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Rankers Academy JEE

All India Test Series (JEE–2023)

Part Test - 01 Dropper


Paper - 01
DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 12/02/2023 M.MARKS : 300

Topics Covered
Physics: Basic Maths, Vectors, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane, Laws of Motion, Friction, Work,
Energy & Power
Chemistry: Mole Concept, States of Matter, Chemical Kinetics, Nomenclature, GOC, Chemical Equilibrium,
Redox Titration
Mathematics: Basic Maths & Logarithm, Trigonometric Ratios & Identities, Trigonometric Equations, Basic
Coordinates and Straight line, Circle & System of Circles, Parabola, Ellipse, Hyperbola

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are Three Sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 30 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are
compulsory and are of Objective Type and Last 10 questions are integers type in which you have to attempt
5 questions only.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area
may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

[1]
Rankers Academy JEE
Section-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 7. An object is placed on the surface of a smooth inclined
1. A lift performs the first part of ascent with uniform plane of inclination . It takes time t to reach to
acceleration a and the remainder with uniform bottom. If the same object is allowed to slide down a
retardation 2a. If t is the time of ascent, find the rough inclined plane of same inclination , it takes
time nt to reach the bottom where n is a number greater
depth of the shaft.
than 1. The coefficient of friction  is given by –
at 2 at 2 (1)  = tan  (1 – 1/n2)
(1) (2)
4 3 (2)  = cot  (1 – 1/ n2)
(3)  = tan  (1 – 1/ n2)1/2
at 2 at 2 (4)  = cot  (1 – 1/ n2)1/2
(3) (4)
2 8
8. Fine particles of a substance are to be stored in a heap
2. A train is moving at a constant speed V. When its on a horizontal circular plate of radius a. If the co-
driver observes another train in front of him on the efficient of static friction between the particles is k.
same track and moving in the same direction with The maximum possible height of cone is –
a
constant speed v. If the distance between the trains (1) ak (2) k
be x, then what should be the minimum retardation 2
(3) a / k (4) ak –1
of the train so as to avoid collision?
(1) (V + v)2/x (2) (V – v)2/x 9. A ball of mass 50 g is dropped from a height of
2
(3) (V + v) /2x (4) (V – v)2/2x 20 m. A boy on the ground hits the ball vertically
upwards with a bat with an average force of 200 N, so
3. A particle is moving with velocity v = K ( yiˆ + xjˆ ) , that it attains a vertical height of 45 m. The time for
which the ball remains in contact with the bat is [Take
where K is a constant. The general equation for its g = 10 m/s2]
path is: (1) 1/10th of a second (2) 1/40th of a second
(1) y2 = x2 + Constant (3) 1/80th of second (4) 1/20th of second
(2) y = x2 + Constant
10. A uniform sphere of weight W and radius 5 cm is
(3) y2 = x + Constant
being held by a string as shown in the figure. The
(4) xy = Constant tension in the string will be:

4. A swimmer can swim with velocity of 10 km/h


w.r.t. the water flowing in a river with velocity of 5
km/h. In what direction w.r.t. river flow should he
swim to reach the point on the other bank just
opposite to his starting point and what is the time
taken by him to cross the river if it is 100 m wide?
(1) 120°, 22.1 s (2) 30°, 41.6 s
(3) 120°, 41.6 s (4) 30°, 22.1 s W W
(1) 12 (2) 5
5 12
A projectile is given an initial velocity of ( iˆ + 2 ˆj )
W W
5. (3) 13 (4) 13
5 12
m/s, where iˆ is along the ground and ĵ is along
the vertical. If g = 10 m/s2, the equation of its 11. In the figure, a ball of mass m is tied with two
strings of equal length as shown. If the rod is rotated
trajectory is:
with angular velocity ω, then
(1) y = 2x – 5x2 (2) 4y = 2x – 5x2
(3) 4y = 2x – 25x2 (4) y = x – 5x2

6. The torque of a force F = −3iˆ + ˆj + 5kˆ acting at the


point r = 7iˆ + 3 ˆj + kˆ is –

(1) 14iˆ − 38 ˆj + 16kˆ (2) 4iˆ + 4 ˆj + 6kˆ


(3) −21iˆ + 4 ˆj + 4kˆ (4) −14iˆ + 34 ˆj − 16kˆ (1) T1 > T2 (2) T2 > T1
T
(3) T1 = T2 (4) T1 = 2
6
[2]
Rankers Academy JEE
12. A lift is moving upwards with a constant
acceleration a = g. A small block A of mass ‘m’ is
kept on a wedge B of the same mass ‘m’. The height
of the vertical face of the wedge is ‘h’. A is released
from the top most point of the wedge. Find the time
taken by A to reach the bottom of B. All surfaces are
smooth and B is also free to move.

Determine the vertical initial velocity of the point


like object.
d 2g
(1) v0 = 2 g (h + R) +

(1) t =
(
h 1 − sin 2  ) R
d 2g
2 g sin 
2
(2) v0 = 2 g (h − R) +
2R
(2) t =
(
h 1 + sin 2  ) d 2g
2 g sin  2 (3) v0 = 2 g (h + R) +
2R

(3) t =
(
h 1 + cos 2  ) (4) v0 = 2 g (h + R) +
dg
2R
2 g sin 
2

(4) t =
(
h 1 − cos 2  ) 17. Evaluate:  3x + 2 dx

2 g sin 2   3x   log3 
(1) 9  +C (2) 9  x  + C
 log3   3 
13. When a conservative force does positive work on a  
body, then  3x 
(3)  +C
 log 3 
(1) its potential energy must increase (4) zero
(2) its potential energy must decrease  
(3) its potential energy may decrease
(4) its total energy must decrease th
1
18. A bullet looses   of its velocity passing
14. A particle crosses the topmost point C of a vertical n
circle with critical speed; then the ratio of velocities through one plank. The number of such planks that
at points A, B and C is are required to stop the bullet can be:
n2 2n 2
(1) (2)
2n − 1 n −1
(3) Infinite (4) n

19. Let AB be a vector in two dimensional plane with


magnitude 4 units, and making an angle of 60º with
x-axis and lying in first quadrant. Find the
(1) 3:2:1 (2) 5:3:1 components of AB along x-axis and y-axis. Hence
represent AB in terms of unit vectors
(3) 52:32:12 (4) 5: 3: 1
iˆ and ĵ .

15. (
If y = loge x + x2 + a 2 then dy/dx = ? ) (1) 2iˆ + 2 3 ˆj (2) 2 3iˆ + 2 ˆj
3iˆ
(1)
x
(2) zero (3) 2iˆ + 2 ˆj (4) + 1 ˆj
2
x +a
2 2

1 1 20. Two particles of the same mass m are moving in


(3) (4) circular orbits because of force, given by
x2 + a2 x 2 + 2a 2
−16
F (r ) = − r 3 . The first particle is at a distance
r
16. A point like object of mass m starts from point K as r = 1, and the second, at r = 4. The best estimate for
shown in the figure. It slides inside along the full the ratio of kinetic energies of the first and the
length of the smooth track of radius R, and then second particle is closest to
moves freely and travels to point C. [The track is (1) 10–1 (2) 6 × 10–2
kept in vertical plane] (3) 6 × 102 (4) 3 × 10–3

[3]
Rankers Academy JEE
Integer Type Questions
21. A lead ball is dropped into a lake from a diving
board 5 m above the water. It strikes the water with
a certain velocity and then reaches the bottom with
the same constant velocity in 5 second after it is
dropped. Take g = 10 m/s2. Calculate the average 27. Vector P must be added to the vector
velocity of the ball in m/s.
iˆ − 3 ˆj + 2kˆ and 3iˆ + 6 ˆj − 7kˆ so that the resultant
22. The velocity of a particle moving along x-axis vector is a unit vector along the y-axis. The
varies as v = αx where α is constant. For what value
of α, the magnitude of average velocity is equal to magnitude of P is x 5 . Find the value of x.
that of average acceleration over the first S metre in
its path. (Assume that the particle starts from the
origin at t = 0). 28. The potential energy of 1 kg particle free to move
 x4 x2 
23. Two ships are 10 km apart on the west-east line at along the x-axis is given by U ( x ) =  −  J .
 4 2 
some instant, the first one streaming to the east at 
30 km/h and the second one to the north at 40 km/h. The total mechanical energy of the particle is 2 J.
What is the closest distance of approach between x
them in km? Then, the maximum speed is m/s. Then find the
2
24. A body falling freely from a height H hits an value of x.
inclined plane at a height H/n. As a result of this
impact the direction of velocity becomes horizontal. 29. A block is moving on an inclined plane making an
For what value of n, the body takes maximum time
to reach the ground after the impact? angle 45º with the horizontal and the coefficient of
friction is µ. The force required to just push it up the
25. A variable force, given by the 2-dimensional vector inclined plane is 3 times the force required to just
F = (3x2iˆ + 4 ˆj ) acts on a particle. The force is in prevent it from sliding down. If we define N = 10 µ,
newton and x is in metre. What is the change in the then N is.
kinetic energy (in J) of the particle as it moves from 30. A sphere of radius R is in contact with a wedge. The
the point with coordinates (2, 3) to (3, 0) (The point of contact is at R/5 from the ground as shown
coordinates are in meters)?
in the figure. Wedge is moving with velocity
26. Consider a roller coaster with a circular loop. A 20 m/s, then the velocity (in m/s) of the sphere at
roller coaster car starts from rest from the top of a this instant will be:
hill which is 5 m higher than the top of the loop. It
rolls down the hill and through the loop. What must
the radius (in m) of the loop be so that the
passengers of the car will feel at highest point, as if
they have their normal weight?

[4]
Rankers Academy JEE
Section-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions 37. The relative stability of the following carbocations
31. In the standardization of Na2S2O3 using K2Cr2O7 in decreasing order will be
by iodometry, the equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7 is
Molecular Weight
(1)
2 C
C
Molecular Weight
(2)
6
MMTr OMe
Molecular Weight Tr
(3)
3 CH +2 CH+2
(4) same as molecular weight

32. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of


a solute in: Bn OMe
PMB
(1) 1000 g of the solvent
(1) Tr > MMTr > Bn > PMB
(2) one litre of the solvent
(2) MMTr > Tr > PMB > Bn
(3) one litre of the solution (3) MMTr > Tr > Bn > PMB
(4) 22.4 litres of the solution (4) PMB > Bn > MMTr > Tr

38. A gas can be liquefied


33. 2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated (1) above its critical temperature
yields a residue weighing (2) at its critical temperature
(1) 2.16 g (3) below its critical temperature
(2) 2.48 g (4) at any temperature
(3) 2.32 g
39. Which one of the following is an aromatic
(4) 2.64 g compound?
(1) O O (2) O
34. The average molar mass of chlorine is 35.5 g mol–1.
35 37 (+) (−)
The ratio of Cl to Cl in naturally occurring
chlorine is close to: (3) (4)
(1) 4 : 1
(2) 3 : 1 40. Assertion: Singlet carbene has a linear
(3) 2 : 1 structure.
(4) 1 : 1 Reason: The carbon atom in singlet carbene
is sp2–hybridized
(1) Assertion is True, Reason is True;
35. The Amount of sugar (C12H22O11) required to Reason is a correct explanation for
prepare 2 L of its 0.1 M aqueous solution is Assertion.
(1) 136.8 g (2) Assertion is True, Reason is True;
(2) 17.1 g Reason is a not correct explanation for
Assertion.
(3) 68.4 g
(3) Assertion is True. Reason is False
(4) 34.2 g (4) Assertion is False. Reason is True

36. Most acidic compound among the following is 41. If force of attraction between the gas molecules is
negligible, vander Waal’s equation (for one
(1) Picric acid mole) will become
(2) Squaric acid RT a
(1) PV = RT + Pb (2) PV = −
(3) Carbonic acid V − b V2
(3) PV = RT + a/V (4) PV = RT – a/V
(4) Carbolic acid

[5]
Rankers Academy JEE
42. At STP, the decreasing order of root mean square 47. The increase of pressure on ice water system
velocity of molecules of H2, N2, O2 and HBr is at constant temperature will lead to
(1) H2 > N2 > O2 > HBr (1) a decrease in the entropy of the system
(2) HBr > O2 > N2 > H2 (2) an increase in the Gibb's energy of the system
(3) HBr > H2 > O2 > N2 (3) no effect on the equilibrium
(4) N2 > O2 > H2 > HBr (4) a shift of the equilibrium in the forward
direction
43. The values of vander Waal’s constant ‘a’ and ‘b’
for three different gases are given below. What is 48. What happens when an inert gas is added to an
the correct order of liquefaction of gases? equilibrium keeping volume unchanged?
Gases a b (1) More product will form
(2) Less product will form
X2 1.3 0.090 (3) More reactant will form
(4) Equilibrium will remain unchanged
Y2 4.1 0.023
Z2 2.2 0.075 49. The equilibrium constant at 298 K for a reaction
A+B C + D is 100. If the initial concentration
(1) X2 > Y2 > Z2 of all the four species were 1 M each, then
(2) Y2 > Z2 > X2 equilibrium concentration of D (in mol L–1) will
(3) Z2 > Y2 > X2 be:
(4) X2 > Z2 > Y2 (1) 1.818 (2) 1.182
(3) 0.182 (4) 0.818
44. The rate constant (k) of a reaction is measured at
different temperatures (T), and the data are plotted 50. What is the decreasing order of strength of the bases
in the given figure. The activation energy of the OH, NH 2 , HC  C − and CH 3 CH 2 ?
reaction in kJ mol–1 is: (R is gas constant) (1) CH3 − CH2  NH2  H − C  C−  OH
(2) H − C  C−  CH3 − CH2  NH2  OH
(3) OH−  NH2  H − C  C−  CH3 − CH2
(4) NH2  H − C  C−  OH  CH3 − CH2

Integer Type Questions


51. A 20.0 mL solution containing 0.2 g impure H2O2
reacts completely with 0.316 g of KMnO4 in acid
solution. The purity of H2O2 (in %) is ________
(mol. wt. of H2O2 = 34; mol. wt. KMnO4 = 158)
(1) 2/R
52. A 100 mL solution was made by adding 1.43 g of
(2) 1/R
(3) R Na2CO3xH2O. The normality of the solution is 0.1 N.
(4) 2R The value of x is ______.
(The gram atomic mass of Na is 23 g/mol )
45. The following reaction occurs in Blast Furnace
where iron ore is reduced to iron metal: 53. 10.30 mg of O2 is dissolved into a liter of sea water
Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) 2 Fe(l) + 3CO2(g) of density 1.03 g/mL. The concentration of O2 in
Using the Le Chatelier’s principle, predict which ppm is ____.
one of the following will not disturb the
equilibrium? 54. In the chemical reaction between stoichiometric
(1) Removal of CO (2) Removal of CO2 quantities of KMnO4 and KI in weakly basic
(3) Addition of CO2 (4) Addition of Fe2O3 solution, what is the number of moles of I2
released for 4 moles of KMnO4 consumed?
46. For the reaction
3 55. For a reaction X + Y 2Z, 1.0 mol of X, 1.5
Fe2 N(s) + H 2 (g) 2Fe(s) + NH3 (g) mol of Y and 0.5 mol of Z were taken in a 1 L
2
−1 vessel and allowed to react. At equilibrium, the
(1) Kc = Kp(RT) (2) Kc = K p (RT) 2 concentration of Z was 1.0 mol L–1. The
x
1 3 equilibrium constant of the reaction is .
(3) K c = K p (RT) 2 (4) K c = K p (RT) 2 15
The value of x is________.

[6]
Rankers Academy JEE
56. The difference in the oxidation numbers of the two 59. If 75% of a first order reaction was completed in
types of sulphur atoms in Na2S4O6 is 90 minutes, 60% of the same reaction would be
completed in approximately (in minutes) ____ .
57. Consider the following equations:
(Take: log 2 = 0.30; log 2.5 = 0.40)
2Fe2+ + H2O2 → xA + yB
(in basic medium)
60. The total number of contributing structures
2MnO−4 + 6H+ + 5H2O2 → xC + yD + zE
(in acidic medium) showing hyperconjugation (involving C–H bonds)
The sum of the stoichiometric coefficients x, y, for the following carbocation is
x, y and z for products A, B, C, D and E,
respectively, is ________.

58. The concentration of R in the reaction R → P was


measured as a function of time and the following
data is obtained:
[R] 1.0 0.75 0.40 0.10
(molar)
t(min.) 0.0 0.05 0.12 0.18
The order of reaction is

Section-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 65. The equation 2x2 + 4xy – py2 + 4x + qy + 1 = 0 will
 log10 5  represent two mutually perpendicular straight lines,
 
 1  log10 5−1 
61. Value of 25 log16 9
+  is if
3 (1) p = 1 and q = 2 or 6
(1) Zero (2) 2 (2) p = –2 and q = –2 or 8
(3) 5 log2 3
(4) 2(5log 2 3 ) (3) p = 2 and q = 0 or 8
(4) p = 2 and q = 0 or 6
62. If the equation of the family of the ellipse is
x2 
y2  66. If f () = | sin + 1| + | sin − 2| + | sin −1| + | sin − 3|
+ = 1 0     , then the locus of
cos  sin  
2 2
4 where 0    2 , then the sum of maximum and
the extremities of the latus rectum is minimum value of f () is
(1) 2 y(1 − x2 ) = 1 + x2 (1) –4 (2) 4
(2) 2 y 2 (1 + x2 ) = (1 − x2 )2 (3) 14 (4) –14

(3) y2 = (1 − x2 )2
67. One side of square PQRS is on the line y = 2x – 17 and
(4) y2 = (1 + x2 )2 other 2 vertices are on parabola y = x 2 , then
minimum area of square is:
63. If tanx − tan x = 1 , then the value of
2
(1) 80
tan 4 x − 2tan3 x − tan 2 x + 2tanx + 1 is equal to (2) 4 5
(1) 1 (2) –2 (3) 1280
(3) –4 (4) 4
(4) 16 5
64. If the normal at the end points of a variable
chord PQ of the parabola y2 – 4y – 2x = 0 are 68. The value of
perpendicular, then the tangents at P and Q will sin 212 + sin 2 21 + sin 2 39 + sin 2 48 − sin 2 9
intersect at −sin 218 is equal to
(1) x + y = 3 (1) Zero
(2) 3x – 7 = 0 (2) 1
(3) y + 3 = 0 3
(3)
(4) 2x + 5 = 0 2
(4) 2

[7]
Rankers Academy JEE
x2 y 2 the angle bisectors of the lines represented by the
69. If radii of director circles of + = 1 (where a equation 2x2 – 5xy + 3y2 = 0 is
a 2 b2
(1) 5x2 – 2xy + 5y2 = 0
x2 y 2 (2) 5x2 – 2xy – 5y2 = 0
> b) and − = 1 are 2r and r respectively and
a 2 b2 (3) 5x2 + 2xy – y2 = 0
ee and eh be the eccentricities of the ellipse and the (4) 5x2 + 2xy + y2 = 0
hyperbola respectively then
(1) 2eh2 − ee2 = 0 (2) eh2 − 4ee2 = 0    
77. Let S =   −,  −   : sintan + tan = sin2 . If
(3) 4eh2 − ee2 = 6 (4) eh2 + 4ee2 = 6   2 

2
T=  cos2 , then T + n(S) is equal
S
70. The point P on the parabola y = 4ax for which
| PR – PQ | is maximum, where R(–a, 0), Q(0, a) is (1) 7 + 3 (2) 9
(1) (a, 2a) (2) (a, –2a)
(3) (4a, 4a) (4) (4a, –4a) (3) 8 + 3 (4) 10

 3 5 7
71. Let P and Q be two points on the line y – x = 0 such 78. The value of sin sin sin sin is equal to
that P and Q are symmetric with respect to the 14 14 14 14
origin. Suppose R is a point on x + 2y = 2 such that 1 1
(1) (2) –
PQR is an equilateral triangle. Then, the area of 8 8
the PQR is 1 1
8 10 (3) (4) –
(1) (2) 16 16
3 3
12 6 79. If a circle passes through the point (1, 2) and cuts
(3) (4) the circle x 2 + y 2 = 4 orthogonally, then the locus
3 3
of its centre is
72. The value of (1) x2 + y 2 − 2x − 6 y − 7 = 0
 3   5 3  (2) x2 + y2 − 3x − 8 y + 1 = 0
1 + tan tan  + 1 + tan tan  +
 8 8  8 8  (3) 2x + 4y – 9 = 0
 7 5   9 7  (4) 2x + 4y – 1 = 0
1 + tan tan  + 1 + tan tan 
 8 8   8 8 
is equal to 
 x + 3 −1 

80. Let S =  x   −6,3 − −2, 2 :  0  and
(1) 0 (2) 1 
 x −2 

(3) 2 (4) irrational
T = {x  Z : x2 − 7 | x | + 9  0} . Then the number of
1− x
73. If 1, log9 (3 + 2),log3 (4  3 −1) are in A.P, then x
x
elements in S  T is
is equal to (1) 7 (2) 5
(1) log3 4 (2) 1 − log3 4 (3) 4 (4) 3
(3) 1 − log 4 3 (4) log 4 3
Integer Type Questions
74. The area of the quadrilateral formed by the tangents
81. If 2sin 2 x + 3sinx − 2  0 and x2 − x − 2  0 then
at the vertices of pair of conics x2y2 = 4, is
(1) 4 sq. units (2) 8 sq. units the exhaustive set of values of x satisfying the two
(3) 16 sq. units (4) 32 sq. units  
inequalities is  , m  then k + m is equal to
k 
75. The number of integral values of ‘a’ for which the
equation 82. In the figure, if radius of the circle is equal to 1 and
    perimeter of OPR is 8 , then length PL is k. The
4sin  x +  cos  x −  = a 2 + 3sin2 x − cos2 x
 3  6 value of 3k is
has a solution (x  R) , is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5

76. The combined equation of the two lines


ax + by + c = 0 and ax + by + c = 0 can be written
as (ax + by + c) (ax + by + c) = 0. The equation of

[8]
Rankers Academy JEE
x2 y 2 87. A triangle is formed by the tangents at the point
83. If the latus rectum of the hyperbola − =1 (4, 4) on the curves x2 = 4y and x2 + 2y2 = 48 and the
a 2 b2
a
through one focus subtends 90° angle at the other line x + y = 4. If the area of the triangle is , where
b
focus and its eccentricity is  +  , then the value
G.C.D. (a, b) = 2, then (a + b) is equal to
of  –  is
88. If the circum centre of the triangle, whose vertices
84. 2
The normal at the point P(ap ,2ap) meets the are (1, 2), (2, 3) and (3, 1) is (p, w) then 6(p + w) is
equal to
parabola y 2 = 4ax again at Q (aq 2 , 2aq ) such that
the lines joining the origin to P and Q are at right 89. The lengths of the sides of a triangle are
angle, then p2 + q2 is equal to log1012,log10 75 and log10 n , where n  N. Find the
number of possible values of n.
85. The maximum value of
x2 y 2
( −3 + 4 x − x2 + 4)2 + ( x − 5)2 where x  1, 3 is 90. With one focus of the hyperbola − = 1 as the
9 16
centre, a circle is drawn which is tangent to the
86. A triangle is formed by x-axis, y-axis and the line
hyperbola with no part of the circle being outside
2x + 5y = 40. Then the number of points P(, )
which lie inside the triangle, where ( + ) is the hyperbola. The radius of the circle is
multiple of 3, is _______. ( and  are integers)

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