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ĐỀ SỐ 11

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. ban B. lace C. take D. late
Question 2: A. chore B. check C. chorus D. coach

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. advent B. drama C. asthma D. mistake
Question 4: A. acquainted B. supportive C. historic D. mischievous

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: ______ boy among the students is Hoa’s boyfriend.
A. The tallest B. Taller C. The taller D. Tallest
Question 6: Although some societies are ______ undeveloped, their languages - from a linguist's
point of view - are very complex.
A. technologist B. technological C. technologically D. technology
Question 7: Sophie first met her husband when she ______ with her sister.
A. was shopping B. has shopped C. shopped D. is shopping
Question 8: The building ______ at the corner of the street is a historical landmark.
A. stood B. to stand C. standing D. is standing
Question 9: He has told us so many lies that we can no longer place any ______on what he says.
A. reliance B. belief C. credit D. faith
Question 10: The mechanic ______ some money every month until he had enough to open his own
workshop.
A. put out B. put on C. put aside D. put down
Question 11: The majestic mountains ______ the surrounding landscape, making everything else
seem small in comparison.
A. diminished B. belittled C. dwarfed D. slashed
Question 12: The announcement of the new project ______ everyone's hopes at the company meeting,
generating a buzz of excitement.
A. lowered B. raised C. matched D. dropped
Question 13: ______, we will be able to leave for the airport.
A. As soon as the taxi was turning up B. As soon as the taxi turns up
C. As soon as the taxi turned up D. As soon as the taxi had turned up
Question 14: The longest fish in the contest, measuring eighteen inches, ______ by John last week.
A. was caught B. catches C. caught D. was catching
Question 15: Your parents will celebrate their wedding anniversary next month, ______?
A. will they B. do they C. don’t they D. won’t they
Question 16: It does no good to get angry ______ him. It won't change the situation at all.
A. to B. at C. from D. for
Question 17: He is trying his best ______ his financial problems during the current economic
depression.
A. to solving B. solving C. solve D. to solve
Question 18: He always wants to visit ______ United States and see the Statue of Liberty.
A. an B. a C. the D. ∅ (no article)
Question 19: Being an early ______, he enjoys watching the sunrise every morning as he goes for a
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walk. A. bird B. butterfly C. rabbit D. fish

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Cooper and Kevin are talking about the Internet.
- Cooper: “I think the Internet should be free for all.”
- Kevin: “______ If so, who will pay for the software engineers?”
A. That’s just what I think. B. I quite agree.
C. Sure! D. You’re dead wrong.
Question 21: Rose is meeting Jack after a long time.
- Rose: “Haven’t seen you for ages, Jack.”- Jack: “______”
A. Good to hear that. B. Thanks, everyone is fine.
C. It’s not your business. D. Yes. It’s been so long.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The goal of the marketing is to show that the product fulfills consumers’ needs.
A. accepts B. ignores C. denies D. satisfies
Question 23: Although Lucy had trained for months, her physical limitation prevented her from
reaching her best performance during the competition last week.
A. strength B. appearance C. weakness D. fitness

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The condition of the old building had deteriorated so much over the years that it was no
longer safe to occupy.
A. improved B. examined C. repaired D. explained
Question 25: Before the big game, the team was full of beans and eager to show off their skills.
A. inspired B. tired C. satisfied D. excited

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: "I have been learning Chinese for two years," he told his new roommate.
A. He told his new roommate he has been learning Chinese for two years.
B. He told his new roommate he has learned Chinese for two years.
C. He told his new roommate he had been learning Chinese for two years.
D. He told his new roommate he was learning Chinese for two years.
Question 27: I began to get on with my neighbour a few weeks ago.
A. I used to get on with my neighbour for a few weeks.
B. I have gotten on with my neighbour for a few weeks.
C. I was gotten on with my neighbour a few weeks before.
D. I have begun to get on with my neighbour for a few weeks.
Question 28: It isn’t necessary for you to submit your essay today.
A. You mustn’t submit your essay today. B. You needn’t submit your essay today.
C. You ought to submit your essay today. D. Your essay shouldn’t be submitted today.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: If the bone is large or it is broken in more than one place, the doctor may need to use

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metal pins to set them.
A. place B. large C. them D. metal
Question 30: Over the past two years, about 22 million students nationwide experienced different
class interruptions and switched to online learning due to the impacts of the pandemic.
A. past B. switched C. due to D. experienced
Question 31: We should raise people’s conscience of protecting the environment for the future
generations.
A. generations B. protecting C. conscience D. raise

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: The streets flooded due to the heavy rain. Consequently, traffic chaos occurred.
A. If the streets had not flooded due to the heavy rain, there wouldn't have been traffic chaos.
B. Unless the streets flooded due to the heavy rain, there would be no traffic chaos.
C. If the streets flooded due to the heavy rain, there would have been traffic chaos.
D. If the streets had flooded due to the heavy rain, there wouldn't have been traffic chaos.
Question 33: Students are banned from using mobile phones in schools. There is no exception
whatsoever.
A. Under no circumstances are students prohibited from using mobile phones in schools.
B. On no account are students permitted to use mobile phones in schools.
C. At no time were students permitted to use mobile phones in schools.
D. In no way are students prohibited from using mobile phones in schools.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Money is typically considered the measure of success, but is it fair to say that it is the only true
measure? Sociologically speaking, the perception of success can involve (34) ______ factors as well,
such as prestige, family, and importance within the community. (35) ______, some professions are
highly coveted and difficult to enter. For these, just making a (36) ______ may be viewed as success in
and of itself. Finally, it is possible to think of a situation on which wealth does not translate into
success.
The word “success” may call to mind a Wall Street stockbroker (37) ______ earns half a million
dollars per year, but other exemplars of success include a well-renowned professor, the head of a
well-adjusted family, a chief of police, or a school principal. All of these people may only make as
much money as an unsuccessful stockbroker, but prestige, family, and community status all (38)
______ for the perception of their success.
(Adapted from Mastering Skills for the TOEFL iBT - Advanced)
Question 34: A. every B. another C. other D. each
Question 35: A. For example B. Furthermore C. Although D. Otherwise
Question 36: A. living B. fortune C. profit D. meet
Question 37: A. when B. where C. which D. who
Question 38: A. fulfil B. complete C. compensate D. commit

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
When a new superhero movie comes out, it dominates the box office for weeks. The trailer for
Captain America: Civil War was one of the most downloaded trailers ever and A-list actors are keen to
take on superhero roles. Many superhero films have had Oscar nominations, and fan events like
Comic-Con keep fans excited about the latest blockbusters.

3
First of all, there’s the adventure, the action and the costumes, the great soundtracks, the special
effects and computer-generated images. They’re fun and entertaining, and we love escapism. But is
that enough? We have to look deeper to find out why people love them. Superheroes have feelings.
They cope with human experiences that we can relate to. In other words, they are not so different
from regular people. Psychologist Mary Tavost has written books about the psychology of
superheroes, and she thinks that they inspire their fans because their goals in life are similar to
human goals. They want peace, justice and love, just as we do. The lives of superheroes reflect real life
as we know it.
(Adapted from English Discovery)
Question 39: The passage is mainly about ______.
A. superheroes and their superpowers B. the hard life of superhero actors.
C. why we love superhero movies D. the psychology of superheroes.
Question 40: The word it in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. superhero B. movie C. trailer D. box office
Question 41: The word blockbusters in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. special awards B. hit singles C. successful films D. digital images
Question 42: According to the passage, superheroes, like ordinary people, ______.
A. are fun and entertaining B. have a lot of experiences
C. are inspiring and peaceful D. have their own emotions
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Superheroes’ goals are quite different from those of humans.
B. A-list actors are interested in taking on superhero roles.
C. Superheroes fight for justice and even sacrifice themselves.
D. Superhero movies are one of the most popular cinema genres.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Attracting users to social networking sites and cloud computing sites is all about building trust.
However, if recent news is anything to go by, consumers would be right to consider that the trust
they have put into the Internet companies that run these services has been betrayed.
Between 2006 and the beginning of 2010, search engine giant Google started a project to map
and digitally photograph every road in every major city in more than 30 countries for its product
Google Streetview. But images, it appears, are not all that the Streetview cars collected. It now turns
out that Google collected over 600 Gigabytes of data from users of public and unprotected Wi-Fi
access routers - which included Web pages visited and emails. All this was collected without the prior
knowledge or permission of the router owners.
But most criticism surrounding data privacy is currently reserved for
Facebook, which has faced extreme anger from consumers when millions of users suddenly found
their private details exposed and searchable on Google, Bing and Yahoo. Facebook, whose privacy
policies have come under attack both at home and abroad, now faces a stiff fine for storing non-users’
personal data without their permission. Founder Mark Zuckerberg appears to be relenting and is now
beefing up security. The issue came to the fore in recent months among concern that Facebook’s
confusing privacy settings were making it possible for Internet stalkers, cyber criminals and even
nosy neighbours to gain a wealth of information about its users without their knowledge or
permission. What all these companies deal in is trust. Without trust, we would not allow them access
to our private information. Therefore, it’s important that they maintain our trust. If social networking
becomes increasingly important to companies such as Google, Apple and Microsoft, they will have to
be careful not to violate their users’ trust in the future.
(Adapted from Ielts Preparation and Practice by Bridget Aucoin and Louisa Chawhan)

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Question 44: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Big companies suffering from data leaks B. Data privacy concerns and customers’ trust
C. Measures to protect customers’ data D. Customers’ reaction to Google Streetview
Question 45: The word they in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
A. networking sites B. computing sites C. consumers D. Internet companies
Question 46: The word major in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. rural B. big C. safe D. tiny
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, as millions of users found their private details were leaked,
they ______.
A. refused to use Facebook B. attacked Facebook’s privacy policies
C. fined Facebook for storing their data D. criticized Facebook’s data privacy settings
Question 48: The word exposed in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. shown B. broken C. exploded D. lost
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Google collected data from users of the public without their permission.
B. Facebook’s confusing privacy settings made it easy to leak their customers’ data.
C. Mark Zuckerberg seems not to take any measures to tighten Facebook’s security.
D. Google collected not only images of roads but also data of webpages visited and emails.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Facebook has been fined for intentionally leaking non-users’ personal data.
B. Without timely action to prevent data leaks, big companies may lose their customers.
C. Customers are content with the services from online companies.
D. Big companies don’t have to take the blame for customers’ data leaks.

------ THE END ------

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ĐỀ SỐ 12
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. machine B. psychology C. stomach D. school
Question 2: A. change B. flame C. share D. fate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. threaten B. release C. agree D. escape
Question 4: A. argument B. attention C. opponent D. performance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: My sister is studying _______ Biology at university.
A. a B. the C. an D. ∅ (no article)
Question 6: When they _______ for a walk in the botanical garden, they saw beautiful swans
swimming in the lake.
A. went B. were going C. are going D. have gone
Question 7: The controversial decision made by the government was ______ by several opposition
parties.
A. criticised B. loathed C. condemned D. blamed
Question 8: He is in prison for smoking drugs after he ______ by his friends three weeks ago that it
was against the law.
A. told B. was told C. is telling D. will tell
Question 9: Each element of the ceremony has a _______meaning.
A. symbol B. symbolic C. symbolism D. symbolize
Question 10: How did you manage _______him to invest in your project?
A. persuading B. to persuade C. to persuading D. persuade
Question 11: The hotel guest was dissatisfied with the cleanliness of the room, so he _______ a
complaint to the manager.
A. made B. set C. took D. placed
Question 12: The man ______ around the park seemed incredibly focused on his exercise routine.
A. jogged B. is jogging C. to jog D. jogging
Question 13: He needs to stop having his head in the ______ and start focusing on his studies if he
wants to succeed in school.
A. winds B. skies C. clouds D. rains
Question 14: Charlie _______ his shoes and went to bed early last night.
A. put up B. put off C. took off D. took up
Question 15: Have you read Huckleberry Finn? It’s about a boy who goes on a long _______ down
the Mississippi River.
A. journey B. excursion C. tour D. travel
Question 16: It is not always _______students who get good marks in tests.
A. brighter B. most bright C. more bright D. the brightest
Question 17: You are satisfied with the service here, _______?
A. aren’t you B. won’t you C. have you D. are you
Question 18: They don't seem particularly worried _______ the possibility that there is a spread of
diseases.
A. to B. about C. with D. for
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Question 19: The party will start _______ this evening.
A. when everybody will turn up B. when everybody turns up
C. when everybody turned up D. when everybody had turned up

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Julia and Dane are talking about choosing universities.
- Julia: “It is important that we need to choose a university that is suitable for our ability and desire.”
- Dane: “_______. Choosing the right university will certainly affect our future.”
A. I refuse to believe that B. Sorry, I have no idea
C. Oh, I don’t know D. I couldn’t agree more
Question 21: Jack is apologizing to Mary for staining her carpet.
- Jack: “Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned, Mary”.
- Mary: “_______”
A. Hope to see you again. B. Good job.
C. Never mind. D. I’m glad you like it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: You will need to demonstrate a basic command of English in order to be accepted for
the course.
A. knowledge B. skill C. range D. variety
Question 23: Recent environmental initiatives have had positive impacts on reducing the national
carbon footprint.
A. delays B. rejections C. projects D. training

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The author included a glossary at the end of the book to clarify any unfamiliar terms.
A. modify B. explain C. simplify D. confuse
Question 25: When she heard her favourite band playing nearby, she would buy tickets in a
heartbeat.
A. instantly B. occasionally C. immediately D. reluctantly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: Phuong last used TikTok two weeks ago.
A. Phuong didn’t use TikTok for two weeks. B. Phuong has been using TikTok for two
weeks.
C. Phuong hasn’t used TikTok for two weeks. D. Phuong used TikTok for two weeks.
Question 27: "We think the plan will work," they told the manager.
A. They told the manager they think the plan will work.
B. They told the manager they thought the plan will work.
C. They told the manager they thought the plan would work.
D. They told the manager they think the plan would work.
Question 28: It’s impossible for him to finish his homework in 2 hours.
A. He may finish his homework in 2 hours.
B. He can finish his homework in 2 hours.
C. He shouldn’t finish his homework in 2 hours.

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D. He can’t finish his homework in 2 hours.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: Many large companies have branches in different areas of the country and transfer its
workers from one branch to another.
A. companies B. its C. different D. another
Question 30: Her doggy determination to uncover the truth about the scandal led to her winning a
reporting prize.
A. winning B. doggy C. reporting D. uncover
Question 31: A lot of Vietnamese students are taking part in the GCSE Examination every year.
A. Vietnamese B. in C. lot D. are taking

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: The machine broke down. This resulted in significant delays in production schedules.
A. If the machine didn’t break down, there wouldn't have been significant delays in production
schedules.
B. If the machine hadn't broken down, there would be significant delays in production
schedules.
C. If the machine hadn’t broken down, there wouldn't have been significant delays in
production schedules.
D. If there hadn’t been significant delays in production schedules, the machine would break
down.
Question 33: I realized the meaning of “family”. It was when I left home for studying abroad.
A. Only after I realized the meaning of “family” did I leave home for studying abroad.
B. Only when I left home for studying abroad I did realize the meaning of “family”.
C. Not until I left home for studying abroad did I realize the meaning of “family”.
D. No sooner had I realized the meaning of “family” than I left home for studying abroad.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Russian President Vladimir Putin signed a new measure last Wednesday which aims to create
the country’s own Internet, (34) _______ means Russia's Internet would no longer need to go through
international services. The change would let the government take control “in case there are threats to
the stable, safe and integral operation of the Russian Internet in Russian territory”. The country is
expected to test the new system later this year, and the legislation is set to (35) _______effect in
November.
However, (36) _______critics fear the new measure could lead to censorship, as Newsy has
previously reported. The new legislation might lead to Russia creating its own (37) _______of China’s
Great Firewall, which China uses to severely hinder free speech. People reported that Russia has tried
to suppress freedom in the past, namely by banning certain sites and messaging platforms (38) ______
they refused to follow government orders to curb user privacy. Blogs with more than 3,000 monthly
visitors have to be registered as media outlets since 2014.
(Adapted from https://www.newsinlevels.com)
Question 34: A. that B. whom C. who D. which
Question 35: A. bring B. have C. take D. make
Question 36: A. much B. every C. some D. another
Question 37: A. alternative B. substitute C. model D. version

8
Question 38: A. therefore B. because C. but D. although
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Do you often face a difficult time prying your children away from video screens and getting
them outdoors for some good old-fashioned exercise? Today, you might not have to. Exergaming, a
combination of video games and physical movement, is becoming a hot fitness trend all over the
world.
Exergaming was popularised in recent years by the Nintendo Wii. This game system allows
players virtual participation in sports like baseball, tennis, and bowling. But the roots of exergaming
extend into the 1980s. The first exergaming device, Computrainer, led stationary bike riders on a trip
through a virtual landscape. Similar ‘virtual reality’ systems followed, but they proved too expensive
and complicated for the average person.
In 1998, Konami’s fun and affordable Dance Dance Revolution brought exergaming into the
mainstream. Players stand on a platform and tap coloured arrows with their feet in tune to musical
and video cues.
Today, fitness clubs, schools, and community centres throughout America offer exergaming
machines. Some schools even substitute exergaming workouts for traditional PE classes. Though
parents are happy to see their children exercising, many still worry.
Exergames burn calories, raise heartbeats, and offer a physical benefit for kids,’ said Lisa
Hanson, co-director of a Florida research laboratory. But she added that it is certain that active
gaming doesn’t offer the same benefits as traditional workouts. A British study found that many Wii
games, for example, don’t provide intense enough exercise.
(Adapted from Reading for the Real World 2)
Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. The Benefits of Exercising Indoors B. Exergaming: The Risks of Playing Video
Games
C. The Advantages of Playing Esports D. Exergaming: A New Trend for Children’s
Fitness
Question 40: The word they in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. bike riders B. roots C. players D. systems
Question 41: According to the passage, the exergaming system ______.
A. was cheap, simple, and available to everyone
B. enables gamers to play esports in a ‘virtual reality’
C. was introduced to the public before the 1980s
D. requires players to pay for stationary bikes
Question 42: The word workouts in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
A. sports centres B. physical exercises C. fitness techniques D. extra-curricular
activities
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The roots of exergaming can be traced back to the 1980s.
B. Exergaming combines computer games with physical activities.
C. Exergaming offers the same health benefits as traditional exercises.
D. Konami’s Dance Revolution made exergaming more popular.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions front 44 to 50.
Coral reefs are among the most diverse and productive ecosystems on Earth. Consisting of both
living and non-living components, this type of ecosystem is found in the warm, clear, shallow waters
of tropical oceans worldwide. The functionality of the reefs ranges from providing food and shelter to

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fish and other forms of marine life to protecting the shore from the ill effects of erosion and
putrefaction. In fact, reefs actually create land in tropical areas by formulating islands and
contributing mass to continental shorelines.
Although coral looks like a plant, actually it is mainly the limestone skeleton of the tiny animal
called a coral polyp. While corals are the main components of reef structure, they are not the only
living participants. Together, these living creatures construct many different types of tropical reefs.
The Great Barrier Reef is the world's largest network of coral reefs, stretching 2,010 km (1,250
miles) off Australia's northeastern coast. From microorganisms to whales, diverse life forms make
their home on the reef. Over 1,500 fish species, 4,000 mollusk species, 200 bird species, 16 sea snake
species, and six sea turtle species thrive in the reef's tropical waters. The reef is also a habitat for the
endangered dugong (sea cow), moray eels, and sharks. In addition, the coral reef offers viewers the
spectrum of brilliant colors and intricate shapes, a virtual underwater garden.
Although protected by the Australian government, the Great Barrier Reef faces environmental
threats. Crown-of-thorns starfish feed on coral and can destroy large portions of reef. Pollution and
rising water temperatures also threaten the delicate coral. But the most preventable of the hazards to
the reef are tourists. Tourists have contributed to the destruction of the reef ecosystem by breaking off
and removing pieces of coral to bring home as souvenirs. The government hopes that by informing
tourists of the dangers of this seemingly harmless activity, they will stop causing harm to the fragile
reef.
(Adapted from “501 Reading Critical Reading Questions- Learning Express, First Edition)
Question 44: Which of the following could be the most suitable title of the passage?
A. Coral Reefs: Diverse and Threatened Ecosystems
B. The Main Components of Coral Reefs
C. The Formation of Coral Reefs
D. The Tourist Impact on Coral Reefs
Question 45: The word putrefaction in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. formation B. enrichment C. decay D. diversity
Question 46: The word delicate in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. sensible B. attractive C. harsh D. fragile
Question 47: In paragraph 4, the word they refers to ______.
A. government B. tourists C. dangers D. souvenirs
Question 48: Which of the following causes damage to coral reefs?
A. moray eels B. snake species C. mollusk species D. crown-of-thorns
starfish
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true about the Great Barrier Reef?
A. The Great Barrier reef is a colorful and active underwater structure.
B. The Great Barrier Reef is threatened by some careless tourists.
C. The Great Barrier Reef is the cause of coastal erosion in Northeastern Australia.
D. The Great Barrier Reef is home to sea turtle species and endangered sea cows.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. No other ecosystems on Earth are more diverse than coral reefs.
B. Warm, shallow oceans are common places to see coral reefs.
C. Tourist activities make an enormous contribution to protecting coral reefs.
D. The Australian government’s efforts to preserve coral reefs end in failure.

------ THE END ------

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ĐỀ SỐ 13
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. mere B. send C. lend D. trend
Question 2: A. knife B. know C. keep D. knee

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. important B. attractive C. interesting D. dependent
Question 4: A. attack B. achieve C. evolve D. tailor

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: I am a little anxious ______ bringing home the new kitten because my parents don’t like
them.
A. in B. with C. about D. on
Question 6: The two teenagers claimed they were just ______ and had nothing to do with the fight.
A. witnesses B. viewers C. sightseers D. onlookers
Question 7: We ______ the plan for our holiday when they paid us a visit last night.
A. are discussing B. have discussed C. discussed D. were discussing
Question 8: Our class plans to ______ camping this weekend, so we need to pack our tent and
sleeping bags.
A. do B. go C. give D. take
Question 9: The vase ______ on the table by Nam last night.
A. put B. has put C. was put D. was putting
Question 10: A group of students are ready to ______ for Chicago; hopefully the trip will be a good
learning experience for all.
A. leave out B. move on C. set off D. hold on
Question 11: Mr. Adam was born in England, ______?
A. was he B. wasn’t he C. has he D. isn’t he
Question 12: She will take an English course ______.
A. right after the epidemic has been controlled B. when the epidemic had been controlled
C. until the epidemic will be controlled D. as soon as the epidemic was controlled
Question 13: The constant criticism from his peers began to ______ his self-esteem, affecting his
performance at work.
A. dwindle B. contract C. wane D. undermine
Question 14: My father wants to buy ______ car that you have.
A. more powerful B. the more powerful C. as most powerful D. the most powerful
Question 15: This restaurant is a favorite among locals in our ______ of the woods for its delicious
food and cozy atmosphere.
A. arm B. neck C. head D. shoulder
Question 16: Australian universities are allowing students ______ AI when taking assessments.
A. use B. to using C. using D. to use
Question 17: He lives in Washington near ______ Mount Rainier.
A. a B. ∅ (no article) C. an D. the
Question 18: We came to the temple dedicated to King Dinh Tien Hoang, ____ Hoa Lu to build the
citadel.
A. choosing B. to choose C. chosen D. chose
11
Question 19: Students who take an ______ part in the project feel more involved and more
responsible for the results.
A. act B. action C. active D. actively

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Susan and Linda are talking about fashion show in the school.
- Susan: “I think the school uniform should be the theme of the show.”
- Linda: “______. We have been wearing it for all week, this is a great chance for a change.”
A. Absolutely B. I couldn’t agree more
C. I don’t agree with you D. You’re right
Question 21: Jack stops at the front desk to check out of Wintry & Mercer hotel.
- Jack: “Excuse me, I would like to check out.”
- The receptionist: “______”
A. Thank you! B. Your room number, please.
C. That would be great. D. Ok, here is my Identity card.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: You will be mainly occupied with checking sales records next week because it’s time
you had to make the financial report to the boss.
A. busy B. annoyed C. bored D. blessed
Question 23: The company's primary objective is to improve efficiency in the production line this
month.
A. mistake B. mood C. change D. aim

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: After losing his job, he found himself in the doldrums, unsure of what steps to take
next.
A. annoyed B. dissatisfied C. motivated D. depressed
Question 25: She comes from an affluent background. She has never had to worry about not having
enough to get by.
A. rich B. poor C. ordinary D. average

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: He said, “We have just completed this project.”
A. He said that they have just completed this project.
B. He said that they just completed that project.
C. He said that they had just completed this project.
D. He said that they had just completed that project.
Question 27: The last time I saw my best friend was three weeks ago.
A. I saw my best friend for three weeks. B. I have seen my best friend for three
weeks.
C. I didn’t see my best friend three weeks ago. D. I haven’t seen my best friend for three
weeks.
Question 28: It isn’t necessary for Minh to return my book soon.
A. Minh mightn’t return my book soon. B. Minh needn’t return my book soon.

12
C. Minh shouldn’t return my book soon. D. Minh mustn’t return my book soon.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: They complete the construction of this monument a decade ago.
A. complete B. of C. construction D. a
Question 30: A sensitive diet and plenty of exercise are the key formulae for people who want to
remain in good health.
A. formulae B. sensitive C. remain D. exercise
Question 31: Mrs. Sally has written many novels so far, but she never sends it to any publishers.
A. has written B. but C. never D. it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: The driver suffered from serious injuries in a car accident. He realized the importance of
fastening a seat belt only then.
A. Not until the driver had suffered from serious injuries in a car accident did he realize that
fastening a seat belt wasn’t necessary.
B. Only after the driver had suffered from serious injuries in a car accident did he realize that it
was important to fasten a seat belt.
C. No sooner had the driver been aware of the importance of fastening a seat belt than he
suffered from serious injuries in a car accident.
D. Only when the driver realized the importance of fastening a seat belt did he suffer from
serious injuries in a car accident.
Question 33: The team didn’t practise much. They performed poorly in the tournament.
A. If the team had practised more, they wouldn't have performed poorly in the tournament.
B. Unless the team practised more, they would continue to perform poorly.
C. If the team didn't practise more, they would continue to perform poorly.
D. If the team had practised more, they would have performed poorly in the tournament.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
The New Megalopolis
China isn't the world’s most ferocious new economic (34) ______, the exploding east-coast corridor,
from Beijing to Shanghai, is. India as a whole is not developing high-tech industries and attracting
jobs, but the booming mega-region stretching from Bangalore to Hyderabad is. Across the world, in
fact, nations don't spur growth so (35) ______ as dynamic regions, modern versions of the original
"megalopolis," (36) ______ was a term coined by the geographer Jean Gottman to identify the
sprawling Boston-New York-Washington economic power corridor in the United States.
The New Megas are the real economic organizing units of the world and the major sources of global
wealth, attracting a large share of its talent and generating the most innovation. They take shape as
powerful complexes of multiple cities and suburbs, often (37) ______ across national borders, forming
a vast expanse of trade, transport, communications, and talent. (38) ______, despite the fact that the
rise of regions has been apparent for more than a decade, no one has collected systematic information
on them, not the World Bank, not the IMF, not the United Nations, not the global consulting firms.
(Adapted from Inside Reading by Bruce Rubin, Arline Burgmeier, Kent Richmond, Lawrence J Zwier)
Question 34: A. contestant B. participant C. competitor D. candidate
Question 35: A. much B. less C. many D. few
Question 36: A. who B. that C. when D. which

13
Question 37: A. branching B. stretching C. stringing D. springing
Question 38: A. Yet B. Although C. For example D. But

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Table manners differ around the world. If you visit your friends for a meal, it’s good to know
about the customs they follow. If you are invited to a Moroccan’s home, bring a gift of sweet pastries,
nuts, figs, dates, or flowers to the hostess. In many traditional homes, people often sit on the floor to
eat a meal. Often, everyone shares food from the same plate, which is put in the centre of the table.
Usually, everyone also drinks water from the same glass. Only eat the food in front of you. Don’t
reach across someone for food. It is common to use your fingers and small pieces of bread to eat food.
Use only your right hand to eat. Don’t say ‘no’ to food. If the host of the meal offers you food or
drink, take some and try a little. In many Moroccan homes, it is common to take off your shoes.
Tanzania is known for its fresh fish and spices. Don’t act scared if your meal comes with its
head still on the plate. It is polite to try a bite of everything. In many Tanzanian homes, people sit at a
table on small stools to eat. It is fine to eat with your right hand, using bread or chapati to pick up
food. Everyone may take food from the same plate, but it is not usual for people to share drinks. You
may compliment the cook on a delicious meal, but don’t exaggerate. In some parts of Tanzania, men
and women still sit at different tables. Also remember: it is common to take off your shoes in the
home, but it is rude to show the bottom of your foot.
(Adapted from Active Skills for Reading Intro)
Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Table Manners in Morocco and Tanzania B. Best Cuisines for Friends and Family
C. Top Places to Enjoy Foreign Cuisines D. The Ultimate Guide to Dining Etiquette
Question 40: The word they in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. customs B. friends C. manners D. meals
Question 41: According to the passage, it is helpful to know about the customs in other countries
because you can ______.
A. learn how to eat more healthily B. order the right food in a restaurant

C. learn more foreign languages D. act in a more appropriate way


Question 42: The word compliment paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. criticise B. thank C. insult D. praise
Question 43: What of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. In Moroccan homes, people sit on the floor to eat and also share food.
B. It is common for people to share plates and drinks in Tanzanian homes.
C. Men and women may sit at different tables in some parts of Tanzania.
D. It is normal to take off your shoes in Moroccan and Tanzanian homes.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 44 to 50.
Children are not the face of this pandemic. But they risk being among its biggest victims. While
they have thankfully been largely spared from the direct health effects of COVID-19 at least to date –
the crisis is having a profound effect on their well-being. All children, of all ages, and in all countries,
are being affected, in particular by the socio-economic impacts and, in some cases, by mitigation
measures that may inadvertently do more harm than good. This is a universal crisis and, for some
children, the impact will be lifelong. Moreover, the harmful effects of this pandemic will not be
distributed equally. They are expected to be most damaging for children in the poorest countries, and
in the poorest neighborhoods, and for those in already disadvantaged or vulnerable situations.

14
There are three main channels through which children are affected by this crisis: infection with
the virus itself; the immediate socioeconomic impacts of measures to stop transmission of the virus
and end the pandemic; and the potential longer-term effects of delayed implementation of the
Sustainable Development Goals.
All of this is affecting children in multiple ways. An estimated 42-66 million children could fall
into extreme poverty as a result of the crisis this year, adding to the estimated 386 million children
already in extreme poverty in 2019. 188 countries have imposed countrywide school closures,
affecting more than 1.5 billion children and youth. The potential losses that may accrue in learning for
today’s young generation, and for the development of their human capital, are hard to fathom. More
than two-thirds of countries have introduced a national distance learning platform, but among low-
income countries the share is only 30 percent. Before this crisis, almost one-third of the world’s young
people were already digitally excluded.
Lockdowns and shelter in place measures come with a heightened risk of children witnessing or
suffering violence and abuse. Children in conflict settings, as well as those living in unsanitary and
crowded conditions such as refugee and IDP settlements, are also at considerable risk. Children’s
reliance on online platforms for distance learning has also increased their risk of exposure to
inappropriate content and online predators.
(Adapted from https://unsdg.un.org/)
Question 44: Which of the following could be the most suitable title of the passage?
A. Protecting children from COVID-19.
B. The impact of COVID-19 on children.
C. What do children do in the COVID-19 pandemic?
D. Are children affected by COVID-19- controlling measures?
Question 45: The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to ______.
A. children B. measures C. harmful effects D. countries
Question 46: The word “channels” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. ways B. programs C. factors D. steps
Question 47: The word “fathom” in paragraph 4 most probably means ______.
A. solve B. prove C. recover D. understand
Question 48: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. All children, of all ages, and in all countries, are being affected equally by the pandemic.
B. The measures to stop the spread of the virus and control the pandemic are not harmful to
children.
C. The risk of violence and abuse towards children has decreased during lockdown and shelter
in place measures.
D. Only one third developed countries have introduced distance learning in the pandemic.
Question 49: According to the passage, the following are the impacts of the pandemic on children,
EXCEPT ______.
A. falling into poverty B. exacerbating the learning crisis
C. risks for child safety D. threats to child survival and health
Question 50: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that in the pandemic ______.
A. children may be unsafe even in their houses B. children have more risks than adults
C. the number of violent cases is increasing D. most children don’t want to learn online

------ THE END ------

15
ĐỀ SỐ 14
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. though B. through C. throw D. thin
Question 2: A. wife B. light C. shrimp D. site

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. introduce B. interfere C. recommend D. develop
Question 4: A. alone B. graceful C. toxic D. mental

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The decision has been made, so there's no point in beating a dead ______; let's work
together to implement it effectively.
A. sheep B. cow C. buffalo D. horse
Question 6: Mr. Brown was washing the dishes while his wife ______ to her mother on the phone.
A. talks B. was talking C. is talking D. talked
Question 7: ______ the destination, he will have been walking for about three hours.
A. When John will get B. By the time John gets
C. Until John got D. After John had got
Question 8: These islands ______ by those scientists 10 years ago.
A. were discovered B. discovered C. have discovered D. will discover
Question 9: Her excuse for not doing her homework was ______, so the teacher didn’t punish her.
A. credibility B. credibly C. credible D. credit
Question 10: My cousin wanted to change his career because he wasn’t very satisfied with his ______.
A. refunds B. debts C. taxes D. earnings
Question 11: My mother advised me _____my interest in mountain climbing.
A. to pursue B. pursuing C. pursue D. to pursuing
Question 12: Some scientists have given a terrific warning that the world will ______ of food in just
over two decades.
A. go off B. bring back C. run out D. use up
Question 13: Do you like listening to ______ music while you are studying?
A. the B. a C. an D. ∅ (no article)
Question 14: She worked hard to ______ her way through college, taking on part-time jobs and
applying for scholarships to cover tuition fees.
A. pay B. make C. offer D. clear
Question 15: Mary was very pleased ______ the dress we bought for her birthday present.
A. for B. with C. in D. to
Question 16: The birds ______ outside the window wake me up every morning.
A. sung B. singing C. to sing D. sang
Question 17: The detective needed to _____ the exact location of the crime scene to gather evidence.
A. unearth B. decipher C. uncover D. pinpoint
Question 18: Her children don’t go out alone, ______?

A. haven’ they B. are they C. doesn’t they D. do they


Question 19: This is ______ story I have ever read.
A. more interesting B. most interesting
16
C. the most interesting D. not interesting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Tim and Laura are talking about the sample test by MOET.
- Tim: “I think the format of sample test 2023 is the same as the test 2022.”
- Laura: “______. There are some small differences between them.”
A. You’re right B. Sorry, maybe next time
C. That’s not true D. That would be great
Question 21: Jane and Leon are in the factory.
- Jane: “Do you know how to operate this machine?”
- Leon: “______”
A. Plug it in and push the green button. B. It's very cheap.
C. I think it's quite big. D. Will you call the mechanic tomorrow?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: His perception of his strength and weakness enables him to make key decisions on his
future job.
A. attention B. awareness C. level D. desire
Question 23: As a sociable person, she always enjoys spending time with friends and meeting new
people.
A. friendly B. generous C. shy D. mischievous

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Jenny was talking on the phone with her friend until the cows came home last night!
A. slowly B. patiently C. briefly D. endlessly
Question 25: The rainy season in this region has resulted in an abundant supply of water for
irrigation.
A. elegant B. sufficient C. numerous D. scarce

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: He said, “I will call you when I arrive at the station.”
A. He told me that he will call me when he arrives at the station.
B. He told me that he would call me when he arrives at the station.
C. He told me that he would call me when he arrived at the station.
D. He told me that he will call me when I arrive at the station.
Question 27: He last returned to Nha Trang from Hue six months ago.
A. He has returned to Nha Trang from Hue for six months.
B. He didn’t return to Nha Trang from Hue six months ago.
C. He has six months to return to Nha Trang from Hue.
D. He hasn’t returned to Nha Trang from Hue for six months.
Question 28: If I were him, I wouldn’t reveal his secret to her.
A. He shouldn’t reveal his secret to her. B. I can’t reveal the truth to her.
C. I couldn’t reveal the truth to her. D. He mustn’t reveal the truth to her.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs

17
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: Peter was learning French at the moment because he is going to France next summer.
A. going to B. was learning C. because D. summer
Question 30: So many people define their lives by vanity purchases which have no real appreciative
value.
A. define B. appreciative C. value D. vanity
Question 31: Peter and Mary always dream of having her own house in the near future.
A. and B. own C. in D. her

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: He returned from his walk. Then, he got down to writing the letter.
A. No sooner had he got down to writing the letter than he returned from his walk .
B. Not until he got down to writing the letter did he return from his walk.
C. Only after he had got down to writing the letter did he return from his walk
D. Hardly had he returned from his walk when he got down to writing the letter.
Question 33: The company didn't invest in new technology. It missed out on potential growth
opportunities.
A. If the company invested in new technology, it could miss out on potential growth
opportunities.
B. If the company invested in new technology, it couldn't miss out on potential growth
opportunities.
C. If the company had invested in new technology, it could have missed out on potential
growth opportunities.
D. If the company had invested in new technology, it couldn't have missed out on
potential growth opportunities.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
WORKING MOTHERS
Reliable studies have shown that the children of working mothers have no more problems than
children whose mothers stay at home. My personal view is that mothers should work if they wish
(34) ______ women have invested so much in a career that they cannot bear to give it up. Others have
to work because of economic necessity, and there are also those (35) ______ are simply not cut out to
be full-time parents. There appear to be several options when it comes to choosing childcare. These
range from child minders through to granny or the kind lady across the street. In practice, (36)
______, many parents don't have any choice; they have to accept anything they can get. No matter
how good the available childcare may be, some children protest if their parents are not around. This
is a (37) ______ normal stage in a child's development. Babies over the age of six months become
dependent on mum and close family members, so make sure that you allow plenty of time to help
your child settle in. And don't forget: if you want to do the best for your children, it's not the quantity
of time you spend with them, it's the (38) ______ that matters.
(Adapted from Dien Tu Doan Van Tieng Anh by Vinh Ba, NXB DH Su Pham)
Question 34: A. one B. some C. each D. much
Question 35: A. who B. where C. which D. when
Question 36: A. moreover B. therefore C. but D. however
Question 37: A. probably B. extremely C. perfectly D. certainly
Question 38: A. behaviour B. quality C. attitude D. manner

18
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
There have been a lot of misunderstandings and confusion about vaccines. But vaccinations are
an important part of family and public health. Vaccines prevent the spread of contagious and deadly
diseases, including HPV and COVID-19.
Everyone needs vaccines - infants, children, teenagers, and adults. There are widely accepted
immunisation schedules available. They list what vaccines are recommended, and at what age they
should be given. Vaccines are especially important for at-risk populations such as young children and
older adults.
There are some people who can’t or shouldn’t receive vaccinations. These include young infants
and people with certain medical issues. There is also a small number of people who don’t respond to
a particular vaccine. Because these people can’t be vaccinated, it is important for others to get
vaccinated to preserve the ‘herd immunity’ for the vast majority. This means if most people are
immune to a disease because of vaccinations, it will stop spreading.
There can be side effects after we get vaccinated. They are usually mild. They include redness or
swelling at the injection site. Sometimes children develop a low-grade fever. These symptoms usually
go away in a day or two. More serious side effects have been reported, but are rare.
It takes years of development and testing before a vaccine is approved as safe and effective.
After the vaccine is released to the public, its use is monitored to ensure there are no safety issues.
Vaccines are safe, and their benefits far outweigh any risks of side effects.
(Adapted from https://familydoctor.org/vaccinations/)
Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Vaccination Programmes for Different Populations
B. Misconceptions About Vaccinations and Vaccines
C. The Necessity of Vaccinations and Some Cautions
D. The Importance of Developing New Vaccines
Question 40: According to the passage, HPV and COVID-19 ______.
A. have killed many people B. are deadly and incurable
C. can be prevented by vaccines D. are only found in humans
Question 41: The word they in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. vaccines B. everyone C. diseases D. schedules
Question 42: The word monitored in paragraph 5 mostly means ______.
A. limited B. guarded C. guided D. supervised
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Side effects after vaccinations are usually mild and temporary.
B. Everyone needs to be vaccinated, regardless of their health conditions.
C. Vaccines need to be tested and approved before they can be used widely.
D. Ages and the types of vaccines are important in vaccinations.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the
atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air
pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air
pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to
compounds that could be seen or smelled - a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances
known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals
has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be
considered an air pollutant under certain conditions.

19
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and
nitrogen oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants
was altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These
serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or
soil. On a global basis, nature’s output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human
activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region,
human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of
the cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations
at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would
have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to
be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this
represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide
has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level
of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
(Adapted from “Four Corners 4” by Jack C. Richards and David Bohlke)
Question 44: What is the best title for the passage?
A. The Increasing Threat of Water Vapor as an Air Pollutant
B. The Health Effects of air pollution
C. The Definition and Nature of Air Pollution
D. The Effects of Sulfur Dioxide on Human Health
Question 45: According to the first paragraph, _____.
A. people could hardly see or smell pollutants B. the notion of air pollution is not stable
C. the list of air pollutants is finite D. water vapor isn’t considered as an air
pollutant
Question 46: The word “extensive” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. measurable B. immense C. vengeful D. minute
Question 47: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _____
A. the various chemical reactions. B. the pollutants from the developing Earth.
C. the compounds moved to the water or soil. D. the components in biogeochemical cycles.
Question 48: The word “dominant” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. ascendant B. inferior C. advantageous D. humble
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only useful if the other
substances in the area are known.
B. Natural pollutants can play an important role in controlling air pollution because they
function as part of a purification process.
C. Human-generated air pollution in localized regions can overwhelm the natural system that
removes pollutants.
D. An air pollutant is a substance that humans add to the atmosphere, either directly or
indirectly, in sufficient amounts to harm humans, animals, flora, or materials.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Human activities have no impact on the natural purification scheme of biogeochemical
cycles.
B. The adverse effects of air pollutants resulting from human activities are always greater than
those resulting from natural sources.
C. The concentration of air pollutants resulting from human activities is insignificant compared
to nature's output.

20
D. Human activities can temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of
biogeochemical cycles, leading to increased concentrations of noxious chemicals in the air.

----- THE END ------

21
ĐỀ SỐ 15
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. smile B. shift C. nice D. kind
Question 2: A. honor B. head C. hill D. hike

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. study B. follow C. decide D. finish
Question 4: A. importance B. habitat C. destruction D. computer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The region was _____ by a severe outbreak of malaria, leading to a significant increase in
hospital admissions.
A. afflicted B. worsened C. deteriorated D. aggravated
Question 6: They're offering the latest smartphone model, but you'll have to pay through the
______for it because it's brand new on the market.
A. mouth B. eye C. ear D. nose
Question 7: My little son had a fear of jet lag but now he has been given tips to ______ it.
A. close down B. go off C. break up D. get over
Question 8: Her brother ______ on his successful journey to explore the Everest by his friends many
years ago.
A. will congratulate B. has congratulated C. congratulated D. was
congratulated
Question 9: Despite the limited space, the family managed to _______ room for their new pet by
clearing out a corner of the house.
A. set B. get C. make D. receive
Question 10: Could you please pass me ______ salt on the table?
A. an B. ∅ (no article) C. a D. the
Question 11: As he ages, he has grown more accustomed ______ his way of life and accepted it.
A. at B. of C. to D. for
Question 12: In the end, she decided ______ UK’s higher education qualification in philosophy.
A. pursue B. pursuing C. to pursuing D. to pursue
Question 13: ______, I will work for my uncle’s company.
A. As soon as I graduate from the university B. When I was graduating from the
university
C. After I graduated from the university D. Until I had graduated from the
university
Question 14: After years of loyal service, he was fired just before he would have qualified for a ______.
A. wage B. pension C. income D. salary
Question 15: Linh ______ out with her friends when she heard someone calling her name.
A. hung B. was hanging C. has hung D. is hanging
Question 16: That was great! It was ______ meal my sister had ever cooked.
A. as good B. best C. better D. the best
Question 17: These plants are particularly ______ for brightening up shady areas.
A. usefulness B. use C. useful D. usefully

22
Question 18: Anna joined the green movement, ______?
A. did she B. didn’t she C. wasn’t she D. was she
Question 19: Some of the tourists ____ to visit Hoi An could not depart as scheduled.
A. planned B. planning C. to plan D. are planning

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Lan is asking Hoa if she could close the door.
- Lan: "Would you mind if I closed the door? It’s too cold outside"
- Hoa: "______"
A. I’d rather you didn’t. It’s stuffy. B. No, never mind.
C. Why not do it? D. No, I don’t like.
Question 21: Peter and Tim are talking about humans in modern society.
- Peter: "People nowadays try to earn much money as much as possible."
- Tim: "______. They tend to lack quality time with their family."
A. Good to hear that B. I can't agree less C. I agree D. It doesn’t matter

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: She is such a resourceful leader as she can come up with practical solutions when
problems occur.
A. skilled B. unwilling C. determined D. unable
Question 23: Professor Berg was very interested in the diversity of cultures all over the world.
A. variety B. changes C. conservation D. similarities

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: We shouldn’t shut our ears to the perspectives of others; it’s important to consider
different viewpoints.
A. pay attention to B. make a contribution to
C. look forward to D. have no respect for
Question 25: The actor had many successful films, but his popularity has faded in recent years.
A. increased B. sold C. remembered D. disappeared

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: There are possibly a hundred people at the meeting.
A. There should be a hundred people at the meeting.
B. There might be a hundred people at the meeting.
C. There ought to be a hundred people at the meeting.
D. There must be a hundred people at the meeting.
Question 27: She last worked as a tour guide five years ago.
A. She has worked as a tour guide for five years.
B. She has five years to work as a tour guide.
C. She didn’t work as a tour guide five years ago.
D. She hasn’t worked as a tour guide for five years.
Question 28: They told me, “We are going to the beach this weekend”
A. They told me that they were going to the beach that weekend.
B. They told me that they were going to the beach this weekend.

23
C. They told me that they are going to the beach that weekend.
D. They told me that they would go to the beach this weekend.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: The technology company rented an office building with false floors under which
computer and phone wires can be lain.
A. false B. rented C. technology D. lain
Question 30: The man works in the garden with his happy feeling then.
A. feeling B. works C. with D. the
Question 31: In 1986, the organization changed their name to World Wide Fund to better reflect its
activities.
A. its B. In C. their D. better

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: His video of himself mimicking his favourite Tik Tok idol was funny. It received one
million views in just a day.
A. Funny as his video of himself mimicking his favourite Tik Tok idol was, it received one
million views in just a day.
B. However funny his video of himself mimicking his favourite Tik Tok idol was, it
received one million views in just a day.
C. So funny his video of himself mimicking his favourite Tik Tok idol was that it received
one million views in just a day.
D. So funny was his video of himself mimicking his favourite Tik Tok idol that it received
one million views in just a day.
Question 33: The transportation workers went on strike. The delivery was delayed.
A. If the transportation workers hadn't gone on strike, there wouldn't have been a delay in
delivery.
B. Unless the transportation workers go on strike, there would be no delay in delivery.
C. If the transportation workers didn’t go on strike, there would be a delay in delivery.
D. If the transportation workers had gone on strike, there wouldn't have been a delay in
delivery.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Although he created the game of basketball at the YMCA in Springfield, Massachusetts, Dr.
James A. Naismith was a Canadian. Working as a physical education (34) ______ at the International
YMCA, now Springfield College, Dr. Naismith noticed a lack of interest in exercise among students
during wintertime. The New England winters were fierce, and the students balked at participating in
outdoor activities. Naismith determined that a fast-moving game (35) ______ could be played indoors
would fill a void after the baseball and football seasons had ended. First, he attempted to adapt (36)
______ outdoor games such as soccer and rugby to indoor play, (37) ______ he soon found them
unsuitable for confined areas. Finally, he determined that he would have to invent a game. In
December of 1891, Dr. Naismith organized the first basketball game.
The game became popular. In less than a year, basketball was being played in both the United
States and Canada. Five years later, a championship tournament was (38) ______ in New York City,
which was won by the Brooklyn Central YMCA. The teams had already been reduced to seven
players, and five became standard in the 1897 season.

24
(Adapted from “Practice exercises for the TOEFL” by Pamela J.Sharpe, Ph.D.)
Question 34: A. translator B. projector C. instructor D. director
Question 35: A. that B. who C. whom D. whose
Question 36: A. each B. some C. another D. every
Question 37: A. but B. therefore C. so D. because
Question 38: A. shown B. staged C. presented D. performed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
One of the greatest advantages of robots is that they can work in situations that are dangerous
or harmful to human workers. For example, the continuous smell of paint has a harmful effect on
painters, but it doesn’t bother a robot. Robots can work in nuclear power plants and in undersea
research stations that might be dangerous for humans. Already, robots are working in the plastics
industry and in the chemical and industrial equipment industries. One of the most common uses of
robots is still in automobile factories. They can do heavy, unpleasant, or dangerous work. These kinds
of industrial robots are not usually mobile. The work they need to do is brought to them, like cars on
an assembly line, for example.
The robot industry is a big business. By the middle of the 1990s, Japan led the world in robot
production with more than 71,000 industrial robots at work. Both the United States and Japan, as well
as other countries, continue to develop more advanced robots. Robots can now be made to perform
more complex jobs. Robots can make decisions and learn from their mistakes while they are working.
Robots can now see with the TV camera ‘eyes’. They can easily hear and even speak using a voice
made by a computer. But it is difficult to make a robot ‘understand’. Thinking and understanding are
very human qualities. The robots of the future will probably be very complex. They will be able to
perform many human-like tasks. Robots and other technologies will make the future a very
interesting place.
(Adapted from Concepts and Comments)
Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. The History of Robots B. The Benefits of Robots
C. The Danger of Robots D. The Limitations of Robots
Question 40: The word mobile in paragraph 1 mostly means ______.
A. moveable B. stationary C. unthinkable D. repairable
Question 41: According to the passage, Japan ______.
A. had the most robots in industrial production in the middle 1990s
B. fell behind other countries in the development of advanced robots
C. started using robots in nuclear power plants in the middle 1990s
D. had the highest number of human-like robots in the world
Question 42: The word they in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. qualities B. robots C. countries D. jobs
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Robots can do heavy and unpleasant work in dangerous environments.
B. Robots can learn from their mistakes and make decisions while working.
C. Robots can do complex tasks in a wide range of settings and industries.
D. Robots can easily ‘understand’ very complex thoughts just like humans.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
If we take a glance around at the stuff we've bought throughout the years, we'll see that not
everything we have is being put to good use: the thick woolen coat which we thought looked trendy

25
despite the fact that we live in a tropical country, the smartphone that got put away when we bought
ourselves the newest model, or even the guest room in our house that somehow got turned into a
storeroom.
Those underutilized items may seem useless to some, but could be an asset to others. With the
advent of the Internet, online communities have figured out a way to generate profit from the sharing
of those underutilized assets. Using websites and social media groups that facilitate the buying and
selling of second-hand goods, it is now easier than ever for peer-to-peer sharing activities to take
place. And this is known as the sharing economy.
These democratized online platforms are providing a chance for people to make a quick buck or
two. To give an example, busy parents previously might not have bothered with setting up a stall at
the local market or car boot sale to sell their children's old equipment, but with online marketplaces,
parents are now able to sell on those hardly worn baby clothes that their children have outgrown and
the expensive pushchairs and baby equipment they have invested in, so as to put some cash back into
their pockets.
Businesses have also seen the benefits of the sharing economy and are looking for ways to profit from
unused resources. A business model that has rapidly risen in popularity sees companies providing an
online platform that puts customers in contact with those who can provide a particular product or
service. Companies like Airbnb act as a middleman for people to cash in on their unused rooms and
houses and let them out as lucrative accommodation.
This shift to a sharing economy is not without its detractors. Unlike businesses, unregulated
individuals do not have to follow certain regulations and this can lead to poorer and inconsistent
quality of goods and services and a higher risk of fraud. However, in today's consumerist world, the
increasing chances to sell our unwanted and underutilized things can lead to a lower environmental
impact.
(Adapted from https://learnenglish.britishcouncil.org)
Question 44: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The Consumerist Society B. Kids’ Stuff and Parents’ Solution
C. The Rise of the Sharing Economy D. Online Marketplaces and Consumers
Question 45: The word underutilized in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. underused B. undervalued C. underdone D. underrated
Question 46: The word them in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. unused resources B. companies providing an online platform
C. companies like Airbnb D. unused rooms and houses
Question 47: The word fraud in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. cheating B. selling C. publishing D. designing
Question 48: According to paragraph 5, it might be a problem for unregulated individuals to sell to
others because ______.
A. they must adhere to certain rules. B. what they're selling is of inferior quality.
C. they are inconsistent in what they sell D. they suffer higher risk of fraud
Question 49: Which statement is NOT true about the sharing economy as described in the text?
A. Online platforms facilitate the buying and selling of second-hand goods, making peer-to-
peer sharing activities easier.
B. Busy parents are now able to sell their children's old equipment on online marketplaces,
putting cash back into their pockets.
C. Businesses have seen the benefits of the sharing economy and are looking for ways to profit
from unused resources.
D. The sharing economy has no detractors and is universally seen as a positive shift in
consumer culture.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

26
A. The environment also benefits from the rise of the sharing economy.
B. Prior to the advent of online marketplaces, busy parents would set up a stall sell old
equipment.
C. Businesses see the sharing economy as inauspicious in profiting from underutilized
resources.
D. The online platforms serve as where companies can meet people wanting to buy goods and
services.

------ THE END ------

27
ĐỀ SỐ 16
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. pull B. brush C. bush D. full
Question 2: A. basket B. subway C. club D. climbing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. disease B. mildew C. figure D. mindset
Question 4: A. advertise B. overcome C. classify D. integrate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Jack studied diligently for the final exam, ______his top marks in the exam.
A. resulted in B. to result in C. resulting in D. result in
Question 6: I like drinking ______coffee in the morning.
A. the B. an C. a D. ∅ (no article)
Question 7: She hasn’t seen this film, ______?
A. has she B. is she C. hasn’t she D. does she
Question 8: You must obtain ______from the landowner to fish this river.
A. allowance B. permit C. right D. permission
Question 9: The Eiffel Tower is recognized as ______ landmark in Paris.
A. the most iconic B. the iconic as C. the more iconic D. the more
iconic
Question 10: She has always ______a great sense of humor, which makes her the life of any party.
A. done B. made C. got D. had
Question 11: My boss offered ______me with the project that I was struggling with.
A. help B. helping C. to help D. to helping
Question 12: Students affected by Covid 19 pandemic ______ application forms online to get cash
support.
A. got over B. held up C. filled in D. took after
Question 13: We ______ at the airport by our boss last month.
A. will welcome B. have welcomed C. were welcomed D. welcomed
Question 14: She smiled ______ when she opened the door and entered the room.
A. impolite B. polite C. politely D. politeness
Question 15: Is it true that people who are good ______ music can learn a language sooner?
A. at B. to C. for D. of
Question 16: Our sisters are like______ these days- one is keen on listening to pop music and the
other is fond of dancing.
A. chalk and cheese B. part and parcel C. ups and downs D. salt and
pepper
Question 17: The students ______ a class project on pollution when the teacher came in.
A. do B. did C. were doing D. are doing
Question 18: My father is the only one who ______ the heavy lifting in my family.
A. does B. performs C. makes D. runs
Question 19: The teachers have had some problems deciding the time when______.
A. will they return the final papers to the students
B. are they going to return to the students the final papers
28
C. the final papers they should return to the students
D. they will return the final papers to the students

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Jolie is reading a magazine on famous people, asking her friend, John.
- Jolie: “Do you think celebrities today tend to focus more on wealth rather than achievements?”
- John: “______. And this sets bad examples for young people.”
A. Not at all B. You can say that again
C. I think they focus more on achievements D. It’s out of the question
Question 21: Michael and Linda are at the schoolyard.
- Michael: “Do you prefer relaxing holidays, or would you rather go on an adventure?”
- Linda: “______”
A. Why don’t you go for a holiday?
B. As a matter of fact, I’d rather like them.
C. Honestly, I’m not the adventurous type.
D. To be honest, that sounds great.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: School uniform is compulsory in most Vietnamese schools.
A. depended B. required C. divided D. paid
Question 23: The local community center is focusing on the integration of different cultural activities
to bring everyone closer together.
A. mixing B. splitting C. packing D. cutting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The concert was unexpectedly canceled due to inclement weather.
A. favorable B. pleasant C. predictable D. severe
Question 25: Some of the members looked green around the gills after trekking through Cat Ba
Island. They need to take a rest to refresh themselves.
A. had a lot of energy B. felt a sharp pain in their feet
C. were in need of sleep D. became very exhausted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: She said, “I have been studying for 8 hours”.
A. She said that I had been studying for 8 hours.
B. She said that she had been studying for 8 hours.
C. She said that she had studied for 8 hours.
D. She said that she has been studying for 8 hours.
Question 27: It is possible that it will not rain this evening.
A. It may not rain this evening. B. It needn't rain this evening.
C. It shouldn't rain this evening. D. It must rain this evening.
Question 28: The last time I talked to Jessica was when I came across her on my way to HCM city.
A. I didn’t talk to Jessica when I came across her on my way to HCM city.
B. I finally talked to Jessica when I was on my way to HCM city.
C. I have talked to Jessica since I came across her on my way to HCM city.

29
D. I haven’t talked to Jessica since I came across her on my way to HCM city.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: Many devoted teachers from different countries joined the cultural exchange festival
and shared his cultural identities.
A. identities B. devoted C. his D. exchange
Question 30: It is becoming increasingly important that an accord on foreign corporate investment is
negotiated between leading industrious nations
A. negotiated B. accord C. industrious D. increasingly
Question 31: She only has a twenty–dollar bill with her when she landed at Heathrow airport.
A. at B. has C. when D. twenty-dollar
bill

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: He badly suffered cyberbullying himself. He realized the true dangers of social media
only then.
A. Not until he had badly suffered cyberbullying himself did he realize the true dangers
of social media.
B. Such was his suffering of cyberbullying that he didn’t realize the true dangers of social
media.
C. Only when he had realized the true dangers of social media did he badly suffer
cyberbullying himself.
D. But for his terrible suffering of cyberbullying, he wouldn’t realize the true dangers of
social media.
Question 33: She didn't study for the exam. She didn't get a good grade.
A. If she had studied for the exam, she could get a good grade.
B. If she had studied for the exam, she wouldn't get a good grade.
C. If she had studied for the exam, she couldn’t have gotten a good grade.
D. If she had studied for the exam, she could have gotten a good grade.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The World Health Organization (WHO) has announced a shocking finding about the air we
breathe. It has found that (34) _______ everyone on Earth breathes unhealthy air. The WHO made its
air quality update ahead of World Health Day on April 7. The update reported that 90 percent of the
world population breathes air that (35) _______ WHO air quality limits. People (36) _______ live in
lower and middle countries breathe the poorest quality air. Millions of people die in these countries
because of pollution-related diseases. The WHO said: “After surviving a pandemic, it is unacceptable
to still have 7 million preventable deaths … due to air pollution”. (37) _______, the WHO asked
governments to do more to reduce levels of air pollution. It said: “Current energy concerns highlight
the importance of speeding up the transition to cleaner and healthier energy systems. Also, high gas
prices, energy security, the dangers of air pollution, and climate change mean the world must be less
dependent on fossil fuels. Among many recommendations for change included in the report are the
exclusive use of clean household energy for cooking, heating and lighting and building safe and
affordable public transport (38) _______ and pedestrian and cycle friendly networks”.
(Adapted from https://breakingnewsenglish.com/2204/220407-air-quality.html)
Question 34: A. nearly B. almost C. mostly D. all

30
Question 35: A. exceeds B. outnumbers C. surpasses D. overtakes
Question 36: A. whom B. who C. which D. whose
Question 37: A. However B. Moreover C. Nevertheless D. Therefore
Question 38: A. systems B. means C. ways D. methods

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Are you into skiing? Is winter your favourite time of year? If you like snow and ice, maybe you
should stay at the Ice Hotel in Quebec, Canada. But, you can only check in to this hotel during the
winter. Why? Because this hotel is made entirely of ice and snow!
This amazing hotel is built every December. It has 32 rooms, and 80 people can stay there each
night. The hotel has a movie theatre, an art gallery, and a church. Of course, all of these parts of the
hotel are made of ice. In fact, all the furniture, art, lights, and even plates and drinking glasses are
made of ice.
Because this hotel is so unusual, it has become very popular. People from all over the world
come to the Ice Hotel to look at the fantastic ice art, drink and eat from designer ice dishes, and
experience the unique atmosphere. Some couples have even gotten married in the hotel’s ice church.
However, all the guests keep their winter coats on! Because of all the ice, the temperature
inside the hotel is always between -2 and -5°C. Surprisingly, sleeping is not a problem in the freezing
cold hotel rooms. Every guest gets a special cold-weather sleeping bag and some fur blankets. These
keep them cosy and warm until morning.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 1)
Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. The Best Season to Ski B. A One-of-a-Kind Hotel
C. Top Places for Vacation D. Winter in Quebec, Canada
Question 40: The word It in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. room B. movie theatre C. hotel D. art gallery
Question 41: According to the passage, the Ice Hotel ______.
A. has other suites all over Canada B. is specifically designed for skiers
C. is available throughout the year D. has plenty of rooms and facilities
Question 42: The word unique in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. special B. common C. normal D. usual
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Couples are not allowed to get married in the Ice Hotel’s church.
B. Sleeping bags and fur blankets keep the guests warm and cosy.
C. The Ice Hotel is famous for its ice-furnished architecture.
D. The temperature inside the Ice Hotel is always kept sub-zero.
Question 43: The Ice Hotel has all of the following EXCEPT that______.
A. Couples are not allowed to get married in the Ice Hotel’s church.
B. The Ice Hotel is famous for its ice-furnished architecture.
C. The temperature inside the Ice Hotel is always kept sub-zero.
D. The Ice Hotel supplies all guests with special cold-weather sleeping bags and fur blankets.

Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Photographic evidence suggests that liquid water once existed in great quantity on the surface
of Mars. Two types of flow features are seen: runoff channels and outflow channels. Runoff channels
are found in the southern highlands. These flow features are extensive systems of interconnecting,
twisting channels that seem to merge into larger, wider channels. They bear a strong resemblance to

31
river systems on Earth, and geologists think that they are dried-up beds of long-gone rivers that once
carried rainfall on Mars from the mountains down into the valleys. Runoff channels on Mars speak of
a time 4 billion years ago, when the atmosphere was thicker, the surface warmer, and liquid water
widespread.
Outflow channels are probably relics of catastrophic flooding on Mars long ago. They appear
only in equatorial regions and generally do not form extensive interconnected networks. Instead, they
are probably the paths taken by huge volumes of water draining from the southern highlands into the
northern plains. The onrushing water arising from these flash floods likely also formed the odd
teardrop-shaped "islands" that have been found on the plains close to the ends of the outflow
channels.
Some scientists speculate that Mars may have enjoyed an extended early period during which
rivers, lakes, and perhaps even oceans adorned its surface. A 2003 Mars Global Surveyor image
shows what mission specialists think may be a delta – a fan-shaped network of channels and
sediments where a river once flowed into a larger body of water, in this case a lake filling a crater in
the southern highlands. Other researchers go even further, suggesting that the data provide evidence
for large open expanses of water on the early Martian surface. A computer-generated view of the
Martian north polar region shows the extent of what may have been an ancient ocean covering much
of the northern lowlands. The Hellas Basin, which measures some 3,000 kilometers across and has a
floor that lies nearly 9 kilometers below the basin's rim, is another candidate for an ancient Martian
Sea.
(Source: https://www.ets.org/toefl/rpdt/prepare/reading)
Question 44: Which of the following could be the title of the passage?
A. Running Water on Mars? B. Photographic Evidence of a Martian
sea
C. Saving Martian Surface Water D. A Mars Global Surveyor
Question 45: The word merge in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______
A. expand B. separate C. straighten out D. combine
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, outflow channels ______.
A. result from destructive flash floods on Mars
B. form extensive equatorial networks
C. differ from river systems on Earth
D. arise from draining water in northern highlands
Question 47: The word its in paragraph 3 refers to ______ .
A. Martian B. rivers C. lakes D. scientists
Question 48: The word relics in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. remains B. sites C. requirements D. sources
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. There is evidence that large bodies of liquid water used to exist on Mars.
B. Mission scientists believe there may be a delta on Mars.
C. Mission scientists speculate that most Martian craters are filled by lakes.
D. Both runoff channels and outflow channels can be found on Mars.
Question 50: What can be inferred about liquid water on Mars?
A. It is likely that the water in ancient oceans has evaporated by now.
B. Its quantity is smaller than the amount that existed there in the past.
C. It will form a new sea 9 kilometers in width below the basin's rim.
D. It has been proven that there has never been liquid water on Mars.

------ THE END ------

32
33
ĐỀ SỐ 17
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. grade B. class C. lake D. male
Question 2: A. escape B. basic C. social D. comment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. disappear B. entertain C. discover D. represent
Question 4: A. unique B. visual C. ancient D. childish

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: John is said to be a man of his ______. If he says something, he’ll do it.
A. letter B. promise C. word D. speech
Question 6: Teenagers are not accustomed ______ getting up early.
A. at B. to C. in D. for
Question 7: He will go to the birthday party ______.
A. after he had finished his work B. when he was finishing his work
C. until he finished his work D. as soon as he has finished his work
Question 8: They are talking excitingly about ______ game they played last night.
A. an B. the C. ∅ (no article) D. a
Question 9: Many people say that Jenny______ her aunt. They are both tall and pretty.
A. looks after B. puts off C. turns off D. takes after
Question 10: Food companies want ______ sure that frozen food tastes good, even after it thaws out.
A. to make B. make C. to making D. making
Question 11: This restaurant is known for serving ______seafood dishes in the entire city.
A. the freshest B. the more fresh C. the fresher D. the most fresh
Question 12: Activists gathered to _______against the construction of the new pipeline, advocating
for cleaner energy alternatives.
A. demonstrate B. illustrate C. exemplify D. represent
Question 13: The chef cooked skillfully and enthusiastically, ______ a delicious meal.
A. creating B. to create C. create D. created
Question 14: Jane ______ on the bus when someone stole her phone.
A. got B. gets C. was getting D. is getting
Question 15: Mary couldn’t hear what her mother was saying, ______?
A. does she B. could she C. couldn’t she D. is she
Question 16: The industry will continue to move in the ______ of more automation.
A. orientation B. change C. direction D. solution
Question 17: You can ______ the list of rules in the form of a contract which all the members sign.
A. creation B. creative C. create D. creatively
Question 18: The livestream ______ by thousands of people around the world 3 weeks ago.
A. was watched B. watched C. has watched D. is watching
Question 19: As a team, we need to come together and ______our best to achieve our goals.
A. have B. do C. use D. think
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Janes wants her roommate, Mary, to pick her up and she agrees.
34
- Janes: “Could you pick me up before 5 p.m?”
- Mary: “______.”.
A. Yes, of course B. I’m afraid I can’t C. Yes, please D. I hope so
Question 21: Jenny and Lucy are talking about blended learning.
- Jenny: “I think blended learning is much more effective than traditional learning.”
- Lucy: “______. Blended learning helps students have more control over their own learning.”
A. I couldn’t agree more B. Don’t say anything about it
C. I disagree with you D. That’s not completely true

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: After the earthquake, the community's resilience allowed them to rebuild and recover
from the disaster quickly.
A. recovery B. creation C. strength D. weakness
Question 23: It is important to have someone that you can confide in.
A. talk to B. know for C. share with D. speak up

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The comedian's jokes were so dull that the audience sat in silence throughout the entire
performance.
A. tedious B. amusing C. weary D. boring
Question 25: Drinks in this bar cost an arm and a leg. I have paid VN DONG 300.000 for a classic
cocktail.
A. are very costly B. have an arm in this bar
C. are a real bargain D. have a leg to stand on

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: It is essential for Nam to take a gap year after high school.
A. Nam may take a gap year after high school.
B. Nam should take a gap year after high school.
C. Nam mustn't take a gap year after high school.
D. Nam can’t take a gap year after high school.
Question 27: Tom started learning the guitar a month ago.
A. Tom last learnt the guitar a month ago.
B. Tom hasn’t learnt the guitar for a month.
C. Tom has started learning the guitar for a month.
D. Tom has learnt the guitar for a month.
Question 28: He said: "I didn't hear you come in last night".
A. He said he didn't hear me come in last night.
B. He said he hadn't heard me come in last night.
C. He said he hadn't heard me come in the night before.
D. He said he hasn't heard me come in the night before.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: One way to show legitimate collectable responsibility is to fight against threats to
young

35
children’s rights to early childhood opportunities.
A. legitimate B. collectable C. threats D. rights
Question 30: One of the main applications of ChatGPT is in chatbots, where they can be used to
provide automated customer service and answer FAQs.
A. applications B. automated C. FAQs D. they
Question 31: When Paul was younger, he often goes fishing with his father.
A. goes B. When C. younger D. with

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: They didn't follow the instructions. They didn't succeed in completing the task.
A. If they hadn’t followed the instructions, they could have succeeded in completing the task.
B. If they had followed the instructions, they could have succeeded in completing the task.
C. If they followed the instructions, they wouldn't succeed in completing the task.
D. If they followed the instructions, they could succeed in completing the task.
Question 33: He left school. He started computer programming after that.
A. No sooner had he started computer programming than he left school.
B. Hardly had he started computer programming when he left school.
C. No sooner had he left school than he started computer programming.
D. Not until he started computer programming did he leave school.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
The pandemic affected businesses around the world, and companies are now looking to move on
from the closures in 2020 and 2021. (34) ______, many are running into problems again because they
can’t find workers.
Shutdowns were a turning point in the American economy, as they (35) ______ millions of people out
of work. However, when businesses reopened, many hourly workers chose not to return to work, and
(36) ______ changed jobs.
In April 2021, a record 4 million Americans quit their jobs, and the number grew in August and again
in November when 4.5 million Americans quit. Businesses that work directly with people are feeling
the effects the most. Restaurants and stores do not have enough workers, and the trucking industry is
struggling, (37) ______ causes delays at US ports.
While the world was at a complete standstill, many people had a chance to spend time with their
families and to think about their lives. They did not have the chance to do this when they worked full
time. Although millions of people are still (38) ______, they have had new job opportunities, too.
(Adapted from https://www.newsinlevels.com/products/the-great-resignation)
Question 34: A. Therefore B. However C. Moreover D. But
Question 35: A. asked B. required C. ordered D. forced
Question 36: A. each B. others C. other D. another
Question 37: A. which B. whom C. that D. who
Question 38: A. employed B. workable C. occupied D. jobless

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Genetically modified crops are plants that have been changed in some way using advanced
biological techniques. These crops are altered by adding genes from other organisms into their DNA,
making them easier to grow and healthier to eat. This might include splicing genes from bacteria,

36
animals, or other plants with those of a particular crop to enhance desired traits and eradicate
negative qualities.
The primary focus of GM technology over the last decade has been on staple food crops such as
maize, rice, soybeans, canola (rapeseed), and also cotton seed oil. Examples of genetic intervention
include making crops more tolerant to herbicides or more resistant to insecticides. There are also
studies underway to create food crops that could potentially be more resistant to drought, frost, and
soils with a higher salt content. Scientists also aspire to create a banana containing a vaccine for the
infectious disease Hepatitis B, and biologists in Switzerland and Germany have already created a rice
variety fortified with Vitamin A called ‘Golden Rice’.
GM crops have been the subject of much controversy since they were first introduced to
consumers in the 1990s. Many people are worried about the potential dangers of GM crops. Although
most people have already been exposed to some kind of GM products through processed foods, and
scientists maintain they have not found evidence that they are harmful to humans, their long-term
health effects remain unknown.
(Adapted from Reading for the Real World 3)
Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. How Crops Are Genetically Modified B. Controversies Over Genetic Technologies
C. Introduction to Genetically Modified Crops D. Environmental Impacts of GM Crops
Question 40: The word splicing in paragraph 1 mostly means ______.
A. combining B. containing C. extracting D. separating
Question 41: According to the passage, GM technology ______.
A. has a wide range of applications in different fields
B. pollutes the environment with herbicides and insecticides
C. interferes with the natural growth of staple food crops
D. creates new strains of vaccine-resistant bacteria
Question 42: The word they in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. consumers B. dangers C. biologists D. GM crops
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Genetically modified crops grow more easily and are healthier to consume.
B. GM technology can improve positive traits and leave out negative qualities.
C. The health consequences of GM foods have been proven to be permanent.
D. GM crops have not always been welcomed since they were first introduced.

Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Modern civilization is heavily dependent on energy. Without reliable power sources, we
couldn’t operate machines, use transportation, communicate via the Internet, or do many other
things. Although everyone recognizes the importance of energy, deciding what kind of energy the
world should use in the future is not a simple task. The two leading candidates for this role are green
energy and nuclear energy.
Currently, most of the energy we use is derived from fossil fuels. Although this energy source
has got us this far, there are several problems with it. It is a finite resource which is even estimated to
run out within the next 50 years. Burning fossil fuels also creates a large amount of pollution harmful
to the environment.
Although fossil fuels still provide the majority of our power, governments are seeking better energy
sources to use going forward.
One option is green energy such as solar, wind, and hydro power that is becoming increasingly
attractive. These are seen as clean and renewable sources of energy. The major disadvantage with
green energy sources is that they are not cheap.

37
The other alternative is nuclear power, which is also a renewable source of power, and doesn’t
produce air pollution. In addition, nuclear power is more reliable than green energy, as it doesn’t
depend on sunshine, rain, or wind to operate. The major issues with nuclear power are safety
concerns and nuclear waste. Nuclear power plants create a considerable amount of nuclear waste
which is extremely hazardous to people’s health. If they happen to have a meltdown, this could
destroy the surrounding area for years to come.
The recent nuclear disaster in Fukushima, Japan brought this reality into the spotlight once
again. In response, Germany announced it would close down eight of its nuclear plants immediately,
and close the rest by 2022. Meanwhile, other nations refuse to give up on nuclear power, stating that
these disasters are rare. The debate of whether to use green or nuclear power will likely continue for
some time. In the end, it is quite possible that both energy sources will be used to fuel our planet.
(Adapted from Intensive Reading Comprehension Skills)
Question 44. What is the main focus of the passage?
A. Why energy is important B. The energy sources used in the past
C. Comparing future energy solutions D. Discussing how disasters affect
power sources
Question 45. According to the passage, what is the main problem with green energy?
A. It creates lots of pollution. B. It costs more money than other
solutions.
C. No one is interested in using it. D. It won’t work at all in many nations.
Question 46. The word “meltdown” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. coolness B. a dangerous accident
C. Calmness D. tranquility
Question 47. The word “spotlight” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. concern B. attention C. danger D. area of light
Question 48. The word “it” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. nuclear disaster B. Fukushima C. Japan D. Germany
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Only green energy will continue to be the best choice for the future.
B. Nuclear energy is a better choice than fossil fuels in terms of environmental pollution.
C. A mix of different energy sources will be used in the future.
D. It is easy to decide on the energy solution for the future.
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that ______.
A. nuclear power is more expensive than other sources
B. nuclear energy is renewable because it can be replenished
C. nations have different viewpoints about the utility of nuclear power
D. the nuclear disaster in Fukushima made other countries give up on nuclear power

------ THE END ------

38
ĐỀ SỐ 18
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. with B. find C. dive D. time
Question 2: A. sociable B. camp C. escape D. comb

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. enter B. connect C. deplete D. attend
Question 4: A. dependent B. attractive C. possible D. successful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: _______ I will have worked at this school for 30 years.
A. Until I will reach 55 years old B. When I reached 55 years old
C. By the time I reach 55 years old D. Before I had reached 55 years old
Question 6: She was rooted to the ______ for a minute after seeing the ghostly figure.
A. path B. spot C. eye D. nest
Question 7: Unemployment can contribute to feelings of frustration, ______ to an increase in crimes.
A. leading B. to lead C. led D. lead
Question 8: I will arrange _______ you at the park entrance at 2:00 p.m.
A. meeting B. meet C. to meet D. to meeting
Question 9: Tourists shouldn't leave litter on the beach, _______?
A. did they B. shouldn't they C. didn’t they D. should they
Question 10: A _______ is someone who earns the money to support their family.
A. breadwinner B. housewife C. homemaker D. housekeeper
Question 11: When we get home, our children are always _______ to see us.
A. excite B. excited C. excitement D. excitedly
Question 12: My son ______ by a stranger when he was going home yesterday.
A. followed B. was followed C. is following D. has followed
Question 13: My mother _______ on the sofa in the living room when the phone rang.
A. is sitting B. was sitting C. sat D. has sat
Question 14: Sarah and her sister ______ an argument over who should do the dishes.
A. made B. did C. stayed D. had
Question 15: Our team put in______ effort to secure the victory in the championship.
A. most B. the most C. more D. the more
Question 16: He went to _______ prison for domestic violence.
A. an B. the C. a D. ∅ (no article)
Question 17: The spread of the virus ______ rapidly, overwhelming hospitals and prompting
government intervention.
A. escalated B. aggravated C. exacerbated D. worsened
Question 18: I’m interested _______ learning more about the deal you’re offering.
A. for B. in C. on D. by
Question 19: Margaret has _______ from her sister as the branch manager of the company.
A. taken over B. gone over C. gone off D. taken out
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Lily is talking to Elizabeth about dating.
- Lily: “Are you and John still dating?
39
- Elizabeth: “_______.”
A. John is so handsome B. Well, I guess so.
C. It’s a piece of cake to me. D. We broke up last year.
Question 21: Paul and Daisy are discussing life in the future.
- Paul: “I believe space travel will become more affordable for many people in the future.”
- Daisy: “_______.”
A. I am sorry to hear that. B. It doesn’t matter at all.
C. There’s no doubt about that. D. It is very kind of you to say so.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I drink some cups of tea, have a quick breakfast and then go to school.
A. nice B. strong C. fast D. slow
Question 23: She managed to accomplish all her tasks before the deadline, impressing her manager.
A. avoid B. complete C. delay D. ignore

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: When business gets into the groove, he will probably offer permanent jobs to the most
valued employees.
A. makes progress B. grows successfully
C. goes into a straight line D. becomes worse
Question 25 Despite the financial setback, the entrepreneur remained optimistic about the future of
her business.
A. expectant B. confident C. negative D. sanguine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: "You have to finish your assignment by Friday," the professor told her students.
A. The professor told her students that you have to finish your assignment by Friday.
B. The professor told her students that they had to finish their assignment by Friday.
C. The professor told her students that they have to finish their assignment by Friday.
D. The professor told her students that you had to finish your assignment by Friday.
Question 27: The Browns last lived in Seattle in 1975.
A. The Browns have lived in Seattle since 1975.
B. The Browns didn’t live in Seattle in 1975.
C. The Browns started living in Seattle in 1975.
D. The Browns haven’t lived in Seattle since 1975.
Question 28: I am sure Tom is rich because he has a house in Dubai and another in New York.
A. Tom may be rich because he has a house in Dubai and another in New York.
B. Tom must be rich because he has a house in Dubai and another in New York.
C. Tom needn’t be rich because he has a house in Dubai and another in New York.
D. Tom can’t be rich because he has a house in Dubai and another in New York.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: The poor man is invited to a big party several days ago.
A. The B. to C. is D. several days
Question 30: I asked my kids to get off his phones and take part in some outdoor activities.
A. asked B. take part in C. his D. get off
Question 31: The company’s former employees are advised to avoid accessing to the highly confined
40
information of the company, such as names and addresses of customers.
A. customers B. confined C. accessing D. advised

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: He was absent from the meeting. He missed important information.
A. If he had attended the meeting, he would miss important information.
B. If he attended the meeting, he wouldn’t miss important information.
C. If he hadn’t attended the meeting, he would have missed important information.
D. If he had attended the meeting, he wouldn’t have missed important information.
Question 33: The snow was heavy. They were late for the meeting.
A. No sooner had it not snowed heavily than they were late for the meeting.
B. Had it not snowed heavily, they wouldn’t have been late for the meeting.
C. But for the heavy snow, they would have been late for the meeting.
D. Only if it had snowed heavily, they wouldn't have been late for the meeting.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
Homework: how useful is it?
Homework is an established part of school life in most countries around the world. However,
there is still considerable (34)_______among teachers about whether homework has a significant
educational value. On the one side are the teachers (35) ______ claim that it takes too much time away
from other more useful activities. On the other are those who see homework as reinforcing school
lessons so that concepts will not be forgotten. What is often neglected in this debate is the role of
parents who are involved in and whether or not the child’s home provides support for effective
homework.
Middle-class families regularly spend time helping with homework by providing facilities and
being interested. These are the same families who can (36) ______ other educational experiences like
overseas holidays and weekend museum visits. Parents in low-income families often don’t have the
time to make homework a priority or aren’t able to afford a computer or additional books. (37) ______
, the idea that only middle class parents support their children’s education is quite obviously wrong.
Not all middle-class parents give the support they should, and (38) ______ parents living in the most
impoverished circumstances imaginable find the time and energy to involve themselves in their
children’s homework. In general, however, the family’s economic status is a major factor in
determining the value of homework.
Question 34: A. approval B. agreement C. debate D. proposal
Question 35: A. when B. which C. whom D. who
Question 36: A. display B. hinder C. bring D. offer
Question 37: A. Although B. Therefore C. However D. Moreover
Question 38: A. each B. some C. much D. every

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Most people would say they know what stress is. But for scientists who study stress, it has been
surprisingly hard to define. This is because there are so many ways of looking at stress. Some
researchers have studied how our bodies react to stress. You know how your heart beats faster, you
perspire more heavily, and your words do not come out right when you are placed in a stressful
situation. But knowing how we feel when we experience stress does not explain it; nor does it tell us
what causes it.
Other scientists have looked at stressors: events or situations that produce stress. A deadline, a
poor test performance, or bothersome noises all may be thought of as stressors. Even pleasant events
41
can be stressors. Planning a party or starting a new job can be just as stressful as being called to the
principal’s office. Stress, then, can be caused by both negative and positive events, or stressors. Of
course, whether an event is thought of as positive or negative is, in some ways, a matter of personal
choice.
In sum, it is the way people interpret an event that makes it stressful or not stressful. This
process of interpretation is called appraisal. Depending on how people appraise, or judge,
circumstances, they may or may not consider them stressful.
Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Brief Insights Into Stress B. The Psychology of Stress
C. Long-Term Consequences of Stress D. How to Cope with Stress
Question 40: The word it in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. body B. experience C. situation D. stress
Question 41: According to the passage, stress can be understood from ______.
A. chemical reactions happening inside our body
B. a limited range of stressors and indicators
C. both pleasant and unpleasant circumstances
D. a stress-free environment and community
Question 42: The word positive in paragraph 2 mostly means _____.
A. honest B. happy C. modern D. careful
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. How we define stress can determine how we deal with stress.
B. Whether an event is stressful or not is a matter of perspective.
C. Physical reactions are among other common signs of stress.
D. Appraisal is a process of exploring and understanding stress.

Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Throughout history, various people have demonstrated a high degree of confidence in the
ability of certain animals to predict the weather. It may seem surprising today in view of the complex
equipment now involved in weather forecasting to understand that in certain cases, the behavior of
animals does indeed provide an indication of inclement weather. The sensitivity of certain animals to
falling air pressure or to low-frequency sound waves that humans cannot hear, which are indicators
of approaching storms, causes behaviors in animals that certain societies have come to recognize as
predictors of storms.
A number of animals are remarkably sensitive to variations in air pressure, and some of these
animals show consistent, noticeable, and predictable behaviors as air pressure drops before a storm
hits. Where the air pressure drops before a storm, some animals move closer to the ground to equalize
the pressure in their ears and react in certain ways. For example, some birds such as swallows tend to
stay on the ground or roost in trees instead of soaring in the skies. Other animals such as ducks and
frogs make more noise than usual. Finally, still other animals become more active before storms as a
reaction to the falling air pressure: dolphins
and porpoises seem to be taking part in a frenzied sort of play, and bees and ants become more active
prior to storms. All of these are likely believed to be caused by the animals’ sensitivity to lower air
pressure.
There is good reason to believe that the fact that these animal behaviors seem to occur regularly
prior to storms may have a scientific basis and that the animals demonstrating these behaviors may
actually be good short-range weather forecasters. However, their ability to predict long-range
weather patterns is rather suspect. Certain proverbs, for example, are based on what is most likely the
incorrect idea that squirrels are good indicators of long-range weather patterns. A squirrel seems
busier than usual in gathering nuts may be due to a large supply of nuts available, or a squirrel grows

42
a long and bushy tail in the fall, which occurs because of earlier good weather and not as a warning of
harsh weather to come.
(Adapted from TOEFL Reading Practice by Deborah Philips)
Question 44: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Animals as Weather Forecasters B. Signs of A Weather Condition
C. Proverbs About the Weather D. Studies On Animal Behaviors
Question 45: The word inclement in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. local B. stormy C. favored D. stable
Question 46: Which of the following happens when air pressure drops before a storm?
A. Swallows soar in the sky. B. Ducks suddenly fall silent.
C. Frogs gather together in large groups. D. Ants move around more frantically than
usual.
Question 47: The word roost in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. feed B. communicate C. grow D. settle
Question 48: The word these in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. animals B. storms C. reactions D. trees
Question 49: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Animals can predict the weather patterns for the whole season.
B. Proverbs relating to squirrels are not good weather predictors.
C. Many animals change their behaviors shortly before a storm.
D. Some animals can detect low-frequency sound waves.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. There is a scientific basis for the belief that certain behaviors in animals influence the paths
taken by storms.
B. Short-range weather forecasts have become increasingly more successful in predicting
thunderstorms.
C. Scientists are studying the possibility that certain animal behaviors may occur during storms.
D. Quite possibly there are scientific reasons why animals act in certain ways before storms.

------ THE END ------

43
44
45
ĐỀ SỐ 19
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. cut B. tube C. but D. bus
Question 2: A. gain B. game C. glass D. gene

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. remember B. graduate C. recover D. consider
Question 4: A. result B. status C. custom D. struggle

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: ______, she will take some days off.
A. When she gave the assignment to her boss
B. When she gives the assignment to her boss
C. When she had given the assignment to her boss
D. When she will give the assignment to her boss
Question 6: Despite the criticism from his colleagues, Michael surprised everyone by maintaining his
composure and silently _______ their harsh remarks.
A. swallowing B. consuming C. digesting D. ingesting
Question 7: When my brother came back home after going out late last night, my Mum went _______
and shouted at him.
A. apples B. oranges C. cucumbers D. bananas
Question 8: The thief broke into our house while everyone ______ the final football match on TV.
A. were watching B. watched C. has watched D. was watching
Question 9: The high cost of housing makes it challenging for low-income individuals, _______ in a
significant homeless population.
A. results B. resulting C. resulted D. to result
Question 10: The ______ of many species is leading to their extinction.
A. exploitative B. exploitation C. exploit D. exploiting
Question 11: The storm caused ______ damage to the coastal towns.
A. the severest B. more severe C. most severe D. the most severe
Question 12: She was disappointed ______ her daughter when she got the result of the competition.
A. with B. about C. in D. at
Question 13: The company has promised to ______ the staff corruption regarding his letter of
complaint.
A. look into B. look up C. take on D. check in
Question 14: He’ll water the plants while I’m away, ______?
A. will he B. won’t he C. is he D. does he
Question 15: My sister is studying to be ______ lawyer.
A. ∅ (no article) B. an C. a D. the
Question 16: The carpet is so dirty. You need ______ it immediately.
A. cleaned B. cleaning C. to cleaning D. to clean
Question 17: Unexpectedly, her post on social media _______ viral within hours of being published,
and lots of people tried to copy the moves.
A. paid B. had C. took D. went
Question 18: The earth ______ by dinosaurs over sixty-five million years ago.
46
A. had occupied B. has occupied C. occupied D. was occupied
Question 19: I hope you realize that you’re putting your children in ______ by smoking inside the
house like that.
A. hazard B. jeopardy C. risk D. stake

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Camilla and Tom are talking about Chat GPT.
- Camilla: “In my opinion, students can take advantage of Chat GPT in their study and exams.”
- Tom: “______. Also teachers should update their knowledge and enhance their skill to cope with students’
tricks.”
A. Don’t mention it B. Sorry, I can’t agree
C. I disagree D. I couldn’t agree more
Question 21: Linda and William are discussing the plan for the weekend.
- Linda: “How about going hiking in the mountains this weekend?”
- William: “______”
A. That sounds good! B. I’m glad you like it.
C. You are definitely right. D. Is that right?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Understanding his perspective on the issue helped everyone appreciate the complexity
of his decision.
A. opinion B. position C. situation D. permission
Question 23: From the Eiffel Tower, we can enjoy a marvellous view of splendid Paris by night.
A. terrible B. fantastic C. clear D. close

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The CEO advocated for the protection of employee rights and equitable treatment in the
workplace.
A. opposed B. initiated C. advised D. supported
Question 25: The company had to cut corners in order to overcome their financial difficulties at the
time being.
A. take unnecessary risks B. sacrifice quality C. waste resources D. spend more money

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: I started working as a journalist in 1998.
A. I have started working as a journalist since 1998.
B. I have been working as a journalist since 1998.
C. I haven’t worked as a journalist since 1998.
D. I worked as a journalist before 1998
Question 27: It is obligatory for all students to obey the class rules.
A. All the students may obey the class rules.
B. All the students can obey the class rules.
C. All the students must obey the class rules.
D. All the students needn't obey the class rules.
Question 28: She told me, "I feel like I've met you before".

47
A. She told me she felt like she had met me before.
B. She told me she feels like she has met me before.
C. She told me she feels like she had met me before.
D. She told me she felt like she has met me before.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 29: I was seeing him with a little blond girl at lunch yesterday.
A. was seeing B. with C. a little D. at
Question 30: Having been warned about the bad effects of emissions, factories applied technology to
purify
it before discharging these emissions into the environment.
A. Having been warned B. applied C. it D. discharging
Question 31: We are all too dismissal of local traditions in our modern world, but they can have a very
strong
impact on us.
A. dismissal B. local C. modern D. strong

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: She didn't practice the piano regularly. She didn't improve her skills.
A. If she had practiced the piano regularly, she wouldn't improve her skills.
B. If she had practiced the piano regularly, she couldn’t have improved her skills.
C. If she had practiced the piano regularly, she could improve her skills.
D. If she had practiced the piano regularly, she could have improved her skills.
Question 33: John helped us to raise money. We finished the project on time.
A. But for John's help to raise money, we could have finished the project on time.
B. Without John’s help to raise money, we could have finished the project on time.
C. Had John not helped us to raise money, we wouldn't have finished the project on time.
D. No sooner had John helped us to raise money than we finished the project on time.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
Advances in technology have done much to change the way we live and communicate, but no
(34)______ revolutionized life as much as the advent of wireless technology, according to a panel of
experts assembled by CNN in 2010. Back in 1980, when it came to communication technology,
telephones were stuck to walls, (35)______ were found in books, and people had to browse shelves in
a record store if they wanted to buy the latest music. (36)______, developments which occurred at the
start of the twenty first century meant we could access all that information just by reaching into our
pockets for our mobile phones. From the very beginning of the Information Age, having immediate
access to data was fundamental to progress. In (37)______ cases, technological advances served to
overhaul industries at a lightning-fast pace. For example, it was the Internet (38)______ helped tech-
savvy music lovers to force changes in the way the music industry did business, while text messaging
over cellphones made written communication more immediate.
(Adapted from ‘Vocabulary for Ielts advanced’ - Pauline Cullen)
Question 34: A. breakthrough B. eruption C. outbreak D. explosion
Question 35: A. statements B. opinions C. mysteries D. facts
Question 36: A. Although B. Otherwise C. But D. However
Question 37: A. many B. every C. each D. another

48
Question 38: A. who B. that C. where D. when

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43
A young actress is about to go onto the stage. As she waits by the side of the stage, she looks
nervous. You might hear her whisper to her friend, ‘I’ve got butterflies in my stomach.’ Butterflies in
her stomach? How did those get in there? The feeling of butterflies comes from chemicals produced
by the body in stressful situations. One chemical that the body makes under stress is cortisol.
This chemical benefits the body in normal situations. In fact, it helps the body start normal
activities in the morning after waking up. It also plays a role in helping the body and mind respond
well to healthy exercise. However, when the body is under stress, extra cortisol begins to affect the
stomach. For some people, cortisol shuts down the stomach, producing the funny feeling of
butterflies. For others, cortisol speeds up the way the stomach works, which makes these people feel
sick. All you need to do to get rid of a few butterflies in the stomach is just relax. Laughing with, or
talking to, others about your stress can help reduce it. Stepping out onto the stage will also help those
butterflies fly away.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 1)
Question 39: The passage is mainly about ______.
A. cortisol, a new kind of stressor B. an illness that nervous people get
C. the stress that actors have D. the cause of butterflies in the stomach
Question 40: According to the passage, cortisol, in normal conditions, ______.
A. weakens our immune system B. benefits our body and mind
C. makes us feel sick and stressed D. speeds up our digestive system
Question 41: The word “respond” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. react B. discuss C. object D. change
Question 42: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. stomach B. stage C. chemical D. stress
Question 43: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as a way to reduce stress EXCEPT
______.
A. talking about the stress B. relaxing
C. staying away from the stage D. laughing with others about the stress

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Members of the royal family have led an outpouring of tributes from around the world at the
death of Prince Philip, the husband of Queen Elizabeth. Buckingham Palace has spoken of the
Queen’s ‘deep sorrow’ after her husband of 73 years, who had been by her side throughout her reign,
died peacefully at Windsor Castle aged 99 on Friday night (Australian time).
Flags at Buckingham Palace and government buildings across the United Kingdom were
lowered to half-mast, and within an hour of the announcement the public began to lay flowers
outside Windsor Castle and Buckingham Palace. However, mourners have been urged not to gather
and leave tributes at royal residences, and the public has been asked to stay away from funeral events
because of the coronavirus pandemic. An online book of condolence has been launched on the Royal
Family’s official website for people to leave messages of sympathy.
The prince died two months short of his 100th birthday. He had recently spent four weeks in
hospital with an infection where he was treated for a heart condition before being discharged and
returned to Windsor early in March. The Duke of Edinburgh had been by his wife’s side throughout
her 69-year reign, the longest in British history, and during that time earned a reputation for a tough,
no-nonsense attitude, and a propensity for occasional gaffes. A Greek prince, Philip married Elizabeth

49
in 1947, and together they had four children, eight grandchildren, and nine great grandchildren. He
played a key role helping the monarchy adapt to a changing world in the post-World War II period,
and behind the walls of Buckingham Palace was the one key figure the Queen could trust and turn to,
knowing he could tell her exactly what he thought.
The death of the Duke comes in the midst of the worst public health crisis for generations as
Britain and countries around the globe reel from the devastating impact of the coronavirus pandemic.
Philip will not have a state funeral nor lie in state for the public to pay their respects ahead of the
funeral, the College of Arms said, with arrangements revised to meet coronavirus restrictions.
(Adapted from https://thenewdaily.com)
Question 44: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. The Death of Prince Philip B. The Public’s Tribute to Prince Philip
C. A Bibliography of Prince Philip D. Life and Contributions of Prince
Philip
Question 45: The word mourners in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. bearers B. visitors C. participants D. grievers
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, in order to express their condolences, the public should
______.
A. gather at royal residences B. try to attend funeral events
C. post sympathy messages online D. leave tributes at Windsor Castle
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Prince Philip was in his early thirties when he got married to Queen Elizabeth.
B. Flowers were laid outside royal residences after the death announcement.
C. Prince Philip assisted the monarchy in navigating through the wartime.
D. Queen Elizabeth could rely on Prince Philip in both political and married life.
Question 48: The word discharged in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. abandoned B. released C. introduced D. advised
Question 49: The word their in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. countries B. the public C. generations D.
arrangements
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Prince Philip will not have a state funeral as he comes from Greece.
B. Prince Philip’s funeral will be conducted online to avoid coronavirus spread.
C. Prince Philip will be buried behind the walls of Buckingham Palace.
D. Prince Philip’s funeral will be conducted differently from other royal funerals.

------ THE END ------

50
ĐỀ SỐ 20
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. weigh B. cough C. tough D. laugh
Question 2: A. take B. lane C. late D. dance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. library B. architect C. habitat D. pollutant
Question 4: A. eager B. instant C. extinct D. certain

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: He likes this book, ______?
A. does he B. isn’t he C. doesn’t he D. is he
Question 6: My scholarship application ______ by my professors last year.
A. denied B. was denied C. had denied D. is denied
Question 7: My children ______ their party when the fireworks went off.
A. were enjoying B. enjoyed C. enjoy D. are enjoying
Question 8: Try to understand how others feel and be sympathetic ______ them.
A. in B. with C. about D. on
Question 9: This year's festival attracted thousands of ______.
A. spectators B. viewers C. onlookers D. audiences
Question 10: When those idols are found to have ______ of clay, the pain of disappointment from
their fans can be profound.
A. mouth B. weight C. teeth D. feet
Question 11: I’m sorry. I didn’t break your pen ______.
A. intentionally B. intend C. intentional D. intention
Question 12: My boss is so busy with his work, but I hope he’ll ______ at the event.
A. turn up B. turn off C. turn over D. turn down
Question 13: The cheetah is recognized as ______land animal.
A. the fastest B. the faster C. the more fast D. the fast
Question 14: I enjoy watching ______ water sports, such as surfing and wakeboarding.
A. the B. ∅ (no article) C. an D. a
Question 15: Eating healthy food can ______ a positive effect on your energy levels, and it can also
improve your overall health.
A. have B. play C. send D. give
Question 16: She hopes ______ a job in her chosen field after graduation.
A. to finding B. finding C. find D. to find
Question 17: He spoke confidently, ______the audience with his arguments.
A. convinces B. to convince C. convinced D. convincing
Question 18: I'll start to think about your advice ______.
A. while I was having to write my report. B. before I had to write my report.
C. after I had to write my report. D. when I have to write my report.
Question 19: The drama has been ______all over social networks recently, captivating the attention of
countless users and sparking intense discussions.
A. shining B. blazing C. flaring D. burning

51
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Mary and Larry are talking about the influence of smartphones.
- Mary: “I believe smartphones have helped us so much to keep in touch with each other.”
- Larry: “______. They have had a dynamic influence on international communication.”
A. There are many doubts about that. B. I absolutely agree with you.
C. I couldn’t agree with you less. D. No, I’m not so sure about that.
Question 21: Alex and Peter are talking at the cafeteria.
- Alex: “Let's have a drink. What would you like?” - Peter: “ ______”
A. Some coffee, please. B. Certainly. Here you are.
C. It's not good. D. Some snacks, please.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The significance of wearing seatbelts was emphasized during the safety demonstration,
showing how they can save lives in a car accident.
A. simplicity B. importance C. uselessness D. complexity
Question 23: Despite her extensive preparation and experience, she felt apprehensive before the
important job interview as she knew the outcome could have a significant impact on her career path.
A. excited B. overconfident C. anxious D. passionate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Everyone was secretly rehearsing a surprise performance for the leader’s proposal, but
annoyingly a new member let the cat out of the bag at the last minute.
A. disclosed the plan B. revised the plan C. concealed the plan D. abandoned the plan
Question 25: The patient's condition improved significantly after the treatment.
A. converted B. promoted C. expanded D. worsened

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. I have seen her for the last three years.
C. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her again.
Question 27: I am sure that there is a fire over there because I can see smoke from here.
A. There needn’t be a fire over there because I can see smoke from here.
B. There must be a fire over there because I can see smoke from here.
C. There can’t be a fire over there because I can see smoke from here.
D. There may be a fire over there because I can see smoke from here.
Question 28: "I can help you with your project this weekend," he told his colleague.
A. He told his colleague that he can help her with the project this weekend.
B. He told his colleague that he could help her with the project this weekend.
C. He told his colleague that he can help her with the project that weekend.
D. He told his colleague that he could help her with the project that weekend.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.

52
Question 29: The reigning champion has been undergoing a punishable exercise regime with the
hope of successfully defending his title.
A. reigning B. regime C. defending D. punishable
Question 30: The economy of this country is based to a great extent on their forests, which cover 80
percent of its surface area.
A. to a great extent B. its C. economy D. their
Question 31: Helen isn’t happy yesterday because she didn't pass the exam.
A. because B. didn't C. isn’t D. the

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: The important report was sent. They checked the email after that.
A. Only after they had checked the email was the important report sent.
B. On no account did they check the email after the important report was sent.
C. Not until the important report was sent did they check the email.
D. Hardly had they checked the email when the important report was sent.
Question 33: They didn't save money. They couldn't afford the trip.
A. Unless they had saved money, they could have afforded the trip.
B. Unless they had saved money, they couldn’t afford the trip.
C. If they had saved money, they couldn't afford the trip.
D. If they had saved money, they could have afforded the trip.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
In the world of wildlife conservation, it is usually animals like whales and tigers (34) ______ get the
most public attention. Consequently, projects to protect these so-called 'flagship species' receive the
greatest amount of funding, which helps to ensure, or at least improve the chances of their long-term
survival. However, it could be argued that perhaps we should be focusing more attention elsewhere.
This is because many of the minute plants, insects and microorganisms that we tend to ignore
actually (35) ______ a far more important role in biodiversity protection. Consider, for example, the
Western honeybee Apis Mellifera.
Regarded as one of the world's most efficient pollinators, the honeybee plays a direct or indirect part
in the production of (36) ______ food products in our markets and stores. (37) ______, in recent years,
a problem known as 'colony collapse disorder' has manifested itself, and now honeybee colonies are
rapidly disappearing. Nobody knows the cause of this phenomenon, but the (38) ______ are
worryingly clear: unless a solution to colony collapse disorder is found soon, food production will be
seriously, perhaps disastrously, affected.
(Adapted from COMPLETE IELTS)
Question 34. A. who B. that C. whom D. whose
Question 35. A. attain B. play C. place D. put
Question 36. A. every B. each C. much D. many
Question 37. A. Moreover B. Hence C. However D. Therefore
Question 38. A. implications B. applications C. complications D. appliances

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
The longer food is kept, the more likely it is to attract insects. Even foods stored in containers often
attract bugs. To solve this problem, scientists have been working with different odours in an attempt
to find one strong enough to keep insects from going near food. One possibility would be to use

53
plants with strong smells, like garlic or pine, to keep insects away. Unfortunately, however, using
these smells might keep some people away too!
A more promising repellent is citronella oil, which comes from a type of lemongrass. An experiment
was done using this oil with a certain insect, the red flour beetle. Scientists sprayed cardboard boxes
with citronella oil and noticed that the beetles did not enter those boxes. They were much more
interested in boxes that were not sprayed.
One problem with using citronella oil as a repellent, however, is that it is quite ephemeral—it simply
does not last very long. After a few months it loses its smell, and bugs no longer find it unpleasant.
Scientists hope to improve citronella oil so that its scent remains strong for a longer time. It will also
be necessary to make sure that the oil is not harmful to people, as scientists are still not sure whether
it is safe to use around food.
(Adapted from e-Practice Test for the TOEFL Junior)
Question 39: The passage is mainly about ______.
A. ways of protecting food from insects B. the use of herbal oils in cooking

C. the behaviour of red flour beetles D. smells produced by different grasses


Question 40: According to the passage, citronella oil ______.
A. attracts more insects if it is left outside near the food
B. is sprayed into containers to keep food from spoiling
C. is a type of insecticide that can kill red flour beetles
D. produces smells strong enough to keep insects away
Question 41: The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. Odours B. Beetles C. Boxes D. Scientists
Question 42: The word “scent” in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. colour B. taste C. smell D. look

Question 43: All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT ______.
A. whether citronella oil is safe to use around food remains unknown
B. citronella oil is effective against insects, but its effects are temporary
C. the use of repellents against insects is discouraged by scientists
D. some people can’t stand the odours from certain plants like garlic

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Marine experts estimate about 40,000 humpback whales are now migrating through Australian
waters annually, up from about 1,500 half a century ago. The humpbacks’ annual journey from
Antarctica to subtropical waters along Australia’s east and west coasts is one of nature’s great
migrations. It is a journey of up to 10,000 kilometers and is undertaken between April and November.
Scientists have estimated 40,000 humpback whales have been in Australian waters to mate and breed.
It is a remarkable recovery from the height of commercial whaling in the early 1960s when it was
estimated there were fewer than 1,500 humpbacks. They were slaughtered mainly for their oil and
baleen, or “whalebone.”
Australia’s environment department says no other whale species has recovered as strongly as
the humpback since the end of commercial hunting, which ceased in Australia in 1978. Australia is
now considering removing humpback whales from the endangered species list because of their
growing numbers. The acrobatic humpbacks that can grow to 16 meters would still be protected in
Australia. Conservationists, though, argue that they need more, not fewer, environmental safeguards
to monitor the impact of climate change on krill – their main source of food. Krill is affected by the
absorption of more carbon dioxide into the ocean.

54
Olaf Meynecke, a research fellow in Marine Science at Queensland’s Griffith University, says
vigilance is needed to ensure the whales continue to thrive. “Generally speaking, yes, it is a great
success story that humpback whales have come back. But obviously we also need to ask questions as
to how this will continue in the future, how present threats are already impacting the population, and
how we are going to detect changes in the future,” Meynecke said. Scientists say humpbacks face a
combination of other threats including the overharvesting of krill, pollution, habitat degradation, and
entanglement in fishing nets. Calves also face attack by killer whales or sharks.
The recovery of the humpback has helped the rapid growth of Australia’s whale-watching
industry. As their numbers have grown, much about the humpback, a species famous for its song,
remains a mystery. Scientists do not know exactly, for example, where on Australia’s Great Barrier
Reef they mate and calve. Humpback whales live in all the world’s oceans. They take their common
name from a distinctive hump on the whale’s back.
(Adapted from https://www.voanews.com/east-asia-pacific/)
Question 44: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Humpback Whales’ Migration from Antarctic to Australian Oceans
B. The Role of Humpback Whales in Australia’s Economy
C. Present Threats to Humpback Whales’ Population
D. The Recovery of Humpback Whales in Australian Waters
Question 45: The word “ceased” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. stopped B. postponed C. prohibited D. persisted
Question 46: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is NOT considered a threat to
humpback whales?
A. entanglement in fishing nets B. high abundance of krill
C. damage to their living environment D. commercial hunting
Question 47: The word “vigilance” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. watchfulness B. misuse C. preparation D. observation
Question 48: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. scientists B. numbers C. humpback whales D. oceans
Question 49: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The humpback whale’s names come from a distinguishing feature on their bodies.
B. The annual journey of humpback whales takes more than half a year.
C. Humpback whales are still considered an endangered species in Australia.
D. Humpback whales’ population is threatened mainly because of changing habitats.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Humpback whales are only valuable for their bone, oil and baleen.
B. Without appropriate measures, the humpback whale population could be at stake.
C. Humpback whales will definitely find another place to mate and breed in the future.
D. Humpback whales’ recovery threatens other species in the oceans.

------ THE END ------

55
ĐÁP ÁN

Đề số 11
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. C
11. C 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. D 16. B 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. D
21. D 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. B 26. C 27. B 28. B 29. C 30. D
31. C 32. A 33. B 34. C 35. B 36. A 37. D 38. C 39. C 40. B
41. C 42. D 43. A 44. B 45. C 46. B 47. D 48. A 49. C 50. B

Đề số 12
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. B
11. A 12. D 13. C 14. C 15. A 16. D 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. D
21. C 22. A 23. C 24. D 25. D 26. C 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. B
31. D 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. C 36. C 37. D 38. B 39. D 40. D
41. B 42. B 43. C 44. A 45. C 46. D 47. B 48. D 49. C 50. B

Đề số 13
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. C
11. B 12. A 13. D 14. D 15. B 16. D 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. C
21. B 22. A 23. D 24. C 25. B 26. D 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. B
31. D 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. A 36. D 37. B 38. A 39. A 40. B
41. D 42. D 43. B 44. B 45. C 46. A 47. D 48. C 49. D 50. A

Đề số 14
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. D
11. A 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. B 17. D 18. D 19. C 20. C
21. A 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. C 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. B
31. D 32. D 33. D 34. B 35. A 36. D 37. C 38. B 39. C 40. C
41. A 42. D 43. B 44. C 45. B 46. B 47. B 48. A 49. A 50. D

Đề số 15
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. D 8. D 9. C 10. D
11. C 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. B 19. B 20. A
21. C 22. A 23. A 24. A 25. A 26. B 27. D 28. A 29. D 30. B
31. C 32. D 33. A 34. C 35. A 36. B 37. A 38. B 39. B 40. A
41. A 42. B 43. D 44. C 45. A 46. D 47. A 48. B 49. D 50. A

56
Đề số 16
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. D

11. C 12. C 13. C 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. C 18. A 19. D 20. B

21. C 22. B 23. A 24. A 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. C 30. C

31. B 32. A 33. D 34. B 35. A 36. B 37. D 38. A 39. B 40. C

41. D 42. A 43. A 44. A 45. D 46. A 47. A 48. A 49. C 50. B

Đề số 17
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. A
11. A 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. A
21. A 22. C 23. C 24. B 25. C 26. B 27. D 28. C 29. B 30. D
31. A 32. B 33. C 34. B 35. D 36. B 37. A 38. D 39. C 40. A
41. A 42. D 43. C 44. C 45. B 46. B 47. B 48. D 49. D 50. C

Đề số 18
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. A
11. B 12. B 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. D 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. D
21. C 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. B 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. C
31. B 32. D 33. B 34. C 35. D 36. D 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. D
41. C 42. B 43. A 44. A 45. B 46. D 47. D 48. C 49. A 50. D

Đề số 19
1. B 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. B
11. D 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. C 16. D 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. D
21. A 22. A 23. B 24. A 25. D 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. A 30. C
31. A 32. D 33. C 34. A 35. D 36. D 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. B
41. A 42. D 43. C 44. A 45. D 46. C 47. A 48. B 49. B 50. D

Đề số 20
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. D
11. A 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. D 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. B
21. A 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. B 28. D 29. D 30. D
31. C 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. B 36. D 37. C 38. A 39. A 40. D
41. B 42. C 43. C 44. D 45. A 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. D 50. B

57

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