0104 Enthusiast All Star Batch Score(Advanced) Paper-2 (E) JA

(1001CJA106216230176) )1001CJA106216230176) Test Pattern
English
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE(Advanced)

FULL SYLLABUS
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024) 01-04-2024
JEE(Main+Advanced) : ENTHUSIAST COURSE ALL STAR BATCH (SCORE ADVANCED)
Time : 3 Hours PAPER-2 (OPTIONAL) Maximum Marks : 264
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

GENERAL :
1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told
to do so.
2. Use the Optical Response sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.
3. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

4. Write your name, form number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this
booklet.
5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains 28 pages and
that all the 22 questions in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not,
contact the invigilator for replacement of the booklet.
6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.
OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :
7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.
9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose
on the ORS. Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken
the appropriate bubble under each digit of your form number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :
10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.
11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :
13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct
way.
14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase
or "un-darken" a darkened bubble.
15. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.
QUESTION PAPER FORMAT :
16. The question paper has three parts : Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
Please see the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/01-04-2024/Paper-2
ALLENâ
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS
Atomic No. : H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16,
Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140
· Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

1
· Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×10 9
4 pe0
· Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m 2 kg–2
· Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
· Stefan–Boltzmann constant s = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2 –K–4
· Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
· Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4p × 10–7 NA–2
1
· Permittivity of vacuum Î0 =
m0 c2
· Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s
Space for Rough Work
E-2/28 1001CJA106216230176
Enthusiast Course/All Star Batch/Score Advanced/01-04-2024/Paper-2
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I(i) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
1. A large wooden plate of area 10 m2 floating on the surface of a river is made to move horizontally with a
speed of 2 m/s by applying a tangential force. River is 1 m deep and the water in contact with the bed is
stationary. Then choose correct statement(s). (Coefficient of viscosity of water = 10 –3 N-s/m)
(A) velocity gradient is 2s –1
(B) velocity gradient is 1s –1
(C) force required to keep the plate moving with constant speed is 0.02 N
(D) force required to keep the plate moving with constant speed is 0.01 N
2. A ladder AB is supported by a smooth vertical wall and sufficient rough horizontal floor as shown.
A boy starts moving from A to B slowly. The ladder remains at rest, the pick up the correct statement(s) :
(A) Magnitude of normal reaction by wall on ladder at point B will increase.

(B) Magnitude of normal reaction by wall on ladder at point A will decrease
(C) Magnitude of normal reaction by floor on ladder at point A will remain unchanged.
(D) Magnitude of friction force by floor on ladder at point A will increase
1001CJA106216230176 E-3/28
3. In which of the following cases will an erect image be formed
(A) An object between pole and focus of a concave mirror
(B) An object between pole and object focus of a converging lens
(C) An object in front of a plane mirror
(D) An object between object focus of a converging lens and infinity
4. An orbital electron in a particular state of hydrogen has the radius R. This orbital electron is excited to
another state by some energy transfer to the hydrogen atom so that its radius is now 9R. Then
(A) Its energy is now one ninth of the original energy
(B) Its velocity is now one third of the original velocity
(C) Its angular momentum is three times the original angular momentum
(D) It will come to the original state by emitting maximum of 2 photons
5. A straight conducting bar AB of mass m and length l is suspended horizontal by two identical
non-conducting springs of spring constant k as shown in the figure. The bar is located in a region of uniform
magnetic field of intensity B. The capacitor C is initially charged to the potential V. Springs are in
equilibrium position with zero potential energy. At time t = 0, the switch S is closed and capacitor discharge.
The bar starts oscillating in the vertical plane. (Assume that the time of discharge of the capacitor is much
smaller than the time period of mechanical oscillation of the bar. Neglect the effect of gravity). Choose the
correct statement(s).
(A) The maximum speed of bar during oscillation is BlCV

3m
BlCV
(B) The maximum speed of bar during oscillation is
m
B2 l2 C 2 V 2
(C) The amplitude of mechanical oscillation of bar is √
2mk
B2 l2 C 2 V 2
(D) The amplitude of mechanical oscillation of bar is √
mk
E-4/28 1001CJA106216230176
6. In three experiments, a material A at a particular low temperature TC and a material B at a particular
high temperature TH are placed in an isolated and insulated container. When they reach thermal
equilibrium with each other (No phase change occurs), their final temperature Tf is measured. The
masses mA & mB and specific heats CA & CB of the materials are given in the table. Assume that heat
transferred is Q in the experiment.
Experiment mA CA mB CB
1 m c m c
2 m c 2m c
3 m 2c m c
Then which of the following is correct

(A) (Tf)1 > (Tf)2 > (Tf)3
(B) Q2 > Q1 > Q3
(C) Q1 > Q2 > Q3
(D) (Tf)2 > (Tf)1 > (Tf)3
1001CJA106216230176 E-5/28
SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains THREE paragraphs.
Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions
Each question has Four options (A), (B), (C) and (D) ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is(are) correct.
Paragraph for Questions 7 and 8

3kT
In a gas where rms thermal speed is ν t (
√
) , coulomb force will ensure that two nuclei each with
m
charge q, cannot approach each other any closer than the distance of closest approach rm. The value of
rm is the distance at which their kinetic energy is completely converted to potential energy. Separation
between two hydrogen nuclei in core of the sun cannot be small enough to allow fusion to occur.
Known temperature that exists in the sun’s core, coulomb force will cause the nuclei to remain at
distance from each other equal to 100-1000 (or more) of nuclear radii ≃ 10−15 m . So according to
( )
classical physics proton fusion reaction should not occur in sun. But if we consider quantum nature of
nuclei, quantum-mechanical tunneling allows the protons to go under the coulomb barrier with a good
probability. Bridging criteria for fusion was found to be λ = h ⩽ rm where λ is the de Broglie
mνt
wavelength of moving proton when it is at large distance from the other proton. Wherever this equation
is satisfied, two nuclei can approach each other arbitrarily closely so that nuclear force can lead
to fusion. We find that the rms thermal speed in core of star must exceed a critical value for fusion to
occur.
7. According to classical physics temperature(s) of sun core which allows the fusion.
(A) 1010 K
(B) 1011 K
(C) 107 K
(D) 106 K
8. On considering quantum effects the core temperature(s) of sun which allows the fusion.
(A) 104 K
(B) 105 K
(C) 108 K
(D) 107 K
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A student constructs a series RLC circuit. While operating the circuit with an ideal source of 60 Volt
emf at a frequency f0 . She uses an ideal A.C. voltmeter and ideal A.C. ammeter to measure the
potential difference across each device and current in circuit. The potential difference across resistor,
inductor coil and capacitor is obtained as 24.00, 37.94V and 84.00V respectively. Net impedance of
circuit at this frequency is 50 Ω .
9. Select correct option(s)
(A) Reading of ammeter is 1.2 A
(B) Reading of ammeter is 1.5 A
(C) The combined potential difference across inductor coil and capacitor will be 49.47V
(D) The combined potential difference across inductor coil and capacitor will be 51.52V
10. Select the correct option(s)
(A) Power factor of circuit is 0.8
(B) Power factor of circuit is 0.6
7
(C) resonance frequency of RLC circuit is √
f0
3
5
(D) resonance frequency of RLC circuit is √
f0
3
1001CJA106216230176 E-7/28

In a hydrogen atom, the electron revolves around the nucleus (proton) in circular path. In addition, then
electron also spins about it’s own axis. Due to this spin, electron has a magnetic dipole moment ( →μ ) in
direction opposite to it’s spin angular momentum →S . As seen from the frame of electron, the electron
( )
itself is only spinning, but the proton is moving around it in a circular path with the same speed and
radius as electron in ground frame. This motion of proton around electron produces a magnetic field B→ . ( )
This magnetic field and magnetic dipole moment of electron have a mutual potential energy. If orbital
angular momentum L→ of electron and it’s spin angular momentum →S are parallel, the potential
( ) ( )
energy is different from the case when they are anti parallel.
11. Choose the correct statement(s)
(A) If L→ and →S are parallel, →μ is parallel to B→
(B) If L→ and →S are parallel, →μ is anti parallel B→
(C) If L→ and →S are anti parallel, →μ is parallel to B→
(D) If L→ and →S are anti parallel, →μ is anti parallel to B→
12. Assuming Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom is valid. Select the correct option(s).
(A) the potential energy difference referred to in paragraph is inversely proportional to n3
(B) the potential energy difference referred to in paragraph is inversely proportional to n5
(C) the potential energy of parallel L→ and →S is more than potential energy of anti parallel L→ and →S case
(D) the potential energy of parallel L→ and →S case is less than potential energy of anti parallel → and
L
→S case
Note : No questions have been asked in the section II of this paper. Please leave section II
blank on the OMR answer sheet.
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SECTION-III : (Maximum Marks: 40)
This section contains TEN (10) questions.
The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive.
For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct answer is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If no answer is given.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
1. A solid right circular cone has its base cut out in conical shape shown in figure such that the hollow is a
right circular cone on the same base. C.M. of the object coincide with the vertex of the hollow cone.
Height of solid cone/height of hollow cone will be
2. A satellite is put in an orbit just above the earth’s surface with a velocity 1.5 time the velocity for a
√
circular orbit. The maximum distance of the satellite from the center of earth is nP where R is radius of
earth. Find n
3. In a uniform gravitational field g, which is acting vertically downward, a ball is thrown at an angle with
horizontal such that the initial (immediately after projection) radius of curvature is 8 times the minimum
radius of curvature. If angle of projection is 10x degree, find the value of x.
4. What should be the value of resistance R (in Ω ) in the circuit shown in figure so that the electric body
consumes the rated power?
1001CJA106216230176 E-9/28
5. When an object is placed at a distance of 25 cm from a mirror, the magnification of real image formed
is m1 . The object is moved 15cm away from the mirror with respect to the earlier position along
principal axis, magnification of real image formed becomes m2. If m1 × m2 = 4, find the power of
mirror in diopter.
6. Two identical hoop of same mass is rigidly attached at their circumference as shown. Now the system is
hinged from point ‘P’ such that it can oscillate. Let 'T1' is the period of oscillation, if system is slightly
displaced from its equilibrium position and oscillation occurs in xy plane. Now system is turned through
90° such that plane of hoop is yz plane. Let 'T2' is the period of oscillation, if system is again
slightly displaced from its equilibrium position and oscillation occurs again in xy plane. If the ratio of
T1 36
period of oscillation ( ) is √ . Then find the value of λ .
T2 11 λ
7. Two infinitely long wires are placed perpendicular to the plane of paper. Current in wire A is 4i0 outward
+∞ →
the plane of paper and current in ‘B’ is i0 inward the plane of paper. The ∫
→ dl
B. along the QP is
−∞
K
μ 0 i0 . Find the value of K.
2
E-10/28 1001CJA106216230176
8. Two charge particles are fixed at P1 and P2 separated by a distance 9 m. Find position (in meter) on the
line P1P2 from P1 where electric field is zero (null point).
9. Intensity observed in an interference pattern is I = I0 sin2 θ . At θ = 30°, intensity I = 5 ± 0.0020 W/m2.

If I0 = 20 W/m2 and percentage error in angle θ is n 3 × 10−2 %, then the value of n is.
√
π
10. A uniform disc of radius r and mass m is charged uniformly with the charge q. This disc is placed flat on
a rough horizontal surface having coefficient of friction µ. A uniform magnetic field is present in a
circular region (a > r) but varying as kt3 as shown in figure. Find the time in second after which the disc
begins to rotate.
(Given r = 1 m, m = 18 kg, q = 1C, µ = 0.1m, K = 4, g = 10 m/s2)
1001CJA106216230176 E-11/28
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
1. V1 ml of 3M HCl solution is mixed with V2 ml of 3M H2SO4 to form a solution in which molarity of H+
ions is 5 M, then the value of V1 and V2 may be
(A) 150 ml, 75 ml
(B) 150 ml, 300 ml
(C) 125 ml, 250 ml
(D) 100 ml, 200 ml
2. At high temperature, gaseous compound S4N4 decomposes into nitrogen gas and sulphur vapours. It was
found that 20ml of gaseous compound S4N4 decomposed forming 50ml of total gaseous products. Based
on the above information, which of the following options is/ are correct?
(A) Volume of nitrogen gas formed is 30ml
(B) Volume of sulphur vapours formed is 20ml
(C) formula of sulphur vapours formed is S8
(D) The volume of sulphur vapours obtained at any time would be twice the vapours of
S4N4 decomposed.
E-12/28 1001CJA106216230176
3. Which is/are the resonance structure of methyl isocyanate ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
4. Which of the following product(s) is(are) formed when 1,2,4-trimethylcyclopentene is hydrogenated?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
aq.NO2
−
aq.S − 2
5. P −−−−−→ Q −−−−→ R
brown purple
Choose the correct statement(s)
(A) Number of unpaired electrons in [P] is zero
(B) Oxidation state of central metal atom / ion in [Q] is [+3]
(C) Colour of R arises due to charge transfer
(D) P, Q are capable to show only structural isomerism but R can show stereo isomerism also
6. Which statement(s) is/are true for BX3|X = F, Cl, Br, I|
(A) BF3 reacts faster with lewis base Cl – than BCl3
(B) Rate of hydrolysis of BF3 increases as F is replaced by H2O
(C) π - charge transfer from X to B to increase in the sequence F < Cl < Br < I.
(D) π - bond energy in BX3 follows the order BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3
1001CJA106216230176 E-13/28

Colloids are thermodynamically unstable as it involves creation of surface. Their stability can be
attributed to various kinetic factors, like charge etc. Solvation is also another factor that stabilizes
lyophilic sols.
7. A negatively charged sol is formed when
(A) AgNO3 is treated with excess of KI
(B) SnO2 is treated with NaOH
(C) H2S is passed into As2O3
(D) FeCl3 is added to a fresh precipitate of Fe(OH)3
8. Which of the following are related to lyophobic sols
(A) Viscosity is same as that of the medium
(B) Extensive hydration takes place
(C) Migration of particles under the influence of electric field
(D) Very difficult to detect particles even under ultra-microscope
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An acyclic hydrocarbon P, having molecular formula C6H10, gave acetone as the only organic product
through the following sequence of reaction, in which Q is an intermediate organic compound.
9. The structure of compound P is

(A) CH3CH2CH2CH2 – C ≡ C – H
(B) H3CCH2 – C ≡ C – CH2CH3
(C)
(D)
10. The structure of compound Q is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
1001CJA106216230176 E-15/28

Halogens form many oxides with oxygen but most of them are unstable. Fluorine forms two compounds
OF2 and O2F2 . Chlorine, bromine & Iodine form oxides in which the oxidation states of these halogens
range from +1 to +7. Chlorine oxides are highly reactive oxidising agents.
11. Choose the incorrect statements from the following –
(A) ClO2 has more dimerising tendency than NO2.
(B) In Cl2O7 Skelton O is sp2 hybridized & θ 1 > θ 2, x>y
(C) I2O4 on heating decompose to give I2

(D) OF2 is called fluorine oxide.
12. Which of the following undergoes disproportionation in H2O ?
(A) F2
(B) Cl2
(C) Br2
(D) I2
E-16/28 1001CJA106216230176
answer.
1. The de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in a certain Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom is 9.985A°. What
is the principal quantum number (n) of this orbit?
2. The following graph shows two isotherms for a fixed mass of an ideal gas (x). The r.m.s speed of
molecules of gas (x) at temperature T1 and T2 are C1 and C2 respectively. The value of C2 / C1 is __
3. A 0.001 molal solution of complex Pt(NH3)4 Cl4 in water had a freezing point depression 0.0056°C .
Kf for water is 1.86K kgmole –1. The number of moles of AgNO3 required to react with one mole of the
complex in aqueous solution is
4. Find the total number of possible monobromo products obtained during the reaction
1001CJA106216230176 E-17/28
5. The amount (in moles ) of NaOH required for complete neutralization of one mole of the following
compound is _______
6. How many structures given below from a – e that cannot be a reactant X of the following ozonolysis
sequence?
1. O3
X −−−−−→
2. Me2 S
7. In the given reaction sequence, all possible five and six member lactones are X. Find X – 5
E-18/28 1001CJA106216230176
8. How many of the following statements are correct ?
A) Mg+2 ion form more stable complex with EDTA as compare to Ca+2
B) C60 contains 12-five remembered rings
450−470K
C) Reaction Ni(impure) + 4CO −−−−−−→ Ni(CO)4 −330 −350K
−−−−−→ Ni(pure) + 4CO is used to purify Ni metal
D) Hydration energy of Cu2+ is independent of cfse of Cu2+
E) As (C6H5)3 can form d π – d π bond with transition metal
9. Among the following, how many have only one nodal plane σ 1S, σ 2S, σ *1S, π 2px, π *2py
10. In how many reactions one of the product is obtained as black precipitate?
−2
i) Bi(OH)3 + [ Sn(OH)4 ](aq.) → ii)
H +
dilution
iii) Bi+3
(aq.)
+ H2 S(g) −−
→ iv) [BiI4 ]−1
(aq.) + H2 O −−−−→
v) Bi+3 + −
(aq.) + C9 H7 ON (5%) + H(aq) + I (6M) → vi) Bi+3
(aq.) + C6 H3 (OH)3 (10%) →
vii) BiO. OH + H2 O2(aq.) →
1001CJA106216230176 E-19/28
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
1. Let f: [a, b] → [a, b] (where a < b and are real numbers) be a differentiable non-constant function for
which f(a) = b and f(b) = a. Then
(A) ∃ at least one c ∈ (a, b) such that f(c) = c
(B) ∃ c1 , c2 ∈ (a, b), c1 ≠ c2 such that f ′ (c1).f ′ (c2). = 1

(C) ∃ c ∈ (a, b) such that |f ′ (c)| > 1
(D) ∃ c ∈ (a, b) such that |f ′ (c)| < 1

2. Let A be an n × n Nilpotent Matrix with real entries, then
(A) Ak = 0 for some
(B) I + A is invertible
(C) det (I + A) is constant and independent of elements of A
(D) det (I + A) > 0
E-20/28 1001CJA106216230176
1 1
3. Let f : (0, ∞ ) → , has an anti-derivative g such that f(x).g ( ) = ∀ x > 0 and f(1) = 2 Then
x x
1
(A) ⌊ f( )⌋ = 0
2
(B) ⌊√ f(2) ⌋ = 4
(C) ⌊ f(1) ⌋ = 2
(D) ⌊ f(1) ⌋ = 1
4 9
4. If x, y ∈ (−2, 2) and xy = – 1. Also, u = + . Then,
4 − x2 9 − y2
(A) minimum value of u is 67

25
(B) minimum value of u is 12
5
(C) u will be minimum when x = √

2
3
(D) u will be minimum when x = √

3
2
1001CJA106216230176 E-21/28
5. Contents of the two urns is as given in this table. A fair die is tossed. If the face 1, 2, 4 or 5 comes, a
marble is drawn from the urn A otherwise a marble is chosen from the urn B.
Urn Red marbles White marbles Blue marbles
A 5 3 8
B 3 5 0
Let E1 : Denote the event that a red marble is chosen.

E2 : Denotes the events that a white marble is chosen
E3 : Denote the event that a blue is chosen.
Then
(A) Events E1, E2 and E3 are equiprobable.
(B) P(E1), P (E2), P(E3) are in A.P.
(C) If the marble drawn is red, the probability that it came from the urn A is 1
.
2
(D) If the marble drawn is white, the probability that the face 5 appeared on the die is 3
.
32
6. Let and A2 = – I2. Then we can have
(A) A = i I2
(B) A = – i I2
(C) A is a periodic matrix
(D) Number of solution for A is 2
E-22/28 1001CJA106216230176

−−
→ −−
→ −−
→
Let O be an interior point of Δ ABC such that OA + 2OB + 3OC = →0. Point D & E are the midpoints of
the sides AC and BC respectively.
ar ( Δ DOE)
7. =
ar ( Δ ABC)
(A) 1
3
(B) 1
6
(C) 1
9
(D) None of these
ar ( Δ ABC)
8. =
ar ( Δ AOC)
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 8
1001CJA106216230176 E-23/28

Let a0, a1, a2,.........an,........... be a sequence of numbers satisfying (3 – an+1) (6 +an) = 18 and a0 = 3.
9. a5 =
(A) 1 (B) 1
3 7
(C) 1 (D) 1
21 63
8
1
10. ∑ =
i=0
ai
(A) 1013 (B) 1010

3 3
(C) 100 (D) None of these
Consider three points and C(1, 0). The distance from a variable point P to the line BC
is the geometric mean of the distances from this point to the lines AB and AC.
11. The locus of point P contains
(A) a circle & a parabola
(B) a parabola & an ellipse
(C) a circle & a hyperbola
(D) a hyperbola & an ellipse
12. If a line L of zero slope passes through the Incenter of Δ ABC, then number of distinct points of
intersection with locus of P is :____
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
E-24/28 1001CJA106216230176
answer.
1 x
1. f: such that f(x) + 2f ( ) + 3f ( ) = x, then 16 f(4) = ..........
x x−1
n n+1
1 1
2. lim n (e − (1 + ) ) = a and lim n ((1 + ) − e) = b then ⌊ 2a + 2b ⌋ = ...........
n→ ∞ n n→ ∞ n
x
3. Let F : anti derivative of the function f(x) = ; and
sin x
2π π ) = π ln c.
F( ) − F ( Then c = ................
3 3 2
4. If x, y ∈ R and log4 (x + 2y) + log4 (x + 2y) = 1. Then the minimum value of (|x| – |y|)2 is ...........
5. As shown in the diagram, points P1, P2,........P10 are either the vertices or the midpoints of the edge of a
tetrahedron respectively. Then, there are N number of groups of four points (P1, Pi, Pj, Pk,) ; (1 < i < j < k ≤ 10)
such that in a group all four points are on the same plane. The sum of digits of N is .........
1001CJA106216230176 E-25/28
1n + 2n + 3n +. . . . . . +nn 10
6. If x→
lim
∞
= a then ⌊ ⌋ is ..............
nn a
7. The number of real solutions of equation 2017x – 2016x = x is_________
8. Consider f(x) = ax2 + bx + c; a, b, c ∈ R and a ≠ 0. If satisfies the following conditions;
(i) ∀ x ∈ R, f(x – 4) = f(2 – x) and f(x) ≥ x
2
x+1
(ii) ∀ x ∈ (0, 2), f(x) ≤ ( )
2
(iii) the minimum value of f(x) on R is zero.
Now ∀ x ∈ [1, m], f(x + t) ≤ x for some fixed t ∈ R where m > 1, the maximum 'm' is ..........
n+xn
1 2
9. If (1 + ) = e, n ⩾ 1 lim xn = a, then unit digit in ⌊ ⌋ is. . . . . . .
n n→ ∞ a
10. A and B alternatively throw a fair coin. The player who throws head two times first will win. A has the
first throw. If chance of winning of A is , gcd (a, b) = 1, then unit digit of a + b is
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(1001CJA106216230176) )1001CJA106216230176) Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE(Advanced)

Time : 3 Hours PAPER-2 (OPTIONAL) Maximum Marks : 264

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.

12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :

· Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

Space for Rough Work

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

(A) Magnitude of normal reaction by wall on ladder at point B will increase.

(A) The maximum speed of bar during oscillation is BlCV

Then which of the following is correct

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9. Intensity observed in an interference pattern is I = I0 sin2 θ . At θ = 30°, intensity I = 5 ± 0.0020 W/m2.

4. Which of the following product(s) is(are) formed when 1,2,4-trimethylcyclopentene is hydrogenated?

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9. The structure of compound P is

10. The structure of compound Q is

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(B) In Cl2O7 Skelton O is sp2 hybridized & θ 1 > θ 2, x>y

(C) I2O4 on heating decompose to give I2

vii) BiO. OH + H2 O2(aq.) →

(B) ∃ c1 , c2 ∈ (a, b), c1 ≠ c2 such that f ′ (c1).f ′ (c2). = 1

(D) ∃ c ∈ (a, b) such that |f ′ (c)| < 1

(A) minimum value of u is 67

(C) u will be minimum when x = √

(D) u will be minimum when x = √

Let E1 : Denote the event that a red marble is chosen.

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(A) 1013 (B) 1010

NAME OF THE CANDIDATE ................................................................................................

FORM NO. .............................................

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ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE Pvt. Ltd.

E-28/28 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE 2024 1001CJA106216230176

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