) Henry, the Navigator

Ans-(C)

Jahangir called William Hawkins as English Khan as he was able to persuade the emperor to

grant a commission for an English factory at Surat. Hawkins lived in the court of Mughal

emperor till 1611.

Question Number: 66

Who among the following painters was given the title of Nadir-ul-Zaman by Jahangir?

(A) Abul Hasan

(B) Farrukh Beg

(C) Bishandas

(D) Agha Raza

Ans-(A)

Abul Hasan (1589-1630) was Mughal painter of miniatures under the reign of Jahangir. Jahangir

said of him that he had no equal and bestowed the title Nadir-uz-Zaman (wonder of the Age) on

himself.
Question Number: 67

Who built the famous Jama Masjid at Delhi?

(A) Humayan

(B) Shah Jahan

(C) Akbar

(D) Ibrahim Lodi

Ans-(B)

Jama Masjid is one of the largest mosques in India. It was built by Mughal emperor Shah Jahan

between 1644 and 1656. It was constructed by more than 5000 workers. The mosque is

commonly called Jama which means Friday.

Question Number: 69

Who among the following shifted the capital of the Empire from Agra to Delhi?

(A) Akbar (B) Jahangir

(C) Shah Jahan (D) Aurangazeb

Ans-(C)

Shah Jahan in 1628 shifted his capital from Agra to Delhi. The main reason behind it was that

Agra streets were proving too narrow for grand processions and ceremonies. Yamuna was more

navigable in Delhi and shifting could be done by river route. Delhi was an important centre of

power of Muslims, since Sultanate era.

Question Number: 70

Who was the author of Sirr-i-Akbari?

(A) Abul Fazal

(B) Dara Shikoh

(C) Faizi

(D) Shah Waliullah

Ans-(B)

Sirr-i-Akbar (translation of Upanishads in Persian) was composed by Dara Shikoh meaning the

Great Secret. Dara Shikoh was the eldest son and heir-apparent of the fifth Mughal emperor Shah

Jahan.

Question Number: 71

The first famous diamond Kohinoor was presented to Shah Jahan by -

(A) Aurangzeb

(B) Murad

(C) Mir Jumla

(D) Abul Hasan Qutb Shah

Ans-(C)

Mir Jumla (1591-1603), a nobleman in the service of the state of Golconda in the Deccan Plateau

of central India was the first owner of Kohinoor, then the largest diamond.

Question Number: 72

Who of the following Mughal Emperor was coronated twice?

(A) Akbar

(B) Jahangir

(C) Shah Jahan

(D) Aurangzeb

Ans-(D)

Aurangzeb coronated himself twice, the first coronation was held on 31 July, 1658 in Delhi and

second time on 15 June, 1659 after the Battle of Devrai.

Question Number: 73

The Battle of Dharmat was fought between:

(A) Muhammad Ghuri and Jaichand

(B) Babur and Afghans

(C) Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh

(D) Ahmad Shah Durrani and the Marathas

Ans-(C)

The Battle of Dharmat was the first achievement of Aurangzeb which signifies his victory over

his four brothers. Battle of Dharmat was fought between Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh.

Question Number: 74

Which Mughal Emperor was known as Zinda Peer?

(A) Akbar

(B) Aurangazeb

(C) Shah Jahan

(D) Jahangir

Ans-(B)

Aurangzeb was called Zinda Peer or Living Saint because of his remarkable personal qualities,

exhibiting Probity, austerity and ethical morals. He was a person who fully commemorated

Quran, he organised Fatwa-al-alamgiri (summary of Muslim Law), he lived a very simple living

unlike his predessors.

Question Number: 75

Which of the following rebellion does not belongs to the reign of Aurangzeb?

(A) Satnami Revolt

(B) Jat Revolt

(C) Bundela Revolt under Jujhar Singh

(D) Afgan Revolt

Ans-(C)
Afgan Revolt, Jat Revolt at Mathura (led by Gokla, Rajaram and Churaman), Satnami revolt and

Bundela Revolt under Chatrasaal occured during Aurangzeb's reign. Bundela Revolt was led by

Jujhar Singh (1628-35 AD) in reign of Shah Jahan.

Question Number: 76

Which of the following practices was not banned by Aurangzeb?

(A) Celebration of Nauroz

(B) Sati

(C) Practice of Tuladan and Jharokhadarshan

(D) Singing and playing of musical instruments

Ans-(D)

Aurangzeb abolished rahdari (transit duties), Pandari (octroi), drinking and cultivation of bhang,

celebration of Parsi festival Nauroz and Dasarah (hindu festival), practice of inscribing Kalma on

coins, tuladan, Jharokhadarshan and Sati. Though he banished singing from court he did not

prohibited playing of musical instruments, he himself was an accomplished Veena player.

Question Number: 77

In the Mughal administration Muhtasib was -

(A) Military officer

(B) Head of Foreign Affairs

(C) An officer-in-charge of public morals

(D) Officer of correspondence Department

Ans-(C)

Muhtasib was a supervisor of bazaars in trade in the Medieval period. His duty was to ensure that

public morals were followed in business in accordance with Islamic laws.

Question Number: 78

The Mughal emperor who prohibited the use of tobacco was -

(A) Akbar

(B) Babur

(C) Jahangir

(D) Aurangazeb

Ans-(C)

Jahangir, the fourth Mughal emperor of Mughal empire, banned tobacco in 1617. The use of

tobacco became extremely popular, leading Jahangir to ban it, likely to stem the influence of

foreign merchants.

Question Number: 79

Madad-i-Mash indicates in Mughal administration

(A) Toll Tax

(B) Revenue freeland granted to learned person

(C) Pension provided to Military Officials

(D) Cultivation tax

Ans-(B)

Lands given as revenue grants (madad-i-mash) were often those for which rulers permitted the

pious and worthy people to collect the state's tax revenue for their own support.

Question Number: 80

The meaning of word Bantai during medieval period was?

(A)Religious Tax

(B) System of calculating revenue

(C) Wealth Tax

(D) Property Tax

Ans-(B)

Bantai during the medieval times meant system of collecting revenue. It was opted by Sher Shah
Suri. There were three types of Bantai- Khet Bantai, Lank Bantai and Raasi Bantai.

Question Number: 81

During whose reign did the Mughal Painting flourished?

(A) Aurangazeb

(B) Akbar

(C) Jahangir

(D) Shah Jahan

Ans-(C)

Mughal painting flourished during the reign of Jahangir. He had an artistic inclination, brush

work became finer and the colors lighter. He particularly encouraged paintings depicting events

of his own life, individual portraits and studies of birds, flowers and animals.

Question Number: 82

Kishan Garh School of painting is famous for -

(A) Temple Art

(B) Painting

(C) Martial Arts

(D) Sculpture

Ans-(B)

Kishangarh was a small state but a very different type of artistic development took place here.

The development of art took place under Sawant Singh. Subject matter of Kishangarh school is

widely varied and includes hunting scenes, court scenes, portraits of kings, Nawabs, Emperors

and saints. The famous painter was Nihal Chand.

Question Number: 83

Who wrote Humayun Nama?

(A) Babur
(B) Humayan

(C) Gulbadan Begam

(D) Jahangir

Ans-(C)

Humayun Nama is a book written by Gulbadan(sister of Humayun) on the order of Akbar. It was

based on the life of Humayun and written in Persian language.

Question Number: 84

Who among the following translated Hitopadesha into Persian?

(A) Dara Shikoh

(B) Faizi

(C) Abdul Qadir Badayuni

(D) Tajul Mali

Ans-(D)

Hitopadesha is an Indian text in the Sanskrit language consisting of fables with both animal and

human characters. It was translated to Persian by Tajul Mali or Mufarsin-ul Qulab a minister in

the court of Akbar.

Question Number: 86

Nastaliq was -

(A)A Persian script used in Medieval India

(B) A raga composed by Tansen

(C) A cess leived by the Mughal rulers

(D) A manual of code of control for the Ulemas

Ans-(A)

Nastaliq is one of the calligraphic styles used in writing the Persian alphabets and traditionally

the predominant style in Persian Calligraphy. It is the core script of the post-Sassanid Persian
writing tradition.

Question Number: 87

Which of the following was not build during the reign of Shah Jahan?

(A)Shalimar garden (Lahore)

(B)Talkatora bagh (Delhi)

(C) Shalimar and Nishat gardens (Kashmir)

(D) Sheesh Mahal (Agra)

Ans-(C)

Sheeshmahal and Mussaman Burj (Jasmine palace) was built at Agra in reign of Shah Jahan

along with Shalimar gardens near Lahore and Talkatora bagh in Delhi. While Shalimar and

Nishat gardens of Kashmir were laid during reign of Jahangir.

Question Number: 88

Pietra Dura refers to?

(A) Divine light behind the head of kings in paintings.

(B)Calligraphic art of writting on buildings.

(C) Floral designs made of semi-precious stones.

(D) Garden layout in the vicinity of Mughal buildings.

Ans-(C)

Pietra Dura refers to the floral design on walls of buildings made during Mughal era, with semi

precious stones likeTaj Mahal (Agra), Tomb of Itmad ud Daula, Sheesh Mahal and Moti Masjid.

Hard and fine stones are used for inlay distinguished from the softer stones used in building.

Question Number: 89

Which of the following literature does not belongs to reign of Akbar?

(A)Sursagar

(B) Rajavalipataka
(C) Ramcharitmanas

(D) Sirr-i-Akbar

Ans-(D)

Sirr-i-Akbar was the persion translation of Upanishads by Dara Shikoh during the reign of Shah

Jahan.

Question Number: 90

Match the names of books with that of the authors and choose your answers from the codes

given below:

Books Author

A. Alamgir Nama- Mutamid Khan

B. Tabaqat-i-Akbari- Munshi Mohammad Kazim

C. Char Chaman- Chandrabhun Barahman

D. Iqbal Nama- Nizamuddin Ahmed

Jahangiri

Code -

ABCD

(A) i iii iv ii

(B) iii ii i iv

(C) iv i ii iii

(D) ii iv iii i

Ans-(D)

Explanation

Alamgirnama- Munshi Mohammad Kazim

Tabaqat-i-Akbari- Nazimuddin Ahmed

Char Chaman- Chandrabhun Brahman

Iqbalnama-i-Jahangiri-Mutamid Khan

Exam Topic: [Full Marks – 100]

 Advent and Consolidation of

 British Empire in India

 Revolt of 1857

 Reform Movements '

 Political institution and Formation of Indian National Congress

 National Movement (1905-1909)

 National Movement (1909-1919)

 Era of Mass Movement (1919-1929)

 Era of Mass Movement (1929-1930)

 Towards Independence and Partition (1940-1947)

1. Question Number: 1

Who were the first Europeans to come to India for trade?

(A) Dutch (B) English

(C) French (D) Portuguese

Ans-(D)

It was the Portuguese Who were the first Europeans to come to India through direct sea route.

Portuguese sailor Vasco da Gama arrived Calicut an important sea port in modern day Kerala

where he was welcomed by local ruler, king Zamorin in1498

Question Number: 2

Among the following factories in Bengal, the one established by the Portuguese was-

(A) Bandel (B) Chinsurah

(C) Hooghly (D) Shrirampur

Question Number: 3

Which one of the following is connected with the Blue Water policy?

(A) De Almeida (B) Albuquerque

Ans-(C)

The Emperor Akbar issued a Farman to Portuguese captain Pedro Tavares and gave

permission to establish a cityHooghly on the bank of river Hooghly.

(C) Dupleix (D) Robert Clive

Question Number: 3

The Secret of success of East India Company in Indiawas -

(A)Absence of Nationalism in India

(B) The company army received western training and they had modern arms.

(C) Indian soldiers lacked fidelity consequently whosoever paid them sufficiently could have

them on his services.

(D)All of the above

Ans-(D)

Success Of the East Company in India became possible because of the following reason 1. Superior
Arms and Military strategy

2. Lack of National pride and unity

3. Lack of Fidelty among Indian soldiers

4. Strong Financial backup

5. Naval superiority/strength

6. Technological and Military superiority etc.

Question Number: 4

Which of the following British companies got the first charter permitting them to trade in

India through searoute?

(A) Levant Company

(B) East India Company

(C) The English Company trading to the East Indies

(D) Ostend company

Ans-(C)

Queen Elizabeth-l issued a charter on December 31, 1600 with rights of exclusive trading

company named Governor and Company of Merchants of London (English East India Company)

trading into East Indies.

Question Number: 5

The first factory of the East India Company was established at -

(A) Pune (B) Goa

(C) Pondicherry (D) Surat

Ans-(A)

Blue Water Policy was initiated by Francisco De Almeida who asappointedasagovernorin

Indiaby theking of Portugal to strengthen the Portuguese position in India. According

tothis policy, Almeida's vision was to make the Portuguese the Master

ofIndianOceansratherbuilding fortresses.

Ans-(D)

Captain Thomas Best defeated the Portuguese in the sea off coast surat, impressed by the

act, Jahangir granted permission to the company to establish its factory at Surat in 1912

under Thomas Aldworth.

Question Number: 6

Bombay was taken over by the English East India Company from -

(A) The Dutch (B) The French

(C) The Danish (D) The Portuguese

Question Number: 7
French East India Company was constituted during the reign of-

(A) Louis XIV (B) Louis XIII

(C) Louis XV (D) Louis XVI

Ans-(D)

Bombay had been gifted to King Charles ll by the king of as dowry when Charles married

Portuguese princess Catherine in 1662. Bombay was given over to the East India on an annual

payment of ten pounds only in 1668.

Question Number: 8

The following European power entered into Indian tradeat one time or the other -

1. The English 2. The Dutch

3.The French 4. The Portuguese

Select the Chronological order of their entry from thecode givenbelow -

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 4, 2, 1 and 3

(C) 3, 4, 2 and 1(D) 2, 3, 4 and 1

Ans-(D)

Bombay had been gifted to King Charles ll by the king of as dowry when Charles married

Portuguese princess Catherine in 1662. Bombay was given over to the East India on an

annual payment of ten pounds only in 1668.

Ans-(B)

The first European to arrive in India were The Portuguese followed by Dutch, English and

French. Hence option (B) is correct.

Question Number: 9

Which Governor General had abolished slavery?

(A)Lord Cornwallis (B) Lord Ellen borough

(C) Lord William Bentick (D) Sir John Shore

Question Number: 10

The first railway in India was laid down during the period of-

(A) Lord Dalhousie (B) Lord Curzon

(C) Lord Wellesley (D) Lord Lytton

Question Number: 11 With which place was Mangal Pandey associated?

(A) Barrackpore (B) Meerut

(C) Delhi (D) None of the above

Ans-(B)

The Indian Slavery Act, 1843 also known as Act V of 1843 passed in British India by

then Governor General, Lord Ellen borough. The act outlawed many economic activities

associated with slavery.

Ans-(A)

The first railway was laid down from Mumbai to Thane in 1853 during the reign of Lord

Dalhousie.

Ans-(A)

Mangal Pandey, was a young sepoy of the 34 Native infantry. He went a step further and

fired at sergeant major of his unit atBarrackpore. Hewas overpowered and executed on

April 8 while his regiment was disbanded.

Question Number: 12

Who amongst the following had called the Government of India Act, 1935asthe Charter of

Slavery?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) M.A. Jinnah

(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

1.

Question Number: 13 Why Government of India Act, 1935isimportant?

(A) It is a main source of the Indian Constitution

(B) By this, India got freedom.

(C)Division of India is described in it.

(D) End ofthe Princely States by this act.

Ans-(A)

The Safeguards and the special powers vested in the General was something like

aCharterofSlavery byJawaharlal Nehru. He compared it with a with machine all brakes

but no engine.

Ans-(A)

The structural part of the Indian Constitution is to a large extent derived from the

Government of India Act, 1935. This Act marked a milestone towards a responsible

government inIndia.

Question Number: 14 Who among the following represented India at the World

Parliament of Religion at Chicagoin 1893?

(A) Swami Dayanand Saraswati

(B) RamKrishna Paramhansa

(C) Swami Vivekananda

(D) RajaRammohanRoy

2. Question Number: 15 Match List I with List Il and select the correct code given below the

List -

Leader Centre

(A) Maulavi Ahmadullah 1. Delhi

(B) Rani Laxmibai 2. Baghpat

(C)Shah Mal 3. Faizabad

(D) General Bakht Khan 4. Jhansi

Code A B C D A B C D

(A) 3 4 2 1 (B) 1 2 3 4

(C) 3 2 1 4 (D) 4 3 2 1

Question Number: 16 Which of the following were a consequenceof 1857 revolt?

(1) End of Company's Rule

(2) Office of Secretary of State and Governor General was created

Ans-(A)

The revolt of 1857 was led by General Bakht Khan in Delhi, Rani Laxmibai in Jhansi,

Shah Mal in Baghpat and Ahmadullahin Faizabad

Ans-(C)

Swami Vivekananda represented India in World Religions Conference at Chicago in

1893.Inhisspeech,hegaveshort introduction of Hinduism and the meaning of Hindu

religion.

(3) Reorganizationof Army

(A) Only (1) and (2) are correct

(B) Only (2) and (3) are correct

(C) Only (1) and (3) are correct

(D) All are correct

Question Number: 17 Who was the leader of 1857 struggle for freedom In Lucknow?

(A) Zeenat Mahal (B) Nana Saheb

(C) Hazrat Mahal (D) Tatia Tope

Question Number: 18 The statement-the so called first national war of independencewas

neitherfirst, nornational, not a war of independence is associated with -

(A) R.C. Majumdar (B) S.N. Sen

(C) Tarachand (D) V.D. Savarkar

Ans-(C)

QueenVictoria'sproclamationof1853 marked the end East IndiaCompany'srule (1757-

1857) since direct rule British Crown was established. The seat of secretaryof was set up

inLondonwho wasamember of Parliament (towardsaresponsible government) and

asQueen'sspecial representative in India. The office Governor General was created

bytheCharter Actof with Lord William Bentik asthe first GovernorGeneral while the first

Viceroy was LordCanning.

Ans-(C)

In Lucknow, the rebellion was led by Begum Hazrat Mahal after Nawab Wajid Ali Shah's

arrest on pretext of misgovernance. Her son, Birjis Qadir, wasproclaimed the Nawab

andaregular administration was organised wit important offices shared equally by

Muslims and Hindus.

Ans-(C)

R.C. Majumdar , a historian, had a different view on the nature of the revolt of 1857. He

stated in his book that the mutiny or the rebellion of 1857 was neither the first, national

nor a war of Independence as large parts of the remained unaffected and many sections of

the did not participated in the revolt.

Question Number: 19 Which of the following is correctly matched?

(A) Brahmo Samaj of India -Raja Rammohan Roy

(B) TattaBodhini Sabha -Keshav Chandra Sen

(C) TheSatyashodkak Samaj -Devendranath

(D) The Servants of India Society - Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Ans-(D)
Correct Match is given below:

1. Brahmo Samaj of India - Keshav ChandraSen

(1886)

2. Satyashodhak Samaj (1873) - Jyotiba Rao Phule

3. Tatvabodhini Sabha (1839) - Devendra Nath Tagore

4. Servants ofIndia Society - Gopal Krishna

(1905) Gokhale

Question Number: 20 Find the correct matchesin List I and List Il inthe alternatives given

there under

List 1 List 11

1.Prarthana SamajA.Raja RammohanRoy

2. Brahmo Samaj B.Vivekananda

3. Arya Samaj C.Dayananda Saraswati

4. Ram Krishan Mission D. Atmaram Pandurang

Code:

1 2 3 41234

(A) ABCD (B) B D C A

(C) D A C B (D) D A C B

Ans-(D)

Correct Match is given below:

1. Prarthana Samaj - Mahadev Govind Ranade

2. Brahmo Samaj- Raja Rammohan Roy

3. Arya Samaj- DayanandSaraswati

4. Ram Krishna Mission - Swami Vivekananda

5. Question Number:21 Who was known by the nickname of Lokhitavadi?

(A)Gopal Hari Deshmukh

(B)Mahadev Govind Ranade

(C) Jyotiba Phule

(D)Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Ans-(A)

Gopal Hari Deshmukh was an Indian activist, thinker, reformer and writer from Maharashtra. At

the age of he started writing articlesaimed at social reforms Maharashtra in the weekly Prabhakar

under the pen of Lokhitvadi. He promoted emancipation and education women and wrote

againstchild marriagedowry and polygamy.

Question Number:22 Who amongst the following Englishmen first translated Bhagavad

Gita into English?

(A) Williams Jones (B) Charles Wilkins

(C) Alexander Cunningham (D) John Marshall

Question Number:23 Which one of the following is not correctly matched-

(A) Munda - Binsa

Ans-(B)

Charles Wilkins founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal. He moved to Varanasi to study

Sanskrit. He translated Mahabharata and Geeta and published in 1785 as Bhagavad ta or

Dialogues of Krishna and Arjun.

(B)Santhal - Kanhu

(C) Ahom - Gomdhar Konwar

(D) Nayak - Tana Bhagat

Question Number:24 Aligarh movement was directly related to which of the following?

(A) Persuasion of Muslims to open up for modern ideas

(B) Emphasis on religious toleration and unity among people

(C) Rationalism and scientific thinking

(D) Preventing participation of Muslims in National Movement

Question Number:25 Which of the following reform movement was Revivalist in nature?

(A) Young Bengal movement

(B) Aligarh Movement

(C) Theosophical Movement

(D) Self Respect Movement

Ans-(D)

Munda revolt was led by Birsa Munda in the South of intheyear 1899Sidhuand Kanhu were the

leaders of Rebellion (1855-1856). Ahom revolt was led by Gomdha Konwar in 1828 Tana

Bhagat was related to Tana Bhaga movement(1914), which was a tribal uprising and Oraons

rouse under the leadership of Jatra Oraon in Chhotanagpur region.

Ans-(D)

Though all the above statements are true in context to Sir Ahmed Khan's contribution, but

the Aligarh movement was started to promote modern and western scientific knowledge

through education, preventing the participationMuslims in the National movement as he

believed that they should focus on their educational development.

Ans-(C)

Socio Religious Reform Movements of the 19th canbecategorized into: Reformist (one

with progress ideology) and Revivalist (one tomaintainstatusquo, rediscoveringthe

traditional norms of past). While Young Bengal Movement Aligarh movement and self

Respect Movement were progressive innature.Theosophical society was more concerned

with reviving and promoting ancient religions of Hinduism, Buddhism and

Zoroastrianism.

Question Number:26 Which of the followingfactor was notresponsiblefor

failureofDerozians to getmassappeal?

(A) Their ideas and demands wereway aheadoftheir times

(B) Lacked direct link to the masses, staying confined to intellectuals

(C) Stayed aloof from peasant movements

(D) Their crusade against social evils like sati, polygamy and child marriagewas

Opposed bymajority of traditional Indians

Question Number:27 The radical wing of the Congress Party with Jawaharla Nehru as one

of its main

leaders founded the Independence of India, League in opposition to

(A) The Gandhi-Irwin Pact

(B) TheHomeRule Movement

(C) The Nehru Report

(D) The Montford reforms

Ans-(D)

(A), (B) and (C) were limitations of Derozians while (D) is related Brahmo

Samajwhoseprogressive and reformistinitiatives opposed to an extent that organisations

like Dharam Sabha Radhakant Deb) wereformedto counterit.

Ans-(C)

In1928, Jawaharlal Nehru along with Subhash Chandra Bose organised the Independence

of India League to demand complete independence as opposed to Nehru Report which

demanded Dominion Status.

Question Number:28 Who amongst the followingwasthe founder of Indian Association?

(A) Bipin Chandra Pal (B) Dadabhai Naoroji

(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (D) S.N. Banerjee

Question Number:29 Name the organisation formed by Surendranath Banerjee which merged
with the Indian NationalCongress in 1886 -

(A) East Indian Association

(B) London India Society

(C) Indian Association

(D) Indian National Conference

Question Number:30 Arrange the following organisation on the basis of correct

chronological order -

1. Bombay Association

2. Madras Mahajan Sabha

Ans-(D)

TheIndian Association was founded by Surendranath Banerjeeand Anand Bose in 1876.

The Association attracted educated Indiansand civic leaders from all parts of the

countryand became an important forum for Indian aspiration of Independence. It later

merged with Indian National Congress.

Ans-(D)

Indian National Conference was organized by Surendranath Banerjee and Anand Mohan

Bose, with its 1st session held in Calcutta (1883). It is also called predecessor of Indian

National Congress. It was merged with the Indian National Congress in 1886 in it's

Calcutta session.

3. Indian Association

4. Indian League

Code –

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3, 1 and 4

(C) 3, 4, 2 and 1 (D) 1, 4, 3 and 2

Ans-(D)
Order of organisation and their founder

Organization Founder

1. Bombay Association (1852) -Dadabhai Naoroji

2. Indian League (1875) - Sisir Kumar Ghosh

3. Indian Association (1876) -Surendranath Banerjee

4. MadrasMahajanSabha (1884) - G.Subramanium,

P. Anand Charlu, M.V.

Raghavachari

Question Number:31 Who among the following was one of the founder the Bombay

Presidency Association in 1885?

(A) Firoz Shah Mehta (B) P. Anand Charlu

(C) M.V.Raghavachari (D) S. N. Banerjee

Question Number:32 Match List-I withList-Il and selectthe correct answerfrom the code

given below

List-I List-II

(Organisation) (Founder)

A.Land Holders Society 1.S.N. Banerjee

B. Indian League 2.Dadabhai Naroji

C.London Indian Society 3. Sisir Kumar Ghosh

Ans-(A)

The Bombay Presidency Association was started by Badruddin Tyabji, Firoz Shah Mehta

and K.T. Telang in 1885.

D. Indian Association 4. Dwarkanatha Tagore

Code:

ABCDABCD
(A) 1 3 4 2 (B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 1 2 3 4 (D) 3 4 1 2

Ans-(A)

Organization Founder

1. Land Holders Society- Dwarkanatha Tagore

2. Indian League - Sisir Kumar Ghosh

3. London Indian Society - Dadabhai Naroji

4. Indian Association - S.N. Banerjee

Question Number:33 Indian National Congress was established/founded by-

(A) A.O. Hume (B) Surendranath Banerjee

(C) W.C. Banerjee (D) Annie Besant

Question Number:34 First Muslim President of Indian National Congress was

(A) Abul Kalam Azad (B) Rafi Ahmad Kidwal

(C) M.A. Ansari (D) Badruddin Tyabji

Ans-(A)

The entire idea of Indian National Congress was initiated A.O. Hume, a retired civil

servant, to have an Indian torepresenttheIndianinterestsand have public for any easy

dialogue between the Indians and the Raj. The first session was held in Bombay from

December, 1885. With the approval of Lord Dufferi (Viceroy), W.C. Banerjee became the

first President of INC. The first session was attended by 72 delegates.

Ans-(D)

The thirdsession of Indian National Congress was held inMadras in 1887, presided by the

first Muslim president, Badruddin Tyabji. He alsobecame the first Indian lawyer, Second

Chief Justice and the founding member of Bombay residency Association.

Question Number:35 Consider the following statement -

1. The first woman president of Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu.

2. The first Muslim president of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji,

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1and 2 (C) Neither 1 nor 2

Question Number:36 Who wasthe first lady Presidentofthe Indian Congress?

(A) N. Sen Gupta (B) Sarojini Naidu

(C) Annie Besant(D) Kadambini Bose

Ans-(B)

Annie Besant was thefirstfemale president of the National Congress (INC) in 1917.

Hence, first statement wrong. Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian president of INC, who

presided over Kanpur Session 1925. The first Muslim president of the INIC was Tyabji

who presided over the third session of ING in in 1887 (hence, second statement is right).

Ans-(C)

Annie Besant, Anglo-Irish Nationalist, was the first woman president of Indian National

Congress who presided over Calcutta session in 1917. However, Sarojini Naidu was the

first Indian woman President to preside over Kanpur Session in 1925.

Question Number:37 Who said Swaraj is my birthright and It shall have it?

(A) M.K. Gandhi (B) GK. Gokhale

(C) B.G. Tilak (D) Dadabhai Naoroji

Question Number:38 Mahatma Gandhi presided over only one session the Indian National

Congress. Where was the session held?

(A) Gaya (B) Amritsar

(C) Belgaum (D) Kanpur

Question Number:39 Match List-I withList-II andselect the correct an from the code given
below the lists-

List-I List-II

(Organisation) (Founder)

A.Dr. M.A. Ansari 1.Haripura

B. Purshuttam Das Tandon 2. Kanpur

C.Sarojini Naidu 3. Madras

Ans-(C)

B.G. Tilak was one of the first and strongest proponent for (Complete Independence) in

the Indian Consciousnes is considered the father of Hindu Nationalismand called of

Indian Unrest by Valentine Chirol. Tilak coined famous slogan Swaraj is my birthright

and I shallhave which inspired lakhs to participate in the Indian freedom.

Ans-(C)

Gandhiji became the president of Indian National Cong 1924attheBelgaumsession

(Karnataka).

D. Subhas Chandra Bose 4. Nasik

Code:

ABCDABCD

(A) 1 2 4 3 (B) 2 3 1 4

(C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 4 1 3 2

Ans-(C)

(Session) (Presided by)

1. Subash Chandra Bose- Haripura (1938)

2. Purushottam Das- Nasik

3. Dr. M.A. Ansari - Madras (1927)

4. Sarojini Naidu - Kanpur (1925)

Question Number:40 Who among the following was the president of Indian National

Congress continuously for six years?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Abul Kalam Azad

(C) GK. Gokhale

(D) Dadabhai Naoroji

Question Number:41 Abhinav Bharat, a secret society of revolutionaries, was organised

by -

(A) Khudiram Bose (B) V.D. Savarkar

(C) Prafulla Chaki (D) Bhagat Singh

Question Number:42 Yugantar party was led by –

(A) Jatindernath Mukherjee

(B)Sachindranath Sanyal

(C) Rasbihari Bose

(D) Subhash Chandra Bose

Question Number:43 Who had founded the Anushilan Samiti?

(A) P. Mitra (B) Varindra Ghosh

(C) V.D. Savarkar (D) Narendra Gosain

Ans-(B)

Abul Kalam Azad remained the president of Indian Congress for six consecutive years

from 1940-1945, Congress session was held during 1941-45. The 1940 under Azad was

held at Ramgarh. Hewas also the president of the Indian National Congress.

Ans-(B)

Abhinav Bharat Was a Secret Society founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and his

brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar in 1904. It carried out a few assassination of British
officials, after which the Savarkar brothers were convicted.

Ans-(A)

Jatindernath Mukherjee was the principal leader of the Yugantar party which was the

central association of revolutionaries in Bengal. He is also known as Bagha Jatin.

Ans-(A)

Anushilan Samiti was established by Pramathanath Mitra, a barrister from Calcutta in

1907 in Calcutta, Aurobindo Ghosh, Deshbandhu Chittranjan Das, Surendranath

Banerjee, Jatindernath Banerjee, Bhupendra Nath Dutta etc. are other leaders associated

with it.

Question Number:44 Muzzaffarpur Bombing Case(1908)isassociated with

(A) Savarkar (B) Ajit Singh

(C) Prafulla Chaki (D) Bipin Chandra Pal

Question Number:45 Who penned the following lines Sarfaroshi ki tamanna ab hamaare

dil mein hai, dekhna hai zor kitna baazu-e-qaatil meinhai?

(A) Bismil(B) Rajguru

(C) Bhagat Singh (D) None of them

Question Number:46 Hindustan Republic Association was founded at -

(A) Allahabad (B) Kanpur

(C) Lucknow (D) New Delhi

Ans-(C)

A revolutionary conspiracy was intrigued to kill the Chief magistrate D.H. Kingsford of

Muzzaffarpur. The was entrusted to Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki threw the bomb

on a vehicle coming out of the magistrate on 30 April, 1908. The magistrate could not

bekilled as was not in the vehicle, instead two ladies were killed in the Prafulla Chakki

committed suicide afterbeing trapped bythe Policewhile KhudiRamBose was arrested and
hanged Youngest revolutionary to be hanged).

Ans-(D)

Sarfaroshi ki Tamannaisapatrioticpoem written in Urdu by Bismil Azimabadi of Patna in

1921 while it was immortalised by Ram Prasad Bismil as a freedom war cry during the

British Raj Period in India.

Prafulla Chakki committed suicide afterbeing trapped ythe Policewhile KhudiRamBose

was arrested and hanged Youngest revolutionary to be hanged).

Ans-(B)

The Hindustan Republic Association (HRA) was founded in October 1924 in Kanpur by

Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh Chandra Chatterji and Sachin Sanyal with an aim to organise

an armed revolution to overthrow the colonial government. Later under the leadership of

Chandra Shekhar Azad, the name of HRA was changed to Hindustan Socialist Republican

Association (HSRA) in 1928.

uestion Number:47

1. Why Government of India Act, 1935isimportant?

(A) It is a main source of the Indian Constitution

(B) By this, India got freedom.

(C)Division of India is described in it.

(D) End ofthe Princely States by this act.

Question Number:48 Who gave the slogan of Inquilab Zindabad?

(A) Iqbal (B) M.K. Gandhi

(C) Bhagat Singh (D) S.C. Bose

Question Number:49 Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were sentenced to death in –

(A) Alipur Conspiracy Case

(B) Lahore Conspiracy Case

(C) Kakori Conspiracy Case

(D) Kanpur Conspiracy Case

1. Question Number:50

Ans-C)

Inquilab Zindabad was coined by freedom fighter Maulana Hasrat Mohani in 1921. It was

popularised by Bhagat Singh in his speeches during 1920's.

Ans-(B)

Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were sentenced to death on 23 March, 1931 in

Lahore Conspiracy Case, for the assassination of Saunders.

Ans-(A)

The structural part of the Indian Constitution is to a large extent derived from the

Government of India Act, 1935. This Act marked a milestone towards a responsible

government inIndia.

Question Number:50

The Chittagong Armoury Raid had been planned by

(A) Surya Sen (B) Chandan Dutta

(C) Vidhan Ghosh (D) Jatin Das

Question Number:51 Which one of the following is not correct about the Congress

session of Lucknow, 1916?

(A) Ambika Charan Majumdar was not the presidentof this session

(B) In this session, the re-union between the liberal and the extremist was established

(C) Mahatma Gandhi was appraised of the problems of the peasants of Champaran

for the first time

(D) None of the above

Question Number:52 Which of the following is not associated with the HomeRule
Movement?

Ans-(D)

The Chittagong Armoury Raid was organised on 18 April 1930 the day on which armed

Indian revolutionaries raided the Chittagong armoury under the guidance of Indian

revolutionary Surya Sen (popularly known as Master da). The main aim of the raid was to

sieze the arms and supply them to revolutionaries to destroy telephone and telegraph

lines.

Ans-(A)

The Lucknow session was presided in 1916 by Ambika Charan Majumdar. Hence,

statement (A) is correct.

(A) C.R. Das (B) S. Subramaniam lyer

(C) Annie Besant (D) B.G. Tilak

Question Number:53 HomeRule Movement was symbolofstarting a new phase of

freedom movement in India because

(A) It put a perfect project for the self-Government before the nation

(B) Leadership of the movement came in the hands of Gandhiji

(C) Hindus and Muslims started to struggle jointly

(D) It established co-ordination between extremist and moderates

Question Number:54 Annie Besant was related to which among the following?

1. Responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement

2. The founder of Theosophical Society

Ans-(A)

The Home Rule Movement was started by Tilak in April 916 at Poona and by Annie

Beasant in September 1916 at S. Subramaniam lyer was associated with Home Movement

of Annie Beasant. C.R. Das wasnot with it.

Ans-(A)

The major objective of the Home Rule movement was the attainment of self-government

within the British Empire by constitutional means. It was during this time when Tilak

declared that Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.

3. Once the President of the Indian National Congress

Select the correct statements using the code given below

(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only (D) All of these

Question Number:55 According to Gandhiji, the cruel form of violence is?

(A) Persistence of poverty

(B) Killing of cows

(C) Killing of human beings

(D) Torture of women and children

Question Number:56 Government of India Act, 1935

(A) Provincial Autonomy

(B) Provincial Dyarchy

Ans-(C)

Annie Besant and Tilak started the Home Rule Movement in India for the attainment of

self-government. Annie Besant was the first woman President of INC who presided over

1917 session held in Calcutta. The founder of Theosophical Society was Madam

Blavatsky and Henry Olcott. Hence, statment (B) is incorrect.

Ans-(A)

Thephrase poverty is the worst form of violence was used byGandhiji.

(C) Federal Structure of India

(D) Responsible Central Government

Question Number:57 A close English compatriot to Mahatma Gandhi during the freedom

movement was -

(A)Thomas Moore (B) A.O. Hume

(C) Charles Andrews (D) William Wavel

Question Number:58 Gandhiji's Champaran Movement was for –

(A) The security of the rights of Harijans

(B) Civil Disobedience Movement

(C) Maintaining the unity of Hindu society

(D) Solving the problems of Indigo workers

Question Number:59 Nai-Dhobi Band was a form of social Boycott in 1919 which -

Ans-(C)

Charles Andrew was thepriest in Church of England. He was aeducator andsocial

reformer in India and became aclose friend of Mahatma Gandhi. He was instrumental in

convincing Gandhi to return to India from South Africa.

Ans-(D)

In the early 19th century, European planters compelled the peasants to grow Indigo

(Tinkathia System). Despite German dye replacing Indigo, the Europeans were forcing

the peasants to grow Indigo. Gandhiji was requested byRaj Kumar Shukla to look into the

problems of Indigo planters of Champaran in Bihar.

Ans-(B)

The Government of India Act, 1935 abolished dyarchy in provinces and introduced

Provincial Autonomy in it’s Under it, provinces were allowedtoact as autonomous of

administration in their defined spheres.

(A) Was started by the farmers of Pratapgarh district

(B) Was a movement started by saints for the employment of the people of lower

Castes.

(C) Was a step against contractors of lower castes by landlords

(E) Was a movement against contractors by lower caste

Question Number:60 Who started Bhoodan movement?

(A) Jai Prakash Narayan (B) J.B. Kripalani

(C) Vinoba Bhave (D) Sri Guruji

Question Number:61 Who among thefollowing, were prominent leaders of theKhilafat

Movement?

(A) Maulana Mohammad Ali and ShaukatAli

(B) Mohammad AliJinnah and Shaukat Ali

(C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai

(D) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai and Shaukat Ali

Ans-(A)

Nai dhobi band was organised by the panchayat of Awadh in 1919 for depriving landlords

of the services of evenbarbers and washermen in Pratapgarh district as a social boycott.

Ans-(C)

The Bhoodan Movement or land gift movement was a voluntary land reform movement

in India, started by Acharya Vinoba Bhave in 1951 at Pochampally Village in Telengana.

Ans-(A)

Khailafat committee was formed in 1919 under the leadership of the Ali brothers

(Shaukat Ali and Muhammad Ali). TheMovement was based on three central

demandsCaliph-Sultan must retain control over the Muslim places, he must be left with

sufficient territory to enable todefendtheIslamicfaithandthatJazirat-ul-Arab must under

Muslim suzerainity.
Question Number:62 Who was elected as president of the All India Khilafat conference

in1919?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Muhammad Ali Jinnah

(C) Maulana Shaukat Ali (D) Motilal Nehru

Question Number:63 Which one of the following was the result of movement?

(A) Hindu-Muslim differences werenarrowed

(B) Language problem become acute

(C) Hindu-Muslim riots increased

(D) Hindus were impressed

Question Number:64 When did Gandhiji gave the slogan of Swaraj in a year

(A) Dandi March

(B) Non-cooperation movement

(C) Civil Disobedience movement

(D)Round Table Conference

Ans-(A)

Mahatma Gandhi was elected President of All India KhilafatConference in 1919, In the

Allahabadmeeting of the Central Khilafat Committee (June 1-3, 1920) the programme of

Noncooperation was announced.

Ans-(A)

Khilafat movement was seen as a golden opportunity cement Hindu-Muslim unity andto

bringMuslim into the national movement different sections of hindus, muslim, sikhs,

christains, peasants, artisans, tribals etc. could come into the national movement by

fighting for their own rights.

Ans-(B)
Gandhiji declared at the Nagpur session in December 192 that
i henon coopera onprogrammewasimplemented completely, Swaraj would be ushered within a
year.

Question Number:65 Due to which event, Mahatma Gandhi halted the Cooperation

Movement?

(A) Kakori case

(B) Chauri-Chaura Incident

(C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

(D) Muzaffarpur case

Ans-(B)

Anagitated crowd at Chauri-Chaura in Gorakhpur (U torchedthe police stationon5"of February,

1922 alive 22 policemen turning the Non-Cooperation into aviolent protest which

wasunacceptabletoGandhij who withdrew the Movement ataCWC meet at halting down

thePan India movement.

Question Number:66 Swaraj Party was formed after the failure of the

(A) Non-Cooperation Movement

(B) Quit India Movement

(C)Civil Disobedience Movement

(D) Swadeshi Movement

Question Number:67 Swaraj Party was formed by -

Ans-(A)

After the failure of Non-Cooperation Movementand arrestofGandhi there was resentment,

disillusionment anddemoralization. C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru and Hakim Ajmal put

forward a radical justification for the proposal entry.Theyformed the Swaraj Party on

March 192 contest the elections and enter councils to obstruct theirproceding from within.

(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Bipin Chandra Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai

(C) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru

(D) Sardar Palet andRajendraPrasad

Question Number:68 Who of thefollowing is known as Deshbandhu?

(A) Chandra Shekhar (B) Chittranjan Das

(C) A.O. Hume (D) Annie Beasant

Ans-(B)

Chittranjan Das popularly called Deshbandhu (Friend he Nation), was a leading Indian politican,

a lawyer, founding leader of Swaraj Party in Bengal duringBritish occupation inIndia

Question Number:69 Who was the first Indian speaker in the Centra Legislative

Assembly?

(A)Sri Hari Singh Gaur

(B) Vithal Bhai J. Patel

(C) Vallabh Bhai Patel

(D) Purushottam Das Tandon

Ans-(B)

The first Indian to become theSpeaker of the Central Legislative Assembly was Vithal Bhai J.

Patel in 1925. He also associated with Swaraj Party.

Ans-(C)

The Swaraj Party was formed by C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru Hakim AjmalKhan,Vithalbhai

Patelin March 1924.However, on November 6, 1924 Gandhiji brought the between No

changers and Swarajist to an end bysigning a jointstatement declaring that Swarajist

would work in councils on behalf of and or as an integral part of the Congress.

Question Number:70 Lala Lajpat Rai was injured -

(A) During lathi charge in protest to Simon Commissio

(B) During lathi charge in protesttoRowlatt Act

(C) During lathi charge in protest to Quil India Movement

(D) During lathi charge in protest to Government of Indi Act.

Question Number:71 Which one of the following began with the DandiMarch?

(A) Home Rule Movement

(B) Non-Cooperation Movement

(C) Civil Disobedience Movement

(D) Quit India Movement

Ans-(A)

Lala Lajpat Rai received severe blows on his head on October 1928 during the An Simon
Commission protest which fatal andhe died on17 November, 1928.

Ans-(C)

On 12March,1930 Gandhiji along with a bandof seventy-eight members of Sabarmati

Ashram marched from his headquarters in Ahmedabad through the village of Gujarat for

240 miles onreachingthe coast of Dandi where, Saltlaw was violated. He gave the call to

initiate Civil Disobedience Movement wherever possible.

Question Number:72 In which of the following movements women's participation is

considered to be the maximum?

(A) Non-corporation Movement

(B) Salt Satyagraha

(C) Bardoli March

(D) Quit India Movement

Question Number:73 Who of the following organized a march on the Tanjore coast to

break the salt law in April 1930?

(A) V. O. Chidambaram Pillai

(B) C. Rajagopalachari

(C) K. Kamaraj
(D) Annie Beasant

Ans-(B)

In Tamil Nadu. C. Rajagopalachari led a march from Tiru chirapally to Vedaranniyam. In

Malabar K. Kelappam led the march from Calicut to Poyannur.

Question Number:74 Who among the following drafted the resolution fundamental rights for

theKarachi session of the Congress in 1931?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Ans-(B)

The Civil Disobedience Movement saw the maximum participation of women and they

played a leading role in movement. It was aliberating experience forthe Indian and

marked their entryinto thepublicsphere.

(D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question Number:75 Select the correct chronological order of the following events

connected with India's struggle for independencefrom thecode given below :

(A) Second Round Table Conference

(B) Karachi Sessionof Indian National Congress

(C) Execution of Bhagat Singh

(D) Gandhi-Irwin Part

Code -

(A) 1, 2, 3 and4(C) 4, 3, 2 and 1

(B) 2, 3, 1 and 4(D) 3, 4, 2 and 1

Ans-(C)

Gandhi-Irwin Pact -5March, 1931, Execution of Bhaga Singh - 23 March. 1931, Karachi Session
- 29 March, 193 Second Round Table Conference -December 7, 1931.

Question Number:76 On which issue did the Second Round Table Conference fail?

(A) Communal Delegations

(B) Granting Dominion Status

(C) The date of transfer of ruling power

(D) Postponement of Civil Disobedience Movement

Ans-(C)

The resolution on FundamentalRights andNational Economic Program was drafted by Dr.

Rajendra Prasad the Karachi Resolution was to remain, in essence, the basic political

andeconomic programme ofthe Congress in later years.

Ans-(A)

The Conference was deadlocked on the minority issue w electorate now being demanded

not only by t Muslims, but also by the depressed classes, Indi Anglo Indianand

Europeans.

Question Number:77 Mahatma Gandhi under took fast unto death in 19 mainly because -

(A) Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations

(B) Congress and Muslim League had difference of opinion

(C) Ramsay Macdonald announced the communal Award

(D) None of the above

Question Number:78 All India Depressed Classes League was established by

(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (B) Babu Jagjiwan Ram

(C) N.S. Kajrolkar (D) Mahatma Jyotiba Phule

Question Number:79 Harijan Sewak Sangh was organised by -

(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(C) GD. Birla (D) Swami Vivekanad

Question Number:80 Muslim League celebrated the Day of Deliverance in

Ans-(C)

Macdonald's Communal Award of August 1932 creation of separate electorate for each

minority Sikhs and Christians) including the backward(scheduled castes) led Gandhi to

begin fast unto 20 September. He was able to secure an agreement between caste Hindus

and untouchable leaders by which the award was modified.

Ans-(A)

All India Depressed Class League, an organisation dedicated to attain equality for dalits

was founded by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in 1930. He also became the first President of All

India Depressed classes Congress in 1930.

Ans-(A)

Harijan Sewak Sangh was established by Gandhiji in September 1932 and he started a

weekly Harijan in January 1933. He urged political workers to go to villages and work for

social, economic, political and cultural upliftment of the Harijans.

(A) 1939 (B) 1942

(C)1946 (D) 1947

Question Number:81 The Pakistan Resolution was drafted by -

(A) Rahmat Ali (B) Sikandar Hayat Khan

(C) Muhammad Ali Jinnah (D) A. K. Fazlul Huq

Question Number:82 Who was selected as first Satyagrahi in Individual Satyagraha

Movement by Mahatma Gandhi?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Sardar Patel

(C) Sarojini Naidu (D) Vinoba Bhave

Ans-(A)

Day of Deliverance was celebrated by Muslim League on 22 December, 1939 during the
Indian Independence movement. It was led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah and intended to

rejoice the resignation of all members of the rival congress party from the provincial and

central offices over the issue of non-consultation regarding World War-II.

Ans-(B)

The Lahore Resolution commonly known as Pakistan Resolution was a political

resolution passed by 25 member working committee of the All-India Muslim

LeagueHayat Khan was the chief architect of the Lahore while Rahmat Ali coined the

word Pakistan.

Ans-(D)

The Congress was in a confused state again after the August Offer. The radicals and

leftists wanted to launch a mass CivilDisobedience Movement, but here Gandhi insisted

on Individual Satyagraha. The first Satyagrahiselected wasAcharya Vinoba Bhave and

Jawaharlal Nehruwas the second.

Question Number:83 Which of the following is not true about the CrippsMission?

(A) Dominion status to India at the end of the war

(B) Acceptance of the constitution framed bythe Constituent Assembly

(C) The formation of new executive council with equal representation for both Hindus

and Muslims

(D) Any province could remain outside the Indian Union

Question Number:84 Quit India movement was primarily launched at

(A) Sabarmati (B) Calcutta

(C) Bombay (D) Madras

Ans-(A)

The Cripps Mission promised thatsteps would be taken after war to set up an elected body

charged the task of framing the constitution. It also recognised thefirsttimeRight

ofDominion forIndia andanyprovince remain outside the Indian Union. Hence, statement

C)is incorrect.

Ans-(C)

The Quit India Movement or the August Movement waslaunched at theBombaysession of

AllIndia Committee by Mahatma Gandhion 8 August. 1942World War II demanding an

end to British Rule in India.

Question Number:85 With reference to the Indian freedom struggle Mehta is well known

for -

(A) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wakeQuit India Movement

(B) Participating in the Second Round Table

(C) Leading a contigent of Indian National Army

(D) Assisting in the formation of Interim underPandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Question Number:86 Which party wasfounded by Subhash Chandra Bose In the year 1939

after he broke away from the Congress?

(A) Indian Freedom Party

(B) Azad Hind Fauj

(C)Revolutionary Front

(D) Forward Bloc

Ans-(A)

UshaMehta was aGandhian and afamouswoman freedom fighter. She organised the

Congress Radio alsocalled Congress Radio, an underground radio station during

QuitIndia Movement of1942.

Ans-(D)

Subhas Chandra Bose founded the Forward Bloc in April with a view to rally the entire

Left Wing under one the Forward Bloc started aleft consolidation in June 1939.
Question Number:87 The first commander of Azad Hind Fauj was

(A) Mohan Singh

(B) Pritam Singh

(C) Subhash Chandra Bose

(D) Shah Nawaz Khan

Question Number:88 Cabinet Mission was presided over by -

(A) Earl Attlee(B) Stafford Cripps

(C) Clement Attlee(D) Sir P. Lawrence

Question Number:89 Which one of the following is not correct about the Cabinet Mission

Plan?

(A) Provincial Grouping

(B) Interim Cabinet of Indians

(C) Acceptance of Pakistan

(D) Constitution Framing Right

Ans-(A)

Mohan Singh is best known for his role in organising and leading the First Indian

National Army in South East Asia during World War-Il. He was the founding General of

the Indian National Army.

Ans-(D)

The Attlee Government anounced in February 1946 the decision to send a high powered

mission of three British members (Pethick Lawrence, Secretary of State for Stafford

Cripps, President of Board of Trade and A.VFirst Lord of Admirality) to find out ways

and mean peaceful transfer of power to India.

Ans-(C)

The Cabinate Mission rejected the demand for full-fledged Pakistan became it could
entail economic and administrative problems and the Pakistan so formed would include a

large Non-Muslim population-38% in the North West and 48% in North East.

Question Number:90 Who among the following held the office of Speaker in Central

Legislative Assembly of British era and the Parliament of free India?

(A) Sir Abdur Rahim

(B) GV. Mavlankar

(C) Ananat Shayanam Ayanger

(D) Vittal Bhai Patel

Question Number:91 In which of the following Acts for the first time provision was made

for the post of Governor-General of Bengal?

(A) Regulating Act, 1773 (B) Pitt's India Act, 1784

(C) Charter Act, 1833 (D) Act of 1873

Question Number:92 The Supreme Court was set up for the first time in India under the -

(A) Regulating Act, 1773

(B) Charter Act, 1853

Ans-(B)

Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar popularly known as Dadasaheb held the office of Speaker

of Central Legislative Assembly during the British era (1946-1947). Mavalankar was

elected tothe office of Speaker of the Constituent Assembly on 17 November, 1947.

Ans-(A)

The Regulating Act of 1773 designated the Governor of Bengal as the Governor-General

of Bengal and created an executive council of four members to assist him. The first

Governor-General was Lord Warren Hastings.

(C) Government of India Act, 1935

(D) Indian Constitution Act, 1950

Question Number:93

Which of the following is one of the reasons for considering Charter Act of 1813

important for India?

(A) It banned propaganda by Christain missionaries in India

(B) It emphasised industralisation in India

(C) It made a financial allocation for the education ofIndian people

(D)It approved the development of railway system inIndia

Question Number:94

Which of the following had recommended to hold the IndianCivil Service Examination

simultaneously inIndiaand England?

(A) Aitchison Commission

(B) Mobhouse Commission

(C) Montagu-Chelmsford Report

(D) Lord Comwallis

Ans-(A)

The Regulating Act of 1773 provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at

Calcutta (1774) comprising of one Chief Justice and three other judges. The first Chief

Justice of Supreme Court established by East India Company was Elijah Impey.

Ans-(C)

The Charter Act of 1813 provided that the company should invest Rs. 1 Lakh every year

on the education of Indians.Hence, it is considered important as it led to education of

Indians but not much was done.

Ans-(C)

The Montagu-Chelmsford Report accepted in principle the demand for Indianisation of

the higher civil services and accordingly a provision was made in the Government of
India Act, 1919. From 1922 onwards, Indian Civil Services exam began to be held in

India.

Question Number:95

Match List-I with List-Il and select correct answer by using the code given below -

List-I List-II

A.Establishmentof Board of Control 1.Regulating Act, 1773

B. Establishment ofSupreme Court2.Pitt's India Act, 1784

C.Permission of appointmentof 3. Charter Act, 1813

Christian missionaries in India

D. Law member in GovernorGeneral Council 4. Charter Act, 1899

Code:

ABCDABCD

(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 13 4

(C) 1 2 4 3 (D) 2 4 13

Ans-(D)

List-I List-II

1. Establishment of Board of Control Pitt's India Act. 178

2. Establishment of Supreme Court Regulating Act. 1773

3. Permission of appointment of

Christian missionaries in India

Charter Act of 1813

4. Law Member in Governor

General Council

Charter Act, 1833

Question Number:96

British East India Company lost the monopoly of Tea Trade by -

(A) The Charter Act of 1793

(B) The Charter Act of 1813

(C) The Charter Act of 1833

(D) The Charter Act of 1853

Question Number:97

Which one of the following Acts empoweredViceroy to issue ordinances?

(A) Charter Act of1833

(B) Indian Council Act of 1861

(C) Indian Council Act of 1892

(D) Indian Council Act of 1909

Question Number:98

By which of the following acts, the British for thefirst time introduced the system of

indirect elections in India?

Ans-(C)

The Charter Act of 1833 ended the monopoly of tea trade d ended the activities of East

India Company as a commercial body, which became purely an administrative body.

Ans-(B)

The Indian Council Act of 1861 empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the

concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance

months.

(A) 1909 (B) 1861

(C) 1867 (D) 1892

1.

Question Number:99

In which constitutional document, Dyarchy System was introduced in Indian provinces?

(A) 1892 (B) 1909

(C) 1919 (D) 1935

Question Number:100

The Government of India Act, 1919 has clearly defined

(A) The separation of power between the Judiciary and the Legislature

(B) The jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments

(C) The power for Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy

(D) None of the above

Ans-(D)

The Indian Council Act of 1892 made a limited and indirect provision for elections while

filling up some of the non-official seats both in the Central and provincial legislative

councils. However, the wordelection wasnot used in the act.

Ans-(C)

The Government of India Act of 1919 divided the provincial subjects into two parts -

transferred and reserved. The transferred subjects were to be administered by the

Governor with the aid of ministers responsible to the legislative council and the reserved

subjects were to be administered by the governor and his executive council without being

responsible to the legislative council. This dual scheme of governance was known as

dyarchy.

Ans-(B)

The Government of India Act of 1919 relaxed the central control over the provinces by

demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects. The central and provincial

legislatures were authorized to make laws on their respective list of subjects.