TECHNICAL ON SUPER KING AIR B-200- PAPER1

1. Maximum usable fuel quantity

544 U.S. gallons (3644 Lbs)

2. Total oil capacity per engine

14.2 quarts (3.55 gallons)

3. Maximum zero fuel weight of the aircraft

11,000 pounds

4. True Air Speed

Is the airspeed of an aeroplane relative to undisturbed air, which is the CAS corrected for
altitude, temperature and compressibility.

5. Manoeuvring speed –

Is the maximum speed at which application of full available aerodynamic control will not
overstress the aeroplane (DO NOT MAKE FULL OR ABRUPT MOVEMENT ABOVE THIS
SPEED)

6. Pressure Altitude: -

Is the altitude measured from standard sea-level pressure by pressure altimeter. It is indicated
pressure altitude corrected for pressure and instrument error.

7. With the condition lever in high idle, the minimum N1, RPM will be
70 % (37500= 100 %)

8. Maximum continuous power: -

Is the highest power rating not limited by time. (Use of this power is intended for emergency
selection at the discretion of pilot)

9. Basic empty weight: -

Is the weight of an empty air plane, including full engine oil and unusable fuel (equals empty wt
+ wt of unusable fuel + wt. Of all the engine oil required to fill the lines and tanks)

10. Useful Load

is the difference between the air plane max weight and the basic empty weight.

11. Narrow white arc on the Air speed indicator shows us the
 Lower limit is the stalling speed at maximum weight with flaps up and idle power.
Upper limit is the max. speed permissible with flaps extended beyond approach.

12 Minimum oil temperature for fuel heater operation at take-off power:-

+ 55 deg C

13. Engine oil temperature limits are: -

- --ve 40 C to + 99 C (max 104 deg C for 10 minutes)

14. Cross-feed is required when -

One engine is inoperative

15. Propeller over speed limit on this type is -

2200 RPM (5 sec)

16. Marking on the Torque Meter - Green

400 to 2230 ft-Lbs (red line at 2230 ft-lbs- max limit)

17. Crack in exterior windowpane ply -

1. Fly in un pressurised mode.

2. Fly with cabin pressure switch in `DUMP’ position.
3. Ferry flight can be undertaken when authorised by appropriate
authority.
4. All the above are correct.

18. Limits of the star: -

40 secs ON, 60 secs OFF, 40 secs ON, 60 secs OFF, 40 secs ON, then 30 minutes OFF.

19. Best angle of two engine climb speed.

100 Kts

20. Manoeuvring speed

181 Kts

21. Turbulent Penetration speed

170 Kts

22. ILS interference can be caused by the propellers in the range

176 to 1850 RPM

23. In low visibility conditions

DO NOT use taxi and landing lights.

24. During shut-down engine batteries and generator should be switched off below: -

15 % N1

25. Maximum cooling can be obtained by: -

1. Pilot Air and co-pilot knobs - PULLED OUT or as required.

2. CABIN AIR knob - PUSHED – IN in small increments

26. With the air-conditioned switched ON, the minimum to be maintained on right engine

60-62 %

27. Battery charge annunciator does not extinguish after start shows -

Partially discharged battery (BATTERY RECHARGE CURRENT VERY HIGH

MORE THAN 7 AMPS)

28. How is the condition of the battery checked in flight with

`Battery Charge’ illuminated in flight: -

1. Battery switch – OFF (momentarily)

2. Load meter – NOTE CHANGE

If the change value exceeds 2.5 %, turn the battery switch OFF, and proceed to destination.

29. Flight in icing conditions, with the surfaces covered with icing, the stalling speed–

Increases.

30. In order to protect icing to unprotected areas during icing conditions:-

Icing cannot be protected

31. During taxying in deep icing/snow conditions the flaps should be :-

Kept in retracted position to avoid accumulation /damage due to icing.

32. Airframe structure:-

is all metal cantilever low wing monoplane.

33. During pre-flight, rudder boost check

if right engine is brought to idle, the left rudder pedal will move forward.
34. The landing gear motor used for retraction is a

28 volt, split-field, series wound motor.

35. When the aircraft is left unattended -

Parking brakes should be OFF with the chocks ON.

36. This aircraft is powered by: -

PT 6A- 42 developing 850 SHP

37. Maximum continuous take-off climb power

Develops 850 SHP at 230 torque

38. Right propeller is operating at higher RPM, With propeller Sync switch ON
clockwise rotation indicates right propeller at higher RPM
anti- clockwise rotation indicates left propeller at higher RPM

39. The propeller synchrophaser: -

Is a black and white sphere moving in the direction of the engine rotating at higher RPM.

40. The annunciator light for `Magnetic chip Detector’ light -

Is RED in colour.

41. Engine starter switch is -

A three-position switch; ignition and starter, Ignition OFF, starter only.

42. Moisture particles are separated from engine air intake -

By inertial separator

43. Total number of fuel drain on each engine are: -

Six in number (5 sump-1filter)

44. After extinguishing the engine fire, the detector system should be checked

For the illumination of amber D light regardless of battery switch position

45. Propeller RPM are controlled by: -

 Engine driven propeller governor boosted engine oil pressure.

46. The number of batteries and generators are: -

One battery and two generators

47. Diluter demand oxygen masks are to be selected at 100%

Above 20,000 feet altitude

48. Presence of smoke in the cockpit: -

The selector lever should be in 100 % position to prevent the breathing of contaminated air.

49. Number of static and pitot tubes

Two each.

50. Yaw-damper is to be used at all flights:-

Above 17,000 feet

51. Stall warning device is located

On the left wing leading edge

52. Wind-shield heat switch is located

On the pilot’s sub panel (inboard)

53. At 2,800 feet, cabin pressure altitude:-

The aircraft is at 20,000 feet

54. Operating the device boots, below minus 40 deg C will damage the surface

55. Ice vanes should be retracted -

At + 15 deg C and above to ensure adequate air cooling

(ambient temp)

56. Propeller RPM is controlled by an engine lever

Prop governor boosted engine oil pressure

57. for air conditioner system to operate the speed of right engine should be above
60 % N1

58. C.G Ref datum is 83.5 inches forward of the centre of the front jack point
 For ops of air conditioner on ground min. N1. 62 % starboard engine

59 Mark the correct statement

1. With the FLAPS In APPROACH position, the warning horn and L/G switch handle
lights will be activated regardless of the power settings and neither can be cancelled.

2. The L/G control switch handle should never be moved out of the ON detent while the
airplane is on the ground.

3. Manual L/G extension is provided through a separate chain drive system

*4. All the above are correct.

60 The foreword gears are locked in retracted position

*1. By the hydraulic system pressure

2. By the electrically actuated solenoid operated up-lock

3. By a hydro mechanical lock

4. None of the above is correct

61 Mark the correct statement

1. The parking brake should be left on and wheel chocks installed if the airplane is to be
left unattended.

*2. The parking brake is released by pushing in the parking brake handle to open the valve.

3. The airplane is equipped with tubeless tyres on each main gear and nose gear.
All the above are correct

62 The levers controlling the flow of fuel at the fuel control outlet and select fuel cut off low
idle and high idle function are called

1. Power levers
2. Fuel control levers
3. Propeller levers
*4. Condition levers

63 The ITT indicator gives an instantaneous reading of engine gas temperature

1. Before the compressor turbine

*2. Between the compressor turbine and power turbines
3. After the power turbines
4. Between the power
64 In the fire extinguisher system the amber lens placarded D indicates that

1. The particular engine has been extinguished

*2. The system has been discharged and the supply cylinder is empty
3. As on (2) and can be a indication that no pyrotechnic cartridges is fitted in that
particular circular
4. All the above are correct.

65. The propeller rpm is controlled by

1. The constant speed governor

2. The over speed governor
3. Both (1) and (2)
*4. As in (1) and if the constant speed governor should malfunction, the overspeed governor
cuts in at 3000 rpm.

TECHNICAL ON SUPER KING AIR B-200- PAPER 2

( starred choice is the correct answer . God willing!!!)

1. Where is the stall warning system installed, can it be checked on ground

1. Lift transcader vane is located on the left wing leading edge, sensing atmospheric
pressure on vane converted by computer signals resulting in horn and light signal. The system
can be checked on ground by holding the switch in the TEST position activating the warning
horn.

2. Dorsal fin of this aircraft is:-

*(a) a part of the empennage

(b) is fitted on the bottom surface of the horizontal stab.
(c) fitted on the upper surface the horizontal stabilizer
(d) 1 and 3 are correct.

3. Maximum limit of gas generator shaft revolution speed N1 is

(a) 2000 RPM *(b) 38100 RPM (101.5% N1)

(c) 45200 RPM (d) 32000 RPM
4. Low idle RPM of gas generator is

(a) 52 % minimum (b) 19500 RPM

(c) 35 % minimum *(d) a and b are correct
5. Position of datum is

*(a) 83.5 inches forward of the centre of front jack point

(b) 62.0 -----------“---------------
(c) 123.5 __________”_________

6. The lift transducer vane serves to

(a) Induce stall warning signals

7. Climb gradient is defined as

(a) Ratio of vertical distance is horizontal distance flown in the same amount of time.

8. Engine starter limits are

(a) 40 secs on, 60 secs off, 40 secs on, 60 secs off
40 secs on, then 30 minutes off

9. In emergency commercial aviation gasoline to be used

(a) 100 green (b) 80 Red

(c) 100 LL *(d) All are correct

10. VSI indicates

(a) Instantaneous vertical speed indicator

11. Engine oil quantity is indicated by:-

(a) Two indicators one for each tank (dip stick type )

12. In case of landing gear extended manually

(a) Lift and turn the emergency engage handle clockwise to the stop to engage

13. The aircraft electrical power for the operation of avionics equipment

(b) To be provided by one of the inverter.

14. Operation of aircraft with yaw damper system inoperative

(a) Is not permitted beyond 17000 feet

15. SHP of the PT6A 42 engine is

 (a) 850 SHP

16. Landing gear extension switch is located

(a) Right hand side of the pilots sub panel

17. When ALT WARN light comes `ON’ in flight

(a) Cabin altitude has exceed 12500 feet

18. When any landing gear is deflated

Aircraft cannot be taxied

19. To prevent accidental gear retraction on ground a safety switch is provided on

(c) The right main gear strut

20. The auto feathering system is controlled by

(a) A four pole double throw arming switch (FPDT)

21. The aircraft is fitted with

(a) A 36 volt – 36 ampere battery.

(b) A 36 volts – 30 ampere battery

(c) Two 30 volts – 250 ampere battery

*(d) None of the above is correct

(D.C. power is provided by one 24V, 34 ampere/hour, air cooled 20 cell N1 – CD battery

22 The white triangle on the ASI indicates

(a) Maximum flap speed Vfe (200 kts)

[MAX SPEED WITH APPROACH FLAPS ( 40 %)]

23. In case the red warning light of cabin door comes `ON’ in flight when cabin is
pressurised the pilot action required

(a) Is to depressurise the cabin immediately keeping the altitude flown in mind.

24. With flaps in APPROACH and air speed below 140 kts
(a) Horn will sound intermittently
(Also landing gear switch handle lights illuminate)

25 Fire detection consists of

(a) Three photo conductive cells for each engine and one warning light.
(b) Three photo conductive cells for each engine and two warning lights
*© None of the above.
(The system consists of three photoconductive cells for each engine, a control amplifier for each
engine, red warning lights for each engine.)

26. Green lens placarded OK located on glare shield at each end means

(a) Only for the test function and indicates that the fire extinguishing system is
serviceable.

27. In auto pilot system yaws axis

(a) Can be engaged independently of roll and pitch axis.

28. The cabin pressure controller is

(a) Located on the pilot’s control pedestal.

(b) Controls out flow valve
(c) Used in ALT alert system
*(d) a & b are correct

29. The surface deicer with switch on the SINGLE position.

*(a) The wing boots are inflated for 6 secs. First

(b) The horizontal stabiliser boots are inflated for 4 secs.
(c) The horizontal stabiliser boots are first inflated for four secs
(d) None of the above.
(The distributor valve opens to inflate the wing boots. After an inflation period of approx. 6
secs, an electronic timer switches the distributor to deflate the wing boots and a 4 secs inflation
begins in the horizontal stabiliser boots. When these boots are inflated and deflated the cycle is
complete).

30. In fuel system

(a) An oil to fuel heat exchanger located on the engine accessory case, operates continuously
and automatically to heat the fuel sufficiently to prevent ice from collecting in the fuel control
unit. Each pneumatic fuel control line is protected against ice by an electrically heated jacket

31. Mark the correct statement.

*(a) The fault warning light may be extinguished by pressing the face of the light. (b)
The FFWL will not continue to flash in case the system is otherwise functioning satisfactorily
(c) FFWL will flush for 30 seconds and then extinguish.
(d) FFWL will extinguish by pressing the switch for this purpose.

32. Parking brakes are released when

(a) the pedals are pressed briefly to equalise the pressure on both sides of the valves, then
pushing IN the parking brakes handle to open the valve.

33. (a) cabin door light- RED Cabin cargo doer open / not secure.

(b) R Chip detect light- RED contamination in R engine oil detected

© R Fuel press light- RED fuel pressure failure on R side

*(d) All correct.

34. Wind shield wiper can be operated.

(a) Dry (b) Not to be operated on dry glass (c) Switch
overhead light control panel *(d) B & C are correct.

35. Flaps can be out of phase by

3 to 6 degrees

36. For most effective de-icing operation

(a) Allow ice to form, till ½ inch before attempting to remove

37. Max.pressure difference allowed is 6.5 + 0.1 psi (cabin pressurisation)

38. Zero fuel weight of the a/c is

(a) 11,000 lbs.

(Ramp wt – Wt of useable fuel on board)

39. Dihedral is provided in the A/C fuselage to improve

Roll stability

40 Trim tabs are installed on

(a) Each elevator, rudder, left aileron

41. Take off and landing weight

(a) 12,500 lbs

42. The Red line on the air speed indicator indicated

(a) 86 KIAS / 91 KCAS VMCA

43. Flat rated turbo prop means

*(a) It gives the same power with a given range of ambient temperatures.
(b) It gives same power irrespective of the ambient temp. at any thrust lever position.
(c) It has nothing to do with the power of the engine.
(d) None of the above is correct.

44. Landing gear shock struts are:-

(a) Oil + Air type (Air + oil type)

45. Rudder boosting design is to aid during shut down to function automatically.

(a) Only when at ON position.

46. PT 6A 42 is

(a) Turbo prop engine having free turbine.

47. The propulsion system of the a/c has three sets of control

(a) The power lever to serve to control engine power.

(b) Condition lever controls the flow of fuel

(c) Propeller lever controls the propeller through primary governor.

*(d) All the above are correct

48. Turbo fan engine is defined as: -

(a) A turbo prop except that the ratio of the secondary airflow to the primary airflow
through the basic engine is less. The fan of a turbo fan produces from 30 to 75 % of engine
thrust.

49. The doors are properly closed when checked for

(a) Alignment of a green stripe painted on the latch bolt with the black pointer in the
visual inspection port.

50. The total oil capacity for engine is

(a) 14.2 quartz or 3.55 US gallon.

51. The Rudder-Booster-ON-OFF switch

(a) Located on the pedestal below the rudder trim wheel.

52. Flap indication is marked

(a) in percentage ( not in degrees)

53. Max. observed ITT during

(a) Max continuous cruise – 800 deg C

54. Max. permissible ITT during take off

(a) 800 deg C

55. Engine oil pressure indicated by

(a) Instrument gauges in the instrument panel by yellow and green arc

56. Adjustable cabin pressure control is mounted on the ..

pedestal

57. Maximum ITT during start permissible

1000 deg C for 5 seconds

58 Stall warning horn

(a) is continuous and the switch is located on the co-pilot sub panel on the left.

59 Manual landing gear retraction

(1) Emergency extension lever STOW

(2) Landing gear control C.B – PUSHED IN
(3) Landing gear switch handle – UP

60. Emergency manual extension of landing gear

(a) Air speed –130 knots

(b) landing gear relay C.B. ( pilot sub panel) – PULL

(c) Landing gear switch handle………..DOWN

(d) Emergency extension lever- PUMP up and down until 03 green obtained.

(e) Extension lever-STOW

61. To keep the cabin un pressurised while the a/c is on ground, a safety switch is provided .

On the left hand under carriage

TECHNICAL ON SUPER KING AIR B-200

1 STALL FLAP DOWN / IDLE POWER - 75 KIAS VSO

(wide white arc lower end)

2 STALL FLAP DOWN / IDLE POWER – 99 KIAS VS

(Narrow white arg lower end)

3. ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE BEST RATE OF CLIMB – 121 KIAS VYSE

(Blue Line)

4. FULL FLAP Operation - 157 KIAS

(upper end of narrow white arc )

5. APPROACH FLAP ( 40 %) - 200 KIAS MAX

(while triangle)

6. LANDING GEAR RETRACTION - 165 KIAS VLG

7. LANDING GEAR EXTENSION / OPS - 152 KIAS VLE

8. TURBULENCE PENETRATION - 170 KIAS

9. MAXIMUM SPEED FOR ANY OPS - 259 KIAS / 0.52 mach

Vmo
(Red & WHITE hash marked pointer )

10. One engine inoperative Best Angle of Climb speed 115 KIAS

11 Maximum range glide speed – 135 KIAS

12 Intentional one engine inoperative – 104 KIAS Vsse

POWER turbine :- Two space reaction turbine counter roatating with the turbine –
droves the output shaft
ENGINE - ENGINE AR COMBUSTION CHAMBER FUEL BY 14 NOZZLES
COMPLIANCE IGNITION OMT AND TWO SPARK IGNITER PLUGS

ACCESSORY ENGINE DRIVE FUEL PUMPS FUEL .

COMPRESSOR – 3 Stage axial flow single stage centrifugal flare compressor is driven by a
single stage axial flow reaction turbine.

POWER TURBINES – 3 stage axial flow reaction turbine and driving the output shape (which
includes propeller and accessories)

TECHNICAL ON SUPER KING AIR B-200- PAPER3

( starred choice is the correct answer . God willing!!!)

1. The landing gear operation cycle has the following

1. Max. 3 cycles in 30 minutes followed by 10 minutes test period

2. Max.6 cyles in 30 minutes followed by 30 minutes cool down period
3. Max 5 cycles in 30 minutes followed by 20 minutes test period
*4. Max 6 cycles in 30 minutes followed by 15 minutes cool-down period.

2. Mark the correct statement

*1. Emergency exit handle must be unlocked before take off.

2. For the air stair door when the handle is unlocked position arm should be around the
plunger.
3. An electrical lock prevents opening of the air stair door after take-off
4. All above are incorrect.

3. In the event of electrical smoke or fire in the aircraft, the pilot should proceed as
follows:-

1. Don masks, cabin temp mode Off, Vent Blower – ON aft Blower ON and Avionics
Master OFF
2. Don Marks, Cabin Temp, mode-OFF went blower –AUTO, Aft blower ON, Avionics
Master – OFF and Non-essential loads-OFF
*3. All above are INCORRECT

4. In pressurisation system if the differential pressure pops into red arc:-

1. Set the cabin altitude controller to a lower setting

*2. Set the cabin altitude controller to a highter setting
3. As in (i) and if condition persists DUMP the cabin pressure
4. Bleed air valves to OPEN position.

5. Mark the correct statement with respect to Bleed Air Line failure warning system
1. During test, each engine will extinguish its corresponding annunciator.
*2. Illumination of a warning annunciator in flight means a possible rupture of bleed air line
3. After closing the bleed air valve, the warning annunciator will extinguish.
4. The annunciator should be manually extinguished during starting procedure.

6. Mark the correct statement for two engine best angle of climb air speeds.

1. 120 knots
2. Same as two engine best rate of climb
*3. 100 knots
4. 150 knots

7. For engine starting with external power ascertain that the Auxiliary power unit has a
capacity:-

1. 100 amperes output

2. 400 amperes output
3. 500 amperes output
*4. 1000 amperes output

8. The pitch range of the Mcouley propeller installed on this aircraft is (don’t know for
sure)

1. 99 degrees to –ve 5 degrees

*2. 87.5 degrees to –ve10 degrees
3. 78 degrees to -ve 10 degrees
4. 87.5 degrees to 10 degrees

9. Mark the correct statement

1. Max take of weight is 12,590 pounds

2. Max.take off and landing weight is 12590 pounds and the max zero fuel weight is 11500
pounds
*3. Max.take off and landing weight is 12500 pounds and the zero fuel weight is 11,000
pounds.
4. Max zero fuel weight is 11,500 pounds and max weight to baggage compartment is 550
pounds.

10. The terms high idle and low idle in relation to power plant respectively correspond to

*1. 70 % and 52 %N1

2. 74 % and 65 % N1
3. 77 % and 68.9 % N1
4. 80 % and 68 % N1

11. While checking the operation of air conditioning unit on ground, it is required to

1. Operate both engines with generator load not exceeding 85 %.

2. Only left engine may be operated upto 65 % N1
3. Only right engine may be operated upto 85 % N1
*4. Operate right engine above 62 % N1

12. Mark the correct statement

1. Crossfeed Is permitted to balance fuel quantities LH and RH sides with both engines
operating.
*2. The B 200 is approved for take off with one stanby boost pump inoperative.
3. Maximum allowable imbalance between wing fuel systems is 500 pounds.
4. All above are correct.

13. Mark the correct statement

*1. The propeller speed upto 2200 rpm is not permitted for more than 5 seconds.
2. Sustained flight may be continued upto 2120 propeller rpm provided torque is limited to
1000 foot pounds.
3. Sustained propeller overspeeds above 2120 rpm are not permitted for more than 30
seconds.
4. At idle throttle setting the minimum propeller speed must be more than 1200 rpm.

14. While shutting down engine battery and generator switches should be switched OFF

1. At 30 % N1 rpm
*2. Below 15 % N1 rpm
3. Below 25 % N1 rpm
4. Above 150 % N1 rpm.

15. Mark the correct statement associated with battery charge annunciator.

1. Annunciator indicates a change above normal.

2. Annunciator indicates a abnormal condition
3. As in (1) and annunciator should extinguish within 5 mionutes following a normal engine
*4. As in (3) if fails to extinguish within 5 minutes indicates a partially discharged battery.

16. Mark the correct statement when air conditioner ON

1. Maintain at least 10 % N1 speed of right engine.

2. Maintain at least 45 % N1 speed of left engine.
*3. Maintain at least 60 % N1 speed of right engine.
4. Maintain at least 30 % N1 speed of left engine.

17. If battery charge annunciator comes on in flight, how will you check the battery
condition.
1. Switch off battery momentarily
2. Switch OFF and not the lead inter reading
*3. As in 1 and note loadmeter difference in reading
4. None of the above is correct.

18. Mark the correct statement for inflight engine shut down
1. Not Allowed to shutdown under any circumstances
 2. can be allowed at only below 100 knots
*3. Is prohibited below 104 knots
4. Can be allowed below 80 knots

19. Manual trim control wheel can be used.

1. When electric trim system is operative only.

2. When electric trim system is inoperative only
*3. Without any effect of electric trim system
4. None of the above is correct.

20. While doing pre-flight check on Rudder Booster system if left engine is on idle power,
system satisfactory indication will be given by

1. Left rudder pedal moving forward

*2. Right rudder pedal moving forward
3. Right fodder pedal moving backward
4. Left rudder pedal moving outward

21. The motor used for landing gear retraction is

1. 115 volts 400 c/s single phase

*2. 28 volts DC motor
3. 115 with 400 c/s 3 phase
4. 24 colra AC Motor.

22. If the right propeller is operating at a higher rpm then left propeller then synchroscope
will show:

1. A black and white cross pattern spins in anti-clock wise rotation

2. A blue and yellow cross pattern spins in clockwise rotation
*3. A black and white cross pattern spins in clockwise rotation.
4. A black and white cross pattern remains stationery.

23. Magnetic chip detector will activate

1. Cautionary yellow annunciator (on older models the ship detects will activate warning
red annunciator
2. Advisory green annunciator
*3. Flashing red annunciator
4. Cautionary amber annunciator

24. Mark the correct statement after extinguishing the engine fire the fire detection system is:

1. Reset to reactivate the fire detection system

*2. No manual resetting is required
3. Depends upon the type of fire
4. Depends upon the type of fire extinguisher used.

25. Propeller RPM is controlled by:

1. Two constant speed and low speed governors
2. A constant speed governor
3. A high speed governor
*4. Two governors, over speed governer constant speed governor.

26. Diluter demand oxygen mask is to be selected at 100 % modes

1. 11,060 ft cabin altitude

2. 10,000 ft pressure altitude
3. 15,000 ft cabin altitude
*4. Above 20,000 ft cabin altitude

27. Source of supply for flight instrument are:-

1. Two pitot tubes and two static ports

2. Two pitot tubes and two static ports and their alternative source of pitot pressure
3. Two pitot tubes and static ports, also two and alternate source of pitot pressure
*4. Two pitot tubes and two static ports and a alternate source of static pressure.

28. VMCA of this model is

1. 80 KIAS
2. 80 KIAS
3. 80 KCAS
*4. 91 KCAS

29. What is the significance of “wide white arc” marking on ASI

1. It shows full flap operating range

*2. It indicates VSO at maximum weight with full flaps and idle power.
3. It dictates VSO at maximum weight with flaps upto 10 % and idle power
4. It indicates VMCA

30. Mark the correct statement

1. The maximum propeller overspeed limit is 2200 RPM and is time limited to two
seconds.
*2. The maximum propeller overspeed limit is 2200 RPM and is time limited to five seconds.
3. As in (1) sustained propeller overspeeds faster than 2080 RPM indicates failure of both
the primary governor and secondary governor.
4. As in (2) and sustained propeller overspeeds faster than 2080 RPM indicate failure of
primary governor only.

31. The illumination of the yellow BATTERY CHARGE annunciator comes ON whenever
the battery

1. Voltage falls below 28 V

*2. Charge current is above 7 amps
3. Approaches a full charge current decreases below 7 amps
4. is under load.
32. The maximum unusable fuel quantity is

1. 300 gallons
*2. 544 gallons
3. 454 gallons
4. None of the above are correct

33. The manoeuvring speed of King Air B 200 / 200 C is

1. 200 KCAS
2. 181 KCAS
3. 164 KCAS
*4. 182 KCAS

34. When the oil pressure of engine drops to 60 psi, inflight, the immediate action taken is

1. Shut down the engine

2. Landing be made as soon as possible, using the minimum power required to sustain flight
3. Continue the flight on normal cruise condition provided the oil pressure does not fall
below 60 psi
*4. Both (1) and (2) are correct.

35. The engine oil temperature is

1. Permitted to exceed beyond normal recommended limit for 10 secs only

*2. Permitted to exceed upto 104 deg C for a max. time of 10 minutes
3. Permitted to exceed upto 135 deg C for a max.time of one minute.
4. Not permitted to exceed beyond 99 deg C.

36. Mark the correct statement

1. Maximum allowable fuel imbalance between wing fuel system is 1000 pounds.
2. Do not take off if fuel quantity gauges indicate in yellow are or less than 265 pounds of
fuel in each main tank.
3. Cross loading of fuel is permitted only when one engine in operative
*4. All the above are correct.

37. The maximum propeller over speed limit is

1. 2200 rpm for unlimited period

*2. 2200 rpm for 5 seconds only
3. 2200 rpm for 10 seconds only
4. Both (2) and (3) are correct.

38. The Centre of Gravity limits is

1. 196.0 inches aft of datum at all weights (aft limit)

2. 196.4 inches aft of datum at take-off weight only (aft limit).
3. 181.0 inches aft at datum at all weights (forward limit)
*4. 185.0 inches aft at datum at take off weight (forward limit).
39. After the two consecutive starts, the use of the starter is limited to

1. 40 seconds ON, then 20 minutes OFF

*2. 40 seconds ON, then 30 minutes OFF
3. 40 seconds ON, then 60 seconds OFF
4. 40 seconds ON, then 10 minutes OFF

40. If a cracking occurs in the outer ply of any fuselage side window pressurised operation
may be continued only if (not sure)

1. Max. cabin differential pressure is 4.6 psi

2. Max. operating altitude is 25000 ft.
3. As in (2) and not more than 20 hours of operation are allowed after the outer ply cracks.
4. As in (1) and (3) provided cracking in the outer ply is circumferential direction and is
approximately 2 inches from the edge of the window frame.

41. When the engine oil pressure is between 60 to 85 psi

1. Shut down the engine.
2. Should be tolerated only for the completion of the flight.
*3. As in (2) and then only at a power setting not exceeding 1100 ft-lbs torque.
4. As in (2) provided the engine oil temp is within nominal zero amended limits.

42. In the electric elevator trim system

1. No one switch movement should activate the system on

2. Moving the two switch elements on either pilot’s or co-pilot’s control wheel in opposite
directions should not activate the system.
3. Any activation of trim system by the co-pilot’s thumb switch can be over ridden by the
pilot’s thumb switch.
*4. All the above are correct.

43. A rudder boost system is provided to

1. Aid the pilot maintaining directional control in the event of any gusty wind condition.
2. Aid the pilot in maintaining directional control in the event of any engine failure.
*3. As in (2) and to help compensate for asymmetrical thrust.
4. Aid the pilot in maintaining directional control during normal take off and landing.

44. Approach position of flap corresponds to

1. 70 % of flap track
*2. 40 % of flap track
3. 45 % of flap track
4. 60 of flap track

45. With the nose landing gear retracted, the motion of the rudder pedal result is
1. Nose wheel deflection
*2. Some of the fore applied to rudder pedals is absorbed by the spring loaded link in the
steering system
3. As in (2) and the nose wheel is rolling
4. All the above are correct.

46. The safety switch which operates the mechanism that prevents the L/G handle from being
raised is :
1. Located on the right main gear torque knee.
2 .Located on the left main gear torque knee
*3. As in (1) it opens the control circuit when the strut is compressed
4. As in (2) it actuates a solenoid operated down lock hook. On the L/G control switch.

(on hydraulically operated undercarriage the safety switch is located on both main gear

47. The landing gear warning system comes on

1. When u/c is not down and locked.

*2 As in (1) and the warning horns will sound intermittently with the flaps in UP or
APPROACH position and power levers below 79 to 81 % NI
3 As in (2), the horn and the lights in the L/G switch handle can be silenced.
4 As in (2), the horn and the lights in the L/G switch handle cannot be silenced

48. The high ITT at ground idle may be corrected by

1. Reducing accessory load

2. Increasing fuel supply
*3. As in (1) and by increasing N1 rpm
4. None above are correct

49. Illumination of a bleed valve failure warning annunciator in flight indicates

1 Failure of either engine bleed air system

*2. A possible rupture of bleed air line oil of the engine fire wall
3. Closing of either engine bleed air valve.
4. All the above are correct

50. Mark the correct statement

1. Operation of the elevator trim system should occur only by movement of pairs of
switches.
2. Never connect an external power source to the airplane unless a battery maintaining a
charge of at least 20V is in the airplane.
3. The cabin/cargo door anunciator circuitry shall be checked prior to the first flight of the
day
*4. All above are correct.

51. Mark the correct statement

1. The yaw damper is not automatically engaged whenever the auto-pilot is engaged

2. Rotating turn knob out of detent position with auto pilot engaged will cancel all lateral
flight direction modes.

3. Low bank limit will be cancelled if HDC mode is cancelled but will not be