HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

1. Which of the following is NOT included in the 7. Which body position allows longer retention
treatment algorithm for allergic rhinitis? times for enemas?

A. Implement appropriate environmental A. Lithotomy D. Erect

controls. B. Supine E. Prone
B. Consider Cromolyn if with sneezing, itching C. Sitting
and rhinorrhea.
C. Administer intranasal steroids if with 8. Grade for hepatic encephalopathy with
sneezing, itching, rhinorrhea, and nasal experience of drowsiness and grossly impaired
congestion. calculation ability.
D. Give intranasal anticholinergics if with
sneezing and ocular symptoms. A. Grade 0 D. Grade 3
E. E.I f symptoms still not controlled, consider B. Grade 1 E. Grade 4
Montelukast. C. Grade 2

2. Clinical presentation of Acute Renal Failure 9. The following are factors that may
includes: exacerbate established chronic renal failure,
EXCEPT:
A. Edema D. A, B, C
B. Orthostatic Hypotension E. A and B A. Hypotension D. Nephrotoxins
C. Foamy urine B. Prostatic hypertrophy E. Hypertension
C. Increased renal blood flow
3. Nail and nail beds are evaluated for which of
the following? 10. Another term for nearsightedness:

A. Clubbing D. All of these A. astigmatism D. Presbyopia

B. Cyanosis E. None of these B. hyperopia E. Myopia
C. Trauma C. exophthalmos

4. Why is the Rinne Test performed? 11. Which of the following may cause “hairy
tongue”?
A. To assess equilibrium.
B. To hearing acuity of high-frequency sounds. A. Hypercholesterolemia D. Liver disease
C. To evaluate hearing in a person who hears B. Antibiotic therapy E. Aging
better in one ear than in the other. C. Measles
D. To compare air and bone conduction.
E. All of these 12. Which strategy may be advised to a patient
who considers Beta blockers unpleasant to
5. Blistering of the skin due to second-degree take?
burns is an example of a:
A. Change the dosage regimen.
A. Excoriation D. Nevus B. Consider verapamil.
B. Lichenification E. Bulla C. Encourage patient to use regularly
C. Millium D. A and B
E. All of these
6. Method of assessing the sinuses:

A. Inspection D. Expression
B. Percussion E. Auscultation
C. Transillumination
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

13. Which of the following is NOT TRUE 20. First-line treatment for Myoclonic seizures:
regarding Captopril?
A. Phenobarbital D. Valproate
A. Taken once daily. B. Acetazolamide E. Topiramate
B. First-dose hypotension may occur C. Phenytoin
C. May worsen renal failure
D. Cough and taste disturbance may occur 21. A patient is diagnosed with parkinsonian
E. Hyperkalemia may be expected syndrome if patient has bradykinesia, plus one
or more of the following:
14. The following drugs may increase
anticoagulant effect, EXCEPT: A. Classic rest tremor D. B and C
B. Muscular rigidity E. A, B, and C
A. Ketoconazole D. Erythromycin C. Postural instability
B. Estrogen E. Zafirlukast
C. Gemfibrozil 22. These are orders for in-patients in hospitals
and other institutions written by physicians on
15. Drug-induced bronchospasm due to reflex forms:
bronchoconstriction:
A. Physician’s Order Sheet D. Recipe
A. Pilocarpine D. Penicillin B. Prescription E. Patient’s Chart
B. Aspirin E. Timolol C. Medication Order
C. Lactose dry powder
23. The following are types of information under
16. Physical assessment technique of creating social/economic database, EXCEPT:
a note by tapping a finger placed on the body:
A. Daily activities D. Sexual History
A. Palpation D. Direct percussion B. Ethnic background E. A and D
B. Auscultation E. Indirect percussion C. Living arrangement
C. Ballotement
24. “Health is a state of complete physical,
17. Koilonychia is due to deficiency of mental, and social well-being and not merely
___________? the absence of disease or infirmity.” This
condition is according to which model?
A. Iron D. Water
B. Vitamin B12 E. Vitamin C A. Environmental model
C. Calcium B. Wellness model
C. World Health Organization model
18. Example of a Scale skin lesion: D. Medical model
E. All of these
A. Hives D. Mouth sore
B. Dandruff E. Wart 25. Patients of psychiatric conditions usually
C. Measles rash stay in which type of hospital?

19. Which benzodiazepine is LEAST to be used A. Non-governmental

among elderly patients? B. General
C. Long-term
A. Diazepam D. Lorazepam D. 400-499 bed-capacity
B. Oxazepam E. Clonazepam E. Short-term
C. Alprazolam
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

26. Which function of the hospital is geared 32. The question “Are agents available in
towards the improvement of hospital services commercial formulation?” represents which
and advancement of medical knowledge request classification for drug information?
against disease?
A. Adverse Drug Reaction
A. Research D. Patient care B. Availability
B. Wellness E. Expansion C. Compounding/ Formulation
C. Education D. Identification
E. Compatibility/ Stability
27. Type of questioning: “What medication do
you take for a headache?” 33. When looking for information regarding
method of administration, which of the following
A. Direct Questioning D. Open-ended drug information sources may be the most
B. Indirect Questioning E. Close-ended useful?
C. Probing
A. Drug Facts and Comparisons
28. “Spell WORLD backwards” is an example of B. RPS
a test for what area of mental state? C. Goodman and Gilman’s Pharmacological
Basis of Therapeutics
A. Orientation D. Registration D. Martindale: The Complete Drug Reference
B. Attention E. Language E. USP DI
C. Recall
34. If the answer to the question “Do you cough
29. Which information is under the up blood?” is negative, which of the following is
Demographic database? to be noted that the patient denied of?

A. Patient Identification Number A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

B. Physician and prescribers B. Hemoptysis
C. Occupation C. Shortness of breath
D. Personality type D. Exertional SOB
E. Ethnic background E. Rales

30. Volunteer service belongs to which 35. This is an important tool for assuring the
department in the hospital? quality of drug use and controlling its cost in an
institution such as the hospital.
A. Pharmacy service
B. Medical Library A. Essential drug list
C. Business office B. Formulary system
D. Medical Social Service C. Formulary
E. Administrative D. P&T Committee
E. Core list
31. When using the standardized outline
approach, which of the following is NOT 36. A facility where ambulatory patients are
followed when writing Progress Notes? seen for appointments and treated by a group
of physicians practicing together.
A. Subjective data
B. Objective data A. Long-term health care facility
C. Recommendation B. Clinic
D. Impression C. Hospital
E. None of these D. County hospital
E. Resident treatment facility
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

37. Which of the following belongs to the 41. Which of the following is a comprehensive,
business management or administrative side of unbiased source of current information on drugs
the hospital? often used as hospital nursing stations, and
serves as a basis for pharmacists to extend
A. Medical Records their role as pharmaceutical consultants to the
B. Medical Library medical profession?
C. Biomedical Engineering
D. Pharmacy Service A. Minimum Standard for Pharmacies in
E. Dietary and Nutrition Service Hospitals
B. Mirror to Hospital Pharmacy
38. Which of the following statements regarding C. International Pharmaceutical Abstracts
questioning strategies for the D. American Journal of Health-System
pharmacist-patient encounter is CORRECT? Pharmacy
E. Drug Information
A. Probing questions are assertive and
aggressive. 42. Which class of stock system consists of a
B. Precise information may be obtained using predetermined list of medications that are
the close-ended questions. usually used in large quantities and are
C. Open-ended questions are for prepackaged in standardized containers?
narrow-focused answers.
D. Direct questions encourages patient to A. Unit-dose system
elaborate. B. Charge floor stock
E. All except A C. Free floor stock
D. Inpatient prescription system
39. Which of the following body areas is last in E. Coordinated control system
the sequence followed for physical
examination? 43. Aside from Policy Development, what is the
other primary purpose of the P & T committee?
A. HEENT
B. Genitals A. Operation D. Education
C. Rectum B. Organization E. Drug
D. Neurological System Administration
E. Lower extremities C. Community Health

40. The USP contains nomograms for
estimating body surface area (BSA) for both
children and adults. Which of the following
measurements must be known in order to use
the nomogram?
A. Age and height
B. Age and weight
C. Height and creatinine clearance
D. Height and weight
E. Weight and sex
44. Water for injection is an example of drugs
dispensed in which type of stock system?
A. Unit dose system
B. Charge floor stock
C. Free floor stock
D. Inpatient prescription system
E. Coordinated control system
45. Which of the following drug information may
not be found in Physician’s Desk Reference?

A. Lactation
B. Drug of choice
C. ADR
D. Dosage
E. Product availability
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

46. Which of the following journals cover 51. Which one of the following uses high
medical news and original articles? frequency sound waves imperceptible to the
human ear to create images of organs?
A. Drug Information Journal
B. Archives of Internal Medicine A. Standard Radiography
C. New England Journal of Medicine B. Echocardiography
D. Medical Letter C. Echography
E. Annals of Pharmacotherapy D. Echocardiogram
E. Radionuclide studies
47. Which of the following describes a medium
intensity of feeling, which can be used in a 52. Sexual history is under what patient
medical interview? information type/ section?

A. Marvelous D. Blue A. Demographic D. Behavioral

B. Upset E. Gloomy B. Medical E. Administrative
C. Distraught C. Social

48. The following statements regarding arterial 53. Assessment of pancreatic function may be
blood gases are true, EXCEPT: determined by the following, EXCEPT:

A. Alveolar hyperventilation if PaCO2 <4.5 kPa A. Glucose D. Insulin

B. Oxygen saturation is measured by pulse B. Amylase E. None of these
oximetry C. Thyroxine
C. Alveolar ventilation may regulate PaCO2
D. Low PaCO2 implies alveolar hypoventilation. 54. Mini-mental status exam (MMSE) is an
E. Arterial oxygen tension < 12 kPa may example of what data type?
indicate hypoxaemia
A. Subjective D. Plan
49. Which term refers to a decreased number of B. Objective E. Either A or B
cell types is synonymous with aplastic anemia? C. Assessment

A. Microcytic D. Thrombocytopenia 55. Which one of the following is useful in the

B. Pancytopenia E. Neutrophilia diagnosis and monitoring of liver disease?
C. Aplastic
A. Amylase
50. Which of the following is an invasive test or B. Hematocrit
procedure? C. Hemoglobin
D. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
A. Insertion of a central venous catheter E. Bilirubin
B. Taking of chest x-ray films
C. Collection of spontaneously voided urine 56. What color of the stool is generally
D. Comparative measurements of body parts associated with upper gastrointestinal tract
E. All except B bleeding?

A. Black D. Brown
B. Gray E. Red
C. Light Gray
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

57. Which one of the following may indicate 62. A bronchoscope is introduced through the
longer prothrombin time? following openings, EXCEPT:

A. Hepatic dysfunction A. Nose D. Mouths

B. Increased Vitamin K B. Endotracheal tube E. None of these
C. Increased production of clotting factors C. Rectum
D. All of these
E. None of these 63. Which one of the following is a noninvasive
test or procedure?
58. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
patient chart preparation? A. Venipuncture
B. Radionuclide studies
A. Abbreviations of any kind should not be C. Paracentesis
used. D. Ultrasonography
B. Write in ink, felt, or pencil. E. pH
C. Blue ink is conventional.
D. The patient should be identifiable by at least 64. Parameter of fecalysis that is used in the
one (1) demographic characteristic. diagnosis of intestinal hemorrhage:
E. All of the choices except B
A. Consistency D. Amount
59. Which one of the following may be an B. Fecal parasites E. pH
indication of the presence of white blood cells in C. Occult blood
the stool?
65. Drug that may cause brown-colored urine:
A. Bile duct obstruction
B. Gastrointestinal infection A. Methyldopa D. Doxorubicin
C. Measles B. Rifampicin E. Metronidazole
D. Dehydration C. Indomethacin
E. Rapid gastrointestinal transit
66. Major component of plasma proteins and
60. Which dosage form is utilized in barium indicates severity in chronic liver disease
studies?
A. Albumin D. Glucose
A. Troches D. Ointment B. Creatinine E. Bilirubin
B. Enema E. Dressing C. Hemoglobin
C. Implant
67. Test to evaluate the absorption of Vitamin
61. Using the Scratch Test, which one of the B12:
following is not a criterion for evaluation of the
skin indicating the patient’s sensitivity to an A. Schilling Test
allergen? B. Rinne Test
C. Weber’s Test
A. Itchiness D. No change/ reaction D. Romberg Test
B. Swelling E. B and C E. Schamroth Technique
C. Redness
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

68. Which of the following pairs of clinical 73. BMI category indicating a Possible
findings and laboratory values is TRUE? likelihood of chronic protein-energy under
nutrition:
A. Proteus mirabilis infection – urine pH 9.0
B. Hypothyroidism – FTI4: 6.4 A. <10 kg/ m2 D. 20-35 kg/ m2
C. Warfarin therapy – Bleeding time: 2 min B. <18 kg/ m2 E. >35 kg/ m2
D. Primary hyperparathyroidism – Serum C. 18.5-20 kg/ m2
chloride: 128 mEq/L
E. Previous myocardial infarction – CK- MB: 5.7 74. In parenteral nutrition, which supplies
ng/mL Chloride the most per mL?

69. Which of the following pairs of clinical
findings and laboratory values is FALSE?
A. Hepatocellular damage – Female patient:
ALT: 50 U/L
B. Folic acid deficiency – Male patient: 76%
C. Lithium carbonate therapy – Serum
Potassium: 2.1 mEq/L
D. Hemolytic disease – Total Bilirubin: 0.8
mg/dL
E. Diabetes mellitus – GIT: 180 mg/dL at 2 hrs
70. Test used to diagnose myasthenia gravis:
A. Edrophonium tensilon test
B. Ventilation Scanning
C. Scratch and Patch Test
D. Romberg Test
E. Stress Test
A. Sodium chloride D. Iron chloride
B. Potassium chloride E. None of these
C. Calcium chloride
75. Which of the following statements is
INCORRECT when handling cytotoxic drugs:
A. Syringes and IV sets with luer-lock fittings
are recommended.
B. Syringes should be large enough to
accommodate the total dose needed.
C. Syringes should not be three-quarters full
when containing the total drug dose.
D. B and C
E. None of these
76. Which among the following is NOT a
characteristic of the therapeutic relationship
between the patient and the pharmacist?

71. Test of choice in patients suspected of A. Equality D. Authenticity

having iron deficiency anemia: B. Trust E. Responsiveness
C. Empathy
A. Coomb’s Test
B. Serum ferritin 77. Example of metabolic complications during
C. ZPP fluorescence parenteral nutrition, EXCEPT:
D. C-reactive protein
E. Haptoglobulin A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Lipid intolerance
72. This refers to the technique of manipulating C. Thrombophlebitis
unconscious or involuntary bodily processes D. Essential fatty acid deficiency
made perceptible to the senses by conscious E. Refeeding syndrome
mental control:
78. An important clinical skill that refers to the
A. Naturopathy D. Biofeedback continuous process of deliberation and
B. Auscultation E. Holistic Health reflection during problem solving:
C. Acupuncture
A. Metacognition D. Genuineness
B. Ethnocentricity E. Manipulation
C. Adherence
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

79. Which clinical finding is associated to 86. Herpes zoster is an example of ________
Measles?
A. Patch D. Papule
A. Hairy tongue D. Koplik spots B. Scale E. Macule
B. Chvostek’s sign E. Xanthelesma C. Vesicle
C. Osler’s node
87. Which of the following databases is
80. A small, circumscribed, elevated solid published by the American Society of
lesion: Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP)?

A. Papule D. Macule A. MEDLARS

B. Vesicle E. Comedo B. International Pharmaceutical Abstracts
C. Patch C. Index Medicus
D. Toxline
81. What body organ is associated with fetor E. EMBASE
hepaticus?
88. What is deficiency in scurvy?
A. Kidney D. Skin
B. Uterus E. Liver A. Vitamin B1 D. Iron
C. Oral mucosa B. Vitamin C E. Phosphorus
C. Calcium
82. Practice sites for Ambulatory Care Setting:
89. Blistering of the skin due to second-degree
A. Nursing homes D. A, B, C burns is an example of a:
B. Patient’s residence E. B and C
C. Clinic environment A. Excoriation D. Vesicle
B. Lichenification E. Bulla
83. Conditions that can affect vision, EXCEPT: C. Millium

A. Astigmatism D. Corneal arcus 90. Volume of air inspired or expired with

B. Muddy sclera E. All except B normal breathing:
C. Conical cornea
A. Tidal volume
84. Which of the following describes a macule? B. Residual volume
C. Peak expiratory flow
A. Wart D. A and C D. Forced tidal capacity
B. Colored lesion E. B and C E. A and B
C. Less than 1cm
91. Comparative measurements of parts of the
85. Which among the given characteristics is body are used to assess nutritional status:
NOT true regarding a Social interaction as to
space boundaries with patient? A. Manometry D. EMG
B. Anthropometrics E. ESR
A. Patient is 4-12 feet away. C. Schilling Test
B. Body contact is described as out of reach.
C. Eye contact is important.
D. Low and frequent vocalization
E. None of these
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

92. Which of the following is NOT a primary 98. Which of the following is NOT a clinical
literature for drug information? manifestation of heart failure?

A. Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report A. Bradycardia D. Confusion

B. Annals of Internal Medicine B. Pallor E. Hepatomegaly
C. Clin-Alert C. Fatigue
D. Lancet
E. Pharmacotherapy 99. What is the interaction of Tetracycline and
milk?
93. Electrolyte level is increased due to
spironolactone use: A. Potentiation
B. Drug displacement
A. Potassium D. Calcium C. Complexation
B. Magnesium E. Chloride D. Enzyme inhibition
C. Sodium E. Addition

94. Drugs that may cause dyspepsia 100. In what section of the medical chart can
one find the patient’s Past Medical History
A. Corticosteroids D. Either A or B (PMH)?
B. Iron E. A, B, C
C. Antibiotics A. Flow sheet
B. Admit summary
95. The following are precipitating factors of C. Admission form
hepatic encephalopathy, EXCEPT: D. Progress notes
E. Patient interview
A. Constipation
B. High-protein diet 101. Which of the following decreases
C. Hyperkalemia theophylline clearance?
D. Bacterial peritonitis
E. Benzodiazepines A. Cigarette smoking
B. Viral pneumonia
96. Contraindications to thrombolysis as an C. Phenytoin
intervention to acute coronary syndrome: D. Age (1-12 years old)
E. High-protein, low carbohydrate diet
A. One week postpartum
B. CNS Neoplasm 102. Who among the following is under the
C. Oral anticoagulant therapy Chief Pharmacist but above the other positions
D. A, B, C based on the organizational chart of a hospital?
E. A and C
A. Staff Pharmacist
97. When organizing a patient’s B. Chief Administrative Officer
Problem-Oriented Medical Record (POMR), C. Senior Pharmacist
which of the following may be found on the last D. Supervising Pharmacist
pages/ sections? E. Associate Pharmacist

A. Graphic charts
B. Laboratory data
C. Progress notes
D. Medication List
E. Physicians Orders
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

103. Which of the following is a qualification for 108. Investigational Drug Study is part of which
a Senior Pharmacist in a hospital? service among the hospital pharmacy services?

A. With at least 3 years work experience A. Dispensing D. Research

B. With at least 1 year pharmacy practice B. Clinical E. Administrative
C. Have passed sub professional Career C. Compounding
Service Eligibility examination
D. MS in Pharmacy or its equivalent 109. Physical Examination results may be
E. With at least 18 units of post-graduate found in which section of the medical chart?
studies
A. Admit summary D. A, B, C
104. Which of the following is a qualification for B. Progress Notes E. B and C
a Supervising Pharmacist in a hospital? C. Flow sheet

A. With at least 1 year pharmacy practice 110. Who is considered as the head of the
B. With at least 18 units of post-graduate Nutrition Support Team?
studies
C. MS in Pharmacy or its equivalent A. Pharmacist D. Dietitian
D. With at least 3 years work experience B. Physician E. All of these
E. Have passed sub professional Career C. Nurse
Service Eligibility examination
111. Carcinogenesis is an example of what type
105. Who among the following personnel of ADR?
prepares reports of monthly consumption and
balance of stocks? A. Type A D. Type D
B. Type B E. Type E
A. Senior Pharmacist C. Type C
B. Staff Pharmacist
C. Administrative Aide 112. Syndromes that are typical of drug-induced
D. Chief Pharmacist pulmonary disease, EXCEPT:
E. Laboratory Pharmacy Aide
A. Cardiogenic pulmonary edema
106. Which of the following drugs is deemed B. Asthma
inappropriate for use in elderly patients? C. Plural effusions
D. Interstitial fibrosis
A. Secobarbital D. Only A E. Pulmonary vascular disease
B. Meprobamate E. A, B, C
C. Gluthetimide 113. Ethambutol- optic neuropathy is an
example of what type of ADR?
107. In the pharmacy functional chart, Poison
Control is part of which service? A. Ending of use D. Failure of Efficacy
B. Bizarre E. Augmented
A. Dispensing D. Research C. Continuous
B. Clinical E. Administrative
C. Compounding 114. Deteriorated or outdated medication is a
cause of what type of medication error?

A. Prescribing error D. B and C

B. Dispensing error E. A, B, C
C. Administration error
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

115. Which among the categories of medication 121. To which government agency should the
error has the presence of error but poses no hospital submit the report on empty vials and
harm? ampoules crushed and used as specimen
container?
A. Type A D. Type G
B. Type C E. Type I A. DOH D. DTI
C. Type F B. PDEA E. A and B
C. FDA
116. Prescriptions for Phenobarbital tablet is
filed for how long? 122. Prescriptions for Phenobarbital ampule
should be filed for how long?
A.6 months D. 3 years
B. 1 year E. 5 years A. 6 months D. 5 years
C. 2 years B. 1 year E. It is not filed.
B. 2 years
117. Drugs that are implicated in disorders of
mood: 123. Effects more pronounced in Haloperidol
than in Benperidol as antipsychotic agent:
A. Oral contraceptives D. B and C
B. Analgesics E. A, B, C A. Sedation
C. Steroids B. Reduce sexual drive
C. Tardive dyskinesia with long-term use
118. The following are found on the Flow Sheet D. Hormonal effects
section of the medical chart, EXCEPT: E. All except B

A. Physical Examination 124. Which of the following may cause

B. Pulmonary Function Test Extrapyramidal Symptoms as its adverse
C. Chief Complaint effect?
D. Laboratory tests
E. None of these A. Atropine D. Streptomycin
B. Codeine E. Nitroglycerin
119. What does a Category I Medication Error C. Phenothiazine
mean?
125. Which of the following age groups is
A. No error D. Error, Death considered as High-risk factor for atrial
B. Error, No Harm E. No Error, With fibrillation?
Harm
C. Error, With Harm A. 20 to 35 years old
B. Below 65 years old
120. The green color coding for the medication C. 65 to 75 years old
cards is for drugs administered: D. Above 75 years old
E. No risk seen or proven
A. O.D D. Q.I.D
B. B.I.D E. H.S 126. Benzodiazepine- caused rebound
C. T.I.D insomnia is an example of what category of
Adverse Drug Reaction?

A. Augmented D. Delayed
B. Bizarre E. Ending of Use
C. Continuous
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

127. Which of the following is NOT considered 132. Blood Coagulation factor XII is also known
as Class A bioterrorism agent? as _____________

A. Anthrax A. Proaccelerin
B. Boil B. Christmas factor
C. Tularemia C. Hageman factor
D. Viral hemorrhagic fever D. Stuart-Power factor
E. Botulinum toxin E. Von Willebrand factor

128. Which antiepileptic drug has the smallest 133. The following are indications for TPN
starting dose (in mg)? because enteral intake is inadvisable, EXCEPT:

A. Carbamazepine D. Gabapentin A. Short gut syndrome

B. Clonazepam E. Phenytoin B. Renal failure
B. Valproate C. Acute hepatitis
D. Acute Pancreatitis
129. This reflects the expansion of the role of E. Severe cachexia
the hospital as to care programs and facilities:
134. Possible solution when pain and immobility
A. Organized health-care occurs during the night in a Parkinson’s disease
B. Heath-system patient:
C. Institutional care
D. Patient care A. Reduce antiparkinsonian therapy
E. Pharmaceutical care B. Use of slow-release levodopa
C. Consider therapy
130. Headache as an adverse effect of D. Drug holiday for 1 week
nitroglycerin belongs to what category of ADR? E. More frequent doses of levodopa

A. Augmented D. Delayed 135. A positive finding for which test may

B. Bizarre E. End of Use indicate antibody-mediated hemolysis?
C. Continuous
A. Indirect Coomb’s Test
131. Which is an add-on therapy to the B. Direct Coomb’s Test
standard pharmacotherapy to hypertension with C. Schilling Test
diabetes mellitus? D. Serum ferritin
E. Total Reticulocyte Count
A. Diuretic
B. ACE-inhibitor 136. Which of the following is recommended for
C. Calcium Channel Blocker severe refractory atopic dermatitis condition?
D. Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker
E. Aldosterone Antagonist A. Emollient
B. Topical calcineurin inhibitor
C. Topical corticosteroid
D. Tacrolimus BID
E. Phototherapy
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

137. Which is NOT to be followed when given a 142. Which of the following drugs/ agents will
prescription of “Gentamicin 80 mg IV PB q 8 cause skin reactions the most?
hr”?
A. Penicillin G D. Erythromycin
A. Gentamicin is added to amni-bottle B. Amoxicillin E. Ampicillin
containing 100 mL 5% Dextrose Inj. C. Blood
B. Dose is given every 8 hours
C. Drug administration is by piggyback 143. Which among the following
technique. chemotherapeutic drugs would LEAST induce
D. Flow rate required is at least 30 minutes. emesis?
E. None of these
A. Fluorouracil D. Paclitaxel
138. Which of the following symptoms is B. Cisplatin E. Bleomycin
specifically controlled with intranasal C. Carboplatin
anticholinergics?
144. When the medication card is color coded
A. Nasal congestion D. Rhinorrhea violet, the administration of the drug is:
B. Sneezing E. Ocular
symptoms A. Per orem D. Stat
C. Itching B. B.I.D E. Round the clock
C. H.S
139. This is the most common associated
symptom for Osteoarthritis. 145. Which among the following is NOT a
required utensil/ apparatus/ equipment in a
A. Joint stiffness D. Joint deformity 25-bed capacity hospital?
B. Crepitus E. Joint
enlargement A. Filing cabinet
C. Pain B. Funnel
C. Hot plate
140. Which of the following is LEAST D. Tablet counter
considered as a risk factor for Osteoporosis? E. Analytical balance

A. Low calcium intake 146. This refers to the direct, responsible

B. Male sex provision of medication-related care for the
C. Current cigarette smoking purpose of achieving definite outcomes that
D. Minimal sun exposure improve a patient’s quality of life:
E. Estrogen deficiency before age 45
A. Clinical Pharmacy
141. Which of the following is NOT true B. Pharmaceutical Care
regarding Drug Usage Evaluation? C. Patient Care
D. Pharmaceutical Service
A. It is the same as the Drug Utilization Review. E. Pharmacy
B. It is the same as drug therapy monitoring.
C. It can be a research tool. 147. The following drugs/ agents may increase
D. It is a justification of both distributive and blood glucose level, EXCEPT:
clinical functions.
E. It considers patterns of drug usage. A. Oral contraceptives D. Nicotinic acid
B. Phenytoin E. Diuretics
C. Salicylates
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

148. For chronic illnesses, what is the maximum 154. Which is NOT a category under the
number of months to be supplied in a single Laboratory Data of the Patient Medical Chart?
dispensing of medicines?
A. Microbiology
A. 1 D. 12 B. Urinalysis
B. 3 E. Nothing specified C. Arterial Blood Gases
C. 6 D. Consults
E. Type and Screens
149. Which of the following parenteral
antibiotics used for pyelonephritis may cause 155. This refers to a radiograph examination of
nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity? kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra
with the use of contrast media:
A. Co-amoxiclav D. Ciprofloxacin
B. Cefuroxime E. Meropenem A. Barium Enema
C. Gentamicin B. Barium Swallow
C. Cholangiogram
150. What procedure provides information D. Intravenous Pyelography
about the circulatory system at the back of the E. Retrograde Pyelography
eye not attainable with a routine examination?
156. Drugs used in the treatment of
A. Fundus photographs Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)
B. Ocular Ultrasound infection in HIV patient, EXCEPT:
C. Fluorescein Angiography
D. Optic Clearance Tomography A. Azithromycin D. Primaquine
E. Indocyamine Green Angiography B. Flucytosine E. Co-trimoxazole
C. Dapsone
151. What is the standard time to be followed
for “q12”? 157. Which of the following is NOT a dietary
restriction for patients using monoamine
A. 6 am – 6 pm D. 9 am- 9 pm oxidase inhibitors?
B. 7 am – 7 pm E. 12 nn – 12 mn
C. 8 am – 8 pm A. Ripe avocado D. Celery
B. Soy sauce E. Beer
152. Which among the following utensils/ C. Snails
equipment/ apparatus is found in a 100-bed
capacity, but not in a 10- or 15-bed capacity 158. Which of the following characteristics is
hospital? FALSE regarding Tourette’s Disorder?

A. Mixer 2-L capacity A. Echolalia

B. Calculating machine B. Facial twitching
C. Rough balance C. Age of onset after 60 years
D. Ring stand D. Shoulder shrugging
E. Ribbed funnel E. Throat clearing

153. Which may be considered as an

alternative drug for social anxiety disorder?

A. Buspirone D. Paroxetine
B. Fluvoxamine E. Clonazepam
C. Sertraline
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

159. This procedure is used to evaluate the 164. Which of the following is NOT an indication
size, shape, and motion of the valves, septum of a WBC Count of 25 x 103/mm3?
and walls and changes in chamber size during
the cardiac cycle. A. Bone marrow suppression
B. Tissue necrosis
A. Echo Cardiography C. Rubella
B. Electrocardiogram D. Typhoid fever
C. Coronary Angiography E. Influenza
D. Fluorescein Angiography
E. Indocyamine Green angiography 165. Characteristic of a Stage 1 Hypertension:

160. What is the best definition for the A. DPB 80-89 D. DBP >100
abbreviation AUC? B. SBP >160 E. SBP 120-139
C. DBP 90-99
A. Area under the time curve
B. Area under the curve 166. The following are required books in a
C. Area under the serum- or blood- hospital pharmacy, EXCEPT:
concentration- versus- time curve
D. Area under blood concentration curve A. RPS
E. Area under serum- or blood- concentration B. PNDF
curve C. Goodman and Gilman’s Pharmacological
Basis of Therapeutics
161. Which of the following is TRUE regarding D. USP-NF
Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus? E. Martindale’s Extra Pharmacopeia

A. Predominantly secretory defect 167. Example of macrovascular complication in

B. Beta cell destruction Type 2 Diabetes?
C. Autoimmune
D. Idiopathic A. Nephropathy
E. Absolute insulin deficiency B. Ischemic skin changes
C. Retinopathy
162. A platelet count of 1200 x 10 3 /mm3 may D. Abnormal ECG
indicate which condition? E. Erectile dysfunction

A. Vit B12 deficiency 168. Recommended drug therapy for Stage 2

B. Leukemia Hypertension:
C. Hemorrhage
D. Aplastic bone marrow A. Thiazide diuretic
E. Immune disorder B. ACE inhibitor + ARB agent
C. ACE inhibitor or ARB agent
163. Which among the following is a SIGN of D. ACE inhibitor or ARB + CCB
cardio pulmonary arrest? E. Thiazide diuretic + ACE inhibitor or ARB or
CCB
A. Anxiety D. Nausea and vomiting
B. Cyanosis E. Dyspnea
C. Diaphoresis
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

169. Clinical circumstance where hospitalization 174. What is elevated in a stage IV

should be considered and not just Hyperlipoproteinemia?
recommended for patient presenting with acute
decompensated heart failure? A. Chylomicrons D. VLDL
B. LDL E. IDL
A. Dyspnea at rest C. HDL
B. Acute coronary syndromes
C. Hypotension 175. Which oral hypoglycaemic agent will be
D. Altered mentation administered the MOST frequent?
E. Major electrolyte disturbance
A. Gliquidone
170. Risk factors for major bleeding while on B. Pioglitazone
anticoagulant factor, EXCEPT: C. Glimepride
D. Chlorpropamide
A. Renal failure E. Rosiglitazone
B. Age <60 years
C. Heavy alcohol use 176. This term is defined as “the extent to which
D. Malignancy a person’s behavior-taking
E. Recent history of surgery medication…corresponds with agreed
recommendations from a health care provider.”
171. The following are just suggested
references for pharmacists in the hospital A. Patient compliance
pharmacy, EXCEPT: B. Medication adherence
C. Medication consumption
A. Cross Reference Index D. Drug compliance
B. Clinical Laboratory Medicine E. Medication counselling
C. Medical Dictionary
D. Hospital formulary 177. Which patient classification makes the
E. None of these patient pay only 50% of the charges of
medicines given and ancillary services
172. A female patient presents a 55% Hct rendered?
value. What does this mean?
A. Class C-1 D. Class D
A. Polycythemia B. Class C-2 E. Class E
B. Hemoconcentration C. Class C-3
C. Anemia
D. Hemodilution 178. The following are monitored when patient
E. A and/or B is under erythropoietis stimulant therapy,
EXCEPT:
173. Which of the following required record
books is DOH hospital pharmacies exempted A. Blood pressure D. Blood sugar levels
of? B. Iron level E. Ferritin level
C. Complete blood count
A. Dangerous Drug Book
B. Prescription Book 179. Which of the following is NOT a symptom
C. Poison Book of heart failure?
D. Red Book
E. Exempt Dangerous Drugs Book A. Hemoptysis D. Bloating
B. S2 gallop E. Exercise intolerance
C. Nocturia
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

180. What form of economic analyses estimates 185. Which of the following is NOT true
the ratio between the cost of health-related regarding the gastrointestinal adverse effects of
intervention and the benefit it produces in terms sulfonylureas?
of number oy years lived in full health by the
beneficiaries? A. Most commonly nausea and vomiting
B. Dose-related
A. Cost Minimization Analysis C. Usually occurs in the first 2-6 weeks of
B. Cost Utility Analysis therapy
C. Cost Benefit Analysis D. Affects approximately 2% of users
D. Cost Interventional Analysis E. May be avoided when taken with food
E. Cost Effectiveness Analysis
186. At what stage of stable chronic obstructive
181. Which among the following is NOT part of pulmonary disorder is a short acting
the Administrative Service of the hospital bronchodilator added in the therapy?
pharmacy?
A. 0 D. III
A. Internship Program B. I E. IV
B. Financial Management C. II
C. Compliance to regulatory requirements
D. Drug supply management 187. AAT stands for _____
E. Records and reports
A. Amino Acid Treatment
182. Which is NOT a contraindication for B. Alpha Acid Tolerance
cardiopulmonary exercise testing? C. Alpha 1- antitrypsin
D. Active Aortic Tachycardia
A. Uncontrolled hypertension E. Alveolar Activity Test
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Severe aortic stenosis 188. What form of economic analysis compares
D. Acute pericarditis the relative expenditure and outcomes of two or
E. Dyspnea upon exertion more courses of action?

183. Thiazolidinedione A. Cost Benefit Analysis

B. Cost Utility Analysis
A. TZLD D. TLD4 C. Cost Effectiveness Analysis
B. TLD E. TADD D. Cost Interventional Analysis
C. TZD E. Cost Minimization Analysis

184. Forced expiratory volume in 1 second 189. Pharmaceutical care requires a direct
relationship between ________.
A. FEV1S D. FEV1
B. FEV E. FExV1 A. Medical doctor and pharmacist
C. FexpV1sec B. Pharmacist and patient
C. Pharmacist and colleagues
D. Patient and Heath care team
E. Patient, Doctor, and Pharmacist
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

190. Anemia may be possible condition for the 196. Which of the following proton pump
following values, EXCEPT: inhibitors is NOT commercially available as a
tablet?
A. Male patient 30% Hct A. Omeprazole
B. Platelet count 70 x 109L B. Pantoprazole
C. Female patient 6g/dL Hb C. Lansoprazole
D. Male patient 2.2 mill/mm3 RBC D. Esomeprazole
E. Hb 80 g/L E. None of the given choices

191. Laboratory investigations as part of annual 197. This compares the cost of therapies that
review for diabetes, EXCEPT: achieve the same outcome:

A. Fasting lipid profile D. Creatinine A. Cost Minimization Analysis

B. HbA1C E. Amylase test B. Cost Operational Analysis
C. Liver function tests C. Cost Effectiveness Analysis
D. Cost Benefit Analysis
192. Which of the following drugs may NOT E. Cost Utility Analysis
cause gastrointestinal mucosa injury?
198. Which of the following antiemetic
A. Estrogen D. Reserpine preparations may NOT be given OTC?
B. Ethanol E. Warfarin
C. Aspirin A. Cimetidine
B. Dimenhydrinate
193. What is fundamental to the pharmacy C. Famotidine
profession’s purpose of helping people make D. Diphenhydramine
the best use of medication? E. Cyclizine

A. Clinical Pharmacy 199. Which of the following drugs may cause

B. Medication therapy management diarrhea?
C. Pharmaceutical care
D. Commitment A. Tetracycline D. A and B
E. Professional responsibility B. Methyldopa E. A, B, and C
C. Neostigmine
194. Endoscopy-negative reflux disease
200. The following are Ex-Officio members of
A. ENRD D. (-) ERD the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee,
B. E (-) E. ERD-Neg. EXCEPT:
C. E-RD
A. Chief Pharmacist
195. An increase in Sodium values may mean B. Chief Nurse
the following conditions, EXCEPT: C. Chief Administrative Officer
D. PHIC Representative
A. Adrenal insufficiency E. None of the choices
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Aldosteronism
D. Impaired renal function
E. None of these
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

201. Which is NOT a clinical manifestation of 207. Somatic diagnostic criteria for
liver cirrhosis? Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS), EXCEPT:

A. Pruritus A. Headache
B. Increased libido B. Depression
C. Weight loss C. Abdominal bloating
D. Hyperpigmentation D. Swelling of extremities
E. Spider angioma E. Breast tenderness

202. The patient has a medication indication but 208. Para-amino hippuric acid
is taking the wrong medication. What category
of medication-related problem is indicated? A. pHa D. PAHA
B. p-aha E. pAHA
A. Failure to receive medication C. PAH
B. Medication use without indication
C. Subtherapeutic dosage 209. Which of the following is NOT included in a
D. Improper drug selection hospital formulary?
E. Untreated indications
A. Table of sodium content of antacids
203. Which is NOT included in the treatment B. Metric conversion scales or tables
approach for ascites? C. Table of drug interactions
D. Poison antidote charts
A. Diuretics D. Antibiotic therapy E. None of these
B. Diet E. Intrahepatic shunt
C. Paracentesis 210. The most appropriate initial therapy for the
management of dyslipidemia of patients with
204. The following are possible medical chronic kidney disease?
conditions related to a triglyceride value of 185
mg/dL, EXCEPT: A. Maximum-dose statin
B. Niacin
A. Diabetes C. Fibrate
B. Overconsumption of alcohol D. Low-dose statin
C. Nephritic syndrome E. Therapeutic lifestyle changes
D. Biliary obstruction
E. Pancreatitis 211. The most common manifestation of
drug-induced kidney disease:
205. Which of the following drugs has a definite
association with acute pancreatitis? A. Decrease in serum creatinine
B. Decline in GFR
A. Furosemide D. Paclitaxel C. Increased BUN
B. Propofol E. Ciprofloxacin D. B and C
C. Rifampin E. A, B, and C

206. Cushing’s syndrome may be a possible 212. Which of the following is a Nephritic sign?
condition as indicated by an increased value of
which diagnostic test? A. Weight gain D. Hematuria
B. Edema E. All except D
A. FBS D. Calcium C. Fatigue
B. HDL E. Potassium
C. Triglyceride
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

213. Of the following steps of drug procurement 219. Which of the following is NOT associated
cycle, which comes first? with a high Total Cholesterol value?

A. Locate and select suppliers A. Obstructive jaundice

B. Reconcile needs and funds B. Pancreatitis
C. Choose procurement method C. CAD
D. Review drug selection D. Hyperthyroidism
E. Collect consumption information E. Hepatitis

214. Which of the following has the highest 220. Pharmaceutical care is applicable and
Potassium content? achievable by pharmacists in which practice
setting?
A. Avocado D. Carrots
B. Molasses E. Ground beef A. Community setting D. A only
C. Banana B. Marketing E. A, B, C
C. Research
215. Gout may be possible for a male patient
with a Uric Acid Value of? 221. In the procurement of drugs in the hospital,
who approves the purchase request?
A. 0.13 mg/dL D. 8 mg/dL
B. 1 mg/dL E. 11 mg/dL A. Chief Pharmacist
C. 3 mg/dL B. Chief Administrative Officer
C. Chief Medical Professional Staff
216. Drugs with negligible risk when D. Chief of Hospital
breastfeeding full-term healthy babies: E. Supply Officer

A. Paracetamol D. Insulin 222. Which is NOT an example of Microcytic

B. Digoxin E. All of these Anemia?
C. Codeine
A. Thalassemia
217. The patient has a medical problem that B. IDA
requires medication therapy but is not receiving C. Sideroblastic anemia
a medication for that indication. What category D. Anemia of chronic disease
of medication-related problem is involved? E. A and C

A. Failure to receive medication 223. Which of the following indicates a

B. Improper drug selection
C. Untreated indications
D. Medication use without indication
E. Subtherapeutic dosage
218. For fast moving drugs, the preparation of
request is at ______ stock level.
favorable prognosis for multiple sclerosis?
A. <40 years old
B. Male gender
C. Cerebellar initial symptoms
D. Progressive course of disease
E. High attack frequency

A. 25% D. 100%
B. 50% E. Any
C. 75%
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

224. In the procurement of drugs in the hospital, 230. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about
who prepares the Purchase Order? classic migraine?

A. Chief of Hospital A. Migraine with aura

B. Chief Pharmacist B. Basilar-type aura
C. Staff Pharmacist C. At least two attacks
D. Supply Officer D. Not attributed to another disorder
E. Pharmacy Administrative Aide E. Headache attacks lasts to 72 hours

225. Which of the following is NOT a type of 231. What drug classification usually serves as
generalized seizure? a starting point for Drug Usage Evaluation in a
hospital?
A. Absence
B. Atonic A. Anticoagulants D. Cardiac drugs
C. Status epilepticus B. Antibiotics E. Insulin therapy
D. Infantile spasms C. CNS drugs
E. Myoclonic
232. Who is responsible for arranging
226. Basis of Glassgow Coma Scale in defining dangerous drugs systematically in a secured
level of consciousness: cabinet?

A. Motor response D. A and B A. Laboratory Aide

B. Verbal response E. A, B, C B. Pharmacy technician
C. Eye opening C. Staff Pharmacist
D. Senior Pharmacist
227. Which of the following is a CORRECT E. Pharmacy Aide
measure followed regarding proper storage in
the hospital pharmacy? 233. Features of megaloblastic anemia,
EXCEPT:
A. Heavier items should be placed in smaller
pile. A. Sterility
B. Varnish wood. B. Anorexia
C. Bind sharp corners with tape. C. Severe jaundice
D. A and C D. Angular stomatitis
E. A, B, C E. Diarrhea

228. The following drugs may cause secondary 234. Which of the following is NOT TRUE
parkinsonism, EXCEPT: regarding Rivastigmine as drug for Alzheimer’s
Disease?
A. Haloperidol D. α-methyldopa
B. Olanzapine E. Carbidopa A. Available as tablet
C. Cinnarizine B. Take with food
C. 1.5 hours half-life
229. Which of the following is a characteristic of D. 40% protein binding
acute pain? E. Available as Patch

A. Insomnia
B. Depression
C. Organic cause
D. Dependence to medication
E. Functionality treatment goal
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

235. Which of the following pharmacologic 241. A dopamine agonist used to treat
agents is NOT used in the treatment of alcohol extrapyramidal side effects:
withdrawal?
A. Benztropine
A. Clonidine D. Multivitamins B. Biperiden
B. Fibrate E. Alcohol IV C. Lorazepam
C. Labetalol D. Amantadine
E. Trihexyphenidyl
236. Drug NOT associated with autoimmune
hemolytic anemia: 242. Which of the following vaccines is ideally
stored in a -15°C to -25°C?
A. Cyclosporine D. Clarithromycin
B. Quinine E. Mefenamic A.DTP D. Hepatitis B
acid B. Oral Polio E. Tetanus Toxoid
C. Levodopa C. BCG

237. Pharmaceutical care outcomes include:
A. Cure of patient’s disease
B. Reduction of patient’s symptomatology
C. Prevention of the disease
D. A and C
E. A, B, C
238. In a hospital setting, who among the
following is responsible for the detection of TPN
complications?
A. Gastroenterologist D. Nurse
B. Primary care physician E. Dietitian
C. Pharmacist
239. Which of the following is considered as a
positive symptom of schizophrenia?
243. Which among the following therapies may
pose more toxicity?
A. Methotrexate + sulfasalazine
B. Cyclosporine + hydroxychloroquine
C. Penicillamine
D. Cyclosporine + methotrexate
E. Methotrexate + sulfasalazine +
hydroxychloroquine
244. Which is NOT TRUE regarding Type 1
Diabetes Mellitus?
A. B-cell destruction
B. Idiopathic
C. Relative insulin deficiency
D. Immune-mediated
E. Absolute insulin deficiency

A. Hallucinations D. Alogia 245. Which of the following is the most sensitive

B. Affective flattening E. Anhedonia to heat?
C. Avolition
A. Tetanus toxoid D. Hepatitis B
240. Which of the following is NOT included B. DTP E. A and C
among the contents of Cytotoxic Spill Kit? C. BCG

A. Overshoes D. Head covering 246. What model defines Health as “the

B. Absorbent material
C. Detergent
E. None of these absence of disease or disability”?
A. Medical model
B. World Health Organization model
C. Wellness model
D. Environmental model
E. All except D
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

247. Which type of ADR may be prevented by 253. Which of the following is a clinical
adjustment of dosage regimen? presentation of systemic sclerosis?

A. Type A D. Type D A. Dyspepsia D. Diarrhea

B. Type B E. Type E B. Constipation E. All of these
C. Type C C. Steatorrhea

248. Which of the following is TRUE regarding 254. Type II Allergic Drug Reaction:
Adrenal Carcinoma Cushing’s syndrome?
A. Cytotoxic
A. Slow course B. Immune complex
B. Dominant among children C. Cell-mediated
C. Atypical symptoms D. Anaphylactic
D. Mild to moderate symptoms E. Tuberculin reaction
E. Dominant among males
255. Which of the following may decrease
249. “I hear you saying it bothers you that your Cyclosporine levels when given concomitantly?
headaches don’t respond to aspirin,” is an
example of what type of questioning strategy? A. Verapamil D. Erythromycin
B. Ketoconazole E. Nicardipine
A. Open-ended D. Indirect C. Phenytoin
B. Close-ended E. Probe
C. Direct 256. Constipation is an ADR of which drug?

250. Which of the following is NOT considered A. Tetracycline D. Captopril

as a pharmacotherapeutic option in patients B. Propanolol E. Streptomycin
with urinary incontinence due to stress? C. Codeine

A. Alpha adrenergic agonist 257. The following are clinical presentation of

B. Tricyclic antidepressant acute acetaminophen poisoning, EXCEPT:
C. Estrogen
D. Imipramine A. Jaundice
E. Duloxetine B. Oliguria
C. Abdominal discomfort
251. Which method is used for the computation D. Left upper abdominal quadrant tenderness
of dose for infants up to 2 years old? E. Nausea and vomiting

A. Clark’s Rule D. All of these 258. Which is NOT a test for cardiac electrical
B. Fried’s Rule E. A and C rhythm?
C. Young’s Rule
A. Angioscopy
252. An ADR that has little or no relation to B. Holter monitoring
usual pharmacological effects of the drug is of C. Nuclear imaging
what type? D. Electrophysiologic studies
E. ECG
A. Type A D. Type D
B. Type B E. Type E
C. Type C
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

259. Which of the following is NOT included in 264. Which antihypertensive agent is
the clinical presentation of cardiopulmonary administered in most hypertensive emergencies
arrest? except in acute heart failure?

A. Hypertension D. Cyanosis A. Labetalol HCl

B. Dyspnea E. Anxiety B. Sodium nitroprusside
C. Diaphoresis C. Fenoldopam mesylate
D. Hydralazine HCl
260. The following medicines are maintained E. Esmolol HCl
stocks in the emergency room, EXCEPT:
265. An error occurred that resulted in
A. Naloxone permanent patient harm; this belongs to which
B. Furosemide category of medication error?
C. Amiloride
D. Regular Insulin A. Category A D. Category G
E. Calcium gluconate B. Category D E. Category I
C. Category E
261. Which of the following is an add-on
pharmacotherapy to hypertension with 266. Which of the following can cause negative
post-myocardial infarction condition? inotropic effect and may precipitate heart
failure?
A. Diuretic
B. Aldosterone antagonist A. Ethanol D. Rosiglitazone
C. Calcium channel blocker B. Cocaine E. Glucocorticoids
D. Angiotensin II receptor blocker C. Terbinafine
E. Beta blocker
267. The maximum number of vials of Demerol
262. This alternative antihypertensive agent is that may be prescribed in a single applicable
to be used only once weekly: prescription by a licensed physician:

A. Doxazosin D. Clonidine A. 3 D. 20
B. Minoxidil E. Aliskiren B. 10 E. 30
C. Methyldopa C. 14

263. Which of the following information is 268. Which is NOT a good source of protein?
classified under the Medical Section?
A. Cheese D. Fish
A. Past medical history B. Peas E. Potatoes
B. Medication regimen C. Egg
C. Health plan
D. Home remedies 269. Which of the following Amiodarone side
E. Medication allergies effects may NOT be managed by
discontinuation of the drug?

A. Hypothyroidism D. Tremors
B. Pulmonary fibrosis E. Optic
neuropathy
C. Bradycardia
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

270. Hospital reports on Adverse Drug 276. Who among the following is an allied
Reactions are submitted to which government health care professional?
agency?
A. Athletic trainer D. A and B
A. PDEA D. B and C B. Medical illustrator E. A, B, C
B. DOH E. A, B, C C. Exercise scientist
C. FDA
277. What kind of questions should be asked
271. What is considered as the gold standard early during a patient interview?
for the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism?
A. Questions that can be answered by Yes or
A. Computed tomography No
B. Complete Blood Count B. Multiple questions
C. Chest X-Ray C. Long, complex questions
D. Pulmonary angiography D. Leading questions
E. Ventilation-perfusion E. Open-ended questions

272. Which is NOT found on the flow sheets 278. What is the alcohol use category of a male
and graphic chart section of the medical patient who drinks three drinks on average
record? each week?

A. Blood pressure A. Binge D. Infrequent

B. Respiratory rate B. Moderate E. Current
C. Fluid intake and output C. Light
D. Heart rate
E. Arterial blood gas analysis 279. A patient states that he has smoked 3
packs of cigarettes a day for the past 20 years.
273. Which of the following is an example of an What is the patient’s pack-year smoking
objective data? history?

A. Decreased swelling of feet A. 3 pk-yr D. 20 pk-yr

B. Decreased edema on CXR B. 6 pk-yr E. 60 pk-yr
C. Increased SOB C. 10 pk-yr
D. Increase exercise tolerance
E. Sleeps with fewer pillows 280. A patient is troubled by shortness of breath
when hurrying on a level surface. What does he
274. For medication cards, what is the color have?
coding for “at bedtime” drugs?
A. No dyspnea
A. White D. Pink B. Slight dyspnea
B. Yellow E. Red C. Moderate dyspnea
C. Orange D. Severe dyspnea
E. Very Severe Dyspnea
275. Which body language implies
receptiveness? 281. Which of the following drugs will most
likely induce apnea?
A. Leaning toward the speaker
B. Rising the hand A. Anesthetics D. Antihistamines
C. Shifting body position B. Ketamine E. Digitalis
D. Frequent throat clearing C. Barbiturates
E. Steepling the hands
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

282. Which of the following drugs would least 288. Which of the following is present in a
likely induce bronchospasm? severe acute pancreatitis?

A. Cimetidine D. Papain A. Pseudocyst D. B and C

B. Penicillin E. Bisulfite B. Necrosis E. A, B, and C
C. Cephalosphorin C. Abscess

283. Which of the following would LEAST 289. Which is NOT true regarding steatorrhea?
worsen GERD symptoms?
A. It is mostly seen among chronic pancreatitis
A. Dopamine D. Milk patients.
B. Onions E. Peppermint B. It is the loss of excess proteins in feces
C. Tetracycline C. It is associated with diarrhea.
D. Bloating is associated with such.
284. For intermittent, mild heartburn, which of E. It is the loss of excess fat in the feces.
the following approaches is NOT appropriate?
290. Hepatitis C Virus genotype 6 is mostly
A. Ranitidine twice daily distributed in which region?
B. Gaviscon 2 tabs before meals
C. Maalox 30 mL as needed A. Africa D. Middle East
D. Omeprazole once daily B. India E. Southeast Asia
E. Calcium carbonate 2 tabs as needed C. Worldwide

285. Thiopurine S-methyltransferase 291. Which of the following physical

A. TS-M
B. TPSMT
C. TPMT
286. Which of the following is a cause of
Ascites?
A. Hyperdynamic circulation
B. Sodium and water retention
C. Renal vasoconstriction
D. Gravity
E. A, B and C
287. Which of the following drug information
does not belong to the group?
A. Current symptoms
B. Compliance with therapy
C. Laboratory information
D. Weight and height\
E. Past medical history
examination findings in person with acute renal
D. TMT failure may indicate endocarditis?
E. TSMT
A. Splinter hemorrhages
B. New heart mjurmur
C. Roth spots
D. Rales
E. A, B, and C
292. Which of the following may NOT indicate a
chronic kidney disease?
A. Weight gain D. Gout
B. Edema E. Hyperkalemia
C. GERD
293. Which of the following is characteristic of
hyponatremia?
A. Increased skin turgor
B. Dry mucous membranes
C. Bradycardia
D. Increased JVP
E. Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
HOSPITAL AND CLINICAL PHARMACY [PACOP VIOLET]

294. Which of the following statements 299. When a patient has difficulty remembering
regarding hypokalemia is FALSE? recent events, what stage of Alzheimer’s
disease does he exhibit?
A. Mild hypokalemia is often asymptomatic.
B. Moderate hypokalemia is associated with A. Mild D. Very Severe
malaise. B. Moderate E. Relapsing
C. In severe hypokalemia, ECG often changes. C. Severe
D. Digitalis-induced arrhythmia may be caused
by severe hypokalemia. 300. Color coding for medication card for STAT
E. Hypermagnesemia is also present. drugs:

295. In which domain of the neurologic A. White D. Pink

examination is myasthenia gravis tested? B. Red E. Orange
C. Yellow
A. Gait
B. Reflexes
C. Cranial nerves
D. Mental status
E. Sensory function

296. Which of the following pairs of patient

information and category is CORRECT?

A. Consent Forms – Administrative

B. Vital Signs – Demographic
C. Living arrangement – Lifestyle
D. Medication regimen – Medical
E. Occupation – Economic

297. Type of Question: “Does your headache

respond to aspirin?”

A. Open-ended question
B. Close-ended question
C. Direct question
D. Indirect question
E. Probe

298. Which interview questions may be used to

assess mania?

A. Do you cry without any reason?

B. Do you have a lot of extra energy?
C. Do you have any guilty feelings?
D. Has your weight changed recently?
E. Do you still enjoy the same hobbies that you
once did?