TEST 05

GENERAL STUDIES
Time Allotted: 2 Hours PAPER – I Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR
TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside.
3. DO NOT Write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Booklet contains 100 Items (Questions). Each item is printed ONLY IN ENGLISH. Each
item comprises four responses (Options). You shall select the response which you want to mark
on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response for an item,
mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response per
item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator Only the Answer Sheet. You are
permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN
THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPER.
i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question
which has a penalty for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate,
one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer
even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same
penalty as above to that question, if it has a penalty.
iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be
no penalty for that question.
1) With reference to Buddhism and Jainism,
consider the following statements:
1. Regarding their fundamental
philosophical principles, Buddhism
and Jainism drew inspiration from the
Samkhya philosophy.
2. Both Buddhism and Jainism believe
that the soul is a living entity that
adheres to various forms of matter.
3. Both Buddhism and Jainism had
influence over the Mathura School of
arts.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
2) With reference to Indian history, Maski,
Tekalghat and Paiyampalli were well
known:
(a) Prehistoric petroglyph sites
(b) Megalithic culture sites
(c) Prehistoric centres of learning
(d) Neolithic rock painting sites
3) Consider the following statements:
Statement–I:
Although the Harappan people used
bronze tools, their numbers were fewer
compared to other civilizations found in
Western Asia and Egypt.
Statement–II:
The copper mines of Singhbum, Khetri,
and Hazaribagh were discovered only
during the Later Vedic period.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement
-II is correct
4) Which one of the following ancient
institutions of learning in the Indian
subcontinent was established the earliest?
(a) Jagaddala
(b) Nalanda
(c) Takshashila
(d) Vallabhi
5) Consider the following passage:
“Nestled within the eastern wall of the
Meguti Temple, a Jaina temple in
Karnataka, lies a remarkable 19-line
inscription crafted in Sanskrit verse and
inscribed in the distinctive southern script
prevalent during the 7th century. This
inscription, attributed to the Chalukya
dynasty, serves as a prashasti glorifying
the reigning monarch, referred to as
Satyashraya, meaning "the abode of
truth". While detailing the history of the
dynasty, the inscription also boasts
significant literary value. Notably, it sheds
light on political events and literature,
including the works of Kalidasa, likely
completed well before the inscription's
date of 634 CE.”
Which inscription's details are being
referenced here?
(a) Hathigumpha inscription of Kharavela
(b) Sohgaura copper plate inscription
(c) Banskhera inscription of Harsha
(d) Aihole inscription of Pulakeshin
6) With reference to the cultural history of
India, consider the following pairs:
Literary work Significance
1. Buddhacharitha : Earliest surviving
Sanskrit mahakavya
2. Prakritaprakasha : Oldest surviving text
on Prakrit grammar
3. Tolkappiyam : Oldest surviving text
on Tamil grammar
4. Mahabhashya : First text on Sanskrit
grammar
How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
7) With reference to the Rani-ki-Vav stepwell, 10) With reference to Mughal emperor Babur,
consider the following statements: consider the following statements:
1. The Rani-ki-Vav stepwell, serving both 1. The Battle of Panipat signified the
religious and functional purposes, was introduction of gunpowder into his
designed as an inverted temple to military tactics for the first time.
emphasize water sanctity. 2. After the Kushans, Babur was the first
2. It is designed in the Maru-Gurjara ruler to incorporate Kandahar and
architectural style, a regional style of Kabul into the Indian Empire.
temple architecture that emerged
during the period of the Western Which of the statements given above
Chalukya dynasty. is/are correct?
3. It has been designated as a UNESCO (a) 1 only
World Heritage Site. (b) 2 only
4. It is depicted on the new Rs 200 note (c) Both 1 and 2
introduced by the Reserve Bank of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
India in 2017.
5. In November 2023, the captains of the 11) Consider the following pairs:
Indian and Australian cricket teams Indian craft Heritage of
posed with the ICC Men's Cricket 1. Kani shawl : Madhya Pradesh
World Cup trophy at the Rani-ki-Vav 2. Kotpad saree : Odisha
stepwell before the final match. 3. Tikuli Art : Bihar
4. Kinnal toys : Rajasthan
How many of the statements given above
are correct? How many of the above pairs are correctly
(a) Only one matched?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) Only three (b) Only two
(d) Only four (c) Only three
(d) All four

8) With reference to the scholars of ancient

and medieval India, consider the following
12) Which of the following structures in India
exemplify the Baroque architectural style?
pairs:
1. Gateway of India, Mumbai
Scholar Patron
1. Dandin : Narasimhavarman-II 2. Diu Fort
2. Jayadeva : Mihira Bhoja 3. Basilica of Bom Jesus, Goa
3. Nagarjuna : Kanishka 4. Victoria Memorial, Kolkata
Select the correct answer using the code
How many of the above pairs are correctly given below:
matched? (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) Only one (b) 1 and 4 only
(b) Only two (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) All three (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) None
13) Which one of the following events
9) Which one of these regions was ruled by happened the earliest?
the dynasties of the Gonandiyas, the (a) Mughal Emperor Farrukhsiyar issued
Karkotas, the Utpalas, and the Loharas?
a royal Farman granting the English
(a) Kashmir
East India company important trading
(b) Andhra
facilities in Bengal.
(c) Gandhara
(b) Establishment of a permanent factory
(d) Kalinga
of English East India Company at
Surat.
 (c) Declaration of Goa as Portuguese
capital by Nino da Cunha.
(d) Formation of French East India
Company.
14) Consider the following pairs:
Newspaper/ Founder
Journal
1. Bharat Mata : Lala Hardayal
2. Jugantar Patrika : Barindra Kumar
Ghosh
3. Bandi Jivan : Sachindranath
Sanyal
Which of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
15) Which one of the following was not a
feature of the Government of India Act of
1919?
(a) Separation of Provincial Budget from
the Central Budget
(b) Introduction of complete Provincial
autonomy
(c) Direct election of members to the
bicameral legislature at the Centre
(d) Establishment of a Central Public
Service Commission for the
recruitment of civil servants
16) With reference to the history of India,
which one of the following events is
referred to as the “Revolt of Jungle Mahal”?
(a) The Indigo Revolt (1859-60)
(b) Birsa Munda’s Revolt (1899-1900)
(c) Pagal Panthi Movement (1825-1833)
(d) Chuar Uprising (1766-1799)
17) With reference to the advent of Europeans
in India, consider the following factors:
1. Superior naval power and an organized
administrative system providing a
strategic upper hand on territorial
exploration.
2. The English East India Company was a
trading company of feudalistic nature
largely owned by the state that offered
a sound commercial base.
3. Britain's reliance on debt markets to
finance its wars, offering investors the
prospect of solid returns upon
defeating rival nations.
4. Active promotion of Christian religious
values among Indian subjects that
made their rule acceptable than that of
other colonial powers.
How many of the factors mentioned above
contributed to the success of English over
other European powers in India?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
18) Consider the following quote:
“The true source of right is duty. If we all
discharge our duties, rights will not be far
to seek. If leaving duties unperformed we
run after rights, they will escape us like a
will-o'- the-wisp. The more we pursue
them, the farther they fly”.
Which one of the following leaders is the
above quote commonly attributed to?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) Sachidanand Sinha
(d) B R Ambedkar
19) With reference to the cropping seasons in
India, consider the following statements:
1. The Kharif season is most suitable for
the cultivation of temperate and
subtropical crops compared to the Rabi
season.
2. The Zaid crops are generally grown in
periods having longer days and shorter
nights.
3. The three distinct cropping seasons are
generally absent in the southern parts
of the country.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
20) The river that flows through the famous
Bhedaghat Marble Rocks in Madhya
Pradesh is:
(a) Indravati
(b) Chambal
(c) Tapi
(d) Narmada
21) Consider the following statements:
Statement–I:
Lonar Lake, situated in Maharashtra, is
high in salinity and alkalinity.
Statement–II:
The lack of outflow from endorheic lakes
results in the concentration of minerals as
the water in the lake evaporates.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement
-II is correct
22) Consider the following passage:
“This protected area, forming a natural
boundary with the Sankosh River on its
western side, was designated as a National
Park in 2021. The park is renowned for its
population of golden langurs and is also
home to Asian elephants, Bengal tigers,
clouded leopards, gaurs, chitals, several
species of hornbills, over 150 species of
butterflies, 170 bird species, and a diverse
range of plants and orchids’ species.”
The protected area described in the above
passage is:
(a) Manas National Park
(b) Raimona National Park
(c) Mouling National Park
(d) Betla National Park
23) Consider the following States in India:
1. Assam
2. Gujarat
3. West Bengal
4. Maharashtra
Arrange the above States in descending
order based on the number of other Indian
States with which they share their land
boundaries.
(a) 1-3-4-2
(b) 4-1-2-3
(c) 1-4-3-2
(d) 4-3-2-1
24) This Indian State has deposits of
manganese, gold and tungsten. It is the
second leading producer of copper and has
the largest deposit of lead-zinc ores.
The State being described above is:
(a) Odisha
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Assam
(d) Andhra Pradesh
25) With reference to tropical cyclones,
consider the following statements:
1. When air warms and rises as a result
of absorbing heat from the sea, a low-
pressure zone forms over the sea
surface, which is necessary for the
formation of a cyclone.
2. There is a downward flow of air in the
eye of the cyclone which creates a calm
weather in the eye region.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
26) Consider the following statements:
Statement–I:
The relative humidity of air decreases with
increase in the ambient temperature.
Statement–II:
With the increase in ambient temperature,
the absolute humidity of the air decreases.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
 (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II Select the correct answer from the code
is incorrect given below:
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement (a) Only two
-II is correct (b) Only three
(c) Only four
27) The Rafah Crossing, a location which has (d) All five
appeared in the news recently, is located
in: 31) With reference to money supply, consider
(a) Eastern Africa the following statements:
(b) Northeast of the Sinai Peninsula 1. Open market purchase of government
(c) Afghanistan-Iran border bonds by the central bank can increase
(d) Crimean Peninsula the monetary base in an economy.
2. Individuals can directly control the
28) With reference to earthquakes, consider level of base money in an economy.
the following statements:
1. The P-waves cannot be detected at a Which of the statements given above
point on the Earth which lies opposite is/are not correct?
to the epicentre of the earthquake. (a) 1 only
2. The Mercalli scale is an open-ended (b) 2 only
scale as it measures the intensity of (c) Both 1 and 2
earthquakes. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. All natural earthquakes occur in the
lithosphere.
32) Consider the following government
initiatives:
How many of the statements given above 1. Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP)
are correct? 2. Production Linked Incentive Scheme
(a) Only one (PLI)
(b) Only two 3. Perform Achieve Trade scheme (PAT)
(c) All three 4. Establishing Special Economic Zones
(d) None (SEZ)

29) In recent news, Lake Kariba, recognized as
the world's largest man-made lake and
reservoir by volume, has garnered
attention due to a significant drop in its
water levels attributed to the latest El Nino
drought. The lake's water level has
plummeted to just 13.52 per cent of its
total capacity. Where is Lake Kariba
situated?
(a) Southern Africa
(b) Brazil
(c) North America
(d) Australia
30) How many of the following countries are
part of Africa's Great Rift Valley?
1. Libya
2. Djibouti
3. Kenya
4. Mozambique
5. Nigeria
How many of the above initiatives are
primarily aimed at attracting investments
in different sectors of the Indian economy?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
33) Which among the following best explains
the function of District Mineral
Foundations established by the State
Governments?
(a) To regulate the mining industry and
ensure environmental compliance.
(b) To collect taxes on minerals mined in
the district.
(c) To manage and auction mineral
resources for the State Government.
(d) To provide welfare benefits to persons
in mining-affected areas.
34) Consider the following statements:
Statement – I:
An unemployment trap may occur when
generous unemployment benefits are
offered to unemployed individuals.
Statement – II:
Unemployment benefits can act as an
opportunity cost of employment.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement
-II is correct
35) Consider the following online initiatives:
1. Government e-Marketplace
2. e-NAM
3. Udyam Sakhi Portal
How many of the above are specifically
dedicated to agricultural commodities?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
36) Consider the following:
1. Solar glass
2. Detergents
3. Ceramics
4. Paper
Sodium carbonate, popularly known as
soda ash, is used in the manufacturing of
how many of the above-mentioned items?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
37) Consider the following statements:
1. Monsoon conditions in India have a
direct bearing on domestic inflation.
2. Free trade agreements signed between
India and other countries can influence
domestic inflation in India.
3. Geopolitical events in Middle Eastern
countries directly impact inflation in
India.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
38) Which one of the following statements
regarding transactions using e-Rupee is
correct?
(a) e-Rupee uses blockchain or distributed
ledger technology to make secure and
transparent transactions.
(b) Commercial banks can issue central
bank digital currency (CBDC) wallets
for e-Rupee transactions.
(c) At present, e-Rupee cannot be
converted into physical cash directly.
(d) All the above statements are correct.
39) With reference to plantation agriculture in
India, consider the following statements:
1. Plantation agriculture is a large-scale
commercial farming system focused on
cash crops.
2. Plantation agriculture often involves
monoculture, cultivating a single type
of crop over a large area.
3. Tea and cardamom are cultivated as
part of plantation agriculture in India.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
40) With reference to Green GDP, consider the
following statements:
1. It is a measure of a country's economic
output that takes into account the
environmental costs associated with
production.
2. It is calculated by subtracting the cost
of resource depletion and
environmental degradation from the
traditional GDP figure.
3. Rising levels of Green GDP indicates an
overall sustainable economy.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
41) ‘Petrodollar’ was recently in news. What is
petrodollar?
(a) A new cryptocurrency largely used for
crude oil transactions.
(b) U.S. Dollars earned by countries that
export oil.
(c) A unit of measurement for oil reserves
in terms of its financial value.
(d) A financial incentive offered to
countries that reduce their oil
consumption.
42) Which among the following best
differentiates between a debt and equity in
the capital market?
(a) Debt represents ownership in a
company with potential profit through
dividends and capital
appreciation, while equity involves
borrowing with fixed obligations for
repayment and interest payments.
(b) Debt offers interest payments and a set
maturity date, while equity
provides ownership and potential profit
through dividends and capital
appreciation.
(c) Companies can issue debt with no set
maturity date, whereas equity has a
fixed maturity date.
(d) Debt market is subject to the risk of
default by the borrower, while equity
market offers assured returns.
43) With reference to the spices sector in India,
consider the following statements:
1. India is the largest producer, consumer
and exporter of spices in the world.
2. The Spices Board of India provides for
quality evaluation of spices set for
exports from India.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
44) Consider the following statements:
1. Tobacco requires a frost-free period of
100 to 130 days to grow.
2. Tobacco cultivation in India was
introduced by the British.
3. Synthetic nicotine is inherently less
toxic than natural nicotine.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
45) Dearness Allowance (DA) serves as a cost-
of-living adjustment provided by the
government to both public sector
employees and pensioners, aiming to
mitigate the impact of inflation. Which
specific price inflation index is DA
associated with?
(a) Consumer Price Index – Combined
(b) Consumer Price Index – Industrial
Workers
(c) Wholesale Price Index
(d) Consumer Price Index – Agricultural
Labourers
46) Consider the following animals found in
India:
1. Dhole
2. Lion-tailed macaque
3. Slender loris
4. Sloth bear
 How many of the above animals are
endemic to the Western Ghats?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
47) Consider the following Protected Areas in
India:
1. Mukurthi National Park
2. Kalakkad Mudanthurai Tiger Reserve
3. Bannerghatta National Park
4. Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary
5. Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary
How many of the above belong to the
Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) Only four
48) With reference to Jatropha plant, which
one of the following statements is not
correct?
(a) Jatropha is native to the American
continent.
(b) Jatropha grows well under subtropical
and tropical climates.
(c) The oil from jatropha plant can be used
to produce low calorie edible oils.
(d) The seeds of jatropha are used in the
production of biodiesel.
49) Consider the following chemicals:
1. DDT (dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane)
2. Polychlorinated biphenyls
3. Chlorine
4. Fluoride
How many of the chemicals given above
are capable of bioaccumulation?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
50) Which of the following statements
regarding amphibians are correct?
1. Amphibians are the most diverse
species among vertebrates.
2. Amphibians respire using gills, lungs
and their skin.
3. Some amphibians do not have limbs.
4. Amphibians are mostly oviparous in
nature.
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
51) With reference to the Montreux records,
consider the following statements:
1. Any wetland where a change in
ecological character is most likely can
be included in the Montreux records.
2. A wetland added to the Ramsar List of
Wetlands of International Importance
automatically gets added to the
Montreux records.
3. Presently, India has only two wetland
sites included in the Montreux records.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
52) Which one of the following is an example of
a sequential hermaphrodite, a species that
changes its sex during its lifetime?
(a) Moth
(b) Lobster
(c) Honey bee
(d) Shrimp
53) Consider the following statements:
1. Absence of a predator species can
possibly increase the population of
prey species and could result in a
competition between them.
2. Absence of a species in a region can
possibly result in the increase in
population of its competitive species in
that region.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
54) Consider the following statements:
Statement – I:
Excess ammonia from agricultural fields,
which is emitted to the atmosphere,
possibly causes global warming.
Statement – II:
Ammonia in its gaseous form is a
greenhouse gas.
57) Consider the following statements:
1. Bioleaching is a biomining process in
which microbes are used to dissolve
and extract the desired metal from ore.
2. Bio-oxidation is a biomining process in
which microbes are used to remove
undesired metals and other
compounds from ore.

Which one of the following is correct in Which of the statements given above
respect of the above statements? is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (a) 1 only
correct and Statement-II is the correct (b) 2 only
explanation for Statement-I (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I 58) Which of the following measures would
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II best aid a country in reaching its net-zero
is incorrect emissions goal?
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement 1. Introduction of green taxonomy
-II is correct 2. Reduction of carbon-intensive subsidies
3. Promotion of rooftop solar initiatives
55) Consider the following statements: 4. Promotion of linear consumption
1. Pangolins are scaly-skinned reptiles patterns among citizens
threatened by illegal wildlife trade. 5. Use of non-fungible tokens (NFTs)
2. Pygmy hogs are omnivorous, feeding on 6. Promotion of circular economy
roots, tubers, insects, and small
vertebrates. Select the correct answer from the code
3. Spider monkeys are native to the given below:
Indian subcontinent. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only
(b) 1, 4, 5 and 6 only
How many of the above statements are (c) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
correct? (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 59) With reference to the Indian Forest & Wood
(c) All three Certification Scheme, consider the
(d) None following statements:
1. The scheme aims to offer an
environmental certification for
56) India is actively exploring its Geothermal products derived from forests and
energy potential. Geothermal energy is
trees, facilitating both domestic and
expected to decarbonize which of the
following sectors in India? global consumers in identifying their
1. Electricity generation source.
2. Heating and cooling of buildings and 2. The Forest Management certification is
industry based on the provisions laid out in the
3. Transportation sector Forest Conservation Act, 1980.

Select the correct answer from the code Which of the above statements is/are not
given below: correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
60) Consider the following statements: 63) With reference to no-confidence motion,
1. Grizzled giant squirrels are endemic to consider the following statements:
the Eastern Ghats. 1. The Constitution of India states that a
2. Grizzled giant squirrels are no-confidence motion can only be
crepuscular. introduced in the Lok Sabha.
3. Grizzled giant squirrel is the largest of 2. Once admitted, a motion of no-
all giant squirrels. confidence must be taken up within
thirty days of the leave being asked for.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
Which of the statements given above
(a) Only one
is/are correct?
(b) Only two
(c) All three (a) 1 only
(d) None (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
61) With reference to the Central Council of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ministers, consider the following
statements:
64) Consider the following:
1. The Council of Ministers is an
1. An Indian citizen arrested under the
executive authority.
National Security Act
2. The Council of Ministers is collectively
responsible to the President of India. 2. A Bangladeshi citizen
3. A Member of Parliament cannot be 3. Person detained under the POCSO Act
disqualified for defection as long as 4. Person who faces civil arrest
they remain a member of the Council of
Ministers. How many of the individuals listed above
are protected by Article 22 of the Indian
How many of the statements given above
Constitution?
are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) Only three
(d) None (d) All four

62) Consider the following statements:

Statement–I: 65) With reference to the recent constitutional
India has an integrated judicial system. amendments, consider the following pairs:
Statement–II: Amendment Amended Provision
The Constitution of India envisages High 1. 103rd Amendment : Ten percent
Courts and District Courts as subordinate reservation for
to the Supreme Court. economically weaker
sections.
Which one of the following is correct in 2. 105 Amendment : Empowered the
th
respect of the above statements? Central government
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are as the sole authority
correct and Statement-II is the correct
to identify the socially
explanation for Statement-I
and educationally
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
backward classes.
correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I 3. 106 Amendment : Removed the reserved
th

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II seats for the Anglo-

is incorrect Indian community in
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement the Lok Sabha.
-II is correct
 How many of the above pairs are correctly (c) A government that respects individual
matched? rights and freedoms and is subject to
(a) Only one checks and balances.
(b) Only two (d) A government that is decentralized,
(c) All three with power dispersed among different
(d) None levels or branches to prevent tyranny.

66) Consider the following: 69) With reference to de-notified tribes,

1. Parliamentary proceedings consider the following statements:
2. Advice tendered by the Ministers to the 1. All de-notified tribes are officially
President recognized by the government as
3. Declaration of National Emergency Scheduled Tribes.
4. Pardon granted by the President 2. The Development and Welfare Board
for De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-
How many of the above-mentioned Nomadic Communities (DWBDNC) was
provisions are beyond the scope of inquiry established under the Ministry of
by the Courts in India? Tribal Affairs to implement schemes for
(a) Only one such tribes.
(b) Only two 3. The second National Commission on
(c) Only three De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-
(d) All four Nomadic Communities was set up
under the chairmanship of Bhiku
Ramji Idate.
67) Consider the following statements:
Statement–I:
How many of the statements given above
Parliamentary control over public
are correct?
expenditure has been diminished by the
(a) Only one
creation of the Contingency Fund of India.
(b) Only two
Statement–II:
(c) All three
The Contingency Fund of India is operated (d) None
by the President of India.
70) With reference to Governor of a State in
Which one of the following is correct in India, consider the following statements:
respect of the above statements? 1. The State Legislative Council can take
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are part in the proceedings of the
correct and Statement-II is the correct impeachment of the Governor.
explanation for Statement-I 2. The removal of the Governor by the
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are President is beyond the scope of
correct and Statement-II is not the judicial review.
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II Which of the statements given above
is incorrect is/are correct?
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement (a) 1 only
-II is correct (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
68) Which one of the following best defines the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
term “limited government”?
(a) A government with restricted powers, 71) Consider the following:
where its actions are constrained by a 1. Prime Minister
constitution or other legal framework. 2. Finance Minister
(b) A government that has minimal 3. Home Minister
involvement in the lives of its citizens 4. Defence Minister
and the economy.
 How many of the officials mentioned above
are members of the Appointments
Committee of the Union Cabinet?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
72) With reference to the Police
Commissionerate System in India,
consider the following statements:
1. As per the Police Act, 1861, the
Commissionerate system can be
implemented only in cities with more
than 10 lakh population.
2. The Commissionerate system enables
the police to make quicker decisions in
response to complex law and order
situations, a growing population, and
rapid urbanization.
3. Presently, all states in India have at
least one Commissionerate.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
73) Consider the following statements:
1. In a representative democracy, popular
sovereignty is reflected in the ability to
vote out representatives who don't
represent the people's will.
2. The concept of popular sovereignty is
incompatible with the idea of a
Constitution that limits the power of
the majority.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
74) Consider the following statements:
Statement – I:
State governments do not have the power
to impose a residence requirement for
certain government jobs.
Statement – II:
Article 35 of the Constitution of India gives
Parliament the exclusive power to make
laws concerning residency requirements
for government employment within a
State.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement
-II is correct
75) Which of the methods given below could be
employed to resolve territorial boundary
disputes between two Indian States?
1. Filing original suit in the Supreme
Court.
2. Taking up the matter in the Inter-State
Council.
3. Taking up the matter in the respective
Zonal Council.
4. Filing original suit in the respective
High Courts.
Select the correct answer from the code
given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
76) Consider the following activities:
1. Visually observing atoms in an
element.
2. Studying biological structure of a
human cell.
3. Integrating components of nano-robots.
How many of the above can be achieved
using an electron microscope?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
77) ‘They resemble large-scale batteries in
their ability to store and release energy.
This system typically integrates renewable
energy sources like solar and wind and
they are often used to meet energy demand
during peak hours.’
Which among the following accurately
matches the above description?
(a) Solar thermal power plants
(b) Pumped storage hydroelectric plants
(c) Diesel-Electric power plants
(d) Hydrogen fuel cell based powerplants
78) The term AI- Deadbots has recently been
seen in the news. Which of the following
best describes the term AI-Deadbots?
(a) Artificial intelligence used to predict
the cause and time of death.
(b) AI Chatbots that often fail to respond
to user queries.
(c) AI Chatbots that use a deceased
person's digital footprint to create a
simulated conversation.
(d) AI – robots that are programmed to
self-destruct if they function outside
the given commands.
79) Consider the following statements about
‘added sugars’:
1. Added sugars are artificial sweeteners
with no caloric value, hence their
consumption is not of any benefit to the
human body.
2. In India, the FSSAI mandates to
mention ingredients such as sugar on
packaged products.
3. The human body cannot distinguish
between added sugars and naturally
occurring sugars.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
80) Consider the following activities:
1. Predicting crop yield based on weather
data.
2. Detecting diseases in plants using
image recognition.
3. Optimizing irrigation schedules based
on soil moisture data.
4. Sorting crops by quality and size
automatically.
How many among the above are the
applications of Artificial Intelligence (AI) in
Agriculture?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
81) Which of the following statements best
describes the term Embryo twinning?
(a) Embryo twinning is a purely artificial
process performed only in laboratory
settings for reproductive purposes,
such as in vitro fertilization (IVF)
procedures.
(b) Embryo twinning involves the splitting
of a single embryo into two distinct
embryos, each with identical genetic
material.
(c) Embryo twinning is a rare occurrence
and primarily observed in non-human
species like mammals and birds.
(d) Embryo twinning results in the
damage of existing embryos due to
splitting, causing infertility.
82) Consider the following statements:
1. Guided missiles are equipped with
onboard navigation systems that allow
them to accurately track and adjust
their trajectory towards a specific
target.
2. Only cruise missiles with continuous
propulsion through the trajectory can
function as a guided missile.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
83) Consider the following statements:
Statement – I:
Ice, which is the solid form of water
usually floats above the surface of water.
 Statement – II:
The density of a liquid generally increases
when it is cooled and converted in to a
solid.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement
-II is correct
84) With reference to the Mitochondrial
donation treatment (MDT), consider the
following statements:
1. MDT can mitigate the mitochondrial
abnormalities inherited from one's
parents.
2. Same-sex female couples who want a
child and are genetically related to each
other may select MDT method.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
85) With respect to Small Language Models
(SLM) used in training artificial intelligence
software/machines, consider the following
statements:
1. Small Language Models (SLM) have
lesser latency compared to Large
Language Models (LLM).
2. Small Language are designed and
trained to meet specialised
applications, with a lesser quantity of
information compared to Large
Language Models (LLM).
3. Machines trained with Small Language
Models (SLM) can work with or without
an internet connection.
4. Small Language Models are better
suited in edge computing devices
compared to Large Language Models.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
86) Which of the following statements
regarding doxxing is true?
(a) Doxxing is a form of cyberattack that
involves hacking into a company's
database.
(b) Doxxing refers to the act of publicly
revealing private or personal
information about an individual or
organization without their consent,
typically with malicious intent.
(c) Doxxing is considered a crime only if it
leads to financial loss for the victim.
(d) Doxxing is primarily used as a tool for
online marketing strategies.
87) Inulin, acknowledged for its prebiotic
properties and its ability to support the
growth of beneficial gut bacteria, is a type
of dietary fibre highly esteemed for its
positive impact on health. Commonly
utilized as a food additive, inulin offers
various health benefits, rendering it a
sought-after ingredient in many food
products.
Which of the following items naturally
contain Inulin?
1. Chicory root
2. Onion
3. Milk
4. Wheat
5. Eggs
6. Banana
Select the correct answer from the code
given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
(c) 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 4, 5 and 6 only
88) Consider the following cases:
1. Drying cloths in a washing machine.
2. Body roll experienced by passengers of
a cornering car.
3. A satellite remaining in its orbit.
4. Simulating artificial gravity in space
vehicles.
 The principle of centrifugal force comes How many of the above statements are
into action in how many of the above correct?
cases? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) All three
(c) Only three (d) None
(d) All four
92) Which region was the new species of 'music
frog', Nidirana noadihing, recently
89) Consider the following: discovered in?
1. Dengue (a) Assam
2. Rabies (b) Arunachal Pradesh
3. Leprosy (c) Manipur
4. Snakebites (d) Meghalaya

How many of the above are considered as 93) With reference to e-soil, which appeared in
Neglected Tropical Diseases? the news, consider the following
(a) Only one statements:
1. The e-soil technology involves
(b) Only two
stimulating the roots of a plant which
(c) Only three
results in the plant’s enhanced growth.
(d) All four
2. e-soil has significant application in the
aeroponics cultivation of plants.
90) Starting from the least, arrange the
following surfaces in increasing order
Which of the statements given above
based on their general ability to produce
is/are correct?
albedo effect:
1. Ocean (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
2. Forest
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Old snow
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Thick cloud
5. Desert
94) The Santiago Network, recently seen in the
news, is a/an?
Select the correct answer from the code (a) International Wildlife Conservation
given below: Organization
(a) 5-1-2-4-3 (b) Sustainable Agriculture Initiative
(b) 5-2-1-3-4 (c) Renewable Energy Research Group
(c) 2-5-1-4-3 (d) Climate Change Mitigation Initiative
(d) 1-2-5-3-4
95) Which of the following statements is
91) With reference to fertilizer subsidies in correct with respect to Natura 2000?
India, consider the following statements: (a) It is an international project of UN-
1. The Maximum Retail Price (MRP) of Habitat that focuses on urban
urea is statutorily fixed by the Central conservation.
Government. (b) It is a network of protected areas
2. The Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) established by the European Union for
scheme establishes fixed subsidies for biodiversity conservation.
fertilizers apart from urea, based on (c) It is a global initiative led by the United
their nutritional content. Nations Environment Programme
3. The government recently waived the aimed at preserving marine
caps on profit margins companies can ecosystems.
earn from the sale of subsidized non- (d) It is a program initiated by the World
urea fertilizers. Wildlife Fund to address deforestation
and habitat loss.
96) Consider the following: 99) Which among the following best defines the
1. Creating bright flashes in fireworks term ‘Obelisk’, recently in news?
2. Making photographic films (a) Biological entities, similar to viruses,
3. Cauterizing wounds that are present in the human body.
(b) A new species of deep-sea fish
How many of the uses listed above are the discovered by marine biologists.
common applications of silver nitrate? (c) Recently identified astronomical
(a) Only one phenomenon involving the alignment
(b) Only two of celestial bodies, such as planets
(c) All three or stars.
(d) None (d) Recently discovered variety of orchids
capable of withstanding low
97) With reference to Blue Leaders, recently temperatures of temperate regions.
seen in news, consider the following
statements: 100) Which one of the following is not located in
1. It is a group of countries calling for the Atlantic Ocean?
urgent action to save the global ocean (a) Puerto Rico
in the face of the climate crisis, (b) Socotra Islands
overfishing, pollution and other (c) Canary Islands
threats. (d) Faroe Islands
2. The Blue Leaders are committed to the
goal of securing a new international
target to protect at least 30% of the
global ocean through a network of
highly and fully protected marine areas
by 2030.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

98) With reference to the Global Framework on

Chemicals, consider the following
statements:
1. The framework aims to phase out
highly hazardous pesticides in
agriculture by 2035.
2. It was launched by the International
Union for Conservation of Nature.
3. The Global Framework on Chemicals
Fund will be administered by the
UNEP.

How many of the above statements are

correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None