ARDS

Certainly! Here are fifty multiple-choice questions about Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
with answers:

1. **Which of the following is the most common cause of ARDS?**

- a) Asthma

- b) Sepsis

- c) Pneumothorax

- d) COPD

- **Answer: b) Sepsis**

2. **What is a characteristic finding on a chest X-ray of a patient with ARDS?**

- a) Clear lung fields

- b) Hyperinflation

- c) Diffuse bilateral infiltrates

- d) Localized consolidation

- **Answer: c) Diffuse bilateral infiltrates**

3. **Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of ARDS?**

- a) Severe shortness of breath

- b) Rapid breathing

- c) High fever

- d) Hypoxemia

- **Answer: c) High fever**

4. **What does the acronym ARDS stand for?**

- a) Acute Respiratory Disease Syndrome

- b) Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

- c) Advanced Respiratory Distress Syndrome

 - d) Acute Respiratory Dysfunction Syndrome

- **Answer: b) Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome**

5. **Which ventilatory strategy is often used in the management of ARDS?**

- a) Low tidal volume ventilation

- b) High tidal volume ventilation

- c) Continuous positive airway pressure

- d) Intermittent mandatory ventilation

- **Answer: a) Low tidal volume ventilation**

6. **The Berlin Definition of ARDS includes which of the following criteria?**

- a) Onset within 1 week of a known clinical insult

- b) Presence of bilateral opacities on chest imaging

- c) Hypoxemia with a PaO2/FiO2 ratio ≤ 300 mmHg

- d) All of the above

- **Answer: d) All of the above**

7. **In ARDS, which of the following is NOT typically part of the pathophysiology?**

- a) Increased alveolar-capillary permeability

- b) Pulmonary edema

- c) Alveolar hemorrhage

- d) Hyaline membrane formation

- **Answer: c) Alveolar hemorrhage**

8. **Which of the following is a common complication of ARDS?**

- a) Pulmonary embolism

- b) Deep vein thrombosis

- c) Multiple organ failure

- d) Pleural effusion
 - **Answer: c) Multiple organ failure**

9. **What is the primary goal in the management of a patient with ARDS?**

- a) Decrease cardiac output

- b) Improve oxygenation

- c) Increase fluid intake

- d) Reduce infection risk

- **Answer: b) Improve oxygenation**

10. **Which type of oxygen delivery system is often required for patients with severe ARDS?**

- a) Nasal cannula

- b) Non-rebreather mask

- c) Mechanical ventilation

- d) Simple face mask

- **Answer: c) Mechanical ventilation**

11. **Which of the following pharmacologic treatments is commonly used in ARDS to reduce
inflammation?**

- a) Antibiotics

- b) Corticosteroids

- c) Antivirals

- d) Diuretics

- **Answer: b) Corticosteroids**

12. **What is the role of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) in ARDS management?**

- a) To decrease lung compliance

- b) To prevent alveolar collapse

- c) To increase cardiac output

- d) To reduce blood pressure

 - **Answer: b) To prevent alveolar collapse**

13. **Which of the following is a non-pharmacologic intervention used to improve oxygenation in

ARDS?**

- a) Prone positioning

- b) Chest physiotherapy

- c) Fluid restriction

- d) Nutritional support

- **Answer: a) Prone positioning**

14. **What is the typical FiO2 target in patients with ARDS to prevent oxygen toxicity?**

- a) ≤ 0.4

- b) ≤ 0.6

- c) ≤ 0.8

- d) ≤ 1.0

- **Answer: b) ≤ 0.6**

15. **Which diagnostic test is used to assess the severity of hypoxemia in ARDS?**

- a) Complete blood count

- b) Arterial blood gas

- c) Electrocardiogram

- d) Pulmonary function test

- **Answer: b) Arterial blood gas**

16. **Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing ARDS?**

- a) Smoking

- b) Near-drowning

- c) Aspiration

- d) Traumatic brain injury

 - **Answer: a) Smoking**

17. **What is the main difference between ARDS and cardiogenic pulmonary edema?**

- a) ARDS is always caused by infection

- b) Cardiogenic pulmonary edema is associated with elevated left atrial pressure

- c) ARDS typically presents with wheezing

- d) Cardiogenic pulmonary edema does not cause hypoxemia

- **Answer: b) Cardiogenic pulmonary edema is associated with elevated left atrial pressure**

18. **Which of the following ventilatory settings might be adjusted to improve oxygenation in ARDS?**

- a) Decreasing PEEP

- b) Increasing tidal volume

- c) Increasing FiO2

- d) Decreasing respiratory rate

- **Answer: c) Increasing FiO2**

19. **What is the significance of the PaO2/FiO2 ratio in ARDS?**

- a) It indicates the level of oxygen therapy needed

- b) It assesses the severity of hypoxemia

- c) It measures lung compliance

- d) It determines the need for mechanical ventilation

- **Answer: b) It assesses the severity of hypoxemia**

20. **Which of the following is a potential long-term consequence for survivors of ARDS?**

- a) Pulmonary fibrosis

- b) Lung cancer

- c) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

- d) Asthma

- **Answer: a) Pulmonary fibrosis**

21. **Which of the following blood gas abnormalities is most commonly seen in ARDS?**

- a) Respiratory acidosis

- b) Metabolic alkalosis

- c) Respiratory alkalosis

- d) Metabolic acidosis

- **Answer: a) Respiratory acidosis**

22. **Which of the following interventions is NOT typically recommended for ARDS?**

- a) High tidal volume ventilation

- b) Prone positioning

- c) Low tidal volume ventilation

- d) Use of PEEP

- **Answer: a) High tidal volume ventilation**

23. **What role does extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) play in the management of
ARDS?**

- a) It is used as first-line treatment

- b) It is a supportive therapy when conventional ventilation fails

- c) It replaces the need for mechanical ventilation

- d) It is used to decrease lung compliance

- **Answer: b) It is a supportive therapy when conventional ventilation fails**

24. **Which of the following is an early sign of ARDS?**

- a) Decreased breath sounds

- b) Severe hypoxemia

- c) Progressive dyspnea

- d) Chest pain

- **Answer: c) Progressive dyspnea**

25. **How does prone positioning improve oxygenation in ARDS patients?**

- a) It reduces cardiac output

- b) It redistributes blood flow to better-ventilated areas

- c) It increases lung compliance

- d) It reduces the need for PEEP

- **Answer: b) It redistributes blood flow to better-ventilated areas**

26. **Which of the following is a contraindication to prone positioning in ARDS?**

- a) Hemodynamic instability

- b) Obesity

- c) Pulmonary hypertension

- d) Anemia

- **Answer: a) Hemodynamic instability**

27. **Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criterion for ARDS?**

- a) Acute onset

- b) Bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging

- c) Absence of left atrial hypertension

- d) Elevated brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)

- **Answer: d) Elevated brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)**

28. **What is the typical timeframe for the onset of ARDS following an inciting event?**

- a) Within 1 hour

- b) Within 24 hours

- c) Within 48 hours

- d) Within 1 week

- **Answer: d) Within 1 week**

29. **What is the primary purpose of using corticosteroids in ARDS management?**

- a) To treat infection

- b) To reduce inflammation

- c) To increase fluid retention

- d) To improve cardiac output

**Answer: b) To reduce inflammation**

30. **Which of the following is the most definitive method for diagnosing ARDS?**

- a) Chest X-ray

- b) CT scan

- c) Arterial blood gas analysis

- d) Clinical criteria

- **Answer: d) Clinical criteria**

31. **Which phase of ARDS is characterized by the formation of hyaline membranes?**

- a) Exudative phase

- b) Proliferative phase

- c) Fibrotic phase

- d) Resolution phase

- **Answer: a) Exudative phase**

32. **In ARDS, why is fluid management crucial?**

- a) To increase lung compliance

- b) To prevent pulmonary edema

- c) To enhance cardiac output

- d) To reduce inflammation

- **Answer: b) To prevent pulmonary edema**

33. **Which type of nutritional support is often preferred in patients with ARDS?**

- a) Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)

- b) Oral feeding

- c) Enteral nutrition

- d) Intravenous glucose

- **Answer: c) Enteral nutrition**

34. **Which of the following is a risk factor for developing ARDS in patients with pneumonia?**

- a) Advanced age

- b) Hypertension

- c) Hyperlipidemia

- d) Osteoarthritis

- **Answer: a) Advanced age**

35. **Which clinical finding differentiates ARDS from cardiogenic pulmonary edema?**

- a) Hypoxemia

- b) Diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest X-ray

- c) Normal pulmonary artery wedge pressure

- d) Respiratory distress

- **Answer: c) Normal pulmonary artery wedge pressure**

36. **What is the role of bronchoalveolar lavage in the management of ARDS?**

- a) Diagnostic

- b) Therapeutic

- c) Both diagnostic and therapeutic

- d) Neither diagnostic nor therapeutic

- **Answer: a) Diagnostic**
37. **Which of the following blood gas values indicates severe ARDS?**

- a) PaO2/FiO2 ratio of 200-300

- b) PaO2/FiO2 ratio of 100-200

- c) PaO2/FiO2 ratio ≤ 100

- d) PaO2/FiO2 ratio > 300

- **Answer: c) PaO2/FiO2 ratio ≤ 100**

38. **In ARDS, what is the primary cause of hypoxemia?**

- a) Decreased hemoglobin

- b) Ventilation-perfusion mismatch

- c) Increased cardiac output

- d) Increased airway resistance

- **Answer: b) Ventilation-perfusion mismatch**

39. **Which of the following statements is true about the mortality rate in ARDS?**

- a) It is typically less than 10%

- b) It ranges from 30-40%

- c) It is always greater than 50%

- d) It is unrelated to the severity of hypoxemia

- **Answer: b) It ranges from 30-40%**

40. **What is the primary treatment for sepsis-induced ARDS?**

- a) Broad-spectrum antibiotics

- b) Antiviral therapy

- c) Antifungal medications

- d) Diuretics

- **Answer: a) Broad-spectrum antibiotics**

41. **In ARDS management, what is the recommended tidal volume to minimize ventilator-induced lung
injury?**

- a) 4-6 mL/kg of predicted body weight

- b) 6-8 mL/kg of predicted body weight

- c) 8-10 mL/kg of predicted body weight

- d) 10-12 mL/kg of predicted body weight

- **Answer: a) 4-6 mL/kg of predicted body weight**

42. **What is the benefit of using neuromuscular blocking agents in ARDS patients?**

- a) Increase lung compliance

- b) Decrease ventilator asynchrony

- c) Reduce infection risk

- d) Increase cardiac output

- **Answer: b) Decrease ventilator asynchrony**

43. **Which of the following laboratory tests is most useful in differentiating ARDS from cardiogenic
pulmonary edema?**

- a) Serum electrolytes

- b) Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)

- c) Complete blood count

- d) Blood cultures

- **Answer: b) Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)**

44. **How does ARDS typically affect lung compliance?**

- a) Increases compliance

- b) Decreases compliance

- c) No change in compliance

- d) Fluctuates compliance

- **Answer: b) Decreases compliance**

45. **Which of the following is a hallmark histological feature of ARDS?**

- a) Granuloma formation

- b) Hyaline membrane formation

- c) Caseous necrosis

- d) Fibrous plaque formation

- **Answer: b) Hyaline membrane formation**

46. **Which of the following is a first-line treatment for hypoxemia in ARDS?**

- a) Non-invasive ventilation

- b) High-flow nasal cannula

- c) Mechanical ventilation with PEEP

- d) Inhaled nitric oxide

- **Answer: c) Mechanical ventilation with PEEP**

47. **What is the purpose of using diuretics in ARDS management?**

- a) To increase cardiac output

- b) To reduce fluid overload

- c) To increase urine output

- d) To reduce inflammation

- **Answer: b) To reduce fluid overload**

48. **In ARDS patients, what is the primary reason for using sedation and analgesia?**

- a) To decrease oxygen consumption

- b) To treat infection

- c) To increase lung compliance

- d) To prevent deep vein thrombosis

- **Answer: a) To decrease oxygen consumption**

49. **Which of the following monitoring techniques is essential in managing a patient with ARDS on
mechanical ventilation?**

- a) Continuous pulse oximetry

- b) Serial chest X-rays

- c) Regular blood cultures

- d) Electroencephalography

- **Answer: a) Continuous pulse oximetry**

50. **Which of the following factors is associated with a poorer prognosis in ARDS?**

- a) Younger age

- b) Lower severity of illness scores

- c) Presence of multiple organ dysfunction

- d) Early implementation of PEEP

- **Answer: c) Presence of multiple organ dysfunction**

These questions cover various aspects of ARDS, including its causes, symptoms, diagnostic criteria, and
management strategies.

PNEUMONIA:

Of course! Here are fifty multiple-choice nursing questions about pneumonia with answers:

1. **What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)?**

- a) Staphylococcus aureus

- b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

- c) Streptococcus pneumoniae

- d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

- **Answer: c) Streptococcus pneumoniae**

2. **Which of the following pathogens is commonly associated with healthcare-associated pneumonia

(HCAP)?**
 - a) Haemophilus influenzae

- b) Klebsiella pneumoniae

- c) Legionella pneumophila

- d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

- **Answer: d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa**

3. **Which symptom is most commonly associated with pneumonia?**

- a) Nausea

- b) Vomiting

- c) Cough

- d) Abdominal pain

- **Answer: c) Cough**

4. **Which of the following physical examination findings is characteristic of pneumonia?**

- a) Decreased tactile fremitus

- b) Decreased resonance to percussion

- c) Inspiratory crackles

- d) Increased breath sounds

- **Answer: c) Inspiratory crackles**

5. **Which diagnostic test is most commonly used to confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia?**

- a) Complete blood count (CBC)

- b) Chest X-ray

- c) Sputum culture

- d) Pulmonary function test

- **Answer: b) Chest X-ray**

6. **Which of the following is a typical symptom of atypical pneumonia?**

- a) Sudden onset of high fever and chills

 - b) Productive cough with purulent sputum

- c) Headache and myalgia

- d) Pleuritic chest pain

- **Answer: c) Headache and myalgia**

7. **Which group is considered to be at the highest risk for developing pneumonia?**

- a) Infants

- b) Adolescents

- c) Older adults

- d) Young adults

- **Answer: c) Older adults**

8. **Which of the following is a risk factor for aspiration pneumonia?**

- a) Regular exercise

- b) Supine positioning

- c) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

- d) Smoking cessation

- **Answer: c) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)**

9. **Which vaccination is recommended for the prevention of pneumonia in adults aged 65 and
older?**

- a) Varicella vaccine

- b) MMR vaccine

- c) Pneumococcal vaccine

- d) Hepatitis B vaccine

- **Answer: c) Pneumococcal vaccine**

10. **What is the initial treatment of choice for outpatient management of uncomplicated community-
acquired pneumonia in otherwise healthy adults?**
 - a) Ceftriaxone

- b) Azithromycin

- c) Vancomycin

- d) Amoxicillin

- **Answer: b) Azithromycin**

11. **Which laboratory finding is commonly elevated in bacterial pneumonia?**

- a) Hemoglobin

- b) White blood cell count (WBC)

- c) Platelet count

- d) Blood glucose

- **Answer: b) White blood cell count (WBC)**

12. **What is the primary mechanism of transmission of most pneumonia pathogens?**

- a) Bloodborne transmission

- b) Vectorborne transmission

- c) Airborne droplets

- d) Fecal-oral transmission

- **Answer: c) Airborne droplets**

13. **Which of the following is a common complication of pneumonia?**

- a) Acute pancreatitis

- b) Pulmonary embolism

- c) Diabetic ketoacidosis

- d) Gout

- **Answer: b) Pulmonary embolism**

14. **Which of the following organisms is a common cause of pneumonia in patients with cystic
fibrosis?**
 - a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

- b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

- c) Haemophilus influenzae

- d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

- **Answer: b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa**

15. **Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of lobar pneumonia?**

- a) Fever and chills

- b) Pleuritic chest pain

- c) Productive cough

- d) Sudden onset of high fever and dyspnea

- **Answer: d) Sudden onset of high fever and dyspnea**

16. **Which of the following physical examination findings is consistent with pneumonia?**

- a) Decreased tactile fremitus

- b) Hyperresonance to percussion

- c) Decreased breath sounds

- d) Normal vesicular breath sounds

- **Answer: c) Decreased breath sounds**

17. **Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of walking pneumonia?**

- a) Sudden onset of high fever

- b) Gradual onset of productive cough

- c) Mild symptoms that persist for weeks

- d) Pleuritic chest pain

- **Answer: c) Mild symptoms that persist for weeks**

18. **What is the primary purpose of using oxygen therapy in the management of pneumonia?**

- a) To reduce fever
 - b) To decrease pain

- c) To improve oxygenation

- d) To prevent aspiration

- **Answer: c) To improve oxygenation**

19. **Which of the following is a common cause of aspiration pneumonia?**

- a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

- b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

- c) Klebsiella pneumoniae

- d) Anaerobic bacteria from the oropharynx

- **Answer: d) Anaerobic bacteria from the oropharynx**

20. **What is the recommended duration of antibiotic therapy for uncomplicated community-acquired
pneumonia?**

- a) 3-5 days

- b) 5-7 days

- c) 7-10 days

- d) 10-14 days

- **Answer: b) 5-7 days**

21. **Which scoring system is used to assess the severity of pneumonia and the need for
hospitalization?**

- a) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

- b) APACHE II score

- c) CURB-65 score

- d) Ranson's criteria

- **Answer: c) CURB-65 score**

22. **Which of the following vaccines can help prevent pneumonia?**

 - a) Varicella vaccine

- b) Hepatitis A vaccine

CERVICAL CARCINOMA

Certainly! Here are fifty multiple-choice nursing questions about cervical carcinoma with answers:

1. **Which virus is strongly associated with the development of cervical carcinoma?**

- a) Influenza virus

- b) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

- c) Hepatitis B virus

- d) Epstein-Barr virus

- **Answer: b) Human papillomavirus (HPV)**

2. **Which type of HPV infection is considered a high-risk factor for cervical carcinoma?**

- a) HPV type 6

- b) HPV type 11

- c) HPV type 16

- d) HPV type 18

- **Answer: c) HPV type 16**

3. **What is the most common histological type of cervical carcinoma?**

- a) Adenocarcinoma

- b) Squamous cell carcinoma

- c) Small cell carcinoma

- d) Neuroendocrine carcinoma

- **Answer: b) Squamous cell carcinoma**

4. **Which of the following risk factors is associated with the development of cervical carcinoma?**
 - a) Early age at first childbirth

- b) Long-term use of oral contraceptives

- c) Multiple sexual partners

- d) All of the above

- **Answer: d) All of the above**

5. **Which screening test is commonly used for the early detection of cervical carcinoma?**

- a) Pap smear

- b) Mammogram

- c) Colonoscopy

- d) MRI scan

- **Answer: a) Pap smear**

6. **At what age should women begin regular cervical cancer screening with a Pap smear?**

- a) 18 years old

- b) 21 years old

- c) 25 years old

- d) 30 years old

- **Answer: b) 21 years old**

7. **Which of the following is a potential complication of untreated cervical carcinoma?**

- a) Osteoporosis

- b) Renal failure

- c) Lymphedema

- d) Metastasis to distant organs

- **Answer: d) Metastasis to distant organs**

8. **Which stage of cervical carcinoma is characterized by invasion of the cervical stroma?**

- a) Stage I
 - b) Stage II

- c) Stage III

- d) Stage IV

- **Answer: a) Stage I**

9. **What is the primary treatment modality for early-stage cervical carcinoma?**

- a) Chemotherapy

- b) Radiation therapy

- c) Surgery

- d) Targeted therapy

- **Answer: c) Surgery**

10. **Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with advanced cervical carcinoma?**

- a) Vaginal bleeding after intercourse

- b) Abdominal bloating

- c) Frequent urination

- d) Joint pain

- **Answer: a) Vaginal bleeding after intercourse**

11. **What is the role of a colposcopy in the evaluation of cervical carcinoma?**

- a) To perform a biopsy of suspicious lesions

- b) To visualize the entire cervix

- c) To remove abnormal tissue using laser therapy

- d) To administer chemotherapy directly to the cervix

- **Answer: a) To perform a biopsy of suspicious lesions**

12. **Which of the following vaccines can help prevent HPV infection and reduce the risk of cervical
carcinoma?**

- a) Varicella vaccine
 - b) Influenza vaccine

- c) Hepatitis A vaccine

- d) HPV vaccine

- **Answer: d) HPV vaccine**

13. **Which factor is known to increase the risk of developing cervical carcinoma in women infected
with HPV?**

- a) Smoking

- b) Low socioeconomic status

- c) Obesity

- d) High dietary fiber intake

- **Answer: a) Smoking**

14. **What is the main purpose of pelvic examination in the diagnosis of cervical carcinoma?**

- a) To assess uterine size and shape

- b) To evaluate the presence of ovarian cysts

- c) To detect abnormalities of the cervix

- d) To determine the stage of cancer spread

- **Answer: c) To detect abnormalities of the cervix**

15. **Which of the following diagnostic tests can provide information about the extent of cervical
carcinoma and its spread to nearby structures?**

- a) Bone scan

- b) PET scan

- c) Liver function tests

- d) Thyroid function tests

- **Answer: b) PET scan**

16. **What is the purpose of performing a cone biopsy in the management of cervical carcinoma?**
 - a) To remove the entire uterus

- b) To assess lymph node involvement

- c) To remove abnormal cervical tissue for evaluation

- d) To administer localized chemotherapy

- **Answer: c) To remove abnormal cervical tissue for evaluation**

17. **Which of the following is a common side effect of radiation therapy in the treatment of cervical
carcinoma?**

- a) Hypertension

- b) Hair loss

- c) Nausea and vomiting

- d) Lymphedema

- **Answer: c) Nausea and vomiting**

18. **What is the recommended frequency of follow-up Pap smears after treatment for cervical
carcinoma?**

- a) Every year

- b) Every 3 years

- c) Every 5 years

- d) Every 10 years

- **Answer: a) Every year**

19. **Which of the following surgical procedures is used to treat early-stage cervical carcinoma while
preserving fertility?**

- a) Total abdominal hysterectomy

- b) Radical hysterectomy

- c) Trachelectomy

- d) Pelvic exenteration

- **Answer: c) Trachelectomy**
20. **Which factor is known to increase the risk of developing cervical carcinoma in women infected
with HPV?**

- a) Low socioeconomic

SEPSIS

Absolutely! Here are fifty multiple-choice nursing questions about sepsis:

1. **Which of the following best defines sepsis?**

- a) A localized infection

- b) Systemic inflammation response to infection

- c) Chronic inflammatory disorder

- d) Non-infectious fever

- **Answer: b) Systemic inflammation response to infection**

2. **Which of the following is a common cause of sepsis?**

- a) A broken bone

- b) A dental cavity

- c) Bacterial infection in the lungs

- d) Sunburn

- **Answer: c) Bacterial infection in the lungs**

3. **Which laboratory finding is often seen in sepsis?**

- a) Decreased white blood cell count (WBC)

- b) Decreased lactate levels

- c) Increased platelet count

- d) Increased C-reactive protein (CRP)

- **Answer: d) Increased C-reactive protein (CRP)**

4. **Which of the following is a hallmark sign of sepsis?**

- a) Bradycardia

- b) Hypotension

- c) Hypoglycemia

- d) Hyperthermia

- **Answer: b) Hypotension**

5. **What is the first-line treatment for sepsis?**

- a) Antibiotics

- b) Anticoagulants

- c) Antipyretics

- d) Diuretics

- **Answer: a) Antibiotics**

6. **Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing sepsis?**

- a) Advanced age

- b) Immunodeficiency

- c) Regular exercise

- d) Chronic illness

- **Answer: c) Regular exercise**

7. **Which organ is most commonly affected by sepsis?**

- a) Liver

- b) Kidneys

- c) Pancreas

- d) Spleen

- **Answer: b) Kidneys**

8. **Which of the following is a sign of septic shock?**

 - a) Hypertension

- b) Hypoglycemia

- c) Acute kidney injury

- d) Bradycardia

- **Answer: c) Acute kidney injury**

9. **What is the recommended fluid resuscitation strategy in the early management of sepsis?**

- a) Hypotonic fluids

- b) Isotonic fluids

- c) Hypertonic fluids

- d) Colloids

- **Answer: b) Isotonic fluids**

10. **Which of the following is a common source of infection leading to sepsis in hospitalized
patients?**

- a) Proper hand hygiene

- b) Sterile surgical techniques

- c) Indwelling urinary catheters

- d) Regular bathing

- **Answer: c) Indwelling urinary catheters**

11. **Which of the following is a sign of organ dysfunction in sepsis?**

- a) Tachypnea

- b) Hyperglycemia

- c) Bradycardia

- d) Altered mental status

- **Answer: d) Altered mental status**

12. **What is the target mean arterial pressure (MAP) in the management of septic shock?**
 - a) < 60 mmHg

- b) > 65 mmHg

- c) < 50 mmHg

- d) > 100 mmHg

- **Answer: b) > 65 mmHg**

13. **Which of the following is a potential complication of sepsis?**

- a) Osteoporosis

- b) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

- c) Cushing's syndrome

- d) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

- **Answer: b) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)**

14. **Which type of shock is most commonly associated with sepsis?**

- a) Neurogenic shock

- b) Cardiogenic shock

- c) Hypovolemic shock

- d) Septic shock

- **Answer: d) Septic shock**

15. **Which of the following is a key component of the Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines?**

- a) Increasing sedation

- b) Early goal-directed therapy

- c) Bed rest

- d) Avoiding antibiotics

- **Answer: b) Early goal-directed therapy**

16. **Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of hospital-acquired sepsis?**

- a) Hand hygiene practices

 - b) Frequent patient turning

- c) Indwelling catheters

- d) Regular cleaning of medical equipment

- **Answer: c) Indwelling catheters**

17. **What is the purpose of administering vasopressors in septic shock?**

- a) To increase blood pressure

- b) To decrease heart rate

- c) To lower blood sugar levels

- d) To promote diuresis

- **Answer: a) To increase blood pressure**

18. **Which of the following diagnostic tests is used to evaluate tissue hypoperfusion in sepsis?**

- a) Troponin levels

- b) B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

- c) Serum lactate levels

- d) Thyroid function tests

- **Answer: c) Serum lactate levels**

19. **What is the primary goal of antimicrobial therapy in sepsis management?**

- a) To reduce fever

- b) To eradicate the infection

- c) To induce vomiting

- d) To relieve pain

- **Answer: b) To eradicate the infection**

20. **Which of the following statements about sepsis is true?**

- a) It is only caused by bacteria

- b) It does not require immediate medical attention

 - c) It can lead to multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)

- d) It is always localized to one area of the body

- **Answer: c) It can lead to multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)**

21. **What is the first step in the management of sepsis according to the "Sepsis Six" bundle?**

- a) Administer antibiotics

- b) Administer fluids

- c) Measure lactate levels

- d) Check blood pressure

- **Answer: a) Administer antibiotics**

22. **Which of the following interventions is NOT part of the sepsis bundle recommended by the
Surviving Sepsis Campaign?**

- a) Administering intravenous fluids

- b) Obtaining blood cultures before administering antibiotics

- c)