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(Academic Session: 2023 - 2024)

ONLINE CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

Batch: NTN1P, NTN1R,
NTNA1BP, NTNA1BR

Date: 14-05-2023 Paper Type: Minor Test-2

TEST SYLLABUS
Physics : Motion in a straight line & Vectors
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Chemistry : Periodic Table(Till Taught), Atomic Structure & Mole Concept
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Biology : Cell Cycle and Cell Division, The living world, Biological classification, Cell : The Unit of
life & Cell Cycle and Cell division
W

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 Hour 20 minutes duration and it contains 200 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct
response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
The maximum marks are 720.
2. In this Test, subject Physics will consist of two sections (Physics A & Physics B). Physics A Section will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Physics B Section will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to
attempt any 10 questions out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first
3 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
3. Subject Chemistry will consist of two sections (Chemistry A & Chemistry B). Chemistry A Section will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Physics B Section will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to
attempt any 10 questions out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first
3 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
4. Subject Biology will consist of two sections (Biology A & Biology B). Biology A Section will consist of
70 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Physics B Section will have 30 questions. Candidate can choose to
attempt any 20 questions out of these 30 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 20 questions, first
20 attempted questions will be considered for marking.

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SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : Motion in a straight line, Vectors & Vectors
6. →
SECTION-A Two vectors A = 2^i + ^j + 3k^ and
Attempt All 35 questions →
B = 7^i − 5^j − 3k^ are :-
1. The forces, which meet at one point but their (1) Parallel (2) Perpendicular
lines of action do not lie in one plane, are called:
(3) Anti-parallel (4) None of these
(1) non-coplanar and non-concurrent forces
7. If → = −^i + ^j + 2k^
F and → = 2^j + k^
V than power
(2) coplanar and non-concurrent forces
→ →
(P = F . V ) is :

(3) non-coplanar and concurrent forces

(1) 4W (2) 6W (3) 3W (4) 2W
(4) coplanar and concurrent forces
8. → ⋅A
A → ⋅A
→ can be written as –
2. A physical quantity which has direction:-
(1) Must be a vector
(1) →
3A (2) A3

(2) Must be a scalar (3) →

A2 A (4) →2 ⋅ A
A →

(3) May be a vector 9. → +B

If |A → | = |A
→ | = |B
→ |, then the angle between A
→

(4) None of these and B→ is :-

3. Resultant of two vectors is minimum, then (1) 0° (2) 60º (3) 90º (4) 120º
vectors are:- 10. 7^i + 4^j
Projection of vector ( ) on y-axis is :-
(1) Parallel Vectors 5

(2) Antiparallel Vectors (1) 7 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 4

5 5
(3) Perpendicular Vectors 11. What happens when we multiply a vector by 2.
(4) Either perpendicular or parallel vectors (1) direction reverse and magnitude double
4. A vector changes when we (2) direction remain unchanged and magnitude
(1) Rotate the co-ordinate axis double
(2) Slide the vector without changing its (3) direction and magnitude remain unchanged.
orientation (4) None
(3) Rotate the vector 12. Two vector having magnitude 8 and 10 can have
maximum and minimum value of their resultant is
(4) All of the above
(1) 12, 6 (2) 10, 3
5. In which of the following pair of forces, the
resultant can be 10N:- (3) 18, 2 (4) None of these
(1) 2N & 6N (2) 5N & 6N 13. If (^i + β^j ) is a unit vector, then what is the value
of β ?
(3) 2N & 5N (4) 5N & 4N
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) -1 (4) 2
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14. Resultant of two vectors of equal magnitude 'A' 21. If the velocity of a particle is varying as
is : 1 3
V = Kt where K is constant and t is the time
(1) 3A at 60° (2) √ 2A at 90° 3
the acceleration is propotional to :
(3) 2A at 120° (4) A at 180° (1) t° (2) t2 (3) t (4) t3
15. 12 different coplanar forces (all of equal 22. The velocity of a body depends on time
magnitude) maintain a body in equilibrium, then according to the equation v = 20 + 0.1 t2. The
the angle between any two adjacent forces is :- body is undergoing:-
(1) 60° (2) 15° (3) 30° (4) 45° (1) Uniform acceleration
16. In case of 3 vector quantities of same type, (2) Uniform retardation
whose resultant cannot be zero :-
(3) Non-uniform acceleration
(1) 10, 10, 10 (2) 10, 10, 20
(4) Zero acceleration
(3) 10, 20, 20 (4) 10, 20, 40
23. ∫ V dtgives :- (Where v = velocity, S =
17. Free fall of an object (in vacuum) is a case of
motion with : displacement, a = acceleration)
(1) uniform velocity (1) a (2) S (3) V2 (4) None
2
(2) uniform acceleration 24. Velocity (in m/s) of a particle moving in a
(3) variable acceleration straight line is given by V = (t2 – 2t +1) :-
(4) constant moment List-
List-I
II
18. A stone thrown upward with a speed u from the
top of the tower reaches the ground with a speed Velocity (in m/s) of particle at
(P) (1) 1
t = 3 sec is
3u. The height of the tower is :
Acceleration (in m/s2) of
(1) 3u2/g (2) 4u2/g (Q) (2) 2
particle at t = 2 sec is
(3) 6u2/g (4) 9u2/g Time when particle is at rest
(R) (3) 3
19. With what speed should a body be thrown is (in second)
upwards so that the distance traversed in 5th Magnitude of
second and 6th second are equal : average acceleration of
(S) (4) 4
(1) 5.84 ms–1 (2) 50 ms–1 particle in first one second is
(in m/s2)
(3) √ 98ms−1 (4) 100 ms–1
Codes:-
20. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a P Q R S
velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits
(1) 3 2 4 1
the ground after some time with a velocity of 80
m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/s2) (2) 4 3 2 1
(1) 300 m (2) 360 m (3) 4 2 1 2
(3) 340 m (4) 320 m (4) 1 4 3 2
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25. The velocity (v) versus time (t) graph of a 28. A body starting from rest moving with uniform
particle moving along x-axis is as shown. acceleration has a displacement of 64 m in first 4
seconds. The acceleration of the body is :
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
(3) 8 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2
The variation of position (x)-time (t) graph of 29. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed
this particle is best shown by - 60 m/s. Its speed after 8 seconds will be :-
(1) Zero (2) 10 m/s
(3) 20 m/s (4) 30 m/s
(1) (2) 30. A particle moving with constant acceleration
covers a distance of 30m in the 3rd second. It
covers a distance of 50m in the 5th second what
is the acceleration of the particle :
(1) 3 m/s2 (2) 5 m/s2
(3) (4) (3) 8 m/s2 (4) 10 m/s2
31. A boy walks to his school at a distance of 6 km
26. Which of the graph represents the uniform with constant speed of 2.5 km/hr and walks back
acceleration :- with a constant speed of 4 km/hr. His average
speed for round trip expressed in km/hr is
(1) (2) (1) 24 (2) 40 (3) 3 (4) 1
13 13 2
32. A Body moves 6 m north. 8 m east and 10m
vertically upwards, what is its resultant
(3) (4)
displacement from initial position :-
(1) 10√2m (2) 10m
27. A ball is dropped from some height. After
rebounding from the floor it ascends to the same 10
(3) (4) 10 × 2m
height. Draw the velocity-time graph for the √ 2
given motion. 33. A truck travelling towards North with velocity
20 m/s turns East and travels at the same speed.
The change in its velocity is-
(1) (2)
(1) 20 √ 2 m/s North-East

(2) 20 √ 2 m/s South-East

(3) 40 √ 2 m/s North-East

(3) (4)
20
(4) m/s North-West
√ 2

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34. If a stone is released from a balloon rising with 38. If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector,
acceleration a at the instant when its velocity is then the magnitude of their difference is :-
v, then immediately after release, the
acceleration and velocity of the stone are :- (1) √ 2 (2) √ 3
1
(1) a (upward), v (upward) (3) (4) √ 5
√ 2
(2) g (upward), v (upward) 39. Identify correct statement :-
(3) g (downward), v (upward)
(4) (g – a) (downward), v (upward)
35. A body starting from rest moves with constant
acceleration. The ratio of distance covered by (1) → +B
A → =C
→ (2) → +C
B → =A
→
the body during the 5th sec to that covered in 5
(3) → +A
C → =B
→ (4) → +B
A → +C
→ =0
sec is :-
(1) 9/25 (2) 3/5 (3) 25/9 (4) 1/25 40. Water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap
6m above the ground. The third drop is leaving
SECTION-B
the tap at the instant the first drop touches the
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of ground. How far above the first drop touches the
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts ground. How far above the ground is the second
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted drop at that instant :
questions will be considered for marking. (1) 1.25 m (2) 2.50 m
36. In the given figure (Select incorrect option) (3) 3.75 m (4) 4.5 m
41. A body dropped from a tower reaches the ground
in 5 s. The height of the tower is about : (Take g
= 10 m/s2)

→ and B
→ is 70º (1) 80 m (2) 125 m
(1) Angle between A
(3) 160 m (4) 40 m
(2) Angle between C→ and D
→ is 40º
42. If position is x = a + bt2 where a = 1 cm and b =
(3) Angle between B→ and C→ is 120º
3 cm/s2 then its instantaneous velocity at time t =
(4) Angle between B→ and D
→ is 10º 2 sec is :-
37. A force acts on a (1) 36 cm/s (2) 18 cm/s
body moves from (1, –2, 3) m to (–4, 5, 5) m. (3) 16 cm/s (4) 12 cm/s
If work done by the force is 80 J, find the
43. 1 2 d2s
value of b :- If S = ut + at then =?
2 dt2
(1) 5 (2) 10 (1) U + at (2) U
(3) 80 (4) None (3) a (4) U + a
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44. For the motion of a particle acceleration-time 46. If a body starts from rest and travels 120 cm in
graph is shown in figure. The velocity time the 6th second, then what is the acceleration ?

curve for the duration of 0–4 seconds is : (1) 0.20 ms–2 (2) 0.027 ms–2
(3) 0.218 ms–2 (4) 0.03 ms–2
47. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of
5 m/s in 10 seconds the velocity changes to 5 m/s
northwards. The average acceleration in this time
interval is:
(1) 0
1
(2) m/s2 towards north-west
√ 2
1
(1) (2) (3) m/s2 towards north-east
√ 2
(4) √ 2 m/s2 towards north-west

48. A body is thrown upward and reaches its

maximum height. At that position :-
(1) Its velocity is zero and its acceleration is
(3) (4) also zero
(2) Its velocity is zero but its acceleration is
maximum
45. Acceleration-time graph of a body is shown. (3) Its acceleration is minimum
The corresponding velocity-time graph is : (4) Its velocity is zero and its acceleration is
due to gravity
49. If a particle is moving with uniform velocity, its
acceleration is
(1) Infinite (2) Positive
(3) Negative (4) Zero
(1) (2) 50. A particle starts its motion from point A(1, 2, 3)
and finally reaches at points (8, 6, 7), then find
out magnitude of displacement :-
(3) (4) (1) 9 (2) 8
(3) 7 (4) 6

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SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY

Topic : Periodic Table(Till Taught), Atomic Structure & Mole Concept

SECTION-A 58. The symbol according to the IUPAC system for

Attempt All 35 questions the element with atomic number 120 is :-

51. Position of noble gases in long form of periodic (1) Ubn (2) Uub (3) Uuo (4) Uup
table according to IUPAC :- 59. According to Newland's law of octaves, the
(1) Zero group properties of Li were similar to :-

(2) 18th group (1) Na (2) Ca (3) Mg (4) Al

(3) VIII A 60. Which of the following is the incorrect set of

elements to Dobereiner's triads ?
(4) Absent in long form of periodic table
(1) Li, Na, K (2) Cl, Br, I
52. Atomic number of next alkali metal in periodic
table is ? (3) Cr, Mn, Fe (4) Ca, Sr, Ba

(1) 117 (2) 118 (3) 119 (4) 120 61. Which is not anomalous pair of element in the
mendeleev's periodic table :-
53. Which group of elements follow triad rule?
(1) Ar, K (2) Ti, P
(1) H, F, Cl (2) Li, Na, K
(3) Te, I (4) Co, Ni
(3) Cl, Br, I (4) All
62. Third typical element is ?
54. Which of the following set of atomic numbers
belongs to group 16 ? (1) Li (2) B (3) Al (4) Si

(1) 8, 16, 32, 54 (2) 16, 34, 54, 86 63. First Man Made Lanthanoid ?

(3) 8, 16, 34, 52 (4) 10, 16, 32, 50 (1) Tc (2) Ti (3) Pm (4) P

55. The law of triads is applicable to : 64. What is the atomic No. of element having
maximum no. of unpaired e¯ :-
(1) Na, Mg, Ca (2) C, N, O
(1) 10 (2) 2 (3) 15 (4) 54
(3) H, O, N (4) Li, Na, K
65. Atomic no. is the base of–
56. 4d6 5s2 configuration belongs to which group :-
(1) Lothar Meyer curve
(1) 2nd (2) 6th
(2) Newland's octave
(3) 8th (4) 10th
(3) Modern periodic table
57. Which of the following statement is correct :-
(4) Dobereiner triad
(1) All d block elements are transition elements
66. Whose atomic weight was corrected by
(2) All actinoids are man made elements Mendeleev ?
(3) All actinoids are radioactive (1) B (2) I
(4) All lanthanoids are man made elements (3) In (4) Na
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67. Which of the following set of quantum number 75. For the reaction A + 2B —→ C, 8 mole of A
is impossible for an electron ? and 12 mole of B will produce :-
(1) n = 1, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
(1) 4 mole of C (2) 6 mole of C
(2) n = 9, ℓ = 7, m = –6, s = –1/2
(3) 5 mole of C (4) 12 mole of C
(3) n = 2, ℓ = 1, m = 0, s = +1/2
76. Amount of oxygen required for complete
(4) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = –3, s = +1/2 combustion of 27 g Al is ?
68. What will be the total spin of Fe3+ ion ? (1) 24 g (2) 12 g
(1) 5/2 (2) 2 (3) 3/2 (4) 1 (3) 20 g (4) 6 g
69. The maximum number of electrons present in an 77. Which has the maximum number of molecules
orbit ℓ = 3, is :
among the following ?
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 14
(1) 64 g SO2 (2) 44 g CO2
70. No. of waves in 4th orbit :-
(3) 48 g O3 (4) 8 g H2
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
78. The empirical formula of an acid is CH2O, the
71. The ratio of velocity of electron in second orbit
of He+ to third orbit of B+4 is :- probable molecular formula of acid may be:-
(1) 5 (2) 3 (1) CH2O2 (2) C2H4O4
3 5
(3) C2H4O2 (4) C3H6O4
(3) 3 (4) 2
2 3 79. The law of conservation of mass holds good for
72. Calculate velocity of an electron placed in the all of the following except -
third orbit of the hydrogen atom
(1) All chemical reactions
(1) 7.27×105 m sec–1
(2) Nuclear reactions
(2) 7.27×107 m sec–1
5 –1
(3) Endothermic reactions
(3) 0.27×10 m sec
(4) Exothermic reactions
(4) 7.27 ×106 m sec–1
80. Which one of the following pairs of compound
73. An element M has 25 protons. The number of
illustrate the law of multiple proportions ?
electron in its M2– anion will be -
(1) H2O, Na2O (2) MgO, Na2O
(1) 27 (2) 23 (3) 25 (4) 22
(3) Na2O, BaO (4) SnCl2, SnCl4
74. A mixture containing 100 g H2 and 100 g O2 is
ignited so that water is formed according to the 81. If 3.01 × 1020 molecules are removed from 98
reaction, 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O, how much water mg of H2SO4, then the number of moles of
will be formed? H2SO4 left are :–
(1) 112.5g (2) 50 g (1) 0.1 × 10–3 (2) 0.5 × 10–3
(3) 25 g (4) 200 g (3) 1.66 × 10–3 (4) 9.95 × 10–2
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82. The No. of oxygen atoms in 4.4 gm of CO2 is 89. Atomic weight of an element X is 40 and that of
approx element Z is 60. Atomic weight of their
(1) 1.2 × 1023 (2) 6 × 1022 intermediate element Y, as per Dobereiner's triad
will be :
(3) 6 × 1023 (4) 12 × 1023
(1) 40 (2) 50 (3) 60 (4) 100
83. Actual weight of one molecule of CaCO3 is :-
90. Which of following is Not transition element ?
(1) 1.67 × 10–22 g (2) 1.67 × 10–24 g
(1) Fe (2) Hg
(3) 1.67 × 10–26 g (4) 1.67 × 10–20 g
(3) Tc (4) V
84. An unknown compound has 0.32% oxygen by
mass. Then minimum molecular mass of 91. Identify the block for 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s2. :-
compound ? (1) s-Block (2) p-Block
(1) 500 (2) 5000 (3) d-Block (4) f-Block
(3) 50 (4) 50,000 92. Group no., Period no. and Block of element
85. 5.6 litres of a gas at STP are found to have a mass having atomic no. 64 :-
of 22 gm. The molecular mass of the gas is :- (1) 4, 6 d-Block (2) 6, 3, f-Block
(1) 22 (2) 44 (3) 88 (4) 32 (3) 6, 6, p-Block (4) 3, 6, f-Block
SECTION-B 93. Identify A, B and C respectively in the given
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate curve?
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
(1) Li, F, Be (2) Be, Li, F
86. Which of the following set of atomic numbers
represent representative elements ? (3) Li, Mg, Cl (4) F, K, Ca
(1) 5, 13, 30, 53 (2) 5, 17, 31, 54 94. Which is not incorrect for Mendeleev's P.T.?
(3) 11, 33, 58, 84 (4) 9, 31, 53, 83 (1) Total no. of subgroups = 8
87. Which two elements are in same period as well (2) Total anomalous pair = 4
as same group of modern periodic table ? (3) Atomic wt. (Mass) corrected only for Be
(1) Z=23, Z=31 (2) Z=65, Z=66 and Pt
(3) Z=52, Z=87 (4) Z=58, Z=46 (4) Inert gases were present in his P.T.
88. General electronic configuration of normal 95. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the
elements :- valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is:-
(1) ns1–2np0–6 (2) ns1–2np1–5 (1) 5, 0, 0, + ½ (2) 5, 0, 1, – ½
(3) ns1–2np0–5 (4) ns1–2np1–6 (3) 5, 0, 1, + ½ (4) 6, 0, 0 + ½

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96. If the Planck’s constant h = 6.6 x 10–34 Js, the 99. What is minimum molecular mass of compound
de-Broglie wavelength of a particle having
contains 28.9% N by mass
momentum of 3.3 × 10–24 kg ms–1 will be -
(1) 0.002 Å (2) 0.02 Å (1) 4.844 (2) 48.44
(3) 0.2 Å (4) 2Å (3) 484.4 (4) 50
97. The shortest wave length in H spectrum of 100. Suppose the elements P and Q combine to form
Lyman series when RH = 109678 cm–1 is - two compounds PQ and PQ2. When 0.05 mole of
(1) 1215.67 Å (2) 911.7 Å PQ weighs 5 g and 0.03 mole of PQ2 weighs 4.5
(3) 1002.7 Å (4) 1127.30 Å g then atomic weights of P and Q are
98. Average atomic weight of boron is 10.10 and respectively :-
boron exists in two isotopic forms B10 and B11.
The percentage abundance of B10 is (1) 50, 75 (2) 75, 50
(1) 10% (2) 90% (3) 50% (4) 20% (3) 50, 50 (4) 25, 25

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SUBJECT : BIOLOGY
Topic : Cell Cycle and Cell Division, The living world, Biological classification & Cell:The Unit of
life, Cell Cycle and Cell division
SECTION-A
Attempt All 70 questions
101. Statement-I : In Zygotene chromosomes start
pairing together and this process of association
is called Synapsis.
Statement-II : The final stage of meiotic
prophase-I is diakinesis.
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are
correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is
incorrect.
102. Pairing of homologous chromosome known as:
(1) Chiasmata
(2) Synapsis
(3) Crossing over
(4) Asters
103. Assertion (A) : G1 is longest phase in cell cycle.
Reason (R) : DNA replication occurs in G1
phase.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
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104. In higher plant cells, during the S-phase -
(1) DNA replication occurs in nucleus and
centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm
(2) DNA replication occurs in nucleus
(3) Centrioles duplicates in the cytoplasm
(4) Centrioles duplicates in the nucleus and
DNA replication occurs in the cytoplasm.
105. Read the following statement and select the correct
option that bears true statements
(i) After S-phase DNA number become twice but
chromosomes remain same.
(ii) A cell in G0 phase is metabolically active but no
longer proliferate unless called on to do so
depending on the requirement of organism.
(iii) Cell division is a progressive process that shows
the distinct boundries between various stages.
(iv) At the end of prophase Golgi bodies, ER,
nucleolus and nuclear envelope get disappear
(1) i, ii and iv (2) i, ii and iii
(3) i, iii and iv (4) All of these
106. During the metaphasic mitosis :-
(1) Chromosomal material start to condenses
and form compact mitotic chromosomes.
(2) Nuclear membrane, nucleolus, ER and golgi
body start to disappear
(3) All the chromosomes coming to lie at the
equator with one chromatid of each
chromosome connected by its kinetochore
to spindle fibres from one pole and its sister
chromatid connected by its kinetochore to
spindle fibres from opposite pole.
(4) Centromere split and chromatid separate.
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107. Second gap phase in cell cycle is :- 110. A cell enter in M phase centromere split in
which phase of the M phase? IIII
(1) gap between karyokinesis and cytokinesis.
(1) Mitosis anaphase II, meiosis anaphase-I
(2) gap between initiation of DNA replication (2) Meiosis anaphase I, meiosis anaphase-II
and end of mitosis Phase.
(3) Mitosis anaphase, meiosis anaphase-II,
(3) gap between end of DNA replication and (4) Mitosis anaphase, meiosis anaphase-I
initiation of mitosis phase.
111. In meiosis, sister chromatids separate during :-
(4) gap between cytokinesis and duplication of (1) Metaphase-I (2) Anaphase-I
centrioles.
(3) Metaphase-II (4) Anaphase-II
108. 112. Arrange the following events of meiosis in
correct sequence :-
(a) Recombination
(b) Synapsis
(c) Chiasmata clearly visible
(d) Segregation of homologous chromosomes
(1) (a), (b), (d), (c) (2) (b), (c), (a), (d)
(3) (d), (c), (b), (a) (4) (b), (a), (c), (d)
113. If at the end of meiosis, each daughter cells have
4 chromosomes, how many chromosomes were
Which stage of cell division exhibited by this is the mother cell :-
diagrammatic representation? (1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 2 (4) 4
(1) Anaphase of meiosis 114. Find the correctly matched pairs and choose the
(2) Metaphase of meiosis correct option :-
The chromosomes
(3) Anaphase of mitosis (A) Leptotene
become invisible
(4) Diakinesis Pairing of
109. During mitosis, metaphase differs from (B) Zygotene homologous
anaphase, because metaphase have ? chromosomes
(1) Same number of chromosomes and half Dissolution of the
(C) Pachytene synaptonemal
number of chromatids
complex takes place
(2) Half number of chromosomes and half Recombinase enzyme
number of chromatids (D) Diplotene
activity
(3) Half number of chromosomes and same Terminalization of
number of chromatids (E) Diakinesis
chiasmata complete
(4) Same number of chromosomes and same (1) A and B (2) B and D
number of chromatids (3) B and E (4) B and C
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115. In eukaryotic cells, why there is a extensive 118. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and
compartmentalization of cytoplasm? select the option which includes all the corect
ones only :-
(1) Due to the presence of fibres
(a) Schleiden, a German botanist, examined a
(2) Due to the presence of so many organelles large number of plants and observed that all
(3) Due to the presence of membrane plants are composed of different kinds of cells.
(b) Schwann, a British Zoologist studied
organelles
different types of animal cells and reported that
(4) All of the above cells had a thin outer layer which is today known
116. as plasma membrane.
(c) Rudolf Virchow said "Omnis cellula-e
cellula"
(d) Rudolf virchow modified the hypothesis of
Schleiden and Schwann to give the cell theory a
final shape.
Options :
(1) Statements (a) and (b) only
(2) Statements (b) and (c) only
(3) Statements (c) and (d) only
Identify the cells given in above diagram :- (4) Statements (a), (b), (c), (d)
(1) A = Mesophyll cells , B = White blood 119. Match the column-I and II and choose the correct
cells, C = Nerve cell, D = Tracheid option :-
Column-I Column-II
(2) A = Red blood cells, B = Nerve cell, C =
White blood cells, D = Tracheid Neutral
(A) (i) Active transport
solutes
(3) A = Red blood cells, B = White blood
Facilitated
cells, C = Mesophyll cells, D = Nerve cell (B) Water (ii)
diffusion
(4) A = White blood cells, B = Tracheid, C = Polar
Red blood cells, D = Nerve cell (C) (iii) Osmosis
molecules
117. Which of the following contains lytic enzymes ? (D) Na+ / K+ pump (iv) Simple diffusion
(1) Lysosome (1) (A) - i, (B) - ii, (C) - iii, (D) - iv
(2) Centrosome (2) (A) - iv, (B) - i, (C) - iii, (D) - ii
(3) Chromosome (3) (A) - iv, (B) - iii, (C) - ii, (D) - i
(4) Mitochondria (4) (A) - iii, (B) - ii, (C) - i, (D) - iv
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120. Quantasomes are found in :- 124. Elaioplasts help in storage of :-

(1) Mitochondria (1) Fats and oils (2) Proteins
(2) Chloroplast (3) Carbohydrates (4) Nucleic acids
(3) Lysosome 125. The cellular component at the base of each
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum cilium or flagellum is :-

121. Microtubules are peripharally arranged in a (1) Chloroplast (2) Nucleus

special manner in flagella like :- (3) Microtubules (4) Centriole
(1) 9 + 0 126. Shape of animal cell is provided and maintained
by
(2) 9 (triplet) + 2 (singlet)
(1) Cell wall (2) Cell membrane
(3) 9 (doublet) + 2 (singlet)
(3) 1 and 2 both (4) Cytoskeleton
(4) 9 (triplet) + 0 (singlet)
127. The figure below shows the structure of a
122. The ribosome of eukaryotic cytoplasm,
mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A),
mitochondria and plastids are respectively :- (B), (C) and (D). Select the part correctly
(1) 80S, 70S and 70S matched with its function.
(2) 70S, 70S and 80S
(3) 50S, 30S and 70S
(4) 70S, 80S and 70S
123. The given diagram represents a chromosome.
Identify the structure A, B & type of (1) Part (A) : Matrix - major site for respiratory
chain enzymes (ETS)
chromosome C :-
(2) Part (D) : Outer membrane - gives use to
inner membrane by splitting
(3) Part (B) : Inner membrane - forms
infoldings called cristae
(4) Part (C) : Cristae - possess single circular
DNA molecule and ribosomes
(1) A–Satellite, B–Primary constriction, C– 128. Which of the following organelle is not a part of
Acrocentric endomembrane system ?
(2) A–Satellite, B–Secondary constriction, C– (1) Golgibody
Metacentric
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) A–Satellite, B–Centromere, C–Telocentric
(3) Peroxisome
(4) A–Satellite, B–Centromere, C–
(4) Vacuole
Submetacentric
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129. Match the organism in column-I with their mode 133. Reproduction is a character of living organisms
of reproduction in column-II and choose the but it cannot be regarded as defining property
correct option. because:-
Column-I Column-II (1) Asexual reproduction involves only single
parent
(A) Planaria (i) Budding
(2) Lower organisms do not reproduce under
(B) Fungi (ii) True regeneration stressful environment
(C) Yeast (iii) Asexual spores (3) Some living beings do not have the capacity
to reproduce
A B C (4) For lower plants, growth and reproduction
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) are not mutually exclusive phenomena
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) 134. Which one of the following is common to
multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) protonema of mosses :-
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (1) Mode of Nutrition
130. Which of the following features of living (2) Multiplication by fragmentation
organisms is unique to human beings? (3) Diplontic life cycle
(1) Growth (4) Members of kingdom Plantae
(2) Metabolism 135. Metabolism can be best defined as :
(3) Reproduction (1) The process in which only chemicals are
(4) Self-consciousness formed inside the body
131. Among the following which can be a common (2) The process in which only chemicals are
destroyed inside the body
feature exhibited by both living and non-living?
(3) The sum total of all biochemical reactions
(1) Metabolism
occuring in a living organisms body
(2) Reproduction (4) Sum total of all biochemical reactions
(3) Growth performed outside living organisms body
(4) Cellular organisation 136. The isolated metabolic reaction outsides the
body of an organism, performed in a test is (in
132. Growth is .................... in living organisms :-
vitro)
(1) Reversible and intrinsic (1) Living
(2) Irreversible and intrinsic (2) Non living
(3) Reversible and extrinsic (3) Neither living nor non living
(4) Irreversible and extrinsic (4) In vivo metabolism
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137. Biology can-be defined as :- 143. In two kingdom classification. The main
(1) Study of life (living beings) on earth character of the members of plantae was :-
(2) Story of life forms and living process on (1) Autotrophic in nature
earth (2) Presence of cell wall
(3) Story of evolution of living organisms on (3) Starch as reserve food
earth (4) Non motile organisms
(4) All of the above 144. In five kingdom system of classification blue
138. How many of the following properties are the green algae included in :-
defining characteristics of the living organisms? (1) Animalia (2) Plantae
Growth, Reproduction, Metabolism, Cellular
organisation, consciousness. (3) Monera (4) Protista
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 145. The major ecological role of kingdom viz.
plantae, fungi and animalia, respectively :-
139. The binomial system of nomenclature was first
used by (1) Decomposer, producer & consumer
(1) Caspary (2) Carolus Linnaeus (2) Producer, decomposer & consumer
(3) Camp and Gilly (4) Gaspard Bauhin (3) Consumer, producer & decomposer
140. In Binomial nomenclature first word and second (4) Producer, consumer & decomposer
word respectively represent :- 146. Shape of bacteria is maintained by ?
(1) Genus and class (1) Cell membrane (2) Cell wall
(2) Genus and variety (3) Capsule (4) Slime layer
(3) Genus and sub-species 147. If genes from a bacterial cell to other bacterial
(4) Genus and specific epithet cell are transferred by bacteriophage the process
is called as:-
141. Study of diversity of organisms and their
evolutionary relations was referred to as :- (1) Conjugation (2) Transformation
(1) Taxonomy (3) Transduction (4) Sporulation
(2) Systematics 148. In bacteria, antibiotic resistant genes are present on :-
(3) Plant biology (1) Plastids (2) Mesosomes
(4) Numerical taxonomy (3) Chromatophore (4) Plasmid
142. A collection of species, which bears a close 149. Smallest living cells lack :-
resemblance to one another in the morphological (1) Cell wall
characters of the floral parts is known as :-
(2) Pathogenic forms
(1) Family (2) Genus
(3) Survinal without oxygen
(3) Division (4) Variety
(4) ds DNA
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150. N2-Fixation in root nodules of alnus is bought 156. The given figure is representing
about by :-
(1) Frankia (2) Azorhizobium
(3) Rhizobium (4) Clostridium
151. Cholera, Citrus Canker, Typhoid and Tetanus
are caused by :-
(1) Bacteria (2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Viroids (4) Fungi
152.
(1) Filamentous green algae
In above given equation A and B is : –
(2) Filamentous yellow green algae
(1) (A) Nitrobacter, (B) Nitrosomonas (3) Filamentous green algae Oscillatoria
(2) (A) Nitrosomonas, (B) Nitrococcus (4) Filamentous blue green algae Nostosc
(3) (A) Nitrococcus, (B) Nitrosomonas 157. Red colour of red sea is due to :-
(4) (A) Nitrosomonas, (B) Nitrobacter (1) Blue green algae (2) Archaebacteria
153. Mycoplasma show resistant against some (3) Red algae (4) Viruses
antibiotics like penicillin, because of ?
158. Pigment-containing membranous extensions in
(1) Presence of tri-layered cell wall some cyanonacteria are
(2) Presence of trilayered cell memberane
(1) Heterocysts
(3) Absence of cell wall
(2) Basal bodies
(4) Cell wall made up of complex
(3) Pneumatophores
polysaccharide
(4) Chromatophores
154. The first organism that produced O2 on our
earth is :- 159. Choose the incorrect statement regarding
Mycoplasma :-
(1) Eubacteria (2) Archaebacteria
(1) They lack cell wall
(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Mycoplasma
(2) They are smallest living cell
155. Which of the following character is similar in
cyanobacteria and green plants? (3) They can survive without oxygen
(1) Nitrogen fixation (4) They have mesosome for respiration
(2) 80 s ribosome 160. Which bacteria are living in hot sulphur springs?
(3) Chlorophyll 'a' (1) Thermoacidophiles (2) Methanogens
(4) Nature of cell wall (3) Halophiles (4) Cynobacteria

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161. Which of the following is responsible for the 167. Which of following is an example of slime
production of biogas from the dung of cows and mould?
buffaloes ? (1) Mucor (2) Physarum
(1) All archaebacteria (2) Eubacteria (3) Claviceps (4) Phytophthora
(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Methanogens 168. Find out the incorrect match pair ?
162. Find the incorrect match :- (1) Chrysophytes :- Silicated cell wall
Bacterial plasma (2) Dinoflagellates :- Red tide
(1) Lipoprotein
membrane
(3) Euglenoids :- Cellulosic cell wall
complex
Archaebacterial (4) Slime moulds :- Saprophytic protists
(2) polysaccharide &
cell wall 169. Match the following columns.
complex polypeptide
Archebacterial
(3) Pseudomurein Column-I Column-II
plasma membrane
(4) Bacterial cell wall Peptidoglycan Chief producer
A 1 Diatoms
in the oceans
163. Which of the following organisms have been
placed under kingdom protista :- B Red tide 2 Dinoflagellates
(1) Chrysophytes and dinoflagellates Connecting link
(2) Slime moulds and Euglenoids C between plants 3 Euglenoids
and animals
(3) Protozoans
(4) All of these D False fungi 4 Slime moulds

164. 'Whorling whips' movement is shown by:-

Codes :-
(1) Diatoms (2) Dinoflagellates
A B C D
(3) Bacteria (4) Euglenoids (1) 2 3 4 1
165. Sea water glows during night mainly due to (2) 1 2 3 4
occurance of :- (3) 3 4 1 2
(1) Diatom (2) Noctiluca (4) 4 1 2 3
(3) Euglena (4) Cyclopella 170. Select the correct sequence of events with
166. Diatoms have left behind large amount of cell respect to the fungal sexual cycle:-
wall deposits in their habitat this accumulation
(1) Karyogamy, Plasmogamy, Meiosis
is referred to as :-
(2) Meiosis, Plasmogamy, Karyogamy
(1) Paramylum (2) Plasmodium
(3) Plasmogamy, Karyogamy, Meiosis
(3) Keiselgurh (4) Coral reef
(4) Meiosis, Karyogamy, Plasmogamy
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SECTION-B 175. Which of the following show consciousness but

This section will have 30 questions. Candidate cannot reproduce ?
can choose to attempt any 20 questions out of (1) Single celled organisms
these 30 questions. In case if candidate attempts
(2) Dead organisms
more than 20 questions, first 20 attempted
questions will be considered for marking. (3) Worker honeybee
171. Growth is not considered as a defining property (4) Both (1) & (2)
of living beings because 176. Match column-I & column-II & select the
(1) It is difficult to observe or measure. correct option from options given below :-
Column-I Column-II
(2) Not a single criterion for the measurement
of growth. Intrinsic Growth from
(A) (I)
growth outside
(3) Also observed in non-living
Growth occurs
(4) Cannot be tracked as growth is from inside Extrinsic
(B) (II) only
growth
172. Which of the following is a defining upto certain age
characteristic of living organism ?
Indeterminate Growth from
(C) (III)
(1) Growth growth inside
(2) Ability to make sound Growth occurs
Determinate
(3) Reproduction (D) (IV) throughout life
growth
span
(4) Response to external stimuli
(1) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
173. Which is a group of organisms in which
reproduction is synonymous with growth ? (2) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(1) Amoeba, Bacteria and Unicellular Algae (3) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV
(2) Algae, Fungi and Lichen (4) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
(3) Lower organisms 177. Find the correct match from Column I, Column
II and Column III.
(4) Higher multicellular organisms
Column I Column II Column III
174. Select the incorrect statement about scientific
rules of binomial nomenclature. (a) Ascomycetes Agaricus Mushroom
Unicellular
(1) Biological names are printed in italics (b) Basidiomycetes Aspergillus
fungus
(2) Biological names can not be derived from
Imperfect
latin language (c) Deuteromycetes Colletotrichum
fungus
(3) Name of author should appear after specific Options :-
epithet in abbreviated form
(1) a, b (2) b, c
(4) Specific epithet start with small letter
(3) a, c (4) only c
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178. Assertion : Deuteromycetes known as imperfect 182. Which is wrong about mycoplasma :-
fungi.
Reason : Only the asexual or vegetative phases (i) They are called PPLO
of deuteromycetes are known.
(ii) They are sensitive to penicillin
(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the
reason is a correct explanation of the (iii) They cause disease in plants
assertion. (iv) They are pleomorphic
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason
(v) They are obligate anaerobes
is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false. (1) (i), (iii), (iv)
(4) Both assertion & reason are false. (2) (ii), (v)
179. Assertion : The cell walls of Diatoms are (3) (ii), (iii), (v)
indestructible.
Reason : In diatoms, cell walls are embedded (4) (iii), (iv), (v)
with silica. 183. Which group of organisms possesses a protein
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the rich layer called pellicle ?
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion. (1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but (2) Chrysophytes
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion. (3) Euglenoids

(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (4) Slime mould
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. 184. Arrange the steps involve in sexual cycle in
180. First of all the plants are classified into herbs, fungi in correct order:-
Shurbs and tree by :-
(1) Plasmogamy → Karyogamy → Zygote →
(1) Linnaeus
Meiosis → Haploid spores
(2) Aristotle
(3) R.H. Whittakar (2) Karyogamy → Plasmogamy → Zygote →
(4) Copeland Meiosis → Haploid spores
181. Sexual classification of plants is given by :- (3) Plasmogamy → Karyogamy → Zygote →
(1) Aristotle Haploid spores → Meiosis
(2) Theophrastus
(4) Plasmogamy → Zygote → Karyogamy →
(3) Linnaeus
Meiosis → Haploid spores
(4) Oswald
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185. 189. If a cell undergoing mitosis has 10 pg of DNA

and 16 chromosomes in G1 then which of the
following is correct ?
Choose the correct option (1) S-phase will have 5 pg of DNA
(2) The cell at anaphase stage will have 20 pg
of DNA and a total of 32 chromosomes
regarding above diagram :- (3) G2 -phase will have 8 chromosomes in a
cell
Name of
A B (4) The cell at metaphase will have 10 pg of
organism
DNA and a total of 16 chromosomes
Mucilagenons
(1) Nostoc Heterocyst 190. Assertion : Sister chromatids remain associated
sheath at their centromere in anaphase-I
(2) Eubacteria Pili Cell wall Reason : Spindle get attached to the
kinetochores.
Mucilagenous
(3) Nostoc Heterocyst (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
sheath
the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Nostoc Akinetes Heterocyst
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (A)
(3) 3 (4) 4 (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
186. The basidiomycetes includes :- correct explanation of (A)
(1) Rusts (2) Smuts 191.
(3) Mushrooms (4) All the above
187. Organisms found in extreme temperatures are :-
(1) Eubacteria
(2) Archaebacteria
(3) Fungi Choose the correct option based on given
(4) Mycoplasma diagram :
188. Coenocytic mycelium is a characteristic feature
of
(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

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192. In which phase of cell cycle, cell is 197. The number of mitochondria increases in cells
metabolically active and continuously grows but of :-
DNA content does not double ?
(1) Dormant seeds
(1) G1 (2) G2
(3) S-phase (4) Metaphase (2) Germinating seeds

193. How many centromeres are seen in human cell (3) Dry seeds
during metaphase (4) Dead seeds
(1) 2 (2) 32 (3) 23 (4) 46
198. The innermost portion of a mature plant cell wall
194. The gap between the two meiosis division is is the :-
called as :-
(1) Synapsis (2) Interphase (1) Primary cell wall

(3) Interkinesis (4) Plasmon (2) Plasma membrane

195. "A" remains directly attached with the outer (3) Secondary cell wall
nuclear membrane, what is A ?
(4) Plasmodesmata
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast
199. Nucleolus is the site of :-
(3) Peroxisome (4) E.R.
(1) Synthesis of m-RNA
196. The golgi apparatus principally performs the
function of packaging of materials. Materials to (2) Synthesis of DNA
be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER
fuse with the ‘A’ face of the golgi apparatus (3) Synthesis of r-RNA
and move towards the ‘B’ face (4) Synthesis of t-RNA
Choose the correct option for ‘A’ and ‘B’ :-
200. Which one of the following structures is called
A B
1 cis Forming "organelle within an organelle" ?
2 Trans Forming (1) ER
3 Maturing cis (2) Glyoxysome
4 Forming Trans (3) Ribosome
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (4) Peroxisome

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