STATEWIDE WEEKEND TEST - I M1 - MPL

STATEWEIDE WEEKEND TEST - I

Max.Marks : 720 M
Class : M1 MPL NEET MODEL Time: 3 Hrs
Subjects : Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology & Mathematics Date : 24.07.2023

SYLLABUS
Physics : Electrical Charges and Fields (complete)
Chemistry : Solutions (Coomplete)
Botany : Principles of inheritance and Variation upto Dihybrid cross.
Zoology : Chemical coordination and integration : Endocrine glands and hormones,
Classification of hormones, Mechanism of hormonal action, Regulation of hormone
secretion, Human endocrine system, Hypothalamus, Pituitary gland, Pineal gland,
Thyroid gland, Parathyroid glands, Thymus.
Mathematics : Real Numbers , Sets

Instructions :
i) Each question consists of Four options with single correct answer.
ii) The test is of 3 hours duration and this question paper contains 180 questions.

iii) Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum
marks are 720.
iv) Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on OMR page / marking responses..

Name of the Student ...................................................................... Roll No .......................................

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PHYSICS
1. The surface charge density of a thin charged disc of radius R is  . The value of the electric field

at the centre of the disc is 2  . With respect to the field at the centre, the electric field along the
0

axis at a distance R from the centre of the disc reduces by

1) 70.7% 2) 29.3% 3) 9.7% 4) 14.6%
2. A solid conducting sphere of radius a has a net positive charge 2Q. A conducting spherical shell
of inner radius b and outer radius c is concentric with the solid sphere and has a net charge – Q.
The surface charge density on the inner and outer surfaces of the spherical shell will be
respectively.
2Q Q Q Q
1) , 2) , a
4 b 4 c 2
2
4 b 4 c 2
2

b
Q Q
3) 0, 4) ,0 c
4 c 2 4 c 2
3. Two equally charged, identical metal spheres A and B repel each other with a force ‘F’. The
spheres are kept fixed with a distance ‘r’ between them. A third identical, but uncharged sphere
C is brought in contact with A and then placed at the mid point of the line joining A and B. The
magnitude of the net electric force on C is
3F F F
1) F 2) 2) 4)
4 2 4
 
4. In the figure, the net electric flux through the area A is   E. A when the system is in air. On
immersing the system in water the net electric flux through the area

Q
A

1) becomes zero 2) remains same 3) increases 4) decreases

5. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are placed at each corner as shwon in fig. The electric
intensity at centre O will be
+q A
1 q 1 q
1) 4  r 2) 4   r 2 r
0 0

r O r
1 3q
3) 4   r 2 4) zero +q +q
0 B C
6. An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field. The dipole will experience
1) a force that will displace it in the direction of the field
2) a force that will displace it in a direction opposite to the field.
3) a torque which will rotate it without displacement
4) a torque which will rotate it and a force that will displace it

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7. Two small spheres each having the charge +Q are suspended by insulating threads of length L
from a hook. This arrangement is taken in space where there is no gravitational effect, then the
angle between the two suspensions and the tension in each will be
1 Q2 1 Q2 1 Q2 1 Q2
1) 180, 2) 90, 3) 180, 4) 180,
4 0 (2 L)2 4 0 L2 4 0 2 L2 4 0 L2

8. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of electric field with distance r from
the centre of a charged spherical conductor of radius R ?
   
E E E E

1) 2) 3) 4)
r r r r
r=R r=R r=R r=R

9. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomob within it. If  is the electric flux in units of voltmeter
associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in units of voltmeter
will be
q  B
1) 2 2)
0 3 A
C
q 1 q 
3)    4) 2     
0  0 
10. If Ea be the electric field strength of a short dipole at a point on its axial line and Ee that on the
equatorial line at the same distance, then
1) Ee = 2Ea 2) Ea = 2Ee 3) Ea = Ee 4) None of the above
11. Three positive charges of equal value q are placed at vertices of an equilateral triangle. The
resulting lines of force should be sketched as in

1) 2) 3) 4)

12. Three point charges Q1, Q2 , Q3 in the order are placed equally spaced along a straight line. Q2
and Q3 are equal in magnitude but opposite in sign. If the net force on Q3 is zero. The value of Q1
is
1) Q1 = 4(Q3) 2) Q = 2(Q3) 3) Q1  2(Q3 ) 4) Q1 = | Q3 |

13. Electric charge is uniformly distributed along a long straight wire of radius 1 mm. The charge
per cm length of the wire is Q coulomb. Another cylindrical surface of radius 50 cm and length
1 m symmetrically encloses the wire. The total electric flux passing through the cylilndrical
surface is
Q 100Q 10Q 100Q
1)  2) 0 3)  4) 
0 0 0

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14. A small sphere carrying a charge ‘q’ is hanging in between two parallel plates by a string of
length L . Time period of pendulum is T 0. When parallel plates are charged, the time period
changes to T. The ratio T/T0 is equal to

1/2 3/2 1/2 5/2

 qE       
g m   g   g   g 
1)  g  2)   3)   4)  
   g  qE   g  qE   g  qE 
   m   m   m 

15. An electric dipole, consisting of two opposite charges of 2 × 10–6 C each separated by a distance
3 cm is placed in an electric field of 2 × 105 N/C. Torque acting on the dipole is
1) 12 × 10–1 N – m 2) 12 × 10–2 N – m 3) 12 × 10–3 N – m 4) 12 × 10–4 N – m
16. The electric field in a certain region is acting radially outward and is given by E = Ar. A charge
contained in a sphere of radius ‘a’ centred at the origin of the field, will be given by
1) A  0 a 2 2) 4 0 Aa 3 3) 0 Aa 3 4) 4 0 Aa 2
17. The spatial distribution of electric field due to charges (A, B) is shown in figure. Which one of
the following statemetns is correct ?

1) A is + ve and B – ve, |A| > |B| 2) A is – ve and B + ve, |A| = |B|

3) Both are + ve but A > B 4) Both are – ve but A > B
18. Point charges + 4q, – q and + 4q are kept on the X-axis at points x = 0, x = a and x = 2a
respectively.
1) only – q is in stable equilibrium 2) none of the charges is in equilibrium
3) all the charges are in unstable equilibrium 4) all the charges are in stable equilibrium
19. Figure shows some of the electric field lines correspoinding to an electric field. The figure
suggests that

1) EA > EB > EC 2) EA = EB = EC 3) EA = EC > EB 4) EA = EC < EB

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20. For distance far away from centre of dipole the change in magnitude of electric field with change
in distance from the centre of dipole is
1) zero
2) same in equatorial plane as well as axis of dipole
3) more in case of equatorial plane of dipole as compared to axis of dipole.
4) more in case of axis of dipole as compared to equatorial plane of dipole.
21. Two charge q and – 3q are placed fixed on x-axis separated by distance d. Where should a third
charge 2q be placed such that it will not experience any force ?

q 3q

A d B

d  3d d  3d d  3d d  3d
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
22. A charge Q is placed at each of the opposite corners of a square. A charge q is placed at each of
the other two corners. If the net electrical force on Q is zero, then Q/q equals :
1
1) – 1 2) 1 3)  4) 2 2
2

23. A charged particle enters at point A and comes out from B. Its velocity makes angle  and 
with electric field at these two points. Ratio of kinetic energy of changed particle at these two
points will be

sin 2  sin 2  
1) 2) B
sin 2  sin 2 
A
2
cos  cos2   + + + + +
3) 4)
cos2  cos2 
24. An oil drop of radius r and density  is held stationary in a uniform vertically upward electric
field ‘E’. If 0 ( ) is the density of air and e is quanta of charge, then the drop has
4 r 3 (  0 ) g 4 r 2 (  0 ) g
1) excess electrons 2) excess electrons
3eE eE
4 r 3 (  0 ) g 4 r 2 (  0 ) g
3) deficiency of electrons 4) deficiency of electrons
3eE eE
25. A square surface of side L meter in the plane of the paper is placed in a uniform electric field
E(volt/m) acting along the same plane at an angle  with the horizontal side of the square as
shown in figure. The electric flux linked to the surface, in units of volt. m, is

1) EL2 2) EL2 cos  3) EL2 sin  4) Zero

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 
26. An electric dipole of moment P placed in a u niform electric field E has minimum potential
 
energy when the angle between P and E is
 3
1) Zero 2) 3)  4)
2 2
27. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
1) The charge q on a body is always given by q = ne, where n is any integer, positive or negative.
2) By convention, the charge on an electron is taken to be negative.
3) The fact that electric charge is always an integral multiple of e is termed as quantisation of
charge.
4) The quatisation of charge was experimentally demonstrated by Newton in 1912.
28. Two positive ions, each carrying a chare q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of
repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will bee (e being the
charge of an electron)

40 Fd 2 40 Fe2 4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fd 2

1) 2) 4 3) 4)
e2 d2 e2 q2
29. Two small similar metal spheres A and B having charges 4q and – 4q, when placed at a certain
distance apart, exert an electric force F on each other. When another identical uncharged sphere C,
first touched with A then with B and then removed to infinity, the force of interaction between
A and B for the same separation will be
1) F/2 2) F/8 3) F/16 4) F/32
30. The electric field intensity just sufficient to balance the earth’s gravitational attraction on an
electron will be :
(given mass and charge of an electron respectively are 9.1 × 10–3 kg and 1.6 × 10–19 C.)
1) – 5.6 × 1011 N/C 2) – 4.8 × 10–15 N/C 3) – 1.6 × 10–19 N/C 4) – 3.2 × 10–19 N/C
31. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field of intensity 2 × 105 NC–1. It
experiences a torque of 4 Nm. Calculate the charge on the dipole if the dipole length is 2cm.
1) 8 mC 2) 4 mC 3) 8 mC 4) 2 mC
32. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest ina uniform electric field E and then released.
The kinetic energy attained by the particle after moving a distance y is
1) qEy2 2) qE2y 3) qEy 4) q2Ey
33. A point charge q is placed at the centre of the cubical box. Find the, flux through shaded area of
surface.
q q
1) 24 2) 16
0 0
q
q q
3) 12 4) 4
0 0


34. A surface has the area vector A  (2iˆ  3 ˆj ) m 2 . The flux of an electric field through it if the field
 V
is E  4iˆ :
m
1) 8V-m 2) 12V-m 3) 20V-m 4) zero

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35. Three charges – q1, + q2 and – q3 are place as shown in the figure. The x-component of the force
on – q1 is proportional to -q3 Y
q2 q3 q2 q3
1)  cos  2)  sin 
b2 a 2 b2 a 2 a
q q q q  b
3) 22  32 cos  4) 22  32 sin  X
b a b a -q1
+q2
36. The total electric flux emanating from a closed surface enclosing an  –particle (e-electronic
charge) is
2e e 0 e
1)  2)  3) e0 4)
0 0 4
37. Which of the following is a wrong statement ?
1) The charge of an isolated system is conserved
2) It is possible to creater or destroy charged particles
3) It is possible to create or destroy net charged particles
4) It is not possible to create or destroy net charge
38. A charge q is placed at the centre of the open end of a cylindrical vessel. The flux of the electric
field through the surface of the vessel is

1) zero 2) q / 0 3) q / 2 0 4) 2q /  0
39. If the electric flux entering and leaving a closed surface are 6 × 106 and 9 × 106 S.I. units respec-
tively, then the charge inside the surface of permittivity of free space 0 is
1) 0  10 6 2) 0  10 6 3) 10  10 6 4) 3 0  10 6
40. Two particle of equal mass m and charge q are placed at a distance of 16 cm. They do not
q
experience any force. The value of is
m

 0 G
1) 1 2) 3) 4) 4 0 G
G 4 0

41. A rod of length 2.4 m and radius 4.6 mm carries a negative charge of 4.2 × 10–7 C spread
uniformly over it surface. The electric field near the mid-point of the rod, at a point on its surface
is
1) – 8.6 × 105 N C–1 2) 8.6 × 104 N C–1 3) – 6.7 × 105 N C–1 4) 6.7 × 105 N C–1
42. A hollow insulated conduction sphere is given a positive charge of 10 µC. What will be the
electric field at the centre of the sphere if its radius is 2m ?
1) Zero 2) 5 µCm–2 3) 20 µCm–2 4) 8 µCm–2
43. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then
the outward electric flux will
1) Increase four times 2) Be reduced to half 3) Remain the same 4) Be doubled

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44. A circular wire-loop of radius a carries a total charge Q distributed uniformly over its length. A
small length dL of the wire is cut off. The electric field at the centre due to the remaining wire
QdL QdL QdL QdL
1) 8 2 a3 2) 4 a3 3) 2 a 3 4)  a 3
0 0 0 0

45. A long string with a charge of  per unit length passes through an imaginary cube of edge a.
The maximum flux of the electric field through the cube will be
a a 6 a 2 3 a
1)  2) 4) 4)
0 0 0 0

CHEMISTRY
46. Which one of the following salts would have the same value of the van‘t Hoff factor
as that of K3 [Fe(CN6 )] ?.
1) Al2 (SO4 )3 2) NaCl 3) Na2 SO4 4) Al (NO3 )3
47. The values of observed and calculated molecular mass of Ca(NO3 )2 are 65.4 and 164
respectively. The degree of ionisation of the salt will be :
1) 0.25 2) 0.50 3) 0.60 4) 0.75
48. Which of the following compounds corresponds to van`t Hoff factor to be equal to 2 in
dilute solution:
1) KCl 2) BaCl2 3) K2 SO4 4) C6 H12 O6
49. A 5 % solution of cane sugar (mol. mass = 342) is isotonic with 1 % solution of a substance
X . The molecular mass of X is :
1) 34.2 2) 171.2 3) 68.4 4) 136.8
50. The degree of dissociation ‘  ’ of a weak electrolyte is:
i1 i1 n1 n1
1) 2) 3) 4)
n1 n1 i1 i1
51. The expression relating molality (m) and mole fraction (x2 ) of solute in a solution is:
mM1 mM1 1  mM1 1  mM1
1) x2 = 1 mM 2) x2 = 1 mM 3) x2 = mM1 4) x2 = mM1
1 1

52. A complex of iron and cyanide ions is 100 % ionised at 1 m (molal) . If its elevation in
boiling point is 2.08º (Kb = 0.52o mole -1 kg) then the complex is :
1) K3 [FeIII(CN)6] 2) K4 [FeII(CN)6] 3) Both 4) None
53. An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point lower than either of them when it :
1) shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law
2) shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law
3) shows ideal behaviour 4) is saturated
54. 5 ml of N HCl, 20 ml of N/ 2 H2SO4 and 30 ml of N/ 3 HNO3 are mixed together and volume
made to one litre. The normality of the resulting solution is
N N N N
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 10 20 40
55. Mixture of volatile components A and B has total vapour pressure (in Torr) :
p = 254 – 119 xA
where xA is mole fraction of A in mixture. Hence, PA0 and PB0 are (in Torr) :
1) 254, 119 2) 119, 254 3) 135, 254 4) 154, 119

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56. Assuming the salts to be unionised in solution, which of the following has highest osmotic
pressure?
1) 1 % CsCl 2) 1 % RbCl 3) 1 % KCl 4) 1 % NaCl
57. The diagram given below is a vapour pressure composition diagram for a binary solution of
A and B In the solution, A – B interactions are :

1) similar to A-A and B-B interactions 2) greater than A-A and B-B interaction
3) smaller than A-A and B-B interaction 4) unpredictable
58. Elevation in b.p.of a molar glucose solution (d = 1.2 gmL -1 ) is:
1) 0.98 Kb 2) Kb 3) 1.20 Kb 4) 1.02 Kb
59. Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mole volatile component A (po A = 100 mg Hg ) and 3
moles of volatile component B (po B= 60 mm Hg ) is 75 mm . For such case:
1) there is positive deviation from Raoult’s law
2) boiling point has been lowered
3) force of attraction between A and B is smaller than that between A and A or between B
and B
4) all the above statements are correct
60. Moles of K2 SO4 to be dissolved in 12 moles water to lower its vapour pressure by 10 mm
Hg at a temperature at which vapour pressure of pure water is 50mm is:
6
1) 3 mol 2) 2 mol 3) 1 mol 4) mol
7
61. Mole fraction of the component A in vapour phase is x1 and mole fraction of component A
in liquid mixture is x2 (PA0 = vapour pressure of pure A;PB0 = vapour pressure of pure B),
then total vapour pressure of the liquid mixture is :
0 0 0 0
PA x 2 PA x1 PB x 1 PB x 2
1) x 2) x 3) x 4) x
1 2 2 1

62. The phase diagrams for the pure solvent (solid lines) and the solution (non-volatile solute,
dashed line) are recorded below : The quantity indicated by L in the figure is (m = molality) :

1) Dp 2) DTf 3) Kb m 4) Kfm
63. When a non-volatile solute is added to a pure solvent, the
1) vapour pressure of the solution becomes lower than that of the pure solvent
2) rate of evaporation of the pure solvent is increased
3) solute does affect the rate of condensation
4) rate of evaporation of the solution is not equal to the rate of condensation of the solution at a
lower vapour pressure than that in the case of the pure solvent.

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64. According to Raoult’s law the relative decrease in the solvent vapour pressure over the solution
is equal to
1) the mole fraction of the solvent
2) the mole fraction of the solution
3) the number of moles of the solute
4) i times the mole fraction of the solute which undergoes dissociation or association in the solvent
[ i = van’t Hoff factor ]
65. Which of the following combinations are correct for a binary solution, in which the solute as
well as the solvent are liquid?
1) C6H6 and C6H5CH3;  Hsoln > 0;  Vsol = 0 2) CH3COCH3 and CHCl3;  Hsoln < 0;  Vsol < 0
3) H2O and HCl;  Hsoln > 0;  Vsol < 0 4) H2O and HNO3;  Hsoln > 0;  Vsol > 0
66. Which of the following statements are correct for a binary solution which shows negative deviation
from Raoult’s law?
1) The negative deviation from linearity increases and tends to  as the concentration of the
solution component approaches unity.
2) When solutions from, their volumes are more than the sum of the volumes of their components
3) Heat is released during the formation of the solution.
4) Heat is absorbed during the formation of the solution.
67. A binary liquid (AB) shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law wen
1) pA = pA0 XAliq 2) intermolecular forces: A–A, B–B > A – B
3)  Vmix < 0 4)  Hmix < 0
68. The azeotropic solutions of two miscible liquids
1) can be separated by simple distillation
2) may show positive or negative deviation from Raoult’s law
3) are supersaturated solutions
4) behave like a single component and boil at a different temperature
69. In which of the following pairs of solutions will the values of the van’t Hoff factor be the same?
1) 0.05 M K4[Fe(CN)6] and 0.10 M FeSO4
2) 0.10 M K3[Fe(CN)6] and 0.05 M FeSO4(NH4)2SO4.6H2O
3) 0.20 M NaCl and 0.10 M BaCl2
4) 0.05 M FeSO4(NH4)2SO4.6H2O and 0.02 M KCl. MgCl2.6H2O
70. Consider following solutions:
I : 1 M aq. glucose II : 1 M aq. sodium chloride
III : 1 M benzoic acid in benzene IV : 1 M ammonium phosphate
Select incorrect statement (s)
1) all are isotonic solutions 2) III is hypotonic of I, II, IV
3) I, II, IV are hypertonic of III 4) IV is hypertonic of I, II, III
71. When mercuric iodide is added to the aqueous solution of potassium iodide, the
1) Freezing point is increase 2) freezing point is lowered
3) freezing point does not change 4) boiling point does not change
72. Which is/are correct statement(s)?
1) when mixture is less volatile, there is positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
2) when mixture is more volatile, there is negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
3) when mixture is less volatile, there is negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
4) when mixture is less volatile, there is positive deviation from Raoult’s law.

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73. Statement - 1 (A) : A solution having greater vapour pressure, has higher B.P.
Statement - 2 (R) : Elevation in B.P. is directly proportional to the lowering of vapour pressure
1) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is True, Statement - 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement - 1
2) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement - 1
3) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is False
4) Statement - 1 is False, Statement - 2 is True
74. Statement - 1 (A) : Ethylene glycol is mixed with water and mixture is used as a coolant for
car radiator.
Statement - 2 (R) : Ethylene glycol is in soluble in water
1) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is True, Statement - 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement - 1
2) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is True ; Statement - 2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement - 1
3) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is False
4) Statement - 1 is False, Statement - 2 is True
75. 18 g of glucose (C6 H12 O6 ) is added to 178.2 g of water. The vapour pressure of water for this
aqueous solution at 100ºC is
1) 7.60 torr 2) 76.00 torr 3) 752.40 torr 4) 759.00 torr
76. Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At 20ºC, the vapour pressure of benzene
is 75 torr and that of toluene is 22 torr. The partial vapour pressure of benzene at 20ºC for a
solution containing 78 g of benzene and 46 g of toluene in torr is:
1) 50 2) 25 3) 37.5 4) 53.5
77. If a is the degree of dissociation of Na2 SO4 , the vant Hoff's factor (i) used for calculating the
molecular mass is:
1) 1 + a 2) 1 – a 3) 1 + 2a 4) 1 – 2a
78. 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 ml of its solution. The concentration of urea
solution is:
1) 91.3% 2) 87% 3) 100% 4) 74%
79. Which one of the following aqueous solutions will exhibit highest boiling point?
1) 0.01 M Na2SO4 2) 0.01 M KNO3 3) 0.015 M urea 4) 0.015 M glucose
80. 25 ml of solution of barium hydroxide on titration with a 0.1 molar solution of hydrochloric acid
gave a litre value of 35 ml. The molarity of barium hydroxide solution was:
1) 0.07 2) 0.14 3) 0.28 4) 0.35
81. In a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX, the degree of ionization is 0.3. Taking Kf for
water as 1.85, the freezing point of the solution will be nearest to:
1) – 0.480ºC 2) – 0.386 ºC 3) – 0.260 ºC 4) + 0.480 ºC
82. When a non-volatile solute is dissolved in a solvent, the relative lowering in vapour pressure
is equal to :
1) mole fraction of solvent 2) mole fraction of solute
–1
3) concentration of solute in g L 4) concentration of solute in g per 100 ml
83. The number of moles of solute per kg of a solvent is called its :
1) molarity 2) normality 3) mole fraction 4) molality

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84. The molal elevation of an unknown solution is equal to the molal elevation of 0.1 M solution
of urea. The concentration of unknown solution is :
1) 1 M 2) 0.01 M 3) 0.1 M 4) none of these
85. Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solutions will have the lowest freezing point ?
1) Potassium sulphate 2) Sodium chloride 3) Urea 4) Glucose
86. 0.2 molal acid HX is 20 ionised in solution . Kf = 1.86 K molality–1 . The freezing point
of the solution is :
1) – 0.45 2) – 0.90 3) – 0.31 4) – 0.53
87. The molecular weight of benzoic acid in benzene as determined by depression in freezing
point method corresponds to
1) ionisation of benzoic acid 2) dimerization of benzoic acid
3) trimerization of benzoic acid 4) solvation of benzoic acid
88. The solubility of gas in water at 300 k under a pressure of 100 atm is 4 × 10–3 kg/ L. Threfore, the
mass of the gas in kilogram dissolved in 250 ml of water under a pressure of 250 atm and 300 k
is
1) 2.0 × 10–3 2) 2.5 × 10–3 3) 1.25 × 10–3 4) 5.0 × 10–3
89. Solubility of oxygen gas in water follows Henry’s law. When the solubility is plotted against
partial pressure at a definite temperature, we get the following plots. Which of the following
sequence of temperature is correct ?

T4
T3
Solubitlity T2
of O2in H2O T1
1) T1 = T2 = T3 = T4 2) T1 > T2 < T3 > T4 3) T1 < T2 < T3 < T4 4) T1 > T2 > T3 > T4
90. One mole of a non-volatile solute is dissolved in P
two
O2
moles of water. The vapour pressure of the
solution relative to that of water is
2 1 1 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 2 2

BOTANY
91. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. Mendel’s experiments.
1) The plants crossed by him did not produce progeny of intermediates.
2) For each pair of alternative forms of a character, one of the alternative forms was not expressed
in the F1 hybrids, although it reappeared in some F2 individuals.
3) Blending inheritance was observed in F1 hybrids
4) Both 1 and 2
92. Mendel selected Pisum sativum for hybridisation experiments because of :
1) Clear contrasting characters and short life span
2) Short life span
3) Fertile hybrids and productions of large number of seeds by each plant
4) More than one option is correct
93. Find incorrect match.
1) Allele - alphabetical representation of a gene 2) Pure line - True breeding lines
3) Gene - Unit factor 4) Homozygous - Always dominant

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94. The Law of Dominance explains.

1) The expression of only one of the parental characters in a monohybrid cross in the F1 and
expression of both the parental character in the F2 generation.
2) It explains genotypic proportion of 1 : 2 : 1 in the F2.
3) Both of the above 4) None of the above
95. The law of segregation is based on the fact that :
1) Alleles do not show blending
2) The paired factors or alleles segregate from each other so that a gamete receives the two
factors as in the original paired form
3) Homozygous parent produce similar type of gametes whereas heterozygous ones produces
two types of gametes each having one allele with unequal proportion
4) All of the above
96. A pea plant heterozygous for seed shape and seed colour was selfed and total of 800 seeds were
produced. The number of seeds with both homozygous recessive traits is :
1) 50 2) 250 3) 200 4) 100
97. Which of the following cross will produce 4 genotypes and 4 phenotypes ?
1) TT RR × Tr Rr 2) Tt Rr × Tt Rr 3) TT rr × tt RR 4) Tt Rr × tt rr
98. Find out percentage of red tall plants in a cross between RrTT X rrtt.
1) 25% 2) 75% 3) 50% 4) 100%
99. Theoretically, the modified allele could be responsible for the production of :
1) More efficient enzyme 2) A non-enzyme
3) No enzyme at all 4) 2 and 3
100. Total 512 seeds are collected from the cross Aa Bb × Aa Bb. Find the number of plants produced
with first dominant and second recessive :
1) 288 2) 96 3) 32 4) 320
101. In Mirabilis red flower plant crossed with white flower are resulted in all pink flowered plants.
What are the chances of appearance of red flowered plant in a cross between pink and white
flowered plant ?
1) Zero 2) 0.25 3) 0.5 4) 0.75
102. The recessive trait is due to
i) Normal functional enzyme ii) Less efficient enzyme
iii) A non-functional enzyme iv) No enzyme
1) Only i 2) Only iv 3) Both iii and iv 4) Both ii and iii
103. According to the concept of dominance, the modified allele is equivalent to the unmodified
allele when :
1) It produces normal/ less efficient enzyme 2) It produces the same phenotype/ trait
3) It results in the transformation of substrate 4) More than one option is correct
104. Select the incorrect match pair w.r.t. garden pea.
1) Aa × Aa  Selfing of F1 2) Aa Bb × aa bb  Dihybrid test cross
3) Aa × aa  Test cross 4) AA × AA  Self pollination of pureline
105. What is correct for the F2 generation of Mendelian dihybrid cross ?
1) Recessive trait is present in 1/2 frequency
2) Recombinant plants are present in 37.5% frequency
3) Parental plants are present in 75% frequency
4) Dominant trait is present in 1/2 frequency

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106. Consider the cross for the pleiotropic gene (R) in pea seed
RR rr
(Larger starch grain)  (Small strach grain)
Accordingly which of the following is true for F1 hybrid :
1) It possesses intermediate sized starch grains
2) It possesses round seeds
3) Incomplete dominance can be observed
4) More than one option is correct
107. Which one of the following individuals can produce 16 different gametes ?
1) Aa Bbcc Dd 2) Aa Bb cc DD Ee Ff
3) Aa Bb Cc dd EE FF 4) Aa Bb Cc DD Ee Ff
108. In a dihybrid F2 progeny from the cross AABB × aabb, the genotypes AABB, AABb, AaBB,
aabb will be found in the ratio of
1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 3) 3 : 3 : 1 : 1 4) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1
109. In monohybrid cross, pure line plants will be
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
110. Which Mendelian cross can produce two genotypes and two phenotypes ?
1) Monohybrid cross 2) Monohybrid test cross
3) Incomplete dominance 4) Codominance
111. An allele is said to be dominant if
1) It is expressed only in heterozygous combination
2) It is expressed only in homozygous combination
3) It is expressed in both homozygous and heterozygous condition
4) It is expressed only in second generation
112. When F1 hybrids of parental red flowered and white flowered Mirabilis plants are test crossed,
the percentage of red flowers will be
1) 50% 2) 75% 3) 25%` 4) 0%
113. Incomplete dominance is shown by
1) Primrose 2) Mirabilis 3) Helianthus 4) China rose
114. A cross between red flowered and pink flowered Mirabilis plant will produce offsprings in
1) 3 : 1 ratio 2) 1 : 2 : 1 ratio 3) 2 : 1 ratio 4) 1 : 1 ratio
115. A complete set of chromosomes inherited as a unit from one parent, is known as
1) Karyotype 2) Gene pool 3) Genome 4) Genotype
116. A cross between plants having RRYY and rryy composition will yield plants with
1) Round and yellow seeds 2) Round and green seeds
3) Wrinkled and yellow seeds 4) Wrinkled and green seeds
117. Find out the correct match from the following table (for garden pea)
Column - I Column - II Column - III
a) Violet flower VV or Vv Recessive trait
b) Wrinkle seed rr Recessive trait
c) Terminal flower Only homozygous Recessive trait
1) a only 2) a and b 3) c only 4) b and c only

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118. Read the following statements (A-C)

A) Simply looking at the phenotype of a dominant trait, it is impossible to know the genotypic
composition
B) Mendel selected 14 true breeding pea plant varieties
C) On the basis of monohybrid cross, Mendel proposed only one conclusion/ postulate
1) A and B are correct and C is incorrect 2) A is incorrect
3) A, B and C are correct 4) Only A is correct
119. Mendel selected pea plant because :
1) The flower of pea are unisexual
2) Pea flower normally remain open and undergo self-pollination only
3) It is an annual plant with short life-span and give results within 3 months
4) Small number of seeds are produced per pea plant
120. Match the columns correctly :
Column - I Column - II
A) TT × tt = All tall plants i) Law of independent assortment
B) Tt  gametes(T) and (t) ii) Law of purity of gametes

AB + ab = 50%
AaBb
C) iii) Law of segregation
Ab + aB = 50%
D) No blending iv) Law of dominance
1) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv 2) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii
3) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii 4) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i

ZOOLOGY
121. First discovered hormone
1) Thyroxine 2) Adrenaline 3) Secretin 4) Somatotropin
122. Mammals born without the thymus gland fail to have mature
1) B – Lymphocytes 2) T – Lymphocytes 3) Plasma cells 4) Basophils
123. Oxytocin is essential for
1) Fertilization of ova 2) Synthesis of oestrogens
3) Synthesis of milk 4) Ejection of milk
124. Fat soluble amino acid derivative hormone is
1) Melatonin 2) Epinephrine 3) Dopamine 4) Thyroxine
125. Hypersecretion of STH leads to
1) Dwarf, Acromegaly 2) Goitre, Sterility
3) Cretinism, Myxedema 4) Gigantism, Acromegaly
126. Which hormone regulates 24 hours rhythm of our body ?
1) Somatotropic 2) LTH 3) Melatonin 4) T4 and T3

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127. Recognise the figure and find out the correct labelling.

1) a - pituitary, b - portal circulation, c - pars intermedia, d - hypothalamus

2) a - hypothalamus, b - hypothalamic neutrons, c - portal circulation, d - anterior pituitary
3) a - hypothalamus, b - portal circulation, c - hypothalamic neurons, d - posterior pituitary
4) a - hypothalamus, b - hypothalamic neutrons, c - portal circulation, d - posterior pituitary
128. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes defective development and maturation of growing
baby leads to
a) Cretinism b) Gigantism
c) Mental retardation d) Low intelligence quotient (I.Q.)
e) Abnormal skin f) Deaf and mutism
1) a, b, d and f 2) b, c, d and e 3) a, c, d, e and f 4) a, b, c, d, e and f
129. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases the Ca2+ levels in the body by
a) Bone resorption b) Reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal tubules
c) Increasing Ca2+ absorption from the digested food
1) a and b 2) b and c 3) a and c 4) a, b and c
130. A man has IQ equivalent to that of a body of 5 years old. This is due to the deficiency of
1) Thyroxine 2) Adrenaline 3) Aldosterone 4) Somatotropin
131. A tadople with surgically removed thyroid gland can made to metamorphosise if
1) Given an injection of TSH 2) Given an injection of oxytocin
3) Given an injection of thyroxine 4) Fed on dried parathyroid gland
132. Match the columns I and II
Column - I Column - II
a) Membrane bound receptor i) LH
b) Intracellular receptor ii) FSH
iii) Estrogen
iv) Thyroxine
v) Insuliln
vi) Testosterone
1) a - iii, iv and v ; b - i, ii and vi 2) a - i, ii and v ; b - iii, iv and vi
3) a - iii, iv and vi ; b - i, ii and vi 4) a - i, ii and vi ; b - iii, iv and v

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133. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement
a) Adenohypophysis consists of two portions, pars distalis and pars intermedia. However, in
humans, the pars intermedia is almost merged with pars distalis
b) The pars distalis called anterior pituitary and pars intermedia called posterior pituitary
c) Neurohypophysis is called pars nervosa which stores and releases two hormones called oxytocin
and vasopresin.
d) Anterior pituitary releases nine hormones and pars intermedia releases only one hormone
e) Pars distalis produces GH, PRL, TSH, ACTH, LH and FSH
1) a and b 2) b and d 3) d and c 4) a and d
134. Indentify the hormones, labelled as A, B and C in the following figure.

Hypothalamus

Pituitary

B C

Gonads

Gametes Sex hormones

1) A - GH, B - FSH, C - LH 2) A - GnRH, B - FSH, C - LH

3) A - GH, B - GnRH, C - PRT 4) A - GnRH, B - GH, C - PRT
135. Which pituitary hormone responsible for enhancing the arterial blood pressure by causing the
narrowing of arterioles ?
1) ACTH 2) Somatotropin 3) ADH 4) LTH
136. FSH is involved in
1) Ovulation 2) Spermatogenesis
3) Control of blood sugar 4) Growth
137. Endemic goitre is related to
1) Increased thyroid function due to high T3 , T4.
2) Normal thyroid function due to thyroxine
3) Decreased thyroid function due to inadequate I2 in diet
4) Moderate thyroid function due to PTH
138. Assertion (A) : Thyroxine shows calorigenic effect.
Reason (R) : Thyroxine increases catabolism, produces energy and increases body temperature
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
4) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true

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139. Assertion (A) : Vasopressin is also called as antidiuretic hormone.

Reason (R) : Vasopressin reduces the loss of water in urine by increasing water reabsorption in
nephrons.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
4) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
140. Hypothyroidism and hyperparathyroidism in adults will lead respectively to :
1) Myxedema and cretinism 2) Addison’s disease and cretinism
3) Cretinism and osteitis fibrosa cystica 4) Myxedema and osteitis fibrosa cystica
141. Match the following
List - A List - B
I) Oxytocin A) Initiates and maintains milk secretion
II) Prolactin B) Uterine contraction during child birth
III) Thyroxine C) Inhibits bone resorption by osteoclasts
IV) Calcitionin D) Metamorphosis in amphilbians
1) I - B, II - D, III - A, IV - C 2) I - B, II - D, III - C, IV - A
3) I - B, II - A, III - C, IV - D 4) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV - C
142. Assertion (A) : Parathormone is a hypercalcemic hormone.
Reason (R) : PTH stimulates the bone resorption and it also stimulates reabsorption of calcium
ions by renal tubules.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
4) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
143. Which of the following options is not true ?
1) In males, LH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of androgens (Testosterone) from testis
2) In males, FSH and androgens regulate spermatogenesis
3) In female, LH induces ovulation of fully mature follicles (graafian follicles), and maintains
corpus luteum.
4) FSH is produced in only male
144. Parathormone influences calcium absorption in the small intestine by regulating metabolism of
1) Vitamin C 2) Vitamin D 3) Vitamin B6 4) Enterogasterone
145. Intracellular receptors are mostly
1) Nuclear receptors 2) Cytoplasmic receptors
3) Mitochondrial receptors 4) Protoplasmic receptors
146. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action ?
1) cAMP 2) IP3 3) Calcium 4) Sodium
147. Match the following columns.
Column-I Column-II
A) Peptide hormones 1) Epinephrine
B) Steroid hormones 2) Testosterone, progesterone
C) Iodothyronines hormones 3) Thyroid hormones
D) Amino acid derivatives 4) Insulin and glucagon hormones
1) A  1; B  2; C  3; D  4 2) A  4; B  3; C  2; D  1
3) A  4; B  2; C  3; D  1 4) A  4; B  2; C  1; D  3

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148. Identify A to D and choose the correct option.

1) A-Hormone, B-Receptor, C-Cell membrane, D-Secondary messenger

2) A-Hormone, B-Receptor, C-Cell membrane, D-Primary messenger
3) A-Receptor, B-Hormone, C-Cell membrane, D-Primary messenger
4) A-Receptor, B-Hormone, C-Cell membrane, D-Secondary messenger
149. Identify A to D and choose the correct combination.

1) A-DNA, B-Nucleus, C-Hormone receptor complex, D-Hormone

2) A-mRNA, B-Nucleus, C-Hormone receptor complex, D-Hormone
3) A-mRNA, B-Nucleus, C-Hormone receptor complex, D-Protein
4) A-DNA, B-Nucleus, C-Hormone receptor complex, D-Protein
150. How many of the hormones given in the box interact with plasma membrane bound receptors
(M) and intracellular receptors (I) ?
LH, MSH, Epinephrine, Insulin, Iodothyronine, Cortisol, Glucagon, Estradiol, Progesterone,
Testosterone
1) M = 5, I = 5 2) M = 8, I = 2 3) M = 6, I = 4 4) M = 4, I = 6

MATHEMATICS
151. HCF of 72, 108 is ________
1) 216 2) 36 3) 108 4) 96

143
152. is a _____ decimal
110
1) Terminating decimal 2) Non terminating recurring decimal
3) Non non recurring decimal 4) None of the above

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153. The prime factorization of 205751

1) 7 × 132 × 19 × 17 2) 13× 19 × 23 × 7 3) 13 × 7 × 29 × 17 4) 72 × 13 × 17 × 19

229
154. The decimal expansion of is
400
1) 0.03745 2) 0.93375 3) 0.5725 4) 0.9245
155. The product of HCF and LCM of 60, 84 and 108 is
1) 45500 2) 45360 3) 35360 4) 65430
156. For any integer ‘a’ and 3, there exists a unique pair of integers q and r such that a = 3q + r then
the possible value of ‘r’ are
1) 0, 1, 2, 3 2) 0, 1, 3 3) 0, 1, 2 4) 1, 2
157. Which of the following is a rational number ?
1) 6 9 2) 3 5 3) 2 4 4) 4 9
158. For what value of n, 2n × 5n ends with 5 __________
1) 0 2) 5 3) 2 4) No real value of ‘n’

43
159. The decimal expansion of the rational number will terminate after ______
2  53
4

1) 3 places 2) 4 places 3) 1 place 4) 5 places

160. The last digit of 6100 is _____
1) 6 2) 0 3) 2 4) 8

p
161. form of 0.1255 is ________
q
651 251 251 951
1) 2) 3) 4)
2  52
3
2  54
3
2  53
4
2  52
2

162. The HCF of 85 and 153 is expressed in the form of 85n – 153 then the value of n = ______
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

p
163. If is a rational number (q  0) and q = 2m × 5n where m, n are non - negative integers. Then
q
p
the decimal representation of is ____
q
1) Terminating decimal 2) Non terminating recurring decimal
3) Non terminating non recurring decimal 4) Irrational number

164. If log(5x 7)  1 then x = ________

1) 6 2) 8 3) 12 4) 16
165. If 2 log x  3 log y  log a then a = ____
x2
1) 3 2) x 3  y 2 3) x 2 y 3 4) x 2  y 2
y

166. The value of y, if log xy  100 and log2x  10 is ______

1) 21000 2) 2100 3) 210000 4) 210

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167. The value of log59049

9
is _____
1) 9 2) 7 3) 8 4) 5

168. The expanded form of log x 2 y 3 z 4  ____

1) 2 log x  3 log y  4 log z 2) 2 log x  3 log y  4 log z
3) 3 log x  4 log y  4 log z 4) 3 log x  3 log y  4 log z
169. Which of the following is a set ?
1) A team of best foot ball players in India
2) The collection of most talented singers in A.P
3) The collection of all beautiful girls in your class
4) The collection of all girls in your class
170. If ‘A’ is set of boys born on Sunday and ‘B’ is set of boys born of Monday then A and B are _
1) Equal sets 2) Disjoint sets 3) Null sets 4) Equivalent sets
171. If A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10} and B = {3, 6, 9, 12, 15}. Then A – B = _____
1) {3, 6, 9, 12} 2) {2, 4, 6, 8, 10} 3) {2, 4, 8, 10} 4) {3, 6, 9, 12, 15}
172. Which of the following is an empty set ?
1) Set of even numbers divisible by 2 2) {x / x  N , x  6 and x  9}
3) {x / x  N , x  9 and x  15} 4) {x / x is a common point for intersecting lines}
173. If A  B then A  B = ______
1) A 2) A  B 3) B 4) A – B
174. If A and B are disjoint sets then n( A  B )  __
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
175. Which of the following represents the venn diagram of B – A is __

A B µ A B µ

1) 2)

A B µ A B µ

3) 4)

176. If A = {a, b, c}, then A    ____

1) A 2) µ 3)  4) {a, b}
177. The roster form of A = {x : x is a letter in the word BANANA} is ______
1) {B, A, N, A, N, A} 2) {B, A, N} 3) {B, A, A, N, A} 4) {B, A, N, N}

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178. If n( A)  4 , then the number of subsets of set A is _____

1) 8 2) 16 3) 12 4) 4
179. A = {a, b, c}, B = {a, b, e}} and C = {c, d, e, f}, then A  ( B  C ) = _______
1) {a, b, c} 2) {a b, d} 3) {d, e, f} 4) {a, b, e}
180. The set builder form of {3, 6, 9, 12 } is ________
1) { 3x : x  N and x  4 } 2) { 3x : x  N and x  4 }
3) { x 3 : x  N and x  4 } 4) { x 2 : x  N and x  4 }

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