CPL–Air Law - PAL 10.

If weather conditions are such that it requires designating an

1. If an emergency situation, which endangers the safety of the
aircraft or persons, necessitates the taking of action, which involves
a violation of regulations or procedures by any crewmember, the
pilot-in-command shall submit a report on any such violation to the
CAAP within:
a. 10 days
b. 7 days
c. 2 days
2. Which statement is true regarding right of way for taxiing aircraft
in the manuevering area of an aerodrome for one aircraft
overtaking the other?
a. Aircraft with higher takeoff weight has the right of way.
b. The overtaking aircraft has the right of way.
c. An aircraft which is being overtaken by another aircraft
has the right of way
alternate airport on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry
enough fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly
from that airport to the alternate airport, fly thereafter…
a. 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
b. 1 hour at normal cruising speed.
c. 30 minutes at slow cruising speed.
11. An applicant for CPL shall be a qualified person who is a citizen
of the Philippines or:
a. a qualified citizen of a foreign country granting similar
rights and privileges to citizens of the Philippines; subject,
however to existing treaty or treaties, and agreements
entered into by the Philippines government with foreign
countries, and subject
b. any citizen of foreign country.
c. executive to Filipino nationals only.

3. The primary purpose of filing a plan is for: 12. Pilot regulation pertaining to blood alcohol and rest period
a. search and rescue. before a pilot is eligible to fly an aircraft…..
b. safety of flight. a. alcohol level in the blood is 40% and the least 12 hours
c. to secure clearance from ATS. passes between bottle and throttle.
b. alcohol level in the blood is below 0.04% and that at least
4. If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must eight (8) hours passes between bottle and throttle.
terminate flight….. c. alcohol level in the blood is 40% and the least 8 hours of
a. 30 minutes after sunset. rest period.
b. 1 hour after sunset.
c. at sunset. 13. A CPL applicant shall have completed not less than ______ of
flight time or 150 hours of flight time if he has satisfactorily
5. _______ of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command completed a course of approved training.
including one flight of not less than 300 nautical miles in the course a. 300 hours
of which not less than three full stop landings at different point b. 200 hours
shall have been made. c. 400 hours
a. Fifteen hours
b. Thirty hours 14. A holder of a commercial pilot license shall not pilot an aircraft
c. Ten hours carrying passengers during the period from one hour after sunset
to one hour before sunrise unless he has made at least __________
6. Who among the following persons is required by CAAP to file a to full stop during such period within the preceeding 90
flight plan? a. 10 take-offs and landings.
a. Pilot in command. b. 5 take-offs and landings.
b. Aircraft mechanic c. 15 take-offs and landing.
c. Aircraft owner.
15. Sunset or sunrise, which requires sun to be below the earth
7. After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not horizon by 3 degrees, is called……
deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot….. a. astronomical sunset or sunrise.
a. receives an amended clearance or less an emergency. b. aeronautical sunset or sunrise.
b. requests an amended clearance. c. civil sunset or sunrise.
c. is operating VFR on top.
16. The maximum flying time a pilot can log within a period of 30
8. Aerial photography is prohibited in the Philippines without days.
proper authorization from….. a. 90 hours
a. Philippine Air Force b. 100 hours
b. NAMRIA c. 80 hours
c. CAAP
17. Regulations which refer to "Commercial Operations" relate to
9. All flights of civil aircraft over the Manila Flight Information that person who….
Region and landing at Philippine aerodrome shall be carried out in a. for compensation or hire engages in the carriage by
accordance with………. aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other
a. the current regulations and policies. than as an air carrier
b. at the discretion of the civil aircraft operator. b. for Compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by
c. policy procedures of the civil aircraft operator. aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, as an air
carrier.
c. is the owner of a small scheduled airline.
18. Air traffic services in the Philippines are provided by the Civil
Aviation Authority of the Philippines, administrated by the Chief,
Air Traffic Service with the exception of…
a. Military and private aerodromes
b. Military aerodromes only.
c. Private aerodromes only.
19. Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command
must become familiar with all available information concerning
that flight. In addition, the pilot must…..
a. list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm
adequate take-off and landing performance at the
destination airport.
b. be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended
use, and the alternatives available, if the flight cannot be
completed.
c. be familiar with all instrument approaches at the
destination airport.
20. What person is directly responsible for the final authority as to
the operation of the airplane?
a. Pilot in command
b. Airplane owner/operator.
c. Certificate holder
21. A CPL applicant shall have established his medical fitness on
the basis of compliance with the following medical requirements:
a. second class medical
b. third class medical.
c. first class medical.
22. How many hours of instrument time of which not more than
five hours may be instrument ground are required for CPL?
a. Five
b. Twenty
c. Ten
23. The minimum age for obtaining a commercial pilot's license
is…..
a. 20 years old.
b. 16 years old.
c. 18 years old.
24. Aircraft flights under VFR condition shall have visibility and
distance from cloud of:
a. Horizontal 5 miles/vertical 1,000 ft.
b. Horizontal 1 mile/vertical 1,000 ft.
c. Horizontal 4 miles/vertical 1,000 ft.
25. How does a pilot indicate a desire for flight gun signal in case
of radio failure during the day?
a. Rock wings.
b. Flash landing lights.
c. Pitch aircraft nose.
26. Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in
flight? They are….
a. authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior
arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in
the formation.
b. not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each
aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.
c. not authorized, when operated so closed to another
aircraft then can create a collision hazard.
27. Which of the following are considered aircraft class rating?
a. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider and lighter-than-air.
b. Single-engine land, multiengine-land, single-engine sea,
and multi engine.
c. Transport, normally, utility and acrobatic.
28. A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not
authorized to perform a procedure turn when…..
a. manuevering at radar vectoring altitudes.
b. manuevering at minimum safe altitudes
c. receiving a radar vector to final approach course or fix.
29. What flight time may a pilot log as second in command?
a. All flight time while acting as second in command
regardless of aircraft crew requirements.
b. All flight time, while acting as second in command aircraft
requiring more than one pilot.
c. Only that flight time during which the second in command
is the sole manipulation of the control.
30. A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine
airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?
a. The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way;
the other airplane is to right.
b. The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the
single engine airplane is to the right.
c. Each pilot should alter course to the right.
31. A holder of a commercial pilot license shall not pilot an aircraft
carrying passengers unless within the preceeding __________ he
had made at least 5 take-offs and landing to a full stop in aircraft at
the same category, class and type of aircraft to be flown.
a. 120 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
32. A holder commercial pilot license shall have the privileges to
exercise all the privilege of a__________.
a. Private pilot.
b. Glider pilot.
c. Free balloon pilot.
33. Required flight crewmember's seatbelts must be fastened:
a. Only during take-off and landing
b. Only during takeoff and landing when passengers are
abroad the aircraft.
c. While the crewmembers are at their stations
34. Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the
right-of-way?
a. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the
right.
b. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the
left.
c. Airplane A; the pilot shall alter course to the right to pass.
35. On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable,
the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless
the…….
a. Approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the
pilot.
b. Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published
minimums for that approach.
c. Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent
to a normal landing, on the intended runway, can be
made.
36. An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the
right-of-way?
a. Helicopter, the pilot should expect to be passed on the
left.
b. Helicopter, the pilot should expect to be passed on the
right.
c. Airplane, the airplane pilot should alter course to the left
pass.
37. What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft
at 18,000 feet MSL?
a. 29.92" Hg.
b. Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the
route.
c. Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport.
38. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an
airworthy condition?
a. The lead mechanic responsible for the aircraft.
b. Owner or operator of that aircraft.
c. Pilot in command or operator.
39. The holder of a commercial pilot license shall have the privilege
to……
a. To act as pilot-in-command in commercial air
transportation in any aircraft having a gross weight not
exceeding 5,700 kilograms (12,500 lbs.)
b. To act as pilot-in-command in any aircraft engaged in
operations other than commercial air transportation.
c. A & B are correct.
40. Name the two aircraft documents required for all aircraft in
operations.
a. Aircraft engine logbook and owner's manual.
b. Aircraft Registration and Airworthiness.
c. Aircraft logbook and aircraft inspection logbook.
41. Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation
flights are….
a. Not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM.
b. Not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
c. Authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior
arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in
the formation.
42. The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in
controlled airspace, not in radar contact, shall report by radio as
soon as possible when….
a. Passing each designated reporting point, to include time
and altitude.
b. Passing FL 180.
c. Changing control facilities.
43. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition
for safe flight?
a. A certificated aircraft mechanic
b. The owner or operator.
c. The pilot in command.
44. Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the
responsibility of the……
a. pilot in command of that aircraft.
b. owner or operator of that aircraft.
c. pilot in command and the FAA certificated mechanic
assigned to that aircraft.
45. Whenever a distress call and/or message is intercepted on
radiotelephony or radio telegraph by a pilot-in command of an
aircraft, other than a search aircraft, he shall….
a. ignore the distress call or message.
b. at his discretion continue his flight.
c. plot the position of the craft in distress if given.
46. In the manner of compliance, what is the basic difference
between ATC procedure and CAR?
a. Mandatory for CAR and optional for ATC.
b. Optional for CAR and mandatory for ATC.
c. Both mandatory.
47. Commercial pilots are required to have a valid and appropriate
pilot certificate their personal possession when…..
a. carrying passengers only.
b. piloting for hire only.
c. acting as pilot in command
48. When are flight plans filed?
a. 60 minutes before ATA.
b. 60 minutes before ETA.
c. 60 minutes before ETD.
49. VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when
flying……
a. At 3,000 ft. AGL or more, based on true course.
b. At 3,000 ft. MSL or more, based on magnetic heading.
c. More than 3,000 ft. AGL, based on magnetic course.
50. Flight plan shall be kept for a period of……
a. 1 month after the date of filling.
b. 6 months after the date of filling.
c. 15 days after the date of filling
PPL – AIR LAW
1. With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a
category of aircraft?
a. Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
b. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
c. Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
2. With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class
of aircraft?
a. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
b. Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
c. Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.
3. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a
category of aircraft?
a. Normal, utility, acrobatic.
b. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
c. Landplane, seaplane.
4. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class
of aircraft?
a. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
b. Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
c. Transport, restricted, provisional.
5. The definition of night time is? 14. A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if
a. Sunset to sunrise. alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the
b. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. preceding:
c. The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the a. 8 hours.
beginning of morning civil twilight. b. 12 hours.
c. 24 hours.
6. An ATC clearance provides:
a. priority over all other traffic. 15. Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person
b. adequate separation from all traffic. who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried abroad
c. authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions an aircraft?
in controlled airspace. a. In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under
proper care.
7. When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s b. Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or
personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft? pilot’s compartment.
a. When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery. c. Under no condition.
b. Only when passengers are carried.
c. Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required 16. Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the of
crewmember. an airport, shall include:
a. the designation of an alternate airport.
8. What document(s) must be in your personal possession or b. a study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of
readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in intended use.
command of an aircraft? c. an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be
a. Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the completed as planned.
aircraft and a current biennial flight review.
b. A pilot certificate with an annual flight review and a pilot 17. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away
logbook showing recency of experience. from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically
c. An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate require the pilot in command to:
current medical certificate if required. a. review traffic control light signal procedures.
b. check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the
9. In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may: emergency locator transmitter (ELT).
a. act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger c. determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and
for compensation if the flight is in connection with a the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data.
business or employment.
b. not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating 18. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot
expenses involves only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or prior to each flight?
rental fees. a. Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
c. not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a b. Become familiar with available information concerning
flight. the flight.
c. Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
10. The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the:
a. air Transportation Office 19. Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety
b. pilot in command. belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during:
c. aircraft manufacturer. a. takeoff and landings.
b. all flight conditions.
11. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in c. flight in turbulent air.
condition for safe flight?
a. A certificated aircraft mechanic. 20. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight:
b. The pilot in command. a. over a densely populated area.
c. The tower or operator. b. in class D airspace under special VFR.
c. except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of
12. Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found? each aircraft.
a. On the Airworthiness Certificate.
b. In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved 21. An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is
manual material, marking, and placards, or any left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?
combination thereof. a. The airship.
c. In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks. b. The airplane.
c. Each pilot should alter course to the right.
13. No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil
aircraft with: 22. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for
a. .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft:
b. .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. a. that has the other to its right.
c. .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. b. that is the least maneuverable.
c. at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this
rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
23. What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane
take if on a head-on coll3ision course?
a. The airplane pilots should give way to the left.
b. The glider pilot should give way to the right.
c. Both pilots should give way to the right.
32. With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category
of aircraft?
a. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
b. Gyroplane, rotorcraft, airship, Free balloon.
c. Single-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea.

24. What action is required when two aircraft of the same
category converge, but not head-on?
a. The faster aircraft shall give way.
b. The aircraft on the left shall give way.
c. Each aircraft shall give way to the right.
33. The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained
in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the:
a. owner or operator
b. pilot-in-command
c. mechanic who performs the work.

25. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air 34. In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
traffic? a. Class A
a. A balloon. b. Class B
b. An aircraft in distress. c. Class C
c. An aircraft on final approach to land.
35. during the pre-flight inspection who is responsible for
26. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the determining the aircraft in safe for flight?
minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere? a. The owner or operator
a. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency b. The pilot-in-command.
landing without undue hazard to persons or property on c. The certificated mechanic who performed the annual
the surface. inspection
b. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer
than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
c. An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within
a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

27. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR
at night in an airplane?
a. Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed
with adverse wind conditions.
b. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to
fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
c. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to
fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

28. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR
during daylight hours in an airplane?
a. Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed
with adverse wind conditions.
b. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to
fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
c. Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and fly
after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

29. Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a

magnetic course of 135°?
a. 4,500 feet.
b. 5,000 feet.
c. 5,500 feet.

30. Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying

above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°?
a. 4,000 feet.
b. 4,500 feet.
c. 5,000 feet.

31. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the
purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft:
a. that has the other to its right.
b. at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of
this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another
c. that is the least maneuverable.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION [combined points from viber] 7. ALTERNATE AERODROMES
ENROUTE An alternate airport/heliport at which an aircraft
1. GLEIMS CHAPTER 4 ALTERNATE would be able to land in the event that a diversion
2. AIRCRAFT CATEGORIES becomes necessary while en route.
CATEGORY A < 91 KTS DESTINATION An alternate airport/heliport at which an aircraft
CATEGORY B 91 - <121 ALTERNATE would be able to land should it become either
CATEGORY C 121 - <141 impossible or inadvisable to land at the
CATEGORY D 141 - <166 airport/heliport of intended landing.
CATEGORY E >=166 TAKEOFF An alternate airport/heliport at which an aircraft
ALTERNATE would be able to land should this become necessary
3. FIVE FREEDOMS shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the
1. The right of aircraft from State A to overfly State B without landing. airport/heliport of departure
2. The right of the aircraft from State A to land in State B for technical
reasons. 8. HALF MOON PRINCIPLE
3. The right of aircraft from State A to accept paying traffic from State NOSE – North ODDS, South EVENS
A and put it down in State B. (Pick up A  Land B) VFR- +500’
4. The right of aircraft from State A to pick up paying traffic in State IFR- 000’
B and put it down in State A. (Pick up B  Land A) 0-179 Odd
5. The right of aircraft from state A to pick up paying traffic from State 180-359 Event
B and put it down in State C. (Pick up B  Land C)
UNLAWFUL CABOTAGE An offense committed if an aircraft of 9. MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDE GENERAL
State A operating on domestic routes ANYWHERE An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails..
within State B OVER 1000’ ABOVE, 2000’ HORIZONTAL
CONGESTED
4. CERTIFICATION/CATEGORY/TYPE RATING AREA
AIRCRAFT AIRCRAFT CLASS TYPE OVER OTHER 500’ ABOVE SURFACE, 500’ HORIZONTAL
CATEGORY RATING RATING THAN
Airplane, CONGESTED
Rotorcraft,
AIRMEN C172R 10. VFR MINIMUMS DAY/NIGHT
Glider, Powered SEL, MEL, SES, MES
CERTIFICATION C152 DAY 1000’ AGL, 1000’ Horizontal
Lift, Free
Balloon NIGHT 1. 1000’ above highest obstacle, 5NM Horizontal
AIRCRAFT Transport, Distance
Airplane, Rotorcraft, 2. Mountainous – 2000’ above highest obstacle
CERTIFICATION Normal, Utility,
Glider, Airship, ------ within 5NM horizontal distance
Acrobatic,
Balloon CRUISING Above 3000’ AGL
Restricted

5. MEDICAL CERTIFICATES 11. IFR TAKEOFF MINIMUMS

MEDICAL CERTIFICATES 1 SM FOR A/C other than helicopters, having two engines or less
CLASS 1 CPL, ATPL, FLIGHT ENG, FLIGHT NAV (Higher grade
license) 12. IFR MINIMUM ALTITUDE
CLASS 2 PPL, GLIDER, & FREE BALLOON PILOT (Lower grade
license) Over high terrain or in 2000’ Above, 8km
CLASS 3 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER LICENSE mountainous areas
VALIDITY Elsewhere 1000’ above, 8km
BELOW 40 YRS. OLD ABOVE 40 YRS. OLD Below MEA but not MOCA
CLASS 1 (ATPL, MPL, CPL, MPL – 1 YEAR 6 MONTHS
CPL) ATPL- 6 MONTHS 13. IFR ALTERNATE
CLASS 2 (PPL, SPL) 2 YEARS 1 YEAR PRECISION CEILING 600’, VIS >3KM
NON PRECISION CEILING 800’, VIS >5KM
6. LIGHT GUN SIGNALS
TO AN AIRCRAFT IN TO AN AIRCRAFT ON 14. AUTOPILOT MINIMUMS
LIGHT GUN SIGNALS ENROUTE <500’
FLIGHT THE GROUND
STEADY GREEN Cleared to land Cleared for takeoff INSTRUMENT <50’ MDA or DH
Give way to other APPROACH
STEADY RED aircraft and Stop CAT II,III APP May approve the use of flight control guidance
continue circling system with automatic capability to touchdown
FLASHING GREEN Return to landing Cleared to taxi
Aerodrome unsafe, Taxi clear of the 15. MINIMUM CATEGORY II AND III APPROACHES
FLASHING RED - No person may conduct Category II or III instrument
do not land landing area in use
Land at this Return to the starting approaches and landing operations below 800 m visibility
FLASHING WHITE aerodrome and point on the unless RVR information is provided
proceed to apron aerodrome -
RED AND GREEN EXTREME CAUTION 16. CATEGORY OF FLIGHT RULES
I Whole flight will be under IFR
V Whole flight will be under VFR
Y IFR to VFR
Z VFR to IFR
* To change from IFR to VFR, in VMC only, tell ATC “cancel IFR”.
* Changes in flight plan must be notified ASAP.
 21. PPL VS CPL
17. RIGHT OF WAY RULES PRIVATE PILOT LICENSE COMMERCIAL PILOT
RIGHT OF WAY Shall maintain its heading and speed. LICENSE
An aircraft that is obliged by the following rules to AGE Not less than 17 years old Not less than 18 years old
GIVING WAY EXPERIENCE - Completed not less than - Completed not less than
keep out of the way
40 hours of flight time, 200 hours of flight time, or
From Highest priority to lowest priority total of 5 hours may have 150 hours if completed
1. Aircraft in distress been completed in flight during an authorized
AIRCRAFT 2. Hot air Balloon simulator approved training course
PRIORITY 3. Glider as pilot of airplanes, of
(according to 4. Aircraft refueling/ Aircraft Towing - Completed not less than which 10 hours may have
maneuverability) 5. Airship 10 hours of solo flight been completed in flight
6. Fixed Wing, Rotorcraft, Power Parachute, time under supervision of simulator
an authorized flight
Weight Shifting Aircraft
instructor, including 5 - Shall have completed not
APPROACHING When two aircraft are approaching head-on, each hours solo cross country less than 100 hours PIC or
HEAD ON should alter its heading to the right. flight, with at least 1 cross in case of a course
Aircraft on the right has the right of way country totaling not less approved training, 70
CONVERGING
Aircraft on the left shall turn left. than 270 km (150 NM) in hours as PIC
An aircraft overtaking shall alter its course to the the course of which full
OVERTAKING stop landings at 2 - Completed at least 20
right
different aerodromes hours of cross country
- An aircraft in flight, or on the ground shall give shall be made. flight time as PIC including
way to aircraft in the final stages of flight a cross country totaling no
- Aircraft with lower altitude shall be given priority less than 540 km (300 NM)
LANDING
- Unpowered aircraft shall be given priority in the course of which full
- Any aircraft shall give priority to an aircraft in stop landings at 2
emergency different aerodromes
An aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area shall shall be made.
TAKING OFF
give way to aircraft taking off or about to take off.
- 10 hours of instrument
An aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area shall instruction time of which
SURFACE
stop and hold at all runway-holding positions not more than 5 hours
MOVEMENT
unless authorized by the aerodrome control tower may be instrument ground
time
FLIGHT - Received and logged not - Received and logged not
18. [8.8.1.24] AIRPORT TRAFFIC PATTERN ALTITUDES: TURBOJET, INSTRUCTION less than 20 hours of less than 25 hours of dual
dual instruction, may instruction, may include 5
TURBOFAN, OR LARGE AIRCRAFT
include 5 hours hours completed in a
completed in a flight flight simulator.
(a) When arriving at an airport, the PIC of a turbojet, turbofan, or large simulator.
aircraft shall enter the traffic pattern at least 1,500 ft AGL until further - If exercised at NIGHT,
descent is required for landing. applicant should have 4
(b) When departing, the PIC of a turbojet, turbofan, or large aircraft shall hours dual instruction in
climb to 1,500 ft AGL as rapidly as practicable. airplanes in night flight
including takeoff landings
and 1 hour navigation.
19. PCAR PARTS AND SUBPARTS
VALIDITY 5 YEARS 5 YEARS
PART 1 GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES, AND DEFINITIONS MEDICAL Class 2 Medical Class 1 Medical Certificate
PART 2 PERSONNEL LICENSING FITNESS Certificate Below 40 – Valid for 1
Below 40 – Valid for 2 year
PART 3 APPROVED TRAINING ORGANIZATIONS
years Above 40 – Valid for 6
PART 4 AIRCRAFT REGISTRATION AND MARKINGS
Above 40 – Valid for 1 months
PART 5 AIRWORTHINES
years
PART 6 APPROED MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATIONS
PRIVILEGES - Holder of PPL shall be to - Exercise all PPL privileges
PART 7 FLIGHT AND NAVIGATIONAL INSTRUMENTS act as pilot in-command - To act as PIC in any
PART 8 OPERATIONS or co-pilot of any airplane airplane engaged in
PART 9 AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATES engaged in non-revenue operations other than
PART 10 COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT BY FOREIGN CARRIERS flights. commercial air transport
PART 11 AERIAL WORK AND LIMITATIONS FOR NON-TYPE - Can carry passengers - To act as PIC in
CERTIFICATED A/C commercial air transport
PART 13 ACCIDENT AND INCIDENT REPORTING AND INVESTIGATION in any airplane
PART 18 SAFE TRANSPORT OF DANGEROUS GOODS BY AIR certificated for single pilot
operation
20. SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN - To act as co-pilot in
Oxygen 10000’++ 30 mins, 13000’++ whole flight commercial air
transportation in
airplanes required to be
operated with a co-pilot