STATEWIDE WEEKEND TEST - 01 M1 - MPL

STATEWIDE WEEKEND TEST - 01

Max.Marks : 720 M
Class : M1 MPL NEET MODEL Time: 3 Hrs
Subjects : Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology & Mathematics Date : 01.08.2022

SYLLABUS
Physics : Electric Charges and fields (Complete)
Chemistry : Thermodynamics : Thermodynamic Terms, The system and the surroundings,
Types of systems and surroundings, The state of the system, The Internal Energy
as a State Function, A) Work b) Heat, The general case, the first law of
Thermodynamics, Applications. Work, Enthalpy, H-a useful new state function,
Extensive and intensive properties, Heat capacity, The relationship between Cp
and Cv, Measurement of U and H , Calorimetry, Enthalpy change, r H or
reactions - reaction Enthalpy, a) Standard enthalpy of reactions, b) Enthalpy changes
during transformations, c) Standard enthalpy of formation, d) Thermo chemical
equations, e) Hess’s law of constant Heat summation, Enthalpies for different types
of reactions.
Botany : Principles of Inheritance and Variation Upto Drosophila as material for
experimental genetics
Zoology : Neural Control and coordination : Introduction, Nervous system in animals,
Generation and conduction of nerve impulse, Human neural system, Central nervous
system, Peripheral neural system, Reflex actions, Sensory reception and processing
The eye.
Mathematics : Real Numbers, Sets,

Instructions :
i) Each question consists of Four options with single correct answer.
ii) The test is of 3 hours duration and this question paper contains 180 questions.

iii) Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum
marks are 720.
iv) Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on OMR page / marking responses..

Name of the Student ...................................................................... Roll No .......................................

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PHYSICS
1. Mark the correct statements
1) Attraction is a true test of electrification
2) Mass can exit without charge and charge can also exist without mass
3) Chgarge is discrete in general and can be continuous also
4) Mass and charge both are invariant physical quantities
2. Mark the correct option
1) Charge particles are conserved in nature
2) Charge particle can produce electric and magnetic field as well as can radiate energy
3) Charge can exist without mass
4) Charge is varying with speed.
3. Two small balls having equal positive charges Q (coulomb) on each are suspended by two
insulating strings of equal length L (metre) from a hook fixed to a stand. The whole setup is
taken in a statellite into space where there is no gravity (state of weightlessness). The tension in
each string is
Q2 Q2 Q2 Q2
1) 2) 3)  2 4)
4 0 L2 16 0 L2 4 0 L2 12 0 L2

4. Force between two point charges, q1 and q2 is F. The new force between q1 and q2 when q3 is
inserted between them, is
q3 q3 q1  q2
1) F 2) q F 3) q  q F 4) q3
F
1 1 2

5. A electron travelling due north enters a region where the electric field is uniform and points east.
The trajectory of the electron is
1) A circle 2) An ellipse 3) A straight line 4) A parabola
6. The maximum electric field intensity on the axis of a uniformly charged ring of charge q and
radius R will be
1 q 1 2q 1 2q 1 3q
1) 4 2 2) 4 3R 2 3) 4 2 4) 4 2
0 3 3R 0 0 3 3R 0 2 3R


7. Charge is distributed uniformly on the surface of large (infinite) sheet. The magnitude of E at a

point 2 cm from the sheet is 60 N/C, what would be magnitude of E at a point distance 4 cm
from the sheet ?
1) 15 N/C 2) 30 N/C 3) 120 N/C 4) 60 N/C
8. A point charge q is placed at a distance of a/ 2 directly above the centre of square of side a
(placed in horizontal plane). The magnitude of the flux crossing through the square is

q q q q
1)  2) 2  3) 6  4) 8 
0 0 0 0

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
9. In a region of space, the electric field is in the x direction and is given as E  E0 xiˆ . Consider an
imaginary cubical volume of edge a, with its edges parallel to the axes of coordinates. The
charge inside this volume is
1 3 1
1) Zero 2)  0 E0 a 3 3)  E0 a 4)  0 E0 a 2
0 6
10. A particle of mass m and charge q is fastened to one end of a string of length l. The other end of
the string is fixed to the point O. The whole system lies on a fricitonless horizontal plane. Initially,
the mass is at rest at A. A uniform electric field in the direction shown is then switched on. The
speed of the particle when it reaches B is
2qEl qEl
1) 2)
m m

2 qEl
3) 4) None of these
3m
11. 4 charges are placed each at a distance ‘a’ from origin. The dipole moment of configuration is

1) 2qajˆ 2) 3qajˆ 3) 2aq[iˆ  ˆj ] 4) None

12. The electrric field due to an electric dipole at a distance r from its centre in axial position is E. If
the dipole is rotated through an angle of 90° aobut its perpendicular axis, the electric field at the
same point will be
1) E 2) E / 4 3) E / 2 4) 2E
13. An electric dipole is placed in an electric field generated by a point charge. Then
1) The net electric force on the dipole must be zero
2) The net electric force on the dipole may be zero
3) The torque on the dipole due to field may be zero
4) The torque on the dipole due to the field must be zero
14. The bob of a simple pendulum has mass 2g and a charge of 5.0 µC. It is at rest in a uniform
horizontal electric field of intensity 2000 Vm–1. At equilibrium, the angle that the pendulum
makes with the vertical is (take g = 10 ms–2)
1) tan–1 (0.2) 2) tan–1 (5.0) 3) tan–1 (2.0) 4) tan–1 (0.5)
15. An electric dipole is formed by two equal and opposite charges q with separation d. The charges
have same mass m. It is kept in a uniform electric field E. If it is slightly rotated from its equilibrium
orientation, then its angular frequency  is
2qE qE qE qE
1) 2) 2 3) 4)
md md 2md md

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16. In free space, a particle A of charge 1 µC is held fixed at a point P. Another particle B of the same
charge and mass 4 µg is kept at a distance of 1 mm from P. If B is released, thenits velocity at a
1 9 2 2
distance of 9 mm from P is [Take 4  9  10 Nm C ]
0
1) 2.0 × 103 2) 3.0 × 104 ms–1 3) 1.5 × 102 ms–1 4) 6.3 × 104 ms–1
17. For a uniformly charged ring of radius R, the electric field on its axis has the largest magnitude
at a distance h from its cente. Then value of h is
R R
1) 2) 3) R 4) R 2
2 5
18. An electric dipole is placed along the x-axis at the origin O. A point P is at a distance of 20 cm
from this origin such that OP makes an angle  / 3 with the x-axis. If the electric field at P makes
an angle  with the x-axis, the value of  would be
  1
 3 2 1
 3
1) 2) 3  tan   3) 4) tan  
 2 
3   3  2 
 r
19. A solid ball of radius R has a charge density  given by    0  1   for 0  r  R . The
 R
electric field outside the ball is
0 R3 4 0 R3 3 0 R 3 0 R3
1) 2) 3) 4)
12 0 r 2 3 0 r 2 4 0 r 2  0r 2
20. The flat base of a hemisphere of radius a with no charge inside it lies in a horizontal plane. A
 
uniform electric field E is applied at an angle with the vertical direction. The electric flux
4
through the curved surface of the hemisphere is 45° 
E
 a2 E
1)  a 2 E 2)
2

 a2 E (  2) a 2 E
2
3) 4)
2 2 2 2 
21. Determine the electric dipole moment of the system of three charge, placed on the vertices of an
equilateral triangle, as shwon in the figure.
 ˆj  iˆ  2q
1) 2qljˆ 2) 3ql   y l
 2  l
 iˆ  ˆj  q
3)  3qljˆ ql
4)   q l x
 2 
22. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive charge q distributed uniformly over it. The net

field E at the centre O is
q ˆ q ˆ ĵ
1) 2 2 r 2 j 2) 4 2 r 2 j
0 0

q ˆ q ˆ iˆ
3)  4 2 r 2 j 4)  2 2 r 2 j O
0 0

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23. A charge Q is placed at each of the opposite corners of a square. A charge q is placed at each of
Q
the other two corners. If the net electrical force on Q is zero, then the equals
q
1
1) 2 2 2) – 1 3) 1 4) 
2

24. Consider an electric field E  E0 xˆ, where E0 is a constant. The flux through the shaded area (as
shown in the figure) due to this field is
z
(a,0,a) (a,a,a)

y
(0,0,0) (0,a,0)
x

2 2 2
E0a 2
1) 2E0a 2) 2 E0a 3) E0a 4)
2
25. A thin wire ring of radius r has an electric hcarge q0. The increment of the force stretching the
q0
wire if a point chare is placed at the rings centre is
2
q02 q02 q02 2q02
1) 2) 3) 4)
8 2 0 r 2 16 2 0 r 2 4 02 r 2  02 r 2
26. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a uniform electric field E parallel to the cylinder
axis. The total flux for the surface of the cylinder is given by
2
1) 2 R E 2)  R 2 E 3) ( R 2   L2 ) E 4) Zero
27. Two similar point charges q1 and q2 are placed at a distance r apart in air. Assume that a slab of
thickness one third the separation between the charges is placed between the charges and it is
observed that the Colomb’s repulsive force is reduced in the ratio 25 : 9. Then the dielectric
constant K of such a slab is
1) 1 2) 4 3) 9 4) 25
28. A point charge Q is located on the axis of a disk of radius R at a distance b from the plane of the
disk. If one fourth of the electric flux from the charge passes through the disk, then
1) b  3R 2) R  3 b 3) R = b 4) R  2 b

29. A point charge q is placed on the top of a cone of semi vertex angle  . The electric flux associated
with the base of the cone due to the charge is
q q
1)  (1  cos  ) 2)  (1  cos  ) c q
0 0
  R
q q
3) 4 (1  cos  ) 4) 2 (1  cos  )
0 0 B
A

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 M1 - MPL STATEWIDE WEEKEND TEST - 01

30. Two charges + q1 and – q2 are placed at A and B respectively. A line of force emanates from q1
at angle  with the line AB. At what angle will it terminate at – q2 ?
1
 q1  1
 q1 
1)   2 sin  q sin 2  2)   sin  q sin 2 
 2   2 
1
 q1   q2 
3)   2 sin 
 q sin   4)   2 sin 
 q sin 
 2   1 2 

31. An infinite plane sheet of a metal is charged to charge density  C/m2 in a medium of dielectric
constant K. Intensity of electric field near the metallic surface will be
   K
1) E   K 2) E  2 3) E  2 K 4) E  2
o o o o

32. Two infinitely long thin styraight wires having uniform linear charge densities  and 2 are
arranged parallel to each other at a distance r apart. The intesity of hte electric field at a point
midway between them is
2   3
1)  r 2)  r 3) 2 r 4) 2 r
o o o o

33. The electric field in a region of space is given by E  5iˆ  2 ˆj NC 1 . The electric flux due to this
field through an area 2m2 lying in the YZ plane in S.I. units is
1) 10 2) 20 3) 10 2 4) 2 29
34. A cube is arranged such that its length, breadth, height are along X, Y and Z directions. One of
its corners is situated at the origin. Length of each side of the cube is 25cm. The components of
electric field are E x  400 2 N / C , E y  0 and E z  0 respectively. Teh flux coming out of the
cube at one end will be
1) 25 2 Nm2 / C 2) 5 2 Nm2 / C 3) 250 2 Nm2 / C 4) 25 2 Nm2 / C
35. An electric harge is placed at the centre of a cube of side a. The electric flux
q q
i) Through one of its faces 6  ii) Through one of its faces 3 
0 0

q q
iii) Through all of its faces  iv) Through one of its faces 2 
0 0
1) i, ii 2) ii, iii 3) ii, iv 4) i, iii
36. A solid metallic sphere has a charge + 3Q. Concentric with this sphere is a conducting spherical
shell having charge + Q. The radius of the sphere is a and that of the spherical shell is b, (b > a).
What is the electric field at a distance R (a < R < b) from the centre.
Q 3Q 3Q 4Q
1) 2 R 2) 2 R 3) 4 R 2 4) 2 R 2
0 0 0 0

37. A charge Q is distributed uniformly on a ring of radius r. A sphere of equal radius r is constructed
with its centre at the periphery of the ring as shwon in figure. Find the flux of hte electric field
through the surface of the sphere. Ring A
Q q O
1) 3 2) 
0 0
O1
q
3) 2 4) Zero B Sphere
0

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38. Three very large plates are given charges as shown in the figure. If the cross-sectional area of
each plate is the same, the final charge distribution on plate C is
Q 5Q 10Q

Outer surface

A B C
Inner surface
1) + 5 on the inner surface, + 5Q on the outer surface
2) + 6Q on the inner surface, + 4Q on the outer surface
3) + 7Q on the inner surface, + 3Q on the outer surface
4) + 8Q on the inner surface, + 2Q on the outer surface
39. An electric dipole of dipole moment P is kept at a distance r from an infinite long charged wire
p
of linerar charge density  as shwon. The force acting onthe dipole is 
P P 2P P
1) 2 r 2 2)  r 2 3)  r 2 4) 4 r 2
0 0 0 0

40. Number of electric lines of force emerging from 1C of positive charge in vacuum is
1) 8.85 × 10–12 2) 9 × 109 3) 1 / 4  9  109 4) 1.13 × 1011
41. An electric dipole is along a uniform electric field. If it is deflected by 60°, work done by an
agent is 2 × 10–19 J. Then the work done by an agent if it is deflected by 30° further is
1) 2.5 × 10–19 J 2) 2 × 10–19 J 3) 4 × 10–19 J 4) 2 × 10–16
42. Two charge q and – 3q are placed fixed on x-axis separated by distance d. Where should a third
charge 2q be placed such that it will not experience any force ?
q 3q
A d B
d  3d d  3d d  3d d  3d
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
43. An infinite number of charges each equal to ‘q’ are placed along the X-axis at x = 1, x = 2, x = 4,
x = 8 ...... . The electric field at the point x = 0 due to this set of charges is
Q Q 3Q Q
1) 4  2) 3  3) 4  4)  
o o o o

44. A particle that carries a charge ‘–q’ is placed at rest in uniform electric field 10 N/C. It experiences
a force and moves. In a certain time ‘t’, it is observed to acquire a velocity 10 i  10 j m / s / The
given electric field intersects a surface of area 1m2 in the x - z plane. Find the Electric flux
through the surface.
1) 4 2 2) 10 2 3) 5 2 4) 2
 x
45. The electric field in a region is givne by E  E0 iˆ . Find the charge contained inside a cubical
L
volume bounded by the surface x = 0, x = L, y = 0, y = L, z = 0 and z = L.
2 2 1
1)  0 E0 L2 2)  0 E 0 L 3)  0 E0 L 4)  0 E0
2
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CHEMISTRY
46. Out of molar entropy (I), specific volume (II), heat capacity (III), volume (IV), extensive properties are
1) I, II 2) I, II, IV 3) II, III 4) III, IV
47. Which has maximum internal energy at 290 K ?
1) Neon gas 2) Nitrogen gas 3) Ozone gas 4) Equal for all
48. A sample of liquid in a thermally insulated container (a calorimeter) is strirred for 2 hr. by a
mechanical linkage to a motor in the surrounding. For this process :
1) w  0; q  0;  U  0 2) w  0; q  0;  U  0
3) w  0; q  0;  U  0 4) w  0; q  0;  U  0
49. An ideal gas expands against a constant external pressure of 2.0 atmosphere from 20 litre to 40
litre and absorbs 10 kJ of heat from surrounding. What is the change in internal energy of the
system ? (Given : 1 atm-litre = 101.3 J)
1) 4052 J 2) 5948 J 3) 14052 J 4) 9940 J
50. Calculate the work done (in J) when 4.5 g of H2O2 reacts against a pressure of 1.0 atm at 25°C
2 H 2O2 (l )  O2 ( g )  2 H 2O(l )
2
1) – 1.63 × 10 2) 4.5 × 102 3) 3.2 × 102 4) – 6.1 × 102
51. A given mass of gas expands reversibly from the state A to the state B by three paths 1, 2 and 3
as shwon in the figure. If w1, w2 and w3 respectively be the work done by the gas along three
paths then :

1) w1 > w2 > w3 2) w1 < w2 < w3 3) w1 = w2 = w3 4) w2 < w3 < w1

52. In the cyclic process shown in P–V diagram, the magnitude of the work done is :
2
P P 
1)   2 1 
 2 
2
 V V 
2)   2 1 
 2 

3) ( P2  P1 )(V2  V1 )
4
4)  (V2  V1 ) 2
53. 2 mole of an ideal gas at 27°C expands isothermally and reversibly from a volume of 4 litre to 40
litre. The work done (in kJ) by the gas is
1) w  28.72kJ 2) w  11.788kJ 3) w  5.736kJ 4) w  4.988kJ
54. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its
absolute temperatue. The ratio of (Cp, m/Cv, m) for gas is
3 5 7 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 2 3
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55. Calculate average molar heat capacity at constant volume of gaseous mixture contained 2 mole
 5   5 
of each of two ideal gases A  Cv ,m  R  and B  Cv.m  R  :
 2   2 
1) R 2) 2R 3) 3R 4) 8R
56. For the reaction : PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) :
1) H  U 2) H  U 3) H  U 4) None
57. What is the change in internal energy when a gas contracts from 377 mL to 177 mL under a
constant pressure of 1520 torr, while at the same time being cooled by removing 124 J heat ?
1) 40.52 J 2) – 83.48 J 3) – 248 J 4) None of these
C p ,m
58. For an ideal gas C   . The molecular mass of the gas is M, its specific heat capacity at
v,m
constant volume is :
R M  RM R
1) 2) 3) 4)
M (  1) R(  1)  1 M (  1)
59. In open system, system and surroundings exchange
1) Energy only 2) Matter only
3) Energy and matter 4) Neither energy nor matter
60. If the enthalpy of formation and enthalpy of solution of HCl(g) are – 92.3 kJ/mol and – 75.14 kJ/mol
respectively then find enthalpy of formation of Cl– (aq) :
1) –17.16 kJ /mol 2) – 167.44 kJ/mol 3) 17.16 kJ/mol 4) None of these
61. Which of the following reaction is endothermic ?
1) CaCO3  CaO + CO2 2) Fe + S  FeS
3) NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O 4) CH4 + 2O2  CO2 + 2H2O
62. What of the following equations represents a reaction that provides the enthalpy of formation of
CH3Cl ?
1) C(s) + HCl(g) + H2(g)  CH3Cl(g) 2) C(s) + 3H(g) + Cl(g)  CH3Cl(g)
3) C(s) + 3/2H2(g) + 1/2Cl2(g)  CH3Cl(g) 4) CH4(g) + Cl2(g)  CH3Cl(g) + HCl(g)
63. Given :
C(diamond) + O2  CO2 ; H = – 395 kJ
C(graphite) + O2  CO2 ; H = – 393 kJ
The enthalpy of formation of diamond from graphite is
1) + 2.0 kJ 2) – 1.5 kJ 3) – 788 kJ 4) 788 kJ

64. Which of the following value of H f represent that the product is least stable ?
1) – 94.0 kcalmol–1 2) – 231.6 kcalmol–1 3) + 21.4 kcalmol–1 4) + 64.8 kcalmol–1
65. The enthalpy change for the following reaction is 368 kJ. Calculate the average O – F bond
energy.
OF2(g)  O(g) + 2F(g)
1) 184 kJ / mol 2) 368 kJ / mol 3) 536 kJ /mol 4) 736 kJ / mol
66. Calculate P  Cl bond enthalpy
Given :  f H ( PCl3 , g )  306kJ / mol ; H atomization ( P, s )  314kJ / mol ;
 f H (Cl , g )  121kJ / mol ;
1) 123.66 kJ/mol 2) 371 kJ / mol 3) 19 kJ /mol 4) None of these

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 M1 - MPL STATEWIDE WEEKEND TEST - 01

67. A system absorbs 20 kJ heat and also does 10 kJ of work. The net internal energy of the system
1) Increases by 10 kJ 2) Decreases by 10 kJ 3) Increases by 30 kJ 4) Decreases by 30 kJ
68. An ice cube at 0.00°C is placed in 200 g of distilled water at 25°C. The final temperature after
the ice is completely melted is 5°C. What is the mass of the ice cube ?
(H fus  340 J g 1 , C p  4.18J g 1 C 1 )
1) 23.6 g 2) 46.3 g 3) 50.0 g 4) 800 g
69. The formation of water from H2(g) and O2(g) is an exothermic process because :
1) The chemical energy of H2(g) and O2(g) is more than that of water
2) The chemical energy of H2(g) and O2(g) is less than that of water
3) The temperature of H2(g) and O2(g) is higher than that of water
4) The temperature of H2(g) and O2(g) is lower than that of water
70. Reaction, H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI ; H = 12.40 kcal . According to this, heat of formation of HI
will be
1) 12.40 kcal 2) – 12.4 kcal 3) – 6.20 kcal 4) 6.20 kcal
15
71. O2 ( g )  6CO2 ( g )  3H 2O(l ); H  3264.4kJ mol 1
According to the equation, C6 H 6 (l ) 
2
the energy evolved when 7.8 g benzene is burnt in air will be :
1) 163.22 kJ 2) 32.64 kJ 3) 3.264 kJ 4) 326.4 kJ
72. The heat of combustion of C(graphite) is – 393.5 kJ mol–1. The heat of formation of CO2 from
graphite is _________ kJ mol–1.
1) 393.5 2) – 393.5 3) – 787.0 4) 787.0
73. Standard heats of formation for CCl4, H2O, CO2 and HCl at 298 K are – 25.5, – 57.8, – 94.1 and
– 22.1 kJ/ mol respectively. For the reaction, CCl4 + 2H2O  CO2 + 4HCl what will be H ?
1) 36.4 kJ 2) 20.7 kJ 3) – 20.7 kJ 4) – 41.4 kJ
74. An adiabatic process is one in which :
1) The system is not closed to energy transfer
2) The system is not closed to heat transfer
3) There is no enthalpy change
4) There is no change in mass of the system
75. In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible when :
1) Surroundings and system change into each other
2) There is no boundary between system and surroundings
3) The surroundings are always in equilirium with the system
4) The system changes into the surroundings spontaneously
76. Standard enthalpies of formation of O3, CO2, NH3 and HI are 142.2, – 393.2, – 46.2 and + 25.9
kJ mol–1 respectively. The order of their increasing stabilities will be :
1) O3, CO2, NH3, HI 2) CO2, NH3, HI, O3 3) O3, HI, NH3, CO2 4) NH3, HI, CO2, O3
77. In C2H4, energies of formation of (C = C) and (C – C) are – 145 kJ / mol and – 80 kJ /mol
respectivley. What is the enthalpy change when ethylene polymerises to form polythene ?
1) + 650 kJ / mol 2) + 65 kJ / mol 3) – 650 kJ mol–1 4) – 65 kJ mol–1
1
78. A gas expands adiabatically at constant pressure such that : T 
V
The value of  , i.e., (CP / CV) of the gas will be :
1) 1.30 2) 1.50 3) 1.70 4) 2

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79. 4.48 L of an ideal gas at STP requires 12 cal to raise the temperature by 15°C at constant volume.
The CP of the gas is _________ cal.
1) 3 2) 2 3) 6 4) 5
80. For the reaciton, N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g). Heat of reaction at constant volume exceeds the
heat of reaction at constant pressure by the value of xRT. The value of x is
1) 2 2) 1 3) 3 4) zero
81. The enthalpy is maximum for
1) 10 gms of water 2) 10 gms of ice 3) 10 gms of steam 4) Same for all
82. If a gas absorbs 200 J of heat and expands by 500 cm3 against a constant pressure of 2 × 105Nm–2
then change in internal energy is
1) 23.92 Cal 2) – 100 J 3) + 100 J 4) + 300 J
83. An ideal gas occuping a volumeof 2 dm3 and a pressure of 5 bar undergoes isothermal and
irreversible expansion against external pressure of 1 bar. The final volume of the system and the
work involved in the process is
1) 10 dm3, 1000 J 2) 8 dm3, – 800 J 3) 10 dm3, – 800 J 4) 10 m3, – 1000 J
84. The difference in H and E for the reaction BaCl2(aq) + K2SO4(aq)  BaSO4(s) + 2KCl(aq)
is
1) RT 2) 2RT 3) Zero 4) Can’t predicted
1
85. Given that S8 (s )  602 ( g )  4SO3 ( g ); H   1590kJ . The standard enthalpy of formation of
2
SO3 is
1) – 1590 KJ mol–1 2) – 397.5 KJ mol–1 3) –3.975 KJ mol–1 4) + 397.5 KJ mol–1
86. The standard enthalpies of formation of H2O2(l) and H2O(l) are –187.8K.J. mole–1 and – 285.8
K.J.mole–1 respectively. The H  for the decomposition of one mole of H2O2(l) to H2O(l) and O2(g)
is
1) – 473.6 K.J.mole–1 2) – 98.0 K.J.mole–1 3) + 473.6 K.J.mole–1 4) +187.8 K.J.mole–1
87. The lattice energy of solid NaCl is 180 K.Cal per mol. The dissolution of the solid in water in the
form of ions is endothermic to the extent of 1K.Cal per mol. If the solvation energyies of
Na+ and Cl– ions are in ratio 6 : 5, what is the enthalpy of hydration of sodium ion ?
1) – 85.6K.Cal/mol 2) – 97.5K.Cal/mol 3) 82.6K.Cal/mol 4) + 100K.Cal/mol
88. An intimate mixture of ferric oxide and aluminium is used as solid fuel in rockets. Find the fuel
value per cm3 of the mxture. Heat of formation and densities are as follows.
 f H Al2O3  399Kcal mole1 ,  f H Fe2 O3  199 Kcal mole1
density of A1 = 2.7 gm/cm3, density of Fe2O3 = 5.2gr/CC
1) 5.3 Kcal 2) 3.92 Kcal 3) 4.2 Kcal 4) 7 Kcal

89. 2 H 2( g )  2Cl2( g )  4 HCl( g ) , H   92.3k . J

i) If the equation is reversed, the H  value equal to + 92.3K.J
ii) The f our H – Cl bonds are stronger than the four bonds in 2H2 and 2Cl2
iii) The H  value will be – 92.3 k.J if the HCl is produced as a liquid
1) All are correct 2) i only correct 3) i and ii are correct 4) iii only correct
90. The enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is – 119.5 kJ mole–1. If resonance energy of
benzene is – 150.4KJ mol–1, its enthalpy of hydrogenation would be
1) – 269.9 KJ mol–1 2) – 358.5 KJ mol–1 3) – 508.4 KJ mol–1 4) – 208.1 KJ mol–1

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BOTANY
91. The phenotype of an individual may be affected if the modified allele produces
a) No enzyme at all b) The normal/less efficient enzyme
c) A non-functional enzyme
1) Only (a) is correct 2) (a) and (c) are correct
3) (b) and (c) are correct 4) Only (c) is correct
92. In garden pea, starch is synthesised effectively (or) having high starch in
1) Heterozygous round seeded plants 2) Homozygous round seeded plants
3) Wrinkled seeded plants 4) Pure and hybrid round seeded plants
93. Mendel published his work on inheritance of characters in 1865 but it remained unrecognised
till 1900 because
a) He could not provide any physical proof for the existence of factors
b) His concept of factors as stable, discrete units that controlled the expression of traits did not
find acceptance from the contemporaries
c) Mendel’s approach of using mathematics to explain biological phenomena was totally old
d) Communication was not easy (as it is now)
1) a, b and c are correct 2) c and d are correct
3) a, b and d are correct 4) Only a is correct
94. When a red flowered Antirrhinum plant is test crossed, then phenotypic ratio in resulting progenies is
1) All red 2) All white 3) All pink 4) Red : 1 white
95. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same
as 1 : 2 : 1. It represents a case of
1) Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
2) Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
3) Test cross 4) Back cross
96. If two pea plants having red (dominant) coloured flowers with unknown genotypes are crossed,
75% of the flowers are red and 25% are white. The genotypic constitution of the parents having
red coloured flowers will be
1) Both homozygous 2) One homozygous and other heterozygous
3) Both heterozygous 4) Both hemizygous
97. Mendel’s principle of segregation means that the germ cells always receive
1) One pair of alleles 2) One quarter of the genes
3) One of the paired alleles 4) Any pair of alleles
98. According to Mendelism, which character shows dominance ?
1) Terminal position of flower 2) Green colour in seed coat
3) Wrinkled seeds 4) Green pod colour
99. The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are now known to be located
on how many different chromosomes ?
1) Seven 2) Six 3) Five 4) Four
100. Genotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1 in lentil plant explains
1) Incomplete dominance 2) Co dominance
3) Monohybrid cross F2 generation 4) All the above
101. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is
crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you
expect in their progenies ?
1) 9 : 1 2) 1 : 3 3) 3 : 1 4) 50 : 50
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102. In maize starchy seed character is dominant over sugary character. Starchy seeds are smooth,
sugary seeds are shrunken. What happens when these 2 varieties are crossed provided both these
characters are controlled by the same gene
1) All the members will have same seeds
2) Shrunken and smooth are produced in equal proportions.
3) Smooth and shrunken are produced in the ratio of 3 : 1
4) Smooth starchy, smooth sugary, shrunken starchy and shrunken sugary are produced in the ratio
of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
103. How many different kinds of gametes are produced by the F1 offspring from a cross between a
pure strain of plants with yellow peas and a pure strain of plants with green peas ?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 8
104. Study the following columns and identity the correct
Column - I Column - II
A) Monohybrid cross p) T and t
B) Test cross q) TT
C) Alleles r) TT × Tt
D) Homozygous tall s) tt
t) Tt × tt
1) A = r, B = p; C = t, D = q 2) A = r, B = t; C = p, D = q
3) A = r, B = t; C = s, D = q 4) A = t, B = r; C = q, D = s
105. A pure tall pea plant was reared in soil poor in the nutrition and reached size of a pure dwarf pea
plant. If this plant is selfed, then the genotype in the F1 generation is most likely to be
1) All tall 2) 50% tall ; 50% dwarf
3) All dwarf 4) Not possible to predict
106. In a monohybrid back cross of F1 grey seeded plants with dominant grey seeded parent, in the
resultant progeny
I) All the plants are phenotypically grey seed coated
II) Genotypically 50% homozygous grey and 50% heterozygous grey seed coated plants
III) All the plants are phenotypically white seed coated
IV) 50% progeny are with homozygous white seed coated and 50% progeny are with homozygous
white seed coated
1) I and II correct 2) II and III correct 3) I and IV correct 4) I and II incorrect
107. In terms of probability. 1/2 obtained in the selfing of a F1 monohybrid, indicates
I) Probability of a gamete with ‘T’ allele
II) Probability of a gamete with ‘t’ allete
III) Probability of an individual with ‘TT’ genotype
IV) Probabililty of an individual with ‘tt’ genotype
1) I and II only 2) II and III only 3) I, III and IV 4) II, IV and III
108. As per the theory of probability what is the possible combinations of gametes produced by F1
parents ?

I) t + and t II) and t III) IV) t and

+T T + and T
+ T

1) I, II 2) II, III 3) I, II, III 4) I, II, III, IV

109. The probability 3/4 obtained in monohybrid cross F2 include
I) Individual with RR genotype II) Individual with rr genotype
III) Individual with Rr genotype
1) I and II 2) I and III 3) II alone 4) I, II and III

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110. Study the following lists with respect to monohybrid cross

List - I List - II
A) 1/2 I) 1/4
B) 1/4 II) Probability of dominant phenotype
C) 3/4 III) Probability of heterozygous tall
D) Probability of T + and T IV) Probability of homozygous dwarf
V) 3/4
The correct match is
A B C D A B C D
1) III IV V II 2) III V IV II
3) III IV II I 4) III V IV I
111. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by
1) Morgan 2) Mendel 3) Sutton and Boveri 4) Hugo de vries
112. Identify correct statement from the following
1) Drosophila cannot be reared easily
2) Male fly is larger than female
3) Single mating produced hundreds of offspring
4) It is 2 cm in size
113. This is incorrect regarding Dihybrid cross.
1) Gametes formed from F1 each with a frequency of 25 percent
2) Total number of genotypes in F2 generation is four (4)
3) Total number of phenotypes in F2 generation – 4
6
4) Total number of recombinents in F2 generation
16
114. Correct statement regarding the chromosome theory of inheritance
I) Behaviour of chromosomes was parallel to the behaviour of genes
II) The two alleles of a genes pair are located on homologous sites on homologous chromosomes
III) Separation of two chromosome pairs at metaphase plate independently of each other in Anaphase I
1) I and III 2) II and III 3) I and III 4) I, II, III
115. What is the phenotypic ratio regarding seed colour and starch grain size in F2 generation of pea
plant ? (The parental cross is YYBB x yybb)
1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 2) 12 : 3 : 1 3) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1 4) 9 : 6 : 1
116. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was provided by
1) T.H. Morgan et.al., 2) Sutton and Boveri 3) Bateson and Punnet 4) Muller and Stadler
117. A male plant having the genotype AABbCcDD can produce ‘X’ number of genetically different
sperms and a female plant of genotype EeFFGgHh can generate ‘Y’ number of genetically
different eggs. Determine the values of X and Y.
1) X = 4, Y = 8 2) X = 8, Y = 8 3) X = 8, Y = 4 4) X = 4, Y = 4
118. On selfing of RrYy, we produce 400 plants. Find out number of plants with genotypes RrYy.
1) 50 2) 100 3) 225 4) 300
119. In which of the following crosses both phenotypic and genotypic ratios are same
1) Aa bb × AA Bb 2) Aa Bb × aa bb 3) aa bb × AA Bb 4) Aa Bb × Aa Bb
120. The progeny expected from a cross between YyRR and yyRr is
1) 1 YyRR : 1 yyRR 2) 1 YyRR : 1 yyRR : 1 YyRr : 1 yyRr
3) 3 YyRR : 1 yyRR 4) 9 YyRr : 3 Yyrr : 3 Yyrr : 1 yyrr.

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ZOOLOGY
121. Which of the following are correct pertaining to the somatic neural system
a) it controls voluntary actions b) it is a component of PNS
c) it relays impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles
1) a, b only 2) b, c only 3) a only 4) a, b, c
122. Statement I : When a neuron is not conducting any impulse, i.e. resting, the axoplasm inside the
axon contains high concentration of K+ and negatively charged proteins and low concentration of Na+
Statement II : In resting, the axonal membrane is comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions
and nearly impermeable to K+ ions. Similarly, the membrane is impermeable to negatively charged
proteins present in axoplasm
1) Statement I is only incorrect 2) Statement II is only correct
3) Statement II is only incorrect 4) Both Statements I and II correct
123. During nerve impulse conduction, current flows

1) From site A to site B on the inner surface 2) From site B to site A on the outer surface
3) A to B on both sides 4) Both 1 and 2 are correct
124. Choose the incorrect option related to Electrical synapse in the following
1) At electrical synapses ,the membranes of pre and post synaptic neurons are in very close proximity
2) Electrical synapses are rare in our system.
3) Transmission of an impulse across electrical synapse is similar to impulse conduction along a
single axon.
4) Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is always slower than that across a chemical
synapse.
125. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the resting membrane potential (at the site of excitation)
is restored by
1) influx of Na+ 2) efflux of K+ 3) efflux of Na+ 4) influx of K+
126. The binding of the neurotransmitter with the receptors open ion channels allowing the entry of
ions which can generate a new potential in the
1) Pre-synaptic membrane of axon 2) Post-synaptic membrane of dendrite
3) Synaptic cleft 4) Synaptic vesicles
127. Na+ – K + pump –
A) Transports 3Na+ inwards & 2K+ outwards B) Maintain ionic gradiens by inactive transport
C) Works against a concentration gradient. D)Transports 2Na+ out wards & 3K+ inwards
How many of above statements are false?
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
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128. On the basis of following given diagram, select correct option

Synapse comprises –

1) B, D and E

2) A, C and D

3) B, C and E

4) C, D and E

129. Peripheral neural system consists of

1) Brain + Spinal cord + Somatic neural system
2) Somatic neural system + Autonomic neural system
3) Spinal cord + Somatic neural system + Autonomic neural system
4) Spinal cord + Somatic neural system
130. Identify the incorrect statement
1) Durmater meninge is closer to cranium 2) Cerebral cortex is made up of grey matter
3) Midbrain and hindbrain constitute brainstem 4) Thalamus is covered by cerebellum
131. Identify the incorrect statement
i) Sclera is composed of loose connective tissue
ii) Cornea contains many blood vessels
iii) Thickness of choroid layer is uniform throughout the eye ball
iv) Choroid layer posteriorly forms ciliary body
1) i and ii 2) ii and iv 3) ii, iii and iv 4) All of these
132. Corpora quadrigemina is found in …….portion of ……..
1) Ventral, Forebrain 2) Ventral, Midbrain 3) Dorsal, Forebrain 4) Dorsal, Midbrain
133. Select the incorrect statement:
1) Cerebellum is very much convoluted for more accommodation of neurons
2) Medulla is centre for respiration
3) Limbic system is involved in expression of emotional reactions and motivation
4) Afferent neuron ends at effector organ
134. At the posterior pole of eye latter to blind spot, there is a yellowish pigmented spot called ______
with a central pit called _______.
1) Corpus luteum, Fovea 2) Optic disc, Fovea
3) Macula lutea, Fovea 4) Macula, Columella
135. The Fore brain consists of, except
1) Part of control centres for cardiovascular reflexes.
2) Part of control centers for body temperature, urge for eating and drinking.
3) Part of major co-ordinating centers for sensory and motor signaling.
4) Part of regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of emotional reactions.
136. Which part consistitutes the major part of the human brain ?
1) Colossal commissure present part of the brain
2) Corpora quadrigemina present part of the brain
3) Medulla oblongata present part of the brain
4) Cerebral aqueduct present part of the brain
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137. Which of the following statement is correct about spiral cord and brain respectively
1) In brain outer matter is grey, inner matter is white and in spinal cord outer matter is white,
inner matter is Grey
2) In spinal cord outer grey matter, inner whiter matter and in brain outer grey matter, inner
white matter
3) In spinal cord inner grey matter, outer white matter and in brain outer grey matter, inner
white matter
4) In spinal cord inner grey matter, outer white matter and in spinal cord outer grey matter, inner
white matter.
138. A) Excitement B) Pleasure C) Rage D) Fear
E) Motivation F) Gastric seactions
Above how many options are related to the limbic lobe along with the Hypothalamus
1) All except A and E 2) All except A, B and F
3) All except A, B, C and D 4) All except only F
Impulses
139. Central neural system 
  Viscera (NCERT)

In which peripheral neural system involve transmition of impulses about above equation
1) Autonomic Neural system 2) Somatic Neural system
3) Sympathetic neural system 4) Visceral neural system
140. Which among the following is not a part of a system that regulate sexual behaviour, excitement,
pleasure, rage, etc
1) Amygdala 2) Pons varoli 3) Hypothalamus 4) Hippocampal lobe
141. If the corpus callosum is hypothetically removed from mammalian brain then what will be
affected ?
1) Coordination of cerebral hemispheres 2) Involuntary activity of brain
3) Coordination of cerebellum 4) Behaviour and emotional disturbances
142. A person has blue eyes, It means
1) his retina is blue coloured 2) his choroid reflects blue light
3) iris is blue colour 4) eyelashes are blue coloured
143. Go through the following diagram
I) Carries nerve signals to the brain
II) Regulates the size of the pupil to let more or less light into the eyes
III) Changes the shape of the lens
IV) Thinned out portion of the retina-visual acuity is the greatest
The correct match of the above functions with parts of the eye indicated by letters is

1) I - B, II - D, III - F, I V - H 2) I - J, II - G, III - F, IV - C
3) I - A, II - C, III - E, IV - G 4) I - G, II - D, III - C, IV - E

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144. Arrange the following events of an action potential in a proper sequence.

R. Repolarisation Q. influx of Na+ S. Efflux of K+ P. Depolarisation
1) S, P, Q, R 2) Q, R, S, P 3) Q, P, S, R 4) Q, S, P, R
145. Consider the following statements.
Q : Neural organisation is very simple in lower invertebrates
Y : Neural stystem is better organised in insects due to the presence of brain, ganglion and
neural tissues.
Select the correct option.
1) Q and Y are incorrect 2) Y and Q are correct
3) Q is false and Y is true 4) Y is false and Q is true
146. Mathc the following columns.
Column - I Column - II
A) CNS 1) From tissue / organ to CNS
B) PNS 2) from CNS to tissue / organ
C) Afferent fibres 3) Comprises of brain and spinal cord
D) Efferent fibres 4) Comprises of nerves of body
A B C D A B C D
1) 1 2 3 4 2) 1 2 4 3
3) 2 3 4 1 4) 3 4 1 3
147. Synaptic knob is bulb-like structure which is present ____ and which contains chemicals _____,
1) at the end of axon terminal, Neurotransmitters
2) at the node of Ranver, Neurotransmitters
3) at the end of dendrites, Neurotransmitters
4) at the end of axon terminal, Na+ + K+ ions.
148. Assertion : The sence of olfaction is concerned with limbic system.
Reason : Olfactory bulb is a part of cerebrum
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
2) Both Assertion and REason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
149. In a reflex arc, what is the role of an interneuron ?
1) It relays impulse to effector at motor end plate
2) It transmits impulse from the white matter to grey matter of spinal cord
3) It receives imulse from afferent neuron and transmits it to motor neuron
4) It connects two dorsal root ganglions
150. What is the correct description about iris ?
1) Nonvascular, opaque portion of eye
2) Pigmented, opaque and vascular structure of eye
3) Nonvascular, visible coloured portion of eye
4) Vascular, non-pigmented posterior most portion of eye.

MATHEMATICS
151. The exponent of 2 in the prime factorisation of 144, is
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 3
152. The sum of the exponents of the prime factors in the prime factorisation of 196, is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 7

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23
153. The number of decimal places after which the decimal expansion of the rational number 3
2 5
will terminate, is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
154. If two positive integers a and b are expressible in the form a = pq2 and b = p3q ; p, q being prime
numbers, then LCM(a, b) is
1) pq 2) p3q3 3) p3q2 4) p2q2
155. The HCF of 95 and 152, is
1) 57 2) 1 3) 19 4) 38

31
156. The decimal expansion of will be
2  52
3

1) Terminating 2) Non-terminating
3) Non-terminating and repeating 4) Non-terminating and non-repeating
157. The total number of factors of a prime numbers is
1) 1 2) 0 3) 2 4) 3

158. If a  22  3, b  2  3  5, c  3n  5 and LCM (a,b,c) = 22 × 32× 5, then n =

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
159. 3.27 is
1) an integer 2) a rational number 3) a natural number 4) an irrational number

160. 17  11 is
1) a natural number 2) a rational number 3) an integer 4) an irrational number

2 23
161. If a  , then a is
25
1) Rational 2) Irrational 3) Whole number 4) Integer
162. If the LCM of two prime numbers p and q (p > q) is 221 then the value of 3p – q is
1) 4 2) 28 3) 38 4) 48
163. The smallest number by which 27 should be multiplied so as to get a rational number is
1) 27 2) 3 3 3) 3 4) 3
164. If (a × 5)n ends with the digit zero for every natural number n, then a is
1) any natural number 2) an even number 3) an odd number 4) none of these
165. If A  B, then ( A  B )  B =
1) B 2)  3) A – B 4) B – A
166. Two non empty sets A and B have same number of elements then the sets are
1) Equal sets 2) Equivalent sets 3) Disjoint sets 4) Void sets
167. If A = {a, b, c, d, e}, then the number of subsets for A is
1) 5 2) 6 3) 16 4) 32
168. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and B = {5, 6, 7}, then A – B =
1) {4, 5} 2) {6, 7} 3) {1, 2, 3} 4) {1, 2, 3, 4}
169. If A  B and B  C , then A  ( B  C ) 
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) 

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170. If A  {x / x  N , 2  x  8}, then A =

1) {1, 3, 4} 2) {2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8} 3) {2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} 4) {3, 4, 5}
171. Among the following, an empty set is
1) {0} 2)  3) {  } 4) A (or) B

172. If A  B   , then the sets A, B are

1) Equal sets 2) Subsets 3) Disjoint sets 4) Equivalent sets
173. If A  B, n( A)  4 and n(B) = 8 then n( A  B ) 
[Where n(A) means number of elements in set A)
1) 10 2) 6 3) 8 4) 2
174. If n(A) = 10 and n( A  B )  5, then n(A – B) =
[Where n(A) means number of elements in set A)
1) 4 2) 7 3) 17 4) 5
175. The following Venn diagram indicates
µ
B
A

1) A  B 2) B  A
3) A, B are disjoint set 4) µ  B
176. {x : x is a prime number and a divisor of 12 } =
1) {1, 2, 3, 6} 2) {1, 2, 3 } 3) {2, 3} 4) {2, 3, 6}
177. The value of log 2 128 is
1) – 6 2) 12 3) 14 4) 8
178. If log103 = 0.4771, then the value of log10 15 + log10 20 =
1) 47.74 2) 2.4771 3) 4.77 4) 0.4771
179. If x2 + y2 = 8xy, then 2 log(x + y) =
1) log x + log y + 3 log 2 2) log x + log y + log 2 + log 5
3) log x + log y + log 2 4) log x + log y + 6 log 2
180. Log10 125 + log108 =
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) None.

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