sir jp 12 complete chemistry © Mdcatian's Stetho - Mdcat Aspire Avenue

The Spark Institute of Language & Sciences
CHAPTER # 1 15. The atomic radius increases as we move down a group

because:
(A) Effective nuclear charge increases
Periodic Classification of Elements (B) Atomic mass increases
(C) Additive electrons are accommodated in new
electron level
1. Which of the following pairs are chemically dissimilar? (D) Atomic number increase
(A) Na and K (B) Ba and Sr
(C) Cl and Br (D) Ca and Zn 16. Which one of the following is an incorrect statement?
(A) The ionization potential of nitrogen is greater than
2. The total number of inner transition elements is: that of chlorine
(A) 10 (B) 14 (B) The electron affinity of fluorine is greater than that
(C) 28 (C) 30 of chlorine
(C) The ionization potential of beryllium is greater than
3. The element with valence shell electronic configuration that of boron
2s2, 2p3 would be: (D) The electronegativity of fluorine is greater than that
(A) The element of 4th period of chlorine
(B) The element of III –A group
(C) The element of 3rd period 17. Electron affinity depends on:
(D) The element of 2nd period (A) Atomic size
(B) Nuclear charge
4. Which of the following ions will hydrate more than the (C) Atomic number
others? (D) Atomic size and nuclear charge both
(A) K1+ (B) Ca2+
(C) Na1+ (D) Al3+ 18. Two elements whose electronegativities are 1.2 and
3.0, the bond formed between them would be?
5. Which of the following has greatest tendency to (A) Ionic (B) covalent
loseelectron? (C) Coordinate (C) metallic.
(A) F (B) Cs
(C) I (D) Cl 19. Radius of a cation is ______ than parent atom:
(A) Bigger (B) smaller
6. The element which belongs to I-A group (C) Remain same (D) none
(A) Mg (B) Rb
(C) Ni (C) CI 20. Which of the following is non-metallic element?
(A) Ca (B) C
7. Which of the following is iso-electronic with carbon (C) Sn (D) Pb
atom?
(A) Na+ (B) Al3+ 21. Mark the correct statement:
(C) O-1 (D) N+1 (A) Na+1 is smaller than Na atom
(B) Na+ is larger than Na atom
8. Which of the following element belongs to halogen (C) CI-1 is smaller than CI atom
family? (D) CI-1 and CI are equal in size
(A) As (B) Sr
(C) Pb (D) F 22. Elements of zero groups have?
(A) Low I.P (B) High E.N
9. Ca2+ ion is iso-electronic with: (C) Complete outer shell (D) High E.A
(A) Mg2+ (B) Na+
(C) Ar (D) Kr 23. Element, of group I-B are called:
(A) Representative elements
10. Gradual addition of electronic shells in the noble (B) Transition elements
gases causes a decrease in their: (C) Rare earth
(A) Ionization energy (B) atomic radius (D) Coinage metals
(C) Boiling point (D) density.
24. The element with Z = 24 is placed in the period:
11. Which of the followingscan form a triad? (A) 5 (B) 2
(A) Li, Na, K (B) O, F, N (C) 3 (D) 4
(C) O, S, Cl (C) B, C, K
25. Which of the following pairs are metalloids?
12. Which of the following has the smallest size? (A) Na and K (B) F and CI
(A) Na+ (B) Mg2+ (C)Cu and Au (D) Si & B
(C) Al3+ (D) CI
26. Which one of the following has the maximumelectron
13. Which of the following element has the maximum affinity?
electron affinity? (A) I (B) Br
(A) F (B) S (C) CI (D) F
(C) I (D) CI
27. On the basis of electronic configuration, elements are
14. Which of the following is iso-electronic as that of F-1? divided into_________ blocks:
(A) Na+1 (B) Mg+2 (A) 4 (B) 3
(B) Ne (C) All (C) 5 (D) 7
28. Elements with greater number of electrons have

_________values of ionization energy: 41. Which one of the following is not a coinage metal?
(A) Only one (B) More than one (A) Au (B) Cu
(C) Zero (D) Infinite (C) Ag (D) Pd
29. Which of the following has maximum hydration power? 42. Which is the most metallic element of 2nd period?
(A)Na+ (B)K+ (A) Lithium (B) Beryllium
(C)Mg+2 (D)Ca+2 (C) Boron (D) Carbon
30. Higher value of electron affinity means_________: 43. The outer most orbital involved in chemical bonding is
(A) Atom will lose electron easily called:
(B) Atom will gain electron easily (A) Molecular orbital (B) Complete orbital
(C) Atom may form di-positive ion (C) Valence orbital (D) Free orbital
(D) The reason is unknown
44. Element which form basic oxides are?
31. Melting points of VII-A group ___________ down the (A) Electropositive (B) Electronegative
group: (C) Inert (D) None
(A)Increase (B)Decrease
(C)Remain constant (D)No regular trend 45. Which of the following has the most basic character?
(A) Na2O (B) MgO
32. Oxidation state of an atom represents______: (C) Al2O3 (D) P2O3
(A) No. of electrons gained
(B) No. of electrons lost 46. Which of the following is smallest in size?
(C) No. of electrons gained or lost (A) K+1 (B) O-2
(D) None of above correctly represent it (C) F-1 (D) Na+
33. Mendeleev’s periodic table was based on: 47. Ionization energy is lowest for:
(A)Atomic number (B)Atomic mass (A) Inert gases (B) Halogens
(C)Atomic volume(D)Electronic configuration (C) Alkali metals (D) Alkaline earth metals
34. Elements present in a same group have the same 48. An isotope of hydrogen is:
(A)Atomic number (B)Molecular weight (A) Neptunium (B) Plutonium
(C)Properties (D)Electronic configuration (C) Thorium (D) Tritium
35. “s” and “p” block elements are also called: 49. With respect to chlorine, hydrogen is:
(A) Transition elements (A) Electropositive (B) Electronegative
(B) Inert elements (C) Neutral (D) None
(C) Typical elements
(D) Rare earth metals 50. Element with electronic configuration _______ has the
lowestI.P?
36. Which one of the following is true statement? (A) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(A) Transition elements have fixed oxidation states (C) 1s2 2s2 2p5 (D) 1s2 2s2
(B) In Lothar Meyer’s curve metals lie on peaks
(C) Lanthanides & actinides are outer transition metals 51. Excluding hydrogen and helium, the smallest elements
(D) Total number of inner transition metals is 30 in the periodic table is
(A) Lithium (B) Fluorine
37. Elements with seven electrons in their valence shell (C) Cesium (D) Iodine
are known as:
(A) Inert (B) Lanthanides 52. Which halogen has the lowest electron affinity?
(C) Halogens (D) Alkali metals (A) F (B) Cl
(C) Br (D) I
38. Which of the following pairs of elements are chemically
most similar? 53. The element with atomic number 7 is likely to have
(A)Na and Rb (B) Cu and B same properties to the element whose atomic number
(C) S and F (D) Sc and Zn is:
(A) 11 (B) 2
39. A student of chemistry will identify positively the (C) 15 (D) 10
following symbols as sodium
(A)
23
(B)
40 54. Which of the following will have largest size?
W
11
X
19
(A) Br (B) I -1
26 32 (C) I (D) F
(C) (D)
Y
13
Z
16
55. In its chemical properties, calcium is most similar to
40. In the periodic table each period begins with a metal, (A) Cs (B) Cu
which is: (C) Sc (D) Sr
(A) Most electronegative
(B) Most electropositive 56. Which two of the following are iso-electronic with one
(C) Less electropositive another?
(D) None (A) Na+ and O (B) Na+ and K+
(C) Na+ and Ne (D) Ne and O (A) K &Rb (B) Li & Na
(C) Li & Mg (D) Li & Be
57. Which of the following is a trans-uranic element?

(A) Americium (B) Plutonium 71. Elements of VIII –A group are:
(C) Neptunium (D) All (A) Mono-atomic gases (B) Inert gases
(C) Noble gases (D) All
58. Which of the following is without electrons &neutrons?
(A) H2 (B)H 72. From left to right in a periodic table charge to mass
(C) H+1 (D) H-1 ratio increases therefore the hydration energy:
(A) Decreases (B) Increases
59. Cesium and Francium are liquids above: (C) Remains constant (D) None
(A) 10oC (B) 15oC
(C) 20oC (C) 30oC 73. ______ elements have been discovered so far:
(A) >100 (B) 1100
60. Predict that the element “X” with electronic (C) <100 (D) 150
configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p4will form:
(A) Cation (B) Anion 74. _______ classified the then known elements into
(C) Both a & b (D) None metals, non metals and their derivatives:
(A) Dobereiner (B) Al – Razi
61. As the atomic number of the halogen increases, the (C) Newlands (D) Mendeleev
halogens:
(A) Lose their outermost electrons less easily 75. Dobereiner’s work led to the law of triads which states
(B) Become less dense that ______:
(C) Becomes lighter in colour (A) Atomic weight of any one element was found to be
(D) Gain electrons less easily approximately the mean of the other two elements
of triad
62. The electron affinity of fluorine is high because: (B) Atomic weight of the middle element was found to
(A) Its atomic size is small amongst halogen be approximately the mean of the other two
(B) It is less denser than other halogen elements of a triad
(C) It is gas like other halogens (C) Atomic number of any one element was found to
(D) None be approximately the mean of the other two
elements of a triad
63. Modern period table consists of: (D) Atomic number of the middle element was found t
(A) 9 Periods (B) 9 Groups be approximately the mean of the other two
(C) 7 periods (D) 7 groups elements of a triad
64. Which of the following is highest electronegative 76. The law of octaves was given by _______:
element? (A) Dobereiner (B) Al – Razi
(A) F (B) N (C) Newlands (D) None
(C) O (D) C
77. Law of octave states that ______:
65. The ionic halides in order of increasing m.p and b.p (A) The properties of every 6th element from the given
can be arranges as one were similar to the first
(A) Iodide>bromide>chloride> fluoride (B) The properties of every 9th element from the given
(B) Bromide>chloride>fluoride>iodide one were similar to the first
(C) Chloride>bromide>iodide>fluoride (C) The properties of every 8th element from the given
(D) Fluoride>chloride>bromide>iodide one were similar to the first
(D) The properties of every 7th element from the given
66. A hydride ion and helium atom has same number of one were similar to the second
(A) Protons (B) Neutrons
(C) Electrons (D) All of these 78. Mendeleev’s Periodic Table was based on _______:
(A) Atomic number (B) Atomic mass
67. Element with atomic number 20 has the combining (C) Atomic volume (D) Electronic configuration
capacity:
(A) 1 (B) 2 79. Moseley’s work led to the periodic law, which
(C) 3 (D) 4 states that _______:
(A) The number of the electrons in the 1st energy level
68. According to modern periodic law elements are increases as the atomic number increases.
arranged in: (B) The properties of the elements are a periodic
(A) Descending order of their atomic numbers function of their atomic mass
(B) Ascending order of their atomic numbers (C) The x – rays spectra of the elements are more
(C) Descending order of their atomic volume complex than the optical spectra
(D) Ascending order of their atomic volume (D) The properties of elements are the periodic
function of their atomic number
69. Among the alkali metals the most reactive metal is:
(A) Li (B) Cs 80. A pair of elements in the same family in the periodic
(C) Na (D) Rb table classification is ________:
(A) Cl & C (B) Ca& Al
70. Diagonal relationship exists between: (C) N and Ne (D) Na & K
96. The hydronium ion is a/an _______:
81. In modern periodic table elements are arranged in: (A) Ion with formula H2O+
(A) Increasing charges in the nucleus (B) Ion with the formula H3O+
(B) Increasing atomic weights (C) Free radical rather than an ion
(C) Increasing number of neutrons (D) Ion formed by removal of H- form a water
(D) Increasing valency molecule.
82. Uranium is a member of:
(A) s – block (B) p – block 97. Who was first to published the classification of the
(C) d – block (D) f – block elements that is the basis of our periodic table today?
(A) Dobereiner (B) Mendeleev
83. How many ionization energies can carbon have? (C) Mosley (D) Lothar Meyer
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6 98. The number of valence electrons in arsenic is?
(A) 4 (B) 3
84. Which ion has the maximum polarization power? (C) 7 (D) 5
(A) Li+ (B) Mg2+ 99. In which period is the most electronegative elements
(C) Al3+ (D) O2- found?
(A) 1 (B) 2
85. Which of the following is not halogen? (C) 3 (D) 4
(A) Co (B) Cl
(C) Br (D) Fr 100. The following electronic configuration of which
element? (1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p5)
86. The process requiring absorption of energy is: (A) F (B) I
(A) 2F → F2 (B) 2Cl → Cl2 (C) Cl (D) Br
(C) O → O-2 (D) H2 → 2H
101. The following electronic configuration of which
87. Most of the known elements are metals of ______
element? (1s22s22p63s23p5)
ofperiodic table:
(A) d – block (B) p – block (A) F (B) I
(C) III A– group (D) Zero block (C) Cl (D) Br
88. The volume in cubic centimeters occupied by one gram 102. Which element has the highest ionization energy?
atom of the element is called: (A) Mg (B) Ca
(A) Atomic volume (B) Atomic weight (C) Sr (D) Ba
(C) Mass number (D) None
103. Number of naturally occurring elements is?
89. The lowest ionization energies are found in the ___: (A) 92 (B) 100
(A) Inert gases (B) Alkali metals (C) 82 (D) 119
(C) Transition elements (D) Halogens
104. Which of the following statement is not true for artificial
90. The unit of ionization energy is _______: elements?
(A) Joule/mol (B) Calorie (A) All artificial elements have atomic number less
(C) Electron volt (D) None than 50
(B) After lead all elements are artificial
91. The electropositive elements form _____: (C) After uranium all elements are artificial
(A) Acidic oxides (B) Basic oxides (D) Both a & b
(C) Neutral oxides (D) Amphoteric oxide
105. The position of d –block elements in the periodic table
92. The electronegative elements form _____: is:
(A) Acidic oxides (B) Basic oxides (A) In between s & p blocks
(C) Neutral oxides (D) Amphoteric oxide (B) In between p & f –blocks
(C) At the end of periodic table
93. The ionization energy of nitrogen is more than oxygen (D) None
because of _______:
(A) More attraction of electrons by the nucleus
(B) More penetration effect
(C) The extra stability of half filled p – orbital
(D) The size of nitrogen atom is smaller.
94. _______ ion has the largest radius:

(A) Al+3 (B) Cl-1
-1
(C) F (D) O-2
95. Physical & chemical properties of the elements are

periodic function of their atomic numbers. This
statement relates to:
(A) Dobereiner’s triad
(B) Newlands law of octaves
(C) Mendeleev’s periodic law
(D) Modern periodic law
13. Hydrogen is:
(A) Metal (B) Non-metal
(C) Non-metal gas (D) metalloid
14. Methane decomposes into carbon black & hydrogen

gas at:
(A) 100oC (B) 1000oC
(C) 250oC (D) 7000oC
CHAPTER # 2 15. Ammonia gas liquefies at:
(A) -100oC (B) -186oC
(C) -169oC (D) -196oC
Hydrogen
16. Atomic hydrogen torch attains the temperature about
5000oC due to:
(A) Decomposition of molecules hydrogen
1. Hydrogen was discovered by: (B) Bond energy of hydrogen is very high
(A) Bohr (B) Henry Cavendish (C) Recombination of atomic hydrogen
(C) W. Crooks (D) Rutherford (D) None
2. The number of isotopes of hydrogen is: 17. Be & Mg forms ______ hydrides:
(A) 3 (B) 2 (A) Ionic (B) Covalent
(C) 1 (D) 5 (C) Polymeric (D) Border-line
3. Hydrogen & s-block elements are similar on the basis 18. s-block elements, except Be & Mg when combines with
of: hydrogen form:
(A) Same electronic configuration (A) Ionic (B) Covalent
(B) Both are non-metals (C) Polymeric (D) Border-line
(C) Both loses their valence electrons to halogens
(D) None of these 19. When hydrogen gas is passed over hot alkali metals
______ produced:
4. Both the hydrogen & IV-A group elements have: (A) Ionic hydrides (B) Covalent hydrides
(A) Half filledlast shell (B) Same state (C) Polymeric hydrides (D) Border-line hydrides
(C) Meting points (D) All
20. Thermal stability of ionic hydrides ______ with
5. H+1ion does not exist independently in aqueous increase in atomic mass:
solution due to: (A) Decreases (B) Decreases
(A) Hydration (B) Decomposition (C) Remains same (D) None
(C) Oxidation (D) None
21. CaH2 is used to produce:
6. Bond energy of H2 is: (A) Hydrogen gas (B) Oxygen gas
(A) 200k.cal/mole (B) 104k.Cal/mole (C) Chlorine gas (D) Calcium metal
(C) 104 k.J/mole (D) 5000 k.Cal/mole
22. _______ hydrides are used as reducing agents in
7. Atomic hydrogen is _____ reactive than molecular metallurgical process:
hydrogen. (A) Ionic (B) Covalent
(A) More (B) less (C) Polymeric (D) Border-line
(C) Both A & B (D) none
23. _______ hydrides are used as dehydrating agents for
8. Water gas is a mixture of: organic solvents:
(A) CO2& H2 (B) CO & H (A) Metallic (B) Covalent
(C) CO & H2 (D) O2& H2 (C) Polymeric (D) Ionic
9. On the basis of electronic configuration hydrogen 24. Oxidation state of hydrogen when it combines with
belongs to: metals of I-A & II-A group is:
(A) s-block (B) p-block (A) 1+ (B) 2+
(C) d-block (D) f-block (C) 1- (D) 2-
10. Both the hydrogen & halogen are: 25. Ionic hydrides are usually _______:
(A) Diatomic gases (B) Diatomic molecules (A) Liquids at room temperature
(C) Mono-atomic gases (D) Liquid (B) Good reducing agents
(C) Good electrical conductors in solid state
11. During the electrolysis of Water hydrogen & oxygen (D) Easily reduced
gases are obtained in the ratio:
(A) 1:2 (B) 2:3 26. When steam is passed over red hot coke at 1000oC, a
(C) 1:3 (D) 2:1 mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen gas is
produced. It is known as:
12. A mixture of steam and methane when passed over (A) Heavy water (B) Water gas
nickel catalyst at 900oC _____ is produced: (C) Phosgene gas (D) None
(A) CO2& H2O (B) CO & H
(C) CO & H2 (D) O2& H2 27. The most stable isotope of hydrogen is:
(A) Protium (B) Tritium
(C) Positron (D) Deuterium
44. The hydronium ion is a/an _______:
28. Be & Mg, when combines with hydrogen form______ (A) Ion with formula H2O+
hydrides: (B) Ion with the formula H3O+
(A) Metallic (B) covalent (C) Free radical rather than an ion
(C) Polymeric (D) ionic (D) Ion formed by removal of H-1 form a water
molecule
29. LiAlH4 is an example of _______ hydride:

(A) Metallic (B) Complex 45. Hydrogen differs from carbon family becuase:
(C) Polymeric (D) Ionic (A) It is gas
(B) It shows mono-valency
30. Complex hydrides are stable up to: (C) Its valnce shell onsists of s –orbital
(A) 100oC (B) 1000oC (D) All
o
(C) 300 C (D) 7000oC
46. Complex hydrides are formed by the combination of
31. Metallic hydrides are also called_______ hydrides: hydrides of:
(A) Interstitial (B) Non-stoichiometric (A) II-A & III-A (B) VII-A & I-A
(C) Both a & b (D) None (C) II-B & I-B (D) I-A & III-A
32. Metals of group II-B & III-B from_____ hydrides: 47. Which of the following is heavy water?
(A) border-line (B) Covalent (A) D2O2 (B) H2O2
(C) Polymeric (D) Ionic (C) D2O (D) T2O
33. ZnH2 is _______ hydride: 48. Hydrogen gas on reacting with carbon monoxide in the
(A) Metallic (B) Covalent presence of a catalyst produces:
(C) Polymeric (D) Border-line (A) C2H2O2 (B) CH3OH
(C) CO2& H2O (D) CH3CH2OH
34. Hydrides of III-A & IV-A groups are ______ in nature:
(A) Acidic (B) Basic 49. When hydrogen gas is passed over hot W 2O3 _____ is
(C) Neutral (D) None produced:
(A) W &H2O (B) W 3O2& D
35. Acidic Nature of VII-A group hydrides ______ down the (C) CO2 & W (D) None
group:
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains same (D) None 50. Which of the following reaction can produce hydrogen
gas?
(A) Zn + HCl (B) Na + H2O
36. Strongest acid among the following is:
(A) HF (B) HCl (C) CO2 + H2O (D) Both a & b
(C) HBr (D) HI
37. ZnH2, TlH2, CuH2 are _______ hydride:

(A) Metallic (B) Covalent
(C) Polymeric (D) Border-line
38. The existence of isotopes wad discovered by:

(A) Bohr (B) Chadwick
(C) Auf-Bau (D) J.J. Thomson
39. Radioactive isotope of hydrogen is:

(A) Protium (B) Deuterium
(C) Tritium (D) None
40. Which one of the following is also called heavy

hydrogen:
(A) Protium (B) Deuterium
(C) Tritium (D) None
41. In naturally occurring hydrogen, deuterium is present to

about:
(A) 99% (B) 0.00156%
(C) 33% (D) 0.0156%
42. Percentage of tritium in naturally occurring hydrogen is:

(A) 1.4×10-15% (B) 0.00156%
(C) 4×10-15% (D) 0.0156%
43. The Half life of tritium is:

(A) 12.5 yrs (B) 50 yrs
(C) 100 yrs (D) 4000 yrs
13. Among alkali metals the lowest atomic number
is of:
(A) Rb (B) K
(C) Sr (D) Li
14. Due to the high reactive nature of the alkali metals,

they are found in:
(A) Free in nature (B) Uncombined state
(C) Botha & b (D)All
CHAPTER # 3
15. Magnesium is an essential constituent of:
(A) Stomata (B) Plants roots
s-Block Elements (C) ChlorophyII (C) None
16. Which of the alkali earth metal has radioactive nature?

1. The elements in which the last electrons enter into s- (A) Be (B) Rb
orbitals are called: (C) Ca (D) Fr
(A) s-block elements (B) p-block elements
(C) d-block elements (D) f-block elements 17. Calcium Phosphate Ca3 (PO4) and calcium fluoride
CaF2 are essential part of living organisms:
2. Which ion will have the maximum value of heat of (A) Bones, egg shells (B) Teeth
hydration? (C) Sea-shells (D) All
(A) Na+ (B) Cs+
(C) Ba+2 (D) Mg+2 18. Dolomite is a compound of which elements?
(A) Be (B) Mg
3. Which one of the following is not an alkali metal (C) Ca (D) Ba
compound?
(A) Sodium sulphateB) Potassium sulphate 19. The melting point and boiling point of alkaline earth
(C) Zinc sulphate(D) Barium sulphate metal is highest for ______:
(A) Sr (B) Mg
4. The element cesium bears resemblance with: (C) Be (D) Na
(A) Ca (B) Cr
(C) Both a & b (D) None 20. The super oxides are formed by the elements.
(A) K, Rb, Cs (B) K, Na, Cs,
5. Chile saltpeter had the chemical formula (C) K, Li, Na (D) None of the above
(A) NaNO3 (B) KNO3
(C) Na2B4O7 (D) Na2CO3.10H2O 21. Potassium, rubidium and cesium are ________ that
they even react with ice:
6. The ore CaSO4.2H2O has the general name: (A) Moderate reactive (B) Highly reactive
(A) Gypsum (B) Dolomite (C) Soluble (D) Inert
(C) Calcite (D) Epsom salt
22. Among the alkaline earth metal which one has least
7. Down's cell is used to prepare: reactivity:
(A) Sodium carbonate (A) Ba (B) Cs
(B) Sodium bicarbonate (C) Li (D) Be
(C) Sodium metal
(D) Sodium hydroxide 23. Plaster of Paris is formed after heating______upto
100oC:
8. Which element is deposited at the cathode during the (A) Mg(NO3)2 (B) CaSO4, 2H2O
electrolysis of brine in Nelson's cell? (C) NaNO2 (D) LiNO3
(A) H2 (B) Na
(C) CI2 (D) O2 25. The meting point of Sodium metal is:
(A) 1500oC (B) 1000oC
9. Ionic radius of potassium is: (C) 98oC (D) 196oC
(A) 60 pm (B) 133 pm
(C) 99 pm (D) 169 pm 26. Which alkali metal behaves different by from others?
(A) Mg B(B) Na
10. Among alkaline earth metals, the highest heat (C) Rb (D) Li
of hydration is of:
(A) Be (B) Sr 28. Sodium is prepared by the electrolysis of:
(C) Rb (D) Cs (A) Aqueous solution ofNaCI in Down’s cell
(B) Molten NaCI in Down’s cell
12. The chemical formula of potash alum: (C) Molten sodium hydroxide in down's cell
(A) KCI. MgCI2. 6H2O (D) None
(B) KCI
(C) Na2B4O7. 10H2O 30. The s-block elements which are very abundant in earth
(D) K2SO4Al2(SO4)3. 24H2O crust are__________:
(A) Si & Al (B) Ca & Mg
(C) Na& K (D) All
31. The oxides of Na are ___________: 48. Except lithium, the hydroxides of all alkali metals are:
(A) Acidic (B) Basic (A) Strongly acidic (B) Strongly basic
(C) Amphoteric (D) None (C) Weakly basic (D) All
32. Sodium chloride is also called: 49. The carbonates and phosphates of which elements are
(A) Rock salt (B) Table salt generally insoluble in water
(B) Common salt (D) All of them (A) Na and K (B) Na and Be
(C) Ca and Mg (D) All of these
33. Which one of the following is not an alkali metal? 50. All alkaline earth metals react with water at room
(A) Francium (B) Cesium temperature to release hydrogen and give basic
(C) Rubidium (D) Radium solutions except:
(A) Be and Ca (B) Be and Mg
34. Which of the following is used as food preservative? (C) Ca and Mg (D) None
(A) CuSO4 (B) NaF 51. Lithium only forms normal oxides when burnt on air but
(C) NaCl (D) CaSO4 when sodium burnt in air it forms:
(A) Normal oxides (B) Sub oxides
35. The CaSO4.2H2O has the general name____: (C) Peroxides (D) Super oxides
(A) Gypsum (B) Dolomite
(C) Sodium metal (D) Sodium hydroxide 52. The super oxides of alkali metals are generally
represented by:
37. The deliquescence is a process in which a (A) M2O (B) M2O2
solid________: (C) MO2 (D) M2O3
(A) Absorbs moisture and remains solid
(B) Absorbs moisture and turns to solution 53. The nitrates of which group decompose on heating
(C) Loses water of crystallization with the formation of nitrites and evolution of oxygen
(D) Increases the number of water of crystallization (A) I-A (B) II-A
(C) III-A (D) IV-A
38. Hardness of water can be removed by adding ___ into
hard water: 54. A small amount of calcium chloride is added to NaCI in
(A) NaOH (B) CaCO3 Down’s cell:
(C) Na (D) Na2CO3 (A) To make it good conductor
(B) To decrease the m.p of NaCI
39. Inter-atomic bonds in s-block elements are: (C) To increase the Density of NaCI
(A) Ionic (B) Covalent (D) To decrease the ionization of NaCI
(C) Metallic (D) Co-ordinate covalent
55. Liquid sodium in the Down’s cell is collected at a
40. Sea water contains the NaCl: temperature of:
(A) 23% (B) 10% (A) 700oC (B) 600oC
(C) 24% (D) 3% (C) 500oC (D) 400oC
42. Na2SiO3 is called: 56. The product, which is obtained at cathode in the
(A) Soda glass (B) Pyrex Down’s cell is_____?
(C) Both a & b (D) Jenna (A) Liquid Sodium (B) Dry chlorine
(C) Water (D) Hydrogen
43. Which one of the following is dolomite?
(A) MgCO3 (B) MgCO3.CaCO3 57. Which is manufactured by the electrolysis of fused
(C) CaCO3 (D) BaSO4 sodium chloride?
(A) NaOH (B) NaHCO3
44. The high electrical conductivity of alkali metals is due (C) Na (D) Na2CO3
to the_______:
(A) Free motion of valence electrons 58. Which of the following does not conduct electricity?
(B) High I.P (A) C (B) Gallium
(C) Lesser atomic radii (C) Indium (D) Thallium
(D) None
59. Which alkali metal is rarest in nature?
45. Sodium imparts ________ color to Bunsen flame: (A) Li (B) Na
(A) Green (B) Blue (C) K (D) Fr
(C) Pink (D) Yellow
60. The ingredient of baking powder is
46. Alkaline earth metal that is different form other with (A) NaHCO3 (B) NaOH
respect of it properties: (C) Na2CO3 (D) NaCl
(A) Mg (B) Ca
(C) Be (D) Sr 61. The formula of plaster of Paris is.
(A) CaSO4 (B) CaSO4.H2O
47. Metals, which are highly reactive with water than (C) CaSO4.2H2O (D) 2CaSO4.H2O
others are:
(A) Alkaline earth metals 62. Which of the following is fluorspar?
(B) Coinage metals (A) CaO (B) CaCO3
(C) Alkali metals (C) CaF2 (D) NaF
(D) Both b & c
63. Potassium& sodium are kept in: 80. In potassium super oxide (KO2) the oxidation state of
(A) Water (B) Alcohol oxygen is:
(C) Ammonia (D) Kerosene oil (A) 2- (B) 1-
(C) ½ - (D) 2+
64. Which one has highestm.p?
(A) NaCl (B) NaBr 81. The hydroxide, which is called milk of magnesia and is
(C) Nal (D) NaF used for treatment of acidity in stomach, is
(A) Ca(OH)2 (B) Mg(OH)2
65. Which one of the following is more basic than others? (C) Sr(OH)2 (D) Ba(OH)2
(A) Al2O3 (B) SiO2
(C) P2O5 (D) MgO 82. Mg+2 is smaller the Na+1 because
(A) Mg+2 has fewer electron than Na+1
66. Gypsum is_______: (B) Mg+2 has greater electron than Na+1
(A) CaSO4.2H2O (B) CaSO4.H2O (C) Mg+2 has greater atomic number than Na+1
(C) CaSO4 (D) MgSO4 (D) Mg+2 has low I.P than Na+1
67. Which one is commonly called as a caustic potash?
(A) K2CO3 (B) KCl
(C) CaCl2 (D) KOH 83. Which of the following has almost same
electronegativity?
68. The radioactive alkaline earth metal is: (A) Be, B (B) B, Al
(A) Be (B) Mg (C) Be, Al (D) K, Na
(C) Ra (D) Ba
84. Anhydrous sodium carbonate is also called:
69. Which one of the following elements has its (A) Caustic soda (B) Soda ash
compounds which are diamagnetic and colourless? (C) Quick lime (D) Baking soda
(A) Be (B) Sr
(C) Na (D) All 85. Chemically whiterite is:
(A) CaSO4 (B) BaCO3
70. In sea water NaCl is present up to ____%: (C) Sr(OH)2 (D) Ba(OH)2
(A) 23 (B) 11
(C) 40 (D) 3 86. Out of all elements of group I-A, the highest heat of
hydration is for _______:
71. Rock salt is another name for_____: (A) K (B) Rb
(A) NaCl (B) NaBr (C) Cs (D) Li
(C) Nal (D) NaF
87. The nitride ion in lithium nitride is composed of
72. K can displace Na from NaCl due to: (A) 7 protons and 10 electrons
(A) Greater I.P of K (B) 10 protons and 7 electrons
(B) Greater I.P of Na (C) 10 protons and 10 electrons
(C) Highelectropositivity of K (D) 10 protons and 5 electrons
(D) Highelectropositivity of Na
88. Melting & boiling points in I-A group ___ down the
73. The alkali metal, which is artificially prepared: group:
(A) Na (B) Rb (A) Decreases (B) Increases
(C) Fr (D) Cs (C) Remain same (D) None
74. The chemicals used for the production of CO2 in the 89. Sodium metal can be stored under
fire extinguishers is ______: (A) Sand (B) Kerosene
(A) NaOH (C) Alcohol (D) Water
(B) NaCl
(C) NaHCO3 and dilute acid 90. Chile saltpeter is:
(D) NaHCO3 and NaOH (A) NaNO2 (B) KNO2
(C) NaNO3 (D) KNO3
75. LiCl is more soluble in organic solvents than NaCl
because 91. Alkali metals when heated with hydrogen gas _____
(A) Li+1 has higher heat of hydration than Na+ isproduced?
(B) Li+1 has lower heat of hydration than Na+ (A) Covalent hydrides (B) Metallic hydrides
(C) LiCl is more covalent than NaCl (C) Border-line hydrides (D) Ionic hydrides
(D) Lattice energy of NaCl is less than that of LiCl
92. In general alkali metals act as ________:
78. Which one is the compound of alkali metal? (A) Reducing agents
(A) Marble (B) Gypsum (B) Oxidizing agents
(C) Epsom salt (D) Baking soda (C) Both reducing and oxidizing agents
(D) None
79. Plaster of Paris is also called:
(A) Calcium sulphate 93. Sodium is not observed in + 2 oxidation state because
(B) Quick lime of its ______:
(C) Slaked lime (A) High first ionization potential
(D) Calcium sulphate hemihydrate (B) High second ionization potential
(C) High ionic radius
(D) High electronegativity
𝐻𝐸𝐴𝑇
(A) 𝐶𝑎𝑂 + 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙 → 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 𝑁𝐻3
94. The metallic luster of sodium is explained by the 𝐻𝐸𝐴𝑇
presence of _______: (B) 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 + 2𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙 → 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2 + 2𝑁𝐻3 + 2𝐻2 𝑂
(A) Na+ ions 𝐻𝐸𝐴𝑇
(C) 𝐶𝑎𝑂 + 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙 → 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 4𝑁𝐻3
(B) Conduction electrons 𝐻𝐸𝐴𝑇
(C) Free protons (D) 𝐶𝑎𝑂 + 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙 + 2𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 𝑁𝐻3+𝐶𝑙2
(D) A body centered cubic lattice
107. In ammonia Solvay process CO2 is obtained:
95. In the alkali metal series, Cesium is the most reactive (A) By the thermal decomposition of lime stone
metal because _______ (B) By treating CaCO3with HCl
(A) Its incomplete shell is nearest to nucleus (C) From plant
(B) The valence electron has a larger orbit than the (D) None
orbit of the valence electron of any of the other
(C) It exerts considerable force on the valence 108. Mg melts at:
electrons (A) 650oC (B) 750oC
(D) It is a heavier metal (C) 850oC (D) 950oC
96. A graphite anode is used in Down’s cell for the

production of sodium because ______: 109. Electronegativity of Mg is:
(A) It does not react with sodium (A) 1.2 (B) 1.3
(B) It does not react with chlorine (C) 1.4 (D) 1.5
(C) It is easy to fashion in circular form
(D) It floats on the fused sodium chloride 110. Which trio has less density than water?
(A) Be, Mg, Ca (B) Fe, Cu, Ni
97. Alkaline earth metals form _____ on heating with (C) Li, Na, Hg (D) Li, Na, K
carbon:
(A) Carbides (B) No reaction 111. Alkali metals have:
(C) Both a & d (D) Metals will reduce (A) Body centered cubic structure
(B) Face centered cubic structure
98. When burnt in air, Lithium forms _______: (C) Hexagonal structure
(A) Normal oxide (B) Peroxide (D) None
(C) Super oxide (D) None
112. Which couple has exceptionally high negative
99. Sodium bicarbonate is commonly called: electrode potential value?
(A) Soda ash (B) Baking soda (A) Li+1/Li (B) Be+2/Be
(C) Caustic soda (D) None (C) Na+1/Na (D) K+1/K
100. _______ is a stronger base than others:

(A) NaOH (B) KOH
(C) LiOH (D) HCl
101. NaOH reacts with NH4Cl to form:

(A) NH3 (B) H2
(C) O2 (D) None
102. Which of the following represents calcium chlorite?

(A) CaClO2 (B) Ca(ClO4)2
(C) Ca(ClO3)2 (D) Ca(ClO2)2
103. Sodium hydroxide when reacts with CO2, then which of

the following is expected product:
(A) Na2CO3 (B) NaHCO3
(C) Na2C2O3 (D) None
104. Sodium reacts with water more vigorously than lithium

because it:
(A) Has higher atomic weight
(B) Is more electronegative
(C) Is more electropositive
(D) Is a metal
105. Plaster of Paris hardens by:

(A) Giving off CO2
(B) Changing into CaCO3
(C) Uniting with water
(D) Giving out water
106. Which of the following reaction shows the recovery of

ammonia in Solvay process?
(B) Small size and higher nuclear charge
(C) Small size and smaller nuclear charge
(D) None of the above
11. The increase in the atomic size in group is:

(A) Regular (B) Irregular
(C) Both (D) None of the above
12. Orthoboricacid is a mineral of:

(A) Aluminum (B) Silicon
(C) Calicium (D) Boron
13. Aluminum is the third most abundant elements

in earth crust after:
(A) Oxygen (B) Silicon
(C) None of the above (D) Both of the Both
14. Bauxite is an ore of:

(A) Aluminum (B) Boron
(C) Carbon (D) Gallium
15. p-block contains only one liquid element:
CHAPTER # 4 (A) Bromine (B) Chlorine
(C) Carbon (D) Mercury
p-block elements 16. Borax is the ______ salt of tetraboric acid:
(A) Sodium (B) Calcium
1. Which metal is used in the thermite process? (C) Potassium (D) Aluminium
(A) Iron (B) Copper
(C) Aluminum (D) Zinc 17. Borax is also called:
(A) Tincal (B) Chile saltpeter
2. Aluminum oxide is: (C) Pyro boric acid (D) Pyrex
(A) Acidic oxide (B) Basic oxide
(C) Amphoteric oxide (D) None 18. Group IV-A of the periodic table comprises elements:
(A) Carbon silicon
3. Chemical composition of colemnite is. (B) Tin, carbon, silicon
(A) Ca2B6O11.5H2O (B) CaB4O7. 4H2O (C) Carbon, silicon, tin and lead
(C) Na2B4O7.4H2O (D) CaNaB5O9. 8H2O (D) None of the above
4. Which element forms an ion with charge 3+? 19. The non-metals in Group IV- A are.
(A) Beryllium (B) Aluminum (A) Carbon, silicon (B) Tin and Lead
(C) Carbon (D) Silicon (C) All of the above (D) None of the above
5. Which of the following belongs to group IV-A of the 20. The elements of Group IV-A are characterized by a set
periodictable? of:
(A) Barium (B) Iodine (A) Three valence shell electrons
(C) Lead (D) Oxygen (B) Four valence shell electrons
(C) Five valence shell electrons
6. Boric acid cannot be used: (D) Two valence shell electrons
(A) As antiseptic in medicine
(B) For washing eyes 21. Group IV-A elements have valence electrons:
(C) In soda bottles (A) 1 (B) 2
(D) For enamels and glazes (C) 3 (D) 4
7. Which of the following elements is not present 22. The property of catenation:
abundantly in earth's crust? (A) Increase on moving down the group form carbon
(A) Silicon (B) Aluminum to lead
(C) Sodium (D) C (B) Decrease on moving down the group from lead to
carbon
8. The chief ore of aluminum is: (C) Decreases on moving down the group from carbon
(A) Na3AIF6 (B) Al2O3.nH2O to lead
(C) Al2O3 (D) Al2O3.H2O (D) Stable on moving down the group from carbon to
lead
9. The Group III-A of the periodic table comprises
the elements. 23. The oxides of carbon are:
(A) Boron, aluminum, gallium, indium and thallium. (A) CO and CO2
(B) Boron gallium, thallium (B) CO, CO2 and C3O2
(C) Aluminum, calcium, strontium (C) CO, CO2, C2O3
(D) All of the above (D) None of the above
10. Boron is non-metallic because of: 24. Boric acid on heating at 100oC gives:
(A) Large size and higher nuclear change (A) Pyroboric acid(B) Boric oxides
(C) Metaboric acid (D) All (A) One volume of ammonia with one volume of air is
taken
25. Various oxides are used as pigments: (B) Two volumes of ammonia with three volume of air
(A) Oxides of lead, basic lead carbonate etc is taken
(B) Various oxides of lead (C) One volume of ammonia with eight volumes of air
(C) Various oxides of lead, basic lead carbonate, lead is taken
chromate (D) All
(D) Oxides of aluminum
40. In p – block elements, the highest electronegative
26. Borax is used: elements is:
(A) Flux in soldering and welding (A) C (B) F
(B) Manufacturepyrex&jena glass (C) N (D) O
(C) As stiffening agent in candle wicks
(D) All of the above 41. In p – block elements metallic properties decreases
from:
27. Earth crust contains the aluminum up to:. (A) Top to bottom (B) Left to right
(A) 0.5% (B) 20% (C) Right to left (D) All of them
(C) 7.3% (D) 3.7%
42. Boron does not easily form cations, because it has the
tendency to form bond like non-metals:
(A) Ionic bond (B) Metallic bond
28. Cryolite is fluoride ore of aluminum. Chemically it is: (C) Hydrogen bond (D) Covalent bond
(A) Na3AIF6 (B) Al2O3.nH2O 43. Boron is metalloid and semiconductor like
(C) Al2O3 (D) Al2O3.H2O (A) Be (B) K
29. The existence of an element in more than on form is (C) Si (D) Al
called _____? 44. Electron population of boron is ___ than aluminium:
(A) Isotopy (B) Alltoropy (A) More (B) Less
(C) Anistropy (D) All (C) Equal (D) All of them
o
30. Diamond & graphite are _______ allotrophs: 45. The layers of boric acid are separated by ___ A :
o o
(A) Amorphous (B) Crystalline (A) 3 A (B) 3.18 A
(C) Gases (D) Liquid o o
(C) 2.25 A (D) 109.5 A
31. Pure diamond is _______ to X-rays:
(A) Transparent (B) Translucent 46. The layers of boric acid are held together by:
(C) Opaque (D) All (A) Covalent bonds (B) Hydrogen bonds
(C) Ionic bonds (D) Vander Waal’s forces
32. Rrefractive index of diamond is?
(A) 2.45 (B) 2.1 47. Which of the following is pyroboric acid:
(C) 2.41 (D) 2.3 (A) NaOH (B) H3BO3
(C) Na2B4O7.10H2O (D) H2B4O7
33. The metal which is used in thermite process because
of its activity is_______ 48. Orthoboric acid is weak acid because it
(A) Iron (B) Copper a) Accepts OH-1 ion b) Donate OH-1 ion
(C) Aluminium (D) Zinc c) Accept H+1 d) Donate H+1
34. Which of the following shows the property of allotropy? 49. The aqueous solution of which acid is used for washing
(A) S (B) C eyes?
(C) P (D) All of them a) H2B4O7 b) HCl
c) H3BO3 d) HBO2
35. Tincal is a mineral of____________
(A) Al (B) Si 50. The process in which Bauxite is purified by dissolving it
(C) B (D) C in 45% aqueous NaOHto separate insoluble iron oxide
as impurity:
36. Graphite conducts electricity: (A) Hall’s process (B) Baeyer’s process
(A) Because it is metal (C) Arrhenius process (D) Grignard process
(B) Because of presence of free electrons
(C) Because it ionizes in aqueous solution 51. Bauxite is an oxide mineral of:
(D) All of them (A) Cu (B) Ag
(C) Al (D) Zn
37. Only gaseous element of VI-A group is:
(A) C (B) H2 52. AlCl3is covalent when anhydrous because:
(C) N2 (D) O2 (A) Al belongs to group III-A
(B) Al+3 ion has small size and high charge density
38. Nitric acid is prepared on large scale by: (C) Al has high I.P
(A) Castner-Kellner’s process (D) None of these
(B) Gibbs Diaphragm process
(C) Contact process 53. In the electrolysis of alumina, it is mixed with Cryolite
(D) Ostwald’s process (Na3AlF6) and fluorspar (CaF2). The function of the
Cryolite and fluorspar is:
39. In the preparation of nitric acid:
(A) To decrease the fusion temperature of alumina
and to increases its fluidity 68. Ortho boric acid on heating at 100oC yields
(B) To dissolve alumina (A) Meta boric acid
(C) To dissolve sodium (B) Pyroboric acid
(D) To increase the ionization of alumina (C) Tetra boric acid
(D) Boric anhydride acid (B2O3)
54. Termite is a mixture of:
(A) Iron oxide and aluminum 69. Which of the following is used in pickling of steel?
(B) Iron oxide and copper (A) MgBr2 (B) NaCl
(C) Copper oxide and aluminum (C) AgBr (D) H2SO4
(D) None of these
70. Aluminum does not react with HNO 3 at any
55. In aluminum termite process, aluminum acts as a: concentration and therefore HNO3 is transported in
(A) Reducing agent (B) Oxidizing agent aluminum containers, this is due to formation of
(C) A flux (D) None of these protective layer of
(A) Cupric oxide (B) Ferric oxide
56. Which aluminum alloy is extremely light? (C) Aluminum oxide (D) Aluminum nitride
(A) Duralumin (B) Aluminium bronze
(C) Magnalium (D) None 71. Action of aqua regia on noble metals is due to:
(A) HNO3 (B) HCl
57. The melting point of aluminum is: (C) H2SO4 (D) atomic chlorine
(A) 1800oC (B) 658oC
o o
(C) 98 C (D) 196 C 72. Phosgene is a poisonous gas, its chemical name is
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Phosphonyl chloride
58. Ammonal is a mixture of: (C) Carbon monoxide (D) Carbonyl chloride
(A) Hot conc:HCl& AlCl3 73. Sodium benzene dodecyl sulphate is an active
(B) Powdered Al & aluminum nitrate ingredient of ___?
(C) Hot conc: HNO3& Al (A) Shampoo (B) Dish washing soap
(D) A mixture of conc:HCl and con HNO3 (C) Drain openers (D) Detergents
59. Platinum metal can be dissolved in: 74. Fuming sulphuric acid contains:
(A) Hot conc:HCl (A) 20% SO3 (B) 10%CO2
(B) Hot conc: H2SO4 (C) 30% of CO (D) None of these
(C) Hot conc: HNO3
(D) A mixture of Con. HCl and conc: HNO3 75. If a metal is protected by an oxide layer from further
attack, the metal is said to be:
60. Mixture of HNO3&HCl in 1:3 by volume is called: a) Reactive b) Active
(A) Royal water (B) Aqua-Regia c) Passive d) Attractive
(C) Both a & b (D) All of them
76. Carbon reacts with metals to form:
61. The weak acid of the following is: (A) Hydrides (B) Oxides
(A) HCl (B) H2SO4 (C) Hydroxides (D) Carbide
(C) H3BO3 (D) All of these
77. In laboratory hydrogen sulphide gas is prepared in ___:
62. Black diamond is also called: (A) Volumetric flask (B) Kipp’s apparatus
a) Bort b) Carbonado (C) Test tubes (D) Round bottom flask
c) Both a & b d) None of these
78. Chemically laughing gas is:
63. Aqua regia is a mixture of concentrated HNO 3 and (A)SO3 (B) N2O
concentrated HCl in the ratio of: (C) NO2 (D) None of these
(A) 3: 1 (B) 1: 3
(C) 2: 3 (D) 3: 2 79. Litharge is chemically:
(A) PbO (B) PbO2
64. Dynamite is prepared by absorbing nitro glycerin in to: (C) Pb3O4 (D) Pb(CH3COO)2
(A) Royal water (B) Water
(C) Plaster of Paris (D) Kieselguhr 80. The Octet rule is not followed by:
(A) Boron in BCl3 (B) Oxygen in H2O
65. The dry ice is a compound of: (C) Nitrogen in NH3 (D) Phosphorus in PH3
(A) Solid ice with some water of crystallization
(B) Solid SO2 81. Which of the following elements show oxidation stateof
(C) Solid CO2 3+ only?
(D) Solid C6H6 (A) Al (B) O
(C) Na (D) C
66. In the contact process for the manufacturing of H2SO4,
the catalyst used is 82. ______ of the following is not metallic in nature:
(A) CuSO4 (B) NiCl2 (A) Boron (B) Aluminum
(C) Fe (D) V2O5 (C) Indium (D) Thallium
67. In Contact process ____ % of SO3is obtained: 83. The oxides of Boron are ______ in nature.
(A) 80% (B) 6.9% (A) Acidic (B) Basic
(C) 99% (D) 98% (C) Neutral (D) None of these
97. Aluminum is diagonally related to
84. Orthoboric acid on heating to about 100oC loses a (A) Li (B) Si
water molecule to form ______ (C) Be (D) B
(A) Metaboric acid
(B) Pyroboric acid 98. Which of the following exists as monoatomic
(C) Metaboric and pyroboric acid molecules?
(D) None of these (A) Li (B) Si
(C) He (D) B
85. The function of Fluorspar in the electrolytic reduction of
alumina dissolved in fused cryolite (NA3 AlF6) is: 99. In which of the following phosphorus has an oxidation
(A) As a catalyst state of + 4?
(B) To lower the temperature of the melt and to make a) P4O6 b) P4O8
the fused mixture conducting c) P4O9 d) None of these
(C) To decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon
(D) None of the above 100. Out of all the elements of group V-A the highest
ionization energy is possessed by:
86. Which of the following statements is correct? (A) N (B) P
(A) H3PO3 is dibasic and reducing (C) Sb (D) Bi
(B) H3PO3 is tribasic and reducing
(C) H3PO3 is tribasic and non – reducing 102. In group V-A elements the most electronegative
(D) H3PO3 is dibasic and non – reducing elements is:
87. Boric acid is: (A) Sb (B) N
(A) Weak monobasic Lewis acid (C) P (D) As
(B) Only weak monobasic Arrhenius acid
(C) Only weak monobasic Bronsted acid 103. Oxidation of NO in air produced:
(D) Only weak tribasic Arrhenius acid (A) NO2 (B) N2O3
88. The reduction of metal oxides is sometimes (C) N2O4 (D) N2O5
accomplished by using aluminum is called: 104. The brown gas is formed when metal reduces HNO3:
(A) Thermite process (A) N2O5 (B) N2O
(B) Ammonia Solvayprocess (C) NO2 (D) NO
(C) Both a & b
(D) None 105. Laughing gas is chemically:
(A) NO (B) N2O
89. Hall’s process is used to purify _____ from impurities: (C) NO2 (D) N2O4
(A) Alumina (B) Gypsum
(C) Borax (D) Bauxite 106. Out of all the elements of group IV-A the highest
melting and boiling point is shown by the elements:
90. _______ is a better conductor of heat: (A) C (B) Se
(A) Fe (B) Sn (C) S (D) Pb
(C) Al (D) None of these
107. SO3 is not absorbed in water directly to form
91. Potash alum is double sulphate of ____ & ____: H2SO4because:
_______ (A) The reaction does not go to completion
(A) Na & Al (B) K & Al (B) The reaction is quite slow
(C) K & Cr (D) Na& NH4+1 (C) The reaction is exothermic
(D) SO3 is insoluble in water
92. In the commercial electrochemical process for
aluminum extraction, the electrolyte used is: 108. Which catalyst is used in contact process?
(A) Al(OH)3 inNaOH solution (A) Fe2O3 (B) V2O5
(B) An aqueous solution of Al2(SO4)3 (C) SO3 (D) Ag2O
(C) A molten mixture of Al2O3 and Na3AlF6
(D) A molten mixture of Al and Al(OH)3 109. Which of the following specie has the maximum
number of unpaired electrons?
93. Borax is prepared by treating colemanite with: (A) O2 (B) O2+
(A) NaNO3 (B) NaCl (C) O2- (D) O2-2
(C) NaHCO3 (D) Na2CO3
110. Nitrogen and phosphorus of group V-A show the
94. Elements, which exist in two or more physical or typical properties of:
molecular forms, are called _______: (A) Metals (B) Non-Metals
(A) Isotopes (B) Allotropes (C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
(C) Isobars (D) None of these
111. Arsenic and antimony are
95. Antidote for hydrogen sulphide poisoning is: (A) Metals (B) Non-Metal
(A) Aluminum oxide (B) Dilute chlorine (C) Metalloids (D) None of the above
(C) Caustic soda (D) None of these
112. The common valencies of the group V-A elements are
96. The temperature at which the two crystalline forms of a (A) Two to three (B) Three and five
same substance co-exist at equilibrium is called: (C) One and five (D) Two and four
(A) Absolute zero (B) Transition temperature
(C) Low temperature (D) None of these 113. Nitrogen is present in free state in air as a major
constituent about.
(A) 58% (B) 38% (C) Carbon (D) Bismuth
(C) 70% (D) 78%
127. Chlorine when dissolve in water undergoes:
114. Common oxides of nitrogen are: (A) Oxidation (B) Reduction
(A) N2O, NO and NO2 (C) Both a & b (D) None
(B) NO, NO2
(C) N2O, NO2 128. Which of the following does not contain phosphorus?
(D) N2O, NO, NO2, N2O3& N2O5 (A) Yolk of egg (B) Bone
(C) Nerves (D) Steel
115. Di-Nitrogen oxide is a colourless gas:
(A) With a faint pleasant smell and a sweetish taste. 129. Which of the following elements can follow extended
(B) With unpleasant smell and bitter taste. octet rule?
(C) With pleasant smell and bitter taste. (A) P (B) C
(D) With unpleasant smell and sweetish (C) B (D) N
116. Nitric acid is used for: 130. Hypochlorous acid is:

(A) Making varnishes and Organic dyes (A) HCl (B) COCl2
(B) For making organic dyes (C) HOCl (D) CHCl3
(C) Making varnishes
(D) For making varnishes, organic dyes, explosives 131. Which one of the following compounds smells
nitrogen fertilizers etc. like rotten eggs?
(A) HCl (B) H2
117. Allotropes of sulphur are of: (C) HNO3 (D) H2S
(A) Three types (B) Four types
(C) Two types (D) Six different types 132. All the elements in group VIII-A are_____:
(A) Metals (B) Electron pair acceptor
(C) Inert gases (D) All
118. In combined state nitrogen is found in all livingmatter

including: 133. Sulphuric acid is a strong acid and its basicity
(A) Animals and plants as proteins urea and amino is_______:
acids. (A) 1 (B) 2
(B) In plants only (C) 3 (D) 4
(C) In animals only
(D) None of the above 134. The nitrogen gas present in air is:
(A) 21% (B) 7.8%
119. All the elements of group VI-A are non-metals except. (C) 30% (D) 78%
(A) S (sulphur) (B) O (oxygen)
(C) Po (polonium) (D) Te (tellurium) 135. The properties of Nitrogen are different from other
members of its group due to:
120. In group VI-A the radioactive metal is: (A) Small atomic size and high E.N
(A) Te (tellurium) (B) O (oxygen) (B) Double screening shell
(C) N (nitrogen) (D) None (C) Presence of d – orbital in the valence shell
(D) All of these
121. Oxygen has allotropic forms:
(A) Three (B) Four 136. Nitrogen can not as a central metal atom in a complex
(C) Two (D) Five because it can not:
(A) Donate electrons (B) Accepts electron pairs
122. Oxygen in air comprises about: (C) Form an ion (D) All
(A) 30% (B) 21%
(C) 10% (D) 50% 137. Which oxides exists in solid state?
(A) CO (B) PbO
123. In the atmosphere the free oxygen occursabout: (C) CO2 (D) NO
(A) 1/3 of the atmospheric air
(B) 1/2 of the atmospheric air 138. The only element of VII-A group is liquid is:
(C) 1/4 of the atmospheric air (A) C (B) Br
(D) 2/3 of the atmospheric air (C) O2 (D) N
124. Boiling point & viscosity of sulphuric acid is high due to: 139. Nitric oxide is made passive when treated with:
(A) Ionic bonds (B) Hydrogen bonding (A) CO (B) Pb
(C) Covalent bond (D) Vander Waals forces (C) Al (D) Mg
125. Sulphur exist as: 140. Mixture of HNO3 and NO2 is called:
(A) Free and combined state (A) Conc: HNO3 (B) Dil: HNO3
(B) Only in free state (C) Fuming HNO3 (D) HNO3
(C) Combined state
(D) None of the above 141. Which one of the following is used for cutting glass?
(A) Iron (B) Lead
126. Which of the following possesses melting point below (C) Diamond (D) Copper
0˚C?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Phosphorus 142. Chlorine on addition with SO2 gives:
(A) SO2Cl (B) SO2Cl2
(C) SO2Cl3 (D) SO2Cl4 157. Heating the potash alum at 200oCproduces:
(A) Al2O3 (B) K2SO4
143. In diamond each carbon is further attachedcovalently (C) Alum melts (D) Loses all of it water of
with ____ carbon atoms? crystallization
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4 158. Dutch process is used to produce:
(A) White lead pigment (B) Red lead pigment
144. Yellow lead monoxide is also called: (C) Both a & b (D) Chrome yellow pigment
(A) Massicot (B) Litharge
(B) Murda-Sang (D) None 159. On industrial scale Nitric acid is prepared by _______:
(A) Dutch Process
145. Which of the following is monobasic acid? (B) Ostwald’s process
(A) H2SO4 (B)HCl (C) Solvay’s Process
(C) H3PO4 (D)None (D) Down’s Process
146. The acid which on treating with caustic soda forms 160. In Ostwald’s Process the substance used to oxidize
Borax is: ammonia is ______:
(A) H2SO4 (B) H3BO3 (A) Zn (B) Pt
(C) H3PO4 (D) HNO3 (C) CO (D) None of these
147. The catalyst used in Ostwald’s method is: 161. Copper reacts with dilute nitric acid to form:
(A) Fe (B) Ni (A) Nitric oxide (B) Nitrogen peroxide
(C) V2O5 (D) Pt (C) Nitrous Oxide (D) None of these
148. The structure of H2SO4 is: 162. By _______ process the H2SO4 produced is pure and
(A) Trigonal (B) Octahedral can be produced of any desired strength:
(C) Tetrahedral (D) Hexagonal (A) Lead Chamber Process
(B) Contact Process
(C) Down’s Cell
149. Which pair does not produce H2 gas? (D) None of these
(A) Cu and Con HNO3 163. Concentrated sulphuric acid acts as a ______:
(B) C2H5OH and Na metal (A) Reducing agent (B) Oxidizing agent
(C) Mg and steam (C) Dehydrating agent (D) Both b & c
(D) Phenol and sodium metal
164. In group VI-A highest electronegativity is for:
150. Which of the following statement is correct? (A) S (B) O
(A) All allotropic form of sulphur are good conductors (C) Pb (D) Se
(B) The bond dissociation energy of HCl is higher than
HF 165. Rhombic sulphur consists of _______:
(C) Sulphur is soluble in CS2& H2O (A) S8 chain (B) S2 chains
(D) HF is weak acid than HCl (B) S4 rings (D) S8 rings
151. The oxidation number of N in HNO3 is: 166. Stibnite when treated with hydrochloric acid produces:
(A) 1+ (B) 2+ (A) H2S (B) H2O
(C) 3- (D) 5+ (C) V2O5 (D) SnO
152. The degree of oxidation of nitric acid depends upon: 167. Most stable allotropic form of sulphur at ordinary
(A) Concentration of acid conditions is:
(B) Nature element to which it reacts _______
(C) Both a & b (A) Monoclinic sulphur (B) Rhombic sulphur
(D) None (B) Hexagonal sulphur (D) Metallic sulphur
153. Monoclinic sulphur is stable between: 168. Oil of vitriol is another name for?
(A) 95.5oC -119.25oC (B) 195.5oC -219.25oC (A) H2S (B) H2O
(C) 100oC -119.25oC (D) 9.5oC -119.25oC (C) H2SO4 (D) Paraffin oil
154. Monoclinic sulphur turns to rhombic sulphur below ___: 169. Duralumin is used to make aeoroplanes. Its
(A) 95.5oC (B) 0oC composition is:
(C) 25oC (D) 9.5oC (A) 95% Al, 4% Cu, 0.5%Mg, 0.5% Ni
(B) 10% Al, 90 Cu
155. Which is most stable Allotrope of sulphur? (C) 9% Al, 4% Cu, 0.5%Mg, 0.5% Ni
(A) Plastic sulphur (B) Monoclinic sulphur (D) None
(C) Rhombic sulphur (D) Colloidal sulphur
170. Which of the following statement best explains that
156. Consider water is liquid while hydride of sulphur is gas?
(A) Water is ionic compound
PbO + O2  Product
450o C
(B) Weak Vander forces exists between water
The product formed is: molecules
(A) Pb2O3 (B) Pb3O4 (C) Inter molecular hydrogen bonds exist between
(C) Pb5O4 (D) Pb2O4 water molecules
(D) All are correct
185. Which statement is correct about halogens?
171. Oleum is formed by combining H2SO4 with: (A) They are all diatomic and form univalentions
(A) SO2 (B) SO3 (B) They are all capable of exhibiting several oxidation
(C) S (D) H2S states
(C) They are all diatomic and form divalent ion
172. Which is the most volatile compound? (D) They can mutually displace each other from the
(A) HI (B) HCI solution of their compounds withmetals
(C) HBr (D) HF
186. Which one of the following can attack the glass?
173. Iodine deficiency in diet is known to cause: (A) H2SO4 (B) HF
(A) Beriberi (B) Goitre (C) HNO3 (D) K2Cr2O7
(C) Rickets (D) Night blindness
187. Strongest hydrogen bonding is shown by:
174. Which one of the halogen acid is the strongest acid? (A) Water (B) Ammonia
(A) HF (B) HCI (C) Hydrogen fluoride (D) Hydrogen sulphide.
(B) HBr (D) HI
188. Fluorine is a better oxidizing agent than Br 2. It
175. In which of the following, oxygen has +2 oxidation is due to:
number? (A) Small size of fluorine
(A) F2O (B) CI2O (B) More electron repulsion in fluorine
(C) Na2O2 (D) Na2O. (C) More electronegativity of fluorine
(D) Non-metallic nature of fluorine
176. Which of the following has greatest reducing power?
(A) HI (B) HBr 189. Which one of the following is most basic?
(C) HCI (D) HI. (A) F-1 (B) CI-1
(C) Br-1 (D) I-1
177. Bad conductor of electricity is:
(A) H2O (B) HCI 190. Which one of the following elements can have
(C) HBr (D) HI both positive and negative oxidation state?
(A) F (B) I
(C) Li (D) He
178. Bleaching power is obtained by the action chlorine gas
on: 191. Least chemical activity is shown by:
(A) Dilute solution of CaCl2 (A) NH3 (B) CH4
(B) Concentrated solution of Mg(OH)2 (C) Ar (D) H2SO4
(C) Dry CaO
(D) Dry slaked lime. 192. Which one hydride has greater ionic character and had
H – bond?
3. 179. Mark the element which shows only one oxidation state (A) HF (B) HBr
its in its compounds: (C) HCl (D) HI
(A) F (B) CI
(C) Br (B) I. 193. Chlorine reacts with hot solution of NaOH to form
(A) NaCl (B) NaClO3
180. Which of the following halogens has the highest bond (C) NaClO (D) All of these
energy?
(A) F2 (B) CI2 194. The density of pure liquid HF is less then water due to
(C) Br2 (D) I2 (A) Covalent bond formations
(B) High electron affinity
181. Which halogen is most electropositive? (C) Absence of three dimensional net work of H –
(A) F (B) CI bonds
(C) Br (D) I (D) Presence of three dimensional net work of H –
bond
182. Which of the following hydrogen halide has the highest
boiling point? 195. Which one is false for bleaching powder?
(A) HF (B) HCI (A) Highly soluble in water
(C) HBr (D) HI. (B) Light yellow colour powder
(C) Oxidizing agent
183. Which of the following is a false statement? (D) Release Cl2 gas by reaction with dilute acids
(A) Hydrogenis strong oxidizing agents
(B) All halogens at leastshow1- oxidation state 196. The acid used for etching glass is:
(C) HF molecules form intermolecular hydrogen (A) HCl (B) HF
bonding (C) HNO3 (D) HClO4
(D) Fluorine is highly reactive
197. Which of the following is radioactive?
184. When atomic number of halogens increase, the (A) Cl (B) Br
halogens: (C) I (D) At
(A) Lose the outermost electrons less readily
(B) Become lighter in colour 198. The first electron affinity of halogens is of the order:
(C) Become less denser (A) F < Cl >I > Br (B) F < Cl < Br < I
(D) Gain electrons less readily. (C) Cl < F < Br < I (D) I < Br <Cl <Fl
199. In which of the following bromine has an oxidation

state of + 4? 214. _________ is prepared by Ostwald’s method:
(A) Nitric acid (B) Hydrogen sulphide
(A) Br2O (B) BrO2
(C) Sulphuric acid (D) None
(C) BrO3 (D) None
95.5o C
200. Electrolysis of Brine produces _______: 215.  S  S
(A) Chlorine (B) Oxygen
(C) H2S (D) Nitrogen The temperature mention in the equation is:
(A) Melting point of sulphur
201. Chlorine gas is ______ in colour: (B) Boiling point of sulphur
(A) Yellow (B) Greenish Yellow (C) Transition temperature
(C) Violet (D) Blue (D) None
202. To kill bacterial the drinking water is treated with 216. Sapphire ore is commonly known as:
_______: (A) Neelam (B) Chunni
(A) Nitrogen (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Pukhraj (D) None
(C) Chlorine (D) Hydrogen sulphide
203. Phosgene is the common name of _______: 217. Thecolour of aluminium metal is:
(A) Carbon dioxide and phosphate (A) Brick yellow (B) Greenish white
(B) Phosphoryl chloride (C) Golden yellow (D) Bluish white
(C) Carbonyl chloride
(D) Carbon tetrachloride 218. Density of aluminium is:
(A) 1.6gm/mL (B) 2.7gm/mL
204. Number of elements in p –block are: (C) 3.4gm/mL (D) None
(A) 28 (B) 16
(C) 30 (D) 32
219. Boiling point of aluminium is:
205. Aluminum is refined by: (A) 1000oC (B) 100oC
(C) 2000oC (D) 1800oC
(A) Hall’s method (B) Baeyer’s method
(C) Serpek’s method (D) All
220. _______ is used for wrapping chocolate, cigarettes &
photographic films:
(A) Aluminiumfoils (B) Gold foils
206. Density of concentrated nitric acid is:
(C) Silver foils (D) Copper foils
(A) 1.6g/L (B) 1.21g/L
(C) 1.51g/L (D) 3.4g/L 221. When aluminium burns in air it produces heat:
(A) 595.4 K.Cal/mol (B)798.18K.Cal/mol
(C) 878.28 K.Cal/mol (D) None
207. Monoclinic sulphur is stable between:
(A) 95.5oC -119.25oC (B) 9.95oC -119.25oC
(C) 90.5oC -119.25oC (D) 95.5oC -219.25oC 223. Preparation of potash alum involves the combination of
Al2(SO4)3& K2SO4in the ratio by mole:
208. Antidote for hydrogen sulphide poisoning is: (A) 1:1 (B) 1:2
(A) Acetone (B) Chloroform (C) 2:1 (D) 1:3
(C) Dilute chlorine (D) Nitric acid
209. Which of the following solvent can be used for sulphur? 224. Unit cell of diamond is:
(A) Benzene (B) Terpentine (A) Tetrahedral (B) Hexagonal
(C) Carbon disulphide (D) All (C) Cubic (D) Trigonal
210. Which of the following mineral is kaolin? 225. In diamond C –C bond length is:
(A) K2O.Al2O3.6SiO2 (B) K2O.3Al2O3.6SiO2 o o
(C) K2O.2SiO2.2H2O (D) Al2O3.nH2O (A) 1.89 A (B) 1.54 A

o o
(C) 2.34 A (D) 109.5 A
211. Pure diamond is __________ to X-rays:
(A) Transparent (B) Opaque
(C) Insulator (D) None 226. Inter-layers distance in graphite is:
o o
(A) 2.56 A (B) 3.35 A
212. Allotropy is: o o
(A) Phenomenon in which an element exists in more (C) 4.44 A (D) 1.68 A
than one form
(B) Phenomenon in which a substance occurs in more 227. In graphite C –C bond length is:
than one minerals o o
(C) Phenomenon in which different elements have (A) 1.29 A (B) 1.34 A
o o
same crystalline form (C) 2.34 A (D) 1.42 A
(D) None
213. _________ is prepared by Ostwald’s method: 228. Nitric acid obtained by Ostwlad’s method is about:
(A) Nitric acid (B) Hydrogen sulphide (A) 68% (B) 100%
(C) Sulphuric acid (D) None (C) 99% (D) 80%
229. Boiling point of nitric acid is:
(A) 83oC (B) 85oC
(C) 83oC (D) 180oC 242. H-S-H bond angle in H2S is:
(A) 109.5o (B) 92.2o
o
(C) 104.5 (D) 120o
230. Freezing point of nitric acid is:
(A) -83oC (B) -41.6oC
243. In hydrogen sulphide, H-S bond length is::
(C) 0oC (D) -186oC
(A) -112.8oC (B) -60.8oC
(C) -252oC (D) -85.7oC
231. Ordinary nitric acid is:
(A) 50% HNO3 (B) 65% HNO3
(C) 70% HNO3 (D) 80% HNO3 244. H-S-H bond angle in H2S is:
o o
(A) 1.34 A (B) 1.54 A
232. Density of ordinary nitric acid is: o o
(A) 2.4gm/mL (B) 1.4gm/L (C) 2.34 A (D) 1.42 A

(C) 1gm/L (D) 3.8gm/L
SO2  O2 2SO3H  45K .Cal / mol

V2O5
231. Concentrated nitric acid is: 245.
(A) 80% HNO3 (B) 98% HNO3 above reaction is carried out in contact chamber during
(C) 70% HNO3 (D) 85% HNO3 the formation of Sulphuric acid:
(A) High yield will obtained when temperature is kept
232. When vapours of nitric acid along with an alkane are low
passed through Cu tube at 450oC ____ is obtained : (B) High yield will obtained under high pressure
(A) Nitroalkene (B) Nitroalkane (C) Both a & b
(C) Nitrobenzene (D) Nitroalkyne (D) None
CH 4  HNO3
Cu
233.
450o C
?
246. In actual temperature kept in the reaction (Q#245) is:
(A) CH 3  NO2  H 2O (A) 450 o C  500 o C (B) 550 o C  5000 o C
(B) CH 3  NO3  H 2O (C) 800 C  900 C
o o
(D) 550 C  900 C
o o
(C) CH 3  NO3  H 3O 
(D) None 247. SO3 obtained during the contact process is about:
(A) 99% (B) 60%
(C) 98% (D) 50%
234. Density of octahedral sulphur is ____ 20oC:
(A) 1.4gm/mL (B) 2.1gm/L
(C) 2.9gm/L (D) 3.8gm/L 248. Melting point of sulphuric acid is:
(A) 10.5oC (B) 95.5oC
235. Rhombic sulphur is composed of puckered rings of (C) 10.8oC (D) 18.6oC
sulphur atoms. The S-S-S bond angle is:
(A) 109.5o (B) 105o 249. Dilute sulphuric acid is:
(C) 107o
(D) 120o (A) 65% (B) 80%
(C) 100% (D) 70%
236. Melting point of rhombic sulphur is:
(A) 112.8oC (B) 95.5oC 250. Density of 65% H2SO4 is:
(C) 108oC (D) 186oC (A) 1.55gm/mL (B) 1.4gm/L
(C) 1.838gm/L (D) 3.8gm/L
237. Melting point of monoclinic sulphur is:
(A) 119.25oC (B) 195.5oC 251. Fuming sulphuric acid contains:
(C) 95.5oC (D) 16.25oC (A) 20% SO3 (B) 40% SO3
(C) 10% SO3 (D) 35%SO3
238. Specific gravity of plastic sulphur is: 252. Density of fuming sulphuric acid is:
(A) 3.35 (B) 95.5 (A)1.55gm/mL (B) 1.4gm/L
(C) 2.45 (D) 1.92 (C) 1.838gm/L (D) 3.8gm/L
253. The density of chlorine gas at STP is:

239. H2S is ____ times heavier than air:
(A) 3.214gm/L (B) 1929gm/L
(A) 1.6 (B) 5.4
(C) 1.838gm/L (D) 3.8gm/L
(C) 1.2 (D) 12.1
254. Chlorine combines with almost all non-metals except:

240. Hydrogen sulphidesolidifies at:
(A)C (B) N2
(A) -112.8oC (B) -60.8oC
(C) O2 (D) All
(C) -252oC (D) -85.7oC
255. The boiling point of Cl2 is:
241. Hydrogen sulphide liquefies at: (A) --34oC (B) -60.8oC
(A) -112.8oC (B) -60.8oC (C) -252oC (D) -85.7oC
(C) -252oC (D) -85.7oC
256. The melting point of Cl 2 is: 6. Which is the formula of tetraamminechloro nitro
(A) --34oC (B) -101oC platinum (IV) sulphate?
(C) -252oC (D) -85.7oC (A) [Pt(NH3)4(NO2)]SO4
(B) [Pt NO2CI (NH3)4]SO4
(C) [Pt CI (NO2)(NH3)]SO4
257. The Cl2 is used in the following:
(D) [Pt (NH3)4(NO2)CI]SO4
(A) Manufacturing PVC, CCl4, DDT &hexachloro -
cyclohexane
7. Which of the does not form coloured compounds?
(B) Bleaching agent for cotton, rayon & wood pulp (A) Cr (B) Fe
(C) Sterilization of drinking water (C) Zn (D) Mn
(D) All
8. The colour of transition metal complexes is due to:
(A) d-d transitions of electrons
(B) Para magnetic nature of transition element
(C) Ionization
(D) Loss of s-electrons
9. Coordination number of Pt in [Pt CI (NO2)(NH3)4]-2 is:

(A) 2- (B) 4
(C) 1 (D) 6
10. The total number of d-block elements is.

(A) 10 (B) 14
(C) 30 (D) 50
11. Transition metals have very high melting and boiling

points due to:
(A) Weak binding forces
(B) Strong binding forces
(C) Both of the above
12. Elements which are attracted by magnetic field are

called _____ elements:
(A) Paramagnetic (B) Ferromagnetic
(B) Diamagnetic (D) None
CHAPTER # 5 13. The diamagnetic substances are:

(A) Weakly attracted by magnetic field
(B) Do not attracted by a magnetic field
Transition elements (C) Both a & b (D) None
14. Paramagnetic behaviour of transition metals is caused

1. Which of the following is a non-typical transition by the presence of:
element? (A) Unpaired electrons in d-sub-orbitals
(A) Cr (B) Mn (B) Paired electrons in d sub-orbitals
(C) Zn (D) Fe (C) Paired protons in the nucleus
(D) All
2. Which of the following is a typical transition metal?
(A) Sc (B) Y 15. The transition elements include:
(C) Ra (D) Co (A) Ti, Fe, Cr, Ni, Cu etc
(B) Ti, Fe, Nb, Ta, Th, etc
3. f-block elements are also called: (C) Mo, W, Zr, Nb, etc
(A) Non-typical transition element (D) Ti, Fe, Cr, Ni, Cu, Mo, W, Zr, Nb, Ta, Th, etc
(B) Outer transition elements
(C) Normal transition elements 16. Zn has:
(D) Inner transition elements (A) Zero unpaired electrons
(B) Five unpaired electrons
4. The strength of binding energy of transition elements (C) Three unpaired electrons
depends upon: (D) One paired electrons
(A) Number of electron pairs
(B) Number of unpaired electrons 17. In transition elements the orbital which is responsible
(C) Number of neutrons for the colour development is:
(D) Number of protons (A) s-orbital (B) f-orbital
(C) d-orbital (D) p-orbital
5. Group VI-B of transition elements contains:
(A) Zn, Cd , Hg (B) Fe, Ru, Os 18. Which one of the following is ore of iron?
(C) Cr, Mo, W (D) Mn, Te, Re (A) Bauxite (B) Gibbisite
(C) Haemetite (D) All
19. Alloy steels are: 32. During splitting of five degenerate orbitals; the orbitals
(A) Iron atoms substituted by Cr, Na, and Ni atoms of higher energy are:
(B) Iron atoms substituted by Cr and Ni atoms (A) d & d z2 (B) d zy , d yz , d zx
(C) Iron atoms substituted by Cr, C and Ni atoms x2  y2
(D) None of the above (C) d x , d y , d z (D) None
20. Stability is associated with d –orbital when it is:
(A) Half-filled or completely filled 33. Splittedd –orbitals with higher energy are represented
(B) Only partially filled by:
(C) Only completely filled (A) eg (B) t2g
(D) None (C) Both a & b (D) None
21. A complex compound may contain: 34. The specie which donates electrons to central metal
(A) Simple cation and a complexanion atom in co-ordination sphere is called________:
(B) A complex cation and a simple anion (A) Anion (B) Cation
(C) Both of the above (C) Ligand (D) Acid
35. Following ion is a bidentate Ligand?
22. In going from Sc to Zn atomic size: (A) Ammonia (B) Oxalate
(A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) Carbonyl (D) Cyanide
(C) Remain same (D) None
36. The central atom along with ligand is called ______:
23. Melting & boiling point of first series of transition (A) Complex ion (B) Coordination sphere
elements are high except Zn because: (C) Ligand (D) Complex compound
(A) It has completely filled d –orbital
(B) Zn is hard 37. Coordination sphere contains:
(C) Zn has high binding energy (A) transition metal (B) Transition metal ion
(D) Both a & b (C) Ligand (D) All
24. Variable oxidation is the property of: 38. Number of ligands surrounds the central metal or ion is
(A) Alkali metals (B) Transition metals called:
(C) Alkaline earth metals (D) None (A) Valency (B) Coordination number
(C) Oxidation number (D) None
25. According to crystal field theory bonding between
ligand and transition metal ion is 39. Any process of chemical decay of metals due
(A) Electrostatic (B) Covalent to action of surrounding medium is called:
(C) Dative (D) None _________
(A) Surrounding (B) Enamel
(C) Corrosion (D) Coating
26. According to CFT ligand surround a metal ion creates
an electrostatic field around its d –orbitals which split it
into ____ set of orbitals with different energy: 40. Modern method of silvering of mirror was developed
(A) Two (B) Three by:
(C) Five (D) Four (A) Maddox (B) Liebig
(C) Victor Grignard (D) Williamsons
27. In naming ionic compounds:
(A) Cations are named after anoins 41. Which element has complete d – orbitals?
(B) Anions are named after cations (A) Ni (B) Fe
(C) Cations are named before anoins (C) Zn (D) Mn
(D) Both B & C
42. In Cr the numbers of electrons in 4 d –orbital are:
28. Silver nitrate is also called: (A) 1 (B) 2
(A) Lunar caustic (B) Caustic potash (C) 5 (D) 10
(C) Quick lime (D) Slaked lime
43. A regular decrease in ionic and atomic radii across the
29. Extra-stability is associated with d-orbitals when it is: lanthanides is called:
(A)Half-filled (B) Completely-filled (A) Contraction
(C) Both a & b (D) None (B) I.P
(C) Lanthanide Contraction
30. K2Cr2O7(potassium dichromate) is used extensively for: (D) Complex formation
(A) Dyeing
(B) Chrome tanning 44. Ligands are also called_______:
(C) As an oxidizing agent (A) Lewis acid (B) Lewis base
(D) All of the above are true (C) Arrhenius base (D) Arrhenius acid
31. The location of transition elements is in between_____: 45. The aqueous solution of KMnO4 is pink because of:
(A) Lanthanides & actinides (A) K 1 ion (B) MnO 4 1
(B) s and p block elements (C) Both a & b (D) None
(C) Alkaline earth metals and halogens
(D) d and f block elements 46. Diamagnetic compounds are those which have:
(A) Paired electrons (B) Unpaired electrons 62. A substance which have even number of electrons and
(C) Free electrons (D) No electrons have paired spin is called:
______
47. AgNO3 is also called: (A) Ferromagnetic (B) Paramagnetic
(A) Lunar caustic (B) Caustic soda (C) Diamagnetic (D) None of these
(C) Silver acid (D) Silver nitrite
63. The empty spaces between atoms of transition metals
48. The number of ligands attached to the central metal in their crystal lattices are called _____:
atom or ion, usually varying from: (A) Vacant spaces (B) Valence spaces
(A) 2 to 3 (B) 2 to 4 (C) Interstices (D) None of these
(C) 2 to 6 (D) 2 to 7
64. The names of ______ are usually unchanged in
49. Cu2S is an ore of copper. It name is: naming co-ordination compounds:
(A) Chaleopyrite (B) Chalcoite (A) Anionic ligands (B) Cationic ligands
(C) Azurite (D) Malachite (C) Neutral ligands (D) None
50. Copper is extracted from Chaleopyrite. It contains 65. The suffix “ate” at the end of the name of the co-
____% of copper: ordinate complex ion represents a/an ______:
(A) 6 (B) 4 (A) Cation (B) Anion
(C) 2 (D) 7 (C) Cathode (D) Anode
51. Blue stone is another name for:
(A) Copper sulphide (B) Copper sulphate 66. The most strongly ferromagnetic element is _______:
(C) Copper oxide (D) Copper nitrate (A) Fe (B) Co
(C) Ni (D) Os
52. EDTA is:
(A) Monodentate (B) Bidentate 67. The property of a substance which permits it being
(C) Polydentate (D) None of these drawn into wire is called ________:
(A) Softness (B) Ductility
53. Which one of the following arebidentateligands? (C) Brittleness (D) Hardness
(A) Cl-1 (B) NH3
(C) NH2CH2CH2NH2 (D) EDTA 68. AgCl dissolves in solution of NH3 but not in water
because:
54. Complexes which are less common have co-ordination (A) NH3 is a better solvent than H2O
number (B) Ag+ forms a complex ion with NH3
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) NH3 is a stronger base than H2O
(C) 6 (D) All of these (D) Dipole moment of water is higher than NH3
55. Mixture of milk of lime & blue vitriol is used as: 69. Due to d-d transition Cu+2 ion appears in colour:
(A) Antifungal agent (B) Antibiotic (A) Green (B) Red
(C) Antibacterial (D) None (C) Blue (D) Yellow
56. Corrosion can be prevented by:

(A) Alloying 70. The property of a substance which permits it being
(B) Electroplating drawn into wire is called ________:
(C) Non-mtallic coating (A) Softness (B) Ductility
(D) All (C) Brittleness (D) Hardness
57. Brass contain 20% zinc and 71. Variable valencies of transition metals are due to:
(A) 80% Cu (B) 70% Cu (A) Smaller energy difference between ns & (n-1)d
(C) 60% Cu (D) 50% Cu orbitals
(B) Greater energy difference between ns & (n-1)d
58. The formula of blue vitriol is orbitals
(A) CuSO4 (B) CuSO4.3H2O (C) Attraction between ns & (n-1)d orbitals
(C) CuSO4.4H2O (D) CuSO4.5H2O (D) All
59. The transition elements usually have very ______ 72. Non-stoichiometery in transition elements is due to:
melting and boiling points: (A) Variable oxidation states
(A) Low (B) High (B) Defects in their crystal structure
(C) Intermediate (D) None of these (C) Both a & b
(D) None
60. Finely divided iron is used in _______:
(A) Haber process 73. The colour of azurite is:
(B) Catalytic Hydrogenation (A) Blue (B) Green
(C) Oxidation of ammonia to nitric oxide (C) Yellow (D) Red
(D) Contact process
74. Sulphide ore of copper contains ------ % of Cu:
61. _______ is the important ore of copper: (A) 50% (B) 6%
(A) Malachite (B) Bauxite (C) 80% (D) 90%
(C) Blue Vitriol (D) Alumina
75. The Blister copper contains the impurities:
(A) Arsenic (B) Silver
(C) Lead (D) All 89. Nickel dimethyl glyoximate is?
(A) Mono dentate
76. The colour of Ag2O is: (B) Bidentate
(A) Black (B) Red (C) Hexadentate
(C) Dark brown (D) Blue (D) None
77. AgNO3 is used in the laboratory for the detection of: 90. Hypo is:
(A) Nitrides (B) Alkali metals (A) Sodium sulphate
(C) Halides (D) Oxides (B) Sodium carbonate
(C) Sodium thioshulphate
78. What is correct order of colours of AgCl , AgBr , AgI ? (D) Sodium bicarbonate
(A) White, yellow, light yellow
(B) Yellow, light yellow, white 91. AgNO3 is kept in brown bottle because:
(C) White, light yellow, yellow (A) Brown bottles are cheaper
(D) None (B) AgNO3 is photosensitive
(C) Light easily pass through brown bottles
79. The colour of CuSO4 is: (D) None
(A) Black (B) White
(C) Dark brown (D) Blue
80. What is the co-ordination number of Fe in ferrocyanide

ion [Fe (CN)] 4-?
(A) 1 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 6
81. Number of ligands attached to central atom or ion of

transition metal is called:
(A) Co-ordination number (B) Ligand number
(C) Oxidation number (D) None
82. Unidentate ligand contains:

(A) Two co-ordinating atoms
(B) One co-ordinating atom
(C) Three co-ordinating atoms
(D) Four co-ordinating atoms
83. EDTA stands for:

(A) Ethyl diammine tetra alcohol
(B) Ethyl dihydroxy tetra acetate
(C) Ethyl diammine tetra acetate
(D) Ethyl dichloro tetra acetate
84. Ligands which contain two or more electron pair

donating atoms are called: CHAPTER # 6
(A) Mono dentate
(B) Poly dentate
(C) Multi dentate Fundamental Principles of Organic
(D) Both b & c
Chemistry
85. Which of the following ligands are bidentate:
(A) Oxalate ion (B) Ethylene diammine
(C) EDTA (D) None
1. The state of hybridization of carbon atom in methane is
(A) sp3 (B) sp2
86. Ligands on co-ordination with central atom or ion &
(C) sp (D) dsp2
make a ring structure are called:
(A) Chilling agent (B) Cyclic agent
2. In t-butyl alcohol, the tertiary carbon is bonded
(C) Chelating agent (D) None
to:
(A) Two hydrogen atoms
87. Which of the following is used in photography?
(B) Three hydrogen atoms
(A) HCl (B) KCl
(C) One hydrogen atoms
(C) HF (D) AgBr
(D) No hydrogen atoms
88. In acidic medium the yellow colour of K2CrO4 turns to
3. Which set of hybrid orbitals has planar triangular
red due to:
shape?
(A) Formation of Cr2 O72 ion (A) sp3 (B) sp
(B) Formation of Cr2O74 ion (C) sp2 (D) dsp2
(C) Formation of CrO74 4. The chemist who synthesized urea from

(D) None ammonium cyanate was:
(A) Berzelius (B) Kolbe
(C) Wholer (D) Lavoisier 17. Metamerismarises due to the:
(A) Equal distribution of carbon atoms
5. Linear shape is associated with which set of hybrid (B) Unequal distribution of carbon atoms
orbitals? (C) Both of the above are true
(A) sp (B) sp2 (D) None of the above are true
(C) sp3 (D) dsp2
18. Compounds with same molecular formulas but different
6. A double bond consists of: structure formulas are called:
(A) Two sigma bond (A) Isotopes
(B) One sigma and one pi bond (B) Isomers
(C) One sigma and two pi bond (C) Allotropes
(D) Two pi-bond (D) None
7. Ethers show the phenomenon of 19. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are important sources
(A) Position isomerism of:
(B) Functional group isomerism (A) Organic compounds
(C) Metamerism (B) Inorganic compounds
(D) Both b & c (C) Both of the above
8. Select from the following the one which is alcohol:
(A) CH3 -CH2-OH 20. Organic compounds are classified as:
(B) CH3-O-CH3 (A) Acyclic and cyclic compound
(C) CH3COOH (B) Acyclic & Heterocyclic
(D) CH3-CH2-Br (C) Non-cyclic
(D) All of the above
9. Early chemists recognized organic compounds distinct
from inorganic compounds because of: 21. Rate of reactions of most organic compounds are___:
(A) The difference in their origin and properties (A) Slow
(B) The similarities in their origin but difference in (B) Fast
their propertied (C) Both a &b
(C) Both of the above (D) None
22. Coal is produced after a long time decay of___:
10. The vital force theory was rejected by: (A) Animals (B) Fossils
(A) John Dalton (B) Fredrick Wohler (C) Wood (D) Ores
(C) Dmitri Mendeleev (D) None of the above
23. Ether functional group can be represented as___:
11. We have become dependent for our food medicines (A) –OH (B) R-CO-R
and clothing to which compounds: (C) R-O-R (D) R-COOH
(A) Inorganic compounds
(B) Organic compounds 24. Propanol shows isomerism:
(C) Both a & b (A) Metamerism
(D) None (B) Functional group isomerism
(C) Chain isomerism
12. Natural Gas is a: (D) None of above
(A) Mixture of low molecular weight hydrocarbons 25. The hydrocarbons which give smoke on burning are
(B) Methane called________:
(C) Both a & b (A) Aliphatic (B) Aromatic
(D) None (C) Carboxylic acid (D) Aldehydes
13. In Pakistan the natural gas is used for: 26. In sp3 hybridization, the geometry of molecules will
(A) For power generation only be_________:
(B) In cement and fertilizer industries only (A) Square planar (B) Trigonal
(C) As a fuel in general industries and for domestic (C) Tetrahedral (D) All are possible
purposes
(D) All of the above 27. Only sigma bonds are present in_______:
(A) Propene (B) Butanoic acid
14. Natural source of organic compounds is/are: (C) Butanal (D) Ethoxy butane
(A) Animals (B) Plants
(C) Coal (D) All of these 28. In alkynes, the hybridization in carbon bearing triple
bonds is_______:
15. Cracking of petroleum is taken place by (A) sp2 (B) sp
(A) Thermal cracking (B) Catalytic cracking (C) sp3 (D) All
(C) Steam cracking (D) All of the above
29. Octane no. of any fuel can be improved by ______:
16. The alkanes, alkenes & alkynes are: (A) Pyrolysis (B) Reforming
(A) Hydrocarbons (C) Polymerization (D) Condensation
(B) Derivatives of hydrocarbons
(C) Both a & b 30. Methane is also called:
(D) None (A) Marsh gas (B) Tear gas
(C) Laughing gas (D) None
(C) C12 to18 (D) C12 & higher
31. Which of the following is heterocyclic organic
compound? 46. Which of the following compounds does not contain an
(A) Benzene (B) Cresol - OH group?
(C) Naphthalene (D) Pyridine (A) Alcohol (B) Phenol
(C) Aldehyde (D) Carboxylic acid
32. Which one is the mixture of more than 200 organic
compounds? 47. The chemical formula of wood spirit is:
(A) Water gas (B) Coal gas (A) CH3OH (B) CCl3OH
(C) Coal tar (D) Crude coal gas (C) CCl3CHO (D) None of these
33. Octane number is the percentage of: 48. Petroleum in the unrefined form is called ____:
(A) n-pentane in a mixture (A) Rock oil (B) Coal gas
(B) n-butane in a mixture (C) Crude oil (D) Both a & c
(C) n-hexane in a mixture
(D) 2, 2, 4 – trimethyl pentane in a mixture 49. Natural gas mainly consists of ______:
(A) Methane (B) Ethane
34. n-Pentane &iso-pentane are: (C) Propane (D) Butane
(A) Chain isomers (B) Metamers
(C) Position isomers (D) None 50. Polymerization which always results a loss of some
molecules as by-product is called:
35. The octane number of gasoline may be increased by (A) Addition polymerization
adding: (B) Condensation polymerization
(A) EDTA (B) NaOH (C) Both a & b
(C) AgNO3 (D) Pb(C2H5)4 (D) None
36. Which process increases the yield of gasoline from 51. A large number of organic compounds, especially the
petroleum? unsaturated ones, show a great tendency to unite. This
(A) Cracking (B) Polymerization process is termed as:
(C) Reforming (D) Sublimation (A) Addition polymerization
(B) Condensation polymerization
Cu  tube
37. Consider the reaction3C2H2    C6H6 (C) Both a & b
(D) None
This is the example of:
(A) Pyrolysis (B) Polymerization
52. An isomer of ethanol is ________
(C) Sublimation (D) Addition
(A) Dimethyl ether (B) Diethyl ether
(C) Ethylene glycol (D) Methanol
38. Which one is cyclic hydrocarbon?
(A) C6H6 (B) C2H6
53. When ethylene is heated under pressure, a transparent
(C) C6H14 (D) CH4
solid polymer, ________ is obtained.
39. Which type of isomerism is shown by the following
(A) Polyethene (B) Ethane
compounds?CH3 – CH2 – CHO, CH3 – CO – CH3
(C) Methane (D) None of these
(A) Chain isomerism
(B) Position isomerism
54. The quality of petroleum is determined by _______:
(C) Metamerism
(A) Decane number (B) Octane number
(D) Functional group isomerism
(C) Hexane number (D) None of these
40. The type of isomerism found in 1 –butene and 2 –
butene is:
55. Two or more than two different compounds having the
(A) Position isomerism (B) Chain
same molecular formula but different carbon chains or
(C) Functional group (D) Metamerism
skeletons are saidto be ______:
(A) Chain isomers
41. The members of which of these have similar methods
(B) Position isomers
of preparation and properties:
(C) Functional group isomers
(A) Isomers (B) Homologues series
(D) Metamers
(C) Polymers (D) Monomers
56. The kind of isomerism which depends upon the relative
42. The maximum number of isomers for an alkene with
position of the functional group or the position of
molecular formula C4H8 is
double or triple bond in case of unsaturated
(A) 2 (B) 3
compounds is termed as:
(C) 4 (D) 5
________
(A) Chain isomerism
43. Which of the following is an organic substance?
(A) Rock oil (B) Rock salt
(C) Functional group isomerism
(C) Sodium cyanide (D) Oil of vitriol
(D) Metamerism
44. Which of the following is not an organic compound?
57. Isomerism, which involves compounds having the
(A) Urea (B) Oxalic acid
same molecular formula, but different functional groups
(C) Natural gas (D) Plaster of Paris
are called _______:
(A) Chain isomerism
45. Kerosene oil & jet fuel contain:
(A) C1 to C4 (B) Oxalic acid
(C) Functional group isomerism
(D) Metamerism (A) Polymerization (B) Catenation
(C) Isomerization (D) None
58. _______ is exhibited by compounds having the same
functional group but different alkyl radicals attached to 72. Percentage of methane in natural gas is:
it: (A) 94.6% (B) 100%
(A) Chain isomerism (C) 90% (D) 50%
(C) Functional group isomerism 73. Natural gas contains ____ % of nitrogen gas:
(D) Metamerism (A) 0.17% (B) 0.28%
(C) 3.88% (D) 1.05%
59. In cracking:
(A) Low molecular weight compounds are converted 74. Natural gas contains ____ % of ethane gas:
into high molecular weight compounds (A) 0.17% (B) 0.28%
(B) High volatile compounds are converted into non- (C) 3.88% (D) None
volatile compounds
(C) High molecular weight compounds are converted 75. Petroleum is also called:
into low molecular weight compounds (A) Rock oil (B) Mineral oil
(D) None (C) Both a & b (D) None
60. When a hydrogen atom is removed from an alkane ___ 76. A series of organic compounds in which each member
is obtained: of the series is differing by its neighbour by CH2 group
(A) Alkyl radical (B) Aryl radical is called:
(C) Ethane (D) None (A) Transition series (B) Actinide series
(C) Homologous series (D) None
61. The general formula (RCO)2O represents:
________ 77. All the members of a homologous series have:
(A) An ether (B) Ketone (A) Same structure
(C) An ester (D) An acid hydride (B) Same method of preparation
(C) Same chemical properties
62. ______ has the longest bond length: (D) All
(A) C = C (B) C ≡ C
(C) C – C (D) All of these 78. First organic compound prepared in the laboratory
was:
63. Compounds in which two alkyl groups are attached to (A) Acetone (B) Acetylene
an oxygen atom are called ______: (C) Urea (D) Benzene
(A) Alkanes (B) Ethers
(C) Alcohols (D) Isomer 79. Correct option for the following compounds:
64. ________ is the common name of methanol:

(A) Formaldehyde (B) Acetaldehyde
(C) Propionaldehyde (D) None of these N
65. ______ is the common name of propanone:

(A) Acetone (B) Ketone
(C) Diethyl ketone (D) None
(A) ter-amine (B) Aniline
(C) Triphenyl amine (D) Both a & c
66. The uniqueproperty of organic compound is:

(A) Covalent bonds (B) Functional groups 80. Alkane when one short of hydrogen becomes:
(C) Ionic bonds (D) None (A) Alkyl radical (B) vinyl radical
67. ______ of the following are isomers: (C) Carbocation (D) Phenyl radica
(A) Methyl alcohol and dimethyl ether
(B) Ethyl alchohol and dimethyl ether 81. 1000kg of coal tar gives ____ kg of benzene:
(C) Acetone and Acetaldehyde (A) 0.5-1 (B) 1-2
(D) Proponoic acid and propanone (C) 2-3 (D) All
68. Which compound contains asp hybridized C atom? 82. The theory which explain that organic compounds can
(A) CH3CN (B) CH3CHO only be obtained from animals & plants:
(C) CH3NH2 (D) None (A) Theory of relativity (B) Vital force theory
(C) Both a & b (D) None
69. Which of the following isomeric substances would be
expected to have the lowest boiling point? 83. Identify the functional group in the following compound:
(A) Hexane (B) 2 – methlypentane O
(C) 2, 2 – dimethylbutane (D) 3 – methlypentane
CH3 C O CH3
70. The isomers must have the same ______:
(A) Structural formula (B) Molecular formula (A) Ketone & aldehyde (B) Carboxylic acid & Ester
(C) Chemical formula (D) Physical properties (C) Ketone& ether (D) None
71. Self-linkage ability of an element is called:
84. Sharp metallic sound produced in the internal (A) Alkene
combustion engine is called: (B) Alkyl radical
(A) Knocking (B) Explosion (C) Aldehyde
(C) Cracking (D) None (D) Saturated hydrocarbon
85. Identify the class of following compound: 4. Alkanes are also known as _______:
(A) Saturated hydrocarbon
(B) Unsaturated hydrocarbon
(C) Paraffins
(D) Both a & c
(A) Alkane (B) Aromatic
(C) Homocyclic (D) Both b & c 5. Sabatier’s Sendren’s reaction involves________in
presence of Ni:
86. Identify the functional group: (A) alkene & H2 (B) alkene & O2
O (C) alkene & N2 (D) alkene & Cl2
H3C C X
6. Alkenes & alkynes are:
(A) Aldehyde (B) Ketone (A) Saturated hydrocarbon
(C) Acid halide (D) Carboxalic acid (B) Unsaturated hydrocarbon
(C) Paraffins
87. Identify the functional group: (D) Both a & c
O
H3C C CH3 7. Removal of -COOH is called______:
(A) Aldehyde (B) Ketone (A) Carboxylation (B) Decarboxylation
(C) Acid halide (D) Carboxalic acid (C) Esterification (D) Hydroxylation
8. Soda lime is a mixture of_______:

(A) CaO and KOH
(B) CaO and NaOH
(C) NaOH and NaCl
(D) NaCl and KOH
9. General formula for alkane is:

(A) CnH2n+2 (B) CnH2n-2
(C) CnH2n+4 (D) CnH2n
10. Alkenes on hydrogenation give:

(A) Alcohol (B) Alkyne
(C) Alkane (D) None
11. R-Mg-Br is called_________:

(A) Grignard reagent
(B) Wurtzreagent
(C) Tollen’s reagent
(D) Pinacolpinacolon reagent
12. Upto_____C atoms, alkanes are gases:

(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 6
CHAPTER # 7 13. Alkanes are less reactive than alkenes due

to__________:
(A) Presence of sigma bond& non-polar nature
Chemistry of hydrocarbons (B) Presence of pi bonds
(C) Presence of sigma and pi bonds
(D) None
1. Valency of carbon in alkanes is __________: 14. Substitution reactions of alkanes are:
(A) Completely satisfied
(A) Oxidation (B) Halogenation
(B) Partially satisfied (C) Sulphonation (D) None
(C) No satisfied
(D) None 15. Order of reactivity of halogenation is______:
(A) I>Cl>Br>F (B) F>Cl>I>Br
2. Alkanes containing one branch on main chain are (C) F>Cl>Br>I (D) Cl>F>Br>I
called_________ alkanes:
(A) Iso- (B) Normal
16. Gas is used in fertilizer ____________:
(C) Neo- (D) Branched
(A) C2H6 (B) C2H4
(C) C2H2 (D) CH4
3. When one hydrogen atom of an alkane is
replaced/removed, then it is called_________: 17. General formula of alkenes is _______:
(A) CnH2n+2 (B) CnH2n-2 (B) Dehalogenation
(C) CnH2n (D) CnH2n-x (C) Dehydrohalogenation
(D) None
18. Hydrolysis of Grignard’s reagent yields:
(A) Alkane 30. The compound with highest boiling point is:
(B) Benzene (A) n – hexane
(C) Alkene (B) n – pentane
(D) Alkyne (C) 2 – methyl butane
(D) 2, 2 – dimethyl propane
19. Removal of halogen and hydrogen atom is___:
(A) Halogenation 31. Alcoholic KOH solution is used for:
(B) Dehalogenation (A) Dehydrogenation
(C) Dehydrohalogenation (B) Dehalogenation
(D) Carbonations (C) Dehydrohalogenation
(D) Dehydration
20. Alkenes are produced from Dehalogenation
of_______: 32. Which is least soluble in water?
(A) Di-halides alkane (A) Phenol (B) Benzene
(B) Tri-halides alkane (C) Benzoic acid (D) Ethanol
(C) Vicinal Di-halide
(D) VicinalTrihalides 33. C-C bond in ethylene is:
(A) Single bond (B) Double bond
21. Reactivity due to pi- electrons, is present in __: (C) Triple bond (D) All of these
(A) Alkane (B) Alkene
(C) Alkyne (D) b and c 34. Ethylene reacts with water in the presence of sulphuric
acid to form:
22. π- electrons favour____________: (A) CO2 and H2O (B) Ethyl alcohol
(A) Less reactivity (C) Ethylene oxide (D) Ethylene glycol
(B) Addition reactions
(C) Substitution reactions 35. When ethylene reacts with chlorine to form:
(D) None (A) Grignard’s reagent (B) Bromine water
(C) Dutch – liquid (D) Glycol
23. Raney nickel is____________:
(A) An alloy of Ni-Cu 36. Which of them is used as general anesthetic?
(B) Alloy of Ni-Fe a) Ethane b) Ethene
(C) Alloy of Ni-Al c) Ethyne d) Ether
(D) Alloy of Ni-Mg
37. The positive part of the adding molecule will go to that
24. Which member of IV-A has little tendency to form carbon which has greater number of hydrogen atoms.
anions or cations? This statement is called:
(A) Pb (B) Sn (A) Hoffmann’s Rule
(C) Ge (D) C (B) Baeyer’s Strain theory
(C) Thiele’s theory
25. Alkanes due to little chemical reactivity are also called (D) Markownikoff’s rule
(A) Olefins (B) Paraffins
(C) Grignard’s reagent (D) None 38. Bromoethane on treatment with alcoholic KOH yields
(A) Propane (B) Ethene
(C) Ethylene (D) Acetylene
39. Calcium carbide on treatment with water gives out a

26. Methane and other members of paraffins do not react colourless gas which burns readily in air and gives a
with aqueous solution of acids, alkalies, KMnO 4 or red precipitate with Cu2Cl2 + NH4OH. The gas is:
other oxidizing agents this lack of reactivity is due to its (A) CH4 (B) C2H6
______nature: (C) C2H4 (D) C2H2
(A) Polar (B) Non-polar
(C) Acidic (D) Basic 40. When acetylene reacts with water in the presence
ofH2SO4& HgSO4 yields:
27. C-C double bond of the following compound is formed (A) CH3OH (B) CH3COOH
byCH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH3 ___ overlapping: (C) CH3CHO (D) CH3OCH3
(A) sp2 and sp2 (B) sp2 and sp3 41. Dehydration of Ethanol gives:
(C) sp (D) sp3 (A) C2H4 (B) C2H2
(C) C2H6 (D) C2H4O
28. Which of the following types of reactions occur when a
reactant has a double bond? 42. Which of the following has active hydrogen?
(A) Substitution (B) Addition (A) C2H2 (B) C2H4
(C) Photolysis (D) Polymerization (C) C2H6 (D) CH4
29. Being unsaturated hydrocarbons, alkenes & alkynes 43. The colour of bromine water disappears when treated
undergo ____ reations: with which of the following compound:
(A) Halogenation (A) Ethane (B) Ethene
(C) Methane (D) Methyl alcohol 57. Action of HOCl with ethene to give ethylene
chlorohydrin is an example of:
44. Markownikoff’s rule provides guidance for addition of (A) Displacement reaction
HBr in: (B) Substitution reaction
a) CH2 = CH – CH3 (C) Addition reaction
b) CH2 = CH2 (D) Polymerization reaction
c) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
d) None of these 58. Chlorination of methane is chain reaction. The final
product will be:
45. The compound having both sp and sp3 hybridized (A) CCl4
carbon atom is: (B) CHCl3
(A) Propene (B) Propane (C) CH2Cl2
(C) Propyne (D) All of these (D) None
46. PVC is a polymer of: 59. Formation of alkane by the action of sodium on alkyl
(A) CH2 = CH2 (B) C2H6 halide in the presence of ether is called ____:
(C) CH2 = CH-Cl (D) C2H2 (A) Frankland reaction
(B) Wurtz reaction
47. The structural formula of the compound which yields (C) Cannizzaro’s reaction
ethylene upon reaction with Zinc is: (D) Kobe’s reaction
(A) CH2Br – CH2Br (B) C2H5Br
(C) C2H2 (D)C2H5OH 60. The ethyne has _______:
(A) Tetrahedral frame work
48. The major reactions occur in alkanes are: (B) Pyramidal shape
(A) Electrophilic addition reaction (C) Linear structure
(B) Nucleophilic substitution reaction (D) None of these
(C) Free radical substitution reaction
(D) Free radical addition reaction 61. The alkenes have _______:
(A) Tetrahedral frame work
49. Consider a reaction (B) Planar molecule
CH3 – CH = CH2 + H – X → product. The reaction (C) Linear structure
occurs by obeying: (D) None of these
(A) Wurtz’s rule
(B) Frankland’s rule 62. Alkenes undergo _______:
(C) Markownikoff’s rule (A) Addition reaction
(D) Kekule’s rule (B) Substitution reaction
(C) Both addition & substitution reaction
50. Ethylene is used for: (D) None of these
(A) Domestic fuel
(B) Ripening the fruits 63. Which of the following compound can cause blood
(C) Welding the metals cancer?
(D) None (A) Benzene (B) Ether
(C) Methane (D) Acetic acid
51. Simplest aromatic hydrocarbon is:
(A) Polythene (B) Benzene 64. The IUPAC name for the following compound is:
(C) Neoprene (D) Naphthalene CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3
52. Which one of the following gives methane on treating CH3 CH CH CH CH CH2
with soda lime?
CH3
(A) Sodium Acetate (B) Sodium Succinate
(C) Sodium Formate (D) Sodium Fumerate (A) 4, 5 – dimethyl – 3 – propyl – 2 – hexene
53. Ethene on treating with hypochlorous acid gives: (B) 4, 5 – dimethyl – 3 – propyl – 1 – hexene
(A) Dichloro acetaldehyde (C) 3– propyl – 3 – dimethylpropyl – 1 – hexane
(B) Dichlorohydrin (D) 2, 3 – dimethyl – 4 – propyl – 5 – hexane
(C) Ethylene chlorohydrin
(D) Ethylene Dichlorohydrin 65. Ethene when treated with sulphur mono chloride
produces:
54. The compounds having pi bonds are in generally: (A) Polyethene
(A) More reactive (B) Less reactive (B) Mustard gas
(C) Neutral (D) Both a & b (C) Marsh gas
(D) None
55. Which one will not decolourize bromine water?
(A) Ethene (B) Ethyne 66. When dilute & alkaline solution of KMnO 4 is treated
(C) Propene (D) Butane with ethene ____ is formed:
(A) Polyethene
56. Acetylene adds on to HCN to give: (B) Mustard gas
(A) Ethyne cyanide (C) Ethylene glycol
(B) Cyanohydrin (D) Vinyl alcohol
(C) Vinyl ethane
(D) Vinyl cyanide 67. The elimination of hydrogen halide (HX) from adjacent
carbon atoms is called ___:
(A) Pyrolysis (B) Chlorination 80. Aniline is a derivative of benzene which
(C) Dehydrohalogenation (D) None contains______
(A) Hydroxyl group (B) Amino group
68. Ethyne when treated with cold KMnO4 solution ____ is (C) Amido group (D) Imido group
formed:
(A) Oxalic acid (B) Acetic acid 81. How many π electrons are there in benzene?
(C) Formic acid (D) None (A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
69. Ethyne when treated with hot KMnO4 solution ____ is
formed: 82. The molecular formula of biphenyl methane
(A) Oxalic acid (B) Acetic acid is___________:
(C) Formic acid (D) None (A) C12H10 (B) C12H12
(C) C13H10 (D) C13H12
70. Ethyne when passed over pre-heated sodium metal
______ is obtained: 83. When two or more different substituents are attached
(A) Monosodium acetylide with a benzene ring, the number 1 position in the ring
(B) Disodium acetylide is given to a high priority group. Which one of the
(C) Both a & b following groups has highest priority?
(D) None (A) –NH2 (B) –CHO
(C) –COOH (D) –CN
71. When disodium acetylide is treated with HCl ___ is
formed: 84. When benzene is substituted by halogens only, which
(A) Ethylene one of the following halogens is given the number one
(B) Acetylene position in the ring while writing the name of
(C) Both a & b compound?
(D) None (A) Bromine (B) Chlorine
(C) Fluorine (D) Iodine
72. Ethyne shows acidic property when:
(A) Its hydrogen atoms are replaced by metal 85. Which one of the following is not a meta-directing
(B) It react with a base to produce salt & water group?
(C) Both a & b (A) –CN (B) –OH
(D) None (C) –COOH (D) –CHO
73. Ethyne when treated with AgNO3 in the presence of 86. Which pair of groups contains both ortho&para
ammonia gives: directors?
(A) Red ppt. of silver acetylide (A) –OH, –RCO
(B) White ppt. of silver acetylide (B) –NR3, –CN
(C) Both a & b (C) –OCH3, –CHO
(D) None (D) –N (CH3)2, –NH2
74. Dibromoethane on boiling with alcoholic KOH will give: 87. Michael Faraday isolated _____ in 1825:
(A) Oxalic acid (B) Acetic acid (A) Ethyne
(C) Ethyne (D) Ethene (B) Benzene
(C) Naphthalene
75. Ethynecontains: (D) Acetone
(A) One sigma & 2 pi bonds
(B) Two sigma & two pi bonds 88. How many moles of H2 are added up when benzene is
(C) Three sigma &two pi bonds heated with hydrogen in the presence of platinum?
(D) None (A) Two (B) Three
(C) Four (D) Six
89. In benzene the C–C bond length is:
o o
(A) 0.307 A (B) 1.39 A
o o
76. Halogenation of methane is _______ reaction: (C) 0.337 A (D) 0.307 A
(A) Combustion
(B) Addition 90. What catalyst is employed when benzene is prepared
(C) Photochemical from acetylene?
(D) Photochemical substitution (A) Zn amalgam
(B) AlCl3
77. The molecular formula of toluene is_______: (C) Organo-nickel
(A) C7H7 (B) C7H8 (D) RancyRickel
(C) C8H8 (D) C8H7
91. Which one of the following methods will not give
78. In benzenesulphonicacid, the sulphonic group is benzene?
attached with benzene ring through_____: (A) Heating the Salt of Benzoic acid with soda lime
(A) Hydrogen (B) Oxygen (B) Distillation of phenol with Zn dust
(C) Sulpher (D) –OH (C) Chlorobenzene with NaOH at 300˚C &200atm
79. In phenanthrene ________ benzene rings are present: (D) Both a & b
(A) Two (B) Three 92. What is the ratio of conc. HNO 3& conc. H2SO4 when
(C) Four (D) Five nitration of benzene is done at 50˚C?
(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1
(C) 1:2 (D) 2:3 (A) C6H6 (B) C6H6 + CH3Cl
(C) C6H5─C2H5 (D) C6H5 ─ CH2─
93. In Friedel Craft Alkylation, AlCl 3 is used to generate:
(A) Strong nucleophile 104. Replacement of hydrogen of benzene by alkyl group in
(B) Weak nucleophile pressure of alkyl halide & ferric chloride is known
(C) Strong electrophile as___:
(D) Weak electrophile (A) Dow’s process
(B) Friedel& Craft acylation
94. Acylation of benzene is the introduction of _____on (C) Friedel& Craft alkylation
benzene ring: (D) Clemenson reaction
O
105. Which of the following radical is called benzyl radical?
(A) CH3 C O (A) C6H5─ (B) C6H5─CH=CH2
O (C) C6H5─CH─ (D) C6H5─CH2─
(B) Cl C 106. Which compound form benzoic acid on oxidation with

O strong oxidizing agent?
(A) Toluene (B) Ethyl benzene
(C) R C (C) n-propyl bezene (D) All
O
107. Toluene can be converted to benzoic acid in presence
(D) H C of ____:
(A) Dil.HNO3
95. Acetophenone is a ______________: (B) Mixture of HNO3& H2SO4
(A) Quinone (B) Ketone (C) Zn dust
(C) Aldehyde (D) Other (D) Acidified KMnO4
96. Reacting bromine with benzene in the presence of 108. Which one of the following is benzyl chloride?
sunlight will result in__________: (A) C6H5 CH2Cl
(A) The rupturing of Benzene ring (B) C6H5 CHCl2
(B) Substitution reaction (C) C6H5─CH = CHCl
(C) Addition reaction (D) None
(D) No-reaction
109. What is the molecular formula of Benzenetriozonide?
97. Normally benzene does not undergo ___________: (A) C6H6O9 (B) C6H5O8
(A) Substitution reaction (C) C6H5O9 (D) C6H6O6
(B) Addition reaction
(C) Polymerization reactions 110. The Benzenetriozonide will yield three moles of
(D) Oxidation reactions ________:
(A) Glyoxine (B) Benzaldehyde
98. Nitronium ion is_____________: (C) Glycol (D) Glyoxal
(A) NO3 (B) NO
(C) NO2- 1 (D) NO2+ 111. Which of the following will undergo nitration more
easily and readily?
99. Which compound will readily undergo sulphonation? (A) C6H6 (B) C6H5NO2
(A) Benzene (B) Nitro benzene (C) C6H5Cl (D) C6H5CH3
(C) Toluene (D) Chlorobenzene
112. The reaction of toluene with chlorine in the presence of
100. Benzene is heated in air with V2O5 at 450˚C it FeCl3 gives:
undergoes ___________: (A) Benzyl chloride
(A) Substitution reaction (B) Benzal chloride
(B) Addition reaction (C) m – Chloro Toluene
(C) Elimination reaction (D) o/pChloro Toluene
(D) Oxidation reaction
101. Which one of the following statement is correct about

benzene? 113. Benzene is made of:
(A) It undergoes substitution reactions because it is (A) 6 Pi and 6 sigma bonds
saturated (B) 3 Pi and 3 sigma bonds
(B) C-C bond length in benzene is 1.09Ao (C) 3 Pi and 12 sigma bonds
(C) Molecular mass of benzene is 78 (D) 6 Pi and 3 sigma bonds
(D) Because of sp2 hybridization it is trigonal molecule
114. Common reaction of benzene and its derivatives are:
102. The preparation of benzene from acetylene can also (A) Electrophilic addition
be said as ________: (B) Electrophilic substitution
(A) Oxidation (B) Polymerization (C) Nucleophilic addition
(C) Dehydration (D) Condensation (D) Nucleophilic substitution
115. Benzene when treated with acetyl chloride in the

103. What is required other than anhydrous AlCl3, when presence of AlCl3 yields:
toluene is prepared from Friedel craft reaction? (A) Acetyl Benzene (B) Benzyl Chloride
(C) Benzophenone (D) Acetophenone (B) Benzene is sometimes one structure and
sometime the other
116. Passing vapors of phenol over heated zinc gives: (C) The two structures are in a state of rapid
(A) Benzene (B) Acetic Acid equilibrium
(C) Benzoic Acid (D) Benzaldehyde (D) Neither of the two structures describes benzene
adequately
117. Which of the following is not an explosive? 130. Benzene reacts with chlorine to give a substance with
(A) Picric Acid (B) Trinitrobenzene formula C6H6Cl6. This reaction is brought about by:
(C) Trinitro Toluene (D) Nitro benzene (A) An acid catalyst (B) Ultraviolet radiation
(C) Aluminum oxide (D) Iron fillings
118. Toluene on reaction with acidic KMnO 4 produces:
(A) Phenol (B) Benzoic acid 131. Benzene and cyclohexene can be distinguished by
(C) Benzyl alcohol (D) Benzophenone which of the following test?
(A) AgNO3 │C2H5OH (B) Ag [(NH3)2] OH
119. Which of the following can be easily nitrated? (C) Br2 │CCl4 (D) None
(A) Phenol (B) Benzoic acid
(C) Nitro benzene (D) All of these
120. Sulphonation of benzoic acid gives:

(A) o – benzene sulphonic acid
(B) p – benzene sulphonic acid
(C) m – benzene sulphonic acid
(D) o/p benzene sulphonic acid
121. Benzene can be obtained by:

(A) Reaction of zinc and phenol
(B) Reaction of soda lime with sodium benzoate
(C) Polymerization of acetylene
(D) All of these
122. o – xylene on oxidation yields:

(A) Oxalic acid (B) o – Phthalic acid
(C) Toluene (D) m – Phthalic acid
123. The catalyst used for halogenation of benzene is:

(A) Cu (B) Ni
(C) FeCl3 (D) Zn
124. Which substituent group decreases the reactivity of

benzene, because they:
(A) Increase the electronic density of benzene ring
(B) Decrease the electronic density of benzene ring
(C) Ortho & para directors
(D) None
125. Benzene on ozonolysis produces:

(A) Benzoic acid (B) Cyclohexane
(C) Glyoxal (D) None of these
126. Meta orienting groups decrease the reactivity of

benzene because they:
(A) Increase the electronic density of benzene
(B) Decrease the electronic density of benzene
(C) Smaller in size
(D) None
(E)
127. 50kg of coal tar will give about ____kg of benzene:

(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 0.5 to 1 (D) 3 to 4 CHAPTER # 8
128. Replacement of hydrogen atom by – SO3H group is
called _______:
(A) Nitration (B) Sulphonation
Alkyl Halides
(C) Alkylation (D) Hydrogenation
129. The Kekule structures of benzene are related in which 1. What should be the products when reactants are
of the following way? alcohol &thionylchloride in the presence of pyridine?
(A) They are each equally correct as structure for (A) RCl+S+HCl (B) RCl+SO2+HCl
benzene (C) RCl+SO2+H2O (D) RCl+S+H2O
2. Which C-X bon has the highest bond energy per mole? 14. When CO2 is made to react with ethyl magnesium
(A) C-F (B) C-Cl iodide, followed by acid hydrolysis, the product formed
(C) C-Br (D) C-I is:
(A) Propane (B) Propanoic acid
3. Which alkyl halide has the highest reactivity, for a (C) Propanal (D) Propanol
particular alkyl group?
(A) R-F (B) R-Cl 15. Grignard reagent is reactive due to ________:
(C) R-Br (B) R-I (A) The presence of halogen atom
(B) The presence of magnesium atom
4. Which one is not a nucleophile? (C) The polarity of C-Mg bond
(A) C2H5O─ (B) SCN─ (D) All
(C) NH3 (D) H3C+
16. SN2 reaction can be best carried out with____:
5. The number of molecules taking part in the rate (A) Primary alkyl halide
determining step is called_________: (B) Secondary alkyl halide
(A) Order of reaction (C) Tertiary alkyl halide
(B) Rate or reaction (D) All
(C) Molecularity of a reaction
(D) Extent of a reaction 17. Bimolecular elimination reactions involve____:
(A) First order kinetics
6. During SN2mechanism, carbon atom changes it state (B) Second order kinetics
of hybridization from___________: (C) Third order kinetics
a) sp→sp2 b) sp2→sp3 (D) Zero order kinetics
c) sp3→sp d) sp3→sp2
18. For which mechanisms, the first step involved is the
7. What will be the order of reaction of a reaction whose same?
rate can be expressed R = K [R-Cl] [OH-]? (A) E1+E2 (B) E2+SN2
(A) Zero (B) One (C) S1+SN1 (D) SN1+SN2
(C) Two (D) Three
19. The rate of E1 reaction depends upon____________:
8. Which one among the following is not a good leaving (A) The concentration of substrate
group? (B) The concentration of nucleophile
(A) HSO4─ (B) Cl─ (C) The concentration of substrate as well as
(C) OH─ (D) Br─ nucleophile
(D) No dependence
9. What is the order of kinetics in the SN1 mechanism?
(A) Zero (B) First 20. Alkyl halides are considered to be very reactive
(C) Second (D) Third compounds towards nucleophile because______:
(A) They have an electrophilic carbon
10. Which alkyl halide out of the following may follow both (B) They have an electrophilic carbon & a good
SN1 and SN2 mechanism? leaving group
(C) They have an electrophilic carbon & a bad leaving
(A) CH3 X (C) CH3 CH X group
(D) They have a nucleophilic carbon & a good leaving
CH3 group
CH3 H CH3 21. Which one of the following species in not an

electrophile?
(B) CH3 C C X (D) CH3 C X (A) NH3 (B) Br+
(C) H+ (D) BF3
CH3 H CH3
22. Which one of the following reactants will be required to
form ethene from ethyl chloride?
11. In elimination reaction of alkyl halide, which site is (A) Alcoholic KOH (B) Aqueous KOH
more susceptible for the attack of nucleophile? (C) Alkaline KMnO4 (D) Aqueous NaOH
(A) α-carbon (B) β-carbon
(B) α-hydrogen (B) β-hydrogen 23. Which one of the following alcohols will be formed
when ethyl magnesium bromide reacts with acetone?
(A) Primary alcohol (B) Secondary alcohol
(C) Tertiary alcohol (D) Dihydric alcohol
12. When two moles of ethyl chloride react with two moles
of sodium in the presence of ether, what will be
formed? 24. Which one of the following molecules does not form
(A) 2 moles of ethane (B) 1 mole of ethane alcohol when reacts with Grignard reagent?
(C) 2 moles of butane (D) 1 mole of butane (A) Formaldehyde (B) Acetaldehyde
(C) Propanone (D) CO2
13. Zn-Cu couple and alcohol generate_______:
(A) [H] (B) H2 25. In primary alkyl halides, the halogen atom is attached
(C) [O] (D) O2 to a carbon which is further attached to how many
carbons atoms:
(A)Two (B) Three
(C)One (D) Four
39. Which of the following is an electrophile?
26. The reactivity order of alkyl halides for a particular alkyl (A) OH  (B) NH3
group is: (C) ROH (D) BF3
(A) Flouride> chloride > Bromide > Iodide
(B) Chloride > Bromide >Flouride> Iodide 40. Alkyl halides give reactions:
(C) Iodide > Bromide > Chloride >Flouride (A) Electrophilic substitution
(D) Bromide > Iodide > Chloride >Flouride (B) Nucleophilic substitution
(C) Electrophilic addition
27. WhenCO2 is made to react with ethyl magnesium (D) Nucleophilic addition
iodide, followed by acid hydrogen, the product formed
is____: 41. When Ammonia reacts with Grignard’s reagent then it
(A) Propane (B) Propanoic acid gives:
(C) Propanal (D) Propanol (A) Primary amine (B) Secondary amine
(C) Alkane (D) Alkene
9. Grignard reagent is reactive to:
(A) The presence of halogen atom 42. Nucleophilic substitution reactions are represented by
(B) The presence of Mg atom (A) E1 (B) SN
(C) The polarity of C-Mg atom (C) ROH (d) RCHO
43. SN reactions are classified into types:
30. SN2 reactions can be lest carried out with: (A) 4 (B) 3
(A) Primary alkyl halides (C) 2 (D) 1
(B) Secondary alkyl halides
(C) Tertiary alkyl halides 44. SN2 reactions occur in:
(D) All of these (A) Primary alkyl halide
(B) Secondary alkyl halide
31. Elimination bimolecular reactions involve: (C) Tertiary alkyl halide
(A) First order kinetics (D) All of these
(B) Second order kinetics
(C) Third order kinetics 45. Which SN reaction occurs in two steps?
(D) Zero order kinetics (A) SN1 (B) SN2
(C) Both (D) None of these
32. For which mechanism the 1st step involved in
the same. 46. In SN2 reactions, two reactants are involved in the rate
(A) El and E2 (B) E2 and SN2 determining step while these reactions occur in
(C) El and E2 (D) El and SN1 (A) Two steps (B) Three steps
(C) One step (D) Four steps
33. Which one of the following is not a nucleophile?
(A) H2O (B) H2S 47. Which one of the following is organometallic
(C) BF3 (D) NH3 compound?
(A) RMgX (B) RX
34. Which Monohaloalkane cannot be obtained by the (C) ROH (D) RCHO
direct action of halogen and alkane?
(A) RCl 48. When Grignard reagent reacts with formaldehyde to
(B) RBr yield:
(C) RI (A) CH3OH (B) C2H5OH
(D) None of these (C) CH3COCH3 (D) C3H8
35. For the preparation of RX, by the reaction of Alcohol 49. The chemical reaction in which HX is removed from
and Thionyl Chloride requires the presence of a two adjacent carbon atoms of an organic molecule is
solvent: called:
(A) Ether (A) Dehydrogenation
(B) Water (B) Dehydrohalogenation
(C) Pyridine (C) Dehydration
(D) Acetone (D) Dehalogenation
36. The reaction of Sodium metal with alkyl halide in the 50. Reaction of RX with Ammonia is called:
presence of ether is called: (A) Wurtz’s reaction
(A) Wurtz’s reaction (B) Sabatier reaction (B) Frankland’s reaction
(C) Frankland’s reaction (D) None (C) Hoffmann’s reaction
(D) Friedal Craft reaction
37. Carbon carrying negative charge is known as: 51. A nucleophile is a:
(A) Carbonium ion (B) Carbocation (A) Lewis acid (B) Lewis base
(C) Oxonium ion (D) None (C) Arrhenius acid (D) Arrhenius base
38. Formation of alkane by the action of Zinc on alkyl 52. An electrophile is a:
halide is called: (A) Lewis acid (B) Lewis base
(A) Wurtz’s reaction (B) Sabatier reaction (C) Arrhenius acid (D) Arrhenius base
(C) Frankland’s reaction (D) Kolbe’s reaction
53. Rate determining steps in SN1 reaction is always the (C) BrCH2CH2CH2Br (D) BrCH2CH2CH2CH2Br
(A) Slow step (B) Fast step
(C) Intermediate (D) None 69. SN2 reaction proceeds via the formation of:
(A) Carbonation (B) Transition sate
54. Which one of the organic compound is without (C) Free radical (D) Carbanion
oxygen?
(A) Ether (B) Ester 70. Which of the following alkyl halide reacts with aqueous
(C) Alkyl halides (D) Carboxylic acid solution of NaOH to give ter-butyl alcohol?
(A) (CH3)3C – Cl (B) (CH3)2 CH Cl
55. Methyl iodide reacts with silver acetate to yield: (C) CH3CH2CH2Cl (D) (CH3)2CCH2-Cl
(A) Methyl acetate (B) Methyl ester
(C) Methylol phenol (D) Acetyl halide
56. Grignard reagent reacts with formaldehyde to form:

(A) Primary alcohol (B) Tertiary alcohol
(C) Acetic acid (D) Ketone
57. Both methane &ethane may be prepared in one step

reaction from
(A) C2H4 (B) CH3l
(C) CH3OH (D) C2H5OH
58. Elimination reactions are the reverse of:

(A) Electrophilic substitution reaction
(B) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(C) Addition reaction
(D) Oxidation reaction
59. E1 reactions occur in:

(A) RCH2X (B) R2CHX
(C) R3CX (D) All of these
60. Formula of Thionyl chloride is ______:

(A) SOCl2 (B) ZnCl2
(C) CH3Cl (D) None
61. When metallic sodium in ether is heated with an alkyl

halide, a higher alkane is formed. It is called ______:
(A) Sulphonation (B) Wurtz’s reaction
(C) Friedel-Crafts reacton (D) None
62. Which molecule has a zero dipole moment?

(A) CH3Cl (B) CCl4
(C) CH2Cl2 (D) CHCl3
63. Grignard’s reagent reacts with alkyl halide to form ___:

(A) Alkanes (B) Alkynes
(C) Alkenes (D) Alcohols
64. On passing CO2 through Grignard reagent ____ is

formed:
(A) Methanoic acid (B) Ethanoic acid
(C) Alkyl sodium halide (D) None
65. The hydrolysis of alkyl halides by heating with aqueous

alkali is a _______ substitution reaction:
(A) Electrophilic (B) Nucleophilic
66. Ethyl bromide can be converted into ethyl alcohol by

heating with:
(A) Aqueous KOH (B) Aloholic KOH
(C) Moist silver oxide (D) Both a & c
67. The major product obtained by treating 2 –

chlorobutane with alcoholic KOH is:
(A) 1 – Butyne (B) 2 – Butyne
CHAPTER #9
(C) 1 – Butene (D) 2 – Butene
68. Which of the following is a vicinaldihalide? Alcohols, Phenols, aldehydes,

(A) ClCH2CH2Cl (B) CH3CHCl2 ketones, Ethers,
carboxylic aid & ester 14. First product formed on oxidation of ethyl alcohol by
K2Cr2O7/H2SO4
1. Which one of the following is termed as benzyl
(A) Ethanal (B) Propanoic acid
alcohol?
(C) Acetic acid (D) None of these
(A) C6H5OH (B) C6H5CH(OH)2
(C) C6H5CH2OH (D) None
15. Phenol on treatment with cone. HNO3 gives
(A) Picric acid (B) Benzene
2. Which one of the following is lactic acid? (C) Both a & b (D) None
(A) 3-hydroxy propanioc acid
(B) 2-hydroxy propanioc acid
16. Alcohols are:
(C) 2-hydroxy butanoic acid
(A) Basic (B) Strong acid
(D) 3--hydroxybutanoic acid
(C) Amphoteric (D) Neutral
3. Which one of the following is also known as tartaric
17. The formula of wood spirit is?
acid? (A) CH3COOH (B) CH3OH
(A) 2,3-dihydroxy butanedioic acid (C) C2H5OH (D) None of these
(B) 2,2-dihydroxy butanedioic acid
(C) 2,3-dihydroxy butanioc acid
18. Ethanol containing some methanot is called:
(D) 2,2-dihydroxy butanioc acid
(A) Absolute spirit (B) Rectified spirit
(C) Power alcohol (D) Methylated spirit
4. Water gas heated at 450˚C and 200 atm pressure in
the presence of ZnO+Cr2O3 will produce:
19. Glycerol is a:
(A) Methanal (B) Methanol
(A) Primary alcohol (B) Monohydric alcohol
(C) Carbonic acid (D) Methane
(C) Secondary alcohol (D) Tribydric alcohol.
5. The residue obtained after the crystallization of sugar
20. Glycerol can be obtained from
from concentrated sugar cane juice is called_____:
(A) Fats (B) Methane
(A) Mother liquor (B) Filtrate (C) Ethyl alcohol(D) None
(C) Extract (D) Molasses
21. The enzyme which can catalyse the conversion of
6. The formula of starch is_________:
glucose to ethanol is:
(A) C12H22O11 (B) C6H9O5
(A) Zymase (B) Invertase
(C) C6H10O5 (D) C6H12O6
(C) Maltase (D) Diastase
7. The process of fermentation of starch involve many 22. Carbolic aid is another name for:
enzymes, the sequence of enzyme used are_____: (A) Acetic acid (B) Phenol
(A) Diastase-maltase-zymase
(C) Propanoic acid (D) Glycerol
(B) Zymase-maltase-zymase
(C) Maltase-diastase-zymase 23. Rectified spirit is a mixture of:
(D) Diastase-zymase-maltase
(A) 95% ethyl alcohol +5% water
(B) 94% ethyl alcohol +4.53% water
8. The rectified spirit contain_________: (C) 94.4% ethyl alcohol + 5.43% water
(A) 12% alcohol (B) 90% alcohol (D) 95.87% ethyl alcohol +4.13% water
(C) 91% alcohol (D) 100% alcohol
24. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
9. K2Cr2O7/H2SO4 generate___________:
alcohol?
(A) Molecular oxygen (B) Hydrogen
(A) They are lighter than water
c) Nascent oxygen [O] (D)Nascent hydrogen [H] (B) Their boiling points of lower members having 1 to
2 carbon are higher than water
10. The oxidation of isopropyl alcohol will yield_____: (C) Lower members are insoluble in water and organic
(A) Propane (B) Propanol solvents but the solubility regularly increase with
(C) Propanone (D) Propanoic acid
molecular mass
(D) Lower members have a pleasant smell and
11. Which one is primary alcohol? burning taste, higher members are colourless and
(A) Buten-2ol
tasteless.
(B) Propan-2-ol
(C) Butan-1-ol
25. Alcohols of low molecular weight are:
(D) 2,3-Dimethythexane-4-ol. (A) Soluble in water
(B) Soluble in water on heating
12. Action of Conc. Sulphuric acid on ethyl alcohol gives:
(C) Insoluble in water
(A) C2H6 (B) C2H4 (D) Insoluble in all solvents
(C) C2H5OH and C2H4 (D) CH3COOH
26. Which of the following can work as a dehydrating agent
for alcohol?
(A) H2SO4 (B) Fe2O3
13. Ethyl alcohol is industrially prepared from ethylene by:
(C) HCl (D) AII
(A) Permanganate oxidation
27. Alcohols react with Grignard reagent to form:
(B) Catalytic reduction
(A) Alkanes (B) Alkenes
(C) Absorbing in H2SO4followed byhydrolysis (C) Alkynes (D) AII
(D) Fermentation.
28. Alcohol fermentation is brought about by the action of: (C) Methanol containing methanal
(A) CO2 (B) O2 (D) Ethanol containing methanol
(C) Invertase (D) Yeast.
44. Alcohol reacts with carboxylic acids, acid an hydrides
29. Amongst the following which is most acidic? and acid halides to form:
(A) Ethyl alcohol (B) Water (A) Ether (B) Ketone
(C) 2,3-Dinitrobenzene (D) Phenol (C) Ester (D) Methanol
30. Which of the following is the constituent of vinegar? 45. Strongly acidic solution of K2Cr2O7 is required for the
(A) C2H6 (B) C2H4 oxidation of
(C) C2H5OH and C2H4 (D) CH3COOH (A) Primary alcohol (B) Secondary alcohol
(C) Tertiary alcohol (D) All
31. Which is used as antifreeze?
(A) Glycol (B) Ethyl alcohol 46. Esterification gives:
(C) Water (D) Methanol (A) Paraffin oil (B) Olefins
(C) Ether (D) Esters
32. Tollen’s reagent is:
(A) Alkaline KMnO4 (B) Ammonical AgNO3 47. An alcohol produced in the manufacture of soap is:
(C) Ammonial CuSO4 (D) CaSO2/Ca(OH)2 (A) Ethanol (B) Propanol
(C) Glycerol (D) Glycol
33. The reaction between alcohol and carboxylic acids is
called: 48. The formation of Acetaldehyde from ethanol is called
(A) Esterification (B) Hydrolysis (A) Oxidation (B) Reduction
(C) Saponification (D) Hydrogenation (C) Addition (D) Substitution
34. Alcoholic beverages are made of: 49. Denatured Alcohol is known as:
(A) Ethanol (B) Acetic acid (A) Absolute alcohol (B) Wood spirit
(C) Formic acid (D) None (C) Methylated spirit (D) Vinegar
35. Electrophilic substitution in phenol generally occurs at 50. Which one of the following will not take place if ethanol
(A) o- and p-position is under test?
(B) Metapositions (A) The formation of H2 when sodium is added to it
(C) Only at ortho positions (B) Easily oxidized by Zn
(D) Only at para position (C) The formation of sweet smelling compound when
reacts with a mixture of CH3COOH and
36. Phenol is: concentrated H2SO4
(A) Aliphatic (B) Hetrocyclic (D) Boils before 100oC
(C) Aromatic (D) None
51. Bakelite plastic is formed by the polymerization of
37. The order of reactivity of halogen acids for reaction phenol with:
with C2H5OH is: (A) Acetone (B) Acetylene
(A) HCl>HBr> HI (B) HI >HBr>HCl (C) Formaldehyde (D) Acetic acid
(C) HBr> HI >HCl (D) HBr>HCl> HI.
52. Ethyl chloride is obtained when ethanol is treated
38. The reaction of ethanol with H2SO4 gives: with_____ in the presence of ZnCl 2:
(A) Ethylene (A) Chromic acid (B) Acetic acid
(B) Diethyl ether (C) Iodic acid (D) Hydrochloric acid
(C) Ethyl hydrogen sulphate
(D) All 53. Passing vapors of phenol over heated zinc gives:
(A) Benzene (B) Acetic acid
39. Which one of them is a monohydric alcohol? (C) Benzoic acid (D) Benzaldehyde
(A) CH3CH(OH)2 (B) CH3C(OH)3
(C) C2H5OH (D) None of these 54. Phenol reacts with dilute HNO3 in the presence of
concentrated H2SO4 yields
40. Glycol is alcohol: (A) o/p –nitro phenol (B) o – nitro phenol
(A) Monohydric (B) Dihydric (C) p – nitro phenol (D) None
(C) Trihydric (D) Both a & b
55. Which of the following is not an explosive?
41. Formyl group is present in: (A) Picric acid (B) Dynamite
(A) Ethyl alcohol (B) Aldehyde (C) Trinitrotoluene (D) Benzene
(C) Methyl alcohol (D) Acetic acid
56. Sodium salt of benzene sulphonic acid on fusion with
42. Ethyl Alcohol is denatured by adding: caustic soda gives:
(A) CH3OH & CH3COOH (A) C6H5OH (B) C6H6
(B) CH3COOH & CH3COCH3 (C) C6H5COOH (D) C6H5CHO
(C) CH3OH & Pyridine
(D) None 57. Ether is soluble in:
(A) Water (B) DilHCl
43. Methylated spirit is: (C) Conc. KOH (D) Conc. H2SO4
(A) Pure methyl alcohol 58. By accepting a proton, oxygen atom of the Ether form:
(B) Methyl alcohol containing water (A) Carbonium ion (B) Carbon ion
(C) Oxonium ion (D) Oxide ion (A) Water (B) Organic acid
(C) HX (D) Both a & b
59. Williamson’s synthesis is used to prepare:
(A) Alcohols (B) Ethers 75. Methyl alcohol can cause _______:
(C) Esters (D) Aldehydes (A) Cancer (B) Blindness
(C) Anemia (D) None
60. Wax contains:
(A) – OH Group (B) – CHO Group 76. Ethyl alcohol is produced on commercial scale by the
(C) Ketonic Group (D) Ester Group biological break down of ________:
(A) Starch (B) Minerals
61. Phenol reacts with Bromine water to form: (C) Cellulose (D) None of these
(A) Picric acid (B) TNT
(C) Tribromo phenol (D) Toluene 77. CH3OH and C2H5OH are highly miscible with water
because they exhibit ________:
62. Which one is methoxy methane? A) Ionic bonding (B) Covalent bonding
(A) Acetone (B) Chloroform (C) Hydrogen bonding (D) None
(C) Dimethyl ether (D) Dimethyl ketone
78. Alcohols may be converted to the corresponding _____
63. Alcohol reacts with an organic acid to yield: by actions of halogen acids in the presence of ZnCl 2:
(A) An ester (B) Ketone (A) Aldehydes (B) Alkyl halides
(C) Alkyl halides (D) Ether (C) Acyl halides (D) None
64. The conversion of ethyl alcohol into acetaldehyde is 79. During the dehydration of ethyl alcohols the product
called: forms along with H2O is:
(A) Reduction (B) Addition _______
(C) Oxidation (D) Substitution (A) Ether (B) Acetaldehyde
(C) Ethene (D) None
65. Diethyl ether is soluble in:
(A) Water (B) Dil HNO3 80. Isopropyl alcohol on oxidation gives ___:
(C) Conc. H2SO4 (D) None of these (A) Ether (B) Acetone
(C) Ethylene (D) Acetaldehyde
66. Common name for 2 –propanone is:
(A) Propionaldehyde (B) Acetone 81. Rectified spirit contains ______ % ethyl alcohol:
(C) Methyl formate (D) Acetophenone (A) 90% (B) 92% to 95%
(C) 100% (D) 78.5%
67. Ethyl alcohol solidifies at:
(A) 0oC (B) -112oC 82. Ammonical silver nitrate solution is called:
(C) -10oC (D) None (A) Fehling’s solution (B) Grignard’s reagent
(C) Tollen’s reagent (D) Beilstein reagent
68. Which one of the following can oxidize aliphatic
alcohol? 83. In cold countries glycerol is added to water in
(A) Aqueous Br2 car radiators as it helps to ______:
(B) K2Cr2O7& H2SO4 (A) Bring down the specific heat of water
(C) Aqueous NaCl (B) Lower the freezing point
(D) Both a & b (C) Reduce the viscosity
(D) Make water a better lubricant
69. Which one attack easily on phenol ring
(A) Electrophile (B) Nucleophile 84. 40% aqueous solution of formaldehyde is also called:
(C) Acid (D) None of these (A) Mustard gas
(B) Formalin
70. Which one of the following can be used as ink (C) Rectified spirit
preservative? (D) None
(A) Acetone (B) Phenol
(C) Water (D) Kerosene oil 85. Phenol on treatment with excess of bromine water
gives:
71. Alkoxide ion is a powerful: (A) o – bromophenol
(A) Base (B) Acid (B) p – bromophenol
(C) Salt (D) None of these (C) m – bromophenol
(D) 2, 4, 6 – tribromophenol
72. Alkoxide ion is:
(A) A powerful acid (B) Electrophile 86. The carbon atom of a carbonyl group is:
(C) Nucleophile (D) All of these (A) Sp hybridized (B) Sp2 hybridized
(C) Sp3 hybridized (D) None
73. Cannizzaro’s reaction involves:
(A) Condensation of aldehydes containing α-hydrogen 87. Aldehydes on warming with ______ forms red ppt:
(B) Conversion of glucose into alcohol (A) Tollen's reagent (B) Fehling solution
(C) Self-redox reaction of aldehydes containing no α- (C) Benedict solution (D) All.
hydrogen 88. Tollen's reagent is:
(D) Both b & c (A) Ammonical cuprous chloride
(B) Ammonical cuprous oxide
74. Phenol is weaker acid than: (C) Ammonical silver bromide
(D) Ammonical silver nitrate. (B) Fehling solution
89. Silver mirror is a test for: (C) Acidic potassium dichromate solution
(A) Aldehydes (B) Thioalcohols (D) None
(C) Acids (D) Ethers 105. Formaldehyde when reacted with methyl magnesium
bromide gives:
90. Aldehydes are produced by: (A) C2H5OH (B) CH3COOH
(A) Oxidation of secondary alcohols (C) HCHO (D) CH3CHO
(B) Reduction of alkenes
(C) Oxidation of primary alcohols 106. Calcium acetate on dry distillation gives:
(D) Reaction of oxygen atoms with ozone (A) Acetylene (B) Acetone
(C) Methyl alcohol (D) Ethyl formate
91. At room temperature formaldehyde is:
(A) Gas (B) Liquid 107. Acetone on reduction gives with H2 in the presence of
(C) Solid (D) None Pd gives:
(A) CH3COOH (B) CH3CHO
92. Formalin is_____% solution of H-CHOin H2O: (C) (CH3)2CHOH (D) C2H5OH
(A) 10% (B) 20%
(C) 40% (D) 60% 108. On oxidation, acetone yield:
(A) Alcohol (B) Amine
93. Which one of the following is used to process anti-polio (C) Carboxylic acid (D) Ether
vaccine?
(A) Acetaldehyde (B) Propanone 109. Acetone is used in the preparation of:
(C) Formaldehyde (D) Formic acid. (A) Solvent of acetylene
(B) Smokeless gun powder
94. 1, 3 –dihydroxybenzene is: (C) Chloroform&iodoform
(A) Phenol (B) Pyrogallol (D) All of these
(C) Hydroquinone (D) Resorcinol
110. Acetaldehyde on oxidation gives:
95. An aldehyde on oxidation gives: (A) Formaldehyde (B) Acetone
(A) An alcohol (B) An acid (C) Acetic acid (D) Ethanol
(C) A ketone (D) An ether
111. A silver mirror test is given by:
96. Bakelite is obtained by condensation of: (A) Aldehydes (B) Ketones
(A) Acetaldehyde and acetone (C) Alcohols (D) Ethers
(B) Formaldehyde and phenol
(C) Acetaldehyde and phenol 112. With fuming nitric aid formaldehyde gives:
(D) None (A) Dynamite (B) Nitroformaldehyde
(C) TNT (D) Cyclonite
97. Phenol is miscible in water in all proportions above:
(A) 10oC (B) 68.5oC 113. Formaldehyde on polymerization gives:
(C) 65.8oC (D) None (A) Bakelite
(B) Para Formaldehyde
98. Calcium formate on dry distillation gives: (C) Meta Formaldehyde
(A) Ethyl alcohol (B) Acetic acid (D) Urotropine
(C) Dimethyl ketone (D) Formaldehyde
114. Acetic acid on pyrolysis gives:
99. Which of the following compounds gives asec –alcohol (A) Formaldehyde (B) Picric acid
with Grignard's reagent? (C) Cyclonite (D) Acetone
(A) Formaldehyde (B) Acetaldehyde
(C) Ethyl alcohol (D) Methyl iodide. 115. Which one of the following reactions is not given by
acetic acid?
100. Which of the following has fruity oduor? (A) Reaction with a base forming salt & water
(A) Carbides (B) Methyl alcohol (B) Reaction with alcohols forming ester
(C) Form aldehyde (D) Dimethyl ester (C) Reaction with Na –metal forming CH4
(D) None
101. Reduction of aldehydes with H2gives:
(A) Primary alcohols (B) Secondary alcohols 116. Which tests are used for the identification of –CHO in
(C) Alkanes (D) Tertiary alcohols. an aldehyde?
(A) Bayer’s test (B) Fehling’s test
102. Which reaction yields Bakelite? (C) Tollen’s test (D) Both b & c
(A) Urea with HCHO
(B) Ethene&ethyne 117. Benzaldehydeis:
(C) Phenol and HCHO (A) Aromatic aldehyde (B) Open chain aldehyde
(D) Ethylene glycol and glycerol (C) Benzoic acid (D) None
103. When aqueous solution of formaldehyde is evaporated,
a solid substance left behind is: 118. Which of the following form iodoform?
(A) Formaldehyde (B) Paraformaldehyde (A) HCHO (B) CH3COCH3
(C) Benzaldehyde (D) Metaformaldehyde (C) C2H5 (D) C2H5O2CH5
104. Acetone is oxidized with: 119. The compound is also used for nail-polish remover?
(A) Tollen's reagent (A) Acetone (B) Ethanol
(C) Formaldehyde (D) Acetaldehyde
120. Silver mirror is carried out for the detection of 133. Acetyl chloride is formed by the reaction of acetic acid
________functional group: with:
(A) Ketone (B) Ester (A) Thionyl chloride (B) Ammonia
(C) Ether (D) Aldehyde (C) Alcohol (D) Sodium hydroxide
121. Which one does not givealdol condensation? 134. Acetic acid is a weak acid because in aqueous solution
(A) Formaldehyde (B) Benzaldehyde it is:
(C) Propanol (D) Both a & b (A) Highly ionized
(B) Weakly ionized
122. Aldehydes and ketones both easily react with: (C) Insoluble in water
(A) Fehling solution (B) Metals (D) No replaceable hydrogen
(C) Grignard reagent (D) Tollen’s reagent
135. Which of the following is a monobasic acid?
123. The IUPAC name of CH3CH=CH – CHOis (A) H2SO4 (B) H2CO3
(A) But – 2 – enal (B) But-2-en-3-al (C) H3PO4 (D) CH3COOH
(C) Formaldehyde (D) Propenaldehyde
136. Hydrolysis of esters willyield:
124. The IUPAC name of (CHO) 2 is (A) Alcohol & ether (B) Alcohol & carboxylic
(A) Glyoxal (B) Ethane-1, 2-dial acid
(C) Both a & b (D) None (C) Alkane (D) None
125. The IUPAC name of 137. Which one of the following does not have a carboxylic
OHC – CH2 – CH =CH – CHO is group?
a) Pent-2-ene-1, 5-dial (A) Benzoic acid (B) Ethanoic acid
b) Propene dialdehyde (C) Butyric acid (D) Picric acid
c) Prop-1-en-1, 3-dial
d) None of the above 138. Beta hydroxyl propionic acid is:
(A) Citric acid (B) Aspartic acid
126. The IUPAC name of following compound is: (C) Oxalic acid (D) Lactic acid
CH3 O
139. Sodium bi carbonate when reacts with a compound “X”
CH3 C CH C CH3 as result CO2 liberates with effervescence the
compound “X” contain:
(A) 4-methlypent-3-en-2-one (A) – OH (B) – CHO
(B) 2-Methlypent-3-en-4-one (C) X (D) – COOH
(C) Acetyl 2-Methyl-butene-3
(D) None of the above 140. A carboxylic acid contains:
(A) Hydroxyl group
127. An aqueous solution containing about 40% of (B) Carboxyl group
formaldehyde is sold under the name of _______: (C) A hydroxyl group and carboxyl group
(A) Formalin (B) Malt-sugar (D) A carboxyl group and aldehydic group
(C) Pyridine (D) Starch
141 Long chain mono carboxylic acids are called _____:
128. The following reaction (A) Aliphatic acid (B) Aromatic acid
CH3CHO + HCN → CH3CH(OH)CN is an example of (C) Cyclo carboxylic acid (D) None
(A) Nucleophilic addition
(B) Electrophilic addition 142. Common name of 1, 2-ethanedioic acid is:
(C) Both a & b (A) Succinic acid (B) Oxalic acid
(D) Electrophilic substitution (C) Melonic acid (D) Phthalic acid
129. Esters have general formula: 143. Which of the following is main constituent of vinegar?
(A) ROH (B) RCHO (A) Succinic acid (B) Oxalic acid
(C) RCOOR (D) RCOOH (C) Melonic acid (D) Acetic acid
130. The acid present in butter is called: 144. Carboxylic acid can be prepared from
(A) Formic acid (B) Acetic acid (A) Alcohol (B) Ester
(C) Propionic acid (D) Butanoic acid (C) Grignard’s reagent (D) All
131. Which one of the following is the strongest acid? 145. Which one is not the derivative of carboxylic acid?
(A) CH3COOH (B) CH2ClCOOH (A) Acid Halid (B) Amino acid
(C) CHCl2COOH (D) C2H5COOH (C) Ethane (D) Acid amide
132. Anhydrous acetic is a crystalline, hygroscopic solid and 146. Higher B.P of carboxylic acid as compared to alcohol
is also known as: of the same m.wt is due to:
(A) Dilute acetic acid (A) Strong dispersion forces
(B) Glacial (ice like) acetic acid (B) Strong dipole dipole interaction
(C) Methanoic acid (C) Two H – bonding per molecule
(D) None (D) All of these
147. Which of the following compounds on reaction with
NaHCO3 liberates CO2?
(A) C2H5 –OH (B) CH3 – O – CH3
(C) CH3COOH (D) CH3CONH2
148 The conversion of acetic acid to methane is an Chapter # 14
example of:
(A) Hydration (B) Dehydration
(C) Decarboxyletion (D) Oxidation
Biochemistry
149. Ethyl acetate can be prepared by the action of ___ on
carboxylic acid, in the presence of acidic medium:
(A) Phenols (B) Formalin
(C) Pyridine (D) Alcohol 1. Food is classified into ____ classes?
(A) 1 (B) 4
150 The IUPAC nomenclature of C6H5CH = CHCOOH is: (C) 2 (D) 6
(A) 3 – Phenyl prop – 2 – enoic acid
(B) Oxalic acid 2. A state in which a living body is poorly nourished is
(C) Picric acid called?
(D) 1 – Phenyl – 2 – ethylene carboxylic acid (A) Malnutrition (B)Hunger
(C)Complete diet (D)None
151. Acetamide can be prepared by the reaction of
ammonia on: 3. Amount of heat required to raised the temperature of
(A) Ethyl acetate (B) Acetyl chloride 1kg of water by 1oC is called:
(C) Acetic anhydride (D) All the above (A) 1 calorie (B)1kilocalorie
(C)Kilo Joule (D)None
4. Vegetable oils are:

(A) Unsaturated fatty acids
(B) Glycerides of unsaurtatedfaty acids
(C) Glycerides of stturated fatty acids
(D) Essential oils obrained from plants
5. The water soluble vitamin is:

(A)A (B)D
(C)K (D)C
6. Which of the following element is not present in all

proteins?
(A)Carbon (B)Hydrogen
(B)Nitrogen (D)Sulphur
7. Hydrolysis of fats is catalyzed by:

(A)Urease (B)Maltase
(C)Zymase (D)Lipases
8. Which of the following statement is incorrect for

glucose and sucrose?
(A) Bothe are soluble in water
(B) Both are naturllayoccurring
(C) Both are carbohydrates
(D) Both are disaccharides
9. Conccentrated brain work needs the energy:

(A) 140 Cal/h
(B) 270Cal/h
(C) 0Cal/h
(D) None
10. Carbohydrates furnish about _____ of the total calories

intake:
(A)2%-6% (B)60%-80%
(C)100% (D)80%-90%
11. Carbohydrates give ______ calorie per gram:

(A)4 (B)9
(C)6 (D)8
12. Starch is a polymer of

(A) Beta-D glucose
(B) Alpha-D glucose
(C) Gamma-D glucose
(D) Alpha-beta-D glucose (C)Energy (D)All
13. Fat gives ______ calorie per gram 28. The oxidation of fats produces:
(A)4 (B)9 (A)CO2 (B)CO2 + H2O
(C)6 (D)8 (C)CO2 + H2O + E (D)None
14. 35% of the total calories required per dar are acquired
from:
(A)Fat (B) Vitamins 29. Which one of the following is aldotriose:
(C)Carbohydrates (D)Proteins (A)Sucrose (B)Threose
(C)Glycceraldehyde (D)Both a & b
15. The primary building blocks of lipids are.
(A) Fatty acids and gycerols 30. Glucose is stored in the liver as:
(B) Glycerols and sterols (A)Cellulose (B)Glycogen
(C) Fatty acids , Glycerols and sterols (C)Glycerol (D)Starch
(D) None
31. Carbohydrate which rotates the plane of polarized light
16. Vitamins are classified on the basis of their____: to the right is called?
(A)Solubility (B) Origin (A)Reducing sugar (B)Non-sugars
(C)Chemical structure (D)Functional group (C)Dextrorotator (D)Levorotator
17. About 70% of the total body weight is: 32. The general formula of carbohydrates is
(A)Carbohydrates (B) Proteins (A)Cn(H2O)n (BC2n(H2O)n
(C)Water (D)Lipids (C)Cn(H2O)2n (D)None
18. Chemically carbohydrates are: 33. Carbohydrates are:

(A) Aldehydes or ketones (A) Polyhydroxy alcohols
(B) Polyhydroxy aldehydes (B) Polyhydroxy ethers
(C) Polyhydroxy Ketones (C) Polyhydroxy ester
(D) Polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones (D) Polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones
19. Glucose, fructose and sucrose are: 34. Monosaccharide and Disaccharides are solid, sweet in
(A)Sugars (B) Proteins taste and soluble in:
(C)Minerals (D)Non –sugars (A)C6H6 (B)H2O
(C)CHCl3 (D)Acetone
20. The group of chemical reagents that take part in life
sustaining process is called 35. Carbohydrates which contain 2 – 10 carbon atoms and
(A)Wax (B)Refinery gas not are hydrolysable are called:
(C)Food (D)None (A)Monosaccharides (B)Oligosaccharides
(C)Polysaccharides (D)None
21. A balanced diet must contain at least:
(A)Two nutrients (B)Four nutrients 36. Which of the following carbohydrates is tasteless?
(C)Six nutrients (D)Three nutrients (A)Glucose (B)Fructose
(C)Sucrose (D)Glycogen
22. The sugars which contains free aldehydic or ketonic
group are called: 37. Sucrose on hydrolysis yields:
(A) Non-reducing sugars (A) Glucose + Mannose
(B) Reducing sugars (B) Glucose + Fructose
(C) Both a & b (C) Fructose + Mannose
(D) None (D) Mannose + Galactose
23. All monosaccharides & all oligosaccharides are 38. Glucose is also called:
reducing sugars except: (A)Starch (B)Dextrose
(A)Fructose (B) Lactose (C)Sucrose (D)Mannose
(C)Sucrose (D)Maltos
39. Fructose is ketohexose, is also called:
24. Which of these are the sources of energy as well as (A) Starch (B) Dextrose
source for building of tissues? (C) Sucrose (D)Levulose
(A)Proteins (B)Fats
(C)Carbohydrates (D)All 40. The nutrients of food which are involved in
communication, nervous defenses, metabolic
25. Which nutrients regulate the body processes? regulation, catalysis and oxygen transport are called
(A)Minerals (B)Vitamins (A)Proteins (B)Vitamins
(C)Water (D)All (C)Lipids (D)Carbohydrates
26. Cellulose & starch are: 41. Steroids belong to the family of lipids which are
(A) Minerals (B)Polysaccharides (A)Tricyclic (B)Tetracyclic
(C)Oligosaccharides (D)All (C)Pentacyclic (D)Monocyclic
27. The product of oxidation of glucose is 42. Cholesterol is a steroid which is the important
(A)CO2 (B)Water precursor of
(A)Sex hormones (B)Adrenal hormones (C)Zwitter ion (D)None
(C)Vitamin D (D)All
58. Proteins are polymer of _____:
43. Gallstones contain: (A)Amino acids (B)sugars
(A) Free cholesterol (C)Fatty acids (D)None
(B) Combine cholesterol
(C) Starch 59. Condensation, when thousands of amino acids join to
(D) Mannose form proteins is called:
(A)Peptide linkage (B)Basic amino acids
(C)Glycosidic linkage (D)Hydrogen bond
44. Sucrose is the condensation product of:
(A)Lactose & fructose (B)Glucose & fructose 60. Which of the following statement about albumins is
(C)Galactose & maltose (D)None true?
(A) They are water soluble
45. Product of saponification is: (B) They may coagulated by concentrated solution of
(A)Glycerol (B)Salt of fatty acids (NH4)2SO4&heat
(C)Nucleic acid (D)Both a & b (C) Both a & b
(D) None
46. Monosaccharides joint through_____ to form
polysaccharides: 61. When proteins are hydrolyzed _____ are obtained:
(A)Peptide linkag (B)Ionic bond (A)α-amino acids (B)β –amino acids
(C)Glycocidic linkage (D)Hydrogen bond (C)γ –amino acids (D)None
47. Enzymes are most active at a temperature of: 62. Keratin in hair, feathers, horns& nails is an example of:
(A)30oC (B)40oC (A)Albumins (B)Gliadins
(C)45oC (D)50oC (C)Albuminoids (D)Glutelins
48. Inorganic substances which increase the activity of an 63. Haemoglobin is _____ protein:
enzyme are called:
(A)Activators (B)Inhibitors (A)Chromoprotein (B)Mineral
(C)Coenzymes (D)None (C)Fatty acid (D)None
49. Carbohydrates which on hydrolysisgive more than 10 64. Chemical name of Vitamin A is:
Monosaccharides are called: (A) Thiamine (B) Retinol
(A)Oligosaccharides (B)Polysaccharides (C) Ascorbic acid (D) Nicotinamide
(C)Monosaccharides (D)None
65. Glucose and fructose are:
50. Cellulose is indigestible in human body because it (A) Optical isomers (B) Functional isomers
does not contain: (C) Chain isomers (D) Position isomers
(A)Sucrase (B)Cellulase
(C)Amylase (D)None 66. Starch is a polymer of ________:
(A) Glucose (B) Fructose
51. DNA & RNA contains _____: (C) Lactose (D) Maltose
(A) Ketohexoses
(B) Aldohyxoses 67. Enzymes are:
(C) Both a & b (A)Biological catalyst (B) Proteins
(D) Aldopentoses (C)Both a &b (D)None
52. Excess glucose is stored in liver in the form of ____: 68. The sweetest of all sugars is:
(A)Glycogen (B)Fructose (A) Glucose (B) Maltose
(C)Starch (D)None (C) Sucrose (D) Fructose
53. α –amino acids contains NH2-on ____ carbon: 69. Starch & cellulose are:
(A)α-carbon (B)β -carbon (A)Tasteless (B)Amorphous
(C)γ -carbon (D)None (C)Polysaccharides (D)All
54. Number of essential amino acids are: 70. Which of the following is the richest source of energy?
(A)5 (B)20 (A) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
(C)10 (D)None (B) Adenosine diphophate (ADP)
(C) Adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
55. Glycine, alanine, valine, leucine & isoleucine are: (D) All are equally rich source of energy
(A)Acidic amino acids (B)Basic amino acids
(C)Neutralamino acids (D)None 71. Digestion of carbohydrates takes place in:
(A) Mouth (B) Stomach
56. Amino acids which contain equal proportion of NH2- & - (C) Intestine (D) Both a & c
COOHgroup are called:
(A)Acidic amino acids (B)Basic amino acids 72. The protein responsible for the clotting of blood is:
(C)Neutral amino acids (D)None (A) Fibrinogen (B) Albumin
(C) Globulins (D) None of the above
57. A dipolar, charged but overall neutral ion is called:
(A)Cation (B)Anion
73. Which hormone controls the metabolism of
carbohydrates? 86. Gastric juice contains HCl having pH:
(A) Adrenaline (B) Insulin (A) 1-2
(C) Thyroxin (D) Oxytocin (B) 2-3
(C) 3-4
74. Which of the following are required by the body in very (D) 4-5
small amount only?
(A) Proteins (B) Fats 87. Optimum temperature for enzymatic activity is:
(C) Vitamin (D) None (A) 37oC-50oC (B)0oC -4oC
(C) 45oC-70oC (D)37oC -90oC
75. Vitamins A, D, E & K are:
(A) Water soluble (B) Fat soluble 88. Cooking the vegetables in iron or copper pan will
(C) Both a & b (D) None destroy:
75. Deficiency of vitamins A causes: (A)Vitamin C (B)Vitamin K
(A) Night blindness (B) Scurvy (C)Vitamin D (D)Vitamin E
(C) Cancer (D) None 89. Excess of vitamin D causes:
(A)Softening of bones (B)Calcification of bones
76. Rickets is caused by the deficiency of ____ vitamin? (C)Loss of appetite (D)Both a & b
(A) B –complex (B) D
(C) A (D) None 90. Fill in the following blanks by showing daily
requirement of vitamins:
77. Deficiency of vitamin E causes:
(A) Haemolysis (B) Decline in respiration 1. Vitamin A _______
2. Vitamin D _______
78. Deficiency of _____ vitamin causes the failure of blood
clotting: 3. Vitamin E _______
(A) C (B) K
(C) B (D) None 4. Vitamin K _______
79. Deficiency of vitamin B1 leads to: 5. Vitamin B1 _______

(A) Beriberi
(B) Heart failure 6. Vitamin B2 _______
(C) Mental disturbance
(D) All 7. Vitamin B6 _______
80. Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of: 8. Vitamin B3_______

(A) Vitamin D
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin C
81. Pellagra is caused by the deficiency of:

(A) Niacin
(B) Nicotinic acid
(C) Vitamin B3
(D) All
82. Mixture of diethyl ether & ethyl alcohol in 2:1 is called:

(A) Grignard’s reagent
(B) Bloor reagent
(C) Wurtz reagent
(D) All
83. Lipids are completely soluble in:

(A) Grignard’s reagent
(B) Bloor reagent
(C) Wurtz reagent
(D) All
84. Function of vitamin C is:

(A) It helps in wound healing
(B) It facilitates the absorption of iron
(C) It is essential for interacellular cement substance
(D) All
85. Silva is:

(A) Acidic
(B) Alkaline
(C) Neutral
(D) All
10. ______ is prepared by fusing sand with sodium
carbonate:
(A) Lead glass (B) Calcium silicate
(C) Sodium silicate (D) Both of b & c
11. ______ is prepared by fusing sand with calcium

carbonate:
(A) Lead glass (B) Calcium silicate
(C) Sodium silicate (D) Both of b & c
12. Which of the following is ordinary glass?:

(A) Lead glass (B) Jena glass
(C) Soda glass (D) Pyrex glass
CHAPTER#11
13. _______ is super cooled liquid:
(A) Plastic (B) Glass
Chemical Industries in Pakistan (C) Fertilizer (D) Sugar
14. Which of the following statement about Pyrex glass is

true?
1. Which three elements are needed for the healthy (A) It is borosilicate mixture produced by using boron
growth of plants? oxide in place of some silica
(A) N, S, P (B) N, Ca, P (B) It has very low co-efficient of thermal expansion
(C) N, P, K (D) N, K, C (C) It withstand on sudden changes of temperature
(D) All
2. The nitrogen present in some fertilizers help plants:
(A) To fight against diseases 15. Colour of the glass is due to:
(B) To produce fat (A) Sodium (B) Calcium
(C) To undergo photosynthesis (C) Both b & c (D) Transition metal oxides
(D) To produce proteins
16. Rayon was discovered by Chardonnet in ____:
3. NH2-CO-NH2 is the chemical formula of: (A) 1947 (B) 1884
(A) Ammonia (B) Diamino ketone (C) 1500 BC (D) 2010
(C) Urea (D) Both of b & c
17. Cellulose acetate, nitrocellulose cupra silk are
4. The fertility of the soil is improved by ______: considered as:
(A) Rotation of the crops (A) Plastic (B) Rayon
(B) Adding lime to the acid salts (C) Nylon (D) Both b & c
(C) Adding manure and growing legumes
(D) All 18. Nylon 6,6 is polymer which is made up of:
(A) Hexamethyenediamine
5. DDT is: (B) Adipic acid
(A) Biodegradable pollutant (C) Both a & b
(B) Non-degradable pollutant (D) None
(C) Not a pollutant
(D) An antibiotic 19. The common name for 1,6 –hexandioic aid is:
(A) Picric acid (B) Adipic acid
6. Detergents are sodium salts of: (C) Pthalic acid (D) Both b & c
(A) Calcium sulphonate
(B) Barium sulphonate 20. The common name for 1,6 –hexandioic aid is:
(C) Sodium carbonates (A) Picric acid (B) Adipic acid
(D) Benzene sulphonate (C) Pthalic acid (D) Both b & c
7. _______ are the fertilizers of phosphate salt such as 21. The common name for 1,6 –hexandioic aid is:
super phosphate & triphosphate which are obtained (A) Picric acid (B) Adipic acid
from phosphorite or phosphate rocks: (C) Pthalic acid (D) Both b & c
(A) Nitrogeneous
(E) Potassic 22. In nylon 6,6, the monomers are joined together
(F) Phosphatic through:
(G) All (A) Amide linkage (B) Hydrogen bond
(C) Glycosidic linkage (D) Both b & c
8. Water repelling part of the soap& detergent is called:
(A) Hydrophilic (B) Acidic 23. Terylene is polymer of:
(C) Hydrophobic (D) Both of b & c (A) Ethyl alcohol & Ammonia
(B) Ethylene glycol &terepthalic acid
9. Water attracting part of the soap & detergent is called: (C) Both a & b
(A) Hydrophilic (B) Acidic (D) None
(C) Hydrophobic (D) Both of b & c
24. Polyethene is the polymer of:
(A) Ethylene (B) Benzene
(C) Acetylene (D) Both b & c
25. The plastic which soften on heating & harden on

cooling are called:
(A) Thermoplastic (B) Flexible plastic
(C) Thermo setting plastic (D) Both b & c
26. The plastic which heated only once before setting

iscalled:
(A) Thermoplastic (B) Flexible plastic
(C) Thermo setting plastic (D) Both b & c
27. Paint is usually composed of:

(A) Binder (B) Pigment
(C) Volatile solvent (D) All
28. PVA stands for:

(A) Polyvinylchloride (B) Polyvinylacetate
(C) Polyvinylalcohol (D) All
29. Transparent plastic used to manufacture hair brushes

& combs is a polymer of:
(A) Vinyl chloride (B) Methyl methacrylate
(C) Methyl formate (D) All
30. Which one of the following is thermo setting plastic?

(A) Phenol formaldehyde (B) Urea formaldehyde
(C) Silicons (D) All
31. CuO gives _____ colour to the glass:

(A) Red (B) Green
(C) Dark blue (D) Light blue
32. CoO gives _____ colour to the glass:

(A) Red (B) Green
33. Cr2O3 gives _____ colour to the glass:

(A) Red (B) Green
34. _______ is used for etching glass:

(A) HF (B) HCl
(C)HBr (D) HI
35. Super phosphate contains _____ % of assimilable

P2O5:
(A)18 to 20 (B) 30 to 50
(C)2 to 5 (D) 10 to 12
36. The mixture of calcium dihydrogen phosphate &

gypsum is called:
(A)Super phosphate (B) Manure
(C)Primary phosphate (D) Light phosphate
37. Triple phosphate contains _____ % of assimilable

P2O5:
(A) 18 to 20 (B) 48
(C) 5 (D) 10

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The Spark Institute of Language & Sciences

CHAPTER # 1 15. The atomic radius increases as we move down a group

28. Elements with greater number of electrons have

57. Which of the following is a trans-uranic element?

94. _______ ion has the largest radius:

95. Physical & chemical properties of the elements are

14. Methane decomposes into carbon black & hydrogen

29. LiAlH4 is an example of _______ hydride:

37. ZnH2, TlH2, CuH2 are _______ hydride:

38. The existence of isotopes wad discovered by:

39. Radioactive isotope of hydrogen is:

40. Which one of the following is also called heavy

41. In naturally occurring hydrogen, deuterium is present to

42. Percentage of tritium in naturally occurring hydrogen is:

43. The Half life of tritium is:

14. Due to the high reactive nature of the alkali metals,

16. Which of the alkali earth metal has radioactive nature?

96. A graphite anode is used in Down’s cell for the

100. _______ is a stronger base than others:

101. NaOH reacts with NH4Cl to form:

102. Which of the following represents calcium chlorite?

103. Sodium hydroxide when reacts with CO2, then which of

104. Sodium reacts with water more vigorously than lithium

105. Plaster of Paris hardens by:

106. Which of the following reaction shows the recovery of

11. The increase in the atomic size in group is:

12. Orthoboricacid is a mineral of:

13. Aluminum is the third most abundant elements

14. Bauxite is an ore of:

116. Nitric acid is used for: 130. Hypochlorous acid is:

118. In combined state nitrogen is found in all livingmatter

199. In which of the following bromine has an oxidation

(C) K2O.2SiO2.2H2O (D) Al2O3.nH2O (A) 1.89 A (B) 1.54 A

(A) 2.4gm/mL (B) 1.4gm/L (C) 2.34 A (D) 1.42 A

SO2  O2 2SO3H  45K .Cal / mol

253. The density of chlorine gas at STP is:

254. Chlorine combines with almost all non-metals except:

9. Coordination number of Pt in [Pt CI (NO2)(NH3)4]-2 is:

10. The total number of d-block elements is.

11. Transition metals have very high melting and boiling

12. Elements which are attracted by magnetic field are

CHAPTER # 5 13. The diamagnetic substances are:

14. Paramagnetic behaviour of transition metals is caused

56. Corrosion can be prevented by:

80. What is the co-ordination number of Fe in ferrocyanide

81. Number of ligands attached to central atom or ion of

82. Unidentate ligand contains:

83. EDTA stands for:

84. Ligands which contain two or more electron pair

(C) Formation of CrO74 4. The chemist who synthesized urea from

64. ________ is the common name of methanol:

65. ______ is the common name of propanone:

66. The uniqueproperty of organic compound is:

8. Soda lime is a mixture of_______:

9. General formula for alkane is:

10. Alkenes on hydrogenation give:

11. R-Mg-Br is called_________:

12. Upto_____C atoms, alkanes are gases:

CHAPTER # 7 13. Alkanes are less reactive than alkenes due

sir jp 12 complete chemistry © Mdcatian's Stetho - Mdcat Aspire Avenue

sir jp 12 complete chemistry © Mdcatian's Stetho - Mdcat Aspire Avenue

sir jp 12 complete chemistry © Mdcatian's Stetho - Mdcat Aspire Avenue