Fluid Mechanics II (ME 221) - Quiz 1 (Maximum Marks: 20)

Department of Mechanical Engineering, Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati

• Timing is Wednesday, 8 February, 2023, 9 AM-9:55 AM.

• It a closed book Exam. Expect heavy penalty for unfair means, the decision of which solely rests with
the instructor.
• Make suitable assumptions wherever necessary and clearly mention them in the solution.
• Getting final answers correct without showing intermediate steps will not be accepted and no marks
will be awarded.
• For water take viscosity as 0.001 N-s/m2 and density as 998 Kg/m3. g = 9.81 m/s2
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1. (8 Marks) A large mass is supported by a piston of diameter (𝐷) and length (𝐿)
10 cm. The piston sits in a cylinder closed at the bottom. The gap 𝑎 = 0.025
mm between the cylinder wall and piston is filled with water. The piston slowly
sinks due to the mass and water is forced out at a rate of 0.378 liter/minute.
Neglecting the mass of the piston, find the value of mass 𝑀.
Solution: Assuming that the piston falls very slowly so its velocity is
neglectable. Also 𝑎 ≪ 𝐷, then the flow between the cylinder and piston can be
approximated as Poiseuille flow between two parallel plates. The piston is in
equilibrium under the action of weight of mass M, viscous force from the oil
and the pressure force.
𝜋𝐷2
𝑀𝑔 = 𝜏𝑤 × 𝜋𝐷𝐿 + Δ𝑝 × (1 marks)
4
Let y-axis be pointing vertically upward and the origin be located at the bottom of the piston. Then the
y-momentum equation for the fully developed flow between the cylinder and piston will be
𝑑 2 𝑣 𝑑𝑝
𝜇 2= + 𝜌𝑔 = 𝐶1 (2 marks)
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑦
where 𝐶1 is a constant. Integrating the above equation for v gives
𝑑𝑣
𝜇 = 𝐶1 𝑥 + 𝐶2 𝑎
𝑑𝑥
1 𝑦
⇒ 𝜇𝑣 = 𝐶1 𝑥 2 + 𝐶2 𝑥 + 𝐶3
2 𝑥
Using the boundary conditions 𝑣(𝑥 = ±𝑎/2) = 0. We get
𝐶1
𝑣= (4𝑥 2 − 𝑎2 )
8𝜇
The mean velocity is
2 2 𝐶1 𝐶1 2
𝑣𝑚 = 𝑣max = (− 𝑎2 ) = − 𝑎
3 3 8𝜇 12𝜇
The volume flow rate is
𝐶1
𝑄 = 𝑣𝑚 𝜋𝐷𝑎 = − 𝜋𝐷𝑎3
12𝜇
The gauge pressure at the bottom of the piston is Δ𝑝. From momentum equation, the pressure gradient
also has to be a constant. Therefore,
Δ𝑝
𝐶1 = − + 𝜌𝑔
𝐿
Then
𝜋𝐷𝑎3 Δ𝑝
𝑄=− (− + 𝜌𝑔)
12𝜇 𝐿
Δ𝑝 12𝜇𝑄
⇒ = + 𝜌𝑔 (2 marks)
𝐿 𝜋𝐷𝑎3
The wall shear stress is
 𝑑𝑣 𝑎 𝐶1 𝑎 6𝜇𝑄
𝜏𝑤 = 𝜇 (𝑥 = − ) = − = (2 marks)
𝑑𝑥 2 2 𝜋𝐷𝑎2
Coming back to force balance for the piston
6𝜇𝑄 12𝜇𝑄 𝜋𝐷2
𝑀𝑔 = 𝜋𝐷𝐿 + ( + 𝜌𝑔) 𝐿
𝜋𝐷𝑎2 𝜋𝐷𝑎3 4
6𝜇𝑄 3𝜇𝑄 𝜋𝐷2 𝐿
⇒ 𝑀𝑔 = 2 𝐿 + 3 𝐷𝐿 + 𝜌𝑔
𝑎 𝑎 4
3𝜇𝑄 𝐷 𝜋𝐷2
⇒ 𝑀 = 𝐿 [ 2 (2 + ) + 𝜌 ]
𝑎 𝑔 𝑎 4
3 × 0.001 × 0.378 × 10−3 0.1 𝜋(0.1)2
⇒ 𝑀 = 0.1 [ (2 + ) + 998 ]
(0.025 × 10−3 )2 × 9.81 × 60 0.025 × 10−3 4
⇒ 𝑀 = 0.1[3.083(2 + 4000) + 7.838]
⇒ 𝑀 = 0.1[12338.166 + 7.838] = 1234.6 Kg (1 marks)
2. (6 Marks) The pipe flow shown in figure 2 is driven by pressurized air in the tank. What gage pressure
𝑝1 is needed to provide a water flow rate Q = 60 m3/h? Neglect minor losses. The friction factor for a
turbulent pipe flow can be found from the following
relation Iteration number k Friction factor 𝑓𝑘
0
1 𝜖/𝑑 2.51 1
= −2.0 log10 ( + )
√𝑓 3.7 Re𝑑 √𝑓 ..
..
You should use the following iterative procedure to find f :
start the iteration with some initial guess 𝑓0 (using laminar friction factor formula) and then substitute
that in the RHS of the above equation to find a new value for f. Then this new value is taken as a new
guess 𝑓1 and the process is repeated till the values predicted by the iteration procedure differ by a small
value say 10-4. You should create a table like the one shown.
Solution: Applying energy equation from pressure air to open jet (datum at the pipe inlet)
𝑝1 𝑉2
+ 0 + 10 = 0 + + 80 + ℎ𝑓
𝜌𝑔 2𝑔
where V and ℎ𝑓 are the mean pipe flow velocity and major head loss inside the pipe, respectively. We
are neglecting minor losses inside the pipe. The head loss can be written as
𝐿 𝑉2
ℎ𝑓 = 𝑓
𝑑 2𝑔
The length of the pipe is L = 60+80+30 = 170 m and the diameter is d = 5 cm. So, the pressure inside
the tank should be
𝑉2 𝐿
𝑝1 = 𝜌𝑔 (70 + (1 + 𝑓 )) (2 marks)
2𝑔 𝑑

The desired flow rate is Q = 60 m3/h = 1/60 m3/s. So,

the mean pipe velocity can be found as
𝜋𝑑2
𝑄=𝑉
4
4𝑄 4
⇒𝑉= 2
= = 8.49 m/s (1 marks)
𝜋𝑑 60𝜋(0.05)2
The Reynolds number is
 𝜌𝑉𝑑 998 × 8.49 × 0.05
Re = = = 423651
𝜇 0.001
The friction factor iteration can be written as Iteration number k Friction factor 𝑓𝑘
1 𝜖/𝑑 2.51 0 0.000151
= −2.0 log10 ( + ) 1 0.022723
√𝑓𝑘+1 3.7 Re𝑑 √𝑓𝑘
2 0.012881
−2 3 0.013633
𝜖/𝑑 2.51 4 0.013555
⇒ 𝑓𝑘+1 = 0.25 [log10 ( + )]
3.7 Re𝑑 √𝑓𝑘 5 0.013563

The iteration procedure starts using 𝑓0 = 64/Re. From the table f = 0.01356 (2 marks). So, the value
of 𝑝1 is

8.492 170
𝑝1 = 998 × 9.81 (70 + (1 + 0.01356 )) = 2.38 × 106 Pa (1 marks)
2 × 9.81 0.05

3. (6 Marks) A wind tunnel has a square shaped test section with side length equal to 𝐿. Boundary layer
measurements are done along the test section length. At one section, where the free stream speed is
𝑈1 , the displacement thickness is found to be 𝛿1∗ . At another section, located downstream of the first
section, the displacement thickness is found to be 𝛿2∗ . Calculate the change in static pressure 𝑝1 − 𝑝2
between the two sections.
Solution: Let the fluid velocity at section 2 is 𝑈2 then from mass conservation
𝑈1 𝐴1 = 𝑈2 𝐴2
𝑈1 (𝐿 − 2𝛿1 ) = 𝑈2 (𝐿 − 2𝛿2∗ )2 (3 marks)
∗ 2

Applying Bernoulli’s equation between section 1 and 2

1 1
𝑝1 + 𝜌𝑈12 = 𝑝2 + 𝜌𝑈22
2 2
1
⇒ 𝑝1 − 𝑝2 = 𝜌(𝑈22 − 𝑈12 )
2
1 2 𝑈2 2
⇒ 𝑝1 − 𝑝2 = 𝜌𝑈1 [( ) − 1]
2 𝑈1
4
1 𝐿 − 2𝛿1∗
⇒ 𝑝1 − 𝑝2 = 𝜌𝑈12 [( ) − 1] (3 marks)
2 𝐿 − 2𝛿2∗