Full Length Test 1 - Gs Ii_ans_key

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
EXPLANATION
Test Booklet Series
GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – II
CSAT
TEST – 1
A
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
1
S.(1) Directions for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the items that
follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE - 1
With the increasing trends of global warming, predictions of severer climatic events have been made for
India. The anticipated increase in precipitation, the melting of glaciers and expanding seas are projected
to influence the Indian climate particularly severely, with an increase in incidence of floods, hurricanes,
and storms. Global warming is also posing as a mammoth threat to the food security situation in India
with recurring and severe droughts and ravaging floods engulfing the arable land. Rising temperatures
on the Tibetan Plateau are causing the melting of the Himalayan glaciers, reducing the water flow in the
rivers Ganges, Brahmaputra, Yamuna, and other major rivers, on which the livelihoods of hundreds of
thousands of farmers depend.
1. What is the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage above?
(a) Farmers of India will have no livelihood in the future
(b) Natural calamities are likely to be initiated by an increase in the sea level
(c) Nothing can be done to prevent the advent of global warming in the near future
(d) The Tibetan plateau will suffer the most from the adverse ecological impact in the Himalayas
SOLUTION :
The author blames the ‘anticipated increase in precipitation, the melting of glaciers and expanding
seas’ for the ‘increase in incidence of floods, hurricanes, and storms’ in the future.
PASSAGE - 2
The Special Rapporteur on minority issues has noted that the term “caste” refers to a strict hierarchical
social system that is often based on the notions of purity and pollution, in which individuals placed at
the bottom of the system may face exclusion and discrimination in a wide range of areas. The concept of
“caste system” is primarily associated with the South Asian region, where its existence is linked to the
religiously sanctioned social structure of Hinduism, which identified four original and endogamous
groups, or castes, called varnas. At present, the term “caste” has broadened in meaning, transcending
religious affiliation. Caste and caste-like systems may be based on either a religious or a secular
background and can be found within diverse religious and/or ethnic groups in all geographical regions,
including within diaspora communities.
2. What is the most crucial message conveyed by the passage above?

(a) The caste system in India transcends religious boundaries
(b) South Asia is the only geographic region that has fallen prey to the evils of the caste system
(c) The caste system is hierarchical in nature with possible discrimination against the bottom
tier of the population
(d) The four original varnas need to be modified to make the caste system relevant again
SOLUTION :
The passage is predicated on the notion that ‘the term “caste” refers to a strict hierarchical social
system that is often based on the notions of purity and pollution, in which individuals placed at the
bottom of the system may face exclusion and discrimination in a wide range of areas’.
2
3. Sam took the least odd prime number and third power of the least prime number and took the LCM
of it. He then raised this number to a power which is one greater than the fourth power of the least
odd prime number. What will be the remainder when he divided this expression using a number
which is one greater than the power he took?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 7
SOLUTION :
82
The expression formed using the given statement is 24
83
𝑃−1
According to the prime number divisor rule in remainder theorem, the remainder of 𝐴 is one, where
𝑃
P is a prime number and A is a number which is not a multiple of P.
4. A, B, C, D and E are five prime numbers not necessarily in order and whose sum is 350. What will
be the fifth power of the least value?
(a) 243
(b) 32
(c) 3125
(d) Can't be determined
SOLUTION :
Since the sum of 5 prime numbers is even, it must be the case that the even prime number 2 must
have been included in it.
Also, since 2 is the smallest prime number, A has to have a value of 2. Thus, the required answer is
option (b).
5. Santhosh was on the Screen 4 of Sathyam cinemas watching a movie. During the interval, he got a
message from his friend Rakesh that he was in Screen 2, on the same floor. Santhosh knows that a
walkalator can connect both the screens. So, he started to screen 2 in the escalator walking at a speed
of 9m/s. If the total length of the escalator is 4800 meters and it runs at the speed of 7m/s, after how
many minutes will Santhosh reach Rakesh?
(a) 40 minutes
(b) 5 minutes
(c) 6 minutes
(d) 30 minutes
SOLUTION :
This problem can be solved by using the resultant speed method (Linked to boats and streams).
Since Santhosh and escalator is in same direction, their resultant speed
= Speed of Santhosh + Speed of escalator
= 9 + 7 = 16 m/s.
Time taken = D/S = 4800/ 16 = 300 seconds or 5 minutes.
Hence option (b) is correct.
3
Directions for Questions 6 to 7 : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that
follows:
When Aishwarya, tops in her State Police Service exam, she becomes the 7th member of her family to join
the Police profession. All other family members namely Santhosh, Anusha, Manish, Sanjay, Rudra and
Vanathi are working at Chennai Police Headquarters as Police and Aishwarya who is the youngest of the
third generation, is all set to join them. In this family of three generations, there are two pairs of couples
and two pairs of brothers and sisters. There are three ACP’s, two DCP’s, one Inspector and one Sub
Inspector in the family. No female in the family is an ACP. Vanathi is not a Sub Inspector. No married
person in the family is a DCP. Santhosh is the son of Anusha while Sanjay is the son of Manish and his
wife is Vanathi. Manish is an ACP. Manish and Vanathi are the eldest couple in the family. Aishwarya is
the daughter of Sanjay while Rudra is the sister-in-law of Anusha.
6. What is the profession of Vanathi and How is she related to Anusha?

(a) DCP and Sister
(b) SI and Daughter-in-law
(c) Inspector and Mother-in-Law
(d) DCP and Daughter-in-law
SOLUTION :
7. Which of the following statement is correct according to the given information

(a) DCP is the wife of ACP
(b) Sub Inspector is the daughter of Inspector
(c) ACP is the brother of DCP
(d) DCP is the grandmother of ACP
PASSAGE - 1
Onion is one of the most important vegetable crops grown in India. In terms of area, over 8.21 lakh
hectares of area was under onion crops during the year 2009-10, accounting for around 10.5 percent of
country’s vegetable area as well as production. Globally, the country occupies the second position after
China in onion production with a production share of around 10 percent during the year. However, onion
productivity in India is low at around 12.78 MT/ha, which is about 38% lower than the world average
(17.6 MT/ha). Besides India and China, the other major onion producing countries are Turkey, Pakistan,
Brazil, United States of America, Iran, Spain and Japan. In India, onion is extensively cultivated over a
large area spread all over the country. It is produced for both domestic consumption as well as exports.
4
8. Which of the following statements are valid assumptions made by the author of the aforementioned
passage?
I. India has the potential to become the largest onion exporter in the world.
II. No crop in India has more area allocated for its cultivation than onion.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION :
Neither is the author highlighting the possibility of India becoming the largest onion exporter in the
world, nor is it indicated anywhere in the passage that onion has the largest area of land allocated for
its cultivation in India.
PASSAGE - 2
Smokers are likely to be more vulnerable to COVID-19 as the act of smoking means that fingers (and
possibly contaminated cigarettes) are in contact with lips which increases the possibility of transmission
of virus from hand to mouth. Experts have confirmed that smokers are more likely to develop severe
symptoms or die from COVID-19, as it primarily attacks the lungs. Further smoking products such as
water pipes or hookah often involve the sharing of mouth-pieces and hoses, which could facilitate the
transmission of COVID-19 in communal and social settings.
9. Which of the following is the most logical corollary to the passage above?
(a) Most of the smokers in India contract COVID-19 and many of them die from the disease
(b) Smoking is the main cause of transmitting COVID-19 in communal and social settings
(c) Non-smokers do not develop severe symptoms from COVID-19 infection
(d) Quitting smoking may reduce the likelihood of contracting COVID-19
SOLUTION :
The passage states that ‘smokers are likely to be more vulnerable to COVID-19’, which means that if
a person quits smoking, they are less likely to contract the disease.
10. During a prize distribution ceremony, Vedha was ninth from the left while Janani was eighth from
the right in the front row. If Rishi was thirteenth from the left and was exactly in the middle of
Vedha and Janani in the same row then what was the total number of people in the front row?
(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 21
(d) 24
SOLUTION :
Here, we know that Vedha was ninth from the left while Rishi was thirteenth from the left. So, we can
say that there were 3 persons between Vedha and Rishi.
And, we also know that Rishi was exactly in the middle of Vedha and Janani so the number of persons
between Rishi and Janani will also be 3.
5
At this point, using the given information we can create a following figure:
Now, total number of people in the queue = (8 + Vedha + 3 + Rishi + 3 + Janani + 7)

= (8 + 1 + 3 + 1 + 3 + 1 + 7) = 24
Thus, the total number of people in the queue was 24.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
11. Ramu a retail shop owner bought stationeries from a wholesale dealer. On that particular day, he
sold 38 pieces of stationery items (combined in the form of Pens, Pencils and Erasers). If he sold at
least 11 pieces of each item and he sold more Pens than Pencils and more Pencils than Erasers,
then the number of Erasers that he must have sold is
(a) Exactly 11
(b) At least 11
(c) At least 12
(d) Cannot be determined
SOLUTION :
Let x, y, and z be the number of Pens, Pencils, and Erasers sold, respectively.
According to the given data,
x + y + z=38
x, y, z ≥ 11
x>y and y>z
Thus, x>y>z
Hence, the least number of items sold amongst any of the three pieces of stationery is that of the ties.
However, we know that at least 11 pieces of each item has been sold
When we test by keeping the number of Erasers as 12 as minimum value, remaining 26 pieces of Pens
and Pencils will be there. If we split it, minimum value will be 13 Pens and 13 pencils. But since it is
given Pens is greater than Pencils, It cannot be possible.
Only if we fix exactly 11 Erasers, the remaining will be 13 and 14 Pencils and Pens respectively. So,
answer is option (a).
12. There is a ground with four corners A, B, C and D. Hari using is magic pogo stick can go from one
point to another in a single jump. He starts jumping to the immediately adjacent point on either side
in random fashion and stops when he reaches point C. In how many ways, can he reach point C if he
makes exactly 7 jumps from point A?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 0
SOLUTION :
The logic of this question is that he can never reach point C if he makes an odd number of jumps.
Since, the question has asked us to find out in how many ways can he reach point C in exactly 7
jumps, the answer would be 0.
Hence option (d) is correct.
6
13. The price of a branded Vitamin C face serum is collectively decided by five different factors namely
research, raw materials, labour, advertisements and transportation.
Assume that the functional relationship is Price of serum
= (k x Research costs × Raw material costs x Labour costs x Advertising cost x Transportation cost)
If there are respective changes of 10% , 20%, -20%, 25% and 50% in the five factors, then find the
change in the price of serum.
(a) 97%
(b) 95%
(c) 98%
(d) 96%
SOLUTION :
Let the Price of serum be Rs. 100
10% increase = 110;
20% increase on 110 = 132
132 decreased by 20% = 105.6
105.6 increased by 25% gives = 132
132 increased by 50% gives = 198
Therefore, there is a 98% increase overall.
14. A carpenter wants to sell 40 chairs. If he sells them at Rs 156 per chair, he would be able to sell all
the chairs. But for every Rs 6 increase in price, he will be left with one additional unsold chair. At
what selling price would he be able to maximise his profits (assuming unsold chairs remain with him)?
(a) 198
(b) 192
(c) 204
(d) 210
SOLUTION :
Comparing the options in ascending order,
(i) 192 – 156 = 36
36/6(Increased price) = 6 chairs less.
So, he sold 34 chairs for each 192 = 192 x 34 = 6528
Similarly, he would have sold
(ii) 198 x 33 = 6534
(iii) 204 x 32 = 6528
(iv) 210 x 31 = 6510
So, 198 rupees per chair is profitable for him.
Directions for Questions 15 to 17 : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
that follows:
M, N, O, P, Q, R are six boys who have girlfriends namely A, B, C, D, E and F. They planned to go to
movies and they wear shirts of different colours viz. Blue, Black, Red, Green, Yellow, White but not
necessarily in the same order. They carry some cash in their wallets- Rs. 500, Rs.400, Rs.300, Rs.900,
Rs.600, Rs.800.
7
N wears the shirt of green colour. The person who wears White coloured shirt is the boyfriend of A. The
person who has Rs.600 is D’s boyfriend. O has Rs. 500 and the person who wears Blue coloured shirt is
E’s boyfriend and has Rs. 300 in the wallet. N is not the boyfriend of D. Q has Rs.400 in his wallet. P
wears yellow coloured shirt. M and F are one of the pairs. D’s boyfriend doesn’t wear red coloured shirt.
The person who is B’s boyfriend wears Black coloured shirt. A’s boyfriend doesn’t have Rs. 500 and M
doesn’t have Rs. 900.
15. Other than one option, rest of them below form a group according to a logic. Which is the odd one
out?
(a) N-F
(b) P-B
(c) Q–E
(d) O–C
SOLUTION :
BOYFRIEND GIRLFRIEND AMOUNT SHIRT COLOUR
M F 800 RED
N C 900 GREEN
O B 500 BLACK
P D 600 YELLOW
Q A 400 WHITE
R E 300 BLUE
According to the dates in the table, the amount of the boyfriend and another girlfriend is compared
and the difference is 100.
N – F (Girlfriend of M) – 900 – 800 = 100
P – B (Girlfriend of O) – 600 – 500 = 100
Q – E (Girlfriend of R) – 400 – 300 = 100
O – C (Girlfriend of N) – 900 – 500 = 400(the odd pair).
16. Which of the following Boyfriend – Girlfriend – amount – shirt colour is correctly matched?
(a) M – C – 800 – Red
(b) P – D- 600 -Yellow
(c) R -A – 900 – Green
(d) Q – F – 400 – Blue
SOLUTION :
P – D- 600 -Yellow is the correct pair of matching.
17. F’s boyfriend is having what amount?

(a) 900
(b) 800
(c) 400
(d) 300
SOLUTION :
F’s boyfriend M is having Rs. 800.
8
S.(18 and 19) Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the following passage and answer the
items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE - 1
Deforestation is one of the most pressing environmental issues that the world is facing currently. It is the
conversion of forested land to non-forested land by humans. Deforestation occurs when a land dominated
by naturally occurring trees is converted to provide certain services in response to the human demand.
The indiscriminate felling of trees has resulted in a reduction of 3.16% in the global forest cover from
1990 to 2015. Although India has seen an increment in the total forest cover of ca. 1%, still there are
certain regions in the country that have seen a decrease in the forest cover. The main reasons attributed
to the reduction in forest cover are shifting cultivation, rotational felling, other biotic pressures, diversion
of forest lands for developmental activities, etc. Continuous illicit cutting of trees has impacted the
microclimatic conditions, hydrological cycle, soil quality, biodiversity, etc. of the country, thereby making
the country more vulnerable for any untoward event. Sustainable forest management practices,
alternatives for shifting cultivation, promotion of plantation outside the forest and the usage of certified
forest products, etc. are some of the measures that can be adopted to curb the rate of deforestation.
18. What is the most rational inference that can be drawn from the passage above?
I. Afforestation will automatically solve the problem of global warming.
II. India does not need to control deforestation as the total forest cover has not decreased.
III. The flora and fauna of a region and its water table are directly affected by deforestation.
(a) Only I & II
(b) Only III
(c) I, II & III
(d) Only II
SOLUTION :
There is no indication that planting trees will ‘automatically’ solve the problem of global warming and
neither is it mentioned that India does not need to control deforestation. However, the passage does
state that ‘continuous illicit cutting of trees has impacted the microclimatic conditions, hydrological
cycle, soil quality, biodiversity, etc. of the country’.
19. What is the central theme of the passage given above?

(a) The environmental problem of deforestation can be alleviated by adopting sustainable
practices
(b) Deforestation causes soil erosion
(c) Shifting cultivation is to be primarily blamed for deforestation in India
(d) Trees once cut, cannot regrow
SOLUTION :
The passage highlights that ‘deforestation is one of the most pressing environmental issues that the
world is facing currently’ and concludes by suggesting that ‘Sustainable forest management practices,
alternatives for shifting cultivation, promotion of plantation outside the forest and the usage of
certified forest products, etc. are some of the measures that can be adopted to curb the rate of
deforestation’.
9
PASSAGE - 2
Rural development has always been an important issue in all discussions pertaining to economic
development, especially of developing countries, throughout the world. In the developing countries and
some formerly communist societies, rural masses comprised a substantial majority of the population.
Over 3.5 billion people live in the Asia and Pacific region and some 63% of them in rural areas. Although
millions of rural people have escaped poverty as a result of rural development in many Asian countries,
a large majority of rural people continue to suffer from persistent poverty. The socio-economic disparities
between rural and urban areas are widening and creating tremendous pressure on the social and
economic fabric of many developing Asian economies. These factors, among many others, tend to highlight
the importance of rural development. The policy makers in most of the developing economies recognize
this importance and have been implementing a host of programs and measures to achieve rural
development objectives. While some of these countries have achieved impressive results, others have
failed to make a significant dent in the problem of persistent rural underdevelopment.
20. Which of the following statements are correct based on the information presented in the passage
above?
I. 63% of the global population lives in rural areas.
II. Urban settlements are detrimental to the societal fabric of Asian economies.
III. Developmental models that neglect rural development are unsustainable.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Only I & III
SOLUTION :
The passage states that 63% pf the people in Asia and Pacific regions live in rural communities and
there is no indication that urban settlements are detrimental to the societal fabric of Asian economies.
However, the passage does mention that ‘the socio-economic disparities between rural and urban
areas are widening and creating tremendous pressure on the social and economic fabric of many
developing Asian economies’. This highlights that such a scenario cannot be sustained.
(a) Rural development is an essential aspect of the economic upliftment of developing
countries
(b) Most of the residents of developing economies inhabit rural areas
(c) Asia and Pacific countries are home to a majority of the rural communities in the world
(d) Economic development is incompatible with rural development
SOLUTION :
The author highlights the importance of rural development throughout the passage.
10
22. What number will come in the place of question mark?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 3
(d) 7
SOLUTION :
In opposite segments, alternate pairs of digits total the same.
19 + 3 = 22 = 14 + 8.
Directions for Question 23 : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that
follows:
The following question has three statements and four conclusions. You must take the given statement to
be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements
23. Statements:
Most CPUs are keyboards.
No keyboard is a Mouse.
All Mouses are CPU
Conclusion:
I. Some keyboards are CPU
II. All CPU's are Mouse
III. No Mouse is a keyboard
IV. Some Mouse are keyboard
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) Only II follows
11
SOLUTION :
24. A sum of money invested at simple interest triples itself in 8 years at simple interest. Find in how
many years will it become 8 times itself at the same rate?
(a) 24 years
(b) 28 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 21 years
SOLUTION :
The shortcut formula is
𝑥−1 𝑦−1
=
𝑛 𝑚
2 7
=
8 𝑚
m = 7 x 4 = 28.
25. A conical tent is to accommodate ten persons. Each person must have 6 meters² space to sit and 30
meters3 of air to breathe. What will be the height of the cone?
(a) 37.5 meters
(b) 150 meters
(c) 75 meters
(d) None of these
SOLUTION :
Area required by one person = 6m2
Area required by 10 person = 10 x 6 = 60m2
Base area of Conical tent = 𝜋𝑟2 = 60m2
r2 = 210/11.
Volume of Tent = 30 x 10 = 300 m3
1 𝜋𝑟2h = 300
3
22 210
1 ∗ ∗ ∗h = 300
3 7 11
ℎ = 15𝑚.
26. For Onam special celebration at Kerla, boat race has been planned in the Arabian sea coast. A crew
of an eight-member rowing team is to be chosen from twelve men, of which three must row on one
side only and two must row on the other side only. Find the number of ways of arranging the crew
with four members on each side.
(a) 40,320
(b) 30,240
12
(c) 60,480
(d) None of these
SOLUTION :
We have to select those 5 (3 +2) persons on whom there is a condition.
We need 4 members on each side of the both.
Since 3 members are already selected for one side and 2 for the other side, we need to select 1 person
to row on one side and 2 persons to row on the other side.
Even though there are 12 persons since we have already selected 5, we are left with another 7 persons
From these 7 persons I can select 1 person to row one side in 7C1 ways and from the remaining 6
persons I can select 2 persons for the other side in 6C2 ways.
Since there are 4 people on each side, we can arrange each team in 4! ways.
The required arrangement = 7C1 x 6C2 x 4! X 4! = 60480.
27. The questions below consist of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read all the statements and give answer
(I) The average of three integers is 13.
(II) When a natural number n is included, the average of these four integers remains an odd integer.
What is the minimum possible value of n?
(a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
(d) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
SOLUTION :
It is given that average of three numbers is 13.
Sum = 3*13 = 39
It is given,39+𝑛 is a odd number.
4
Minimum value 39+𝑛 can take such that n is a natural number is 11.
4
39+𝑛
= 11
4
n=5
So, both the statements are required.
Directions for Question 28: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that
follows:
In the following question, one figure ‘X’ is given as problem figure and four figures marked A, B, C and D
are given. Study the figures carefully and find out the water image of the figure X.
13
28. PROBLEM FIGURE
ANSWER FIGURES
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) A
SOLUTION :
According to water image logic, Figure A will be the appropriate water image.
Hence answer is option (d).
PASSAGE - 1
Since the category of plant-based dairy is still very nascent, accessibility and price remain a challenge
but respondents are optimistic about future consumption. Nearly 69% of plant-based milk consumers
claim that they are most likely to increase their consumption in the future. Enhancing the product on
taste and versatility and improving accessibility (availability and affordability) can fast track the adoption
of plant-based dairy category in India and consolidate its position as the new and exciting opportunity
for the packaged milk category as a whole.
29. What is the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage above?
(a) Plant-based milk is healthier than animal milk
(b) Vegan milk is produced using sustainable and eco-friendly practices
(c) Plant-based dairy is a relatively new but fast-growing industry in India
(d) Affordability is the main criterion for determining the dairy consumption habits of Indian people
SOLUTION
The passage states that ‘the category of plant-based dairy is still very nascent, accessibility and price
remain a challenge but respondents are optimistic about future consumption’.
14
PASSAGE - 2
Modern English, sometimes described as the first global lingua franca, is the dominant language or in
some instances even the required international language of communications, science, information
technology, business, seafaring, aviation, entertainment, radio, and diplomacy. Its spread beyond the
British Isles began with the growth of the British Empire, and by the late 19th century its reach was
global. Following British colonisation from the 16th to 19th centuries, it became the dominant language
in the United States, Canada, Australia and New Zealand. The growing economic and cultural influence
of the US and its status as a global superpower since World War II have significantly accelerated the
spread of the language across the planet. English replaced German as the dominant language of science-
related Nobel Prize laureates during the second half of the 20th century. English equalled and may have
surpassed French as the dominant language of diplomacy during the second half of the 19th century.
30. Which of the following assumptions are made by the author of the aforementioned passage?
I. Modern English was not always a dominant global language.
II. All Nobel Prize winners before the 20th century were fluent German speakers.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
SOLUTION :
The author mentions that ‘by the late 19th century its reach was global’, but does not indicate that
each and every Nobel laureate was a fluent German speaker before the 20th century.
PASSAGE - 3
There are sports in which the number of deaths and serious injuries per year is greater than in boxing –
motor racing and equestrian sports are among the examples. In general, though, these other sports are
not subject to anything like the degree of medical and wider public criticism that has been directed at
boxing. The reason for the difference is the perception that boxing entails a clear intent to harm the
opponent. It is argued that in the other sports, deaths and injuries are essentially due to mishaps,
whereas in boxing the infliction of injury is what contestants seek to achieve as a fundamental aim of the
sport. The logical conclusion of this argument is that catastrophic consequences associated with boxing
cannot be seen as entirely accidental. Some proponents of boxing vehemently dispute the proposition
that the sport necessarily involves intent to harm. They contend that the objective in boxing is simply to
land impacts on well-defined target areas of the opponent, and that boxing is in fact similar to other
sports in that injuries are simply unfortunate and unwanted by-products of the pursuit of victory.
31. What is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage above?
(a) The sport of boxing has an inherent element of cruelty
(b) Motor racing is the deadliest sport in the world, followed by equestrian sports
(c) Sports with a high risk of fatal injury should be banned
(d) There is disagreement between factions regarding the intent to cause injury in the sport of
boxing
15
SOLUTION :
The passage states that ‘Some proponents of boxing vehemently dispute the proposition that the sport
necessarily involves intent to harm’.
PASSAGE - 4
If we take into consideration the conventional reasons why wildlife is disappearing in Asia, India is doing
far better than other countries. India has launched an extensive protected area network of research
institutions in which legislation, socio-economic factors, and wildlife research are playing a great role.
The Central Zoo Authority plays a key role with zoos in programming research activities related to the
conservation and propagation of wild animals. Planned research activities include studies on wildlife
biology, genetic variability, species-specific nutritional requirements, animal behaviour, epidemiological
surveys, and disease diagnosis through post-mortem examination. The future depends on interaction
between captive and wild animals, preservation of biodiversity, and genetic and demographic variations
of species. India still has 65% of Asia’s tiger population, 85% of the Asian rhino population, 80% of the
Asian elephant population, and 100% of the Asiatic lion population. These are all highly endangered and
poached animals.
32. What is the most important message conveyed by the passage above?
(a) It is essential to identify the reasons for wildlife endangerment to formulate effective
conservation programs
(b) The Central Zoo Authority is the ultimate in policy formulation when it comes to wildlife
conservation
(c) Tigers are only found on the continent of Asia
(d) India has7 the most extensive network of wildlife research institutions in Asia
SOLUTION :
The author highlights that ‘The Central Zoo Authority plays a key role with zoos in programming
research activities related to the conservation and propagation of wild animals’, thus stressing the
importance of the identification of these factors.
33. Which of the following statements are correct based on the passage above?
I. Genetic variability is a factor to be studied for wildlife conservation.
II. All of the Asiatic lions are found in India.
III. The Asian elephant is an endangered species.
(a) Only I & II
(b) Only I & III
(c) Only II & III
(d) All of the above
SOLUTION :
All the statements can be directly inferred from the information provided in the passage.
16
34. A block is painted yellow, red, black, orange, pink and blue on its six sides as shown in the
following four figures. In figure 3, which colour will be opposite to red?
(a) Blue
(b) Orange
(c) Yellow
(d) Pink
SOLUTION :
As per the given pattern in question figure, we can find the similar next position of given dice.
Orange, Yellow, Black and Pink colours are on the faces adjacent to Red colour.
Therefore, Blue colour is on the face opposite to Red colour.
35. What will come in the place of question mark?

6, 11, 24, 49, 90, ?
(a) 151
(b) 161
(c) 172
(d) 181
SOLUTION :
11 = 6 + 12 + 22
24 = 11 + 22 + 32
49 = 24 + 32 + 42
90 = 49 + 42 + 52
The next number will be 90 + 52 + 62 = 151.
36. Two farmers Rajesh and Ramesh were cultivating Millets on their respective agricultural land in a
village. Rajesh had an average production of 30 bushels from a hectare. Ramesh, who had 25 hectares
of more land dedicated to Millet cultivation, had an output of 40 bushels of Millets from a hectare. If
Ramesh harvested 1120 bushels of Millets more than Rajesh, how many bushels of Millets did Rajesh
cultivate?
(a) 480
(b) 120
(c) 360
(d) 150
SOLUTION :
Let the number of hectares of land be A and A + 25 for the two farmers.
Then, the equation that gets formed based on the situation is:
(30 x A) + 1120 = 40(A + 25)
A = 12
Hence, the number of bushels of Millets cultivated by Rajesh = 360.
17
37. Sandeep prepares a budget to move to Chennai for his UPSC Preparation. However, he spends 12%
of his budget on the first 10% days of his travel when he stays in the city. He knows that he has to
spend another 35% of days in city itself, after which he would travel to the country side. What should
be the minimum decrease in spending in country side as a percentage of his spending in city so as to
complete his travel on the initial budget itself?
(a) 33.33%
(b) 30.30%
(c) 31.33%
(d) 32.23%
SOLUTION :
Budget spent on 10% of days = 12%
So, in 1% of days = 12/10
35% remaining days in city = 12 × 35 = 42
10
Overall budget spent on 45% of days in city = 54%
Days remaining = 55% , Budget remaining = 46%
In 1% of day remaining, he can spend = 46/55 of budget
12 46
−
Therefore, % decrease required = 10 55
12 x 100 = 30.30%
10
Hence, option (b) is correct.
38. Suresh and his brother invested Rs. x and Rs. 3x respectively in a bakery business. The time periods
of Suresh and his brother is in the ratio 2 : 3. If the profit share of his brother is Rs. 270000, then
find the total profit if they continue the business for 3 more years?
(a) Rs. 330000
(b) Rs. 660000
(c) Rs. 1320000
(d) Rs. 1640000
SOLUTION :
Suresh Suresh’s brother
Capital x 3x
Time Period 2 3
Profit Share 2x 9x
Profit share of Suresh’s brother = Rs. 270000

Given that, 9x = 270000
x = Rs. 30000
Total profit = 2x + 9x = 11x
Total profit = 330000
Total profit for 1 year = 330000
Time period = 1 + 3 = 4 years
Total period for 4 years = Rs. 1320000
Hence, option C is correct.
18
PASSAGE - 1
The Civil Services are one of the most important cogs in the machine that is the Indian ‘system’. In this
country of extreme diversity and socio-cultural variations, the civil services, right from old times, have
managed to maintain order within chaos. As the nature of politics and organisation of society and
government changed over several years, it became imminent for the bureaucracy to reinvent itself as well.
In India’s case, this reinvention was in the hands of the democratic government – the same that granted
the bureaucracy protection through Constitutional provisions when India became an independent nation.
The bureaucracy, however, remained pretty much the same after India’s independence. Reforms in the
bureaucracy have at best been incremental, and very far away from the proposed revolutionary changes.
39. What is the central theme of the aforementioned passage?

(a) The Indian Civil Services are indispensable for any government
(b) Indian bureaucracy was unorganized prior to the formulation of the Constitution
(c) The Indian Civil Services have not undergone the envisioned transformation post-
independence
(d) The Indian bureaucracy has successfully reinvented itself
SOLUTION :
The author concludes by stating that ‘The bureaucracy, however, remained pretty much the same
after India’s independence. Reforms in the bureaucracy have at best been incremental, and very far
away from the proposed revolutionary changes’.
PASSAGE - 2
Between March and April 2020, India witnessed a staggering 86% increase in cyber-attacks. According
to the UN Special Reporter, women are both disproportionately targeted by online violence and suffer
disproportionately serious consequences as a result. Cybercrime has real consequences and costs. It
undermines women’s wellbeing, their rights, and their progress in all aspects of life. Cyber violence results
in psychological, physical, sexual or economic harm to women. Given the push towards digitisation,
amongst the ongoing pandemic, more women and girls are using the internet for varied purposes
including education, work, and financial transactions, amongst others. Many of these women and girls
could be first-time users or may have a limited understanding of good practices when interacting with
others in cyberspace and could be subjected to cybercrimes. No doubt the crime rate has subsided as
people are staying back but online frauds have seen an upsurge. Apart from being
interaction/communication interfaces, sometimes these also serve as platforms for criminal elements and
eventually end up being the epicentres of immeasurable security concerns. This working from home has
now become an opportunity for cybercriminals to exploit the people through e-mail scams, hacking
passwords, phishing, ransom attacks, online sexual harassment, etc.
(a) It is safer to go to office than it is to work from home
(b) Cyber-crime has more potential for damage than in-person crime
(c) Men do not fall prey to cybercrime in India
(d) Cyber-crime is detrimental to women’s overall development
19
SOLUTION :
The passage states that cybercrime ‘undermines women’s wellbeing, their rights, and their progress
in all aspects of life’.
41. What is the central message conveyed by the passage above?

(a) Cyber-crime is an unfortunate side-effect of digitalization
(b) Women are the worst sufferers of cybercrime attacks
(c) Raising awareness among women is of paramount importance to fight cybercrime
(d) E-mail scams have become more widespread during the COVID-19 pandemic
SOLUTION :
The passage highlights that ‘women are both disproportionately targeted by online violence and suffer
disproportionately serious consequences as a result’.
42. Pinku a dishonest grocer professes to sell pure butter at cost price, but he mixes it with adulterated
fat and thereby gains 25% . Find the percentage of adulterated fat in the mixture assuming that
adulterated fat is freely available.
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 33.33%
(d) 40%
SOLUTION :
Let the adulterated fat = 0 Rs.
Butter = Rs 1
C.P of mixture = 1x 100 /125 = 4/5 Rs
=1:4 of adulterated fat = (1/5) x 100 = 20% .
43. A certain sum of money was lent under the following repayment scheme based on Simple Interest:
8% per annum for the initial 2 years
9.5% per annum for the next 4 years
11% per annum for the next 2 years
12% per annum after the first 8 years
Find the amount which a sum of ₹9000 taken for 12 years becomes at the end of 12 years.
(a) 20,200
(b) 19,800
(c) 20,000
(d) 20,160
20
SOLUTION
The total amount can be calculated as follows
9000 + 720 * 2 + 855 * 4 + 990 * 2 + 1080 * 4
= 20160.
44. A piece of work is done by Men and Women. All men work at the same rate, while all women work at
the same rate. The work gets completed in 30 days if 10 men and 45 women work together and in 60
days if 8 men and 18 women work together. In how many days will the work be done completely if 20
Men and 18 women work together?
(a) 35.7 days
(b) 37.5 days
(c) 41.5 days
(d) 45.1 days
SOLUTION :
According to the question,
(10M + 45W) * 30 =(8M+18W)* 60
10M + 45W =16M+36W.
1M=1.5W
Also, the total work = (10M + 45W) × 30 = (15W +45W) x 30 = 1800 Women days.
20 Men and 18 women = 30 Women + 18 Women = 48 women working together. They will take to
complete the work. 1800/48 = 37.5 days.
that follows:
It has been given that
A is + from point B states B is to the NORTH of A.
A is = from point B states B is to the SOUTH of A.
A is || from point B states A is to the East of B.
A is * from point B states A is to the WEST of B.
It is given that
Point S is =20 m from point P.
Point Q is =15 m from point R.
Point U is +15 m from Point V.
Point T is ||20 m from point V.
Point U is ||16 m from point Q.
Point R is ||30 m from point P.
45. Z is a point which at a distance of 46 m from point U towards West. Then what is the distance between
point S and point Z and in which direction with respect to S?
(a) 4 m north
(b) 5 m south
(c) 7 m east
(d) 6 m west
21
SOLUTION :
46. R is in which direction with respect to T?

(a) North West
(b) South West
(c) South East
(d) North East
SOLUTION :
that follows:
The pie chart shows the percentage of the students who took part in different activities and table shows
the ratio of the boys and girls.
Total Students = 5400
22
Activity Boys : Girls
Singing 4:5
Dancing 3:4
Acting 6:5
Craft 3:2
Drawing 1:2
Anchoring 3:1
47. If 25% of the students who participate in Dancing, also participate in Craft and 20% of the students
who participate in Craft, also participate in Dancing, find the ratio of the students who participate in
only Dancing and only Craft.
(a) 7 : 8
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 11 : 10
(d) 13 : 17
SOLUTION :
Students who participate in Dancing = 5400 × 14% = 756
25% of the Students who participate in Dancing also participate in Craft = 756 × 25% = 189
Students who participate in Craft = 5400 × 15% = 810
20% of the Students who participate in Craft also participate in Dancing = 810 × 20% = 162
Students who only participate in Dancing = (756 + 162) – (162 + 189) = 567
Students who only participate in Craft = (810 + 189) – (162 + 189) = 648
Ratio = 567 : 648 = 7 : 8
Hence, option (a) is correct.
48. The number of boys who participate in Anchoring is what percent of the girls who participate in
Acting?
(a) 85%
(b) 90%
(c) 92%
(d) 75%
SOLUTION :
Boys in Anchoring = 5400 x 12% x (3/4) = 486
Girls in Acting = 5400 x 22% x (5/11) = 540
Required Percentage = (486/540) x 100 = 90% .
49. If the age of the 50% of the boys participate in Acting and 40% of the girls participate in Acting is
below 16 years, find the number of students whose age is above 16 years participate in Acting.
(a) 650
(b) 465
(c) 684
(d) None of these
SOLUTION :
Boys Participate in Acting
23
= 5400 × 22% × (6/11) = 648
Age below 16 = 648 × 50% = 324
Girls participate in Acting = 5400 × 22% × (5/11) = 540
Age below 16 = 540 × 40% = 216
Age above 16 = (648 – 324) + (540 – 216) = 324 + 324 = 648
Hence, option (d) is correct.
50. In how many ways one white and one black rook can be placed on a chessboard so that they are
never in an attacking position?
(a) 64 * 50
(b) 64 * 49
(c) 63 * 49
(d) None of these
SOLUTION :
One of the 2 rooks can be placed on the board in 64 ways (each square is one possible way).
Now, the other rook can be placed in any of the other 64–15 = 49 squares.
-15 because 1st rook can attack the second one only if the 2nd one is in its row or column (rank or
file).
So total no. of ways = 64*49.
that follows:
In the newly built Grand mall at Bengaluru, a parking lots is designed in a circular manner and each of
it can accommodate at least ten cars. In one of the parking lot, Nine cars namely Nano, Creta, Verna,
Polo, Brezza, Duster, WagonR, Captur and Amaze, were parked facing towards the centre but not
necessarily in the same order.
ii. Polo was parked second to the left of Captur and was at a gap of 3 spots from Duster.
iii. Amaze was parked on the immediate right of Duster.
iv. Number of spots between Creta and Brezza when counted from the left of Creta was one more
than the number of spots between Brezza and Amaze when counted from the right of Amaze.
v. Brezza was parked neighbouring Nano and was second to the left of WagonR.
vi. WagonR and Polo were parked at a gap of 5 spots and only one car was parked on one of those 5
spots.
vii. Verna was parked at a gap of 1 spot from Duster.
viii. Only 2 cars were parked between Nano and Duster, but Nano was not parked neighbouring Verna.
ix. Not more than 2 spots were there between Brezza and Verna when counted from the right of Verna.
51. How many car(s) are there between Brezza and Polo when calculated from right of Brezza
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
24
SOLUTION :
52. Which of the following clearly signifies the position of Creta?

(a) Fourth to the left of Captur
(b) Second to the right of Polo
(c) Neighbourhood to WagonR
(d) Sixth to the right of Nano
53. How many cars can be parked in the parking lot excluding the vehicles given in the passage?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 18
54. A vessel is in the form of an inverted cone. Its depth is 8 cm and the diameter of its top, which is open,
is 10 cm. It is filled with water up to the brim. When bullets, each of which is a sphere of radius 0.5
cm, are dropped into the vessel 1/4 of the water flows out. Find the number of bullets dropped in the
vessel.
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 150
(d) 200
SOLUTION :
Volume of the cone = 1 𝜋𝑟2h = 200 𝜋 cm3
3 3
Volume of all the bullets = Volume of water that 50 spilled out = 50 𝜋 cm³
3
𝜋
Volume of each bullet = 4 𝜋𝑟3 = cm³
3 6
Number of bullets = (volume of water that spilled out)/(volume of each bullet)
50
𝜋
= 3
𝜋 = 100 bullets.
6
25
PASSAGE - 1
With the development of globalization, cross-culture communication is indispensable to an open society
in which we live today. Therefore, cultural differences are everywhere. The cultures between the East and
the West are distinguished by a rather large scale. It means not only the opinions or ways of thinking are
different, but how do people behave in daily life is also not the same, sometimes may even be opposite.
(a) There are vast disparities between cultural norms in the Eastern and Western cultures
(b) People from the East and West cannot find common ground for agreement
(c) The disparities between the East and the West cannot be bridged
(d) Living in an open society is not conducive for cultural preservation
SOLUTION :
The passage highlights that ‘not only the opinions or ways of thinking are different, but how do people
behave in daily life is also not the same, sometimes may even be opposite’.
PASSAGE - 2
Monsoon is traditionally defined as a seasonally reversing wind system accompanied by seasonal changes
in atmospheric circulation and precipitation. A semi-annual reversal in the wind direction, a typical
characteristic of monsoon, is caused due to differential heating of continents and oceans and the Coriolis
force. The term was first used in English in the then British India and neighbouring countries, to refer to
the large-scale seasonal winds blowing from the Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea from south-westerly
direction bringing heavy rainfall to the area. The monsoon rainfall is considered to be that which occurs
in any region that receives most of its annual rain during a particular season. The English word ‘monsoon’
has its origin in the Arabic word mausim ("season"). The definition includes major wind systems that
change direction seasonally and allows other regions of the world to qualify as monsoon regions.
(a) Monsoons did not exist in India before the arrival of the British
(b) The English language has a paucity of original words
(c) The period of highest rainfall during the year qualifies a season as the monsoon season for
that particular region
(d) In India, monsoon winds do not flow from the Arabian Sea to the Bay of Bengal
SOLUTION :
The author states that ‘The monsoon rainfall is considered to be that which occurs in any region that
receives most of its annual rain during a particular season’.
57. Find the number of numbers between 300 to 400 (both included), that are not divisible by 2, 3, 4,
and 5.
(a) 17
(b) 26
(c) 33
(d) 50
26
SOLUTION :
Total numbers: 101.
Step 1: Not divisible by 2 = All even numbers rejected: 51 Numbers left: 50
Step 2: Of which: divisible by 3 = first number 300, last number 399. But even numbers have already
been removed, hence count out only odd numbers between 300 and 400 divisible by 3. This gives us
that:
First number 303, last number 399, common difference 6
So, remove: [(399 - 303)/6] + 1 = 17
50-17= 33 numbers left.
We do not need to remove additional terms for divisibility by 4 since this would eliminate only even
numbers (which have already been eliminated).
Step 3: Remove from 33 numbers left all odd numbers that are divisible by 5 and not divisible by 3.
Between 300 to 400, the first odd number divisible by 5 is 305 and the last is 395 (since both ends
are counted, we have 10 such numbers as: [(395 - 305)/10 + 1 = 10].
However, some of these 10 numbers have already been removed to get to 33 numbers.
Operation left: Of these 10 numbers, 305, 315...395, reduce all numbers that are also divisible by
3. Quick perusal shows that the numbers start with 315 and have common difference 30.
Hence, [(Last number - First number)/Difference + 1] = [(375 - 315) / 30 + 1] = 3
These 3 numbers were already removed from the original 100. Hence, for numbers divisible by 5, we
need to remove only those numbers that are odd, divisible by 5 but not by 3. There are 7 such
numbers between 300 and 400. So, numbers left are: 33 - 7 = 26.
Shortcut
To find out the number of numbers less than N, which are not divisible by a or b or c or d or e .......... is
N(1 - 1/a)(1 - 1/b)(1 - 1/c)(1 - 1/d)(1 - 1/e)....
This works only when a, b, c, d, e.. are factors of N
Number of numbers which are less than 300 and not divisible by 2, 3, and 5
= 300(1 - 1/2)(1 - 1/3)(1 - 1/5) = 80
Number of numbers which are less than 390 and not divisible by 2, 3, and 5
= 390(1 - 1/2)(1 - 1/3)(1 - 1/5) = 104
So, there are 104 - 80 = 24 numbers between 300 and 390 which are not divisible by 2, 3, and 5
Now, between 390 and 400, there are only 2 more such numbers which are not divisible by 2, 3, and
5 = 391, 397
Total valid numbers = 24 + 2 = 26.
58. XYZ is a 3-digit number such that when we calculate the difference between the two 3-digit numbers
XYZ - YXZ the difference is exactly 90. How many possible values exist for the digits X and Y?
(a) 9
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 6
SOLUTION :
This occurs for values such as: 213-123; 324-234, etc., where it can be seen that the value of X is 1
more than Y.
The possible pairs of X and Y are: 2,1; 3,2....... 9,8 a total of eight pairs of values.
Option (b) is correct.
27
59. King Sheru had ordered the distribution of apples according to the following plan: for every 20 apples
the elephant gets, the zebra should get 13 apples and the deer should get 8 apples. Now his servant
Shambha jackal is in a fix. Can you help him by telling how much should he give to the elephant if
there were 820 apples in total?
(a) 140
(b) 160
(c) 200
(d) 400
SOLUTION :
Ratio of distribution = 20:13 : 8
So, the elephant should get (20/41) * 820 = 400.
PASSAGE - 1
Freedom from violence, as an aspect of the quality of life, is a neglected issue in development studies.
Most people would rather avoid being mugged, beaten, wounded, or tortured, and it is also nice to live
without fear of these traumatic experiences. Thus, protection from violence may be thought of as one of
the "capabilities" that contribute to the quality of life. Violence also affects human wellbeing in indirect
ways, as when armed conflicts undermine economic growth or the functioning of public services. If
development is concerned with improving the quality of life, the issue of violence should be a major
interest of the discipline. Yet, it tends to receive little attention outside specialized circles.
(a) Most developed nations are inherently non-violent
(b) Protection from violence is the most important parameter when determining the quality of life
(c) Freedom from violence is a more important determinant of quality of life than it is currently
considered
(d) Economic growth is a more important factor than freedom from violence
SOLUTION :
The author emphasizes that ‘Freedom from violence, as an aspect of the quality of life, is a neglected
issue in development studies’ and concludes by stating that ‘. If development is concerned with
improving the quality of life, the issue of violence should be a major interest of the discipline’.
61. Which of the following assumptions are made by the author of the passage given above?
I. Human well-being is an important factor to be considered in developmental studies.
II. Being wounded or tortured diminishes the quality of life of an individual.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
SOLUTION :
The author mentions that ‘Violence also affects human wellbeing in indirect ways, as when armed
conflicts undermine economic growth or the functioning of public services’ and that ‘most people
would rather avoid being mugged, beaten, wounded, or tortured, and it is also nice to live without fear
of these traumatic experiences’.
28
PASSAGE - 2
Corporatisation has transformed Indian film industry and certainly catalysed its growth post-2000. It has
facilitated the much-needed flow of institutional finance to the industry, which is reliable and is available
at lower interest rates compared to other sources of financing. It has also led to the adaptation of better
corporate governance practices; including adherence to standard accounting practices, business plans,
targets and time schedules. After the entry of corporate sector, the film industry has adopted market-
driven practices, which have resulted in greater efficiency in film production and lesser delays.
Furthermore, it also prompted international studios to enter into collaborations with Indian production
houses to produce and distribute movies.
(a) Indian film producers struggled to secure financing in the 20th century
(b) Corporatization has had a positive impact on the Indian film industry
(c) International studios entered India only after the year 2000
(d) Indian film producers are now able to secure loans at nominal interest rates
SOLUTION :
The passage states that corporatization ‘has also led to the adaptation of better corporate governance
practices; including adherence to standard accounting practices, business plans, targets and time
schedules’, among several other benefits that have been mentioned.
63. The robot which was designed at IIT Kanpur takes an input of a number N and a X where X is a
factor of the number N. In a particular case N is equal to 83p796161q and X is equal to 11 where 0
< p < q Find the sum of remainders when N is divided by (p + q) and p successively.
(a) 6
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 9
SOLUTION :
For 83p796161q to be a multiple of 11 (here X is 11), we should have the difference between the sum
of odd placed digits and even placed digits should be 0 or a multiple of 11.
(8 + p + 9 + 1 + 1) - (3 + 7 + 6 + 6 + q) =(19+ p) - (22 + q) . For this difference to be 0, p should be 3
more than q which cannot occur since 0 < p < q The only way in which (19 + p) - (22 + q) can be a
multiple of 11 is if we target a value of -11 for the expression. One such possibility is if we take p as
1 and q as 9.
The number would be 8317961619. On successive division by (p + q) = 10 and 1 the sum of remainders
would be 9.
64. Amala, Bhanu and Chitra have a total of 80 coins among them. Amala triples the number of coins
with the others by giving them some coins from her own collection. Next, Bhanu repeats the same
process. After this, Bhanu now has 20 coins. Find the number of coins she had at the beginning.
(a) 22
(b) 20
(c) 18
(d) 24
29
SOLUTION :
Consider Amala, Bhanu and Chitra movement of coins as A, B and C respectively.
Total number of coins among A, B and C = 80.
A triple the number of coins of B and C from her own collection and B repeats the same process.
A + 3B + 3C =80
B had 60 coins when A tripled the coins of B and C,
3A + B + 9C = 80
When B = 20, 3A + 9C = 60
When B = 60, A + 3C = 20
When B = 20, A + C =60
Hence, number of coins Bhanu had at the beginning = 20.
that follows:
H who is a renowned doctor in the city and who is also the father of Q, has two cute grand-daughters C
and S. K got married a certain number of years ago and now has only two sons. R who is extremely chirpy
is sister-in-law of I. C is not taller than S. R is shorter than three persons but taller than her daughters.
When it comes to plucking grapes, the males have an advantage of their heights over the females in the
family. I is shorter than his brother and father. There are two married couples in the family. The one who
is the eldest in the family is the tallest as well. S is not taller than her grandmother.
65. How many persons are taller than K?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
SOLUTION :
Heights in Decreasing order = H > Q > I > R > K > S > C.
66. Who among the following is mother of I?

(a) H
(b) C
(c) K
(d) R
30
67. Two horses started simultaneously towards each other and meet each other 3 h 20 min later. How
much time will it take the slower horse to cover the whole distance if the first arrived at the place of
departure of the second 5 hours later than the second arrived at the point of departure of the first?
(a) 10 hours
(b) 5 hours
(c) 15 hours
(d) 6 hours
SOLUTION :
Let the distance between both horses is taken as x km.
The time taken by the faster horse is t.
The time taken by the slower horse is t + 5
Hence, the speeds of the slower and the faster horses are 𝑥 km/h, 𝑥 km/h respectively.
𝑡+5 𝑡
Now, in 3 h 20 min or 10/3 hrs,
Distance covered by slower horse + Distance covered by faster horse = x
𝑥 10 𝑥
x + x 10 =x
𝑡+5 3 𝑡 3
10
10
+ =1
3(𝑡+5) 3𝑡
t = 5h
Therefore, the slower horse takes (t + 5) h = 10 hours.
68. A steamer can go 12 km in still water in 25 minutes. One day, it went 11.25 km upstream and
returned the same distance in downstream. If the difference between the time taken to travel upstream
and downstream was 12.5 minutes, then what was the speed of stream in km per hour?
(a) 7.2 km/hr
(b) 5.4 km/hr
(c) 6.3 km/hr
(d) 4.5 km/hr
SOLUTION :
In still water, the speed of steamer = 12000/ 25 = 480 meter per minute = 8 meters per second
Let the speed of stream = v m/sec
In upstream, the speed of steamer = (8 – v) m/sec
In downstream, the speed of steamer = (8 + v) m/sec
11250 - 11250 =12.5 x 60 = 750 seconds
8−𝑣 8+ 𝑣
By solving, v = 2 meters per second
= (2 × 18)/5 = 7.2 km per hour
Hence, option (a) is correct.
69. Five years ago, the age of John was 5 times that of his son. After 5 years, his age will be 3 times that
of his son. After how many years, will he be twice as old as his son?
(a) 15 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 40 years
31
SOLUTION :
Let the present age of John be x and that of his son be y
Forming equations
x – 5 = 5(y – 5)
x + 5 = 3(y + 5)
After solving we get x = 55 and y = 15
After how many years, he will be twice as old as son
55 + n = 2 (15 + n)
n = 25 years.
PASSAGE - 1
Internet growth in India is increasing at an alarming rate, which is indicating a fast growth future for the
many e-marketing companies in India. The young population of the country prefers the new technology.
The phenomenon is not only confined to urban India but has also spread to rural India. Due to the
popularity of Internet usage, there will be a big boom of e-commerce market in India. Young buyers of
India prefer to buy online due to easy mode of transaction, preferred mode of payment, safe delivery, and
effective after sales service, in terms of return and refund policy. These changing shopping habits of the
consumer open the door of opportunity for many e-marketing companies in India. The consumer in India
buys many products online, from food to non-food categories.
The lucrative Indian market is fostering rapidly. Penetration of Internet access and upsurge of handheld
devices’ users persuade Indian marketers to look beyond the traditional marketing techniques. The pace
of transformation continues to be rapid by utilizing existing digital channels available for social purposes.
The frequency of people spending time on-line, the digital tools and sites play an ever-growing role in the
transformation of marketing strategies. Smart marketers strive to be on top of the scale of change and
ensure their marketing strategies and touch points are where the consumers are spending their time.
(a) India is the fastest developing mobile phone market in the world
(b) Social media platforms are increasing at a tremendous pace
(c) Nowadays, people spend most of their time online
(d) Internet penetration in India opens up new avenues of marketing potential
SOLUTION :
The author concludes that ‘smart marketers strive to be on top of the scale of change and ensure their
marketing strategies and touch points are where the consumers are spending their time’.
PASSAGE - 2
Indian approach to Spiritual Theology is existential and experiential. Existential because it addresses the
most existential problem, namely the problem of evil, pain and suffering. This approach comes from the
general outlook of reality in the Indian thought. Whereas Aristotelian logic begins with universal and
concludes with the particular, Indian logic begins with the particular, and ends with particular through
universal. This approach is more in keeping with reality itself, because universal is a mental abstraction
32
while particular is existential, experiential and objective. In this sense Indian approach seems to be more
realistic.
71. Which of the following assumptions are implied in the passage above?
I. Divergent approaches exist to Spiritual Theology.
II. The Indian approach to Spiritual Theology is better than the Aristotelian approach.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
SOLUTION :
The author distinguishes between the Indian and Aristotelian approaches, but does not signify
whether one is better than the other. Rather, he only highlights which one is more rooted in reality.
PASSAGE - 3
From a very young age, we are encouraged to distinguish facts from opinions. However, the fact-opinion
dichotomy is a false dichotomy which rests on a category mistake. The ability to distinguish facts from
merely alleged facts and the ability to distinguish opinions from considered judgments is an important
skill. But in claiming that facts and opinions stand in a dichotomous relationship we ignore the two
classes which stand in genuine opposition to each: facts are opposed to what we variously call non-facts,
merely alleged facts, fictions, or falsehoods; and opinions stand in opposition to considered judgments.
72. Which of the following statements correctly conveys the crux of the aforementioned passage?
(a) Facts and opinions are polar opposites of each other
(b) The distinction between facts and opinions is often misunderstood
(c) Alleged facts are not inherently different from empirical facts
(d) Non-facts are diametrically opposite to considered judgments
SOLUTION :
The author highlights that ‘the fact-opinion dichotomy is a false dichotomy which rests on a category
mistake’ and goes on to explain the misunderstanding.
Directions for Questions 73: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that
follows:
The following question consists of one question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question:
73. Eight persons are standing in two parallel rows, such that four persons stand in row-X facing north
and four stand in another row i.e. row-Y facing south. In this way, person in one row faces the person
of other row. Who faces C?
Statement I: A is second to the right of B, who is an immediate neighbor of D.E stands in row-Y and
faces G, who is immediate left of H. C is on the immediate right of the one who faces A.
Statement II: F stands at the left end in row-Y. A is facing I, who is second to the left of E. A stands
in row-X. C and F are the immediate neighbors of I.
33
(a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
SOLUTION :
Checking statement I:
Reference:
E stands in row-Y and faces G, who is immediate left of H.
Inference:
On the basis of given hint, following three cases can be prepared.
On filling the remaining details from Statement I we get
Where Case 1 is the required possibility as per the first statement

Checking statement II:
With the given hints, following image can be prepared.
With this arrangement, we cannot determine the person who faces C.

Hence Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Directions for Questions 74 : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that
follows:
In the following questions, symbols @,%,$,* and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated
below.
A @ B means 'A is not less than B'
A $ B means 'A is not more than B'
A # B means 'A is neither less nor more than B'
A * B means 'A is neither more than nor equal to B'
A % B means 'A is neither less than nor equal to B'
34
74. Statements : V@I#E*D ; N$E% B#F
Conclusions : I.D%F , II. V@B
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows :
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
SOLUTION :
Interpretation of the coded symbols:
A @ B means 'A is not less than B' i.e. A ≥ B
A $ B means 'A is not more than B' i.e. A ≤ B
A # B means 'A is neither less nor more than B' i.e. A = B
A * B means 'A is neither more than nor equal to B' i.e. A < B
A % B means 'A is neither less than nor equal to B' i.e. A > B
We will decode the given statements as per the above interpreted signs.
Statements: V ≥ I = E < D ; N ≤ E > B = F
Conclusions: I. D > F II. V ≥ B
For conclusion I:
From both the statements we get:
F=B<E<D
The common sign between F and D is ‘<’, thus F < D or D > F is true.
Hence conclusion I follows.
For conclusion II:
From both the statements we get:
V≥I=E>B
The common sign between V and B is '>', thus V > B is the actual relationship.
Hence conclusion II does not follow.
Therefore, only conclusion I follows.
Hence option A is correct.
PASSAGE - 1
Total supply of freshwater on earth far exceeds human demand. However, many regions of the world
constantly face scarcity of water. Not very long ago, in some of the current water scarce regions, it was
thought that water is abundantly available. Water scarcity is caused due to both quantitative as well as
qualitative reasons. Quantitatively, availability of water in time and space is not equally distributed.
Hence, there are problems of water in wrong place, or at the wrong time, and in wrong quantities. Poor
quality freshwater limits its beneficial uses causing scarcity. For example, water for potable purposes and
some industrial uses require highest quality, whereas marginal quality water can be used only for
irrigation purposes. Even the irrigational use of water suffers when salinity exceeds tolerable limits of
agricultural crops.
(a) Salinity of water is inversely proportional to its suitability for irrigation
35
(b) Governments are to be blamed for the mismanagement of water resources
(c) It is impossible to ensure equitable distribution of water on a global scale
(d) Developing nations are the hardest hit by water scarcity
SOLUTION :
The author concludes by stating that ‘the irrigational use of water suffers when salinity exceeds
tolerable limits of agricultural crops’.
76. A completes 2/3 of a certain job in 6 days. B can complete 1/3 of the same job in 8 days and C can
complete 3/4 of the work in 12 days. All of them work together for 4 days and then A and C quit. How
long will it take for B to complete the remaining work alone?
(a) 3.8 days
(b) 3.33 days
(c) 2.22 days
(d) 4.3 days
SOLUTION :
A takes 9 days to complete the work
B takes 24 days to complete the work
C takes 4 days to complete the work
In 4 days, work done by all three would be:
4(1/9 + 1/24 + 1/16)
= 4 * (16 + 6 + 9)/144 = 124/144
= 31/36 of the work.
Work left for B would be 5/36 of the work. B would require:
(5/36) * 24 = 3.33 days.
77. The rate at which tap X fills a tank is 50% more than that of tap Y. If both the taps are opened
simultaneously, they take 40 hours to fill the tank. The time taken by Y alone to fill the tank is (in
hours)
(a) 80 hours
(b) 90 hours
(c) 100 hours
(d) 110 hours
SOLUTION :
Let the efficiency of tap Y be 'a', then the efficiency of tap X must be '1.5a'.
Capacity of the tan k = 40 (a + 1.5a) = 100a
Time taken by tap Y to fill the tank = 100a/a = 100 hours.
78. In Anandi Apartments in Chennai, there are twelve floors plus the ground floor. Nine people get into
the lift of the building on the ground floor. The lift does not stop on the first floor. If 2, 3 and 4 people
alight from the lift on its upward journey, then in how many ways can they do so? (Assume they alight
on different floors.)
(a) 11C3 x 3P3
(b) 11P3 x 9C4 x 5C3
(c) 10P3 x 9C4 x 5C3
(d) 12C3.
36
SOLUTION :
As we know that-
Total Number of Floors = 12+1 (ground floor) = 13
Number of stops 13-1-1=11
Since, the Lift doesn't stop at Floor 1, all passengers get into the lift at ground floor
Total number of stops required = 3
(Since, Passengers will get out in groups of 2,3 & 4) Number of ways to select 3 stops "R Number of
passengers in lift = 9
Out of 9 passengers, 4 will get out at once.
So, we have to choose any 4 from 9 passengers and that can be done in 9C4 ways.
Now remaining passengers = 9-4 = 5
Out of 5 remaining passengers, 3 will get out at once
So, we have to choose any 3 from 5 passengers and that can be done in 5C3 ways
Now remaining passengers = 5-3= 2
All the remaining passengers will get out at once. So, that can be done in 2C2 ways 1
Therefore,
Total number of ways = 11P3 x 9C4 x 5C3
Hence, the correct answer is11P3 x 9C4 x 5C3.
79. An apartment has 8 floors. An elevator starts with 4 passengers and stops at 8 floors of the apartment.
What is the probability that all passengers travel to different floors?
(a) 109/256
(b) 135/256
(c) 105/256
(d) 95/256
SOLUTION :
Total outcomes = 8*8*8*8
Favourable outcomes = 8*7*6*5 (first person having 8 choices, after that second person have 7 choices
and so on)
So, probability = 105/256.
80. There are 20 cards. Ten of these cards have the letter "I" printed on them and the other 10 have the
letter "T" printed on them. If three cards are picked up at random and kept in the same order, the
probability of making word IIT is
(a) 4/27
(b) 5/38
(c) 1/8
(d) 9/80
SOLUTION :
Probability of getting I in first = 10/20
Probability of getting I in second = 9/19
Probability of getting T in third = 10/18
10
The required probability = 10 * 9 ∗
20 19 18
= 5/38.
37

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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

2. What is the most crucial message conveyed by the passage above?

6. What is the profession of Vanathi and How is she related to Anusha?

7. Which of the following statement is correct according to the given information

Now, total number of people in the queue = (8 + Vedha + 3 + Rishi + 3 + Janani + 7)

17. F’s boyfriend is having what amount?

19. What is the central theme of the passage given above?

35. What will come in the place of question mark?

Profit share of Suresh’s brother = Rs. 270000

39. What is the central theme of the aforementioned passage?

41. What is the central message conveyed by the passage above?

=1:4 of adulterated fat = (1/5) x 100 = 20% .

46. R is in which direction with respect to T?

52. Which of the following clearly signifies the position of Creta?

65. How many persons are taller than K?

Heights in Decreasing order = H > Q > I > R > K > S > C.

66. Who among the following is mother of I?

On filling the remaining details from Statement I we get

Where Case 1 is the required possibility as per the first statement

With this arrangement, we cannot determine the person who faces C.

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