GCSE-11-15-2023

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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

ĐỀ PHÁT TRIỂN THEO MA TRẬN ĐỀ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG 2023
MINH HỌA BGD NĂM 2023 Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ 11 – Mã LN1 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 04 trang)
Họ và tên thí sinh:..........................................................................Số báo danh:..................................

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 1. His _______ of the generator is very famous.
A. inventively B. invent C. inventive D. invention
Question 2. Surely David is not going to drive, _______?
A. isn’t he B. will he C. is he D. does he
Question 3. People thought that maybe his novel might one day be turned into a film and become a Hollywood
_________.
A. best-seller B. attraction C. blockbuster D. debut
Question 4. I was feeling tired last night, so I went to bed ______ than usual.
A. as earlier B. more earlier C. earlier D. more early
Question 5. Though she lost her job last month, she still wanted to save _______ so she said that she had left
it willingly.
A. mouth B. face C. reputation D. fame
Question 6. I’ve always regretted not looking after my teeth ______. I had my first set of false teeth when I
was 30.
A. when I was young B. while I am young C. after I had been young D. before I was young
Question 7. My mother said that she would rather ______ to Nha Trang.
A. to travel B. travelling C. not to travel D. travel
Question 8. The recently retired ballplayer _______ his locker and sadly left the stadium.
A. held out B. put off C. cleared out D. made up
Question 9. When Linda called last night, I ______ my favourite show on TV.
A. watched B. have watched C. was watching D. am watching
Question 10. By the time you finish cooking they _______ their homework.
A. will have finished B. will finish C. had finished D. have finished
Question 11. You'd better _______ a commitment to being a volunteer on a regular basis.
A. promise B. do C. make D. pull
Question 12. The final winner will be the one who breaks through ______ and survives till the last minutes.
A. obstacles B. difficulty C. hindrance D. impediment
Question 13. She _______ by the number of people that came to wish him luck on his new endeavour.
A. stunned B. was stunned C. stunning D. to stun
Question 14. He was the only person ______ there at the time.
A. lived B. to live C. have lived D. living
Question 15. ______ Statue of Liberty was a gift of friendship from France to ______ United States.
A. The – Ø B. Ø – the C. The – the D. Ø – Ø
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 16. Tom and Mary are having lunch in the restaurant.
- Tom: “Would you like some more chicken?”
- Mary: “______. I’m full”.
A. Yes, please. B. No, thanks. C. Yes, I would. D. No, I wouldn’t.
Question 17. Laura and Kate are talking at school.
- Laura: “Many thanks to you, Kate.”
- Kate: “_______.”
A. It doesn’t matter B. Don’t say so C. No thanks D. It’s a pleasure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 18. A. combustion B. achievement C. ambitious D. dominant
Question 19. A. effort B. actor C. perform D. area
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

Question 20. A. with B. Thai C. this D. then


Question 21. A. effect B. enter C. restore D. engage
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22. Shopping on the internet can be safe if you follow a few simple rules.
A. uncomplicated B. unimportant C. unlucky D. unsociable
Question 23. Mary has a strong desire to make independent decisions.
A. dependent B. self-confident C. self-confessed D. self-determining
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24. It was obvious that the deal was no longer tenable, so we kicked it into touch.
A. measure it B. mention it C. forgot it D. approved it
Question 25. Jane found herself in conflict with her parents over her future career.
A. disagreement B. harmony C. controversy D. fighting
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 26. She went to live in France. She realized how much she loved England.
A. Only when she went to live in France did she realize how much she loved England.
B. Not until she had realized how much she loved England did she go to live in France.
C. Had she gone to live in France, she would have realized how much she loved England.
D. Were she to go to live in France, she would realize how much she loved England.
Question 27. My laptop is broken. I need it for my online learning.
A. If my laptop is not broken, I could use it for my online learning.
B. In case my laptop was not broken, I could use it for my online learning.
C. I wish my laptop were not broken so that I could use it for my online learning.
D. If only my laptop had not been broken, I could have used it for my online learning.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 28. My brother usually asked me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A. asked B. when C. has D. homework
Question 29. The puppy stood up slowly, wagged their tail, blinked its eyes, and barked.
A. slowly B. their C. blinked D. and
Question 30. Some families go without medical treatment because of their disability to pay.
A. Some B. go without C. treatment D. disability
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 31. You are able to go out with your friend this evening.
A. You can go out with your friend this evening.
B. You should go out with your friend this evening.
C. You needn’t go out with your friend this evening.
D. You mustn’t go out with your friend this evening.
Question 32. “I’ll help you repair this washing machine, Jenny”, he said.
A. He admitted helping Jenny repair that washing machine.
B. He denied helping Jenny repair that washing machine.
C. He promised to help Jenny repair that washing machine.
D. He refused to help Jenny repair that washing machine.
Question 33. The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
ROBOTS

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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the invention of a
machine (34) _______ would do all the necessary jobs around the house. If boring and repetitive factory work
could be (35) _______ by robots, why not boring and repetitive household chores too?
For a long time the only people who really gave the problem their attention were amateur inventors.
And they came up against a major difficulty. That is, housework is actually very complex. It has never been
one job, it has always been many. A factory robot (36) _______ one task endlessly until it is reprogrammed
to do something else. It doesn’t run the whole factory. A housework robot, on the other hand, has to do (37)
_______ different types of cleaning and carrying jobs and also has to cope with all the different shapes and
positions of rooms, furniture, ornaments, cats and dogs. (38) _______, there have been some developments
recently. Sensors are available to help the robot locate objects and avoid obstacles. We have the technology
to produce the hardware. All that is missing the software- the programs that will operate the machine.
Question 34.A. that B. what C. when D. where
Question 35. A. succeeded B. managed C. made D. given
Question 36. A. carries over B. carries off C. carries out D. carries away
Question 37. A. little B. some C. much D. few
Question 38. A. However B. Therefore C. Besides D. Moreover
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
We first learn about loving and caring relationships from our families. Family is defined as a domestic
group of people with some degree of kinship - whether through blood, marriage, or adoption. Ideally, each
child is nurtured, respected, and grows up to care for others and develop strong and healthy relationships. This
does not mean that it is always easy to make and keep friends; it just means that we share the goal of having
strong relationships.
"Family" includes your siblings and parents, as well as relatives who you may not interact with every
day, such as your cousins, aunts, uncles, grandparents, and stepparents. These are probably the people you are
closest to and with whom you spend the most time. Having healthy relationships with your family members
is both important and difficult.
Families in the 21st century come in all shapes and sizes: traditional, single parent, blended (more than
one family together in the same house], and gay and lesbian parents -just to name a few. No matter the "type"
of family you have, there are going to be highs and lows - good times and bad. Many times, however, families
become blocked in their relationships by hurt, anger, mistrust, and confusion. These are natural and normal,
and few families do not have at least a few experiences with them. The worst time for most families, is during
a divorce. By making a few simple changes in the way we look at the world and deal with other people, it is
possible to create happier, more stable relationships. Families need to be units of mutual caring and support;
they can be sources of lifelong strength for all individuals.
(Adapted from http://www.pamf.org)
Question 39. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The importance of sharing housework in a family.
B. The importance of having children in a family.
C. The role of members in family.
D. The healthy relationships among members in family.
Question 40. Ideally, each child is nurtured, respected, and grows up________?
A. to keep in touch with the people around them.
B. to keep a track of the people around them.
C. to be familiar with the people around them.
D. to be concerned about the people around them.
Question 41. Which of the following is closest in meaning to "siblings" in paragraph 2?
A. brothers and sisters B. husband and wife C. children D. friends
Question 42. What does the word "These" in paragraph 2 refer to_______?
A. good and bad times B. feelings C. relationships D. high sand lows
Question 43. According to the passage, which example below is probably NOT TRUE about the definition
of family?
A. wife and husband relationship B. step- father and daughter relationship
C. nanny and baby relationship D. god- mother and god-son relationship
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

People are living longer and, in some parts of the world, healthier lives. This represents one of the
crowning achievements of the last century, but also a significant challenge. Longer lives must be planned for.
Societal aging may affect economic growth and lead to many other issues, including the sustainability of
families, the ability of states and communities to provide resources for older citizens, and international
relations. The Global Burden of Disease, a study conducted by the World Health Organization, predicts a very
large increase in age-related chronic disease in all regions of the world. Dealing with this will be a significant
challenge for all countries’ health services.
Population aging is driven by declines in fertility and improvements in health and longevity. In more
developed countries, falling fertility beginning in the early 1900’s has resulted in current levels being below
the population replacement rate of two live births per woman. Perhaps the most surprising demographic
development of the past 20 years has been the pace of fertility decline in many less developed countries. In
2006, for example, the total fertility rate was at or below the replacement rate in 44 less developed countries.
One central issue for policymakers in regard to pension funds is the relationship between the official
retirement age and actual retirement age. Over several decades in the latter part of the 20th century, many of
the more developed nations lowered the official age at which people become fully entitled to public pension
benefits. This was propelled by general economic conditions, changes in welfare philosophy, and private
pension trends. Despite the recent trend toward increased workforce participation at older ages, a significant
gap between official and actual ages of retirement persists. This trend is emerging in rapidly aging developing
countries as well. Many countries already have taken steps towards much-needed reform of their old-age social
insurance programs. One common reform has been to raise the age at which workers are eligible for full public
pension benefits. Another strategy for bolstering economic security for older people has been to increase the
contributions by workers. Other measures to enhance income for older people include new financial
instruments for private savings, tax incentives for individual retirement savings, and supplemental
occupational pension plans.
As life expectancy increases in most nations, so do the odds of different generations within a family
coexisting. In more developed countries, this has manifested itself as the ‘beanpole family,’ a vertical
extension of family structure characterized by an increase in the number of living generations within a lineage
and a decrease in the number of people within each generation. As mortality rates continue to improve, more
people in their 50’s and 60’s will have surviving parents, aunts, and uncles. Consequently, more children will
know their grandparents and even their great-grandparents, especially their great-grandmothers. There is no
historical precedent for a majority of middle-aged and older adults having living parents.
(Adapted from https://www.ielts-mentor.com)
Question 44. Which of the following best describes the main purpose of the author in the passage?
A. To present a synopsis of the causes and effects of the aging population.
B. To provide an overview of the drawbacks of the world’s aging population.
C. To suggest some effective solutions to deal with the rapid increase of the aging population.
D. To prove the significant contribution of the aging population to the world economy.
Question 45. As mentioned in the first paragraph, the following aspects will be influenced by the aging in the
society, EXCEPT ________.
A. the stable progress of families B. social welfare
C. medical care D. technology achievements
Question 46. What does the word “this” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. public pension benefits
B. the reduction of the official age entirely pensioned
C. the relationship between the official retirement age and actual retirement age
D. central issue
Question 47. The word “eligible” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. entitled B. unqualified C. mature D. devoted
Question 48. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is the measure of old-age social insurance
programs?
A. The decrease in the age the elderly can receive pension.
B. The encouragement the elderly to contribute more in economy.
C. Enacting many policies to increase their income before retirement.
D. Widening the gap between official and actual ages of retirement.
Question 49. The word “manifested” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by ________.
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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

A. illustrated B. proved C. demonstrated D. recognized


Question 50. What is the benefit of aging mentioned in the last paragraph?
A. The mortality rates are decreasing.
B. People will have the chance to live with their parents longer.
C. Children are likely to live in an extended family with more brothers and sisters.
D. The life expectancy is being improved.
THE END

ĐỀ PHÁT TRIỂN THEO MA TRẬN ĐỀ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG 2023
MINH HỌA BGD NĂM 2023 Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ 12 – Mã L2 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 04 trang)
Họ và tên thí sinh:..........................................................................Số báo danh:.....................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 1: There is too much in this world.
A. greediness B. greed C. greedy D.
greedness
Question 2: They haven’t finished their homework, ______?
A. do they B. haven’t they C.
don’t they D. have they
Question 3: I can’t possibly lend you any more money, it is quite out of the .
A. order B. practice C. place D. question
Question 4: Man has set foot on the moon and he is now planning ______ to Venus and back.
A. travelling B. travel C.
to travel D. to have travelled
Question 5 : ______ are that stock price will go up in the coming months.
A. Chances B. Opportunities C. Possibilities D.
Conditions
Question 6: I saw many houses ______ by the storm.
A. were destroyed B. destroyed C. to be destroyed
D. destroying
Question 7: You can see ______ moon in ______ sky at ______ night.
A. a – Ø – the B. the – the – Ø C. Ø – Ø – Ø D. Ø – Ø – the
Question 8: The Japanese market ______ 35 per cent of the company's revenue.
A. let in B. care for C.
take in D. accounts for
Question 9. “You’re looking miserable.” “I ________on my assignment when my computer suddenly
crashed.”
A. used to work B. was working C. would work
D. have been working
Question 10: She will send me the design of my new house ______.
A. after she had finished it B. while she was
finishing it
C. as soon as she has finished it D. before she
finished it
Question 11: He would win the race if he his brother's example and trained harder.
A. repeated B. set C. answered D. followed
Question 12: The biggest fear is that humans might ______ control over robots.
A. gain B. keep C. lose
D. take
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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

Question 13: The road to our village _____________ next year.


A. is widened B. will widened C. can widened
D. will be widened
Question 14: Harold did his best to be pleasant ______ the old man.
A. with B. to C. on D. for
Question 15: We could have found the place ______ with a map.
A. more easily B. most easy C. easier D. more easy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 16: Daisy wants to invite her classmate, Joe, to her birthday party.
- Daisy: “Listen, I am having a birthday party next Friday. Do you want to come?”
- Joe: “______ What time does it start?”
A. Sure, I’d love to. B. Sorry. I’m busy then.
C. I can’t agree with you. D. I like a party.
Question 17: Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.
- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.” - Jenifer: “______”
A. That’s nice of you to say so. B. I’d love it.
C. Don’t mention it. D. I couldn’t agree more.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
Question 18: A. thyme B. math C. throne
D. thought
Question 19: A. suggest B. support C. summer
D. survive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. struggle B. certain C. action D. police
Question 21. A. considerate B. continental C. territorial D. economic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Face-to-face socializing is not as preferred as virtual socializing among the youth.
A. instant B. available C. direct
D. facial
Question 23: The 1960s building boom in Zürich completely changed the rural landscape.
A. thoroughly B. quickly C. easily D. highly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Jane found herself in conflict with her parents over her future career.
A. disagreement B. harmony C. controversy D.
fighting
Question 25: I didn’t tell her that he was sick because I didn’t want to cause her any alarm.
A. worry B. inform C. comfort
D. warn
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 26: Jack bought that second-hand car. He then recognized that he shouldn't have done that.
A. Jack wished that he has not bought that second-hand car.
B. Jack wished that he did not buy that second-hand car.
C. Jack regretted to buy that second-hand car.
D. If only Jack hadn’t bought that second-hand car.
Question 27 : Seth informed us of his retirement from the company. He did it when arriving at the meeting.
A. Only after his retiring from the company did Seth tell us about his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Seth said to us that he would leave the company did he turn up at the meeting
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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

C. Hardly had Seth notified us of his retiring from the company when he arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Seth arrived at the meeting than we were told about his leaving the company.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 28: Peter and David are playing the piano in the living room in the morning yesterday
A B C D
Question 29: Upon reaching the destination, a number of personnel are expected to change its
A B C
reservations and proceed to Hawaii.
D
Question 30: In Italy public opinion as a whole was favourite to the visit, especially as it was not
A
B C
considered an obstacle to the protected increase of the army and navy
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 31: You are required to clean the house instead of your brother
A. you needn’t clean the house instead of your brother
B. You must clean the house instead of your brother
C. You don’t have to clean the house instead of your brother
D. You might clean the hosue instead of your brother
Question 32: “We have a lift very often but it doesn’t work. ”, he said.
A. He said we have a lift very often but it doesn’t work.
B. He said they had a lift very often but it doesn’t work.
C. He said they had a lift very often but it didn’t work.
D. He said we had a lift very often but it didn’t work.
Question 33: I haven’t stayed in a hotel for years.
A. It’s years since I stayed in a hotel. B. It’s years when I stayed in a hotel.
C. It’s years since I stay in a hotel. D. I haven’t stayed in a hotel years ago.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Spectacular, played today on all kinds of surfaces by tens of millions of people, for fun or in competition,
tennis has spread (34) ______ over the world. Designed and codified in England in the 1870s, it is the direct
descendant of jeu de paume, invented in France in the 11th century. The developments of this mediaeval (35)
______,originally practised with bare hands, like the invention of the racket in the 16th century and the special
scoring system (15, 30, 40, game), led directly to tennis, (36) ______ its name, from the French word “tenez!”
(in the sense of “here it comes!”), which you said to your opponent as you were about to serve.
The popularity of tennis in England quickly (37) ______ that of croquet. Indeed, barely three years
passed between the publication of A Portable Court of Playing Tennis by Welsh Major Walter Clopton
Wingfield in 1874, the defining work in terms of codifying lawn tennis, and the holding of the first Wimbledon
tournament in 1877. The decisive element introduced by Wingfield was the use of a rubber ball, (38) ______
could bounce on grass.
(Adapted from https://www.olympic.org/)
Question 34: A. each B. any C. all D. every
Question 35: A. score B. screw C. smoke D. sport
Question 36: A. including B. before C. without D. except
Question 37: A. pretended B. overtook C. pressured D. guided
Question 38: A. which B. that C. what D. where
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Health promotion and disease prevention programs focus on keeping people healthy. Health promotion
programs aim to engage and empower individuals and communities to choose healthy behaviours and make
changes that reduce the risk of developing chronic diseases and other morbidities. Defined by the World
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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

Health Organization, health promotion is: “The process of enabling people to increase control over, and to
improve, their health. It moves beyond a focus on individual behaviour towards a wide range of social and
environmental interventions.”
Disease prevention differs from health promotion because it focuses on specific efforts aimed at
reducing the development and severity of chronic diseases and other morbidities.
Wellness is related to health promotion and disease prevention. Wellness is described as the attitudes
and active decisions made by an individual that contribute to positive health behaviours and outcomes.
Health promotion and disease prevention programs often address social determinants of health, which
influence modifiable risk behaviours. Social determinants of health are the economic, social, cultural, and
political conditions in which people are born, grow, and live that affect health status. Modifiable risk
behaviours include, for example, tobacco use, poor eating habits, and lack of physical activity, which
contribute to the development of chronic disease.
(Adapted from https://www.ruralhealthinfo.org/)
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Understanding Health Promotion
B. Social Determinants of Health
C. Defining Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
D. What do you know about disease prevention?
Question 40: The word “empower” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. affect B. pursue C. allow D. insist
Question 41: What does disease prevention focus on?
A. Wide range of social and environmental interventions
B. Specific efforts reducing the development and severity of chronic diseases
C. Attitudes and active decisions made by an individual
D. Positive health behaviours and outcomes
Question 42: The word “that” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. attitudes active decisions B. wellness
C. health behaviours D. outcomes
Question 43: According to the last paragraph, modifiable risk behaviours contribute to the development of
______.
A. tobacco use B. eating habits
C. physical activity D. chronic diseases
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
We get great pleasure from reading. The more advanced a man is, the greater delight he will find in
reading. The ordinary man may think that subjects like philosophy or science are very difficult and that if
philosophers and scientists read these subjects, it is not for pleasure. But this is not true. The
mathematician finds the same pleasure in his mathematics as the school boy in an adventure story. For
both, it is a play of the imagination, a mental recreation and exercise.
The pleasure derived from this activity is common to all kinds of reading. But different types of
books give us different types of pleasure. First in order of popularity is novel-reading. Novels contain
pictures of imaginary people in imaginary situations, and give us an opportunity of escaping into a new
world very much like our world and yet different from it. Here we seem to live a new life, and the
experience of this new life gives us a thrill of pleasure.
Next in order of popularity are travel books, biographies and memoirs. These tell us tales of places
we have not seen and of great men in whom we are interested. Some of these books are as wonderful as
novels, and they have an added value that they are true. Such books give us knowledge, and we also find
immense pleasure in knowing details of lands we have not seen and of great men we have only heard of.
Reading is one of the greatest enjoyments of life. To book-lovers, nothing is more fascinating than a
favorite book. And, the ordinary educated man who is interested and absorbed in his daily occupation wants
to occasionally escape from his drudgery into the wonderland of books for recreation and refreshment.
Question 44: What does the passage mainly discuss?
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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

A. Different types of books B. Different kinds of reading


C. Reading as an exercise for the brain D. Reading as a pleasurable activity
Question 45: According to paragraph 1, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Ordinary people may think that philosophy and science are difficult.
B. Reading about mathematics is mentally entertaining for a mathematician.
C. Philosophers and scientists do not read for pleasure.
D. A more advanced person takes greater pleasure in reading.
Question 46: The word “derived” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. differed B. established C. bought D. obtained
Question 47: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. a new life B. our world C. an opportunity D. a thrill of pleasure
Question 48: The word “immense” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. great B. limited C. personal D. controlled
Question 49: According to the passage, travel books, biographies and memoirs ______.
A. are wonderful novels B. tell stories of well-known places
C. are less popular than novels D. are more valuable than novels
Question 50: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is the most fascinating to booklovers?
A. A daily occupation B. An ordinary educated man
C. The wonderland D. A favorite book
ĐỀ PHÁT TRIỂN THEO MA TRẬN ĐỀ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG 2023
MINH HỌA BGD NĂM 2023 /Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ 13 – Mã N3 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 04 trang)
Họ và tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:...................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 1. Hanoi has nearly completed all__________for the upcoming 31st Southeast Asian Games ( SEA
Games 31).
A. prepare B. preparingly C. preparations D. preparatory
Question 2. No one on the plane was alive in the accident last night,___________?
A. were they B. wasn’t he C. weren’t they D. was he
Question 3. They _________ sacrifices so that their only child could have a good education.
A. did B. made C. provided D. lent
Question 4. She is highly skilled ______ dealing with difficult customers.
A. at B. with C. for D. on
Question 5. We've made some great improvements over the past three months, but we're still not out of the
_______ .
A. jungle B. woods C. bush D. dark
Question 6. A recent survey has shown that ______ increasing number of men are willing to share the
housework with their wives.
A. a B. an C. the D. some
Question 7. John made me ______ a lot with his hilarious jokes.
A. laughing B. to laugh C. laugh D. laughed
Question 8. In Viet Nam, you shouldn’t _________ at somebody house on the 1st day of the New Year
unless you have been invited by the house owner.
A. put up B. go up C. get up D. show up
Question 9. I don’t understand why the students didn’t keep silent while the teacher_______the speech.
A. made B. was made C. was making D. makes
Question 10. I will have been away from home for more than three years___________.
A. by the time I return to my country next month. B. as soon as I will return next month
C. until I will have returned next month D. once I had returned next month

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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

Question 11. Stop being an _____ critic and let me choose the route, as I actually know this town like the
back of my hand.
A. bench B. chair C. desk D. armchair
Question 12. The president agreed to ______ the constitution and allow multi-party elections.
A. repair B. mend C. amend D. fix
Question 13. The first round of France’s 2022 presidential election_________on 10 April.
A. was held B. held C. was holding D. had held
Question 14. We lived in the small house ______ by our grandparents.
A. building B. was built C. built D. was building
Question 15. It is ______ gift I have ever received.
A. most expensive B. the most expensive C. the more expensive D. more expensive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 16. Hoa’s father is asking her about her new job in the bank.
Hoa’s father: “Do you enjoy your new job in that bank?” Hoa: “__________”
A. Yes, I did. B. Thank you for asking.
C. Why not enjoying? D. Not very much.
Question 17. Joana and David, two students, are talking about studying abroad.
Joana: “I think studying abroad is the only way to get a well-paid.”
David: “___________. There’re still many different ways to get it.”
A. You’re exactly right B. I don’t think so C. That’s what I think D. There’s no doubt about it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 18. A. company B. adventure C. instrument D. business
Question 19. A. provide B. succeed C. broaden D. pursue
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. theatre B. therefore C. thorough D. thunder
Question 21. A. dream B. cream C. scream D. bread
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22. Many Vietnamese teenagers used to idolize Ngo Ba Kha because of his weird dances and
negative speeches.
A. worship B. detest C. impress D. hate
Question 23. The emblem of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations was designed basing on rice – the
most important crop for the Southeast Asian people.
A. banner B. logo C. motto D. slogan
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24 . We respectfully advise the Culture Secretary not to put her shirt on it.
A. be sure about B. be doubtful about C. get rid of D. become
interested in
Question 25. In 2018 there was a craze for Bitcoin mining in Vietnam due to the belief that it would bring
impressive profits.
A. inclination B. fever C. indifference D. sorrow
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 26. It is impossible for us to predict the ending of such a mind-blowing movie.
A. Rarely will the ending of such a mind-blowing movie be revealed.
B. Little can we say about how such a mind-blowing movie will end.
C. On no account will we tell you the result of such a mind-blowing movie.
D. On no condition can we understand the outcome of such a mind-blowing movie.
Question 27. I didn’t go to Sam Son to watch the fireworks on 23rd April. I regret that.
A. If I went to Sam Son, I could watch the fireworks on 23rd April.
B. I wish I had gone to Sam Son to watch the fireworks on 23rd April.
C. I regret having gone to Sam So to watch the fireworks on 23rd April.
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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

D. If only I didn’t go to Sam Son to watch the fireworks on 23rd April.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 28. A new school with more than 50 classrooms has been built in our local area last month.
A. with B. more than C. has just been D. local area
Question 29. Some snakes have hollow teeth called fans that they use to poison its victims.
A. Some B. called C. use D. its
Question 30. I wouldn’t like to transact business with such an insoluble company.
A. wouldn’t like B. transact C. with D. insoluble
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 31. It was unnecessary for Tim to take more clothes on a two-day trip.
A. Tim needn't have taken so many clothes on a two-day trip.
B. Tim mustn't have taken so many clothes on a two-day trip.
C. Tim could have taken so many clothes on a two-day trip.
D. Tim can't have taken so many clothes on a two-day trip.
Question 32. “Have you taken part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia? ” she said me.
A. She asked me whether had you ever taken part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia.
B. She wanted to know if I have taken part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia.
C. She wanted to know if I took part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia.
. D. She asked me if I had taken part in the game show The Road to Mount Olympia.
Question 33. I last ate this kind of food five years ago.
A. I haven’t eaten this kind of food for five years. B. I ate this kind of food for five years.
C. I didn’t eat this kind of food five years ago. D. I have eaten this kind of food for five years.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
Higher education also provides a competitive edge in the career market. We all know that in the
economic times we are living in today, finding jobs is not guaranteed. The number of people unemployed is
still relatively high, and the (34)________ of new career opportunities isn’t nearly enough to put people in
jobs they are seeking.
As a job seeker, you’re competing with a high number of experienced workers
(35) _______ have been out of the workforce for a while and are also seeking work. (36) _______, when
you have a higher education, it generally equips you for better job security. Generally speaking, employers
tend to value those who have completed college than those who have only completed high school and are
more likely to replace that person who hasn’t (37) ______ a higher education. Furthermore, some companies
even go so far as to pay your tuition because they consider an educated (38) ______ to be valuable to their
organization. A college education is an investment that doesn’t just provide you with substantial rewards. It
benefits the hiring company as well.
Question 34. A. amount B. number C. deal D. much
Question 35. A. who B. where C. whose D. which
Question 36. A. Otherwise B. Moreover C. Therefore D. However
Question 37. A. permitted B. received C. refused D. applied
Question 38. A. employment B. employer C. employee D. unemployment

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
There are two factors which determine an individual's intelligence. The first is the sort of brain he is born
with. Human brains differ considerably, some being more capable than others. But no matter how good a
brain he has to begin with, an individual will have a low order of intelligence unless he has opportunities to
learn. So the second factor is what happens to the individual–the sort of environment in which he is reared.
If an individual is handicapped environmentally, it is likely that his brain will fail to develop and he will
never attain the level of intelligence of which he is capable.
The importance of environment in determining an individual's intelligence can be demonstrated by the case
history of the identical twins, Peter and Mark X. Being identical, the twins had identical brains at birth, and
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their growth processes were the same. When the twins were three months old, their parents died, and they
were placed in separate foster homes. Peter was reared by parents of low intelligence in an isolated
community with poor educational opportunities. Mark was reared in the home of well–to–do parents who
had been to college. He was read to as a child, sent to good schools, and given every opportunity to be
stimulated intellectually. This environmental difference continued until the twins were in their late teens,
when they were given tests to measure their intelligence. Mark's I. Q. was 125, twenty–five points higher
than the average and fully forty points higher than his identical brother. Given equal opportunities, the twins,
having identical brains, would have tested at roughly the same level.
Question 39. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. human brains do not differ considerably right from birth.
B. the brain a person is born with is important in determining his intelligence.
C. environment is crucial in determining a person's intelligence.
D. persons having identical brains will have roughly the same intelligence.
Question 40. The word “which” in the first paragraph refers to _________.
A. second factor B. sort of environment C. his brain D. level of intelligence
Question 41. The case history of the twins appears to support the conclusion that________.
A. individual with identical brains seldom test at same level
B. an individual's intelligence is determined only by his environment
C. lack of opportunity blocks the growth of intelligence
D. changes of environment produce changes in the structure of the brain
Question 42. The word "well-to-do" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to______.
A. caring B. wealthy C. poor D. intelligent
Question 43. What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Measuring Your Intelligence B. Intelligence and Environment
C. The Case of Peter and Mark D. How the Brain Influences Intelligence

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.
Speed reading is not just a parlour trick you can use to impress your friends and family. For many, it's a
necessary tool for managing time and information in the fast-paced business world; and for many others,
specifically students, it's the only way to get through reading-heavy class loads.
The practiced speed reader can pick up a lengthy document or a thick stack of paper and use their skill
to get the meat of their subject by skimming for the most important details and information. Without
developing the ability to speed read, this time-saving technique is merely flipping through pages fast.
Speed reading, or increasing the rate at which you read text, is linked to increasing the rate at which
you understand what you’re reading. The key to successful speed reading is increasing your understanding of
the text as you increase the rate at which you read the words. This natural step takes training and practice, but
don’t be intimidated by the idea of a challenge. Once you've mastered it, it's a skill that will stick with you
for the rest of your life. With continued practice, common words and sentence structures became more familiar
and because your brain was tuned and ready, your eyes started taking in blocks of words at a time. The
difference between average readers and speed readers is in the blocks of words their eyes take in at one time.
The larger the blocks, the faster your eyes move through the text.
Speed reading teaches you how to take your reading and your comprehension to the next level. The
techniques used in teaching speed reading focus on your individual abilities, namely where you are right now
and what might be keeping you from progressing. For example, if you are a slow reader, factors that hold you
back may include, but are not limited to, moving your lips or reading out loud or holding the text too close to
your eyes. If you are in the practice of moving your lips, or speaking or whispering while you read, you're
slowing yourself down dramatically.
Your lips can only move so fast. You should be able to read at least two or three times faster than you can
speak. In effect, you’re keeping yourself at that word-by-word stage that children generally grow out of in
elementary school.
Having the ability to speed read can make a significant difference in your life, especially if reading is a
strong component of your work. Implementing some simple techniques can get you reading faster and more
efficiently in no lime at all.
(From Understanding Speed Reading by Brandon C.Hall)
Question 44. What is the passage mainly about?
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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

A. The practice of speed reading B. Features of speed reading


C. The use of speed reading in studies D. Various roles of speed reading
Question 45. The word "meat" is closest in meaning to______.
A. core B. nourishment C. understanding D. nutriment
Question 46. According to the passage, why is speed reading useful for students?
A. They have problems collecting information. B. They can impress their friends.
C. They have difficulty managing their time. D. They have a lot of reading to do.
Question 47. The word "intimidated " is closest in meaning to______.
A. shy B. angry C. frightened D. tired
Question 48. The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _______ .
A. speed reading B. training C. idea of challenge D. being intimidated
Question 49. According to the passage, what is TRUE about the strategies used in teaching speed reader?
A. They focus on slow readers. B. They encourage readers to move lips.
C. They centre on readers' personal capabilities. D. They consider the readers’ schooling ages.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Slow speaker cannot improve their speaking skill.
B. Speed reading plays an important role in student learning.
C. Speed reading decreases your understanding of the text because you are skimming.
D. You couldn’t read at least twice as fast as you talk.
_______________THE END_______________

ĐỀ PHÁT TRIỂN THEO MA TRẬN ĐỀ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG 2023
MINH HỌA BGD NĂM 2023 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ 14 – Mã H1
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ và tên thí sinh:..........................................................................


Số báo danh:...................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 1: The statement of the witness didn’t help the police in the investigation, so it proved to be____.
A. valuable B. valueless C. valuably D. invaluable
Question 2: I’m a bit late, ____?
A. am not I B. aren’t you C. are you D. aren’t I
Question 3: When confronted with a mass of____tape, many people feel a sense of powerlessness.
A. red B. green C. blue D. brown
Question 4: I like cats but unfortunately, I'm allergic ______ them.
A. with B. to C. at D. on
Question 5: The ____ for this position starts at thirty thousand euros per year.
A. wage B. pension C. salary D. income
Question 6: Not everyone believes that ______ technology has improved ______ quality of people's lives.
A. the – Ø B. Ø – a C. the – the D. Ø – the
Question 7: It took four hours ______ to Singapore.
A. to fly B. flying C. to be flown D. fly
Question 8: John and Miley ____ last month. They weren’t happy in this relationship.
A. broke up B. brought up C. got over D. broke off
Question 9: Tom burnt his hand when he _____ dinner.
A. was cooking B. were cooking C. has cooked D. cooked
Question 10: I won’t return these books to the library until I ____ my research project.
A. finished B. will finish C. finish D. am going to finish
Question 11: Lifelong learning can also help ____ some of the weaknesses of the education system.
A. amend B. repair C. mend D. adjust

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Question 12: If we didn't____any measures to protect whales, they would disappear forever.
A. use B. make C. take D. do
th
Question 13: The 26 Annual Meeting of the Asia-Pacific Parliamentary Forum (APPF) in Hanoi,
th st
our beautiful and peaceful capital city, from January 18 to 21 , 2018.
A. was held B. is held C. is being held D. will be held
Question 14: We visited disadvantaged children in an orphanage ______ in the outskirt of town.
A. located B. locating C. locate D. to locate
Question 15: Although she is very popular, she is not ______ her sister.
A. pretty as B. as pretty C. prettier than D. most pretty than

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 16: Nam and Mai are having a party at Nam’s house.
- Nam: “Would you like to have some more dessert, Mai?” - Mai: “______. I’m full.”
A. That would be great B. Yes, I like your party C. Yes, please D. No, thanks
Question 17: Susan accidentally stepped on Denise’s foot.
- Susan: “Oops! I’m sorry, Denise.” . - Denise: “ ________”
A. You shouldn’t do that. B. It’s alright. C. You are welcome. D. It’s nonsense

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. preference B. occurrence C. dependence D. example
Question 19: A. enter B. country C. canal D. cover

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. surgeon B. garden C. agent D. engine
Question 21: A. silent B. equip C. picnic D. ticket

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: 75% of the world's population habitually consume caffeine, which up to a point masks the
symptoms of sleep deprivation.
A. offer B. loss C. supply D. Damage
Question 23: I tried to confabulate with my new neighbor outside my apartment, but he doesn’t seem to
welcome a stranger.
A. familiarize B. chat C. greet D. assimilate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24: My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.
A. be optimistic B. be pessimistic C. be confident D. be smart
Question 25: No downward trend in mortality is apparent in any country before the middle of the
eighteenth century.
A. death rate B. birth rate C. fertility D. sexuality
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 26: My daughter couldn’t speak a word. She could do that when she was three.
A. Not until my daughter was three, she could speak a word.
B. It was before my daughter was three that she could speak a word.
C. Not until my daughter was three could she speak a word.
D. My daughter couldn’t speak a word even after she was three.
Question 27: Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful.
A. Nam regrets to have been so rude to them last night.

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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

B. Nam regrets having so rude to them last night.


C. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night.
D. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 28:
A. What I told her B. is C. to D. most of
Question 29: Some manufacturers are not only raising their prices but also decreasing the production of its
products.
A. raising B. but C. decreasing D. its
Question 30: It is essential to provide high school students with adequate career orientation, so they can make
more informative decisions about their future major.
A. essential B. orientation C. informative D. major

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 31: You are not allowed to take photos in the museum.
A. You may take photos in the museum. B. You should take photos in the museum.
C. You mustn't take photos in the museum. D. You needn't take photos in the museum.
Question 32: Tom said, “I’ll give you this book back tomorrow, Mary.”
A. Tom told Mary that I would give you that book back the next day.
B. Tom told Mary that he would give her that book back the next day.
C. Tom told Mary that he wouldn’t give her that book back the next day.
D. Tom said to Mary that she would give him that book back the next day.
Question 33: She last visited her home country ten years ago.
A. She hasn't visited her home country for ten years. B. She didn't visit her home country ten years ago.
C. She has visited her home country for ten years. . D. She was in her home country for ten years.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
Here are some hand gestures and what they mean in different countries and cultures; "Thumbs up" widely
recognized sign of approval or agreement is actually used as an (34)____in Bangladesh. In certain parts of
the Middle East, thumbs-up is definitely a highly offensive thumbs-down. The thumbs-up sign has been
confusing people for thousands of years! This is used in the United States to ask a person to step forward,
but in Asia this gesture isn’t welcome. It should only be used to beckon dogs (35) ____you do it in the
Philippines you could be arrested.
In USA “the horn fingers" is adopted by rockers and it is a sign of approval, rock on! But in (36) ____
Mediterranean and Latin countries, such as Argentina, Brazil, Colombia, Cuba, Spain, Italy and Portugal, to
make this sign at someone is to tell them (37) ____their spouse is cheating on them.
Looking at your watch means “I'm in a hurry” or “I've got to be somewhere." In the Middle East, however,
a (38) ____should run its natural course, as it would be very rude to look at your watch mid-conversation.
(Source: https://blog.busuu.com/what-hand-gestures-mean-in-different-countries/)
Question 34: A. consult B. result C. insult D. assault
Question 35: A. as B. unless C. when D. if
Question 36: A. many B. few C. much D. another
Question 37: A. that B. which C. who D. whom
Question 38: A. speech B. conversation C. dialogue D. chat

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Japanese Girls' Day-also known as the Doll's Festival-is celebrated on March 3 to pray for the health and
happiness of young girls in Japan. Hinamatsuri, the name of the celebration in Japan, is marked by families
displaying a set of hina dolls in the house and serving special delicacies that are ceremonially beautiful and
delicious.
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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

Traditionally, parents or grandparents of a newborn girl buy a set of hina dolls for the baby, unless they
have special dolls that are inherited from generation to generation. From the end of February to March 3,
hina dolls dressed in Japanese ancient costumes are displayed on tiered platforms that are covered with a red
carpet. The costumed dolls represent the imperial court of the Heian period (A.D. 794 to 1185] and feature
the emperor, empress, attendants, and musicians dressed in traditional garb.
The dolls are displayed hierarchically with the emperor and empress at the top, which are set in front of a
gilded screen representing the thrown. The number of dolls and their size vary from home to home, but five
to seven platforms are common.
It is customary to put the dolls away as soon as the festival is over-there is a superstition that if the dolls
are left out, a family will have trouble marrying off their daughters. After the festival, some people release
paper dolls into the rivers praying that this will send away sickness and bad fortune.
(Adapted from https:'/'/ivwiv. thespruceeats.com/)
Question 39: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Japanese Girls' Day. B. Different types of dolls for baby
C. Procedure of Hinamatsuri. D. The way to display the dolls.
Question 40: The word "delicacies" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. rare flowers B. expensive foods C. traditional cakes D. beverages
Question 41: According to the passage, the following are true about Japanese Girls' Day,
EXCEPT _____
A. It is organized on March 3 to pray for health and happiness of Japanese girls.
B. Some sets of hina dolls are preserved to pass down the younger generation.
C. Before the festival, hina dolls in ancient costumes are covered with a red carpet.
D. The hina dolls are categorized according to their hierarchy in the imperial court.
Question 42: What will be done with the dolls after the festival?
A. being thrown away B. being stored
C. being sold D. being displayed in the girls' room
Question 43: What does the word “this” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. marrying off their daughters B. leaving out the hina dolls
C. putting the dolls away as soon as possible D. putting paper dolls into the rivers

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
Astronomers have for the first time definitively ID’d the birth of a specific heavy element during a neutron-
star smashup. They found strontium. And it showed up in the wavelengths of light — or spectra — making
up this collision’s afterglow.
Scientists had assumed that a collision by two super-dense objects, such as neutron stars, would trigger a
chain of nuclear reactions. They’re known as the r-process. In such an environment, the nuclei of atoms could
rapidly gobble up neutrons. Afterward, those nuclei would become transformed in a process known as
radioactive decay. The r-process was seen as a way to transform old, smaller elements into newer, bigger ones.
About half of all elements heavier than iron were thought to be made in the r-process. Finding strontium in
the recent collision at last offered the most direct evidence yet that neutron-star collisions really do trigger the
r-process.
Physicists had long predicted that silver, gold and many other elements more massive than iron formed this
way. But scientists weren’t sure where those r-process reactions took place. After all, no one had directly seen
the r-process underway in a celestial event. Or they didn’t until the merger of two neutron stars in 2017.
Scientists quickly analyzed light given off by that cataclysm. In it, they found evidence of the birth of a
hodgepodge of heavy elements. All would seem to have come from the r-process.
The researchers were examining mostly very heavy elements — ones whose complex atomic structures
can generate millions of spectral features. And all of those features were not yet fully known, Watson points
out. This made it extremely difficult to tease apart which elements were present, he says.
Strontium, however, is relatively light compared to other r-process elements. And its simple atomic structure
creates a few strong and well-known spectral clues. So Watson and his colleagues expanded their analysis to
consider it. In doing so, they turned up the clear "fingerprint" of strontium. It emerged in light collected by
the Very Large Telescope in Chile within a few days of the neutron-star collision. Seeing strontium in the
afterglow wasn’t all that unexpected, says Brian Metzger. He’s an astrophysicist at Columbia University in
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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

New York City and not involved in the new work. Strontium, he notes, “does tell us something interesting”
about the elements formed during the neutron-star collision.
(Source: https://www.sciencenewsforstudents.org/)
Question 44. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Gravitational waves linked to neutron star collision.
B. A nearby neutron star crash could cause calamity on Earth.
C. Neutron-star collision shakes space and time.
D. Heavy element identified from a neutron-star collision.
Question 45. The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
A. collision B. afterglow C. smashup D. strontium
Question 46. According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned about the r-process?
A. R-process happens before the radioactive decay process.
B. R-process reactions are similar to thermonuclear weapon explosions.
C. R-process is a set of nuclear reactions initiated by neuron-star collision.
D. It is responsible for the creation of approximately half of the atomic nuclei heavier than iron.
Question 47. The word “hodgepodge” in paragraph 3 can be replaced by _______.
A. selection B. jumble C. assemblage D. medley
Question 48. The word “tease” in paragraph 4 can be replaced by _______.
A. tell B. tear C. taunt D. move
Question 49. According to paragraph 5, why did the researchers extend the reviewed scale of elements for
strontium?
A. Strontium is similar to Barium and the lanthanides – which have strong spectroscopic feature.
B. It had been thought that only the most robust elements would be made in neutron-star collisions.
C. Strontium was only discovered after the observation of the crash, thus could not be considered.
D. Strontium’s properties are quite different from the original considered set of elements.
Câu 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Spotted strontium supports the idea that neutron-star mergers create many elements heavier than iron.
B. Scientists have detected a new element for the periodic table in the aftermath of a neutron star crash.
C. A neutron-rich environment generates lighter r-process elements than a neutron-free one.
D. A pair of black holes is more productive than that of neutron stars in creating gold.

ĐỀ PHÁT TRIỂN THEO MA TRẬN ĐỀ KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG 2023
MINH HỌA BGD NĂM 2023 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ 15 – Mã H2
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ và tên thí sinh:..........................................................................


Số báo danh:...................................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 1: Jet lag causes problems with our _____ clock.
A. biological B. biology C. biologist D. Biologically
Question 2: They invited him to the party, ______?
A. do they B. don’t they C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 3: The political candidate knew the issue was a hot_______, so he deferred to his chief of staff,
whodirected questions to the committee chairperson.
A. tomato B. potato C. pot D. dog
Question 4: She is optimistic ______ her chances of winning a gold medal.
A. about B. for C. at D. with
Question 5: Due to lacking ___________, they couldn’t open a new shop as scheduled.
A. interest rates B. funds C. shares B. expenses
Question 6: Mel's grandmother is in ______ hospital, so we went to visit her ______ last night.
A. a – Ø B. Ø – the C. the – the D. Ø – Ø

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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

Question 7: It is not easy ______ a high-paid job.


A. find B. finding C. finds D. to find
Question 8: Because of the heavy rain, we are going to have to ______ the soccer match until next week.
A. turn down B. put off C. set off D. set up
Question 9: My cousin broke his leg when he _____ football last week.
A. was playing B. plays C. has played D. played
Question 10: _______, my classmates will have bought the ticket for me.
A. By the time I arrive at the cinema B. After I have arrive at the cinema
C. When I arrived at the cinema D. As I had arrived at the cinema
Question 11: The campaign against drinking and driving has ______ road accidents by 25%.
A. avoided B. caused C. witnessed D. reduced
Question 12: People who take on a second job inevitably ______ themselves to greater stress.
A. offer B. subject C. field D. place
Question 13: Millions of bars of chocolate ______ in the world each day.
A. consume B. consumed C. are consuming D. are consumed
Question 14: All the candidates ______ were given a second interview.
A. select B. selected C. selecting D. are selected
Question 15: This hotel must be ______ than the small one next door.
A. expensive B. more expensive C. the most expensive D. the more expensive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 16: Maggie and Peterson are chatting during the break time.
Maggie: “What do you think about the new physics teacher?”
Peterson: “___________”
A. Mind your own business. C. It’s in the classroom.
B. He’s clever, isn’t he? D. Physics is a difficult subject.
Question 17: Lan and Bach are visiting an art gallery.
Lan: “Look at this picture of an upright piano!”
Bach: “__________”
A. You are so irritating. C. I felt hot. B. Why can’t you? D. Who drew it?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. possession B. politics C. revision D. proposal
Question 19: A. receive B. proper C. process D. leader

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. species B. special C. spaceship D. spacious
Question 21: A. emit B. highlight C. island D. idol

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: As a sociable student, Pete likes to spend his free time taking part in many of the school’s clubs.
A. mischievous B. outgoing C. caring D. shy
Question 23: For some students, mastering English grammar is difficult.
A. hard B. easy C. relaxing D. interesting

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 24: Getting tons of spam emails from different companies trying to sell you something every day is
a real pain in the neck.
A. relaxing B. irritating C. healthy D. painless
Question 25: Tom was really good at producing elaborate sketches of buildings around the city.
A. ugly-looking B. slight C. mild D. simple
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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 26: I drank the liquid. Right after that I realized it was not water.
A. No sooner I had drunk the liquid than I realized that it was not water.
B. Only after I drink the liquid will I realize it is not water.
C. Only when I drank the liquid did I realize it was water.
D. Hardly had I drunk the liquid than I realized that it was water.
Question 27: Jack dropped out of school at the age of 15. He now regrets it.
A. If only Jack had dropped out of school when he was 15.
B. If Jack dropped out of school when he was 15, he would regret it.
C. Jack wishes he hadn’t dropped out of school when he was 15.
D. Jack regrets not having dropped out of school when he was 15.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 28: When I got home, Irene was lying in bed thinking about what a wonderful time she has had.
A. home B. lying C. wonderful time D. has had
Question 29: Elephants are in dangered of extinction because poachers have hunted them for its ivory tusks.
A. of B. because C. hunted D. its
Question 30: Sometimes it is better not to say the truth if someone is likely to be upset unnecessarily.
A. say B. truth C. upset D. unnecessarily

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 31: The lights are on, so I’m sure Dan is at home.
A. Dan must be at home as the lights are on. B. Dan can’t be at home as the lights are on.
C. Dan must have been at home as the lights were on.
D. Dan should have been at home to turn on the lights.
Question 32: “He is playing volleyball with your brother.” she said to me.
A. She told me he was playing volleyball with your brother.
B. She told me she was playing volleyball with my brother.
C. She told me he was playing volleyball with my brother.
D. She told me he was playing volleyball with her brother.
Question 33: Peter started learning to play the piano two months ago.
A. Peter has learned to play the piano for two months.
B. Peter is learning to play the piano at the moment.
C. Peter stopped learning to play the piano two months ago.
D. Peter has never learned to play the piano.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks.
EUROPEAN COMPANIES ACT TO WARD OFF CORONAVIRUS
For weeks, the coronavirus outbreak in China rattled global supply chains, exacting a toll on major
businesses around the world, though often in indirect ways. Now, as it spreads across Europe and Asia, the
virus is becoming a more immediate threat to (34)_______ types of businesses. From Milan to Berlin to
London, companies in practically every industry are (35)_______ their emergency protocols or sending
employees home to try to preven an outbreak.
This week, Chevron instructed 300 workers at one of its London offices to work from home (36)_____
an employee returning from Italy developed flu-like (37)_______. The media group OMF has taken the same
step in the Fitzrovia district of London, sending home around 1,000 employees after a staff member
(38)______ recently passed through Singapore began showing symptoms.
Adapted from The New York Times
Question 34. A. all B. much C. few D. another
Question 35. A. defining B. refining C. containing D. observing
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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

Question 36. A. after B. before C. while D. during


Question 37. A. cases B. problems C. risks D. symptoms
Question 38. A. whom B. which C. who D. whose

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
As Hurricane Florence zeroes in on the southeastern US, scientists are warning that climate change
is exacerbating the effect of tropical storms. The powerful Category 4 Atlantic weather-front is slow
moving, an increasingly common phenomenon that poses a different manner of threat to states in its
path. In the event that Florence stalls or comes to a halt altogether over land, it has the potential to
deposit catastrophic quantities of rainwater, posing a of severe flash flooding.
While the high winds and waves generated by faster storms moving inland from the ocean pose a
significant danger to human life and property, the effect of heavy rain can be just as devastating, if not
more so. When Hurricane Harvey hit in August 2017, it dropped 60 inches of rain over Houston, Texas,
flooding the streets, leaving 93 dead and hundreds more having to be rescued by boat, causing millions
of dollars-worth of damage.
James Kossin of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration published a study in the
journal Nature in June suggesting that slow-moving tropical cyclones, which would include those like
Florence and Harvey, have become more common over the last 70 dropping in speed by 10 per
cent in that time. According to Mr Kossin, global warming as a result of man-made air pollution is
causing the poles to become warmer, which in turn reduces the difference in temperature between the
Arctic and Antarctic and the equator, altering atmospheric pressure and slowing down the whipping
currents of wind that pass between them and drive hurricanes,
(Adapted from https://www.indepenclent.co.uk/environment)
Question 39: The best title for this passage could be _______________.
A. danger of hurricane in US B. climate change and the threat from tropical storms
C. climate change and people activities D. storms cause millions of dollars-worth of damage
Question 40: Which statement about Hurricane Harvey is probably TRUE according to the passage ?
A. It caused the floods in all the streets in US
B. It caused a significant danger to people and property.
C. It made citizens in Texas suffer from floods and damage.
D. It made residents lose millions of dollars.
Question 41: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. tropical cyclones B. a study C. Florence D. Harvey
Question 42: in the 3rd paragraph, James Kossin suggests that ______.
A. over the last years, human activities have made global warming worse.
B. over the last years, people cause the poles to become hotter.
C. over the last 70 years, Florence and Harvey are common in Texas.
D. over the last 70 years, slow-moving tropical cyclones have become more common.
Question 43: The word “altering” in paragraph 3 means __ ______.
A. fastening B. changing C. remaining D. keeping

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
question.
How busy is too busy? For some it means having to miss the occasional long lunch; for others, it
means missing lunch altogether. For a few, it is not being able to take a "sickie" once a month. Then there
is a group of people for whom working every evening and weekend is normal, and frantic is the tempo
of their lives. For most senior executives, workloads swing between extremely busy and frenzied.
The vice-president of the management consultancy AT Kearney and its head of telecommunications
for the Asia-Pacific region, Neil Plumridge, says his work weeks vary from a “manageable” 45 hours to
80 hours, but average 60 hours.
Three warning signs alert Plumridge about his workload: sleep, scheduling and family. He
knows he has too much on when he gets less than six hours of sleep for three consecutive nights; when
he is constantly having to reschedule appointments; "and the third one is on the family side", says
Plumridge, the father of a three-year-old daughter, and expecting a second child in October. "If I happen to
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MAIVO-GCSE-2023

miss a birthday or anniversary, I know things are out of control." Being "too busy" is highly subjective. But for
any individual, the perception of being too busy over a prolonged period can start showing up as
stress: disturbed sleep, and declining mental and physical health. National workers' compensation figures
show stress causes the most lost time of any workplace injury. Employees suffering stress are off work
an average of 16.6 weeks. The effects of stress are also expensive. Comcare, the Federal
Government insurer, reports that in 2003-04, claims for psychological injury accounted for 7% of
claims but almost 27% of claim costs. Experts say the key to dealing with stress is not to focus on relief -
a game of golf or a massage - but to reassess workloads. Neil Plumridge says he makes it a priority to
work out what has to change; that might mean allocating extra resources to a job, allowing more
time or changing expectations. The decision may take several days. He also relies on the advice of
colleagues, saying his peers coach each other with business problems. "Just a fresh pair of eyes over an
issue can help," he says.
Executive stress is not confined to big organizations. Vanessa Stoykov has been running her own
advertising and public relations business for seven years, specializing in work for financial and
professional services firms, Evolution Media has grown so fast that it debuted on the BRW Fast 100 list of
fastest-growing small enterprises last year - just after Stoykov had her first child. Stoykov thrives on the
mental stimulation of running her own business. "Like everyone, I have the occasional day when I think
my head's going to blow off," she says. Because of the growth phase the business is in, Stoykov has to
concentrate on short-term stress relief - weekends in the mountains, the occasional "mental health" day
-rather than delegating more work, She says: “We're hiring more people, but you need to train them,
teach them about the culture and the clients, so it's actually more work rather than less.”
(Source: www.ielts-mentor.com)
Question 44: Which of the following could be the title of the passage?
A. The stress of workplace
B. The average of working hours of senior executives
C. Some major groups of busy people
D. The warning signs of workload
Question 45: The word "consecutive" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. interrupted B. solitary C. successive D. intermittent
Question 46: As mentioned in paragraph 2, the following sentences are true about the work stress,
EXCEPT ______.
A. Disturbed sleep and reducing mental and physical health are the symptom of being too busy.
B. The lost time caused by stress ranks last in comparison with other workplace injuries.
C. The cost paid for psychological injury was rather high.
D. Relief is not the effective way to cope with stress.
Question 47: The word "reassess" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. re-evaluate B. consider C. reduce D. estimate
Question 48: What does the word "he" in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Comcare B. Expert C. Neil Plumridge D. Employee
Question 49: According to the last paragraph, what measure does Vanessa Stoykov take to reduce work
stress?
A. delegating more work B. taking brief vacations on weekends
C. hiring more people D. allowing more time or changing expectations
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that ______.
A. stress appears in almost every position in workplace.
B. employees working in big organizations will suffer more stress than others.
C. the more the business grows, the more stress people get.
D. good colleagues can help to reduce stress.

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