CSAT iConic Full Length Test 1
Passage-1 1) Use of unclean fuel sources result in
Brain health is an evolving concept, attracting
increasing attention not only from the health
sector but also from wider society, stimulating
rich debate – and for good reasons. The brain and
central nervous system are the command centre
of the human body, controlling both conscious
and unconscious body functions and thereby
influencing every aspect of life. If our brains are
challenged by disease or other factors, this poses
significant risks not only to an individual’s
overall health and well-being, but also to global
development and productivity.
Q.1. Which one of the following statements best
reflects what is implied by the passage?
a) Brain is the command centre and controls
conscious and subconscious functions in
humans.
b) Brain health influences every aspect of
life and challenges to it pose risks to
individual and societal wellbeing.
c) Brain health should be saved from
diseases and bad influence.
d) Global development and productivity
depend on sound mental health.
Passage-2
Around one third of the global population still
relies on polluting fuels to meet their basic daily
energy needs for cooking. The resulting
household air pollution leads to 3.2 million
premature deaths each year from
noncommunicable disease and pneumonia.
Unfortunately, lack of access to clean fuels and
technologies starts at home. Women and children
are exposed to polluted air when dirty fuels are
used for cooking, as they spend the most time at
home, and suffer additional risk when they have
to travel far from home to gather the wood
needed to cook. Accelerating access to clean
cooking fuel will not only save millions of lives,
it will also reduce greenhouse gas emissions and
therefore protect our planet.
Q.2. Based on the above passage, observe the
following assumptions:
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deaths from non-communicable diseases
2) Women and children are at additional risk
as they spend more time at home
Choose the correct answer:
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage-3
“The late Prof. Maitland was once asked to
explain why Parliamentary Institutions flourished
in England but failed to take roots in Europe. His
answer reveals the importance of shelter. He said
the difference was due to the English Channel.
By this answer what he meant to convey was that
by reason of the English Channel, England was
immune from foreign aggression while she was
repairing her own body politic and therefore it
became safe for people to fight against their King
for Liberty and also safe for the King to allow it
to his people.”
Q.3. Which of the following statements best
describes the underlying message of the passage?
a) The evolution of political structures and
institutions of a country are dependent on
its geopolitical factors.
b) The English Channel saved and
immunized England from foreign
aggressions
c) It was comparatively safer for people of
England to fight against their King for
liberty
d) Shelter is quintessential against foreign
invasion
Q.4. Equation p4 – ap3 + bp2 – cp + 7 = 0, when
divided by p – 1, leaves a remainder of 5, while,
when divided by p + 1, it leaves a remainder of 2.
What is the value of b?
a) -5.5
b) 5.5
c) 4.5
d) -4.5
Q.5. Consider the following statements:
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 CSAT iConic Full Length Test 1
Question: If six consecutive numbers are given,
then what will be the sum of the given
numbers?
Statement I: Smallest number is the only 2 digit
no which is perfect cube as well as perfect
square no.
Statement II: The average of the two numbers
that appear in the middle is 133/2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the Statements and the Question?
a) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
b) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
c) Either statement I or statement II alone is
sufficient to answer the question.
d) Statement II and Statement III together are
insufficient to answer the question.
Q.6. Consider the following statements and a
question:
Statement I: The difference between two
numbers is 565.
Statement II: On dividing the larger number by
the smaller, we get 5 as quotient and the 13 as
remainder.
Question: What is the larger number?
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the Statements and the Question?
(a) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer
the Question.
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer
the Question.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II
together are required to answer the
Question.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II
together are not sufficient to answer the
Question.
Q.7. The average weight of the four lightest
members of a family of five is 50 kg, while the
average weight of the four heaviest members is
55 kg. What is the difference between the
family's maximum and minimum average
weights if no member can be less than 20 kg in
weight?
a) 5
b) 4.5
c) 6
d) 3
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Q.8. If 10th July 1757 was Monday, then what
day of the week would 20th November 1861
have been?
a) Thursday
b) Monday
c) Wednesday
d) Saturday
Q.9. A, B, C, and D, four students met for a
project discussion and sat at a circular table
facing the centre. Then, consider the following
statements and a question:
Question: Who sat immediately to the right of
B?
Statement I: A sat second to the right of D. C
was an immediate neighbor of A.
Statement II: A and D sat opposite to each
other.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above Statements and the
Question?
a) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer
the Question.
b) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer
the Question.
c) Statement I and Statement II together are
not sufficient to answer the Question.
d) Both Statement I and Statement II
together are sufficient to answer the
Question, but neither Statement I alone
nor Statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the Question.
Q.10. Pipe A can fill a tank in 90 minutes, while
pipe B can empty the same tank in 120 minutes.
Both pipes were opened at 1 PM, when the tank
was three-fourth filled with water. 40 minutes
thereafter, pipe A was replaced by a pipe whose
efficiency was double than that of A. When will
the tank get filled completely?
a) 1: 35 PM
b) 1: 40 PM
c) 1: 45 PM
d) 1: 50 PM
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 CSAT iConic Full Length Test 1
Passage-4
Human genome editing has the potential to
advance our ability to treat and cure disease. But
the full impact will only be realized if we deploy
it for the benefit of all people, instead of fuelling
more health inequity between and within
countries. Potential benefits of human genome
editing include faster and more accurate
diagnosis, more targeted treatments and
prevention of genetic disorders. Somatic gene
therapies, which involve modifying a patient’s
DNA to treat a disease, have been successfully
used to address HIV, sickle-cell disease and
transthyretin amyloidosis. The technique could
also vastly improve treatment for a variety of
cancers.
Q.11. Based in the above passage, consider the
following statements:
1) Human genome editing can help in accurate
diagnosis and cure HIV and cancer
2) Somatic gene therapy modifies patient’s
DNA to treat various diseases
Choose the correct answer:
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage-5
The introduction of Panchayati Raj institutions
itself negatively affected the autonomy of tribal
communities. For example, before the
introduction of these institutions, all the issues
were resolved within the community with a
headman in the village. After the intervention of
political parties, people in tribal hamlets have
been divided based on their political affiliations
and started fighting among themselves. This, in
fact, has affected the tribal structure for resolving
their issues within the community. However, the
introduction of grassroots forms of governance
has helped in developing new leaders with
different political party affiliations among the
marginalised groups to some extent. Such leaders
have taken up the responsibility of representing
the interests of political parties not only in
Panchayati Raj institutions but in the broader
field of political demands and negotiations as
well.
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Q.12. Which of the following statements best
reflects the most logical and rational
implication conveyed by the passage?
a) Panchayati Raj institutions are the best form
of local governance for tribal communities
b) Modern governance structures have
mainstreamed tribal communities while
altering traditional governance structures
c) Marginalised groups are joining mainstream
political parties to serve their communities
better
d) All of the above
Passage-6
“The secret of freedom is courage, and courage is
born in combination of individuals into a party. A
party is necessary to run Government. But two
parties are necessary to keep Government from
being a despotism. A democratic Government
can remain democratic only if it is worked by
two parties- a party in power and a party in
opposition. As Jennings puts it: “If there is no
opposition there is no democracy. ‘His Majesty’s
Opposition’ is no idle phrase. His Majesty needs
an opposition as well as a Government.”
Q. 13. Which one of the following statements
best reflects the crux of the passage?
a) Courageous individuals are required to run a
political party successfully
b) The term ‘His Majesty’s Opposition’ was
coined in England parliamentary system
c) Robust opposition is quintessential in a
multiparty system for functioning of a healthy
democracy
d) At least two parties are essential for proper
functioning of a modern democracy
Q.14. Consider the following equation:
3$025 ÷ 175 = 183
Which of the following statements is/are true
with regards to the digit that is represented by
the symbol $?
I. $ is a prime number.
II. Nine to the power $ is completely divisible
by 18.
III. $ is the smallest odd number.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) Only I
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 CSAT iConic Full Length Test 1
b) Both I and II
c) Only III
d) All I, II and III
Q.15. Consider the following statements and a
question:
Statement I: A man completes one round along
the boundary of a rectangular park in 20
minute at the speed of 18km/hr.
Statement II: The ratio between the length and
the breadth of a rectangular park is 5:3.
Question: what is the area of the rectangular
park?
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the Statements and the Question?
a) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
Question.
b) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
Question.
c) Statement I and Statement II together are
required to answer the Question.
d) Statement I and Statement II together are not
sufficient to answer the Question.
Q.16. If a larger cube with a side of 1.56 m is
painted with three different colours, with same
colour being to the opposite side of the cube.
Then the cube is divided into smaller cubes with
a side of 12 cm.
Consider the following statements:
a. Number of cubes with no surface painted less
than 100.
b. Number of cubes with two surface painted is
more than 100.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
Q.17. If p and q are positive integers, such that q
is a multiple of 6 and 4p + 5q = 240, then p must
be a multiple of which of the following?
(a) 2 Passage-7
(b) 3 Since farmers are the developers and
(c) 8 custodians of crop diversity in the field, their
(d) 10
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Q.18. Y traveled from City A to City B. On
the first day, Y covered 20% of the entire
distance, and on the second day, Y traveled
60% of the remaining distance. After the first
two days, the distance left to be covered is 10
km less than the distance covered on the first
day.
Consider the following statements:
I. The total distance between City A and
City B is 120 km.
II. Distance traveled on the second day is
more than that traveled on the first
day by 40 km.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.19. One day, a street vendor sold 60% of
his stock of apples while throwing away 25%
of the rotting ones. From the remaining, next
day, he bought the same quantity of apples
that he had the day before and combined
them with the leftover apples. He then sold
70% of the apples and threw away the rest.
What percentage of the total amount of
apples the vendor had in two days did he
throw away?
(a) 20.5%
(b) 33%
(c) 24.5%
(d) 29.66%
Q.20. Nandini's office and home are 40
kilometres apart. She once left for work 30
minutes later than usual, so she increased her
speed by 4 km/h and arrived at the office at
the scheduled time. What is Nandini's new (or
increased) speed?
(a) 25 km/h
(b) 20 km/h
(c) 30 km/h
(d) 16 km/h
rights in this regard are critical if they are to
continue maintaining their pivotal role in
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 CSAT iConic Full Length Test 1
providing food security and nutrition- never
more so than in the current era of climate
change and other major challenges facing
humanity. The International Treaty on Plant
Genetic Resources (ITPGR) is the first
legally binding international agreement to
formally recognize the contribution of local
and indigenous communities and farmers to
the conservation and development of plant
genetic resources for food and agriculture.
The promotion and realization of their rights
will enable farming communities to continue
performing their role as developers and
custodians of plant genetic resources, and to
feed the world for the generations to come.
Q.21. Based on the above passage, consider
the following statements:
1) ITPGR formally recognizes the
contribution of indigenous farmers in
conservation of genetic resources
2) Recognition of traditional farmers rights
is critical to preserve crop diversity and
food security
Choose the correct answer:
a) Both 1 and 2 are correct
b) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
c) Both are correct and 1 is the correct
explanation of 2
d) Both are correct and 2 is the correct
explanation of 1
Passage-8
It is predicted that the global e-waste- discarded
products with a battery or plug- will reach 74 Mt
by 2030, almost a doubling of e-waste in just 16
years. This makes e-waste the world’s fastest-
growing domestic waste stream, fuelled mainly
by higher consumption rates of electric and
electronic equipment, short life cycles, and few
options for repair. Only 17.4 per cent of 2019’s
e-waste was collected and recycled. This means
that gold, silver, copper, platinum and other high-
value, recoverable materials conservatively
valued at US $57 billion, a sum greater than the
gross domestic product of most countries, were
mostly dumped or burned rather than being
collected for treatment and reuse.
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Q.22. Which of the following statements best
reflects the logical inference from the passage
given above?
a) Global e-waste generation will double in the
next 16 years
b) Easy electronic repairing will be helpful in
slow down of waste generation
c) E-wastes comprise of valuable and rare
materials and should be recycled for global
waste mitigation
d) E-waste dumping causes massive losses to
global economy
Passage-9
Food demand changes are also expected to be
influenced by evolving demographic
structures and spatial locations of
populations. For instance, between 2015 and
2050 the number of people aged 15 to 24
projected to be living in low- and middle-
income countries (LMIC) is expected to rise
from about 1 billion to 1.2 billion. Meanwhile
other regions, particularly those formed by
HIC, will have to adjust to rapidly-ageing
populations. Furthermore, by 2050, two-
thirds of the global population could be living
in urban areas. The different food
requirements of young and old people, as
well as the different consumption patterns,
jobs and living conditions of urban and rural
populations, will affect the demand for and
quality of various food items and minimum
dietary energy requirements. Population
dynamics will therefore be a critical
determinant of future food demand.
Q.23. Based on the above passage, consider the
following statements:
1) HIC will have a larger share of ageing
population as opposed to LMIC
2) Changes in food demand pattern may not be
reflective of demographic changes
3) Food requirements differ based on population
patterns
Choose the correct answer:
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) All of the above
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Q.24. With reference to the numbers X, Y and Z,
consider the following statements and
conclusions given below:
Statement I: If 45% of a number X is added to
another number Y, the sum becomes 125% of
the value of Y.
Statement II: If 20% of a number X is added to
another number Z, the sum becomes 125% of
the value of Z.
Conclusion I: X has the least value.
Conclusion II: Z is greater than X, but less than
Y.
Which of the above conclusions is/are correct?
(a) Only conclusion I is correct.
(b) Only conclusion II is correct.
(c) Both conclusions I and II are correct.
(d) Both conclusions are incorrect.
Q.25. Researchers from the computer department
attended the Stanford University annual
research conference, where they were
required to sit in rows in a particular way, and
each subsequent row contains three more
researchers than the preceding row. The first
row contains nine researchers and the total
number of researchers is twelve times the
number of rows overall. If researchers from
the computer department is one third of the
total researchers in the conference, then find
the number of researchers from the Computer
department.
(a) 18
(b) 15
(c) 12
(d) 24
Q.26. If M, N, O and P are four pillars, then
consider the following statements and a
question:
Statement I: Average height of M and O is 110
cm and that of N and P is 90 cm.
Statement II: Average height of N, O and P is
100 cm.
Statement III: The sum of the heights of M and P
is equal to that of N and O.
Question: What is the sum of the heights of all
four pillars?
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the Statements and the Question?
(a) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
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(b) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
(c) Statement III alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) Statement II and Statement III together are
sufficient to answer the question.
Q.27. The class size is 30 students. A student
who had chosen to work on a maths project
also decided to work on physics. Student who
does the project on maths, does not do project
on chemistry. The physics and chemistry
projects together are completed by eight
students. Every student completes a project
on at least one of the three subjects. The
number of student who does the project on
exactly one of the three is more than the
number of students who do more than one of
the three. What are the maximum and
minimum number of students who could have
done project on Chemistry only?
(a) 18, 5
(b) 20, 0
(c) 24, 2
(d) 22, 0
Q.28. There are 7 blue balls, 6 green balls, and 5
yellow balls in a basket. A person draws two
balls, one by one, without replacement. What
is the probability that the balls drawn are of
different colours?
(a) 74/105
(b) 107/153
(c) 59/153
(d) 87/153
Q.29. Consider the following sequence:
9, 7, 14, 8, 39, 12, 164, 21, @, @
Find the missing numbers that should replace
@.
(a) 876, 36
(b) 512, 39
(c) 789, 37
(d) 672, 25
Q.30. At precisely 11 AM a watch that gains 8
seconds in every 2 minutes was set. In the
evening of the same day, what time the watch
will indicate at quarter past 9 o'clock?
(a) 9:44:15 PM
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 CSAT iConic Full Length Test 1

(b) 9:40:15 PM greater than what its counterparts in many

(c) 9:50:00 PM democracies have at their disposal.
(d) 9:56:00 PM
Q.32. Which of the following statements best
reflects the Election Commission of
Passage-10 India?
In terms of free will, Freud did not believe
that we were able to control our own
a) ECI is entrusted with the responsibility of
behaviours. Rather, he believed that all
conducting elections at all levels of
behaviours are predetermined by motivations
governance in India
that lie outside our awareness, in the
b) ECI is amongst the most successful public
unconscious. These forces show themselves
institutions in India with significant
in our dreams, in neurotic symptoms such as
power to conduct large scale elections
obsessions, while we are under hypnosis, and
c) ECI has most significant powers at its
in Freudian “slips of the tongue” in which
disposal as compared to its counterparts
people reveal their unconscious desires in
across the world
language. Freud argued that we rarely
d) All of the above
understand why we do what we do, although
we can make up explanations for our
Passage-12
behaviours after the fact.
“Instead of taking a warning from the totalitarian
Q.31. Which of the following statements best
states, we are taking them as models to copy. The
reflects the logical inference from the
case of Germany and Italy furnish the most
passage given above?
cogent evidence on this point. The one-party
a) Human behaviour is under conscious
system is being hailed in this country in the name
control and can be freely chosen
of national solidarity. Those who are doing so are
b) Human behaviour, even though
failing to take note of the possibilities of tyranny
controlled, is predetermined by free will
as well as the possibilities of misdirection of
existing in the unconscious state
public affairs which is inherent in the one-party
c) Human behaviour is influenced solely by
Government. How under one party Government
external motivations and conscious
the tyranny of the majority ceases to be an empty
desires
phrase and becomes a menacing fact has been our
d) None of the above
experience.”

Passage-11
Election Commission of India is the central
authority in charge of conducting national
(and state) elections in India. It was
established in 1950. Several scholars have
highlighted the exemplary role played by the
ECI in ensuring free and fair elections and
consequently, in the consolidation of India’s
democracy, in spite of its challenging social,
cultural and economic environment. In
contrast to the usual inefficiencies of Indian
public institutions, the well-oiled machinery
of the Election Commission stands out
because of its excellent performance in
conducting elections on an unimaginably
large scale. What has emerged over the past
six-and-a-half decades is an Election
Commission that has significant powers, far
Q.33. Based on the above passage, observe the
following assumptions can be made:
1) One-party system leads to national cohesion
and solidarity
2) British colonialism led to absolute tyranny
just as Germany and Italy
3) Multiparty system provides checks and
balances against absolute tyranny
Which of the following are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 3 only
d) None of the above
Q.34. Ranjeet says to his son, “I was as old as
you are now when you were born”. If Ranjeet

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 CSAT iConic Full Length Test 1
is 42 years old, then what was the age of his
son six years ago?
(a) 15
(b) 14
(c) 13
(d) 12
Q.35. Consider the following statements and a
question:
Statement I: p and q are odd prime numbers and r
is even prime number.
Statement II: The sum of p, q, and r is an even
number.
Question: Is the product of the three integers p, q,
and r even?
Which one of the following is correct with
respect to the Question and the Statements?
(a) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer
the Question
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer
the Question
(c) Both statements together are required to
answer the Question
(d) Either Statement I alone or Statement II
alone is sufficient to answer the Question
Q.36. Consider the following statements and a
question:
Question: If @, #, and $ are standing in a
queue, then what could be the minimum
number of people in the queue?
Statement I: Between @ and #, there are six
people, and between # and $, there are
nine people.
Statement II: $ has four people in front of it
and 23 people are behind @.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the Statements and the
Question?
(a) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer
the question.
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer
the question.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II
together is not sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II
together is sufficient to answer the
question.
Q.37. Out of a total of 200 students in a class,
100 prefer subject A, 120 prefer subject B, 80
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prefer subject C, and 10 prefer none of these
three subjects. Of these three subjects, exactly
one subject is preferred by 100 people. Then,
consider the following statements:
I. Total number of students who prefer all
three subjects are more than 10% of the
total students.
II. Total number of students who prefer
exactly two of these subjects are more
than fifty.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.38. Consider the following statements with
respect to A where A is a natural number and
having 7 factors.
Statement 1: A is always perfect square number.
Statement 2: A is always perfect cube number.
Which of the statements given is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage-13
Emerging agrifood chains often require
standardized agricultural products in terms of
quality, size, delivery time, and so forth. In
many instances, standardized products can be
more efficiently produced by more capital-
intensive commercial farms. They require
less labour per unit of product than the
traditional ones. Whether the creation of new
jobs in downstream segments of agrifood
chains will exceed the reduction of
employment associated with the
commercialization of primary agriculture,
with a net positive employment effect,
depends on market and country-specific
circumstances.
Q.39. Which of the following statements best
reflects the logical inference of the
passage?
a) Capital intensive commercial farms
always efficiently produce standardised
products
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b) In commercialization of primary “perverts the way that person reaches decisions,

agriculture, market and country-specific forms preferences, or adopts goals.” This
factors influence job creation distortion, too, is an “invasion of autonomy.”
c) Capital-intensive farms take away
Q.41. Which of the following statements best
traditional agricultural jobs
reflects the primary intent of the passage?
d) Agrifood chains are essential for national
a) Algorithmic choices and business dynamics
development and food security
distort the process of decision-making,
preference formation, goal adoption
Passage-14 infringing on our autonomy
Biodiversity and traditional knowledge b) Algorithmic choices and business dynamics
extend beyond health and are intricately solely influence exposure to opinions and do
linked to natural resource management. not relate to autonomy
Indigenous communities often have a deep c) Algorithmic choices and business dynamics
understanding of their natural surroundings, limits individual’s options and preferences
the medicinal properties of various plants, d) None of the above
and how the variety of plant and animal
life supports food security, livelihoods,
Q.42. Consider the following statements for five
nutrition, and other dimensions of health and
digit number AB0AB where AB stands for
well-being. Biodiversity and traditional
13th Prime number and middle digit is zero.
knowledge are foundational pillars of health
Statement1:- Number of factors of AB0AB is 16.
and well-being and are essential to meeting
Statement 2:- AB0AB is divisible by 143.
the global commitments made under the
Which of the statements given is/are correct?
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), the
(a) 1 only
Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity
(b) 2 only
Framework (KMGBF), and the Paris Climate
(c) Both 1 and 2
Agreement.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.40. Which of the following best describes
Q.43. Three statements followed by two
the role played by biodiversity and
conclusions numbered I and II are given
traditional knowledge?
below. You have to take the given statements
a) Indigenous communities have greater
to be true even if they seem to be at variance
understanding and are the sole custodians
from commonly known facts. Read all the
of biodiversity and traditional knowledge
conclusions and then decide which of the
b) They are central to the fulfilment of
given conclusions logically follow(s) from
obligations under global international
the given statements, disregarding commonly
commitments
known facts.
c) They are interconnected with natural
Statements:
resource management and contribute to
I. Only a few mangoes are banana.
various dimensions of health and
II. No banana is a dragon fruit.
wellbeing aligning with global
III. All dragon fruits are pineapples.
commitments
Conclusions:
d) They comprise of animal life support,
I: Some pineapples are not bananas.
nutrition, health and wellbeing
II: All mangoes being bananas is not a
possibility.
Passage-15 Select the correct answer using the code
“These algorithmic choices and business given below:
dynamics shape our exposure to opinion and fact, (a) Only conclusion I follows
and the range of sources from which we get (b) Only conclusion II follows
them. The manipulation of their preferences may (c) Either conclusion I or II follows
not interfere directly with an individual’s options, (d) Both conclusions I and II follow
but, as legal philosopher Joseph Raz explains,

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 CSAT iConic Full Length Test 1
Q.44. Ramesh set out from his home in the
direction of the west. He moved forward 90
metres before turning right and moving
forward 60 metres. He then made a left turn
and walked 30 metres before making another
left turn and walking another 120 metres. He
then made a left turn and moved 15 metres.
He finally made a left turn again. Which way
must he be moving right now?
(a) West
(b) South
(c) North
(d) South-east
Q.45. If m and n are non-negative real numbers
such that m+4n=12, then the average of the
maximum and minimum possible values of
(m+n) is?
(a) 7.5
(b) 9.5
(c) 6
(d) 4.5
Q.46. Five positive integers, a, b, c, d, and e, are
such that exactly three of them are even, and
the remaining two are odd (not necessarily in
order). Consider the following statements:
I. a + b - c + d - e is definitely even.
II. 3a + 2b - c + 2d – 3e is definitely odd.
Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Q.47. Consider the following operations:
I. A * B means A is greater than B.
II. A - B means A is not smaller than B.
III. A / B means A is not greater than B.
IV. A + B means A is neither smaller nor greater
than B.
V. A % B means A is smaller than B.
Statement: X * Y, Y - Z, Z / W, W % V
Conclusion-1: V - X
Conclusion-2: V * Z
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above Statement and the Conclusions?
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(a) Only Conclusion-1 follows from the
Statement.
(b) Only Conclusion-2 follows from the
Statement.
(c) Both Conclusion-1 and Conclusion-2
follow from the Statement.
(d) Neither Conclusion-1 nor Conclusion-2
follows from the Statement.
Q.48. Two fruit sellers P and Q buy their stock
for Rs. 3000 and Rs. 6000 respectively. Fruit
seller P marks his stock up by m%, while
fruit seller Q marks his stock up by 2m% and
offers a discount of m%. If both make the
same non-zero profit, find m.
(a) 40%
(b) 30%
(c) 18%
(d) 25%
Passage-16
Commercial determinants of health (CDoH) are
the private sector activities impacting public
health, either positively or negatively, and the
enabling political economic systems and norms.
CDoH includes all products and services
provided by private entities to gain a financial
profit, as well as market strategies, working
conditions, production externalities and political
activities, such as misinformation, lobbying and
donations. Some parts of the private sector also
use instrumental, structural and discursive power
to undermine public health policies that threaten
profits. Commercial activities, especially by
transnational corporations, affect non-
communicable disease, infectious diseases and
pandemics, injuries and climate change. These
impacts also worsen inequities between and
within countries.
Q.49. Based on the above passage, observe
the following statements:
1) Commercial activities by private sector
affect diseases and their determinants
exacerbating inequalities within and
between countries
2) CDoH provides products and services that
threatens formation of robust public
health policies
Choose the correct answer:
a) Only 1
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 CSAT iConic Full Length Test 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage-17
Rogers was positive about human nature,
viewing people as primarily moral and
helpful to others, and believed that we can
achieve our full potential for emotional
fulfilment if the self-concept is characterized
by unconditional positive regard- a set of
behaviours including being genuine, open to
experience, transparent, able to listen to
others, and self-disclosing and empathic.
When we treat ourselves or others with
unconditional positive regard, we express
understanding and support, even while we
may acknowledge failings. Unconditional
positive regard allows us to admit our fears
and failures, to drop our pretences, and yet at
the same time to feel completely accepted for
what we are.
Q.50. Based on the above passage, which of
the following are part of unconditional
positive regard?
1) Ability to listen to others
2) Admission of fears and failures
3) Genuineness
4) Empathy
5) Transparency
Choose the correct answer:
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 1, 3, 4 and 5
c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
d) All of the above
Passage-18
“There's so many different worlds; So many
different suns; And we have just one world;
But we live in different ones;
Now the sun's gone to hell; And the moon's
riding high; Let me bid you farewell; Every
man has to die; But it's written in the
starlight; And every line in your palm; We're
fools to make war; On our brothers in arms”
Q.51. Which of the following best explains
the underlying message of the passage?
a) A reflection on personal loss
b) Sense of inevitability and futility of war
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c) A longing for better world and
brotherhood
d) Life is mortal and fragile
Q.52. Read the information given below and
answer the questions that follow:
The table below lists the number of bags of
three different cement varieties that a
building construction company used over the
course of three different months.
Cement June July August
Ambuja 136 224 192
UltraTech 168 128 160
Dalmia 144 176 236
Consider the following statements:
I. The average of the number of different
bags of cement used by the company in
the month of August is more than 200.
II. The ratio of the total number of Dalmia
cement bags used in June to the total
number of UltraTech cement bags used in
June is 5:6.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
Directions for the following two (53-54) items:
Read the following information carefully and
answer the questions that follow:
Six students, P, Q, R, S, T, and U, achieve
varying levels of success in a competition exam.
Only two students received grades lower than R.
The number of students with grades above R is
less than the number of students with grades
above Q. The number of students who scored
higher than Q equals the number of students who
scored lower than T. U receives 700 points, which
is not higher than S or P. P or S do not get the
best grades. An even number of students have
grades higher than P.
Q.53. Consider the following statements:
I. U has the least grades.
II. Exactly three students have grades higher
than that of R.
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 CSAT iConic Full Length Test 1

Which of the statements given above is/are Passage-19

correct? Nomadic women are disadvantaged by several
(a) I only layers of oppression ranging from the capitalist
(b) II only state to the patriarchal state, all of whom collude
(c) Both I and II in their oppression. In the present context, there
(d) Neither I nor II is a need to not only defend the right to political
representation for nomadic women, but also to
develop a deeper and more nuanced
Q.54. Consider the following statements: understanding of the specific problems that they
I. Grades of Q can be more than 700. face, and of the possibilities of resolving them.
II. Only four students have grades higher than The question of inequality, in this sense, cannot
700. be read outside of the question of community.
III.T has the highest grade points among the While individual empowerment is undoubtedly
all. an important part of collective and institutional
Which of the statements given above is/are empowerment, it is not enough.
correct?
a) I and II only Q.59. Which of the following statements
b) II and III only provides the best course of action for
c) I and III only empowerment of nomadic women?
d) I, II and III a) Understanding their problems and giving
political representation alongwith
institutional and collective empowerment
Q.55. What is the remainder when (541)3001 is b) Individual empowerment through
divided by 9? collaboration with capitalist state
(a) 0 c) Institutional empowerment through political
(b) 1 reservation
(c) 9 d) All of the above
(d) 7

Passage-20
Q.56. The product of two numbers is 2178 and Developmental economists have argued
their HCF is 11. How much such pair of poverty is multi-dimensional. Hence, we
numbers can be formed? transited through physical quality of life
(a) 1 indicators and human development index
(b) 2 (HDI), before zeroing in on the currently
(c) 3 favoured MDPI (multi-dimensional poverty
(d) 4 index). MDPI is more like a development
index, based on three dimensions—health,
Q.57. If a and b are positive integers such that (4a education and living standards. Health
+ 3b) is a multiple of 11, then which of the (nutrition, child and adolescent mortality,
following will also be divisible by 11? maternal health) and education (years of
(a) 9(a + b) schooling, school attendance) are important
(b) 7ab development objectives and influence future
(c) 4 (a + 3b) poverty. However, these should be on a
(d) 7a + 8b somewhat different footing from living
standards (cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking
Q.58. Let b be the largest number with exactly 3 water, electricity, housing, assets, bank
factors that divide 46! Find the value of b? accounts). Living standards do reflect
(a) 529 poverty. Inclusion of health and education
(b) 509 makes the word “poverty” elastic. But when
(c) 429 the poor have cried, many who are not
(d) 389 Caesars have also wept.

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 CSAT iConic Full Length Test 1
Q.60. Based on the above passage, which of
the following best describes the crux of
the passage?
a) Indicators for physical quality of life are
included in both HDI and MDPI
b) Availability of education, nutrition,
drinking water and housing can alleviate
poverty
c) Poverty encompasses multiple aspects of
human development and living standard
parameters are important indicators of the
same
d) When poor people are affected by
poverty, the rich also face the
repercussion of it
Q.61. Why is the term ‘poverty’ considered
elastic in case of MDPI?
a) MDPI primarily focuses on living
standards as an indicator of poverty,
making the term less applicable to health
and education
b) MDPI incorporates various dimensions of
poverty such as health, education making
the concept of poverty adaptable and
broader
c) MDPI excludes several aspects of health
and education from the definition of
poverty, resulting in specific
understanding of the term
d) None of the above
Passage-21
Cardiovascular diseases (CVDs) are the leading
cause of death globally, taking an estimated 17.9
million lives each year. CVDs are a group
of disorders of the heart and blood vessels and
include coronary heart disease, cerebrovascular
disease, rheumatic heart disease and other
conditions. More than four out of five CVD
deaths are due to heart attacks and strokes, and
one third of these deaths occur prematurely in
people under 70 years of age. The most important
behavioural risk factors of heart disease and
stroke are unhealthy diet, physical inactivity,
tobacco use and harmful use of alcohol. The
effects of behavioural risk factors may show up
in individuals as raised blood pressure, raised
blood glucose, raised blood lipids, and
overweight and obesity.
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Q.62. Observe the following statements:
1) Majority of CVD deaths are because of high
blood pressure.
2) Raise blood pressure and blood lipids, obesity
and overweight are indicative of behavioural
risk factors.
Choose the incorrect statement:
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.63. Which of the following behavioural
changes can reduce risk of CVDs?
1) Physical activity
2) Occasional drinking
3) Healthy diet
4) No use of tobacco
5) No drugs
Choose the correct answer:
a) 2, 3 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2, 4 and 5
d) All of the above
Q.64. Consider the Question and two Statements
given below:
Question: consider the following statements with
respect to X where X is a two digit number.
Find the value of X?
Statement I: Last digit in the number X is 1.
Statement II: X/7 is an odd number.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the Question and the Statements?
(a) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
Question
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
Question
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II taken
together are sufficient to answer the Question
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II taken
together are not sufficient to answer the
Question
Q.65. In a 60 litre mixture of water and milk,
water is only 30%. The milkman gives 12
litres `of this' mixture to a customer and then
he adds up 12 litres of pure water in the
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 CSAT iConic Full Length Test 1

remaining mixture. The percentage of water Q.70. Assume A and B must repay their loans in
in the final mixture is: three equal annual instalments of ₹40,000
(a) 36% each. A pays 12% simple interest per year,
(b) 44% while B pays 12% compound interest per
(c) 54% year. What is the distinction in their
(d) 42% payments?
(a)1600.88
(b)1772.92
Q.66. There are total 80 coins consisting of 20 (c)1797.12
paise, 50 paise and ₹1 in the ratio of 7: 5: 4. (d)1862.14
What is the no. of coins of 50 paise if the
difference between the amount yielded by the Passage-22
coins of ₹1 and 20 paise is ₹13? Tawney denounced self-seeking amoral and
(a) 35 immoral behaviour that he claimed is
(b) 25 supported by capitalism. Tawney opposed
(c) 20 what he called the "acquisitive society" that
(d) 30 causes private property to be used to transfer
surplus profit to "functionless owners",
Q.67. When a ball is dropped, it bounces back to i.e. capitalist rentiers. However, he did not
1/3rd of the height from which it was dropped denounce managers as a whole, believing
from. If the ball is dropped from a height of that management and employees could join in
63 m, find the total vertical distance travelled a political alliance for reform. Tawney
by the ball before it comes to rest. supported the pooling of surplus profit
(Neglecting air resistance.) through means of progressive taxation to
(a) 90m redistribute these funds to provide social
(b) 126m welfare, and the nationalization of strategic
(c) 189m industries and services. He supported worker
(d) 252m participation in the business of management
in the economy as well as consumer,
Q.68. If xy = 24, then which of the following employee, employer and state cooperation in
statements must be true? regulating the economy.
I. If x is positive then y must be
positive. Q.71. Based on the above passage, which
II. If x is negative, y must be negative. statement best describes the most logical
III. if y is negative , x can be positive. inference of the passage?
a) Capitalism fosters selfish and immoral
Select the correct answer using the code given behaviour as well as privatization of
below. property
IV. I and II only b) The redistribution of funds for social
V. I and III only welfare alongwith cooperative
VI. II and III only management through multiple
VII. I, II and III stakeholders is recommended.
c) Capitalist rentiers promote amoral and
Q.69. The cost of 6 pencils, 5 erasers and 2 immoral behaviour with the help of
sharpeners together is Rs. 59, whereas the managers
cost of 1 pencil, 2 erasers and a sharpener d) Management of business in the economy
together is Rs. 18. Find the combined cost of is not possible without participation of
5 pencils, 3 erasers and 1 sharpener. workers
(a) Rs. 54
(b) Rs. 36 Q.72. Observe the following statements:
(c) Rs. 41 1) Capitalism supports amoral and immoral
(d) Cannot be determined behaviour through acquisitive transfers

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 CSAT iConic Full Length Test 1

2) Employees and management could bring Q.74. Based on the above passage, what are the
reform through political alliance hindrances towards achieving SDG targets?
1) Unequal growth
Choose the incorrect options: 2) Gender inequality
a) Only 1 3) Greenhouse Gas Emissions
b) Only 2 4) Recycling food wastes
c) Both 1 and 2 5) Unsustainable farming technique
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Choose the correct options:

Passage-23 a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
If food and agricultural systems remain on b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
their current path, the evidence points to a c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
future characterized by persistent food d) All of the above
insecurity and unsustainable economic
growth. Many countries and regions are
already committed to increasing the Q.75. If in a certain code ‘FAMILY’ is written as
sustainability of their food and agriculture ‘GZNHMX’ then how would ‘MOTHER’
systems. However, fully meeting Sustainable would be written?
Development Goals (SDGs) targets, as (a) NMVGERS
envisaged by the 2030 Agenda for (b) GWMHNZ
Sustainable Development, will require (c) NNUGFS
additional efforts to address growing (d) NNUGFQ
inequalities and gender imbalances, sustain
peace, reduce GHG emissions, avoid resource
depleting farming systems, manage the Q.76. Four cards are drawn at random and
demand for resource-intensive animal food without replacement from a pack of 52
products, and reduce food loss and waste, playing cards. Find the probability that all
among other challenges. Ensuring a more four cards are Black.
equitable distribution of income within and (a) 25/102
across countries is indispensable in the quest (b) 46/833
for food security, better nutrition and (c) 48/833
environmental sustainability of food systems. (d) 1/4

Q.73. What is the primary concern expressed in Q.77. A bed sheet when washed, was found to
the passage regarding food and agricultural have lost 10% of its length and 12.5% of its
systems? breadth. The percentage decrease in its area
a) The importance of achieving SDGs targets by was:
2030 to ensure food security and economic (a) 21.25%
growth (b) 24.5%
b) The need to manage demand for resource (c) 27%
intensive animal food products to address (d) 30.5%
growing inequalities and gender imbalances
c) The need for countries and regions to
continue their sustainability efforts in food Q.78. If the population of a city doubled every
and agriculture year and the population of the city at the
d) The potential consequences of continuing on starting year was 25000 then what would be
the current path and the necessity for the total population of the city at the start of
equitable income distribution to ensure food the 8th year?
security and sustainability (a) 1600000
(b) 3200000
(c) 6400000
(d) 12800000

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 CSAT iConic Full Length Test 1

Q.79. In a deck of playing cards, there are 4 suits:

Hearts, Diamonds, Clubs, and Spades, and
each suit has 13 cards. Consider the following
statements:
I. The smallest number n such that any n
cards drawn from the deck randomly must
contain at least one card of each suit is 20.
II. The smallest number m such that any m
cards drawn from the deck randomly must
contain one full suit out of Hearts,
Diamonds, Clubs and Spades is 49.
Which of the statements give above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.80. There are 6 people in a group: A, B, C, D,

E, and F. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: A is married to D.
Statement II: B is the father of E.
Statement III: C is E's sister.
Statement IV: D and F are cousins.
Question: What is the relation of F to C?
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above Question and
Statements?
(a) Statement I, Statement II, and Statement
III together are sufficient to answer the
Question.
(b) Statement I, Statement III, and Statement
IV together are sufficient to answer the
Question.
(c) All four statements together are sufficient
to answer the Question.
(d) All four statements are not sufficient to
answer the Question.

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