Minor Test-03 04 June Qp

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Date: 04-06-2023 Paper Type: Minor Test-3
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Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 Hour 20 minutes duration and it contains 200 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct
response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
The maximum marks are 720.
2. In this Test, subject Physics will consist of two sections (Section A & Section B). Section A will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any
10 questions out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first
10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
3. Subject Chemistry will consist of two sections (Section A & Section B). Section A will consist of
4. Subject Biology-I & Biology-II will consist of two sections (Section A & Section B). Section A will consist of
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SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : Motion in a plane, Newton's Law of Motion(Till Taught), Motion in a straight line
SECTION-A 5. A projectile is projected from ground with initial

Attempt All 35 questions velocity →u = u0 i^ + v0 j^ . If acceleration due to
gravity (g) is along the negative y-direction then
1. An object is thrown along a direction inclined at find maximum displacement in x-direction.
an angle of 45° with the horizontal. The
horizontal range of the particle : u20 2u0 v0
(1) (2)
2g g
(1) is equal to vertical height
v20 4u0 v0
(2) is equal to twice the vertical height (3) (4)
2g g
(3) is equal to thrice the vertical height 6. Two bullets are fired horizontally with different
(4) is equal to four time the vertical height velocities from the same height. Which will
reach the ground first ?
2. A stone is thrown with a velocity v at an angle θ
with the horizontal. Its speed when it makes an (1) Slower one
angle β with the horizontal, is :- (2) Faster one
(1) v cos θ (3) Both will reach simultaneously
v
(2) (4) It cannot be predicted
cos β
(3) v cos θ cos β 7. x2
The equation of projectile is y = 16x – the
4
v cos θ horizontal range is :-
(4)
cos β (1) 16 m (2) 8 m
3. A projectile fired with initial velocity u at some
angle θ has a range R. If the initial velocity be (3) 64 m (4) 12.8 m
doubled at the same angle of projection, then the 8. Two balls are thrown from a tower as shown in
range will be: the figure :-
(1) 2R (2) R/2 (3) R (4) 4R
4. A projectile of mass m is fired with velocity v
from a point as shown in figure, neglecting air
resistance, what is the change in momentum
when leaving P and arriving at Q ?
Which of the ball will hit the ground first :-

(1) A
(2) B
(1) 0 (2) mv
(3) Both will strike at the same time
2mv
(3) 4 mv (4) (4) Depends on height of tower
√3
NURTURE COURSE PHASE-1 9610WMD307001230004
English / 04062023 Space for Rough Work Page 1/26

9. A train is moving towards east and a car is along 12. Two trains, each 50 m long are travelling in
north, both with same speed. The observed opposite direction with velocity 10 m/s and 15
direction of a car to the passenger in the train is : m/s. The time of crossing is –
(1) East-North direction (1) 2 s
(2) West-North direction (2) 4 s
(3) South-east direction (3) 2√3 s
(4) None of these (4) 4√3 s
10. A particle is projected at an angle of 450, 8m 13. Two balls A and B are thrown vertically upward
away from the foot of a wall, just touches the from the ground with velocities 100 m/s and 40
top of the wall and falls on the ground on the m/s. At t = 1s, the relative acceleration of B with
opposite side at a distance 4m from it. The respect to A is :-
height of wall is:
(1) – 20 m/s2
(1) (2) – 10 m/s2

(2) (3) (4)
(3) 20 m/s2
11. A car is moving along a straight line. It's
(4) Zero
displacement (x) – time (t) graph is shown in
column II. Match the entries in column I with 14. A man standing on a road hold his umbrella at
points on graph. 300 with the vertical to keep the rain away. He
Column I Column II throws the umbrella and starts running at 10
km/h. He finds that raindrops are hitting his head
x → negative,
vertically, the speed of rain drop with respect to
(A) v → positive,
a → positive the road will be
x → positive, (1) 10 km/h (2) 20 km/h
(B) v → negative, (3) 30 km/h (4) 40 km/h
a → negative
15. A person walks at the rate of 3 km/hr. Rain
x → negative, appears to him in vertical direction at the rate of
(C) v → negative, 3√3 km/hr. Find magnitude and direction of true
a → positive velocity of rain :-
x → positive,
(1) 6 km/hr, inclined at an angle of 45° to the
(D) v → positive,
vertical towards the person's motion.
a → negative
(2) 3 km/hr, inclined at an angle of 30° to the
(1) (A) — S, (B) — Q, (C) — R, (D) — P vertical towards the person's motion.
(2) (A) — S, (B) — Q, (C) — R, (D) — S (3) 6 km/hr, inclined at an angle of 30° to the
(3) (A) — S, (B) — Q, (C) — Q, (D) — P vertical towards the person's motion.
(4) (A) — Q, (B) — P, (C) — R, (D) — P (4) 6 km/hr, inclined at an angle of 60° to the
vertical towards the person's motion.
Page 2/26 Space for Rough Work English / 04062023

16. If velocity of boat as seen from the ground is 21. n bullet strike per second elastically on a wall
5i^ + 6j^ and velocity of river is 2i^ then calculate
and rebound. What will be the force exerted on
velocity of boat with respect to river :-
the wall by bullets if mass of each bullet is m
(1) 3i^ + 6j^
(1) mnv
(2) 6i^ + 6j^
(2) 4 mnv
(3) 3i^
(3) 2mnv
(4) 6i^
(4) 0
17. Newton’s II law of motion connects:
22. A body of mass 5kg is acted upon by two
(1) Rate of change of energy
perpendicular forces of 8N and 6N, find the
(2) Change of momentum and velocity magnitude of the acceleration.
(3) Rate of change of momentum and external force
(1) 2 m/s2
(4) Rate of change of force and momentum
(2) 0.5 m/s2
18. If momentum P = 5t2 – 10t + 20, then find force (3) 0
at t = 3 sec ?
(4) 1 m/s2
(1) 20 N
23. A block of mass 4kg is pulled as shown in
(2) 30 N
figure. The acceleration of block is :
(3) 40 N
(4) 60 N
19. A force of 100 dynes acts on mass of 5 gm for
10 sec. The velocity produced is (1) 40 m/s2
(1) 2 cm/sec (2) 10 m/s2
(2) 20 cm/sec (3) 6 m/s2
(3) 200 cm/sec (4) zero
(4) 2000 cm/sec 24. A ball of mass 5kg is dropped from height 20m,
20. The linear momentum p of a body moving in after striking the ground it rises up to the same
one dimension varies with time according to the
equation p = a + bt2 and b are positive constants. height then find change in momentum of ball :
The net force acting on the body is
(1) 200 kg.m/sec
(1) A constant
(2) 100 kg.m/sec
(2) Proportional to t2
(3) 40 kg.m/sec
(3) Inversely proportional to t
(4) 20 kg.m/sec
(4) Proportional to t

25. There are two bodies A & B of same mass body 28. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined surface
A is at rest while body B is under going uniform with angle of inclination ' α '. The incline is given
motion which is correct statements : an acceleration 'a' to keep the block stationary.
(1) Inertia of A > inertia of B Then a is equal to :
(2) Inertia of B > inertia of A
(3) Inertia of A = inertia of B
(4) Either 1st, 2nd or 3rd depending upon the (1) g (2) g tan α
shape of body (3) g / tan α (4) g cosec α
26. Two masses of 5 kg and 10 kg are connected to 29. If velocity
a pulley as shown. What will be the acceleration v = 6t2 + 2t + 3 m/sec.
if the pulley is set free? [g = acceleration due to then find average velocity from t = 0 to t = 2
gravity] sec.
(1) 11 m/sec.
(2) 8 m/sec.
(3) 13 m/sec.
(4) 7 m/sec.
30. ∣∣a^ + b^∣∣ = ∣∣a^ − b^∣∣ then the angle between a^ and b^
is:
(1) g (1) θ =0
(2) g
(2) θ = 90°
2
(3) g (3) θ = 45°
3
(4) g (4) θ = 120°
4 31. A man moving with 5 m/s observes rain falling
27. A 600 kg rocket is set for a vertical firing. If the vertically at the rate of 10 m/s. Find the speed
exhaust speed of gases is 1000 m/s the mass of and direction of the rain with respect to ground
the gas ejected per second to supply the thrust from vertical :-
needed to over come the weight of rocket is:
(1) 5√2 m/s, tan – 1(1/2)
(1) 117.6 kg/s
(2) 5√5 m/s, tan – 1(1)
(2) 58.6 kg/s
(3) 5√3 m/s, tan – 1(2)
(3) 6 kg/s
(4) 5√5 m/s, tan – 1(1/2)
(4) 76.4 kg/s

32. A swimmer can swim in still water with 5 m/s. 35. Two particles are moving with velocities v1 and
If a river is flowing with 4 m/s then find the v2 their relative velocity is the maximum, when
time to cross the river of width 300 m if he has the angle between their velocities is :-
to reach to exactly opposite point : (1) Zero
(1) 60 sec (2) 75 sec (2) π
4
(3) 100 sec (4) 100
sec π
3 (3)
2
33. A monkey of mass 40 kg climbs on a rope (4) π
which can stand a maximum tension of 600N.
The maximum acceleration through which SECTION-B
monkey can climb up before breaking of rope:- This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
36. The initial velocity of a projectile is 5i^ + 12j^
m/s. The horizontal range of projectile is:-
(1) 5 m/s2 (1) 12 m
(2) 6 m/s2 (2) 7.2 m
(3) 7 m/s2 (3) 2.4 m
(4) 0 m/s2 (4) 13 m
34. A mass M is hung with a light in extensible 37. A projectile cover double range as compare to its
string. Tension in horizontal part of the string maximum height attained. The angle of
is :- projection is –
(1) tan – 1 2
(2) tan – 1 4
(3) tan – 1 3
(4) tan – 1 5
38. A bomb is dropped from an aeroplane flying
(1) √3Mg
horizontally with a velocity 720 km/hr at an
(2) √2Mg altitude of 980 m. The bomb will hit the ground
Mg after a time:
(3)
√3 (1) 1 s (2) 7.2 s
(4) Mg
(3) 14.1 s (4) 15 s
2

39. A ball is dropped from the top of a building 200 43. If a man want to reach the other side of a river of
m high. At the same instant another ball is width w units in shortest possible time then he
thrown upwards with a velocity of 40 ms – 1 should approach at which angle to the flow of
from the bottom of the building. The two balls river current
will meet after (1) 0º (2) 120º
(1) 5 s (2) 2.5 s (3) 90º (4) 45º
(3) 2 s (4) 3 s 44. Two forces of 6N and 3N are acting on the two
40. A person A is sitting in one train while another blocks of 2kg and 1kg kept on frictionless floor.
person B is in the second train. The trains are What is the force exerted on 2kg block by 1kg
moving with velocities 60 m/s and 40 m/s, block ?
respectively, in the same direction. Then the
velocity of B relative to A will be:
(1) 100 m/s in the direction of trains
(1) 1N (2) 2N
(2) 20 m/s in the direction of trains
(3) 4N (4) 5N
(3) 100 m/s in the direction opposite to that of
trains 45. A car moving with a velocity of 10 m/sec can be
(4) 20 m/s in the direction opposite to that of stopped by the application of a constant force F
the trains. in a distance of 20m. If the velocity of the car is
30 m/sec. It can be stopped by this force is :
41. A stone is dropped from a height h. Another
(1) 20 (2) 20 m
stone is thrown up simultaneously from the m
3
ground which reaches a height 4h. The two (3) 60 m (4) 180 m
stones will cross each other after time :-
46. A body of mass 4 kg is acted on by a force which
(1) √ 8gh varies as shown in the graph below. The
momentum acquired is
(2) √8gh
(3) √2gh
(4) √h
2g
42. A man is walking with 5m/s. Rain drops are
falling vertically but he finds that rain drops are (1) 280 N – s
falling at an angle 45° with vertical the actual
speed of rain will be :- (2) 140 N – s
(1) 5 m/s (2) 5√3 m/s (3) 70 N – s
5 (4) 210 N – s
(3) m/s (4) 4 m/s
√3

47. A ball weighing 10 g hits a hard surface 49. Calculate the area enclosed under the curve f(x)
= x2 between the limits x = 2 and x = 3
vertically with a speed of 5 m/s and rebounds
with the same speed. The ball remains in contact
with the surface for 0.01 sec. The average force
exerted by the surface on the ball is:
(1) 100 N
(1) 5
(2) 10 N
(2) 19/3
(3) 1 N
(3) 17/3
(4) 0.1 N
(4) 8
50. Ship A is travelling with a velocity of 5 km/h
48.
due east. A second ship is heading 30° east of
Find N1 and N2 :- north. What should be the speed of second ship if
it is to remain always due north with respect to
(1) N1 = 25 N, N2 = 37 N the first ship ?
(2) N1 = 25 N, N2 = 34 N (1) 10 km/h
(3) N1 = 34 N, N2 = 25 N (2) 9 km/h
(3) 8 km/h
(4) N1 = 37 N, N2 = 25 N
(4) 7 km/h

SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
Topic : Periodic Table, Chemical Bonding(Till Taught), Atomic Structure
SECTION-A 55. The oxide which is different from other three

Attempt All 35 questions oxides is
51. O(g) + 2e → O2 – (g), E = + 744.4 kJ/mole. The (1) CO

positive value of E is due to :- (2) NO
(1) Energy is needed to add on 1 electron to O (3) N2O
(2) Energy is needed to add on 1 electron to (4) BeO
O–1 56. Find the incorrect statement :-
(3) Energy is released to add on 1 electron to (1) Down the group electronegativity generally
O–1 decreases
(4) None of the above are correct (2) Basic nature of oxides in a group increases
52. Minimum amount of energy required to remove (3) Thermal stability of hydrides down the
the most loosely bounded e – from an isolated group increases
gaseous neutral atom from its ground state.
(4) Acidic nature of oxides increases across the
(1) Electronegativity period.
(2) Ionization potential 57. Correct order of ionic radii is :-
(3) Ionic character (1) Ti4+ < Mn7+
(4) Metallic character (2) 37Cl – < 35Cl –
53. Which one of the following species possesses (3) K+ > Cl –
maximum size ?
(4) P3+ > P5+
(1) Na+
58. Which of the following does not act as an
(2) F – amphoteric oxide ?
(3) Ne (1) Al2O3
(4) O2 – (2) ZnO
54. The order of screening effect of electrons of (3) BeO
s,p,d and f orbitals of a given shell of an atom
on its outer shell electrons is - (4) NO
(1) s > p > d > f 59. Nitrogen after gaining three e – achieve inert gas
configuration (Ne). The IP of N – 3 will be
(2) f > d > p > s
(1) More than N (2) equal to Ne
(3) p > d > s > f
(3) More than Ne (4) less than Ne
(4) f > p > s > d

60. If radius of Na is x, what will be the radius of 66. Conditions for ionic bond formation is/are :
Na+ ion ? (i) Small cation, large anion
(1) More than x (2) Less than x (ii) Low IP of cation, high electron affinity of
anion
(3) Twice of x (4) Equal to x (iii) Large cation, small anion and less charge
61. Incorrect order of acidic strength is : (iv) Less lattice energy
(1) HClO3 < HClO4 CORRECT answer is :
(1) i, iv
(2) H2Se < H2S
(2) ii, iii, and iv
(3) H2SO3 < H2SO4
(3) ii and iii
(4) H2CO3 < HNO3
(4) i, ii
62. Among the following least and most polar bonds
are respectively 67. Correct order of polarising power is :
(a) C – I (b) N – O (c) C – F (d) P – F (1) Cs+ < K + < Mg 2+ < Al3+
(1) a and d (2) d and c (2) Al3+ < Mg 2+ < K + < Cs+
(3) b and d (4) b and c (3) Mg + < Al3+ < K + < Cs+
63. In which of the following the energy changes (4) K + < Cs+ < Mg 2+ < Al3+
corresponds to E.A. 68. Which of the following doesn’t follow octet Rule ?
(1) X(g) – e – —→ X+(g) (1) CCl4 (2) SiF4
(2) X2 + E —→ 2X (3) NH3 (4) PCl5
(3) X(g) + e – —→ X(g) – 69. Which compound is e – deficient ?
(4) X+ + E —→ X+2 + e – (1) BF3
64. Which of the following is energy releasing (2) BeF2
process (3) AlCl3
(1) X → X (g) + e –
—
(4) All
(2) O— (g) + e – → O2 – 70. Hypervalent species is.
(3) O (g) → O+ (g) + e – (1) CO2 (2) IF7
(4) O(g) + e – → O – (g) (3) HgCl2 (4) H2O
65. Which of the following order of size is 71. Correct order of electron gin enthalpy for P, S,
incorrect? Cl, F
(1) Fe ≃ Co ≃ Ni (2) S – 2 > Cl – > K+ (1) F > Cl > S > P (2) P > S > Cl > F
(3) Sc < Y < La (4) B < Al < Ga (3) Cl > F > S > P (4) F > S > P > Cl

72. The electron gain enthalpy of an element can be- 78. The number of electrons in Na, having n + l = 3
(1) Endothermic (1) 4
(2) Exothermic (2) 6
(3) Either endothermic or exothermic (3) 7
(4) None of the above (4) 8
73. Which of the following species will have largest 79. The orbital diagram in which both the Pauli's
and smallest size respectively Mg, Mg+2, Al, exclusion principle and Hund's rule are violated,
Al+3 is :-
(1) Mg, Al+3 (2) Mg, Mg+2 (1)
(3) Al, Al+3 (4) Mg+2, Al+3
(2)
74. Correct order of radii O – 2, F – , Na+, Mg+2
(1) O – 2 < F – < Mg+2 < Na+ (3)
(2) F – < O – 2 < Mg+2 < Na+
(3) Mg+2 < O – 2 < Na+ < F – (4)
(4) Mg+2 < Na+ < F – < O – 2
80. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with
75. Properties of an element have periodic mass 1 g and velocity 100 m/s is:
dependence upon its :-
(1) 6.63 × 10 – 33 m
(1) Relative atomic mass
(2) 6.63 × 10 – 34 m
(2) Gram atomic mass
(3) 6.63 × 10 – 35 m
(3) No. of atoms present in element
(4) 6.65 × 10 – 35 m
(4) Atomic number
81. The velocity of electron in third excited state of
76. Electronic configuration of palladium 'Pd' is :- Be3+ ion will be :-
(1) [Kr]4d105s0 (2) [Kr]4d85s2 3
(1) (2.188 × 108) ms – 1
4
(3) [Kr]4d95s1 (4) [Kr]4d05s0
3
(2) (2.188 × 106) ms – 1
77. Arrange the orbitals of H-atom in the increasing 4
order of their energy : (3) (2.188 × 106) Kms – 1
3px, 2s, 4dxy, 3s, 4pz, 3py, 4s
(4) (2.188 × 103) Kms – 1
(1) 2s < 3s = 3px = 3py < 4s = 4pz = 4dxy
82. In spectral series of hydrogen. The series which
(2) 2s < 3s < 3px = 3py < 4s = 4pz = 4dxy does not come in infrared region is :-
(3) 2s < 3s < 3px < 3py < 4s = 4pz = 4dxy (1) P fund (2) Brackett
(4) 2s < 3s < 3px = 3py < 4s < 4pz < 4dxy (3) Paschen (4) Lyman

83. When an electron jumps from L to K shell 87. Match the following
(1) Energy is absorbed Column-I Column-II
(2) Energy is released Elements at the bottom of
a p Hydrogen
periodic table
(3) Energy is neither absorbed nor released
An element without
(4) Energy is sometimes absorbed and some b q Arsenic
Neutron
times released
c Liquid metal r Lanthanides
84. Compare the energies of two radiations E1 with
wavelength 800 nm and E2 with wavelength 400 Has 5 electrons in valance
d s Mercury
nm. electrons
(1) E1 = 2E2
(2) E1 = E2 (1) a-p ; b – q ; c – r ; d-s
(3) E2 = 2E1 (2) a-r ; b – p ; c – s ; d-q
(4) E2 = − 1 E1 (3) a-r ; b – p ; c – q ; d-s

2
(4) a-p ; b – r ; c – s ; d-q
85. The nucleus of helium contains
88. If IE1, IE2, IE3 and IE4 of an element are 10 eV,
(1) Four protons
14.2 eV, 21.3 eV and 47.8 eV respectively. What
(2) Four neutrons will be the most stable oxidation state of this
(3) Two neutrons and two protons element ?
(4) Four protons and two electrons (1) +2
(2) +1
SECTION-B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate (3) +3
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of (4) +4
89. The IP of oxygen is less than nitrogen. Reason is :
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking. (1) Electronegativity of oxygen is more than
nitrogen
86. Which of the following is not isoelectronic
series:- (2) It is easier to remove the fourth 2p electron
from oxygen due to increased electron-
(1) Cl – , P3 – , Ar
electron repulsion.
(2) N3 – , Ne, Mg+2 (3) Zeff of nitrogen is more
(3) B+3, He, Li+ (4) Oxygen has more stable electronic
(4) N3 – , S2 – ,Cl – configuration

90. From the given set of species, point out the 94. Statement-I :- Electronegativity of a given
species from each set having least atomic element is not a measurable quantity.
radius:- Statement-II :- It does provide the means of
(1) O – 2, F – , Na+ (2) Ni, Cu, Zn predicting the nature of force that holds a pair of
(3) Li, Be, Mg (4) He, Li+, H – atoms together.
Correct answer is :-
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(1) O – 2, Cu, Li, H –
incorrect.
(2) Na+, Ni, Be, Li+
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(3) F – , Zn, Mg, He correct
(4) Na+, Cu, Be, He (3) Both statement I and II are correct.
91. Correct order of covalent character of alkaline (4) Both statement I and II are incorrect
earth metal chloride in : 95. If uncertainty in position and momentum are
(1) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < SrCl2 equal, then uncertainty in velocity is :
(2) BeCl2 < CaCl2 < SrCl2 < MgCl2
(1) √h
(3) BeCl2 > MgCl2 > CaCl2 > SrCl2 π
(2) h
(4) SrCl2 > BeCl2 > CeCl2 > MgCl2
2π
92. Assertion :- Anion with greater negative charge (3) 1 √h
will have larger radius. 2m π
Reason :- The net repulsion of e – will out weigh (4) None of these
the nuclear charge. 96. Which is correct for any H like species :-
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
(1) (E2 – E1) > (E3 – E2) > (E4 – E3)
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion. (2) (E2 – E1) < (E3 – E2) < (E4 – E3)
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but (3) (E2 – E1) = (E3 – E2) = (E4 – E3)
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (4) (E – E ) = 1 1
2 1 (E3 – E2) = (E4 – E3)
Assertion. 4 9
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. 97. The first Lyman transition in the hydrogen
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. spectrum has DE = 10.2 eV. The same energy
change is observed in the second Balmer
93. Arrange the following elements in increasing
order of metallic character, Si, Be, Mg, Na, P transition of :-
(1) Si < Be < Mg < Na < P (1) Li2+

(2) P < Si < Be < Mg < Na (2) Li+
(3) Be < Si < Mg < Na < P (3) He+
(4) Be < Mg < Si < C < Na < P (4) Be3+

98. Four lowest energy levels of H – atoms are 100. Wavelength of first line of Lyman series in terms
shown in the figure. The number of emission of R of hydrogen atom :-
lines could be :-
(1) 3R
4
4
(2)
3R
(3) 5R
36
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
36
(4)
99. The radiation of maximum frequency will be 5R
emitted in the transition (for H atom):
(1) From n = 1 to n = 3
(2) From n = 2 to n = 5
(3) From n = 3 to n = 1
(4) From n = 5 to n = 2

SUBJECT : BIOLOGY-I
Topic : ANIMAL KINGDOM, PLANT KINGDOM, THE LIVING WORLD, BIOLOGICAL

CLASSIFICATION
SECTION-A 107. Indestructible cell wall is found in which of the

Attempt All 35 questions following protist :-
101. Pigment containing membranous extensions in (1) Dinoflagellates (2) Diatoms
some cyanobacteria are :-
(3) Euglenoids (4) Slime mould
(1) heterocysts
108. Instead of cell wall, euglenoids have :-
(2) basal bodies
(1) A protein rich layer slime
(3) pneumatophores
(2) A protein rich layer pellicle
(4) chromatophore
(3) A lipid rich layer pellicle
102. Mycoplasma is not inhibited by penicillin as it
lacks : (4) A lipo-protein layer pellicle
(1) Cell wall 109. Which one of the following is a saprophytic
(2) Sexual Reproduction protist ?
(3) Ribosomes (1) Nostoc (2) Desmid
(4) Nucleous (3) Slime mould (4) Euglena
103. Which bacteria are living in hot sulphur springs? 110. Select the correct sequence of events with
(1) Thermoacidophiles (2) Methanogens respect to the fungal sexual cycle:-
(3) Halophiles (4) Cynobacteria (1) Karyogamy, Plasmogamy, Meiosis
104. Which of the following bacteria are responsible (2) Meiosis, Plasmogamy, Karyogamy
for the production of biogas from the dung of
cows and buffaloes ? (3) Plasmogamy, Karyogamy, Meiosis
(1) Thermoacidophiles (2) Halophiles (4) Meiosis, Karyogamy, Plasmogamy
(3) Methanogens (4) Cyanobacteria 111. Indentify the following figure of organism :-
105. Genes for antibiotic resistance are located in
(1) Chromosome (2) Nucleus
(3) Cell wall (4) Plasmid
(1) Paramoecium
106. Protist used for the construction of sound proof
rooms, is- (2) Euglena
(1) Dinoflagellate (2) diatoms (3) Amoeba
(3) Euglenoids (4) Zooflagellates (4) Chlamydomonas

112. Which of the following is used extensively in 116. Most common asexual spores in algae are
biochemical and genetical work ? (1) Conidia
(1) Agaricus (2) Alternaria (2) Zygospore
(3) Neurospora (4) Mucor (3) Zoospore
113. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of (4) Chlamydospore
litter and help in mineral cycling belong to 117. Which of the following structure is formed in the
(1) Deuteromycetes (2) Basidiomycetes life cycle of Funaria between spore and main
(3) Phycomycetes (4) Ascomycetes plant body ?
114. (1) Prothallus
(2) Embryo
(3) Protonema
(4) Spore mother cell
118.
Examine above figure and select the right option

out of 1-4, in which all the four structure, A, B,
C and D are identify correctly : Identify the A, B, C and D respectively in the
A B C D given figure of Funaria :-
(1) Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres (1) Seta, Leaves, Capsule, Rhizoids
(2) Leaves, Capsule, Seta, Rhizoids
(2) Coller Head Sheath Tail fibres
(3) Capsule, Seta, leaves, Rhizome
(3) Sheath Collar Head Tail fibres
(4) Capsule, Seta, leaves, Rhizoids
(4) Tail fibres Collar Head Sheath
119. Find out the correct statement for pteridophytes ?
115. Pyrenoids are composed of (1) Gametophyte is dependent on sporophyte
(1) Starch and protein (2) Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte
(2) Protein and lipids (3) Both are independent from each other
(3) Starch and lipids (4) Sporophyte is independent but gametophyte
(4) Lipids and vitamins is not

120. In pteridophytes, spores germinate to produce: 126. In bryophytes and pteriodophytes, transport of
(1) Prothallus male gametes requires
(2) Sporogonium (1) insects (2) birds
(3) Sporophyte (3) water (4) wind
(4) Megasporophyll 127. Examine the figures A,B,C and D. In which one
121. In conifers, transpiration is reduced due to the of the four options all the items A,B,C and D are
presence of :-
correct ?
(1) Needle-like leaves
(2) Thick cuticle in leaves
(3) Sunken stomata in leaves
(4) All are correct
122. Coralloid roots are found mainly in :- (A) (B)
(1) Pinus (2) Cycas
(3) Moss (4) Sequoia
123. In angiosperms, embryosac has :
Options :-
(1) 7 cells & 7 nucleus
(C) (D)
124. Double fertilization is a characteristics of :-
(1) Angiosperms (2) Gymnosperms
(1) A → Equisetum, B → Ginkgo, C →
(3) Bryophytes (4) Pteridophytes
Selaginella, D → Lycopodium
125. Which one of the following is common to
multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and (2) A → Selaginella, B → Equisetum, C →
protonema of mosses ? Salvinia, D → Ginkgo
(1) Diplontic life cycle (3) A → Funaria, B → Adiantum, C →
(2) Members of kingdom plantae Salvinia, D → Riccia
(3) Mode of nutrition (4) A → Chara, B → Marchantia, C →
(4) Multiplication by fragmentation Fucus, D → Pinus

128. Identify the plants A and B in the figures given 133. Pollen grains after dispersal from the anthers are
below carried to the stigma of a pistil. This is termed
as?
(1) Retting
(2) Gaudikov effect
(3) Fertilisation
(4) Pollination
134. Gemmae are :-
(1) A – Female Marchantia, B – Sphagnum
(2) A – Riccia, B-Marchantia (1) Asexual reproductive structure of
pteridophytes
(3) A – Marchantia, B – Funaria
(4) A – Male Marchantia, B- Sphagnum (2) Asexual reproductive structure of liverworts
129. Stored food of red algae is :- (3) Sexual reproductive structure of moss
(1) Floridean starch (2) Glycogen (4) Asexual reproductive spores of algae
(3) Laminarin (4) Chitin 135. Algin and carrageen can be obtained respectively
130. Which of the following structure is formed in from :-
the life cycle of ferns after spore formation ?
(1) Rhodophyceae and Phaeophyceae
(1) Prothallus
(2) Phaeophyceace and Rhodophyceae
(2) Embryo
(3) Protonema (3) Rhodophyceae and Chlorophyceae
(4) Spore mother cell (4) Phaeophyceae and Chlorophyceae

131. Pteridophytes differ form bryophytes in having :- SECTION-B
(1) Independent gametophyte This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
(2) Independent sporophyte
(3) Dependent gametophyte more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(4) Dependent sporophyte questions will be considered for marking.
132. Most gymnosperms have : – 136. 'Whorling whips' movement is shown by:-
(1) Both archegonia and antheridia (1) Diatoms
(2) Antheridia but no archegonia (2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Archegonia but no antheridia (3) Bacteria
(4) No antheridia or archegonia (4) Euglenoids

137. 141. Match the following :-

A. Morels (i) Deuteromyectes
B. Smut (ii) Ascomycetes
C. Bread mould (iii) Basidiomycetes
D. Imperfect fungi (iv) Phycomycetes
Select option showing correct identification for (1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
above figure from A to D :- (2) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
A B C D
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(1) Bacillus Coccus Spirillum Vibrio
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(2) Coccus Bacillus Spirillum Vibrio
142. Identify the brown algae given below labelled as
(3) Coccus Spirillum Bacillus Vibrio A, B and C :
(4) Coccus Vibrio Bacillus Spirillum
138. Which of the following classes of Fungi are
characterised by the presence of coenocytic,
multinucleate and branced mycelium ?
(1) Basidiomycetes
(2) Phycomycetes (1) A = Fucus, B = Dictyota, C= Laminaria
(3) Ascomycetes (2) A = Dictyota, B = Laminaria, C= Fucus
(4) Duteromycetes (3) A = Laminaria, B = Dictyota, C= Fucus
139. Smut disease in wheat is caused by :- (4) A = Laminaria, B = Fucus, C= Dictyota
(1) Ustilago 143. Identify the bryophytes marked as A and B :-
(2) Puccinia
(3) Claviceps
(4) Rhizopus
140. Prolonged dikaryotic phase is seen in :-
(1) Ascomycetes
(1) A = Male Sphagnum ; B = Female Sphagnum
(2) Basidiomycetes
(2) A = Female Marchantia ; B = Male Marchantia
(3) Phycomycetes
(3) A = Male Marchantia ; B = Female Marchantia
(4) Deuteromycetes
(4) A = Female Sphagnum ; B = Male Sphagnum

144. A nitrogen-fixing microbe associated with 148. Archegoniate plants are :-

Azolla in rice fields is :- (1) Algae, Bryophyta and pteridophyta
(1) Spirulina (2) Bryophyta, Pteridophyta and gymnosperm
(2) Rhizobium (3) Bryophyta, Pteridophyta, gymnosperm and
(3) Oscillatoria angiosperm
(4) Anabaena (4) Pteridophyta, Gymnosperm and
145. In gymnosperms :- angiosperm
(1) Seed is formed before fertilization 149. Read the following statements :
A: Bryophytes live in soil but depend on water
(2) Fruit is formed after fertilization
for sexual reproduction.
(3) Ovary developes into fruit B: The male gametes (sperm) of bryophytes are
(4) Endosperm is formed before fertilization biflagellated.
and seed is formed after fertilization Choose the correct option :-
146. Which of the following gymnosperm is a living (1) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
fossil ?
(2) Both the statements A and B are correct
(1) Citrus (2) Ginkgo
(3) The statement A is correct but B is incorrect
(3) Pinus (4) Psilotum
(4) The statement A is incorrect but B is correct
147. Which of the following statement is correct ?
150. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively
(1) Ovules are not covered by ovary wall in
gymnosperms are_________
(2) Horsetails are included in gymnosperms (1) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic

(3) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia (2) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
is homosporous (3) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
(4) Agar-agar is obtained from Gonyaulax. (4) Haplontic, Diplontic

SUBJECT : BIOLOGY-II
Topic : ANIMAL KINGDOM, PLANT KINGDOM, THE LIVING WORLD, BIOLOGICAL

CLASSIFICATION
SECTION-A 156. Two kingdom classification system was given by

Attempt All 35 questions (1) R.H. Whittaker (2) Linnaeus
151. How many of the following are characters of (3) Aristotle (4) Candolle
only living organisms ? 157. According to Carl Woese, archaebacteria belong
Growth, Reproduction, Consciousness, to domain :
Respiration, Metabolism.
(1) Monera (2) Protista
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Plantae (4) Archaea
(3) Three (4) Four
158. Chrysophytes
152. Choose correct scientific name of mango.
(1) are commonly called diatoms and desmids.
(1) mangifera indica L.
(2) have pellicle instead of cell wall.
(2) Mangifera indica Linn.
(3) are parasitic forms causing disease in
(3) Mangifera Indica Linn. animals.
(4) Mangifera Indica L. (4) are commonly called dinoflagellates.
153. Taxonomical aid which contain information on 159. Mesosomes are not assosiated with :
any one taxon ?
(1) Cell wall formation
(1) Manual (2) Monograph
(2) DNA replication
(3) Flora (4) Museum
(3) Respiration
154. Who gave biological concept of species :
(4) Protein synthesis
(1) Aristotle
160. Monera devoid of cell wall are :-
(2) Ernst Mayr
(1) Actinomycetes (2) Mycoplasma
(3) John Ray
(3) Bacteria (4) Cyanobacteria
(4) Carolus Linnaeus
161. Organ system level of organisation is observed
155. Which of the following taxonomic aids conserve in ?
the living animal species ?
(1) Chordates
(1) Monograph
(2) Annelida
(2) Zoological park
(3) Mollusca
(3) Flora
(4) All of the above
(4) Herbarium

162. Cellular grade of organisation is found in :- 167. The middle layer in body wall of porifera is
(1) Sponges (1) Mesoderm
(2) Coelentrates (2) Mesenchyme
(3) Platyhelminthes (3) Mesoglea
(4) Ctenophora (4) Mesentery
163. Choose the correct type of symmetry for the 168. Which of the following groups of animals is
animals, A and B. bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?
(1) Sponges
(2) Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
(3) Aschelminthes (Round worms)
(1) Bilateral, Asymmetrical, respectively (4) Ctenophores
(2) Bilateral, Radial, respectively 169. Metamerism is found in :-
(3) Radial, Bilateral, respectively (1) Sponges (2) Earthworm
(4) Radial, Radial, respectively (3) Tapeworm (4) Ascaris
164. A mass of cells found in an animal without any 170. First triploblastic animals is :-
germ layers. This animal would be :- (1) Coelenterates
(1) Ctenophoran (2) Coelentrate (2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Poriferan (4) Tapeworm (3) Aschelminthes
165. The symmetry found in an animal which can be (4) Annelida
divided into indentical left and right halves in
171. Which one is the correct match in the following
only one plane is:-
table ?
(1) Spherical (2) Bilateral
(3) Radial (4) Biradial Figure Name Phylum Characters
166. Which of the following statements is not true? (1) Sycon Porifera Choanocytes
(1) All members of the kingdom Animalia are
multicellular (2) Aurelia Ctenophora Bioluminiscence
(2) Nature of coelom is used as one of the basis

of animal classification Capture the
(3) Colloblast Coelenterata
prey
(3) There is no need of classification now as
over a million species of animals have been
(4) pleurobrachia Porifera Polyp form
described till now
(4) The arrangement of cells in the body is one
of the classifying feature of the animals

172. Below given diagram represents 176. Notochord is derived from which layer?
(1) Ectoderm (2) Mesoderm
(3) Endoderm (4) All of these
177. In which animal closed circulatory system are
present :-
(1) Blind sac body plan
(1) Scorpion (2) Earthworm
(2) Tube within tube body plan
(3) Unio (4) Star fish
(3) Cell-aggregate body plan
178. Incomplete digestive system is found in :-
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(1) Arthropoda (2) Annelida
173. Find the correct labelling of the structure shown
(3) Platyhelminthes (4) Aschelminthes
'A' in the given diagram
179. Digestive system is first completed in which
phylum :-
(1) Arthropoda
(2) Annelida
(1) A - Mesoderm (3) Platyhelminthes
(2) A - Endoderm (4) Aschelminthes
(3) A - Pseudocoelom 180. Which of the following has closed circulatory
(4) A-Mesoglea system ?
(1) Mollusca (2) Arthropods
174. Bilaterally symmetrical, but acoelomate animals
is:- (3) Annelida (4) Platyhelminthes
(1) Jelly fish 181. The correct sequence of flow of water through
body of sponges is :-
(2) Round worm
(1) Osculum → Spongocoel → Ostia
(3) Arthropoda
(2) Spongocoel → Ostia → Osculum
(4) Flatworms
(3) Ostia → Osculum → Spongocoel
175. Non-chordates have :
(4) Ostia → Spongocoel →Osculum
(1) Notochord
182. Select the fresh water sponge from the
(2) Dorsal tubular nerve chord following:
(3) Pharyngeal gill cleft (1) Sycon (2) Euspongia
(4) None of the above (3) Spongilla (4) Hyalonema

183. Read the following four statements (A-D ):- SECTION-B

(A) All members of phylum porifera are aquatic This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
which are found in marine water only can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
(B) Sponges are primitive multicellular animals these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
and have cellular level of organisation more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(C) In sponges fertilisation is internal and questions will be considered for marking.
development is direct
(D) Water transport system is helpful in food 186. Statement-I: In the single-celled organisms, we
gathering and respiration only not in the are not very clear about the usage of the two
removal of nitrogenous wastes
How many of the above statements are terms - growth and reproduction.
incorrect? Statement-II: When it comes to unicellular
(1) Two (2) Three organisms like bacteria, unicellular algae or
(3) Four (4) One amoeba, reproduction is synonymous with
184. Identify the following diagram a, b, c & d :- growth, i.e., increase in number of cells.
(1) Both I and II are true statements
(2) Both I and II are false statements
(3) I is true but II is false statements
(4) I is false but II is true statements
187. Match the following columns
(1) A-Sycon, B-Adamsia, C-Spongilla, D- Column I Column II

Hydra
(a) Planaria (i) Binary fission
(2) A-Sycon, B -Euspongia, C-Adamsia, D-
Spongilla (b) Fungi (ii) Asexual spores
(3) A-Hydra, B-Spongila, C-Sycon, D-Porifera (c) Yeast (iii) Budding
(4) A-Spongilla, B-Hydra, C-Sycon, D-
Porifera (d) Hydra (iv) True regeneration
185. Which statement is incorrect for sponges ? (e) Amoeba (v) Fragmentation
(1) These are primitive multicellular animals
(1) (a)-i, (b)-ii, (c)-iv, (d)-(v), (e)-i
(2) They have cellular level of organisation
(2) (a)-iv, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d)-iii, (e)-i
(3) Sponges have a water transport or canal
system (3) (a)-iii, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d)-i, (e)-iv
(4) Water enters through osculum into central (4) (a)-iv, (b)-ii, (c)-i, (d)-iii, (e)-ii
cavity spongocoel

188. Assertion (A) : Worker female bees do not 192. Water enters through minute pores in the body
reproduce wall into central cavity in sponges. These minute
Reason (R) : Reproduction is not a defining
property but characteristic feature. pores are known as
(1) A & R correct & ‘R’ is correct explanation (1) Osculum

(2) A & R correct but ‘R’ is not correct (2) Ostia
explanation (3) Spongocoel
(3) Assertion true, Reason false (4) Any of the above
(4) A & R both are incorrect 193. Endoskeleton in sponges are made up of :-
189. ___'X'___ is the process by which anything is (1) Spicules or spongin fibres
grouped into convenient categories based on
(2) Cartilage
some easily observable characters. The process
'X' is :- (3) Bones
(1) Nomenclature (4) All of the above
(2) Identification 194.
(3) Classification
(4) Reproduction
190. Which of the following statement is wrong ? Identify the true option regarding the organism
(1) Reproduction can not be all inclusive shown in the diagram?

defining characteristic of living organisms (1) Bridal gift in Japan
(2) Metabolism is a defining feature of all (2) Smallest sponge
living organisms
(3) Bath sponge
(3) Both solanaceae and convolvulaceae are
included in carnivora order (4) Boring sponge
(4) Consciousness is the defining property of 195. Which statement word is incorrect respect to
living organisms porifera:
191. Blind sac body plan found in (1) Choanocytes
(1) Coelenterates & Aschelminthes (2) Mesenchyme
(2) Platyhelminthes & Ctenophora (3) Water canal system
(3) Coelenterate & Porifera (4) Water vascular system
(4) All of the above

196. Choose correct sequence of taxonomic 198. The taxonomic unit 'Phylum' in the classification
categories in descending order of animals is equivalent to which hierarchical
(1) Phylum - Class - Order - Family - Genus level in classification of plants:
(2) Kingdom - Division - Class - Family - (1) Class (2) Order
Order
(3) Division (4) Family
(3) Division - Class - Family - Order - Genus
199. Evolutionary history of an organism is known
(4) Kingdom - Phylum - Order - Species -
Genus as:-
197. Which of the following is incorrect about (1) Phylogeny (2) Ontogeny
binomial nomenclature? (3) Pleontology (4) Ancestry
(1) Biological names are generally in Latin and 200. In a scientific name when both generic name and
printed in italics specific epithet are same the name is called:-
(2) First word is genus and second word (1) Autonym
denotes the specific epithet
(2) Synonym
(3) Both the words are separately underlined
when handwritten (3) Tautonym
(4) Both the words start with capital letter (4) (1) and (3) both

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Date: 04-06-2023 Paper Type: Minor Test-3

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

SECTION-A 5. A projectile is projected from ground with initial

Which of the ball will hit the ground first :-

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(1) (2) – 10 m/s2

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(1) 5 m/s (2) 5√3 m/s (3) 70 N – s

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Topic : Periodic Table, Chemical Bonding(Till Taught), Atomic Structure

SECTION-A 55. The oxide which is different from other three

51. O(g) + 2e → O2 – (g), E = + 744.4 kJ/mole. The (1) CO

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(4) E2 = − 1 E1 (3) a-r ; b – p ; c – q ; d-s

NURTURE COURSE PHASE-1 9610WMD307001230004

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(1) Si < Be < Mg < Na < P (1) Li2+

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Topic : ANIMAL KINGDOM, PLANT KINGDOM, THE LIVING WORLD, BIOLOGICAL

SECTION-A 107. Indestructible cell wall is found in which of the

NURTURE COURSE PHASE-1 9610WMD307001230004

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Examine above figure and select the right option

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(4) Spore mother cell (4) Phaeophyceae and Chlorophyceae

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137. 141. Match the following :-

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144. A nitrogen-fixing microbe associated with 148. Archegoniate plants are :-

(2) Horsetails are included in gymnosperms (1) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic

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Topic : ANIMAL KINGDOM, PLANT KINGDOM, THE LIVING WORLD, BIOLOGICAL

SECTION-A 156. Two kingdom classification system was given by

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(2) Nature of coelom is used as one of the basis

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