1

Yakeen NEET 2.0 (Legend)

Atomic Structure DPP-01

1. Which of the following is not a fundamental 7. The nature of anode rays depends upon
particle? (1) Nature of electrode
(1) Electron (2) Proton (2) Nature of residual gas
(3) Neutron (4) X-rays (3) Nature of discharge tube
(4) All the above
2. The specific charge of cathode rays
8. Which of the following properties of atom could
(1) Depends on the nature of the gas.
be explained correctly by Thomson Model of
(2) Depends on the material of the discharge atom?
tube. (1) Overall neutrality of atom.
(3) Depends on the potential difference between (2) Spectra of hydrogen atom.
cathode and anode. (3) Position of electrons, protons and neutrons in
(4) Is a universal constant atom.
(4) Stability of atom.
3. Gases are bad conductors of electricity. Their
9. Which of the following models are not the same as
conductivity may be increased by
Thomson model of Atom?
(1) Increasing the pressure as well as potential (1) Plum Pudding model
difference between the electrodes. (2) Watermelon model
(2) Decreasing the pressure as well as potential (3) Raisin Pudding model
difference between the electrodes. (4) Nuclear model
(3) Decreasing the pressure and/or increasing the
potential difference between the electrodes. 10. Which of the following statements about the
(4) Increasing the pressure and/or decreasing the electron is incorrect?
potential difference between the electrodes. (1) It is a negatively charged particle.
(2) The mass of electron is equal to the mass of
4. Which is not true with respect to cathode rays neutron.
(1) A stream of electrons (3) It is a basic constituent of all atoms.
(2) Charged particles
(4) It is a constituent of cathode rays.
(3) Move with same speed as that of light
(4) Can be deflected by electric field
11. The cathode rays experiment demonstrated that
5. Anode rays were discovered by (1) -particles are the nuclei of He atoms.
(1) Goldstein (2) J. Stoney (2) the e/m ratio for the particles of the cathode
(3) Rutherford (4) J.J. Thomson rays varies gas to gas.
(3) cathode rays are streams of negatively
6. Cathode rays are
charged particles.
(1) Protons (2) Electrons
(4) the mass of an atom is essentially all
(2) Neutrons (4) α-particles
contained its very small nucleus.
 2

12. From the discharge tube experiment, it is

concluded that
(1) mass of proton is fractional.
(2) matter contains electrons.
(3) matter contains nucleus.
(4) positive rays are heavier than protons.
 3

Note: Kindly find the Video Solution of DPPs Questions in the DPPs Section.
Answer Key
1. (4) 7. (2)
2. (4) 8. (1)
3. (3) 9. (4)
4. (3) 10. (2)
5. (1) 11. (3)
6. (2) 12. (2)

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Yakeen NEET 2.0 (Legend)

Atomic Structure DPP-02

1. Small packets of light are called 7. Select the correct statement.

(1) Proton (2) Quanta (1) Visible light consists of electromagnetic
(3) Photon (4) Spectrum waves of oscillating electric and magnetic
fields
2. Which of the following electromagnetic radiation (2) In vacuum types of all electromagnetic
have greater frequency? radiation travel at the same speed
(1) X-rays (2) Ultraviolet rays (3) Both (1) and (2) are correct statements
(4) None of the above is correct statement
(3) Radio waves (4) Visible rays

8. Calculate the energy of a photon of sodium light of

3. Which one of the following is not the
wavelength 5.862 × 10–16 m in Joules.
characteristic of Planck's quantum theory of
(1) 2.9 × 10–10 J (2) 3.38 × 10–10 J
radiation –10
(3) 4.65 × 10 J (4) 2.52 × 1016 J
(1) The energy is not absorbed or emitted in
whole number or multiple of quantum
9. Wavelength of photon having energy 1 eV would
(2) Radiation is associated with energy be
(3) Radiation energy is not emitted or absorbed (1) 1.24 × 10–4 m (2) 1.24 × 10–6 m
continuously but in the form of small (3) 1.24 × 10–5 m (4) 1.24 × 104 m
packets called quanta
(4) This magnitude of energy associated with a 10. Find out the number of photons emitted by a 60
quantum is proportional to the frequency watt bulb in one minute, if wavelength of an
emitted photon is 620 nm
4. The energy of a photon is calculated by (1) 1.125 × 1022 (2) 7 × 1022
(3) 1.125 × 1020 (4) 2.1 × 1015
(1) E = hv (2) h = Ev
E h 11. How long would it take a radio wave of frequency
(3) h (4) E
v v 6 × 103 s–1 to travel from mars to the earth, a
distance of 8 × 107 km
5. The frequency of yellow light having wavelength (1) 1.5 × 102 s (2) 2.66 × 102 s
600 nm is (3) 2.66 × 10–2 s (4) none of these
(1) 5.0 × 1014 Hz (2) 2.5 × 107 Hz
(3) 5.0 × 107 Hz (4) 2.5 × 1014 Hz 12. The Vivid Bharti Station of All India Radio
broadcast on a frequency of 1368 KHz. Calculate
the wavelength of the Electromagnetic waves
6. Electromagnetic radiation travels through vacuum
emitted by the transmitter.
at a speed of
(1) 219.3 m (2) 210 m
(1) 6.02 × 1010 ms–1 (2) 9.1 × 1012 ms–1 (3) 140 m (4) 200 m
(3) 3 × 108 ms–1 (4) Zero ms–1
 2

Note: Kindly find the Video Solution of DPPs Questions in the DPPs Section.
Answer Key
1. (3) 7. (3)
2. (1) 8. (2)
3. (1) 9. (2)
4. (1) 10. (1)
5. (1) 11. (2)
6. (3) 12. (1)

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Yakeen NEET 2.0 (Legend)

Atomic Structure DPP-03

1. In the emission of photoelectrons, the number of 6. A photon of wavelength 3000 Å strikes a metal
photoelectrons emitted per unit time depends upon surface, the work function of the metal being 2.20
(1) energy of the incident radiation eV. Calculate the kinetic energy of the emitted
(2) intensity of the incident radiation photo electron
(3) frequency of the incident radiation (1) 3.08 × 10–19 J
(4) wavelength of the incident radiation (2) 3.08 × 10 J
(3) 2 × 10–19 J
2. In order to increase the kinetic energy of ejected (4) 3.08 × 1020 J
photoelectrons, there should be an increase in
(1) intensity of radiation 7. The work function for a metal is 4 eV. To emit a
(2) Wavelength of radiation photo-electron of zero velocity from the surface of
(3) Frequency of radiation the metal, the wavelength of incident light should
(4) Both wavelength and intensity of radiation be
(1) 2700 Å
3. The work-function for photoelectric effect: (2) 1700 Å
(1) Depends upon the frequency of incident light (3) 5900 Å
(2) Is same for all metals (4) 3100 Å
(3) Is different for different metals
(4) None of these 8. The threshold wavelength for ejection of electrons
from a metal is 330 nm. The work function for the
4. When the frequency of the incident radiation on a photoelectric emission from the metal is
metallic plate is doubled, KE of the photoelectrons (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s)
will be
(1) 1.2 × 10–18 J
(1) Doubled
(2) 6.0 × 10–19 J
(2) Halved
(3) 1.2 × 10–12 J
(3) More than doubled
(4) Increases but less than doubled (4) 6.0 × 10–12 J

5. The number of electrons ejected from the metal 9. Light of wavelength , strikes a metal surface with
surface after a light wave of certain minimum intensity X and the metal emits Y electrons per
frequency strikes on the metal surface is second of maximum kinetic energy Z. What will
proportional to the happen to Y and Z if X is halved?
(1) Frequency of light (1) Y will be halved and Z will be doubled
(2) Brightness of light (2) Y will be doubled and Z will be halved
(3) Velocity of light (3) Y will be halved and Z will remain the same
(4) Wavelength of light (4) Y will remain same and Z will be
 2

10. Which of the following is an incorrect graphical 14. The number of possible spectral lines in Brackett
representation based on photoelectric effect? series in hydrogen spectrum, when the electrons
present in the ninth excited state return to the
ground state, is
(1) (1) 36 (2) 45
(3) 5 (4) 6

15. What is the shortest wavelength line in the

Paschen series of Li2+ ion?
R 9
(1) (2)
9 R
(2) 1 9R
(3) (4)
R 4

16. The shortest wavelength in H spectrum of Lyman

series when RH = 109678 cm–1 is.
(1) 1002.7 Å (2) 1215.67 Å
(3) (3) 1127.30 Å (4) 911.7 Å

17. What is the maximum wavelength line in the

Lyman series of He+ ion?
1
(1) 3R (2)
3R
4
(3) (4) None of these
4R
(4)
18. As the number of orbit increase from the nucleus,
the difference between the adjacent energy levels:
(1) Increases (2) Remains constant
(3) Decreases (4) None of these
11. Line spectra is characteristic of:
(1) Molecules (2) Atoms 19. The wavelength of radiation emitted out in the
(3) Radicals (4) None of these transition n = 4 to n = 1 in Li2+ ion is
135 R 16
(1) (2)
12. Which of the following electron transitions in a 16 135 R
hydrogen atom will require the largest amount of 16 R 135
energy? (3) (4)
(1) From n =1 to n = 2
135 16 R
(2) From n = 2 to n = 4
20. Calculate wavelength of 3rd line of Brackett series
(3) From n = 5 to n = 1
in hydrogen spectrum
(4) From n = 3 to n = 5
784 33R
(1) (2)
13. The spectrum produced from an element is: 33R 784
(1) Atomic spectrum 784R 33
(3) (4)
(2) Line spectrum 33 784R
(3) Absorption spectrum
(4) Any one of the above
 3

Note: Kindly find the Video Solution of DPPs Questions in the DPPs Section.
Answer Key
1. (2) 11. (2)
2. (3) 12. (1)
3. (3) 13. (4)
4. (3) 14. (4)
5. (2) 15. (3)
6. (1) 16. (4)
7. (4) 17. (2)
8. (2) 18. (3)
9. (3) 19. (2)
10. (3) 20. (1)

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Yakeen NEET 2.0 (Legend)

Atomic Structure DPP-04

1. Bohr’s model may be applied to 7. Magnitude of K.E. in an orbit is equal to

(1) Na10+ ion (2) He atom (1) Half of the potential energy
2+
(3) Be ion (4) C6+ ion (2) Twice of the potential energy
(3) One fourth of the potential energy
2. For which species, Bohr's theory does not apply: (4) None of these
(1) H (2) Be
+
(3) He (4) Li2+ 8. The energy of an electron moving in nth Bohr’s
−13.6 2
3. Choose the incorrect relation on the basis of orbit of an element is given by E n = Z
n2
Bohr’s theory eV/atom (Z = atomic number). The graph of E vs.
1 Z2 (keeping “n” constant) will be:
(1) Velocity of electron 
n
1
(2) Frequency of revolution 
n2 E
(1)
(3) Radius of orbit ∝n2 Z
1
(4) Force on electron  4 Z
2
n 2
Z

4. If the radius of first orbit of H–atom is x Å, then

the radius of the second orbit of Li2+ ion will be (2) E
4x
(1) x Å (2) Å
3
9x
(3) Å (4) 4x Å
2
E
5. Which of the following is not a permissible value (3)
of angular momentum of electron in H–atom?
h h Z
2
(1) 1.5 (2) 0.5
 
h
(3) 1.25 (4) All of these E
 (4)

6. The value of first Bohr radius of hydrogen atom is

2
(1) 0.529 × l0–7cm Z
(2) 0.529 × l0–8cm
(3) 0.529 × l0–9cm
(4) 0.529 × l0–10cm
 2

9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are 11. Bohr’s radius of 2nd orbit of Be3+ is equal to that
consistent with the Bohr theory of the atom (and of
no others)? (1) 4th orbit of hydrogen
(1) An electron can remain in a particular orbit as (2) 2nd orbit of He+
long as it continuously absorbs radiation of a (3) 3rd orbit of Li2+
definite frequency. (4) First orbit of hydrogen
(2) The lowest energy orbits are those closest to
the nucleus. 12. The energy difference will be minimum of which
(3) All electrons can jump from the K shell to the
of the following energy levels of H–atom?
M shell by emitting radiation of a definite
(1) n = 2 and n = 3
frequency.
(1) a, b, c (2) b only (2) n = 3 and n = 4
(3) c only (4) a, b (3) n = 1 and n = 2
(4) n = 1 and n = 4
10. Which of the following statement does not form
part of Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom? 13. The ratio of energies of first excited state of He+
(1) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is ion and ground state of H–atom is
quantized. (1) 1 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
(2) The electron in the orbit which is nearest to (3) 1 : 4 (4) 16 : 1
the nucleus has the lowest energy.
(3) Electrons revolve in different orbits around 14. For which atom or ion, the energy level of the
the nucleus. second excited state is 13.6 eV?
(4) The position and velocity of the electrons in (1) H (2) He+
2+
the orbit cannot be determined (3) Li (4) Li
simultaneously.
 3

Note: Kindly find the Video Solution of DPPs Questions in the DPPs Section.
Answer Key
1. (1) 8. (2)
2. (2) 9. (2)
3. (2, 3) 10. (4)
4. (2) 11. (4)
5. (3) 12. (2)
6. (2) 13. (1)
7. (1) 14. (3)

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Yakeen NEET 2.0 (Legend)

Atomic Structure DPP-05

1. The de Broglie equation suggests that an electron has 7. De Broglie wavelength of an electron after being
(1) Particle nature accelerated by a potential difference of V volt
(2) Wave nature from rest is:
(3) Particle-wave nature 12.3
(4) Radiation behavior (1)  = Å
h
12.3
2. A cricket ball of 0.5 kg is moving with a velocity (2)  = Å
of 100 m/sec. The wavelength associated with its V
motion is 12.3
(3)  = Å
(1) 1/100 cm E
(2) 6.6 × 10–34 m 12.3
(3) 1.32 × 10–35 m (4)  = Å
m
(4) 6.6 × 10–28 m
8. What possibly can be the ratio of the de-Broglie
3. The de Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 60
g moving with a velocity of 10 m/s is wavelengths for two electrons each having zero
approximately: initial energy and accelerated through 50 volts and
(Planck’s constant, h = 6 × 10–34 Js) 200 volts
(1) 10–33 m (2) 10–31 m (1) 3 : 10 (2) 10 : 3
(3) 10–16 m (4) 10–25 m (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1

4. Which of the following matter waves will have the 9. A helium molecule is moving with a velocity of
shortest wavelength, if travelling with same kinetic 2.40 × 102 ms–1 at 300 K. The De-broglie
energy? wavelength is about
(1) Electron (2) -particle (1) 0.416 nm (2) 0.83 nm
(3) Neutron (4) Proton (3) 803 Å (4) 8000 Å

5. If wavelength is equal to the distance travelled by 10. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of electron and
the electron in one second, then: proton moving with the same speed is about
h h (1) 1836 : 1
(1)  = (2)  =
p m (2) 1 : 1836
h h (3) 1 : 1
(3)  = (4)  = (4) 1 : 2
p m

6. The wavelength of a charged particle _____ the

11. If the uncertainty in position of a moving particle
square root of the potential difference through
which it is accelerated. is 0 then find out ΔP
(1) is inversely proportional to (1) 0
(2) is directly proportional to (2) 1
(3) is independent of (3) Infinite
(4) is unrelated with (4) None of these
 2

12. Which of the following is the most correct (1) 2.52 × 10–33 m
expression (2) 3.02 × 10–33 m
for Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle? (3) 1.46 × 10–33 m
h 0.82 × 10–33 m
(1) x.p = (4)
4
h 17. The uncertainty in position and velocity of a
(2) x.p 
4 particle are 10–10 m and 5.27 × 10–24 ms–1
h respectively. Calculate the mass of the particle (h
(3) x.p 
4 = 6.625 × 10–34 Joule sec.)
h (1) 0.099 Kg
(4) x.v =
4 (2) 0.089 Kg
(3) 0.99Kg
13. If uncertainty in position and momentum of a (4) None of these
particle is numerically equal, then the minimum
uncertainty in speed of the particle should be 18. The Uncertainty in the momentum of an electron is
h 1 h 1.0 × 10–5 kg ms–1. The Uncertainty in its position
(1) (2)
2 2m  will be: (h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js)
h 1 h (1) 1.05 × 10–28m
(3) (4)
 m  (2) 1.05 × 10–26 m
(3) 5.27 × 10–30m
(4) 5.25 × 10–28 m
14. Uncertainty in measuring the speed of a particle is
numerically equal to the uncertainty in measuring 19. Calculate the uncertainty in velocity of a cricket
its position. The value of these uncertainties will ball of mass 150 g if the uncertainty in its position
be is of the order of 1 Å (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Kg m2s–1)
(1) Equal to
h (1) 3.499 × 10–24ms–1
4m (2) 3.499 × 10–21ms–1
(2) Less than
h (3) 3.499 × 10–20ms–1
4m (4) 3.499 × 1021 ms–1
h
(3) Greater than
4m 20. Which of thse following is the correct form of
(4) Both (1) or (3) Schrodinger wave equation?
 2  2  2 162 m
The Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle can be
(1) + + + ( E −V ) = 0
15. 2 x 2 y 2 z h2
applied to
 2  2  2 82 m
(1) A cricket ball (2) + + + 2 ( E −V ) = 0
(2) A foot ball
x 2 y 2 z 2 h
2 2 2 42 m
+ 2 ( E −V ) = 0
(3) A jet aeroplane
(3) + +
(4) An electron x 2 y 2 z 2 h
 2  2  2 82 m2
16. A golf ball has a mass of 40g, and a speed of 45ms–1. (4) + + + ( E −V ) = 0
x 2 y 2 z 2 h2
If the speed can be measured with in accuracy of
2%, calculate the uncertainty in the position.
 3

Note: Kindly find the Video Solution of DPPs Questions in the DPPs Section.
Answer Key
1. (3) 11. (3)
2. (3) 12. (2)
3. (1) 13. (2)
4. (2) 14. (4)
5. (4) 15. (4)
6. (1) 16. (3)
7. (2) 17. (1)
8. (4) 18. (3)
9. (1) 19. (1)
10. (1) 20. (2)

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Yakeen NEET 2.0 (Legend)

Atomic Structure DPP-06

1. The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed 5. Wave function of an orbital is plotted against the
by: distance from nucleus. The graphical
(1) Magnetic quantum number representation is of:
(2) Principal quantum number
(3) Azimuthal quantum number
(4) Spin quantum number

2. The quantum levels upto 𝑛 = 3 has:

(1) 𝑠 and 𝑝-levels
(2) 𝑠, 𝑝, 𝑑, 𝑓-levels
(3) 𝑠, 𝑝, 𝑑-levels
(1) 1s (2) 2s
(4) s – levels
(3) 3s (4) 2p
3. The size of an orbital is given by
(1) principal quantum number 6. An electron has principal quantum number 3. The
(2) azimuthal quantum number number of its (i) subshells and (ii) orbitals would
(3) magnetic quantum number be respectively:
(4) spin quantum number
(1) 3 and 5 (2) 3 and 7
4. Which of the following radial distribution graphs (3) 3 and 9 (4) 2 and 5
corresponds to l = 2 for H atom for the least value
of n for which l = 2 is allowed? 7. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an
atom is determined by the following:
(1) 2n2 (2) 4l + 2
(3) 2l + 1 (4) 4l – 2
(1)

8. For a given value of azimuthal quantum number 𝑙,

the total number of values for the magnetic
quantum number 𝑚 are given by:
(2) (1) 𝑙 + 1 (2) 2𝑙 + 1
(3) 2𝑙 + 2 (4) 𝑙 + 2

9. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers

is correct for an electron in 4𝑓-orbital?
(3) 1
(1) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = −2, 𝑠 = +
2
1
(2) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 4, 𝑚 = −4, 𝑠 = –
2
1
(3) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = +1, 𝑠 = +
2
(4)
1
(4) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = +4, 𝑠 = +
2
 2

10. A subshell n = 5, l = 3 can accommodate: 13. Which of the following statements concerning the
(1) 10 electrons four quantum numbers is false?
(2) 14 electrons (1) n gives idea of the size of an orbital
(3) 18 electrons (2) l gives the shape of an orbital
(4) None of these (3) m gives the energy of the electron in the
orbital
11. The orbital angular momentum of a 4p electron (4) s gives the direction of spin of the electron in
will be an orbital
h h
(1) 4. (2) 2.
2 2 14. Which one of the following is the set of correct
h h quantum numbers of an electron in 3𝑑 orbital?
(3) 6. (4) 2.
(1) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = −1/2
2 4
(2) 𝑛 = 2, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = +1/2
12. The number of radial nodes of 3s, 3p and 3d (3) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = −1/2
electrons are, respectively, (4) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = 1, 𝑠 = +1/2
(1) 0, 1, 2 (2) 2, 1, 0
(3) 2, 2, 2 (4) 1, 3, 5
 3

Note: Kindly find the Video Solution of DPPs Questions in the DPPs Section.
Answer Key
1. (1) 8. (2)
2. (3) 9. (3)
3. (1) 10. (2)
4. (3) 11. (2)
5. (3) 12. (2)
6. (3) 13. (3)
7. (2) 14. (4)

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Yakeen NEET 2.0 (Legend)

Atomic Structure DPP-07

1. Which configuration does not obey pauli’s 6. Presence of three unpaired electrons in phosphorus
exclusion principle- atom can be explained by
(1) (1) Pauli's rule
(2) Uncertainty principle
(2) (3) Aufbau's rule
(3) (4) Hund's rule

(4) 7. Which electronic nfiguraon does not follow the

Pauli's exclusion principle?
2. In potassium the probable order of energy level for (1) 1s2, 2s22p4 (2) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2
19th electron is: (3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 (4) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s3
(1) 3s > 3d
(2) 4s < 3d 8. Nitrogen has the electronic configuration
(3) 4s > 4p 1s2, 2s2, 2p1x , 2p1y , 2p1z , and not 1s2, 2s2, 2p2x , 2p1y ,
(4) 4s = 3d
2p0z . It was proposed by:
3. Which of the following configuration follows the (1) Aufbau principle
Hund’s rule:- (2) Pauli's exclusion principle
2s 2p (3) Hund's rule
(4) Uncertainty principle
(1) [He]
2s 2p
9. If Hunds rule is not obeyed by some elements
(2) [He]
given below then which atom has maximum
2s 2p magnetic moment.
(3) [He] (1) Fe (2) Cu
(3) Cr (4) Mn
2s 2p
(4) [He] 10. The correct ground state electronic configuration of
chromium atom (Z=24) is
(1) [Ar] 3d5 4s1 (2) [Ar] 3d4 4s2
4. The orbital with maximum energy is: (3) [Ar] 3d6 4s0 (4) [Ar] 4s1 4p5
(1) 3d
(2) 5p
(3) 4s 11. Which of the following has maximum number of
unpaired electrons?
(4) 6d
(1) Mg2+ (2) Ti3+
3+
(3) V (4) Fe3+
5. According to (n + l) rule after completing 'np' level
the electron enters to: 12. A compound of vanadium has magnetic moment of
(1) (n – 1) d 1.73 B.M. The electronic configuration of the
vanadium ion in the compound is
(2) (n + l) s
(1) [Ar] 4s03d1 (2) [Ar] 4s13d0
(3) nd 2 0
(3) [Ar] 4s 3d (4) [Ar] 4s03d3
(4) (n + 1) p
 2

Note: Kindly find the Video Solution of DPPs Questions in the DPPs Section.
Answer Key
1. (2) 7. (4)
2. (2) 8. (3)
3. (1) 9. (3)
4. (4) 10. (1)
5. (2) 11. (4)
6. (4) 12. (1)

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