CSAT iConic Full Length Test 2
Passage-1 society that one gains by reading and engaging with
The water-energy-food (WEF) nexus concept has
become central to sustainable development for
technical assessments to improve resource
management and system efficiency, identifying trade-
offs and optimizing synergies across nexus sectors for
the governance of natural resources and the design of
efforts to alleviate poverty and food insecurity.
Interactions among WEF nexus components play a
vital role in the living standard outcomes of rural
households, and can be captured and/or affected
through changes in household behaviours or
activities. For example, changes in residential energy
use substantially influence household income and
greenhouse gas emissions.
Q.1. Which of the following statements best reflects
the crux of the passage?
a) Household behaviours have no impact on the
WEF Nexus components
b) Changes in household behaviours only affect
urban resources
c) WEF is crucial for assessment of system
management and resource efficiency
d) Changes in household behaviour affect
greenhouse gas emission
Passage-2
Even those who aim at a good life seek the means of
obtaining bodily pleasures; and, since the enjoyment
of these appears to depend on property, they are
absorbed in making money: and so there arises the
second species of money-making. For, as their
enjoyment is in excess, they seek an art which
produces the excess of enjoyment; and, if they are not
able to supply their pleasures by the art of money-
making, they try other arts, using in turn every faculty
in a manner contrary to nature.
Q.2. Which of the following statements best reflects
the most logical inference as conveyed by the author
of the passage?
a) Greed and materialism are antithesis to socially
accepted value systems
b) Property is essential for excessive enjoyment
c) Religion and charity can subdue the evils of bodily
pleasure
d) Pleasure is achieved only by doing activities
contrary to nature
Passage-3
It is no easy task to be a Humanities student in India
today. Regardless of how one gets into it, a motivated
Humanities student has to fight tough social and
personal battles. The understanding of oneself and
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literature, philosophy, history, or sociology is
invaluable to creating a better and fairer society.
However, in a society that revolves around the market
and is governed and altered according to market
requirements, the knowledge and wisdom of the
Humanities are ignored and discarded. Especially for
its potent function of questioning the market itself and
the consequential arrangement of society, it becomes
all the more necessary for the market forces to
reinforce and perpetuate a second-class status to
Humanities.
Q.3. Which of the following statements best reflects
what is implied by the passage?
a) The study of Humanities should be discarded as it
voices resentment against market forces
b) Humanities students have no job prospects as
compared to other educational streams
c) For some studying humanities is a privilege but not
a necessity
d) Inferior status of Humanities is created because it
questions dominant market forces
Q4. If PQ is a two digit number and the number
obtained by interchanging the digit is QP, then
consider the following statements and a question:
Statement I: The difference between PQ and QP is 63
Statement II: The Numbers PQ and QP are exactly
divisible by 9
Question: What is the difference between the sum and
the difference of the digits of the number?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
above Statements and the Question?
a) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
b) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
c) Both statement I and statement II together are
sufficient to answer the question.
d) Statement I and Statement II together are
insufficient to answer the question.
Q5. If P, Q and R are three distinct integers, where P
is even and positive, and Q and R are odd and
positive, then consider the following statements:
Statement I: The value of {(Q - P)2 x R} is
definitely even.
Statement II: The value of {(Q2 + P2) - R2} is
definitely odd.
Which among the following statements is/are
correct ?
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 CSAT iConic Full Length Test 2
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Q6. A shopkeeper has to print a book of 10,000
pages. Printing the digit 7 after 1000 pages costs extra
Rs. 0.50/per digit, then what is the extra cost of
printing the digit 7?
(a) Rs. 1850
(b) Rs. 1948
(c) Rs. 2023
(d) Rs. 2772
Q7. A boat travelling upstream travels a particular
distance in 6 hours and 45 minutes, while a boat
travelling downstream travels the same distance in 3
hours. What is the ratio between the boat's speed and
the water current's speed, respectively?
(a) 9 : 7
(b) 11 : 6
(c) 13 : 5
(d) 3 : 2
Q8. In an examination, the paper setter has set the
tough paper where 45% of students failed in maths
and 32% of students failed in science while 24%
failed in both the Subjects. If 376 students passed in
both the subjects, how many students appeared to
write the examination?
(a) 700
(b) 800
(c) 900
(d) 1100
Q9. For a Diwali celebration, six distinct chocolate
kinds in the counts of 40, 184, 152, 104, 136, and 216
were ordered. They have to be packaged so that every
box contains the same amount of chocolate in the
same variety. If the minimum number of boxes
required to be packed is N, then consider the
following statements:
Statement I: The value of N is definitely an odd
number
Statement II: The value of N is exactly divisible by 11
Statement III: The value of (N - 4) is definitely a
perfect square.
Which among the following statement is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II and III only
(c) III only
(d) None of the above
Q 10. When divided by a three-digit number, the
integers 813251 and 815274 leaves the same
remainder. What is the three digit number?
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(a) 196
(b) 225
(c) 256
(d) 289
Passage-4
Men in general desire the good, and not merely what
their fathers had. It would be ridiculous to rest
contented with their notions. Even when laws have
been written down, they ought not always to remain
unaltered. As in other sciences, so in politics, it is
impossible that all things should be precisely set
down in writing; for enactments must be universal,
but actions are concerned with particulars. Hence,
we infer that sometimes and in certain cases laws
may be changed; but when we look at the matter
from another point of view, great caution would
seem to be required.
Q.11. Based on the above passage which of the
following statements best describes the underlying
message?
a) Laws are universal and cannot be changed even in
adverse circumstances
b) Basic tenets of politics are universal even though it
is temporally dynamic
c) Great caution is required when laws are being
changed
d) The science of politics has been precisely written
down
Passage-5
The world is more and more interconnected but it
does not mean that individuals and societies really
live together – as reveal the exclusions suffered by
millions of poor, women, youth, migrants and
disenfranchised minorities. In our turbulent
international globalized landscape, a central message
must be heralded: peace is more than the absence of
war, it is living together with our differences – of sex,
race, language, religion or culture – while
furthering universal respect for justice and human
rights on which such coexistence depends. Peace is a
choice to be made on each situation, an everyday life
decision to engage in sincere dialogue with other
individuals and communities.
Q.12. Based on the above passage, which of the
following sentences best describes the ‘peace’?
a) Peace is the absence of war and conflict
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b) Global mutual coexistence and respect for Which among the following statements is/are correct
fundamental human rights ?
c) Peace is dynamic and its meaning changes (a) I only
everyday (b) II only
d) Peace is unattainable in our global landscape (c) Both I and II
because of our differences (d) Neither I nor II

Passage-6 Q 16. 10 coins are tossed, find the probability of

getting exactly 3 tails?
Chronic food insecurity leads to micronutrient (a) 3/10
malnutrition in women and their babies which, in (b) 3/512
humanitarian contexts, is further exacerbated as (c) 15/128
antenatal, postnatal, and obstetric care services are (d) None of these
disrupted. The disproportionate impact of
humanitarian crises on women and girls has potential Q17. N is a series in A.P and if the common
consequences for future generations. Monitoring the difference is 1 , then consider the following
nutrition status of women and girls is critical to statements followed by a question:
inform and guide targeted nutrition interventions in Statement I: The 5 times of the 5th term of N is equal
both development and humanitarian contexts. to 9 times the 9th term of N
Agencies working in humanitarian settings need clear, Statement II: The 16th term of the series N is a prime
harmonized policies and guidelines for women and number less than 10
girls regarding micronutrient interventions. Question: What is 14 times 14th term of the series N ?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
Q.13. Based on the passage, the following above Statements and the Question?
assumptions have been made:
a) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
1) Clear and harmonised policy interventions are question.
needed to address micronutrient malnutrition b) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
2) Micronutrient malnutrition in women and babies question.
impact their future health and care services c) Both statement I and statement II together are
sufficient to answer the question.
Choose the correct answer: d) Statement I and Statement II together are
insufficient to answer the question.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2 Q18. A vegetable vendor has Onions, tomatoes, and
d) Neither 1 nor 2 potatoes in the following ratio: 3 : 7 : 9. There are
more number of tomatoes than onions by a number
that is a multiple of both 8 and 9. What is the
Q14. In how many ways can 4 Boys and 5 girls be
minimum number of vegetables in his shop?
seated in a row so that they are alternate?
(a) 286
(b) 296
a) 576
(c) 332
b) 2880
(d) 342
c) 40320
d) None of these
Q19. Five people P, Q, R, S and T are sitting on a
Q 15. Two taps, P and Q, can fill a tank in 10 hours bench for a lecture. If P is sitting next to Q and R is
and 15 hours, respectively. In 10 hours, Tap R can sitting next to S, then consider the following
empty the tank. All the three taps are turned on at the statements and a question:
same time, 5:00 AM, then consider the following Statement I: S is not sitting with T who is on the left
statements: end of the bench.
Statement I: The tank would be completely filled by 6 Statement II: R is on the second position from the
: 00 PM right and P is to the right of Q and T.
Statement II: If the efficiency of all the Taps is Statement III: P and R are sitting together.
increased by 25%, then tank would be completely Question: What is the position of P?
filled by 5 : 00 PM.
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 CSAT iConic Full Length Test 2
How many of the given statements is/are required to
answer the question?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above
Q20. Which number will come in the place of (?) in
the given number series?
100000, 120000, 96000, 115200, 92160, ?
(a) 100572
(b) 100920
(c) 110592
(d) 115120
Passage-7
Every state is a community of some kind, and
every community is established with a view to some
good; for mankind always act in order to obtain that
which they think good. But, if all communities aim at
some good, the state or political community, which is
the highest of all, and which embraces all the rest,
aims, and in a greater degree than any other, at the
highest good.
Q.21. Which of the following statements best
describes the message implied in the above passage?
a) Communities are established to serve mutual
socio-economic goals
b) Political community pursues power and
dominance
c) Political and social communities have divergent
goals
d) State or political community is most inclusive and
seeks the highest good
Passage-8
The world remains far off the mark in reducing the
proportion and absolute numbers of slum dwellers.
While the proportion of people living in slums and
informal settlements continued to decline, the
absolute number is on the rise. In effect, the world is
producing new slum dwellers faster than it can
address existing slums. The rate of decline in slum
proportions also slowed down, against an increasing
rate of change in the absolute number of slum
dwellers, pointing to an overall worsening in
performance on indicator over this period. Roughly
2.8 billion people are estimated to be affected by
different forms of housing inadequacy, of which close
to 1.1 billion reside in slums and informal
settlements.
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Q.22. Which one of the following statements most
likely reflects as to what the author of the passage
intends to say?
a) The world is effectively addressing existing
slums and reducing absolute numbers of slum
dwellers
b) Despite a decline in the proportion of slum
dwellers the absolute number is increasing indicating
a worsening situation
c) Slum dwellers are concentrated in specific
regions while leaving other areas unaffected
d) Proportion of slums have declined reflecting a
positive outcome in numbers
Passage-9
Under current trends, 575 million people will still be
living in extreme poverty in 2030, and only about one
third of countries will meet the target to halve
national poverty levels. Shockingly, the world is back
at hunger levels not seen since 2005, and food prices
remain higher in more countries than in the period
2015–2019. The way things are going, it will take 286
years to close gender gaps in legal protection and
remove discriminatory laws. And in education, the
impacts of years of underinvestment and learning
losses are such that, by 2030, some 84 million
children will be out of school and 300 million
children or young people attending school will leave
unable to read and write.
Q.23. Based on the above passage observe the
following statements:
1) Underinvestment in education affects learning
outcomes
2) Food prices are moderately lower yet hunger
levels are higher than ever
3) Discriminatory laws lead to gender gap in
providing effective legal protection
Choose the correct answer:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Passage-10
There are three permissible exceptions to the basic
rule on patentability. One is for inventions contrary
to public order or morality; this explicitly includes
inventions dangerous to human, animal or plant life or
health or seriously prejudicial to the environment. The
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use of this exception is subject to the condition that
the commercial exploitation of the invention must
also be prevented and this prevention must be
necessary for the protection of public order or
morality. The second exception is that members may
exclude from patentability diagnostic, therapeutic and
surgical methods for the treatment of humans or
animals. The third is that Members may exclude
plants and animals other than micro-organisms and
essentially biological processes for the production of
plants or animals other than non-biological and
microbiological processes.
Q.24. Which of the following statements best
describes the most logical and rational message
implied in the above passage?
a) Inventions and patentability are subject to
acceptable foundational and unbreachable
norms of greater good of all
b) The prevention of commercial exploitation of
inventions is the ultimate goal of patentability
c) New inventions may be dangerous to animals
and plants
d) All of the above
Q25. Consider the following statements and a
question:
Question: What is the speed and length of the train ?
Statement I: The train crosses another train running
in the same direction in 28 seconds.
Statement II: The train crosses a platform of length
324 metres in 36 seconds.
Statement III: The train crosses a pole in 18 seconds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the above Statements and the Question?
a) Statement I and statement II together are
sufficient to answer the question.
b) Statement II and Statement III together are
sufficient to answer the question.
c) Statement I, Statement II and Statement III
together are sufficient to answer the question.
d) Statement I , Statement II and Statement III
together are insufficient to answer the question.
Q 26. Commodity P experiences an annual price
increase of 80 paise, and commodity Q experiences
an annual price increase of 60 paise. Which year will
commodity P cost 80 paisa higher than commodity Q
if the prices of the two commodities P & Q were Rs.
8.40 and Rs. 10.80 in 2007 respectively?
(a) 2017
(b) 2019
(c) 2021
(d) 2023
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Q 27. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a
rectangular park is 6 : 5. If a man cycling along the
boundary of the park at the speed of 11 km/hr completes
one round in 12 minutes, then consider the following
statements:
Statement I: The perimeter of the rectangular park is
2500 meters
Statement II: The area of the rectangular park is
375000 m2
Which among the following statement is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Q 28. If a 2.16 m cube is painted orange on all the
sides, and it is subsequently divided into 36 cm-side
cubes, then consider the following statements:
Statement I: The number of cubes at-most one sided
painted is more than 150.
Statement II: The number of cubes only two sides
painted is less than 50.
Which among the following statement is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Q 29. The examiner has conducted a test. If the
probability of P, Q and R passing the test is 65%, 42%
and 20% respectively, then consider the following
statements:
Statement I: The probability of P and Q passing the test
and R not passing the test is more than 50%
Statement II: The probability of P, Q and R together
passing the test is more than 20%.
Which among the following statement is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Q30. In a company the five employee P, Q, R, S, and T
earns according to their positions. Q earns 50% less than
P does and P earns 50% less than R does. S earns 40%
less than P does. P makes 40% less than T does. If the
integer amount of P, Q, R, S, and T individually are more
than Rs. 100, then what is the minimum sum of amount
earned by P, Q, R, S, and T together?
(a) Rs. 1038
(b) Rs. 1223
(c) Rs. 1333
(d) Rs. 1443
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Q 31. If P % Q means P is the son of Q, P x Q means
P is the sister of Q and P - Q means P is the father of
Q, then consider the following statements:
Statement I: The operation T x S % U % V means T is
the granddaughter of V
Statement II: The operation T - S x U means T is father
of U.
Which among the following statement is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Passage-11
For friendship we believe to be the greatest good of
states and the preservative of them against
revolutions; neither is there anything which Socrates
so greatly lauds as the unity of the state which he and
all the world declare to be created by friendship. But
the unity which he commends would be like that of
the lovers in the Symposium, who, as Aristophanes
says, desire to grow together in the excess of their
affection, and from being two to become one, in
which case one or both would certainly perish.
Q.32. Based on the above passage, consider the
following statements:
1) Friendship among states is the greatest that
prevents them against revolution
2) Friendship leading to absolute unity threatens
existence of one state or the other
Choose the correct answer:
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage-12
When nanoscale inventions exhibit properties that are,
in some measure, unanticipated or different from
those found in larger scale prior art, exceptions have
been made. Orica’s smaller particles exhibited
remarkably improved technical properties resulting in
a glossier coat compared to the larger particles
protected under the prior patent. The difference in
properties was held to be sufficient to impart novelty.
But does an invention lack novelty if it claims to use
particles in a range of sizes that overlap with those
disclosed in the prior art? Generally, even the
slightest overlap is sufficient to destroy novelty but
exceptions have been liberally applied to nanoscale
inventions.
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Q.33. Which of the following statements best
describes the crux of the passage?
a) Technical complexity of invention is crucial for
patentability
b) Novelty in inventions is based on strict parameters
with exception in nanoscale inventions
c) Nanoscale inventions are always novel due to their
particle sizes
d) Overlapping particle sizes in nanoscale inventions
can never be considered novel
Passage-13
It may sometimes seem desirable to make changes.
Such changes in the other arts and sciences have
certainly been beneficial; medicine, for example, and
gymnastic, and every other art and science have
departed from traditional usage. And, if politics is to
be an art, change must be necessary in this as in any
other art. The need of improvement is shown by the
fact that old customs are exceedingly simple and
barbarous. The remains of ancient laws which have
come down to us are quite absurd; for example, at
Cumae there is a law about murder, to the effect that
if the accuser produce a certain number of witnesses
from among his own kinsmen, the accused shall be
held guilty.
Q.34. Based on the above passage, which of the
following statements best describes the underlying
message by the author?
a) Politics is a statecraft based on traditional tenets
of usage and time-constrained
b) Change as per the demand of the time is
imperative in politics as it is in other arts and
sciences
c) Ancient statecraft was far simpler and more
barbaric some of which is relevant in
contemporary times
d) Politics is the only field that doesn’t require
change
Passage-14
The share of children who received three doses of the
vaccine against diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis
(DTP) – a marker for immunization coverage within
and across countries – fell 5 percentage points
between 2019 and 2021. This marked the largest
sustained decline in childhood vaccinations in
approximately 30 years. As a result, 25 million
children missed out on one or more doses of DTP
through routine immunization services in 2021 alone.
This highlights the growing number of children at risk
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from devastating but preventable diseases. In 2021,
only 70 per cent of children received two doses of the
vaccine for measles, a highly contagious disease. This
was far below the 95 per cent population coverage
required to prevent outbreaks. Coverage of the first
dose of human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine, which
has grave consequences for women and girls’ health
worldwide, reached only 15 percent in 2021, despite
the first vaccines being licensed over 15 years ago.
Q.35. Based on the above passage, consider the
following assumptions:
1) Immunization coverage for DTP fell
consistently over half a decade
2) The lack of HPV vaccine during Covid has
adversely affected women and girls
Which of the following statements are not correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 36. Traders R and S buy two goods for Rs. 2000
and Rs. 4000 respectively. Trader R marks his goods
up by p%, while trader S marks his goods up by 2p%
and offers a discount of p%. If both make the same
non-zero profit, then what is p in percentage terms ?
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 65 %
(d) 80 %
Q 37. In certain language code "FORMATION" is
written as "TKHMYFQKL", then how is "CAMPUS"
coded ?
(a) WYMENF
(b) WYMJEG
(c) SYMJGE
(d) SYMNEF
Q 38. If P was born in the month of April, 2019, then
consider the following Statements and a question:
Statement I: P was born on an odd numbers date.
Statement II: P was born on even prime number date.
Question: When was P born?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
above Statements and the Question?
a) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
b) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
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c) Both statement I and statement II together are
sufficient to answer the question.
d) Statement I and Statement II together are
insufficient to answer the question.
Q 39. In a large auditorium, the people are made to sit
to watch the science conference. If the staff members
make a row of 20 people each, there will be 16 people
left. If they make rows of 24 each, then there will be
20 people left, if they make rows of 28 each, there
will be 24 people left and if they make rows of 30
each, there will be 26 people left. What is the
minimum number of people present in the
conference?
(a) 1256
(b) 1096
(c) 836
(d) 776
Q 40. If a five digit number is 220ab such that ab both
are non zero distinct digits then consider the
following statements and a question:
Statement I: The number is divisible by 3, 4 and 7.
Statement II: The value of two digit number ab is a
multiple of 23
Question: What is the value of two digit number ab ?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
above Statements and the Question?
a) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
b) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
c) Both statement I and statement II together are
sufficient to answer the question.
d) Statement I and Statement II together are
insufficient to answer the question.
Q 41. If Q is the closest perfect square to 536, then
consider the following statements:
Statement I: The value of Q is exactly divisible by 11
Statement II: The value of (Y + 2) is a perfect square if Y
is a positive square root of Q.
Statement III: The value of (Y + 1) and (Y - 1) are odd
numbers if Y is a positive square root of Q.
Which among the following statement is/are correct ?
(a) I and II only
(b) II only
(c) I and III only
(d) III only
Q 42. The average of age of 45 persons is 46 in an
Hospital. If 5 new persons were added in the list the
average age becomes 48, then what is the average age
of 5 new persons added later ?
(a) 58
(b) 62
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(c) 66
(d) 70
Passage-15
Owning a mobile phone has been shown to be an
important tool to empower women by connecting
them to other people, and enabling them to access
information and services. Globally, 73 per cent of the
population aged 10 and over owned a mobile phone in
2022, up from 67 per cent in 2019. However, women
were 12 per cent less likely to own mobile phones
than men, a gap that has remained relatively
unchanged since 2019. Significant disparities exist
across regions, with gender parity largely reached or
almost reached in high- and middle-income regions,
but far from achieved in lower-income regions.
Q.43. Which of the following best describes the most
logical implication of the passage?
a) There is gender gap in mobile phone ownership
even though more women own mobiles now
b) There is regional disparity in gender parity in
access to mobile phones even though it empowers
women
c) Higher number of populations has access to mobile
phones as compared to last decade
d) All of the above
Passage-16
Will there not be confusion if the judge thinks that
damages should be given, but not so much as the
suitor demands? He asks, say, for twenty minae, and
the judge allows him ten minae, or one judge more
and another less. In this way they will go on
apportioning the damages, and some will grant the
whole and others nothing: how is the final
reckoning to be taken? For the judge who acquits
does not decide that the defendant owes nothing, but
that he does not owe the twenty minae. He only is
guilty of perjury who thinks that the defendant ought
not to pay twenty minae, and yet condemns him.
Q.44. Based on the above passage, when is a judge
considered guilty of perjury?
a) When they award the full amount demanded by
the suitor
b) When they condemn the defendant yet do not
award penalty as demanded by suitor
c) When they passed biased judgement with regard
to the suitor and the defendant
d) None of the above
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Passage-17
Culture is a driver of urban economies and
employment. Nearly one third of UNESCO World
Heritage sites and more than 70 percent of cultural
properties are located in urban areas. Creative and
cultural industries, which account for 3.1 percent of
global GDP, are largely based in urban areas and
comprise about 13 percent of employment in major
cities. Cultural tourism is another core component of
urban economies. In 2019, prior to the global
lockdown, tourism injected US$8.9 trillion into the
global economy, or 10.3 per cent of global GDP,
with cultural tourism accounting for an estimated 40
per cent of all tourism worldwide – the widest share
of which is also driven by urban settlements.
Q.45. With reference to the passage, which one of the
following statements is not correct?
a) Tourism is a major contributor to global GDP
post lockdown
b) Cultural tourism is one of the major
components of urban economies
c) Cultural industries thrive in urban areas and
generate employment
d) None of the above
Passage-18
Global primary energy intensity, defined as the ratio
of total energy supply to GDP – in essence, the
amount of energy used per unit of wealth created is
well below the 2.6 percent required to meet target 7.3
of doubling the global rate of improvement in energy
efficiency by 2030. In 2020, the improvement rate
slowed down to 0.6 per cent, due to the COVID-19
crisis, marking the smallest gains since the global
financial crisis. It is expected that energy intensity
will improve at a higher pace in 2022. However, to
make up for lost time, energy intensity improvements
will need to average 3.4 per cent per year until 2030.
Prioritizing energy efficiency in policy and increasing
investment can help the world achieve energy and
climate targets.
Q.46. Based on the above passage, consider the
following:
1) Energy efficient policies
2) Energy saving machineries
3) Increased Investment
4) Intensive energy generation
Which of the above would help in achieving global
primary energy intensity?
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 CSAT iConic Full Length Test 2

a) 1 and 2 B) ii & iii correct

b) 1 and 3 C) i & iii correct
c) 3 and 4 D) i, ii & iii correct
d) 2 and 4

Q 47. Select the number that can come at the place of

(P), in the following given series: Q 53. If the number 65892a5 is divisible by 15 then
24, 96, 480, 2880, P what is the value of a?
(a) 17280 A) 2
(b) 20160 B) 4
(c) 23040 C) 6
(d) 25920 D) 8

Q48. In the expression of P23 + PP6 + 26P + PPP = Passage-19

(𝑃∗𝑃)+ 1
6PP. Find the value of 2
=?
A) 1 One advantage gained by the equalization of
B) 4 property is that it prevents the citizens from
C) 9 quarrelling. Not that the gain in this direction is very
D) 16 great. For the nobles will be dissatisfied because they
do not receive the honours which they think their due;
and this is often found to be a cause of sedition and
Q49. 1,1,2,3,5,8,13,x,34,55,.... what is the value of x revolution. And the avarice of mankind is insatiable;
? at one time, two obols was pay enough; but now,
A) 21 when this sum has become customary, men always
B) 23 want more and more without end; for it is of the
C) 25 nature of desire not to be satisfied, and most men live
D) 27 only for the gratification of it.

Q.54. Based on the above passage, which of the

Q50. When the natural number A,B and C is divided following statements best describes the crux of the
by 41 gives a remainder of 21,16 and 32 respectively. passage?
Find the remainder when (3A + 3B – 2C) is divided
by 41? a) Equalization of property results in satisfaction
A) 6 of wants of citizens
B) 9 b) Nobles are dissatisfied with the honours they
C) 12 receive
D) 15 c) Human desire for materialistic want is
insatiable and non-gratifiable
d) Avarice is a desirable quality in nobles but
Q51. ABCD & EFGH is 4-digit natural number &
not in citizens
A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H are non zero digits, If ABCD +
EFGH = 12321and the value of A+C+E+G = x and B
x+2 Passage-20
+ F > C + G then what is the value of ( 6 )3?
A) 64 National Essential Medicines List (NEML) is a list of
B) 125 medications that are deemed essential for addressing
C) 216 the healthcare needs of a particular population based
D) 343 on the prevalence of specific health conditions,
disease burden, and available resources. The NEML
typically includes medications that are considered
Q52. A, B, C & D are any natural number but either safe, effective and cost-effective, and that meet the
A & C or B & D one of the pair is EVEN number and priority healthcare needs of the population. The
another one is ODD number then consider following NEML aims to help countries prioritize their needs
statement. for essential medicines and allocate resources
i) (A2 + B)(C2 + D) is always even accordingly. It is a valuable resource for
ii) (A + B2)(C2 + D) is always odd governments, health professionals, and patients as it is
iii) (A × C)(B × D) is always even used as a guide for procuring medicines by
A) i & ii correct
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governments and international organizations. The C) Both 1 and 2

NEML helps to ensure that medicines are available to D) Neither 1 nor 2
those who need them, affordable, and of good quality.
Q60. Find the number of trailing zeros in the
Q.55. Which amongst the following is the most expression 101! × 151!
logical and rational inference that can be made from A) 35
the passage given above? B) 152
C) 155
a) Private vendors provide better medications D) 61
than government organizations
b) Safe, qualitative and affordable healthcare Q61. Mathematic operation coded using symbols
should be a priority of all governments like:
c) Medications must be safe and readily A @ B means A + B
available even if expensive A $ B means A - B
d) NEML is a mandatory feature for A # B means A × B
procurement of medications in most countries A & B means (A × B)2
Value of (3 & 5) @ 59 $ 17 # 2 = x consider the
Q.56. Based on the above passage, which of the following statement:
following statements best describe NEML? Statement 1: x is divisible by 2, 5, 10 and 20?
5√40
Statement 2: √x =
2
1) Medications essential to address healthcare Which of the following statement is/are Correct?
needs A) Only 1
2) Includes medications that are safe and cost- B) Only 2
effective C) Both 1 and 2
Choose the correct answer: D) Neither 1 nor 2
a) Only 1
b) Only 2 Q62. If 1a5a34 is divisible by 11 then consider
c) Both 1 and 2 following statement?
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement 1: a is an Even digit which is divisible by
2, 4 and 8.
Q57. Consider the following expression A8 + 2A + Statement 2: a2 – 3 and a2 + 3 both are prime number.
31 + A1 = 10A. Find the value of A? Which of the following statement is/are Correct?
A) 2 A) Only 1
B) 3 B) Only 2
C) 5 C) Both 1 and 2
D) 7 D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q63. Unit digit of the

Q58. If A stands for ‘-’, B stands for ‘+’, C stands for {(251)258×(255)1568×(856)254×(7564)877} is Q, consider
‘×’, D stands for ‘÷’ then find the value of following the following statement:
expression which is given ? Statement 1: Q is not Natural number.
525 A 25 B 50 C 100 D 5 A 60
Expression is 125 B 25 D 5 A 50
. Statement 2: If Q + 4 is divided by 4 then remaining
A) 16 remainder is Zero.
B) 18 Statement 3: Q ! is equal to 1.
C) 28 Which of the following statement is/are Correct?
D) 20 A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 2 and 3
C) Only 1 and 3
Q59. Consider the following statement: D) All of the above
Statement 1: The difference between the squares of
two consecutive odd integers is always divisible by 8. Passage-21
Statement 2: The product of any 4 consecutive even
numbers is always divisible by 384. Reinstating housing as a central focus is pivotal for
Which of the following statements are correct? renewing the social contract between governments
A) Only 1 and their citizens. While housing has been recognized
B) Only 2 as a fundamental right, its actual realization remains

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inconsistent, pointing to the need for housing to be a) Climate change impacts disproportionately
strategically positioned within national development, exacerbating vulnerability of women because of
economic and ecological transition planning, as it pre-existing disadvantages
influences multidimensional needs like education, b) Climate change impacts are distributed
health and income, and supports overall wellbeing. equivalently based on region, race, class,
Housing policy can’t be viewed as a standalone sector occupations etc
but needs to be linked to priority targets and backed c) Climate change is best reflected through long-
by appropriate policy interventions, with the active term and mid-term changes in average
involvement of impoverished communities and local temperatures
governments in policy definition, implementation, d) All of the above
and review, serving as the cornerstone of progress.
Q.67. Which of the following factors affect the
Q.64. Which of the following statements best reflects vulnerability of women with respect to climate
the central idea of the passage? change?
1) Lack of access to basic resources
a) Better housing helps in and meets needs of 2) Lack of control over basic resources
ecological transition planning 3) Currently induced disadvantages
b) Housing is central to social contract between 4) Pre-existing disadvantages
governments and their citizens Choose the correct answer:
c) Housing is a fundamental obligation and a) 1, 2, 3
affects overall multidimensional social wellbeing b) 1, 2, 4
d) It is the obligation of local governments to c) 2, 3, 4
provide adequate housing to citizens d) 1, 3, 4

Q.65. Based on the above passage, consider the Q 68. In how many ways can the letter of the word
following statements: LAPTOP be arranged such that vowels are always
1) Housing is a fundamental right and influences together?
overall wellbeing (a) 24
2) Housing does not affect other socio-economic (b) 120
parameters
Choose the incorrect answer:
(c) 240
a) Only 1 (d) 720
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2 Q 69. Consider the following statements in respect to
d) Neither 1 nor 2 composite number
Statement 1: Sum of 2 distinct positive odd numbers
Passage-22 is always composite number.
Statement 2: Sum of 2 positive even number is always
composite number.
The negative impacts of climate change have become
Which of the statements given is/are correct?
increasingly evident, including long-term changes in
(a) 1 only
average temperature; changes in the intensity, timing
(b) 2 only
and geographical variation of rainfall; and increases
(c) Both 1 and 2
in the frequency and severity of drought episodes and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
floods. While the impacts are far reaching, not
everyone is affected equally. Climate change impacts
Q 70. Consider the following statements in respect to
are differently distributed among different regions,
perfect cube number N.
generations, age classes, income groups, occupations
1. Number of factors of N can be 4.
and genders. Women are highly vulnerable to these
2. Number of factors of N can be 5.
impacts. Recent studies offer country-specific insights
3. Number of factors of N can be 6.
into how women’s lack of access to and control over
4. Number of factors of N can be 7.
basic resources and other pre-existing disadvantages
Which of the statements given above are correct?
exacerbate how they are impacted by climate change
and undermine their ability to cope.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q.66. Which of the following statements most (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
appropriately describes the impact of climate (c) 1 and 4 only
change? (d) 1,2 , 3 and 4

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Q71. How many number plates of 4 digits can be employment, education and access to basic services;
formed with the given digits 1, 2, 3,4, 5, 6,7 and 8 as well as to reveal the interconnections between
such that the number obtained is divisible by 5? deprivations across multiple goals within households.
(a) 70
(b) 1050 Q.76. Which of the following statements best reflects
(c) 2560 the corollary to the passage given above?
(d) None of these a) National multidimensional poverty indicators
are based on international best practices
Q72. How many different value of N is/are Possible? b) Majority of the countries in the world saw an
Statement 1:- N is a 3 digit number. increase in relative poverty rate
Statement 2:- N is a perfect cube number. c) Poverty is still a challenge to the world
Statement 3:- The number of factors of N are odd. d) All of the above
(a) 1
(b) 2 Q.77. Consider the following statements in relation to
(c) 3 ‘poverty line’ in the passage?
(d) 4 1) Based on specific national economic
conditions in relation to the global parameters
Q73. How many different value of N is/are Possible? 2) Includes multidimensional indicators to
Statement 1:- N is a 4 digit number. reveal interconnections between deprivation factors
Statement 2:- N is a perfect cube number.
Choose the correct answer:
Statement 3:- The number of factors of N are odd.
a) Only 1
(a) 1
b) Only 2
(b) 2
c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 3
d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 4
Q78. If A and B are positive integers, then consider
Q74. How many different value of N is/are Possible? the following statements:
Statement 1:- N is a 2 digit number. 1. A2 –B2 =143
Statement 2:- N is a prime number. 2. A is greater than B
Statement 3:- N+2 is also a Prime number.
(a) 5 How many different value of A is/are possible?
(b) 6 (a) 1
(c) 7 (b) 2
(d) 8 (c) 3
(d) None of these
Q75. In a word jumble, there are 7 consonants and 5
vowels given. Find out in how many ways can we form Q79. Consider the following statements with respect
a 5-letter word having three consonants and 2 vowels? to odd and even numbers such that the given odd and
(a) 350 even numbers are natural numbers:
(b) 1050 1. Odd + odd can be a prime number.
(c) 21000 2. Odd + Even can be a prime number.
3. Even + Even can be a prime number.
(d) 42000
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Passage-23 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
The national poverty line is a measure that is specific (c) 1 and 3 only
to a country’s economic conditions that can help (d) 1,2 and 3
policymakers design targeted interventions and social
safety nets. In 2020, 22 out of 39 countries with data
saw increases in national poverty rates relative to the Q80. Determine the 3-digit number xyz if it can be
previous year. Given the historical trends of 127 divided into its own individual digits (x, y, and z), by
countries with data, only one third of countries will the sum of all the digits (x+y+z), and by the multiple
have halved their national poverty rates by 2030 from of all the digits (x × y × z).
2015. Poverty is a complex and multidimensional A) 232
challenge. Some countries have also adopted national B) 342
multidimensional poverty indicators to capture other C) 432
aspects of poverty such as those related to health, D) 534
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