12th_Physics_EM_Vol 2_ Full Sura Guide (1)

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Physics
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VOLUME - II
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12th Standard
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Based on the New Syllabus and

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New Textbook (Volume - II) for the year 2019-20

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Salient Features :
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 Complete Solutions to Textbook Exercises.

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 Exhaustive Additional Questions in all Units.

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 Govt. Model Question Paper - 1 (2019-20) with Answer Key.

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 Sura’s Model Question Papers - 1 & 2 with Answer.

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ISBN : 978-93-5330-086-9
Code No : SG 291
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Authors Edited by
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Mr. P. Charles Xavier, M.Sc, M.Ed. PGT-Physics, Chennai
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Contents
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Unit Title Page No.

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6. Optics 1 - 74
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7. Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 75 - 122
8. Atomic and Nuclear physics 123 - 162

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9. Semiconductor Electronics 163 - 198

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10. Communication Systems 199 - 220

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11. Recent Developments in Physics 221 - 234

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Govt. Model Question paper & Sura Model Question 235 - 266
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papers (1 & 2) with Answers.

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(V)

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(VI)

UNIT
6 OPTICS
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CHAPTER SNAPSHOT
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6.1 Introduction
6.4.4 Relative refractive index
6.1.1 Ray optics
6.4.5 Apparent depth
6.1.2 Reflection
6.4.6
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Critical angle and total
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6.1.3 Angle of deviation due to reflection

6.1.4 Image formation in plane mirror internal reflection
6.1.5 Characteristics of the image formed 6.4.7 Effects due to total internal
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by plane mirror reflection
6.1.6 Real and virtual images by a plane 6.4.9 Refraction in glass slab
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mirror 6.5 Refraction at single spherical surface

6.2 Spherical Mirrors
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6.5.1 Equation for refraction at

6.2.1 Paraxial Rays and Marginal Rays
single spherical surface
6.2.2 Relation between f and R
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6.2.3 Image formation in spherical 6.5.2 Lateral magnification in single

mirrors spherical surface
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6.2.4 Cartesian sign convention 6.6 Thin Lens

6.2.5 The mirror equation
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6.6.1 Primary and secondary focal

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6.2.6 Lateral magnification in spherical points

mirrors 6.6.2 Sign conventions for lens on
6.3
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Speed of Light
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focal length
6.3.1 Fizeau’s method to determine speed
6.6.3 Lens maker’s formula and lens
of light
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equation
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6.3.2 Speed of light through different

media 6.6.4 Lateral magnification in thins
6.3.3 Refractive index lens
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6.3.4 Optical path 6.6.5 Power of a lens

6.4 Refraction 6.6.6 Focal length of lenses in
6.4.1 Angle of deviation due to refraction
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contact
6.4.2 Characteristics of refraction 6.6.7 Focal length of lenses in out
6.4.3 Principle of reversibility
of contact
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Sura’s ➠ XII Std - Physics - Volume-II
CONCEPT MAP
Optics
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Ray Optics
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Reflection Refraction Optical Instruments
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Refractive index – Real

Spherical mirror Microscope
depth and apparent Telescope
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depth
Mirror formula and
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Simple Compound Refracting Reflecting
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OPTICS
magnification microscope microscope telescope telescope
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Spherical Lens Total internal Dispersion Power of

Lens makers
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refracting formula and reflections and and prism lens and its
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formula magnification
surface its applications formula combination
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Wave Optics
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Huygens' Diffraction
Interference Polarisation
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Principle
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Single slit diffraction

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Principle of
Verification and expression for width
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Superposition Brewsters law

laws of of central maxima
reflection and
refraction Young's double slit Types of
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experiment Difference between polarisation

interference and
diffraction
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Polarisation Polarisation
by refraction by scattering
Application
Polarisation
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MUST KNOW DEFINITIONS

Reflection of light : The bouncing back of light into the same medium when it encounters a
reflecting surface is called reflection of light.
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Angle of deviation : The angle between the incident and deviated light ray is called angle of
deviation of the light ray.
Virtual image : Type of image which cannot be formed on the screen but can only be
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seen with the eyes is called virtual image.
Real image : Type of image which can be formed on a screen and can also be seen
with the eyes is called real image.
Convex mirror : If the reflection takes place at the convex surface, it is called a convex
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mirror
Concave mirror : If the reflection takes place at the concave surface, it is called a concave
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mirror.
Center of curvature
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: The centre of the sphere of which the mirror is a part is called the center
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of curvature (C) of the mirror.

Unit 6
Radius of curvature : The radius of the sphere of which the spherical mirror is a part is called
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the radius of curvature (R) of the mirror.
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Pole : The middle point on the spherical surface of the mirror (or) the
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geometrical center of the mirror is called pole (P) of the mirror.

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Principal axis : The line joining the pole and the centre of curvature is called the
principal axis of the mirror.
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Focus or focal point : Light rays travelling parallel and close to the principal axis when
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incident on a spherical mirror, converge at a point for concave mirror or

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appear to diverge from a point for convex mirror on the principal axis.
This point is called the focus or focal point (F) of the mirror.
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Focal length : The distance between the pole and the focus is called the focal length
(f) of the mirror.
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Focal plane : The plane through the focus and perpendicular to the principal axis is
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called the focal plane of the mirror.

Paraxial rays : The rays travelling very close to the principal axis and make small angles
with it are called paraxial rays.
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Marginal rays : The rays travelling far away from the principal axis and fall on the
mirror far away from the pole are called as marginal rays.
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Refractive index : Refractive index of a transparent medium is defined as the ratio of speed
of light in vacuum (or air) to the speed of light in that medium.
Optical path : Optical path of a medium is defined as the distance d' light travels in
vacuum in the same time it travels a distance d in the medium.
Snell's law : The incident ray, refracted ray and normal to the refracting surface are
all coplanar (ie. lie in the same plane).
4

Evaluation
Choose the Correct Answer: 6. Stars twinkle due to,
(a) reflection
1. The speed of light in an isotropic medium
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(b) total internal reflection
depends on,
(c) refraction (d) polarisation
(a) its intensity (b) its wavelength
[Ans. (c) refraction]
(c) the nature of propagation
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(d) the motion of the source w.r. to medium 7. When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive
index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane
[Ans. (b) its wavelength]
sheet of glass. This implies that the liquid must
2. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal have refractive index,
axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm (a) less than one
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in such a way that its end closer to the pole is (b) less than that of glass
20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the
(c) greater than that of glass
image is, (AIPMT Main 2012)
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(d) equal to that of glass
(a) 2.5 cm (b) 5 cm
[Ans. (d) equal to that of glass]
(c) 10 cm (d) 15 cm
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OPTICS
[Ans. (b) 5cm] 8. The radius of curvature of curved surface
at a thin planoconvex lens is 10 cm and the
3. An object is placed in front of a convex mirror
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refractive index is 1.5. If the plane surface is
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of focal length of f and the maximum and silvered, then the focal length will be,
minimum distance of an object from the
(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm
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mirror such that the image formed is real and

magnified. (IEE Main 2009)]
(c) 15 cm (d) 20 cm
(a) 2f and c (b) c and ∞ [Ans. (b) 10 cm]
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(c) f and O (d) None of these

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9. An air bubble in glass slab of refractive index

[Ans. (d) None of these ]
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1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when

viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when
4. For light incident from air onto a slab of
viewed from the opposite face. The thickness
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refractive index 2. Maximum possible angle of

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of the slab is,

refraction is,
(a) 8 cm (b) 10 cm
(a) 30º (b) 45º
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(c) 12 cm (d) 16 cm
(c) 60º (d) 90º
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[Ans. (c) 12 cm]

[Ans. (a) 30º]
5. If the velocity and wavelength of light in air is 10. A ray of light travelling in a transparent
medium of refractive index n falls, on a surface
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Va and λa and that in water is Vw and λw, then

the refractive index of water is, separating the medium from air at an angle
Vw V of incidents of 45º. The ray can undergo total
(a) (b) a
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Va Vw internal reflection for the following n,

λw Vλ (a) n = 1.25 (b) n = 1.33
(c) (d) a a (c) n = 1.4 (d) n = 1.5
λa Vw λ w
V [Ans. (d) n = 1.5 ]
[Ans. (b) a ]
Vw
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Disadvantages : 80. What is astigmatism?
(i) The objective mirror would focus the light Ans. Astigmatism is the defect arising due to different
inside the telescope tube. curvatures along different planes in the eye lens.
(ii) One must have an eye piece inside Astigmatic person cannot see all the directions
obstructing some light. equally well.
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(iii) This problem could also be overcome by Long Answer questions :
introducing a secondary mirror which
would take the light outside the tube for 1. Derive the mirror equation and the equation
view. for lateral magnification.
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Ans. The mirror equation establishes a relation
74. What is the use of an erecting lens in a
among object distance u, image distance v and
terrestrial telescope?
focal length f for a spherical mirror.
Ans. (i) A terrestrial telescope is used to see object
(i) An object AB is considered on the principal
at long distance on the surface of earth.
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axis of a concave mirror beyond the center

Hence, image should be erect. of curvature C.
(ii) A terrestrial telescope has an additional (ii) Consider three paraxial rays from point B
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erecting lens is used to make the final
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on the object.
image erect.
(iii) The first paraxial ray BD travelling parallel
75. What is the use of collimator? to principal axis is incident on the concave
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mirror at D, close to the pole P.

Unit 6
Ans. The collimator is an arrangement to produce a

parallel beam of light. (iv) After reflection, the ray passes through
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the focus F. The second paraxial ray BP

76. What are the uses of spectrometer? incident at the pole P is reflected along
Ans. The spectrometer is an optical instrument used
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PB´.
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(i) to study the spectra of different sources of (v) The third paraxial ray BC passing through
light and centre of curvature C, falls normally on the
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(ii) to measure the refractive indices of mirror at E is reflected back along the same
materials. path. The three reflected rays intersect at
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the point B′.

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77. What is myopia? What is its remedy?

(vi) A perpendicular drawn as A′ B′ to the
Ans. A person suffering from nearsightedness or
principal axis is the real, inverted image of
myopia cannot see distant objects clearly. This
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the object AB.

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may result because the lens has too short focal

(vii) As per law of reflection, the angle of
length due to thickening of the lens or larger
incidence ∠BPA is equal to the angle of
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diameter of the eyeball than usual.

reflection ∠B′PA′.
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78. What is hypermetropia? What is its remedy? (viii) The triangles ΔBPA and ΔB′PA′ are similar.
Ans. (i) A person suffering from farsightedness or Thus, from the rule of similar triangles,
hypermetropia or hyperopia cannot clearly A ′B′ PA ′
= ...(1)
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see objects close to the eye. AB PA

(ii) It occurs when the eye lens has too long (ix) The other set of similar triangles are,
focal length due to thining of eye lens or ΔDPF and ΔB′A′ F. (PD is almost a straight
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shortening of the eyeball than normal. vertical line)

A ′B′ A ′F
79. What is presbyopia? =
PD PF
Ans. Farsightedness arising due to aging is called
presbyopia as the aged people cannot strain As, the distances PD = AB the above equation
their eye more to reduce the focal length of the becomes,
A ′B′ PA ′
eye lens. = ...(2)
AB PA
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6. Two independent monochromatic sources Numerical Problems:
cannot act as coherent sources, why?
Ans. (i) Two independent sources of light can't 1. An object is placed at a certain distance from
emit waves continuously. a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. Find the
(ii) The waves emitted by two sources do not distance of the object if the image obtained is
magnified 4 times.
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have same phase or a constant phase
difference. Solution :
7. Does diffraction take place at the Young’s Given data :
Focal length of convex lens = 20 cm = f
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double slit?
Ans. (i) Yes. Diffraction occur in the double slit v
To find : Magnification m = 4 =
experiment. u
1 1 1
(ii) The wavefront is diffracted as it passes Lens formula : − =
v u f
through each of the slits.
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(iii) The diffraction causes the wavefronts to 1 1 1 1− 4 −3

− = =
spread out as if they are coming from light 4u u 20 4u 4u
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sources located at the slits. −3 1
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(iv) These two wavefronts overlap and =
4u 20
interference occurs.
4u = -60
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OPTICS
8. Is there any difference between coloured light −60
obtained from prism and colours of soap Þ u =
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bubble? u = –15 cm
Ans. (i) Colours are seen in a soap bubble which
2. A compound microscope has a magnification
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arises due to interference of light.

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of 30. The focal length of eye piece is 5 cm.

(ii) Interference occurs due to light reflection Assuming the final image to be at least distance
off the front of the thin soap film and back of distinct vision, find the magnification
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surface of thin soap films. produced by the objective.

(iii) When beam of light passes through the
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Solution :
prism, light is splitted into colours called
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dispersion. Colours of soap bubble is due Given data :

to interference colours of light in prism is Magnification of compound microscope m = 30
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due to dispersion. Focal length of eye piece fe = 5 cm

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9. A small disc is placed in the path of the light Image distance D = 25 cm

from distance source. Will the center of the To find :
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shadow be bright or dark? Magnification of objective mo = ?

Ans. (i) Wave diffracted from the edge of circular Formula : Magnification m = mome
obstacle interfere constructive at the center
 D
of the shadow resulting in the formation of
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m = mo 1+ 
bright spot.  fe 
(ii) Centre of the shadow is bright due to
diffraction  25 
30 = mo 1 + 
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 5
10. When a wave undergoes reflection at a denser Þ mo = 5
medium, what happens to its phase?
mo = 5
Ans. When a wave undergoes a reflection at a denser
medium then its rest reflected as through and
vice versa. So its phase changes at 180º.
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additional questions and answers

Choose the Correct Answer 1 mark
1. A light bulb is placed between two mirrors 8. The light reflected by plane mirror may form
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(plane) inclined at an angle of 60º. Number of a real images.
images formed are (a) If the rays incident on the mirror are
(a) 2 (b) 4 diverging
(c) 5 (d) 6 [Ans. (c) 5]
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(b) If the rays incident on the mirror are
2. Two plane mirror are inclined at an angle of converging
72º.The number of images of a point object (c) If the object is placed very close to mirror
placed between them will be (d) Under no circumstance
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(a) 2 (b) 3 [Ans. (b) If the rays incident on the mirror
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(c) 4 (d) 5 [Ans. (c) 4] are converging]

3. To get three images of a single object, one 9. A man is 180 cm tall and his eyes are 10 cm
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should have two plane mirror at an angle of below the top of his head. In order to see his
(a) 30º (b) 60º entire height right from toe to head, he uses
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a plane mirror kept at a distance of 1 m from
OPTICS
(c) 90º (d) 120º
him. The minimum length of the plane mirror
[Ans. (c) 90º] required is
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4. A man of length h requires a mirror of length (a) 180 cm (b) 90 cm

at least equal to, to see his own complete image (c) 85 cm (d) 170 cm
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h h [Ans. (b) 90 cm]

(a) (b)
4 3
10. A small object is placed 10 cm infront of a
h
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(c) (d) h plane mirror. If you stand behind the object 30

2 h cm from the object and look at its image, the
[Ans. (c) ]
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2 distance foursed for your eye will be

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5. Two plane mirrors are at 45º to each other. (a) 60 cm (b) 20 cm

If an object is placed between them than the
(c) 40 cm (d) 80 cm
number of images will be
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[Ans. (c) 40 cm]

(a) 5 (b) 9
(c) 7 (d) 8 [Ans. (c) 7] 11. Two plane mirror are at right angles to each
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other. A man stands between them and combs

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6. An object is at a distance of 0.5 in front of a hair with his right hand. In how many of the
plane mirror. Distance between the object and images will he be seen using his right hand.
image is
(a) None (b) 1
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(a) 0.5 m (b) 1 m

(c) 2 (d) 3 [Ans. (b) 1]
(c) 7 (d) 8 [Ans. (b) 1 m]
12. A ray of light is incidenting normally on a
7. A man runs towards a mirror at a speed 15 m/s. plane mirror. The angle of reflection will be
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The speed of the image relative to the man is

(a) 0º
(a) 15 ms–1 (b) 30 ms–1
(b) 90º
(c) 35 ms–1 (d) 20 ms–1
(c) will not be reflected
[Ans. (b) 30 ms–1]
(d) None of these [Ans. (a) 0º]
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Assertion - Reason 2. (I) Wavefront division used to produce two
coherent sources.
Direction:
(II)
Destructive interference occurs at the
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason
centre of the shadow.
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
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(b) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is (III)
Newton used a prism to produce
the false explanation of the Assertion. dispersion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (IV)
Atmospheric particles changes the
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(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true. direction of the sunlight.
1. Assertion : Nicol prism is used to produce and (a) I and II only (b) I, II and IV only
analyse plane polarised light. (c) I, II and III only (d) I, III and IV only
Reason : Nicol prism reduces the intensity [Ans. (d) I, III and IV only]
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of light to zero.
Choose the incorrect statements
[Ans. (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false]
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1. (a) Angular dispersion produced by a prism
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2. Assertion : The unpolarised light and polarised depends upon angle of the prism.
light can be distinguished from
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(b)
Dispersive power is the ability of the
OPTICS
each other by using polaroid.
material of the prism to cause dispersion.
Reason : A polaroid is capable of producing
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plane polarised beams of light. (c)

Dispersive power is a dimensionless
quality.
[Ans. (a) Assertion and Reason are correct
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and Reason is the correct explanation of (d) Dispersive power is always negative.
Assertion] [ Ans. (d) Dispersive power is always negative.]
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Choose the correct statements 2. (a) Blue colour of sky appears due to scattering
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of blue colour.
1. (I) The fringe width is inversely proportional
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to the distance between the two slits. (b) Blue colour has shortest wave length in
(II) In Young's experiment, the fringe width visible spectrum.
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for dark fringes is different from that for (c) A red colour scatters least.
white fringes.
(d) A red object appears dark in the yellow
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(III) In Young's experiment, the width of each

light.
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slit is about 0.05 mm.

(IV) In Young's experiment, the double slit S1 [Ans. (c) A red colour scatters least.]
and S2 are separated by a distance of about
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0.3 mm. Very Short Answer 2 marks

(a) I and II only (b) I and IV only
(c) I, II and III only (d) I, II, III and IV 1. What is reflection?
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Ans. The bouncing back of light into the same medium

[Ans. (b) I and IV only]
when it encounters a reflecting surface is called
reflection of light.
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49. Images formed by totally reflected light are 3. What is focus (or) focal point of a mirror?
brighter than the images formed by ordinary Ans. (i) Light rays travelling parallel and close
reflected light. Why?
to the principal axis when incident on a
Ans. This is because, in total internal reflection,
spherical mirror, converge at a point for
100% of incident light gets reflected. On the
other hand, in ordinary reflection. 20%-30% of concave mirror or appear to diverge from
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incident light is lost. So, images formed in the a point for convex mirror on the principal
first case are brighter than the images formed in axis.
the second case. (ii) This point is called the focus or focal point
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50. How does focal length of a lens change when (F) of the mirror.
red light is replaced by blue light?
4. Write the difference between paraxial rays and
1 1 1 
Ans. = (μ21 – 1)  −  . As μb > μr marginal rays.
f  R1 R 2  Ans.
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51. A lens whose radii of curvature are different Paraxial Rays Marginal Rays
is forming the image of an object placed on its The rays travelling very the rays travelling far
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axis. If the surfaces of the lens facing the object close to the principal away from the principal
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and image are interchanged will the position axis and make small axis and fall on the
of the image change? angles with it are called mirror far away from
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Solution : No, we know that paraxial rays. the pole are called as
marginal rays.
Unit 6
1 1 1 
= (µ 21 −1)  − 
o
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f  R1 R 2  5. Define refractive index of a medium.

When we interchange R1 and R2 the value of f Ans. Refractive index of a transparent medium is
ab
does not change except for the sign. So, the defined as the ratio of speed of light in vacuum
L
image will be formed at the same position. (or air) to the speed of light in that medium.
Short Answer 3 marks refractive index n of a medium
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speed of light in vacuum (c)

1. Write the conditions for nature of objects and =
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images. speed of light in medium (v)

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Ans.
c
n=
v
Nature of object / 6. Write the conditions for obtaining clear and
Condition
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image broad interference bands.

1. Real Image Rays actually converge at Ans. (i) The screen should be as far away from the
the image.
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source as possible.
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2. Virtual Image Rays appear to diverge (ii) The wavelength of light used must be larger.
from the image.
(iii) The two coherent sources (here S1 and S2)
3. Real Object Rays actually diverge from
the object. must be as close as possible.
w
4. Virtual Object Rays appear to converge at 7. Discuss difraction at single slit and obtain the
the object. condition for nth maxima.
2. What is principal axis of the mirror? Ans. (i) For points of maxima, the slit is to be
w
Ans. (i) The line joining the pole and the centre of divided in to odd number of equal parts
curvature is called the principal axis of so that one part remains un-cancelled
the mirror. making the point P appear bright.
(ii) The light ray travelling along the principal The condition for first maximum is,
axis towards the mirror after reflection a λ 3λ
travels back along the same principal axis. sin θ = (or) asin θ =
It is also called optical axis. 3 2 2
58


For 0 < • u • < f (ii) A ray passing through or appear to pass
1 1 1 through the principal focus, after reflection
= − < 0 i.e. u < 0
v f u will travel parallel to the principal axis.
(image on left ; virtual) (Figure(b))
1 1
m
Also for this case, < i.e. •u• < •v• B
v u
(image enlarged) A
P
C F
13. The image of a candle is formed by a convex
co
lens on a screen. The lower half of the lens is (b)
painted black to make it completely opaque.
Draw the ray diagram to show the image (iii) A ray passing through the centre of
formation. How will this image be different curvature retraces its path after reflection as
from the one obtained when the lens is not it is a case of normal incidence. (Figure(c))
s.
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painted black?
Ans. The full size of the image will be obtained. But B
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the intensity of image will be reduced. This is
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A
C F P
because the number of rays of light refracted
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through different parts of the lens will be (c)

Unit 6
reduced.
A (iv) A ray falling on the pole will get reflected
o
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as per law of reflection keeping principal

B′
axis as the normal. (Figure(d))
ab L
B F F
B
A′
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A
C F P
Long Answer 5 marks

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(d)
1. Draw and explain the image formation in
spherical mirrors. 2. Derive the equation for lateral magnification
in spherical mirrors.
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Ans. The image can be located by graphical

.s
construction. To locate the point of an image, a Ans. (i) The lateral or transverse magnification is
minimum of two rays must meet at that point. defined as the ratio of the height of the
S
(i) A ray parallel to the principal axis after image to the height of the object.
w
reflection will pass through or appear (ii)The height of the object and image are
to pass through the principle focus.
measured perpendicular to the principal
(Figure(a))
w
axis.
height of the image (h ′ )
B
magnification (m) =
heigh of the object (h)
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A
C F P h′
m=
h
(a) Applying proper sign conventions for equation (1),
A ′B′ PA ′
= ...(1)
AB PA
AʹBʹ = –h, AB = h, PAʹ = –v, PA = –u
60


5. Prove the laws of reflection using Huygen's (ix) For the two right angle triangles, ΔABBʹ
principle. and ΔBʹ Aʹ Aʹ, the right angles, ∠B and
Ans. (i) Consider a parallel beam of light, incident ∠Aʹ are equal, (∠B and ∠A = 90º); the two
on a reflecting plane surface such as a plane sides, AAʹ and BBʹ are equal, (AAʹ= BBʹ);
mirror XY as shown in Figure. the side ABʹ is the common.
m
(x) Thus, the two triangles are congruent. As per
L'
M
the property of congruency, the two angles,
N
B A'
N'
∠BABʹ and Aʹ Bʹ Aʹ must also be equal.
co
M'
i=r
L
i i
r
r Hence, the laws of reflection are proved.
A B'
X Y Numerical Problems
Laws of reflection
s.
1. The focal length of an equiconvex lens is equal
MK
(ii) The incident wavefront is AB and

to the radius of curvature of either face. What
the reflected wavefront is AʹBʹ in the
is the value of refractive index of the material
same medium. These wavefronts are
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of the lens?
ok
perpendicular to the incident rays L, M
Solution :
and reflected rays Lʹ, Mʹ respectively.
 1 1 
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1
(iii) By the time point A of the incident = (µ − 1)  −
 R1 R 2 
Unit 6
wavefront touches the reflecting surface, f

o
the point B is yet to travel a distance BBʹ to  2
MI
1
= (μ – 1)   ∴f = R
touch the reflecting surface a Bʹ. f  f
(iv) When the point B falls on the reflecting
ab
1
L
surface at Bʹ, the point A would have = (μ – 1)

2
reached Aʹ. μ = 1.5
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(v) This is applicable to all the points on the

2. A ray of light falls on a transparent sphere
wavefront. Thus, the reflected wavefront
ur
with centre C as shown in the figure. The

AʹBʹ emanates as a plane wavefront. The
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ray emerges from the sphere paralled to the

two normals N and Nʹ are considered at line AB. Find the angle of refraction at A if
the points where the rays L and M fall on refraction index of the material of the sphere
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.s
the reflecting surface. is 3 .

(vi) As reflection happens in the same medium, Air Air
the speed of light is same before and after
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A B
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the reflection.
60º C
(vii) Hence, the time taken for the ray to travel
from B to Bʹ is the same as the time taken
Solution :
w
for the ray to travel from A to Aʹ.

(viii) Thus, the distance BBʹ is equal to the sin i
Formula : Refractive index, μ =
distance AAʹ; (AAʹ = BBʹ). sin r
sin 60º
w
(a) Th e incident rays, the reflected rays 3 = sin r

and the normal are in the same plane.
3 1 1
(b) Angle of incidence, ∠i = ∠NAL = 90º sin r = × =
– ∠NAB = ∠BABʹ 2 3 2
sin r = sin 30º
Angle of reflection, Þ r = 30º
∠r = ∠Nʹ Bʹ Mʹ = 90º – ∠Nʹ Bʹ Aʹ = Aʹ Bʹ Aʹ Angle of refraction = 30º.
62


If y be the vertical fall in time t, then 41. A telescope has an objective of diameter 60 cm.
 1 
2
The focal lengths of the objective and eyepiece
1 2 1 
y = gt = × 10  3×105  m = 5.5 × 10–11m are 2.0 m and 1.0 cm respectively. The telescope
2 2  
is directed to view two distant almost point
This result is independent of the mass of the
sources of light, (e.g., two stars of a binary).
particle. As it is clear from the above result, the
The sources are roughly at the same distance
m
downward distance covered by the corpuscle
= (=104 light year) along the line of sight but
is only 5.5 × 10–11 m for 103 m of horizontal
are separated transverse to the line of sight by
distance covered by the corpuscle. So, we can
a distance of 1010 m. Will the telescope resolve
neglect the effect of earth's gravitation and
co
the two objects i.e. will it see two distant stars?
safely assume that the corpuscles travels along a
Solution :
straight line.
Data on focal lengths is not required. The limit
40. Light of wavelength 5000 Å falls on a plane of resolution of the telescope is given by
reflecting surface. What are the wavelength
s.
1.22λ 1.22 × 6 ×10 −7
MK
and frequency of reflected light? For what θ= = rad = 1.22 × 10–6 rad
D 0.60
angle of incidence is the reflected ray normal
to the incident ray? Here, the value of chosen corresponds roughly
S
to the wavelength of yellow light.
ok
Ans. Reflection does not change wavelength.
The transverse separation between the two
Frequency remains unchanged both in reflection
sources subtends an angle equal to
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and refraction.
Unit 6
1010 m
c 3×108 ≈ 10–10 red.
∴ λ = 5000 Å . Again, v = = Hz 9.46´1019 m
o
MI
λ 5000×10−10
Here, we have used 1 light year = 9.46 × 1015 m
= 6 × 1014 Hz
This angle is much too small compared to θ
ab
Again i = r and i + r = 90º.

L
above. The two stars of the binary cannot be

∴i = 45º. resolved by the given telescope.
FR

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.s
S
w
w
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74

UNIT DUAL NATURE OF

7 RADIATION AND
m
MATTER
co
s.
MK
CHAPTER SNAPSHOT
S
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7.1 Introduction 7.2.7 Particle nature of light:
7.1.1 Electron emission Einstein’s explanation
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7.2 Photo Electric Effect 7.2.8 Photo electric cells and their
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7.2.1 Hertz, Hallwachs and Lenard’s applications

observation 7.3 Matter waves
ab L
7.2.2 Effect of intensity of incident light on 7.3.1 Introduction - Wave nature of

photoelectric current particles
FR
7.3.2 De Broglie wave length

7.2.3 Effect of potential difference on
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7.3.3 De Broglie wave length of elec-

photoelectric current
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trons
7.2.4 Effect of frequency of incident light
7.3.4 Davisson – Germer experiment
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on stopping potential
.s
7.3.5 Electron Microscope

7.2.5 Laws of photoelectric effect 7.4 X - Rays
S
7.2.6 Concept of quantization of energy

w
w
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75

CONCEPT MAP
Dual nature of radiation and matter
m
co
Electron emission Photoelectric effect Matter waves X-rays
s.
MK
Observations of De Broglie
S
Thermionic Introduction
ok
emission Hertz, Hallwachs hypothesis
and Lenard
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Unit 7
De Broglie Production of
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Field emission Effect of intensity equation X-rays

ab L
De Broglie
Photoelectric Effect of potential
wavelength of X-ray spectra
FR
emission difference
election
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Secondary Davission-Germer Continuous

Effect of frequency
emission Experiment X-ray spectra
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.s
Quantisation of Electron Characteristic

w
energy microscope X-ray spectra

w
Einstein's
photoelectric Applications
equation
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Photocells and uses
76


Particle : Particle is a material object which is considered as a tiny concentration of
matter (localized in space and time) whereas wave is a broad distribution of
energy (not localized in space and time).
m
Electron emission : The liberation of electrons from any surface of a substance is called electron
emission.
co
Work function : The minimum energy needed for an electron to escape from the metal
surface is called work function of that metal.
Thermionic emission : The emission of electrons by supplying thermal energy is known as
thermionic emission.
s.
MK
DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER

Electric field emission : Electric field emission occurs when a very strong electric field is applied
across the metal.
S
Photoelectric emission : The emission of electrons due to irradiation of light is called photoelectric
ok
emission.
TA
Secondary emission : Secondary emission is the process in which electrons are emitted due to the
bombardment of fast moving electrons.
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MI
Stopping potential : Stopping potential is that the value of the negative (retarding) potential
given to the collecting electrode A which is just sufficient to stop the most
ab
energetic photoelectrons emitted and make the photocurrent zero.

L
Threshold frequency : For a given surface, the emission of photoelectrons takes place only if the
frequency of incident light is greater than a certain minimum frequency
FR
called the threshold frequency.

ur
Matter : According to Planck, a matter is composed of a large number of oscillating

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particles (atoms) which vibrate with different frequencies.

Photon : The individual light quantum of definite energy and momentum can be
ND
.s
associated with a particle. This particle is named photon.

de Broglie waves : According to de Broglie hypothesis, all matter particles like electrons,
S
protons, neutrons in motion are associated with waves. These waves are
w
called de Broglie waves or matter waves.

Electron microscope : Wave nature of the electron is used in the construction of microscope called
electron microscope.
w
x-ray : Whenever fast moving electrons fall on the materials, a highly penetrating
radiation, x-rays, is emitted.
w
Continuous x-ray : Continuous x-ray spectrum consists of radiations of all possible wave-
spectrum lengths with a certain minimum wavelength λ0.
Characteristic x-ray : Characteristic x-ray spectra show some narrow peaks at some well – de-
spectra fined wavelengths when the target is hit by fast electrons.
77

Evaluation
I. Multiple Choice Questions:
1. The wavelength λe of an electron and λp of a 5. If a light of wavelength 330 nm is incident on a
m
photon of same energy E are related by metal with work function 3.55 eV, the electrons
(NEET 2013) are emitted. Then the wavelength of the emitted
(a) λ p µ λ e (b) λ p µ λ e electron is (Take h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
(a) < 2.75×10−9m (b) ≥ 2.75×10−9m
co
1
(c) λ p µ (d) λ p µ λ e2 (c) ≤ 2.75×10−12m (d) < 2.5×10−10m
λe 2 [Ans. (b) ≥ 2.75×10−9m]
[Ans. (d) λp ∝ λe ]
2. In an electron microscope, the electrons are 6. A photoelectric surface is illuminated
successively by monochromatic light of
s.
MK
accelerated by a voltage of 14 kV. If the voltage

is changed to 224 kV, then the de Broglie l
wavelength λ and . If the maximum kinetic
wavelength associated with the electrons 2
S
would energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the
ok
second case is 3 times that in the first case,
(a) increase by 2 times
the work function at the surface of material is
TA
(b) decrease by 2 times (NEET 2015)

Unit 7
(c) decrease by 4 times hc 2hc

(d) increase by 4 times (a) (b)
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λ λ
[Ans. (c) decrease by 4 times] hc hc
(c) (d)
ab
3. A particle of mass 3 × 10–6 g has the same 3λ 2λ

L
wavelength as an electron moving with a hc

[Ans. (d) ]
velocity 6 × 106 ms−1. The velocity of the 2λ
FR
particle is 7. In photoelectric emission, a radiation whose

(a) 1.82 × 10–18 ms–1 (b) 9 × 10–2 ms–1 frequency is 4 times threshold frequency of a
ur
certain metal is incident on the metal. Then

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(c) 3 × 10–31 ms–1 (d) 1.82 × 10–15 ms–1

the maximum possible velocity of the emitted
[Ans. (d) 1.82 × 10–15 ms–1] electron will be
ND
hv0 6hv0
.s
4. When a metallic surface is illuminated with (a) (b)

m m
radiation of wavelength λ , the stopping
S
potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated hv0

(c) 2 hv0 (d)
w
with radiation of wavelength 2λ , the stopping m 2m

V 6hv0
potential is . The threshold wavelength for [Ans. (b) ]
4 m
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the metallic surface is (NEET 2016) 8. Two radiations with photon energies 0.9 eV
(a) 4λ (b) 5λ and 3.3 eV respectively are falling on a metallic
5 surface successively. If the work function of
(c) λ (d) 3λ the metal is 0.6 eV, then the ratio of maximum
w
2
[Ans. (d) 3λ] speeds of emitted electrons will be
(a) 1:4 (b) 1:3
(c) 1:1 (d) 1:9
[Ans. (b) 1:3]
78


III. Long Answer questions : (iii) Ex.: Field emission scanning electron
microscopes, Field-emission display etc.
1. What do you mean by electron emission? Electrons emitted
Explain briefly various methods of electron
emission. – +
+
m
–
Ans. The liberation of electrons from any surface of a – +
– +
substance is called electron emission. – +
– +
(a) Thermionic emission : – +
co
(i) When a metal is heated to a high Metal Strong elect d
temperature, the free electrons on the
Field emission
surface of the metal get sufficient energy
in the form of thermal energy so that they (c) Photo electric emission :
are emitted from the metallic surface. This (i) When an electromagnetic radiation of
s.
MK

type of emission is known as thermionic suitable frequency is incident on the surface
emission. of the metal, the energy is transferred from
S
Metal
ok
Electrons liberated the radiation to the free electrons.
(ii) Hence, the free electrons get sufficient
TA
energy to cross the surface barrier and the

gy photo electric emission takes place.
Electrons
(a) (b)
o
(iii) The number of electrons emitted depends
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Electrons in the (a) metal on the intensity of the incident radiation.

ab
(b) heated metal (iv) Examples: Photo diodes, photo electric

L
(ii) The intensity of the thermionic emission cells etc.

(the number of electrons emitted) depends Radiation
FR
Emitted electrons
on the metal used and its temperature.
ur
(iii) Examples: cathode ray tubes, electron

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microscopes, X-ray tubes etc.

ND
.s
Free electrons Metal

S
Photo electric emission

w
(d) Secondary emission :

Ho Electrons
(i) When a beam of fast moving electrons
w
strikes the surface of the metal, the

kinetic energy of the striking electrons
(b) Field emission : is transferred to the free electrons on the
metal surface.
w
(i) Electric field emission occurs when a very

strong electric field is applied across the (ii) Thus the free electrons get sufficient kinetic
metal. energy so that the secondary emission of
electron occurs.
(ii) This strong field pulls the free electrons
and helps them to overcome the surface (iii) Examples: Image intensifiers, photo
barrier of the metal. multiplier tubes etc.
81


(viii) Figure shows the variation of intensity of P
the scattered electrons with the angle θ for N =
E
the accelerating voltage of 54V. For a given 50 ×10−3 ×640×10−9 32000×10−12
accelerating voltage V, the scattered wave = =
6.626×10−34 ×3×108 19.878×10−26
shows a peak or maximum at an angle of
N = 1609.8 × 1014 s–1
m
50° to the incident electron beam.
No. of protons emitted per second = 1.61 × 1017 s–1
(ix) This peak in intensity is attributed to the
constructive interference of electrons 2. Calculate the maximum kinetic energy and
maximum velocity of the photoelectrons
co
diffracted from various atomic layers of
the target material. emitted when the stopping potential is 81V for
the photoelectric emission experiment.
(x) From the known value of interplanar
Solution :
spacing of Nickel, the wavelength of the
Given data:
electron wave has been experimentally
s.
MK
Stopping potential V0 = 81 V
calculated as 1.65Å.
To find :
(xi) The wavelength can also be calculated
Maximum Kinetic Energy = ?
S
from de Broglie relation for V = 54 V from
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Maximum velocity of photoelectrons emitted
equation as
Vmax = ?
1
TA
12.27 12.27 (i) eV0 = mυ2max = Kinetic Energymax

λ = Å= 2
Unit 7
V 54
e - charge of the electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C
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λ = 1.67 Å K.E.max = eV0 = 1.6 × 10–19 × 81

(xii) This value agrees well with the = 129.6 × 10–19 J
ab
experimentally observed wavelength Kinetic Energymax = 1.3 × 10–17 J

L
of 1.65Å. Thus this experiment directly 2eV0

verifies de Broglie’s hypothesis of the wave (ii) Maximum velocity v2max =
m
FR
nature of moving particles. 2eV0

∴vmax =
m
ur
IV. Numerical Problems: m - mass of the e– = 9.1 × 10–31

IE
2×1.3×10−17
1. How many photons per second emanate from
max
v = −31
= 0.2857 ×1014
a 50 mW laser of 640 nm? 9.1×10
ND
.s
Solution :
= 28 .57´1012
Given data: vmax = 5.3 × 106 ms–1

S
Wavelength of the laser = 640 nm

w
λ = 640 × 10–9 m 3. Calculate the energies of the photons

associated with the following radiation:
Power of laser P = 50 mw = 50 × 10–3 w
(i) violet light of 413 nm (ii) X-rays of 0.1 nm
w
To find : (iii) radio waves of 10 m.

No. of photons emitted per second N = ? Solution :
hc
The energy of a photon E = hv = Given data :
λ
w
(i) Wavelength of violet light λv= 413 nm

c - velocity of light = 3 × 108 ms–1
= 413 × 10–9 m
h - planck constant = 6.626 × 10–34 Js. (ii) Wavelength of X-rays λx = 0.1 nm
P = no. of photons emitted per second × energy = 0.1 × 10–9 m
of one photon. (iii) Wavelength of radio waves λr = 10 m
P = NE Energy of the photons associated with the
radiation E = ?
88


1. P and E denote the linear momentum and 6. When the intensity of a light source is
energy of a photon. If the wavelength is increased
m
decreased. (a) the number of photons emitted by the source
(a) Both P and E increase in unit time increases
(b) P increases and E decreases (b) more energetic photons are emitted
co
(c) P decreases and E increases (c) faster photons are emitted
(d) both P & E decrease (d) total energy of the photons emitted per unit
[Ans. (a) Both P and E increase] time decreases.
[Ans. (a) the number of photons emitted by
s.
2. The work function of a metal is hv0. Light
MK

the source in unit time increases]
of frequency v falls on this metal. The
photoelectric effect will take place only if 7. Photoelectron effect supports quantum nature
S
(a) v < v0 (b) v > 2v0 of light because
ok
(c) v < v0 (d) v > v0/2 (a) there is a minimum frequency which no
photo electrons are emitted
TA
[Ans. (a) v > v0]

(b) the maximum kinetic energy of photo
3. When stopping potential is applied in an electrons depends only one the frequency of
o
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experiment on photoelectric effect, no

light and not in intensity
photocurrent is observed. This means that.
(c) even when the metal surface is faintly
ab
(a) The emission of photoelectrons is stopped

L
illuminated the photoelectrons leave the

(b) The photoelectrons are emitted but are surface immedietly
reabsorbed by the emitter metal
(d) All the above. [Ans. (d) All the above]
FR
(c) The photo electrons are accumulated near

the collector plate 8. A photon of energy hv is absorbed by a free
ur
(d) The photoelectrons are dispersed from the electrons of a metal having work function ϕ< hv
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sides of the apparatus. (a) The electron is sure to come out

[Ans. (b) The photoelectrons are emitted but (b) The electron is sure to come out with a
ND
.s
are reabsorbed by the emitter metal] kinetic energy ϕ < hv

(c) Either the electron does not come out or it
4. If the frequency of light in a photoelectron
comes out with kinetic energy hv – ϕ
S
experiment is doubled the stopping potential

w
will (d) It may come out with a kinetic energy less

than hv – ϕ [Ans. (d) It may come out
(a) be doubled (b) be halved
with a kinetic energy less than hv – ϕ]
(c) become more than double
w
(d) become less than double. 9. If the wavelength of light in an expt on

photoelectric effect is doubled
[Ans. (c) become more than double]
(a) the photoelectric emission will not take
w
5. Light of wavelength falls on a metal having place

h (b) the photoelectric emission may not take
work function c . Photoelectric effect will
l0 place
place only if
(a) λ ≥ λ0 (b) λ ≥ 2λ0 (c) the stopping potential will increase
(c) λ ≤ λ0 (d) λ < λ0/2. (d) the stopping potential will decrease
[Ans. (c) λ ≤ λ0] [Ans. (d) the stopping potential will decrease]
93


Assertion - Reason (a) I and II only (b) II and III only
Direction: (c) I, II and III only (d) I, II, III and IV
(a) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason [Ans. (c) I, II and III only]
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is
Choose the Incorrect statements
m
the false explanation of the Assertion. 1. (a) Photo cells are used for reproduction of
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. sound in motion picture.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true. (b) Photo cells used as times to measure the
co
speeds of athletes during a race.
1. Assertion :
Electromagnetic radiations are
regarded as waves. (c) Photo cell converts light energy into
thermal energy
Reason : Because they exhibit interference,
diffraction and polarization under (d) Photo cells used to measure the interncity
s.
of the light in photography.
MK
some suitable circumstances.

[Ans. (a) Assertion and Reason are correct [Ans. (c) Photo cell converts light energy
into thermal energy]
and Reason is the correct explanation of
S
ok
Assertion] 2. (a) The threshold frequency of photoelectric
effect supports the particle nature of
2. Assertion :
Thermionic emission occurs in sunlight.
TA
metals when they are heated to a

Unit 7
(b) The specific charge of positive rays is

very high temperature. constant.
o
MI
Reason : Electrons emitted due to the

(c) Photosensitive of a metal is high of its
electromagnetic radiation.
work function is small
ab
[Ans. (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false]

L
(d) The stopping potential is independent of

intensity of the incident light.
Choose the correct statements [Ans. (b) The specific charge of positive rays
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1. (I)
Cadmium show photoelectric emission is constant.]
for ultraviolet light.
ur
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(II)
Photosensitive materials eject photo
Very Short Answer 2 marks
electrons
(III)
The photocurrent becomes zero at a
ND
1. What is meant by surface barrier?

.s
particular negative potential Ans. (i) To leave the metallic surface, the free
(IV)
The liberation of electrons from any electrons must cross a potential barrier
S
surface of a substance is electron emission. created by the positive nuclei of the metal.
w
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) I and II only (ii) The potential barrier which prevents free
(c) I and III only (d) I, II and III only electrons from leaving the metallic surface
is called surface barrier.
w
[Ans. (a) I, II, III and IV]

2. (I)
Metal selected for electron emission 2. Give example for photosensitive materials.
Why is called so?
should have low work function.
w
Ans. (i) Metals like cadmium, zinc, magnesium,

(II)
Potential barrier presents leaving free alkali metals lithium, sodium, caesium
electron from the metallic surface respond to visible light.
(III) Potential barrier created by the positive
(ii) The materials which eject photoelectrons
nuclei of the metal
upon irradiation of electromagnetic wave of
(IV) Electron in the outermost shells are tightly suitable wavelength are called photosensitive
pound to the nucleus. materials.
106


18. Does the stopping potential in photoelectric 23. A proton and a deuteron have the same
emission depend upon velocity, what is the ratio of their de Broglie
wavelengths?
(i) the intensity of the incident radiation in P 1
a photocell? Ans. de Broglie wavelength λ = ∝ for the same
velocity v. m m
(ii) the frequency of the incident radiation?
m
λp md 2m p 2
Ans. (i) No, = = = = 2.1 .
λd mp mp 1
(ii) Yes, stopping potential increases with
increases of frequency. 24. If the intensity of light falling on a metal
co
plate is doubled, what will be the effect on
19. Ultraviolet light is incident on two photocurrent and maximum kinetic energy of
photosensitive materials having work emitted photoelectrons?
functions W1 and W2 (W1 > W2). In which case Ans. As photocurrent is proportional to intensity of
s.
incident light, the photocurrent will be doubled;
MK
will the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons

be greater? Why? but the maximum kinetic energy of emitted
photoelectrons does not depend upon the
Ans. From Einstein's photoelectric equation hv = W
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intensity of incident light; hence the maximum
ok
+ Ek kinetic energy remains unchanged.
Ek = hv – W 25. If the potential difference used to accelerate
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Clearly, smaller the work function, greater is the electrons is tripled, by what factor does the
Unit 7
K.E. As W1 > W2, K.E for metal of work function de Broglie wavelength of the electron beam
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W2 will be greater. change?

h h
20. With what purpose was famous Davisson- Ans. λ = ; λʹ = ;
ab
2mqV 3 × 2meV
L
Germer experiment with electrons performed?

λ′ 1 λ
Ans. Davisson-Germer experiment was performed = or
λ 3 3
FR
to verify wave nature of electrons. It is the first

experimental evidence for wave nature of matter. 26. The de Broglie wavelength associated with
ur
an electron accelerated through a potential

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21. If the potential difference used to accelerate difference V is λ. What will be its wavelength
electrons is tripled, by what factor does de when the accelerating potential is increased
ND
Broglie wavelength of electrons beam change? to 4V?

.s
h h λ
Ans. de Broglie wavelength of electrons accelerated Ans. λ = ; λʹ = =
2mqV 2me ( 4V ) 2
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through a potential difference of V volts is

h
w
λ=
2mqV Short Answer 3 marks
When accelerating voltage V is tripled, the de 1. Derive an expression for De Broglie wave
1
w
Broglie wavelength becomes times. length.

3
Ans. (i) The momentum of photon of frequency ν is
22. Which of the two :
given by
w
(i) light or hv h
(ii)
moving material particle is concerned p = =
c λ
with de-Broglie hypothesis? (ii) The wavelength of a photon in terms of its
Ans. Moving material particle is concerned with de momentum is
Broglie hypothesis. h
λ =
p
108


Reason : de Broglie wavelength associated with (v) When a photon interacts with matter
electron is (photon-electron collision), the total
h 1 energy, total linear momentum and
λ= Þλ∝
2mqV V angular momentum are conserved. Since
Obviously when accelerating potential becomes photon may be absorbed or a new photon
m
4 V, the de-Broglie wavelength reduces to half. may be produced in such interactions, the
number of photons may not be conserved.
14. Red light however bright it is, cannot produce
the emission of electrons from a clean zinc
co
surface, but even weak ultraviolet radiation 2. Write the application of photo cells.
can do so; why? Ans. (i) Photo cells are used as switches and
Ans. (i) The photoemission of electrons does not sensors.
depend on the intensity but it depends on (ii) Automatic lights that turn on when it gets
dark use photocells.
s.
the frequency and hence on the energy of
MK

photon of incident light. (iii) Street lights that switch on and off
(ii) If the energy of photon is greater than according to whether it is night or day.
S
(iv) Photo cells are used for reproduction of
ok
the work function, the photoemission
of electrons results however weak the sound in motion pictures.
(v) Used as timers to measure the speeds of
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incident radiation may be.

(iii) The energy of photon of red light is less athletes during a race.
than the work function of zinc, so red light (vi) Photo cells of exposure meters in
o
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cannot emit photoelectrons. photography are used to measure the

intensity of the given light and to calculate
(iv) The energy of photon of ultraviolet light is
ab
the exact time of exposure.

L
greater than the work function of zinc, so

ultraviolet light can emit photoelectrons.
3. Explain the production of x-rays.
FR
Ans. (i) X-rays are produced in x-ray tube which is

Long Answer 5 marks
essentially a discharge tube.
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(ii) A tungsten filament F is heated to

1. Write the characteristics of photons. incandescence by a battery. As a result,
Ans. (i) The photons of light of frequency ν and electrons are emitted from it by thermionic
ND
.s
wavelength λ will have energy, given by emission.

hc Evacuated tube
E = hv = X-ray
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λ
(ii) The energy of a photon is determined by Target
w
F
the frequency of the radiation and not
Electrons
by its intensity and the intensity has no
Cathode Anode
w
relation with the energy of the individual L.T.

photons in the beam.
H.T.
(iii) The photons travel with the velocity of
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light and its momentum is given by

h hv
p= =
λ c
(iv) Since photons are electrically neutral, they
are unaffected by electric and magnetic Production of x-rays
fields.
111


(v) During the downward transition, the (ii) Medical therapy Since x-rays can kill
energy difference between the levels is diseased tissues, they are employed to cure
given out in the form of x– ray photon of skin diseases, malignant tumours etc.
definite wavelength. (iii) Industry X-rays are used to check for flaws
in welded joints, motor tyres, tennis balls
and wood. At the custom post, they are
m
O
used for detection of contraband goods.
n=4
N (iv) Scientific research X-ray diffraction
Mα Mγ
Mβ is important tool to study the structure
n=3
co
M of the crystalline materials – that is, the
arrangement of atoms and molecules in
Lα
Lβ
Lγ
Lδ
crystals.
L
n=2 Numerical Problems
s.
MK

1. Determine the distance of closed approach
when an alpha particle of kinetic energy
4.5MeV strikes a nucleus of Z = 80, stops and
S
ok
reverses its direction.
Kα Kγ Kε
Kβ Kδ Solution :
TA
Let r be the center to centre distance between the

alpha particle and the nucleus (Z = 80). When
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the alpha particle is at the stopping point, then

K
n=1 1 ( Ze )( 2e )
K =
ab
4πε 0 r
L
Origin of characteristic x-ray spectra

1 2 Ze 2
(vi) Such wavelengths, characteristic of the (or) r = .
target, constitute the line spectrum. 4πε 0 K
FR
(vii) It is evident that K-series of lines in the 9 × 109 × 2 × 80e 2

=
ur
x-ray spectrum of an element arises due to 4.5 MeV

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( )
2
the electronic transitions from L, M, N, . . 9 × 109 × 2 × 80 × 1.6 × 10 −19
levels to the K-level. Similarly, the longer =
wavelength L-series originates when an 4.5 × 106 × 1.6 × 10 −19 J
ND
.s
L-electron is knocked out of the atom and 9 × 160 × 16

= × 10–16 = 512 × 10–16m
the corresponding vacancy is filled by the 4.5
electronic transitions from M, N, O,... and = 5.12 × 10–14 m.
S
so on.
w
(viii) The Kα and Kβ of the K-series of 2. A 12.3 eV electron beam is used to bombard
molybdenum are shown by the two peaks gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. Upto
in its x-ray spectrum. which energy level the hydrogen atoms would
w
be excited?
6. Write the application of x-rays
Calculate the wavelengths of the second
Ans. X-rays are being used in many fields. Let us list member of Lyman series and second member
a few of them.
w
of Balmer series.
(i) Medical diagnosis X-rays can pass
Solution :
through flesh more easily than through
bones. Thus an x-ray radiograph containing The energy of electron in the nth orbit of hydrogen
a deep shadow of the bones and a light atom is
shadow of the flesh may be obtained. X-ray 13.6
En = – 2 eV
radiographs are used to detect fractures, n
foreign bodies, diseased organs etc.
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40. (a) Define the term 'intensity of radiation' in 42. An electron and a proton, each have de Broglie
terms of photon picture of light. wavelength of 1.00 nm.
(b) Two monochromatic beams, one red (a) Find the ratio of their momenta.
and the other blue, have the same
intensity. In which case (i) the number (b) Compare the kinetic energy of the proton
of photons per unit area per second is with that of the electron.
m
larger, (ii) the maximum kinetic energy Solution :
of the photoelectrons is more? Justify you h h
answer. (a) λe = and λp = , λ = λp= 1.00 nm
pe pp e
co
Ans. (a) The number of photons incident normally
per unit area per unit time in determined λe pp 1 pp 1
So, = = ⇒ = =1:1
the intensity of radiations. λp pe 1 pe 1
(b) (i) Red light, because the energy of red
1 p2
light is less than that of blue light (b) From relation K = mυ2 =
s.
MK
(hv)R < (hv)B 2 2m

(ii) Blue light, because the energy of blue pe2 p p2
light is greater than the of red light
S
Ke = 2m and Kp =
ok
(hv)B > (hv)R e 2m p
41. When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps Kp p 2p 2me me
TA
= × 2 =
from the third excited state to the ground Ke 2m p pe mp
Unit 7
state how would the de Broglie wavelength

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associated with the electron change? Justify Since me <<< mp, So Kp <<< Ke.
your answer.
Kp 9.1×10−31
Solution :
ab
=
L
de Broglie wavelength associated with a moving Ke 1.67×10−27

charge particle having a KE. 'K can be given as = 5.4 × 10–4
FR
h h
λ= = ...(1)
p 2mK 43. Write briefly the underlying principle used in
ur
 2 
 K = 1 mν 2 = p 
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 Davision - Germer experiment to verify wave

2 2m 
The kinetic energy of the electron in any orbit of nature of electrons experimentally. What is
hydrogen atom can be given as the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron with
ND
.s
13.6  13.6 kinetic energy (KE) 120 eV?

K = –E = –  2 eV = 2 ...(2)
 n  n Solution :
S
Let K1 and K4 be the KE of the electron in ground Diffraction effects are observed for beams of
w
state and third excited state, where n1 = 1 electrons scattered by the crystals.
show ground state and n2 = 4 shows third excited h h h
state. λ = = =
p 2mE k 2meV
w
Using the concept of equation (1) & (2), we have

λ1 K4 n12 6.63×10−34
= = ==
λ4 K1 n22 2×9.1×10−31 ×1.6×10−19 ×120
w
λ1 12 1 λ
= = ⇒λ1 = 4 λ = 0.112 nm
λ4 4 2
4 4
i.e. the wavelength in the ground state will
decrease.

122

UNIT ATOMIC AND

8 NUCLEAR PHYSICS
m
co
CHAPTER SNAPSHOT
8.1 Introduction
s.
8.4.3
MK
Atomic and nuclear masses

8.2 Electric discharge through gases 8.4.4 Size and density of the nucleus
e
8.2.1 Determination of specific charge   of 8.4.5 Mass defect and binding energy
S
ok
m
8.4.6 Binding energy curve
an electron –Thomson’s experiment
8.5 Nuclear Force
TA
8.2.2 Determination of charge of an electron –

Millikan’s oil drop experiment 8.6 Radioactivity
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8.6.1 Alpha decay

8.3
Atom models
8.3.1 J. J. Thomson’s Model (Water melon 8.6.2 Beta decay
ab
8.6.3
L
model) Gamma decay

8.3.2 Rutherford’s model 8.6.4 Law of radioactive decay
8.6.5
FR
8.3.3 Bohr atom model Half-life

8.3.4 Atomic spectra 8.6.6 Carbon dating
ur
8.6.7 Discovery of Neutrons

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8.4 Nuclei
8.4.1 Composition of nucleus 8.7 Nuclear Fission
8.4.2 Isotopes, isobars, and isotones
ND
.s
8.8 Nuclear Fusion

S
w
w
w
123

CONCEPT MAP
m
Atomic and Nuclear Physics
co
Atom models
s.
Nucleus
MK
S
ok
J.J. Thomson Properties
TA
Unit 8
o
α - scattering
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Binding energy
experiment
ab L
Redioactive
Rutherford
decays
FR
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Nuclear fusion &

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Bohr atom model

fission
ND
.s
Hydrogen Elementary
S
spectrum particles
w
w
w
124


Gas discharge tube : A device used to study the conduction of electricity through gases is known
as gas discharge tube.
m
Normalized charge : Charge per unit mass is known as specific charge or normalized charge.
Large distance : The impact parameter is defined as the perpendicular distance
between the centre of the gold nucleus and the direction of velocity vector of
co
alpha particle when it is at a large distance.
Excitation potential : The energy required to excite an electron from the lower energy state to
any higher energy state is known as excitation energy and corresponding
potential supplied is known as excitation potential.
Ionization potential : The potential difference through which an electron should be accelerated to
s.
MK
get ionization energy is known as ionization potential.
ATOMIC AND NUCLEAR PHYSICS

Ionization Energy : The minimum energy required to remove an electron from an atom which is
S
in ground state is known as ionization energy.
ok
Nuclear fission : If a heavier nucleus decays into lighter nuclei, it is called nuclear fission.
TA
Nuclear fusion : If two lighter nuclei fuse to heavier nuclei, it is called nuclear fusion.
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Evaluation
ab L
I. Multiple Choice Questions :

FR
1. Suppose an alpha particle accelerated by a 3. Atomic number of H-like atom with ionization
ur
potential of V volt is allowed to collide with potential 122.4 V for n = 1 is

IE
a nucleus whose atomic number is Z, then the

(a) 1 (b) 2
distance of closest approach of alpha particle
to the nucleus is (c) 3 (d) 4 [Ans. (c) 3]
ND
.s
Z V 4. The ratio between the first three orbits of

(a) 14.4 Å (b) 14.4 Å
V Z hydrogen atom is
S
Z V (a) 1:2:3 (b) 2:4:6

w
(c) 1.44 Å (d) 1.44 Å

V Z Z (c) 1:4:9 (d) 1:3:5
[Ans. (c) 1.44 Å]
V [Ans. (c) 1:4:9]
2. In a hydrogen atom, the electron revolving
w
5. The charge of cathode rays is

in the fourth orbit, has angular momentum
equal to (a) positive (b) negative
h (c) neutral (d) not defined
w
(a) h (b) [Ans. (b) negative]

π
4h 2h
(c) (d)
π π 2h
[Ans. (d) ]
π
125


II. Short Answer Questions : 4. Write down the postulates of Bohr atom
model.
1. What are cathode rays? Ans. (i) The electron in an atom moves around
Ans. A cathode ray is a beam of electrons in a nucleus in circular orbits under the
influence of Coulomb electrostatic force
discharge tube travelling from cathode to anode of attraction. This Coulomb force gives
m
at a present of 0.01 mm of Hg across a voltage necessary centripetal force for the electron
difference between the electrodes. to undergo circular motion.
(ii) Electrons in an atom revolve around the
2. Write the properties of cathode rays.
co
nucleus only in certain discrete orbits
Ans. (i) Cathode rays possess energy and called stationary orbits where it does not
momentum and travel in a straight line radiate electromagnetic energy. Only those
with high speed of the order of 107m s-1. It discrete orbits allowed are stable orbits.
can be deflected by application of electric 5. What is meant by excitation energy?
s.
MK
and magnetic fields. The direction of Ans. The energy required to excite an electron from
lower energy state to any higher energy state is

deflection indicates that they are negatively
known as excitation energy.
S
charged particles.
ok
(ii) When the cathode rays are allowed to fall 6. Define the ionization energy and ionization
potential.
on matter, they produce heat. They affect
TA
Ans. (i) Ionization energy : The minimum energy

the photographic plates and also produce required to remove an electron from
fluorescence when they fall on certain an atom in the ground state is known as
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crystals and minerals. binding energy or ionization energy.

(iii) When the cathode rays fall on a material of (ii) Ionization potential : The potential
ab L
difference through which an electron

high atomic weight, x-rays are produced.
should be accelerated to get ionization
(iv) Cathode rays ionize the gas through which energy is known as ionization potential.
FR
they pass.
7. Write down the draw backs of Bohr atom
 1  th model.
ur
(v) The speed of cathode rays is up to   of

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10 Ans. (i) Bohr atom model is valid only for hydrogen

the speed of light.
atom or hydrogen like-atoms but not for
3. Give the results of Rutherford alpha scattering complex atoms.
ND
.s
experiment. (ii) When the spectral lines are closely

Ans. (i) An atom has a lot of empty space and examined, individual lines of hydrogen
spectrum is accompanied by a number
S
contains a tiny matter known as nucleus of faint lines. These are often called fine
w
whose size is of the order of 10–14m. structure. This is not explained by Bohr
(ii) The nucleus is positively charged and most atom model.
of the mass of the atom is concentrated in (iii) Bohr atom model fails to explain the
w
intensity variations in the spectral lines.

nucleus.
(iv) The distribution of electrons in atoms is
(iii) The nucleus is surrounded by negatively not completely explained by Bohr atom
charged electrons. model.
w
(iv) The electrons are not at rest and they 8. What is distance of closest approach?
revolve around the nucleus in circular Ans. The minimum distance between the centre of
orbits. the nucleus and the alpha particle just before it
gets reflected back through 180° is defined as the
distance of closest approach r0 (also known as
contact distance).
127


(ii) β - decay is represented by : 25. What is meant by activity or decay rate? Give
A
Z
A
X ® Y+ e + v
Z +1
− its unit.
It implies that the element X becomes Y by Ans. (i) Activity (R) or decay rate which is
giving out an electron and antineutrino. defined as the number of nuclei decayed
(iii) The gamma decay is given by : per second and it is denoted as
m
A * A dN
Z X ® Z X + gamma ( γ ) rays R=
dt
In gamma decay, there is no change in the (ii) The SI unit of activity R is Becquerel and
mass number or atomic number of the one Becquerel (Bq) is equal to one decay
co
nucleus. per second. Another standard unit for
22. In alpha decay, why the unstable nucleus the activity called Curie(Ci). 1 Curie =1
emits 24He nucleus? Why it does not emit four Ci =3.7 × 1010 decays per second
separate nucleons? 1 Ci = 3.7 × 1010 Bq.
s.
MK
Ans. (i) The unstable nucleus is composed of 26. Define curie.

many neutrons (no charge) and protons

Ans. One curie was defined as number of decays
S
(possitive charge). per second in 1 g of radium and it is equal to
ok
(ii) According to electromagnetic forces, like 3.7 ×1010 decays/s.
charges repelect unstable nuclei will loose
TA
neutrons and protons when α-particle is 27. What are the constituent particles of neutron
emitted, reducing the size of the nucleus. and proton?
(iii) In this decay, the change in B.E. appears as Ans. Neutrons and protons are made up of quarks.
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the kinetic energy of the α - particle and Proton is made up of two up quarks and one
the daughter nucleus. down quark and neutron is made up of one up
ab
quark and two down quarks

L
(iv) Therefore this energy must be shared

between these two particles and therefore
the particle and daughter nucleus must III. Long Answer questions :
FR
have equal and opposite momenta, the

ur
emitted α - particle and recoiling nucleus 1. Explain the J.J. Thomson experiment to
IE
will each have a well defined energy after determine the specific charge of electron.
the decay. Ans. Principle : In the presence of electric and
(v) Because of its smaller mass, most of the magnetic fields, the cathode rays are deflected.
ND
.s
kinetic energy goes to the α - particle. By the variation of electric and magnetic fields,
23. What is mean life of nucleus? Give the mass normalized charge or the specific charge
S
(charge per unit mass) of the cathode rays is

expression.
w
measured.
Ans. The mean life time of the nucleus is the ratio of g Fluorescent screen
sum or integration of life times of all nuclei to plates
S
the total number nuclei present initially. A +
P
w
C
O
1 _
N
τ= P'
λ Battery
High voltage
24. What is half-life of nucleus? Give the battery

w
expression. Magnet
Ans. The half-life T1/2 is the time required for the

Arrangement of J.J. Thomson
number of atoms initially present to reduce to experiment to determine the specific
one half of the initial amount. charge of an electron
1n 2 0.6931
T1/ 2 = =
λ λ
129


Exercises: 2. In the Bohr atom model, the frequency of
transitions is given by the following expression
 
1. Consider two hydrogen atoms HA and HB in v = Rc  12 − 12  , where n < m, Consider the
ground state. Assume that hydrogen atom  n m 
HA is at rest and hydrogen atom HB is moving following transitions:
with a speed and make head-on collide on
m
the stationary hydrogen atom HA. After the Transitions m→n
strike, both of them move together. What is 1 3→2
minimum value of the kinetic energy of the
2 2→1
co
moving hydrogen atom HB, such that any
one of the hydrogen atoms reaches one of the 3 3→1
excitation state. Show that the frequency of these transitions
Solution : obey sum rule (which is known as Ritz
HA - rest. u2 = 0 combination principle)
s.
MK
HB - moving with a speed u1 Solution :

After the strike, velocity of HA & HB is same Ritz combination principle states that the
spectral lines of any element include frequencies
S
i.e. v1 = v2 = v
ok
that are sum of the frequencies of two other
Mass of HA = mass of HB = m lines.
Total Kinetic energy before collission
TA
An atom can make transition from 3 to 1 (first

Unit 8
1 1 1 state) either directly (i.e. 3→1) or in two steps

Kinetic energy = mu12 + mu22 = mu12
2 2 2 3 →2 and 2 → 1. Energy is conserved so the two
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(u2 = 0) frequencies (wave number) of later add to the

Total kinetic energy after collission frequency of the first way (3 → 1)
ab L
1 According to Bohr
Kinetic energyf = (m + m ) v2 1
2 1 
1 υ = RC  2 − 2 
n m
FR
= . 2m V2 = m v2
2 1 1 5
Less in kinetic energy = K.Ef – K.Ei υ3 →2 = RC  2 − 2  =
ur
1 2 3 36
IE
= mv2 – mu12 ...(1)

2 1 1  3
1  m 2  2 υ2 → 1 = RC  2 − 2  =
ΔE =   u1 1 2  4
ND
2  2m 
.s
mu1 1 1  8
[substitute v = ] in equation (1) υ3 → 1 = RC  2 − 2  =
2m 1 3  9
S
1 Hence,
ΔE = mu12
w
4 8 5 3 32 8
1 υ3 →1 = υ3 →2 + υ2 → 1 ⇒= + = =
2ΔE = mu12 9 36 4 36 9
2 3. (a) A hydrogen atom is excited by radiation
w
The minimum energy that can be absorbed by of wavelength 97.5 nm. Find the principal
the H2 alom in ground state to go to an excited quantum number of the excited state.
state is 10.2 eV. (b)
Show that the total number of lines
w
n(n -1)
Thus minimum kinetic energy the moving H2 in emission spectrum is and
atom HB. 2
compute the total number of possible
1 lines in emission spectrum.
mu2min = 2 × 10.2 = 20.4 eV.
2 Solution :
(a) Wave length of radiation λ = 97.5 nm (or)
975å = 975 × 10–10 m
140


(a) continuous spectrum
1. Bohr’s postulate is based on
(b) band spectrum
m
(a) conservation of linear momentum
(c) characteristic spectrum
(b) quantisation of angular momentum
(d) white radiations
(c) conservation of quantum frequency
[Ans. (c) characteristic spectrum]
co
(d) none of these
[Ans. (b) quantisation of angular momentum] 7. The minimum wavelength of the X-rays
produced by electrons accelerated through
2. The circumference of an electron's orbit a potential difference of V volts is directly
of radius r must be an integral multiple of proportional to
s.
1
MK
de Broglie wavelength that is (a) (b) 1

(a) 0.529 nl (b) nλ V V
(c) 13.6 l (d) 2πr = nλ (c) V (d) V2
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[Ans. (d) 2πr = nλ] [Ans. (b) 1 ]
V
3. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is
TA
8. According to to Bohr, the relation between

13.6 eV. The energy needed to ionize H2 atom principal quantum number (n) and radius of
Unit 8
from its second excited state. the orbit (r) is

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(a) 1.51 eV (b) 3.4 eV 1 1

(a) r a (b) r a 2
(c) 13.6 eV (d) none n n
ab L
[Ans. (a) 1.51 eV] (c) r a n (d) r a n2

4. In terms of Bohr radius a0, the radius of the [Ans. (d) r a n2]
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third Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is given 9. The energy of the ground state of hydrogen is
by –13.6 eV. The energy of the first excited state is
ur
(a) 8a0 (b) 9a0 (a) –27.2 eV (b) –52.4 eV

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(c) 6a0 (d) 3 a0 (c) –3.4 eV (d) –6.8 eV

[Ans. (b) 9a0] [Ans. (c) –3.4 eV]
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.s
5. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom 10. When hydrogen atom is in its first excited
is –13.6eV. The energy corresponding to a level, its radius is ______ of the Bohr radius.
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transition between 3rd and 4th orbit is (a) twice (b) same
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(a) 3.40 eV (b) 1.51 eV (c) half (d) four times

(c) 0.85 eV (d) 0.66 eV [Ans. (d) four times]
[Ans. (d) 0.66 eV]
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11. The total energy of electrons in the ground

6. The fig. represents the observed intensity of state of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. The k.E of
X-rays emitted by an X-ray tube as a function an electron in the first excited state is
of wavelength. The sharp peaks A and B denote
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(a) 6.8 eV (b) 13.6 eV

A (c) 1.7 eV (d) 3.4 eV
B
[Ans. (d) 3.4 eV]
Intensity
144


Match the following Assertion - Reason
1. Direction:
1. J.J. Thomson (a) Atomic model for (a) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason
hydrogen atom is the correct explanation of Assertion.
m
2. Rutherford (b) Theoretical atom model (b) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is
3. Geiger and (c) Nucleus the false explanation of the Assertion.
Marsden (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
co
4. Neils Bohr (d) Scattering of alpha
particles (d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1. Assertion : Electrons in the atom are held due
(a) b c d a to coulomb forces.
(b) b c d a Reason : The atom is stable only because the
s.
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(c) c d b a centripetal force due to coulomb's

(d) b a d c [Ans. (b) b c d a] law is balanced by the centrifugal
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2. force.
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1. 1 Bohr (a) Water melon model [Ans. (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.]
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2. J.J. Thomson (b) 0.53 Å

2. Assertion : Electron capture occurs more often
Unit 8
3. 1 Curie (c) Neutrons

than positron emission in heavy
o
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4. James Chadwick (d) 3.7 × 1010 Bq

elements..
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Reason : Heavy elements exhibit radio
ab
(a) d c a b
L
activity.
(b) c d b a
(c) d c b a [Ans. (b) Assertion and Reason are true but
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(d) b a d c [Ans. (d) b a d c] Reason is the false explanation of the

Assertion]
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Choose Incorrect pair

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1. Choose the correct statements

(a) Breaking nucleus - Nuclear fission 1. (I) Cathode rays produce heat, when allowed
ND
.s
to fall on matter.
(b) Slow neutrons - 0 - 1000 eV
(II)
Cathode rays produce X-ray, when
(c) Fast neutrons - 0.5 MeV - 10 MeV
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allowed to fall on material of high atomic

(d) Nuclear fusion - 1.5 × 107 K
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weight.
[Ans. (d) Nuclear fusion - 1.5 × 107 K] (III)
Cathode rays are positively charged
2. particles
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(a) Half life of - 0.693 / λ (IV) Cathode rays ionize the gas.
radioactive nuclei
(a) I, II and III only (b) I, II and IV only
(b) Nucleus - Electrons and
(c) I and II only (d) II, III and IV only
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neutrons
(c) Density of nucleus - ρ = 2.3 × 1017 kg m–3 [Ans. (b) I, II and IV only]
(d) Control rods - Cadmium

[Ans. (b) nucleus - Electrons and neutrons]
152


2. (I) Density of all the nuclei is same. 7. Define Roentgen.
(II) Heavy elements exhibit radioactivity. Ans. It is defined as the quantity of radiation which
(III)
Amongst alpha, beta and gamma rays, produces 1.6 × 1012 pair of ions in 1 gram of air.
α-particle has maximum penetrating 8. What is meant by nuclear fission?
power.
Ans. The process of breaking up of the nucleus of a
m
(IV) Isobars are the atoms of same elements heavy atom into two fragments with the release
having the different mass number. of large amount of energy is known as nuclear
(a) I, II and III only (b) I, II and IV only fission.
co
(c) I and III only (d) I and II only 9. What is the reason for using lighter nuclei as
[Ans. (a) I, II and III only] moderators?
Ans. The moderator is a material used to convert fast
Very Short Answer 2 marks neutrons into slow neutrons.
s.
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1. Which ray has high ionising power? Why? (i) A billiard ball striking a stationary billiard

Ans. (i) Alpha ray has high ionising power.
ball of equal mass would itself be stopped
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but the same billiard ball bounces off
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(ii) a - particle has large mass and large nuclear
almost with same speed when it strikes a
cross section. So it has high ionising power.
heavier mass.
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2. What is meant by fissile material? Give an (ii) This is the reason for using lighter nuclei as
example for fissile material? moderators.
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Ans. The material which can undergo nuclear fission

easily is called fissile material. Example: 92U235. 10. Why neutrons in the nucleus are stable?
Ans. Neutrons are stable inside the nucleus. But
ab L
3. What is nuclear chain reaction?

outside the nucleus they are unstable. If the
Ans. A nuclear reaction in which the neutron used
neutron comes out of the nucleus (free neutron),
to carry out the nuclear fission reaction gets
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it decays with emission of proton, electron, and

multiplied as more and more such fission
reaction take place is called a nuclear chain antineutrino with the half life of 13 minutes.
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reaction.
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11. Classify the neutrons according to their

4. State the reasons. Why a chain reaction stops? kinetic energy.
Ans. (i) A nuclear chain reaction dies out, when Ans. Neutrons are classified according to their kinetic
ND
.s
the neutrons produced so fast they escape energy as (i) slow neutrons (0 to 1000 eV)
from the uranium without interacting. (ii) fast neutrons (0.5 MeV to 10 MeV).
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(ii) When the neutrons are lost due to 12. What causes the sun to expand?
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the extremely small size of uranium

Ans. When the hydrogen is burnt out, the sun will enter
(i.e. smaller than critical size).
into new phase called red giant where helium will
5. What are the essential parts of a nuclear fuse to become carbon. During this stage, sun will
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reactor? expand greatly in size and all its planets will be

Ans. Nuclear fuel, neutron source, moderator control engulfed in it.
roads, coolant and shielding.
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13. How does thermonuclear fusion reaction

6. A fusion reaction is more energetic than a occurs?
fission reaction. Why? Ans. When the surrounding temperature reaches
Ans. In nuclear fusion reaction, the energy liberated around 107K, lighter nuclei start fusing to form
per unit mass of the nuclei taking part in the heavier nuclei and this resulting reaction is called
reaction is many times larger than the energy thermonuclear fusion reaction.
liberated in a fission reaction.
153


14. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom Short Answer 3 marks
is –13.6 eV. What are k.E & P.E of the electron
in this state? 1. What does a neutron moderator do?
Ans. K.E of the electron = 13.6 eV Ans. (i) Moderators: The moderator is a material
P.E is equal to twice its K.E used to convert fast neutrons into slow
neutrons. Usually the moderators are chosen
m
P.E of the electron = –13.6 × 2 = –27.2 eV in such a way that it must be very light
15. Name the series of hydrogen spectrum which nucleus having mass comparable to that of
has least wavelength and where it lies in the neutrons.
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spectral region. (ii) Hence, these light nuclei undergo collision
with fast neutrons and the speed of the
Ans. (i) Lyman series has least wavelength. neutron is reduced.
(ii) Lyman series lies in ultraviolet region. (iii) A billiard ball striking a stationary billiard
16. What are thermal neutrons? Why are neutrons ball of equal mass would itself be stopped but
s.
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considered as ideal particles for nuclear the same billiard ball bounces off almost with
fission? same speed when it strikes a heavier mass.
(iv) This is the reason for using lighter nuclei as
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ok
Ans. Thermal neutrons are low-energy neutrons
moderators.
having an approximate energy of 0.025 eV.
Neutrons are consider as ideal particles for 2. Write the properties of neutrino?
TA
Ans. The neutrino has the following properties

Unit 8
nuclear fission because they are uncharged.

(i) It has zero charge
o
17. Comment on the statement - "A nucleus
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(ii) It has an antiparticle called anti-neutrino.

contains to electrons and can eject them"
(iii) Recent experiments showed that the
ab
Ans. It is true that a nucleus contains no electrons neutrino has very tiny mass.
L
as such. However, in the process of -decay, a (iv) It interacts very weakly with the matter.
neutron breaks up as follows. Therefore, it is very difficult to detect. In
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1
0
n → 11H + –10 e + v fact, in every second, trillions of neutrinos
coming from the sun are passing through
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18. Give the mass number and atomic number of our body without any interaction.
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elements on the right-hand side of the decay

process 220 Rn → Po + He. 3. What is the diameter of H2 atom?
86
Ans. Radius of the nth orbit n2 h2 ε0
Ans. . 86Rn → 84Po + 42He
220 216
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.s
rn =
Mass number of Po = 216 πmZe 2
Atomic number of Po = 84 r1 = 0.53Å
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Mass number of He = 4 ∴ The diameter of H2 = 2 × r1

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Atomic number of He = 2 = 0.53 × 2 = 1.06 Å

19. Why are heavy nuclei unstable? 4. Show that the decay rate 'R' of a sample of
a radionuclide is related to the number of
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Ans. Heavy nuclei, for example, 92U238 contains 92 radioactive nuclei 'N' at the same instant by
protons and 146 neutrons. The wide difference the expression R = λN.
between the number of protons and neutrons Ans. Rate of disintegration of a radioactive sample,
w
makes the heavy nuclei unstable. dN

R=
20. What is a reactor core? dt
According to radioactive decay law,
Ans. The fuel bundles which consist of tiny pellets of
dN
uranium oxide, are placed in calandria reactor – ∝N
vessel. The part of the reactor vessel which dt
dN
contains the fuel rod is known as reactor core. – = λN or R = λN.
dt
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5. Define atomic mass unit. Find its energy (ii) However, the fuel is easily available, cheap
equivalent in MeV. and causes very less pollution.
1 (iii) There is no problem of waste management.
Ans. Atomic mass unit is defined as th of the mass
12 (iv) Fission controlled chain reaction is
of one 126C atom. possible. The technology is well developed
m
E = mc2 and established.
= 1.66 × 10–27 × 3 × 108 × 3 × 108 J (v) There also exists the problem of waste
= 1.66 × 9 × 10–11 J management.
co
1.66×9×10−11
= MeV = 931 MeV. 9. What are radioactive elements? What are the
1.6×10−13 factors that affect radio activity?
6. If the total number of neutrons and protons
Ans. (i) The phenomenon of spontaneous
in a nuclear reaction is conserved how than is
emission of highly penetrating radiations
the energy absorbed or evolved in the reaction?
s.
MK
such as α, β, γ rays by heavy elements

Explain. having atomic number greater than 82 is

Ans. (i) Since proton number and neutron number called radioactivity and the substances
S
ok
are conserved in a nuclear reaction, the which emit these radiations are called
total rest mass of neutrons and protons is radioactive elements.
TA
the same on either side of a reaction. (ii) The radioactive phenomenon is

(ii) But the total binding energy of nuclei on the spontaneous and is unaffected by any
left side need not be the same as that on the external agent like temperature, pressure,
o
MI
right hand side. and magnetic fields.

(iii) The difference in these binding energies
ab L
appears as energy released or obsorbed in Long Answer 5 marks

nuclear reaction.
1. Explain the results of Rutherford a-particle
FR
7. Energy released per fission of a nucleus is of scattering experiment.

the order of 200 MeV whereas that per fusion
ur
Ans. (i) In 1911, Geiger and Marsden did a

is of the order of 10 MeV. But a fusion bomb
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remarkable experiment based on the

(Hydrogen bomb) is said to be more powerful advice of their teacher Rutherford, which
than a fission bomb. Explain why? is known as scattering of alpha particles by
ND
.s
Ans. (i) Energy produced per fusion is less but the gold foil.
number of nuclei per unit mass is larger on
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Flash
account of smaller mass number. of light
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Lead Lead screen

(ii) So, energy released per unit mass is Block Microscope
Fluorescent
greater. On the other hand, the fissionable α
θ Screen
+
materials have high atomic weight. Scattring
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angle
(iii) The number of fission nuclei per unit mass Polonium
sample
is less. So, energy released is less. Gold foil
8. With respect to power generation, what are Schematic diagram for scattering of alpha particles experiment by Rutherford
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the relative advantages and disadvantages of (ii) The experimental arrangement. A source
fusion type and Fission type reactors? of alpha particles (radioactive material,
Ans. (i) Fusion requires high temperature. example polonium) is kept inside a thick
controlled reaction is not yet obtained.
lead box with a fine hole.
Highly sophisticated technology will be
required.
155


(ii) This radioactive source is placed between (iv) Even now the people who are living in
two oppositely charged metal plates and α those places have side effects caused by the
radiations from 241
95
Am continuously ionize explosion of atom bombs.
the nitrogen, oxygen molecules in the air (v) It is possible to calculate the typical energy
space between the plates. released in a chain reaction.
(iii) As a result, there will be a continuous flow (vi) In the first step, one neutron initiates the
m
of small steady current in the circuit. fission of one nucleus by producing three
(iv) If smoke enters, the radiation is being neutrons and energy of about 200 MeV.
absorbed by the smoke particles rather (vii) In the second step, three nuclei undergo
co
than air molecules. fission, in third step nine nuclei undergo
(v) As a result, the ionization and along with it fission, in fourth step 27 nucleus undergo
the current is reduced. This drop in current fission and so on. In the 100th step, the
is detected by the circuit and alarm starts. number of nuclei which undergoes fission
(vi) The radiation dosage emitted by americium is around 2.5 × 1040.
s.
MK
is very much less than safe level, so it can (viii) The total energy released after 100th step is

be considered harmless. 2.5 × 1040 × 200 MeV = 8 × 1029 J. It is really
S
an enormous amount of energy which is
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4. What is chain reaction? Classify the chain
equivalent to electrical energy required in
reaction.
Tamilnadu for several years.
TA
Ans. Chain reaction: When one 235 U nucleus

92 (i) controlled chain reaction : If the chain
undergoes fission, the energy released might reaction is controllable, then we can
be small. But from each fission reaction, three
o
harvest an enormous amount of energy for
MI
neutrons are released. These three neutrons our needs.

cause further fission in another three 235U nuclei
92
(ii) It is achieved in a controlled chain
ab
which in turn produce nine neutrons. These

L
reaction. In the controlled chain reaction,

nine neutrons initiate fission in another 27 235U
92
the average number of neutron released
nuclei and so on. This is called a chain reaction
in each stage is kept as one such that it is
FR
and the number of neutrons goes on increasing

possible to store the released energy.
almost in geometric progression.
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(iii) In nuclear reactors, the controlled chain

There are two kinds of chain reactions:
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reaction is achieved and the produced

(i) uncontrolled chain reaction
energy is used for power generation or for
(ii) controlled chain reaction. research purpose.
ND
.s
(i) uncontrolled chain reaction : In an

uncontrolled chain reaction, the number
of neutrons multiply indefinitely and the Numerical Problems
S
entire amount of energy released in a

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fraction of second. 1. The half-life of 90

38
Sr is 28 years. What is the
(ii) The atom bomb is an example of nuclear disintegration rate of 15 mg of this isotope?
fission in which uncontrolled chain Solution :
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reaction occurs. Atom bombs produce 6.023´1023

massive destruction for mankind. N = × 15 × 10–3
90
(iii) During World War II, in the year 1946 dN 0.693
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August 6 and 9, USA dropped two atom = λN = N

dt T1/ 2
bombs in two places of Japan, Hiroshima
and Nagasaki. As a result, lakhs of people 0.693 6.023´1023
= ´
were killed and the two cities were 28´365´24´60´60 90
completely destroyed.
× 15 × 10–3 Bq
= 7.878 × 1010 Bq.
157

UNIT SEMICONDUCTOR
9 ELECTRONICS
m
co
CHAPTER SNAPSHOT
9.1 Introduction
s.
9.4.2 Transistor action in the common
MK
9.1.1 Energy band diagram of solids

base mode
9.1.2 Classification of materials
S
9.4.3 Static Characteristics of Transistor in
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9.2 Types of Semiconductors
Common Emitter Mode
9.2.1 Intrinsic semiconductors
TA
9.2.2 Extrinsic semiconductors 9.4.4 Transistor as a switch
9.3 Diodes 9.4.5 Operating Point

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9.3.1 P-N Junction formation 9.4.6 Transistor as an amplifier

9.3.2 P-N Junction diode 9.4.7 Transistor as an oscillator
ab L
9.3.3 Characteristics of a junction diode

9.5 Digital Electronics
9.3.4 Rectification
9.5.1 Analog and Digital Signals
FR
9.3.5 Breakdown mechanism

9.3.6 Zener diode 9.5.2 Logic gates
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9.3.7 Optoelectronic devices 9.5.3 De Morgan's Theorem

9.4 The Bipolar junction Transistor (BJT) 9.6 Boolean Algebra
ND
.s
9.4.1 Transistor circuit configurations

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163

CONCEPT MAP
Energy Bands
m
Metals Insulators Semiconductors
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Intrinsic Extrinsic
s.
MK
p-type n-type
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Diodes
Unit 9
p-n junction diode Special purpose diodes

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ab L
Rectifier Zener Diode LED Photo diode Solar cell

FR
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PNP NPN
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Transistors Characteristics Applications

ND
.s
Switch Amplifier Oscillator

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Logic gates
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AND OR NOT EX-OR NAND NOR

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Boolean algebra De Morgan's theorems
164


Electronics : Electronics is the branch of physics incorporated with technology towards
the design of circuits using transistors and microchips.
m
Passive Components : Components that cannot generate power in a circuit.
Active components : Components that can generate power in a circuit.
Energy band : Band of very large number of closely spaced energy levels in a very small
co
energy range is known as energy band.
Conduction band : The energy band formed due to the valence orbitals is called valence band
and that formed due to the unoccupied orbitals is called the conduction
band.
s.
Forbidden energy gap : The energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band is called
MK
forbidden energy gap.
SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS
Insulators : The electrical conduction is not possible as the free electrons are almost nil
S
ok
and hence these materials are called insulators. Its resistivity is in the range
of 1011–1019 Ωm..
TA
Intrinsic semiconductor : A semiconductor in its pure form without impurity is called an intrinsic
semiconductor..
Holes :
o
The vacancies produced in the valence band are called holes.
MI
Intrinsic carrier : The intrinsic carrier concentration is the number of electron in the
concentration conduction band or the number of holes in the valence band in an intrinsic
ab L
semiconductor.
Doping : The process of adding impurities to the intrinsic semiconductor is called
FR
doping.
Dopants : The impurity atoms are called dopants and its order is approximately
ur
100 ppm (parts per million).

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Donor energy level : The energy level of the loosely attached fifth electron from the dopant is found
just below the conduction band edge and is called the donor energy level.
ND
.s
Donor impurities : The group V pentavalent impurity atoms donate electrons to the conduction
band and are called donor impurities.
S
n-type semiconductor : The majority carriers of current in an n-type semiconductor are electrons
w
and the minority carriers are holes. Such a semiconductor doped with a
pentavlent impurity is called an n-type semiconductor.
Acceptor impurity : To make complete covalent bonding with all four neighbouring atoms, the
w
dopant is in need of one more electron. These dopants can accept electrons
from the neighbouring atoms. Therefore, this impurity is called an acceptor
impurity.
w
Acceptor energy level : The energy level of the hole created by each impurity atom is just above the
valence band and is called the acceptor energy level.
Barrier potential : The internal repulsion of the depletion layer stops further diffusion of free
electrons across the junction. This difference in potential across the
depletion layer is called the barrier potential.
165

Evaluation
Choose the Correct Answer:
1. The barrier potential of a silicon diode is 7.
m
The light emitted in an LED is due to
approximately,
(a) Recombination of charge carriers
(a) 0.7 V (b) 0.3V
(b) Reflection of light due to lens action
(c) 2.0 V (d) 2.2V
co
(c) Amplification of light falling at the junction
[Ans. (a) 0.7 V]
(d) Large current capacity
2. Doping a semiconductor results in [Ans. (a) Recombination of charge carriers]
(a) The decrease in mobile charge carriers
8. When a transistor is fully switched on, it is
(b) The change in chemical properties
s.
MK
said to be
(c) The change in the crystal structure
(a) Shorted (b) Saturated
(d) The breaking of the covalent bond
(c) Cut-off (d) Open
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ok
[Ans. (c) The change in the crystal structure]
[Ans. (b) Saturated]
3. A forward biased diode is treated as 9. The specific characteristic of a common
TA
(a) An open switch with infinite resistance emitter amplifier is

Unit 9
(b) A closed switch with a voltage drop of 0V (a) High input resistance
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MI
(c) A closed switch in series with a battery (b) Low power gain
voltage of 0.7V (c) Signal phase reversal
ab L
(d) A closed switch in series with a small (d) Low current gain
resistance and a battery [Ans. (c) Signal phase reversal]
FR
[Ans. (d) A closed switch in series with a

10. To obtain sustained oscillation in an oscillator,
small resistance and a battery]
ur
(a) Feedback should be positive

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4. If a half –wave rectified voltage is fed to a load (b) Feedback factor must be unity
resistor, which part of a cycle the load current (c) Phase shift must be 0 or 2π
will fl ow? (d) All the above [Ans. (d) All the above]
ND
.s
(a) 0º - 90º (b) 90º - 180º

11. If the input to the NOT gate is A = 1011, its
(c) 0º - 180º (d) 0º - 360º output is
S
[Ans. (c) 0º - 180º] (a) 0100 (b) 1000

w
5. The primary use of a zener diode is (c) 1100 (d) 0011

(a) Rectifier (b) Amplifier [ Ans. (a) 0100]
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(c) Oscillator (d) Voltage regulator 12. The electrical series circuit in digital form is
[Ans. (d) Voltage regulator]
(a) AND (b) OR
6. The principle in which a solar cell operates (c) NOR (d) NAND
w
(a) Diffusion [Ans. (a) AND]

(b) Recombination
(c) Photovoltaic action
(d) Carrier flow
[Ans. (c) Photovoltaic action]
166


Ex-OR gate (iii) During the process of doping, a few of the
Circuit Symbol : Germanium atoms are replaced by the
group V dopants.
A and B are inputs and Y is the output.
(iv) Four of the five valence electrons of the
A impurity atom are bound with the 4
valence electrons of the neighbouring
m
Y
B
replaced Germanium atom.
Ex-OR gate (v) The fifth valence electron of the impurity
atom will be loosely attached with the nucleus
co
Inputs Output as it has not formed the covalent bond.
(Ex-OR)
(vi) The energy level of the loosely attached
A B Y=A⊕B fifth electron from the dopant is found just
0 0 0 below the conduction band edge and is
s.
called the donor energy level.
MK
0 1 1
1 0 1 (vii) At room temperature, these electrons can
easily move to the conduction band with
1 1 0
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the absorption of thermal energy.
ok
Truth table
(viii) Besides, an external electric field also can
Boolean equation:
TA
set free the loosely bound electrons and

Y = A. B + A .B lead to conduction.
Unit 9
Y=A⊕B (ix) It is important to note that the energy

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Logic operation : required for an electron to jump from the

The output is high only when either of the two valence band to the conduction band (Eg)
ab
in an intrinsic semiconductor is 0.7 eV

L
inputs is high. In the case of an Ex-OR gate with

more than two inputs, the output will be high for Ge and 1.1 eV for Si, while the energy
when odd number of inputs are high. required to set free a donor electron is only
FR
0.01 eV for Ge and 0.05 eV for Si.

14. State De Morgan’s first and second theorems.
(x) The group V pentavalent impurity atoms
ur
Ans. (i) De Morgan’s First theorem states that the donate electrons to the conduction
IE
complement of the sum of two inputs is band and are called donor impurities.
equal to the product of its complements. Therefore, each impurity atom provides
(i) The second theorem states that the
ND
one extra electron to the conduction band

.s
complement of the product of two inputs in addition to the thermally generated

is equal to the sum of its complements. electrons.
S
(xi) These electrons leave holes in valence

w
III. Long Answer questions : band. Hence, the majority carriers of

current in an n-type semiconductor are
1. Elucidate the formation of a N-type and P-type electrons and the minority carriers are
w
semiconductors. holes. Such a semiconductor doped with

a pentavalent impurity is called an n-type
Ans. n-type semiconductor :
semiconductor.
(i) A n-type semiconductor is obtained by
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p-type semiconductor :
doping a pure Germanium (or Silicon)
crystal with a dopant from group V (i) A trivalent atom from group III elements
pentavalent elements like Phosphorus, such as Boron, Aluminium, Gallium and
Arsenic, and Antimony. Indium is added to the Germanium or
Silicon substrate. The dopant with three
(ii) The dopant has five valence electrons while
valence electrons are bound with the
the Germanium atom has four valence
neighbouring Germanium atom.
electrons.
170


IV. Numerical Problems 10
Given resistor = 10 Ω = = 2.5
4
1. The given circuit has two ideal diodes Current flows through the resistor
connected as shown in figure below. Calculate V 2.5
the current flowing through the resistance R1 I = =
R 10
m
2Ω
I = 0.25 A
R1
D1 D2 3. Assuming VCEsat = 0.2 V and β = 50, find the
minimum base current (IB) required to drive
co
10 V
R2 3Ω R3 2Ω the transistor given in the figure to saturation.
3V
IC
Solution : 1kΩ
s.
Given Date :
MK
Applied voltage V = 10 V
R1 = 2Ω ; R2 = 3Ω ; R3 = 2Ω ; IB
S
ok
Effective resistance = R1 + R2
= 2 + 2 = 4 Ω
TA
D1 is reverse biased. So no current flows in the

branch of diode D1.(Block the current)
D2 is forward biased and effects no resistance in Solution:
o
MI
the circuit. (pass the current) Given data :

V 10 VCEsat = 0.2 V
∴Current
ab
I = =
L
R 4 β = 50
I = 2.5 A VCC = 3 V
FR
2. Four silicon diodes and a 10 Ω resistor are RC = 1 kΩ (or) 103 Ω

connected as shown in figure below. Each IC = collector current
ur
diode has a resistance of 1Ω. Find the current IB = base current

IE
flows through the 10Ω resistor.

To find :
C
ND
IB = ?
.s
D1 D3
VCE = VCC – ICRC
S
A 10W B VCC – VCEsat

w
Icsat =
D2 D4 RC
∴Rc = 1 k
D
3 − 0.2
w
3V Icsat = = 2.8 mA
+ – 1 kΩ
E F
Solution : IC
IB Min =
w
Given data : β
Four silicon diodes = 1 × 4 = 4 Ω 2.8 mA
Connected resistor = 10 Ω = = 56 μA
50
To find :
IB = 56 μA
Current flows through the 10 Ω resistor = ?
Each of diode = 1 × 4 = 4
181


1. C, Si and Ge have same no. of valence electrons. 5. The intrinsic semi-conductor has :
m
C is an insulator because energy required to (a) A finite resistance which does not change
take one electron out from with temperature
(a) Si is more (b) C is more (b) Infinite resistance which decreases with
temperature
co
(c) Ge is more (d) C is less
[Ans. (B) C is more] (c) Finite resistance which decreases with
temperature
2. By adding ______ impurity in intrinsic semi (d) Finite resistance which does not change with
conductor, p type semiconductor is made. temperature
s.
MK
Charge of these p type semiconductor is _____

[Ans. (c) Finite resistance which decreases
(a) Trivalent, neutral
with temperature]
S
(b) Pentaralent, neutral
ok
6. The behaviour of Ge as semi-conductor is due
(c) Pentavalent, positive to width of :
(d) Trivalent, negative
TA
(a) conduction band being large

[Ans. (a) Trivalent, neutral] (b) forbidden band being small
o
(c) conduction band being small
MI
3. Why can't we physically join p-type and

n-type semiconductor directly to form a p-n (d) forbidden band being small and narrow
junction?
ab
[Ans. (d) forbidden band being small and

L
(a) Inter-atomic spacing become less than 1 Aº narrow]

(b) p -type will repet N-type 7. Which of the following is not the advantage of
FR
(c) There will be discontinuity for the flowing PN junction diode over tube value?
ur
charge carriers (a) Unlimited life

IE
(d) Semi-conducting properties will be lost (b) No warming-up time after switching
[Ans. (c) There will be discontinuity for the (c) Large efficiency
flowing charge carriers]
ND
(d) Low consumption of power

.s
4. Which statement is incorrect regarding for [Ans. (a) Unlimited life]

p-n junction.
S
8. The forward based diode is

w
(a) Donor atoms are depleted of their holes in

junction (a)
ov -2v
(b) No net charge exists far from junction
w
(c) Barrier potential VB is generated -3v

(b) -4v -4v -4v -4v
(d) Energy VB is to be surmounted before any -4v -4v -4v -4v
charge can flow across junction
w
[Ans. (d) Energy VB is to be surmounted (c) +5v

7v
before any charge com flow across
junction] (d) +1v
-1v
[Ans. (a) ]
ov -2v
183


2. Assertion : Higher the value of α better is the 2. (a)
A and B are inputs and Y is the output for
transistor. OR gate.
Reason : The α of a transistor is a measure of (b)
A is the input and Y is the output for NOT
the quality of a transistor.
gate.
and Reason is the correct explanation of (c)
A and B are outputs and Y is the input for
m
NOR gate.
Assertion]
(d)
A and B are inputs and Y is the output for
Choose the correct statements Ex-OR gate.
co
1. (I)
Transistor can be operated efficiently in [Ans. (c) A and B are outputs and Y is the
an operating point input for NOR gate.]
(II) Variations of IC and VCE takes place in Very Short Answer 2 marks
this point.
s.
MK
(III) Q - points determine the working point 1. Define energy band.

of a transistor. Ans. Band of very large number of closely spaced
energy levels in a very small energy range is
S
(IV) Transistor is a semiconductor device
ok
used to amplify or switch electronic known as energy band.
signals. 2. Define conduction band.
TA
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only

Unit 9
Ans. The energy band formed due to the valence

(c) I, II and III only orbitals is called valance band and that formed
o
MI
(d) I, II, III and IV only due to unoccupied orbital is called conduction
band.
ab
[Ans. (d) I, II, III and IV only]

L
2. (I)
Germanium atom has 32 orbiting 3. What is forbidden energy gap?
electrons. Ans. The energy gap between the valance band and
FR
(II) Diode has 2 terminals. conduction band is called forbidden energy gap.
ur
(III) mA is the unit used to represent the level 4. What is barrier potential?
IE
of a diode forward current IF.

Ans. The internal repulsion of the depletion layer
(IV) The diffused impurities with 3 valence stops further diffusion of free electrons across
electrons are called donor atoms.
ND
.s
the junction. This difference in potential across

(a) I, II and III only (b) III and IV only the depletion layer is called barrier potential.
S
(c) I, II and IV only (d) I, III and IV only 5. Define bias voltage.
w
[Ans. (a) I, II and III only] Ans. The external voltage applied to the p-n junction
Choose the Incorrect statements is called bias voltage.
Define forward bias.
w
1. (a)
Amplification is the process of increasing 6.
the signal strength. Ans. If the positive terminal of the external voltage
(b)
A logic gate is an electronic circuit. source is connected to the p-side and the negative
w
(c)
Logic gate functions based on digital terminal to the n-side, it is called forward bias.
signals. 7. Define Reverse bias.
(d)
Logic gates having one or more than and Ans. If the positive terminal battery is connected
one or more than outputs inputs. to the n-side and the negative potential to the
[Ans. (d) Logic gates having one or more p-side, the junction is said to be reverse biased.
than and one or more than outputs inputs]
194


Short Answer 3 marks (i) Conduction becomes possible even at low
temperatures.
1. Give the Schematic representation of valence (ii) The application of electric field provides
band, conduction band, and forbidden energy sufficient energy to the electrons to drift
gap. and draw energy band structure of (a) in a particular direction to constitute a
m
Insulators (b) Semiconductors (c) Metals? current.
Ans. (iii) The resistivity value lies between 10–2 and
10–8 Ωm.
electrons
CB
Semiconductors
co
CB CB
Conduction
Eg = 6eV Eg = 1eV band (i) At a finite temperature, thermal agitations
Valence
band in the solid can break the covalent bond
VB VB
VB Holes between the atoms.
Insulator Semiconductor Metal
(ii) This releases some electrons from valence
s.
MK
band to conduction band.

2. What is electronics? (iii) The resistivity value of semiconductors is
Ans. (i) It is the branch of physics incorporated from 10–5 to 106 Ωm
S
ok
with technology towards the design of (iv) When the temperature is increased further,
circuits using transistors and microchips. more number of electrons is promoted
TA
(ii) It depicts the behaviour and movement of to the conduction band and increases the
Unit 9
electrons in a semiconductor, vacuum, or conduction.

gas.
o
MI
(v) Thus, electrical conduction increases with

(iii) Electronics deals with electrical circuits
the increase in temperature.
that involve active components such as
ab
2. Explain and classify transistor as an oscillator.

L
transistors, diodes, integrated circuits,

and sensors, associated with the passive Ans. (i) An oscillator basically converts dc energy
components like resistors, inductors, into ac energy of high frequency ranging
FR
capacitors, and transformers. from a few Hz to several MHz.

ur
(ii) There are two types of oscillators:

Long Answer 5 marks
IE
a) Sinusoidal
b) Non-sinusoidal.
1. How does the change in temperature and
ND
(iii) Sinusoidal oscillators generate oscillations

.s
application of electric field affect the behavior

of materials and write the range of resistivity in the form of sine wave at constant
for each materials. amplitude and frequency.
S
(iv) Non-sinusoidal
w
Ans. Insulators oscillators generate

(i) The gap is very large that electrons from complex non-sinusoidal waveforms like
valence band cannot move into conduction square wave, Triangular - wave or Sawtooth
w
band even on the application of strong - wave

external electric field or the increase in V
temperature.
t
w
t
(ii) The electrical conduction is not possible as
the free electrons are almost nil. (a)
(iii) Its resistivity is in the range of V
1011–1019 Ωm.
Metals t t
(C) (d)
196

Numerical Problems
1. For a BJT, the common - base current gain

α = 0.98 and the collector base junction 2. For a BJT circuit shown, assume that the 'β' of
reverse bias saturation ICu = 0.6 μA. This BJT the transistor is very large and VBE = 0.7 V. The
m
is connected in the common emitter mode and mode of operation.
operated in the active region with a base drive Solution :
current ID = 20 μA. The collector current IC for VBE = 0.7 V
this mode of operating is
co
Input junction is a forward biased.
Solution : Since,
α = 0.98 VBE = 0.7 V
ICu = 0.6 μA VCE = VBE + VCB
β
s.
MK
α = VCB = VCE –VBE

1+ β
To determine VCB we find IC
(or)
S
2 − VBE 2 − 0.7
ok
1 IC ≅ IC = =
0.98 = 1 R2 1 kΩ
+1 IC = 1.3 mA
TA
β
Unit 9
b = 49 VCE = VCC – IC (R1 + R2)

o
ICEO = (1 + b)ICBO = 10 – 1.3 mA (10K + 1K)
MI
= (1 + 49) × 0.6 μA VCE = – 4.3 V

ICEO = 30 μA
ab
VCE = – 4.3 V – 0.7

L
IC = bIB + ICEO VCB = – 5V

= 49 × 20 μA + 30 μA= 1010 μA
FR
IC = 1 . 01 mA
ur
IE

ND
.s
S
w
w
w
198

UNIT COMMUNICATION
10 SYSTEMS
m
co
CHAPTER SNAPSHOT
10.1 Introduction
s.
MK
10.2 Modulation
10.2.1 Amplitude modulation (AM)
S
10.2.2 Frequency modulation (FM)
ok
10.2.3 Phase modulation (PM)
TA
10.3 The elements of an electronic communication system

10.3.1 Bandwidth
o
MI
10.3.2 Bandwidth of Transmission system

10.4 Antenna size
ab L
10.5 Propagation of Electromagnetic waves

10.5.1 Ground wave propagation
FR
10.5.2 Sky wave propagation

10.5.3 Space wave propagation
ur
IE
10.6 Satellite communication

10.7 Fibre optic communication
10.8
ND
Radar and applications

.s
10.9 Mobile communication

10.10 Internet
S
w
10.11 Global positioning system

10.12 Application of information and communication technology in Agriculture, Fisheries and
Mining
w
w
199

( Evaluation
Choose the Correct Answer: 2. Distinguish between wireline and wireless
communication? Specify the range of
1. The output transducer of the communication electromagnetic waves in which it is used.
m
system converts the radio signal into ________ Ans.
(a) Sound Wireline Wireless
(b) Mechanical energy (c) Kinetic energy Wireline communi- Wireless
co
(d) None of the above [Ans. (a) Sound] cation (point-point communication uses
communication) free space as a
2. The signal is affected by noise in a communication uses mediums like communication
system wires, cables and medium.
(a) At the transmitter (b) At the modulator optical fibers.
s.
MK
(c) In the channel (d) At the receiver These systems The signals are
[Ans. (c) In the channel] cannot be used transmitted in the form
S
for long distance of electro
ok
3. The variation of frequency of carrier wave with transmission as magnetic waves with
respect to the amplitude of the modulating they are connected the help of a
TA
signal is called _________ physically. transmitting antenna.

Unit 10
(a) Amplitude modulation Hence wireless

(b) Frequency modulation communication is used
o
MI
for long distance trans-

(c) Phase modulation mission.
(d) Pulse width modulation
ab
Examples are Examples are mobile,

L
[Ans. (b) Frequency modulation] telephone, intercom radio or TV broad-

and cable TV. casting, and satellite
4. The internationally accepted frequency communication.
FR
deviation for the purpose of FM broadcasts. Range of electro magnetic waves

ur
(a) 75 kHz (b) 68 kHz Wireline upto 100 Wireless upto several
IE
(c) 80 kHz (d) 70 kHz meters thousand kilometers

[Ans. (a) 75 kHz] It is the maximum distance between the source
ND
and the destination up to which the signal is

.s
5. The frequency range of 3 MHz to 30 MHz is

used for received with sufficient strength.
(a) Ground wave propagation
S
3. Explain centre frequency or resting frequency

w
(b) Space wave propagation in frequency modulation.

(c) Sky wave propagation Ans. When the frequency of the baseband signal is
(d) Satellite communication zero (no input signal), there is no change in the
[Ans. (c) Sky wave propagation]
w
frequency of the carrier wave. It is at its normal

II. Short Answers : frequency and is called as centre frequency or
resting frequency.
1. Give the factors that are responsible for
w
transmission impairments. 4. What does RADAR stand for?

Ans. (i) Noise : It is the undesirable electrical Ans. RADAR basically stands for Radio Detection
signal that interfaces with the transmitted and Ranging System. It is one of the important
signal. applications of communication systems and is
(ii) Attenuation : The loss of strength of a signal mainly used to sense, detect, and locate distant
while propagating through a medium. objects like aircraft, ships, spacecraft, etc.
202


1. Essential elements of a communication system 6. Large band width for higher data is achieved
m
are by using
(a) transmitter & receiver (a) high frequency carrier wave
(b) receiver & communication chennal (b) high frequency audio wave
co
(c) transmitter and communication channel (c) low frequency carrier wave
(d) transmitter communication channal & (d) low frequency audio wave
receiver [Ans. (a) high frequency carrier wave]
[Ans. (d) transmitter communication
7. In a video signal for transmission of
chennal & receiver]
s.
MK
picture what value of bandwidth is used in

2. The loss of strengh of a signal while propagating communication system?
through a medium is known as_______ (a) 2.4 MHz (b) 4.2 MHz
S
ok
(a) modulation (b) absorption (c) 24 MHz (d) 42 MHz
(c) transmission (d) Attenuation [Ans. (b) 4.2 MHz]
TA
[Ans. (d) Attenuation]

Unit 10
8. Which of the following is an example of

3. The process of increasing the strength of a breadcast made of communication?
o
MI
signal using an electric circuit is called (a) Radio (b) Television

(a) amplification (b) modulation (c) Mobile (d) both (a) & (b)
ab L
(c) demodulation (d) transmission [Ans. (d) both (a) & (b)]
[Ans. (a) amplitreation]
9. The radio waves of frequency 30 MHz to 300
FR
4. Modulation is the process of superposing MHz belong to

(a) low frequency audio signal on high (a) high frequency band
ur
frequency radio waves (b) very high frequency band

IE
(b) low frequency radio signal on low frequency (c) ultra high frequency band
audio waves (d) super high frequency band
ND
.s
(c) high frequency radio signal on low frequency [Ans. (b) very high frequency band]
audio
10. For base station to mobile communication,
S
(d) high frequency audio signal on low

the required frequency band is
w
frequency radio waves

(a) 540 - 1600 KHz (b) 200 - 32 MHz
[Ans. (a) low frequency audio signal on high
frequency rodio waves] (c) 840 - 935 MHz (d) 5.9 - 6.42 GHz
[Ans. (c) 840 - 935 MHz ]
w
5. The device which is a combination of a receiver

11. Ground wave have wavelength
and a transmitter is
(a) less than that of sky waves
(a) Amplifier (b) Repeater
w
(b) greater than that of sky wave

(c) Transducer (d) Modulator
(c) less than that of space waves
[Ans. (b) Repeater]
(d) equal to that of space waves
[Ans. (b) greater than that of sky wave]
208


2. Assertion :
Short wave bands are used for 2. (a) Input transducer converts variations in
transmission of radio waves to a physical quantity.
large distance. (b) The electrical equivalent of the original
Reason : Short waves are reflected by information is called the baseband signal.
ionosphere.
(c) Transducer converts electrical energy into
m
sound energy.
and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.] (d) Microphone is an example of transducer.
[Ans. (c) Transducer converts electrical
3. Assertion : A dish antenna is highly directional. energy into sound energy.]
co
Reason : This is because a dipole antenna is
omni directional. Choose the incorrect pair
[Ans. (b) Assertion and Reason are true but 1. (a) Ground wave propagation - Surface waves
Reason is the false explanation of the
Assertion.] (b) Sky wave propagation - Antenna
s.
MK
(c) Space wave propagation - 50 MHz

Choose the correct statements (d) Skip distance - No reception
S
1. (I) Carrier signal does not have information. [Ans. (c) Space wave propagation - 50 MHz]
COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
ok
(II) Carrier wave usually have a much higher 2. (a) Fibre optic cables - Date speed of 1 Gbps
frequency.
TA
(b) Satellite communication - Radio repeater

(III) Carrier signal is used ot carry the baseband in sky
signal. (c) Oscillator - Sinusoidal wave
o
MI
(IV) Carrier signal cannot be transmuted to (d) Transmitting antenna - 5 × 108 ms–1
long distance with less attenuation.
[Ans. (d) Transmitting antenna - 5 × 108 ms-1]
ab L
(a) I, II and III only (b) I and II only

(c) I and III only
(d) I, II, III and IV [Ans. (a) I, II and III only]
Very Short Answer 2 marksm
FR
2. (I) Amplitude modulation is used in radio 1. Write the advantages of PM ?

ur
and TV brad casting.

Ans. (i) FM signal produced from PM signal is
IE
(II) Phase of the carrier signal remain constant very stable.

in amptitude modulation. (ii) The centre frequency called resting
ND
(III) Noise level is low in AM.

.s
frequency is extremely stable.

(IV) Baseband signal carries information.
2. Define Bandwidth.
(a) I, II and III only (b) I, II and IV only
S
Ans. The frequency range over which the baseband

w
(c) I and II only signals or the information signals such as voice,

(d) I, II, III and IV [Ans. (b) I, II and IV only] music, picture, etc. is transmitted is known as
bandwidth.
w
Choose the Incorrect statements

3. Define Bandwidth of transmission system.
1. (a)
PM wave is similar to AM wave. Ans. The range of frequencies required to transmit
a piece of specified information in a particular
w
(b)
PM generally uses a smaller bandwidth
than FM. channel is called channel bandwidth or the
bandwidth of the transmission system.
(c)
FM signal produced from PM signal is
very stable. 4. What is meant by skip distance?
(d)
FM and PM waves are completely different Ans. The shortest distance between the transmitter
for square wave modulating signal. and the point of reception of the sky wave along
[Ans. (a) PM wave is similar to AM wave] the surface is called as the skip distance.
217


Long Answer 5 marks 2. Write the applications of mobile
communication.
Ans. (i) It is used for personal communication
1. Write a note on RADAR and its applications. and cellular phones offer voice and data
Ans. (i) Radar basically stands for Radio Detection connectivity with high speed.
m
and Ranging System. (ii) Transmission of news across the globe is
done within a few seconds.
(i) It is one of the important applications of
(iii) Using Internet of Things (IoT), it is made
communication systems and is mainly
possible to control various devices from a
co
used to sense, detect, and locate distant single device. Example: home automation
objects like aircraft, ships, spacecraft, etc. using a mobile phone.
(ii) The angle, range, or velocity of the objects (iv) It enables smart classrooms, online
that are invisible to the human eye can be availability of notes, monitoring student
s.
activities etc. in the field of education.
MK
determined.
(iii) Radar uses electromagnetic waves for 3. Explain about satellite communication in
communication. The electromagnetic detail.
S
ok
signal is initially radiated into space by an Ans. (i) The satellite communication is a mode
antenna in all directions. of communication of signal between
TA
transmitter and receiver via satellite.

Unit 10
(iv) When this signal strikes the targeted (ii) The message signal from the Earth station
object, it gets reflected or reradiated in is transmitted to the satellite on board
o
MI
many directions. via an uplink (frequency band 6 GHz),

(v) This reflected (echo) signal is received amplified by a transponder and then
ab
retransmitted to another earth station via

L
by the radar antenna which in turn is

a downlink (frequency band 4 GHz)
delivered to the receiver.
(iii) The high-frequency radio wave signals
FR
(vi) Then, it is processed and amplified to travel in a straight line (line of sight) may
determine the geographical statistics of come across tall buildings or mountains or
ur
the object. The range is determined by even encounter the curvature of the earth.
IE
calculating the time taken by the signal to (iv) A communication satellite relays
travel from RADAR to the target and back. and amplifies such radio signals via
ND
transponder to reach distant and far off

.s
Radars find extensive applications in almost all

places using uplinks and downlinks. It is
fields. also called as a radio repeater in sky.
S
(i) In military, it is used for locating and Applications:

w
detecting the targets. (i) Weather Satellites: They are used to

(ii) It is used in navigation systems such as monitor the weather and climate of Earth.
ship borne surface search, air search and By measuring cloud mass, these satellites
w
weapons guidance systems.. enable us to predict rain and dangerous

storms like hurricanes, cyclones etc.
(iii) To measure precipitation rate and wind
(ii) Communication satellites: They are
speed in meteorological observations,
w
used to transmit television, radio, internet

Radars are used. signals etc. Multiple satellites are used for
(iv) It is employed to locate and rescue people long distances.
in emergency situations. (iii) Navigation satellites: These are employed
to determine the geographic location of
ships, aircrafts or any other object.

220

UNIT RECENT DEVELOPMENTS

11 IN PHYSICS
m
co
CHAPTER SNAPSHOT
s.
MK
11.1 Introduction
11.2 Nanoscience and Nanotechnology
11.2.1 Nanoscience Nanoparticles
S
ok
11.2.2 Interdisciplinary nature of Nanotechnology
11.2.3 Nano in Nature
TA
11.2.4 Early beginning and development

o
11.2.5 Nano in laboratories
MI
11.2.6 Applications of Nano technology

ab
11.2.7 Possible harmful effects of nanoparticles

L
11.3 Robotics
11.3.1 What is robotics?
FR
11.3.2 Components of Robotics

ur
11.3.3 Types of Robots

IE
11.3.4 Applications
11.3.5 Advantages of Robotics
ND
.s
11.3.6 Disadvantages of Robotics

11.4 Physics in medical diagnosis and therapy
S
w
11.4.1 The development in medical field has been proportional to the evolution of
physics.
11.4.2 The recent advancement in medical technology includes.
w
w
221

CONCEPT MAP
Recent developments in Physics
m
A few areas as examples
co
Science Technology Medicine
s.
MK
Medical
NanoScience
S
Particle diagnosis and
ok
& Cosmology Robotics therapy
Physics
Nanotechnology
TA
Unit 11
o
Block Gravitational
MI
holes waves Inventions

Recent
in physics &
ab L
Nanoscience, medical
Developments in
Nanotechnology, technology
Medical science
FR
Nanoparticles
ur
Interdisciplinary
IE
nanotechnology Components
ND
.s
Nano in nature Types

S
w
Early beginning &

development
Applications
w
Nano in laboratories
Materials used to make
w
Robots
Applications of
nanotechnology
Advantages &
Disadvantages
Harmful effects of
nanoparticles
222

Evaluation
I. Multiple Choice Questions:
7. The alloys used for muscle wires in Robots are
1. The particle size of ZnO material is 30 nm.
m
(a) Shape memory alloys
Based on the dimension it is classified as
(b) Gold copper alloys
(a) Bulk material (b) Nanomaterial
(c) Gold silver alloys
co
(c) Soft material
(d) Two dimensional alloys
(d) Magnetic material [Ans. (a) Shape memory alloys]
[Ans. (b) Nanomaterial]
8. The technology used for stopping the brain
2. Which one of the following is the natural from processing pain is
s.
MK
nanomaterial.
(a) Precision medicine
(a) Peacock feather (b) Peacock beak (b) Wireless brain sensor
S
(c) Grain of sand (d) Skin of the Whale
ok
(c) Virtual reality
[Ans. (a) Peacock feather] (d) Radiology [Ans. (c) Virtual reality]
TA
3. The blue print for making ultra durable

Unit 11
9. The particle which gives mass to protons and

synthetic material is mimicked from neutrons are
o
MI
(a) Lotus leaf (b) Morpho butterfly (a) Higgs particle (b) Einstein particle
(c) Parrot fish (d) Peacock feather (c) Nanoparticle (d) Bulk particle
ab L
[Ans. (c) Parrot fish] [Ans. (a) Higgs particle]

4. The method of making nanomaterial by 10. The gravitational waves were theoretically
FR
assembling the atoms is called proposed by

(a) Top down approach
ur
(a) Conrad Rontgen

IE
(b) Bottom up approach (b) Marie Curie

(c) Cross down approach (c) Albert Einstein
ND
(d) Diagonal approach

.s
(d) Edward Purcell [Ans. (c) Albert Einstein]

[Ans. (b) Bottom up approach]
II. Short Answers :
S
5. “Sky wax” is an application of nano product in

w
the field of 1. Distinguish between Nanoscience and

(a) Medicine Nanotechnology.
(b) Textile Ans.
w
(c) Sports Nanoscience Nanotechnology

(d) Automotive industry [Ans. (c) Sports] Nanoscience is the Nenotechnology is
science of objects with a technology is a
w
6. The materials used in Robotics are

typical sizes of involving the
(a) Aluminium and silver 1- 100 nm. Nano design, production,
(b) Silver and gold (c) Copper and gold means one-billionth of characterization and
(d) Steel and aluminum a metre that is 10–9 m. applications of nano
[Ans. (d) Steel and aluminum] structured materials
224


(v) Advanced 3D printer systems and materials (vii) Robotic surgery is robotically-assisted
assist physicians in a range of operations in surgery helps to overcome the limitations
of pre-existing minimally-invasive surgical
the medical field from audiology, dentistry, procedures and to enhance the capabilities
orthopedics and other applications. of surgeons performing open surgery.
(vi) Wireless brain sensors monitor intracranial (viii) Smart inhalers are the main treatment
m
pressure and temperature and then are option for asthma. Smart inhalers use
bluetooth technology to detect inhaler
absorbed by the body. Hence there is no
use, remind patients when to take their
co
need for surgery to remove these devices. medication and gather data to help guide
care.
s.
MK

S
1. Nanoscience is the science of object with 6. George Devol invented the first digitally
ok
typical sizes of _______ operated programmable robot called
(a) 1 - 100 μm (b) 1 - 100 nm (a) Unimate (b) Robotics
TA
(c) 1 - 100 cm (d) 1 - 100 m

Unit 11
(c) Motors (d) Generators

[Ans. (b) 1 - 100 nm] [Ans. (a) Unimate]
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MI
2. If the particle of a solid is of size less than 7. Muscle wires can contract by ______ when
100 nm, it is said to be a _______ electric current is passed through them
ab L
(a) Nano particle (b) Nano bytes (a) 5% (b) 7 %

(c) Nano solid (d) Nano technology (c) 25% (d) 50%
[Ans. (c) Nano soild]
FR
[Ans. (a) 5%]

3. _______ Scanning Electron Micrograph 8. The size of the Nano robots is reduced to _____
ur
(SEM) showing the nano structures on the level to perform a task in very small space.
IE
surface of a leaf from a lotus plant. (a) Macroscopic (b) Robots DNA
(a) Parrot fish (c) Microscopic (d) Bacteria
ND
.s
(b) Morpho butterfly

[Ans. (c) Microscopic]
(c) Lotus leaf surface
9. Chinese scientists have created the world's
S
(d) Peacock feathers

first autonomous _______ to combat caner
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[Ans. (c) Lotus leaf surface]

tumours.
4. _________ is synthesized top down approach (a) RNA Robot (b) DNA Robot
(a) Ball milling (b) Plasma etching (c) m RNA Robot (d) r RNA Robot
w
(c) lithography [Ans. (b) DNA Robot]

(d) Vapour deposition
[Ans. (d) Ball milling and lithography] 10. In ________ it was established that atoms are
w
made up of electrons, protons and neutrons

5. Best example for applications of nano
technology (a) 1945 (b) 1923
(a) Chemical industry (b) Engineering (c) 1930 (d) 1927
(c) medicine (d) all of these [Ans. (c) 1930]
[Ans. (d) all of these]
228


11. What are God particles? Short Answer 3 marks
Ans. (i) Higgs particles’ also known as “God”
particles were discovered and for this, 1. Write the application of nano robots in
Peter Higgs and Englert received noble medical field?
prize in physics. Ans. (i) Nano-robots in blood stream to perform
small surgical procedures, to fight against
m
(ii) It is the ‘Higgs particle’ which gives mass to
many particles like protons, neutrons etc. bacteria, repairing individual cell in the
body.
12. What is Cosmology? (ii) It can travel into the body and once after
co
Ans. Cosmology is the branch that involves the origin the job is performed it can find its way out.
and evolution of the universe. It deals with Chinese scientists have created the world’s
formation of stars, galaxy etc. first autonomous DNA robots to combat
cancer tumours.
13. Write the key components of robot.
2. What is particle physics?
s.
Ans. The key components of a robot are Power
MK
RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN PHYSICS

conversion unit, Actuators, Electric motors, Ans. (i) Particle physics deals with the theory of
Pneumatic Air Muscles, Muscle wires, Piezo fundamental particles of nature and it is
one of the active research areas in physics.
S
Motors and Ultrasonic Motors, Sensors, and
ok
Robot locomotion. (ii) Initially it was thought that atom is the
fundamental entity of matter.
14. What is the use of household robots?
TA
(iii) In 1930s and it was established that atoms

Ans. Household robots are used as vacuum cleaners, are made up of electrons, protons and
floor cleaners, gutter cleaners, lawn mowing, neutrons.
o
MI
pool cleaning, and to open and close doors.

3. Write the two ways of preparing the nano
15. What is the use of industrial robots? materials.
ab L
Ans. Industrial robots are used for welding, cutting, Ans. There are two ways of preparing the nanomateials,
robotic water jet cutting, robotic laser cutting, top down and bottom up approaches.
lifting, sorting, bending, manufacturing,
FR
assembling, packing, transport, handling Synthesis of nanoparticles

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hazardous materials like nuclear waste,

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weaponry, laboratory research, mass production

of consumer and industrial goods.
16. Define nano science.
ND
Top - Down approach Bottom - Up approach

.s
Ans. Nano science is the science of objects with typical

sizes of 1-100 nm. Nano means One - billionth
S
of a meter that is 10–9 m.

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17. Define nano solid.

Ans. The particle of solid is of size less than 100 nm, it
is said to be a nano solid. Ex. : ZnO.
w
4. Write the aim of artificial intelligence in robots.

18. What is the two ways of preparing nano
Ans. (i) Face recognition.
particle?
(ii) Providing response to player’s actions in
w
Ans. (i) Top - down approach.

computer games.
(ii) Bottom - up approach.
(iii) Taking decisions based on previous
19. What is use of robotics? actions.
Ans. (i) Defusing Bomb. (iv) To regulate the traffic by analyzing the
(ii) Finding survivors in unstable rains, and density of traffic on roads.
exploring mines and shipwrecks. (v) Translate words from one language to
another.
231


5. What is robotics? Long Answer 5 marks
Ans. (i) Robotics is an integrated study of mechanical
1. Write the advantages and disadvantages of
engineering, electronic engineering,
robotic.
computer engineering, and science.
Ans. Advantages of robotic :
m
(ii) Robot is a mechanical device designed (i) The robots are much cheaper than humans.
with electronic circuitry and programmed (ii) Robots never get tired like humans. It can
to perform a specific task. work for 24 × 7. Hence absenteeism in
co
(iii) These automated machines are highly work place can be reduced.
significant in this robotic era where (iii) Robots are more precise and error free in
performing the task.
they can take up the role of humans in
(iv) Stronger and faster than humans.
certain dangerous environments that are
s.
(v) Robots can work in extreme environmental
MK
hazardous to people like defusing bombs,

conditions: extreme hot or cold, space or
finding survivors in unstable ruins, and underwater. In dangerous situations like
S
exploring mines and shipwrecks. bomb detection and bomb deactivation.
ok
6. Write a note on Gravitational waves. (vi) In warfare, robots can save human lives.
TA
(vii) Robots are significantly used in handling

Ans. (i) Gravitational waves are the disturbances in
Unit 11
materials in chemical industries especially

the curvature of space-time and it travels in nuclear plants which can lead to health
o
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with speed of light. hazards in humans.

(ii) Any accelerated charge emits Disadvantages of Robotics :
ab L
electromagnetic wave. (i) Robots have no sense of emotions or

conscience.
(iii) Similarly any accelerated mass emits
(ii) They lack empathy and hence create an
FR
gravitational waves but these waves are

emotionless workplace.
very weak even for masses like earth.
ur
(iii) If ultimately robots would do all the work,

IE
(iv) The strongest source of gravitational and the humans will just sit and monitor
waves are black holes. The discovery of them, health hazards will increase rapidly.
gravitational waves made it possible to (iv) Unemployment problem will increase.
ND
.s
study the structure of black holes since it is (v) Robots can perform defined tasks and
the strongest source of gravitational waves. cannot handle unexpected situations.
S
(vi) The robots are well programmed to do a

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(v) In fact, the recent discoveries of

job and if a small thing goes wrong it ends
gravitational waves are emitted by two up in a big loss to the company.
black holes when they merge to a single (vii) If a robot malfunctions, it takes time to
w
black hole. identify the problem, rectify it, and even

(vi) In fact, Albert Einstein theoretically reprogram if necessary. This process
requires signi cant time.
proposed the existence of ‘gravitational
w
(viii) Humans cannot be replaced by robots in

waves’ in the year 1915. After 100 years, it is
decision making.
experimentally proved that his predictions
(ix) Till the robot reaches the level of human
are correct. intelligence, the humans in work place will
exit.

232

12th Govt. model question paper 2019-20

STD.
Time Allowed : 15 min + 2.30 Hours Physics Maximum Marks : 70
m
Instructions :
(1) Check the question paper for 6. A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle
fairness of printing. If there is 60º. If the reflected and refracted rays are
any lack of fairness, inform the perpendicular to each other, the refractive index
co
Hall Supervisor immediately. of the glass is:
(2) Use Blue or Black ink to write 3 1 1
(a) 3 (b) (c) (d)
and underline and pencil to 2 3 3
draw diagrams. 7. If voltage applied on a capacitor is increased
from V to 2V:
s.
MK
Part - I (a) Q remains the same, C is doubled

Note : (i) Answer all the questions: (15 × 1 = 15) (b) Q is doubled, C doubled
(ii) Choose the most appropriate answer
S
(c) C remains same, Q doubled
ok
from the four given alternatives
and write the option code with the (d) Both Q and C remains same
TA
corresponding answer . 8. The nucleus is approximately spherical in shape.

1. When the current changes from +2 A to –2 A in Then the surface area of the nucleus having mass
0.05 s, an emf of 8 V is induced in a coil. The co-
o
number having mass number A varies as :
MI
efficient of self-induction of the coil is: 2 4 1 5
(a) 0.2 H (b) 0.4 H (a) A 3

(b) A 3
(c) A 3
(d) A 3
ab L
(c) 0.8 H (d) 0.1 H 9. The given electrical network is equivalent to:
2. If λv, λx, and λm represent the wavelengths of visible A
FR
light, X-rays and microwaves respectively, then: B Y

(a) λm > λx > λv (b) λv > λm > λx
ur
(c) λm > λv > λx (d) λv > λx > λm (a) AND gate (b) OR gate
IE
3. The materials used in Robotics are: (c) NOR gate (d) NOT gate
(a) aluminum and silver 10. A wire to length l carriers a current I along the
ND
.s
(b) silver and gold Y direction and magnetic field is given by

(c) copper and gold β   
B= (i − j + k ) T. The magnitude of Lorentz
S
(d) steel and aluminum 3

w
4. Two wires of A and B with circular cross-section force acting on the wire is :
are made up of the same materials with equal 2 βIl 1
(a) (b) βIl
lengths. If RA = 3 RB, then what is the ratio of 3 3
w
radius of wire A to that of B?

1 1 1
(c) 2 βIl (d)
(a) 3 (b) 3 (c) (d) 2
3 3
w
5. The frequency range of 3 MHz to 30 MHz is 11. When a point charge of 6 μC is moved between
used for: two points in an electric field, the work done is
(a) Ground wave propagation 1.8 × 10–5 J. The potential difference between the
two points is :
(b) Space wave propagation
(a) 1.08 V (b) 1.08 μV
(c) Sky wave propagation
(c) 3 V (d) 30 V
(d) Satellite communication
[235]

248 Sura’s  XII Std - Physics - Govt. Model Question Paper - 2019 - 20
(vi) Substituting the values of the R, l1 and Formula :

l2, the internal resistance of the cell is ξ
I1 =
determined. The experiment can be R1 + r
repeated for different values of R. It is ξ = I1 (R1 + r) ...(1)
found that the internal resistance of the cell
m
ξ
is not constant but increases with increase I2 =
R2 + r
of external resistance connected across its
terminals. ξ = I2 (R2 + r) ...(2)
co
38.(b) From (1) and (2)
(ii) Given : Cell supplies a circuit I1 = 0.9 A I1 (R1 + r) = I2 (R2 + r)
Cell supplies to resistor R1 = 1 I1R1 − I 2 R 2 0.9×1− 0.3×2
Cell supplies to circuit I2 = 0.3 A r = =
I 2 − I1 0.3− 0.9
s.
MK
Cell supplies to resistor R2 = 2 Ω 0.9 − 0.6 0.3 1

= = =−
To find : 0.3− 0.9 −0.6 2
S
ok
Internal resistor of the cell r = ? r = –0.5 Ω
TA
Unit 11

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12th Sura’s Model Question Paper - 1

STD.
Instructions : (1) Check the question paper for
5. A circular coil with a cross-sectional area of
m
fairness of printing. If there is any
4 cm2 has 10 turns. It is placed at the center of a
lack of fairness, inform the Hall
long solenoid that has 15 turns/cm and a cross-
Supervisor immediately.
sectional area of 10 cm2. The axis of the coil
co
(2) Use Blue or Black ink to write
coincides with the axis of the solenoid. What is
and underline and pencil to draw
their mutual inductance?
diagrams.
Part - I (a) 7.54 μH (b) 8.54 μH
Note : (i) Answer all the questions: (15 × 1 = 15) (c) 9.54 μH (d) 10.54 μH
s.
MK
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer from the 6. What is the value of resistance of the following
given four alternatives and write the option
resistor?
S
code and the corresponding answer.

1. Which charge configuration produces a uniform
ok
TA
electric field?
(a) point Charge (a) 100 k Ω (b) 10 k Ω
(b) infinite uniform line charge
o
(c) 1k Ω (d) 1000 k Ω
MI
(c) uniformly charged infinite plane

7. Which of the following are false for
(d) uniformly charged spherical shell
ab L
electromagnetic waves
2. A piece of copper and another of germanium (a) transverse
are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The (b) mechanical waves
FR
resistance of
(c) longitudina
ur
(a) each of them increases

(d) produced by accelerating charges
IE
(b) each of them decreases

(c) copper increases and germanium 8. The speed of light in an isotropic medium
decreases depends on,
ND
.s
(d) copper decreases and germanium increases (a) its intensity

3. A circular coil of radius 5 cm and has 50 turns (b) its wavelength
S
(c) the nature of propagation

w
carries a current of 3 ampere. The magnetic

dipole moment of the coil is (d) the motion of the source w.r. to medium
(a) 1.0 amp - m2 (b) 1.2 amp - m2 9. In an electron microscope, the electrons are
w
(c) 0.5 amp - m2 (d) 0.8 amp - m2 accelerated by a voltage of 14 kV. If the voltage
is changed to 224 kV, then the de Broglie
4. A long straight conductor carrying a current lies
along the axis of a ring. The conductor will exert wavelength associated with the electrons would
w
a force on the ring, if the ring (a) increase by 2 times

(a) carries a current (b) decrease by 2 times
(b) has uniformly distributed charge (c) decrease by 4 times
(c) has non-uniformly distributed (d) increase by 4 times
(d) none of the above
[249]

262 Sura’s  XII Std - Physics - Sura's Model Question Paper-2019
38.b) (ii) The adsorbing nature depends on the

i) (i) Internet is a fast growing technology in surface of the nanoparticle. Indeed, it
the field of communication system with is possible to deliver a drug directly to a
multifaceted tools. specific cell in the body by designing the
surface of a nanoparticle so that it adsorbs
m
(ii) It provides new ways and means to interact
and connect with people. specifically onto the surface of the target
(iii) Internet is the largest computer network cell.
co
recognized globally that connects millions (iii) The interaction with living systems is also
of people through computers. affected by the dimensions of the nanopar-
(iv) It finds extensive applications in all walks of life. ticles. For instance, nanoparticles of a few
ii) Possible harmful effects of nanoparticles : nanometers size may reach well inside
s.
MK
(i) The nanoparticles have same dimensions biomolecules, which is not possible for
same as that of the biological molecules larger nanoparticles.
S
such as proteins. They may easily get (iv) Nanoparticles can also cross cell
ok
absorbed onto the surface of living membranes. It is also possible for the
inhaled nanoparticles to reach the blood,
TA
organisms and they might enter the tissues

and fluids of the body. to reach other sites such as the liver, heart
or blood cells.
o
MI

ab L
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12th Sura’s Model Question Paper - 2

STD.
Instructions : (1) Check the question paper for 4. Lorentz force generally refers to force experienced
m
fairness of printing. If there is any
by a charge due to combined action of
lack of fairness, inform the Hall
Supervisor immediately. (a) magnetic fields
(b) electric fields
co
(2) Use Blue or Black ink to write
and underline and pencil to (c) electric, magnetic & gravitational fields
draw diagrams.
(d) electric and magnetic fields
Part - I
Note : (i) Answer all the questions: (15 × 1 = 15) 5. In a transformer, the number of turns in the
s.
MK
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer from the primary and the secondary are 410 and 1230
given four alternatives and write the option respectively. If the current in primary is 6A, then
code and the corresponding answer.
S
that in the secondary coil is
ok
1. Two identical conducting balls having positive (a) 2 A (b) 18 A
charges q1 and q2 are separated by a center to (c) 12 A (d) 1 A
TA
center distance r. If they are made to touch each

6. Lenz’s law is in accordance with the law of
other and then separated to the same distance,
o
MI
the force between them will be (a) conservation of charges

(a) less than before (b) conservation of flux
ab L
(b) same as before (c) conservation of momentum

(c) more than before (d) conservation of energy
FR
(d) zero 7. During the propagation of electromagnetic

waves in a medium:
ur
2. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7 ) k Ω to be

IE
marked with rings of different colours for its (a) electric energy density is double the
identification. The colour code sequence will be magnetic energy density
(a) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold (b) electric energy density is half of the magnetic
ND
.s
(b) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver energy density

(c) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver (c) electric energy density is equal to the
S
magnetic energy density

w
(d) Green – Orange – Violet - Gold

(d) both electric and magnetic energy densities
3. Three wires of equal lengths are bent in the form
are zero
of loops. One of the loops is circle, another is a
w
semi-circle and the third one is a square. They 8. When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive
are placed in a uniform magnetic field and index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane
sheet of glass. This implies that the liquid must
same electric current is passed through them.
w
have refractive index,

Which of the following loop configuration will
(a) less than one
experience greater torque?
(b) less than that of glass
(a) circle (b) semi-circle
(c) greater than that of glass
(c) square (d) all of them
(d) equal to that of glass
[263]

266 Sura’s  XII Std - Physics - Sura's Model Question Paper-2019
ANSWERS
Part - I 8. (d) equal to that of glass
1. (c) more than before 9. (b) 1:3
m
2. (b) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver 10. (c) M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – B/c2
3. (a) circle 11. (a) Recombination of charge carriers
4. (d) electric and magnetic fields 12. (c) diffusion of charge carriers
co
5. (a) 2 A 13. (b) very high frequency band
6. (d) conservation of energy 14. (a) Sound
7. (c) electric energy density is equal to the 15. (d) Steel and aluminum
magnetic energy density
s.
MK

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 Complete Solutions to Textbook Exercises.

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Unit Title Page No.

7. Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 75 - 122

8. Atomic and Nuclear physics 123 - 162

9. Semiconductor Electronics 163 - 198

10. Communication Systems 199 - 220

11. Recent Developments in Physics 221 - 234

papers (1 & 2) with Answers.

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6.1.3 Angle of deviation due to reflection

mirror 6.5 Refraction at single spherical surface

6.5.1 Equation for refraction at

6.2.3 Image formation in spherical 6.5.2 Lateral magnification in single

6.2.4 Cartesian sign convention 6.6 Thin Lens

6.6.1 Primary and secondary focal

6.2.6 Lateral magnification in spherical points

6.3.2 Speed of light through different

6.3.4 Optical path 6.6.5 Power of a lens

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Sura’s ➠ XII Std - Physics - Volume-II

Refractive index – Real

Mirror formula and

Spherical Lens Total internal Dispersion Power of

Single slit diffraction

Superposition Brewsters law

experiment Difference between polarisation

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Sura’s ➠ XII Std - Physics - Volume-II

MUST KNOW DEFINITIONS

of curvature (C) of the mirror.

[Ans. (c) 12 cm]

(c) 4 (d) 5 [Ans. (c) 4] are converging]

h h [Ans. (b) 90 cm]

(c) (d) h plane mirror. If you stand behind the object 30

[Ans. (c) 40 cm]

1. (a) Angular dispersion produced by a prism

plane polarised beams of light. (c)

(III) In Young's experiment, the width of each

0.3 mm. Very Short Answer 2 marks