lOMoARcPSD|17634467

Pharmacology - RED Pacop

Manuf Pharmacy (Manila Central University)

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Pharmacology

Name: Score:

1. Pharmacodynamics is A) Pharmacological efficacy

A) The science that examines the interrelationship B) Pharmacological toxicity ratio
of the physicochemical properties of the drug C) Therapeutic index
and the route of administration on the rate and D) Median effective ratio
extent of systemic circulation E) Competitive antagonism
B) The science of the kinetics of drug absorption,
distribution and elimination 7. A physician may prescribed carbidopa along
C) The part of pharmacology, which deals with with levodopa to increase the halflife levodopa
what a drug does to the body and the duration of its anti-parkinsonian effect.
D) The science, which deals with the This way of enhancing of drug effect is known as
physicochemical properties of the drug that A) Potentiation
allow it to be designed into dosage forms B) Synergism
E) A and B C) Addition
D) Partial antagonism
2. Which of the following types of drugs binds to a E) Competitive antagonism
receptor and produce an effect similar to that of
endogenous ligands? 8. Which of the following is the main organ of
A) Inverse agonist metabolism?
B) Agonist A) Kidney
C) Partial agonist B) Liver
D) Competitive antagonist C) Intestines
E) Noncompetitive antagonist D) Pancreas
E) Heart
3. Drugs ‘x’ binds to drug ‘y’ as a result of which an
inactive complex is formed. This type of 9. Chloramphenicol is known for which of the
antagonism is called following adverse side-effects?
A) Competitive antagonism A) Blue baby syndrome
B) Non-competitive antagonism B) Gray baby syndrome
C) Physiologic antagonism C) Red man syndrome
D) Neutralizing antagonism D) A and B
E) Partial antagonism E) B and C

4. Epinephrine and acetylcholine act on the 10. Co-amoxiclav: amoxicillin/clavulanic acid : co-
sympathatetic and parasympathetic autonomic trimoxazole___
nervous system, respsectively, and their effects A) Trimethoprim/mebendazole
are opposite to each other. This type of B) Triamterene/mebendazole
antagonism is called C) Triamterene/sulfamethoxazole
A) competitive antagonism D) Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
B) non competitive antagonism E) None of the above
C)physiologic antagonism
D) neutralizing antagonism 11. Which of the following drugs does not belong to
the group?
5. Which of the following is not true about A) Omeprazole
competitive antagonism? B) Lansoprazole
A) It involves selective binding of the antagonist to C) Aripiprazole
a particular type of receptor in such a way as to D) Ranitidine
prevent the binding of the antagonist E) All of the above
B) Both the agonist and antagonist have similar
chemical structure 12. Which of the following anti-TB drugs can cause
C) It is reversible red-green color blindness
D) The antagonist does not have the ability to A) Rifamcin
activate the receptor B) Isoniazid
E) None of th above C) Pyrazinamide
D) Ethambutol
6. The relative measure f the safety and E) Streptomycin
effectiveness of a drug is the ratio of TD50 to
ED50. The pharmacological term used to
indicate this ratio is known as

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13. Which of the following drugs is the least E) Methycephaline

considered as prodrug?
A) Captopril 20. Aside from the answer in #19, what other drug
B) Enalapril can be given to Gon?
C) Ramipril A) DOM
D) Accupril B) DAM
E) None of the above C) DEM
D) DIM
14. (Enervon®) tablet contains the following E) DUM
EXCEPT:
A) Nicotinamide 21. Cookie was diagnosed to have HPN and was
B) Calcium prescribed betablockers for her treatment. She
C) Ascorbic acid has a history of asthma. Which of the ff.
D) Magnesium betablockers should be given to cookie?
E) None of the above A) Propanolol
B) Timolol
15. The sympathetic division of the ANS stems C) Levobunolol
from_____ D) Metoprolol
A) Craniosacral E) None of the above
B) Thoracolumbar
C) Craniolumbar
D) Thoracosacral
E) None of the above

16. Which of the following prevents the storage of 22. Andrea is going perform in the 2011 spring
the acetylcholine to terminal vesicles? music festival. Hours before her performance
A) Vesamicol she started to experience “stage fright”. Which of
B) Reserpine the ff. drugs can be given to mange her
C) Botulinun toxin condition?
D) Hemicholinuim A) Lasartan
E) None of the above B) Enalapril
C) Prpanolol
17. The following are phase II reactions EXCEPT: D) Prazosin
A) Acetylation E) Paracetamol
B) Methylation
C) Hydrolysis 23. The hydraulic equation is
D) Sulfonation A) CO=PVR x BP
E) None of the above B) PVR=CO x CO
C) BP=CO x PVR
18. Monoamine oxidase is an D) All of the above
A) Enzyme E) None of the above
B) Hormone
C) Inhibitor 24. Which of the ff. are substrates of kininase
D) Drug II/peptidyl dipeptidase?
E) Cosmetic A) Angiotensin I
B) Bradikinin
19. Gon went to his farm to spray pesticide on his C) Angiotensin II
crops. Hour later he started to experience D) A and B
diarrhea, vomiting, bronchoconstriction and E) A and C
tachycardia. He was immediately sent to the
hospital for treatment. Which of drugs should be 25. Lanoxin acts on which of the following.
given to Gon? A) Na/K ATPase pump
A) Serine B) Na/H ATPase pump
B) Edrophonium C) H/K ATPase pump
C) Atropine D) Na/Ca ATPase pump
D) Prazosin E) None of the above

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26. Anti-arrhythmic drugs under class 4 acts on A. I,IV,II,III

A) Na channels B. IV,I,II,III
B) Ca channels C. IV,I,III,II
C) K channels D. I,IV,III,II
D) B blockers E. None of the above
E) None of the above
34. Dissociative anesthic state characterized by
27. Which of the following are loop diuretics? catatonia, amnesia, and analgesia can be
I. Ethacrynic acid produced by which drug?
II. Furosemide A. Etomidate
III. Bumetimide B. Ketamine
IV. Indapamide C. Propofol
D. Thiopental
A. I and II E. Seconal
B. II and III
C. I and IV 35. Nueroleptanesthesia is produce by which drug
D. I, II and III combination?
E. II, III and IV A. Fentanyl, droperidol and NO
28. Andrei works as a pilot in an airline company. B. Propofol, fentanyl and halothane
Which of the following antihistamines ca he C. Fentanyl, etomidate and halothane
take? D. All of the above
A. Fexofenadine E. None of the above
B. Bromoheniramine
C. Promethazine 36. Which of the following does not belong to the
D. Chlorpheniramine group?
E. All of the above A. Lidocaine
29. 5HT3 antgonist are used for: B. Mepivacaine
A. Nausea and vomiting C. Prilocaine
B. Diarrhea D. Benzocaine
C. Headache E. Arecholine
D. All of the above
E. None of the above 37. What is the treatment for malignant
30. Montelukast Is a/an hyperthermia?
A. Luekotriene pathway inhibitor A. Sussinylcholine
B. Mast cell stabilizer B. Gabapentin
C. Anti – IgE monoclonal antibodies C. Rocuronium
D. All of the above D. Dantrolene
E. None of the above E. Arecholine
31. DOC for typical absence seizure
A. Lamotrigin 38. Which of the following antiviral drug can be used
B. Phenytoin for Parkinsonism
C. Ethosuximide A. Abacavir
D. Carbamazepine B. Dinanosine
E. All of the above C. Efavirenz
32. Flumazenil is D. Amantadine
A. Barbiturate antagonist E. NOTA
B. Benzodiazepine antagonist
C. Barbiturates antagonist 39. Jet a five year old boy is having a problem with
D. Benzodiazepine agonist bed wetting. What drug can be prescribed for his
E. None of the above condition?
33. Arrange the correct order of the stages of A. Citalopram
anesthesia B. Furosemine
I. Stage of excitement C. Sertraline
II. Stage of medullary depression D. Amitriptyline
III. Stage of surgical anesthesia E. Amilorine
IV. Stage of analgesiA

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40. Its is the dextrorotatory stereoisomer of D. Somatostatin

methylated derivative of levorphanol which is E. Simvastatin
used as antitussive?
A. Codeine 47. Which of the following betablockers is most
B. Dextromethorphan widely used in the therapy of thyrotoxicosis?
C. Dolophine A. Betaxolol
D. Revex B. Bisoprolol
E. Morphine C. Metoprolol
D. Propranolol
41. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are advised to be E. Linalool
given during night
time with the EXEPTION of _______ which can 48. Marie is pregnant and was diagnosed with
be given anytime of the day. thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following
A. Simvastatin thionamodes shoul be given to her?
B. Lovastatin A. PTU
C. Atorvastatin B. Methimazole
D. Flivastatin C. Carbimazide
E. NOTA D. Mebendazole
E. All of the above
42. Which of the ff. vitamin can be used to lower
cholesterol levels? 49. Soluble “peakles”, ultra long acting analog
A. Retinol A. Glargine
B. Thiamine B. NPH
C. Riboflavin C. Insulin lispro
D. Niacin D. All of the above
E. Panthothenic acid
50. Safest sulfonylurea for the elderly diabetics
43. Which of the given is considered the DMAD”s of A. Tolbutamide
1st choice to treat rheumatoid arthritis? B. Chlorpropamide
A. Cyclophosphamide C. Tolazamide
B. Methotrxate D. Nateglinide
C. Azathioprine E. None of the above
D. Mycophenolate mofetil
E. Cyclodextrins 51. Synthetic analog of amylin that modulate
postprandial glucose levels and is approved for
44. Isoniazid can cause the following laboratory data preprandial use in individuals with type I and
except? type II DM
A. Lactic acidosis A. Sitagliptin
B. Anemia B. Pramlintide
C. Hypoglycaemia C. Exenatide
D. Leukocytes D. All of the above
E. NOTA E. None of the above

45. DOC for chronic gout 52. Useful for reversing the cardiac effects of an
A. Colchicines overdose of B-blocking agents because ability to
B. Probenecid increase cAMP production in the heart
C. Febuxostat A. Amylin
D. Serine B. Exenatide
E. Allopurinol C. Sitagliptin
D. Glucagon
46. A peptide hormone secreted by the posterior E. All of the above
pituitary that participates in labor and delivery
and elicits milk injection in lactating women. 53. Vitamin D is
A. Prolactin I. Has vitamin D2 as a natural form
B. Oxcytocin II. A secosteroid
C. Insulin III. Produced in the skin from 7-dehydrocholoesterol

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A. I only 60. The most ototoxic aminoglycosides are:

B. III only A. Neomycin and kanamycin
C. II and III only B. Streptomycin and gentamicin
D. A and II only C. Neomycin and gentamicin
E. I and III only D. All of the above
E. None of the above
54. Calcitonon
A. Lower serum calcuim and phosphate 61. Trimethoprim acts on
B. Increase serum calcium and phosphate A. Dihydropteroate synthase
C. Increase serum phosphate only B. Ddihydrofolate reductase
D. Both A and B C. DNA gyrase
E. Neither A nor B D. A and B
E. A and C
55. What is the oral form of penicillin?
A. Pen G 62. This anti-fungal drugs absorption is improved
B. Pen V when taken with fatty foods:
C. Pen C A. Ketoconazole
D. None of the above B. 5-flucytosine
E. All of the above C. Nystatin
D. Griseofulvin
56. What is the 1st generation PARENTERAL E. All of the above
cephalosporin still in general use?
A. Cefalexin 63. This drug is the treatment of choice for
B. Cephadrine giardiasis, trichomoniasis and amoebiasis.
C. Cefadoxole A. Iodoquinol
D. Cefazolin B. Diloxanide furoate
E. All of the above C. Metronidazole
D. paramomycin
57. Vancomycin is from E. none of the above
A. Streptococcus orientalis
B. Streptomyces orientalis 64. Prussian blue is used to chelate
C. Streptococcus orchidaceus A. Thallium
D. Streptomyces orchidaceus B. Cesium
E. None of the above C. Cyanide
D. A and B
58. Which of the following is derived from E. B and C
erythromycin by addition of methyl group and
has an improved acid stability and oral 65. Treatment for iron poisoning
absorption A. Deferoxamine
A. Azithromycin B. Methylene blue
B. Clarithromycin C. Ferroin
C. Clindamycin D. Penicillamine
D. Streptomycin E. None of the above
E. None of the above
66. Antidote for acetaminophen overdose
59. Concurrent use of aminoglycoside with loop A. NAC
diuretics may result to: B. Atropine
A. Ototoxicity C. Bicarbonate
B. Neprhrotoxicity D. Fomepizole
C. Hypertension E. All of the above
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above 67. Acetylated morphine
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Methadone
D. Naloxone

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E. All of the above E. Nne of the above

68. Methylated morphine 76. Mr. Jones is admitted to General Hospital

A. Codeine with pneumonia due to gram-negative bacteria.
B. Heroin The antibiotic tobramycin is ordered. The CL
C. Methadone and Vd of tobramycin in Mr. Joses are 80 ml/min
D. Naloxone and 40 L. respectively. What maintenance
E. all of the above dosage must be administered intravenously
every 6 hours to eventually obtain average
69. which of the following H2- antagonist has the steady-state plasma concentrations of 4 mg/L?
highest bioavailability? A.) 0.32 mg
A. Cimetidine B.) 115 mg
B. Ranitidine C.) 160 mg
C. Famotidine D.) 230 mg
D. Nizatidine E.) None of the above
E. None of the above
70. Which is the most potent H2- antagonist? 77. If you wish to give Mr. Jones (of question
A. Cimetidine 101) a loading dose to achieve the therapeutic
B. Ranitidine plasma concentration of 4 mg/L immediately,
C. Famotidine how much should you give?
D. Nizatidine A.) 0.1 mg
E. All of the above B.) 10 mg
C.) 115.2 mg
71. Plasil® is D.) 160 mg
A. Metoclopramide E.) None of the above
B. Chlopropamide
C. Enalapril 78. Biotransformation (metabolism) usually
D. Furosemide results in a product that is
E. All of the above A.) More likely to distribute intracellularly
B.) Less lipid-soluble than the the original drug
72. Silymarin is for the C.) More likely to be reabsorbed by kidney
A. Liver tubules
B. Kidney D.) More lipid-soluble than the original drug
C. Brain E. All of the above
D. All of the above
E. None of the above 79. Physostigimine and bethanechol in small
doses have similar effects on all of the following
73. Ginkgo should not be given with EXCEPT
A. Aspirin A.) Neuromuscular junction (skeletal muscle)
B. Vancomycin B.) Salivary glands
C. Caffeine C.) Ureteral tone
D. Juice D.) Sweat glands
E. All of the above E.) Gastric secretion
74. Royal jelly is used as
A. Diet aid 80. Pyridostigmine and neostigmine may cause
B. Analgesic all of the following EXCEPT
C. Tonic A.) Reversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
D. Digestive aid B.) Spasm of accomodation
E. All of the above C.) Constipation
D.) Bronchoconstriction
75. What is the mechanism of action of a E.) Weakness of skeletal muscle
chloramphenicol?
A. Cell wall synthesis inhibitor 81. Typical symptoms of cholinesterase inhibitor
B. Protein synthesis inhibitor toxicity include all of the following EXCEPT
C. DNA gyrase inhibitor A.) Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
D. Antimetabolite B.) Salivation

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C.) Miosis A.) Smooth muscle relaxation release in the

D.) Paralysis of skeletal muscle bronchi
E.) Paralysis of accommodation B.) Stimulation of cortisol release by the
adrenals
82. Atropine overdosage may cause all of the C.) Block of calcium channels in lymphocytes
following EXCEPT D.) Block of mediator release from mast cells
A.) Mental aberrations E.) Block of cAMP synthesis in basophils
B.) Relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth muscle
C.) Decrease in gastric secretion 88. Each of the following is recognized as a
D.) Papillary constriction central neurotransmitter EXCEPT
E.) Increase in cardiac rate A.) Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT)
B.) Norepinephrine
83. A college friend consults you regarding the C.) Dopamine
suitability of the theraphy his doctor has D.) cAMP
prescribed for hypertension. He complains of E.) Acetylcholine
postural and exercise hypotension (“dizziness”),
some diarrhea, and problems with ejaculation 89. Which ONE of the following best describes
during sex. Which of the following is most likely the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?
to produce these effects? A.) Blockade of the excitatory actions of glutamic
A.) Propranol acid
B.) Guanethedine B.) inhibition of GABA transaminase leading to
C.) Prazosin increased levels of GABA
D.) Hydralizine C.) Activation of glycine receptors in the spinal
E.) Captopril cord
D.) Facilitation of GABA-mediated increases in
84. Captopril and Enalapril do all of the following chloride conductance
EXCEPT
A.) Increase renin concentration in the blood 90. Which of the following statements about
B.) Inhibit an enzyme carbidopa is accurate?
C.) Competitively inhibit angiotensin at its A.) It crosses the blood brain barrier
receptor B.) It inhibits monoamine oxidase type A
D.) Decrease the angiotensin II concentration in C.) It is converted to the false transmitter,
the blood carbidopamine
E.) Increase sodium and decrease potassium D.) It inhibits aromatic L-amino acid
levels in the urine decarboxylase
E.) It inhibits monoamine oxidase type B
85. The primary mechanism of action of digitalis
involves 91. This drug is a hydrazide derivative that binds
A.) An increase of the action potential amplitude irreversibly to monoamine oxidase types A and
B.) An increase in ATP synthesis B, resulting in prolonged inhibition of amine
C.) A modification of the actin molecule metabolism.
D.) An increase in systolic intracellular calcium A.) Amoxapine
levels B.) Amitriptyline
E.) A block of sodium-calcium exchange C.) Isocarboxazid
D.) Maprotiline
86. Which of the following is (are) frequently E.) Fluoxetine
associated with increased gastrointestinal
motility and diarrhea 92. This drug has analgesic efficacy equivalent
A.) Timolol to morphine. It is an antagonist at mu receptors.
B.) Prostaglandins E1 and E2 A.) Dextromethorphan
C.) Corticosteroids B.) Nalbuphine
D.) Leukotriene B4 C.) Methadone
E.) None of the above D.) Codeine
E.) Naltrexone
87. The major action of cromolyn

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93. This antagonist drug has been proposed as

a maintenance drug for addicts in treatment 99. Which of the following causes a reduction in
programs. A single oral dose will block the absorption of bile acids from the GIT
effects of injected heroin for up to 48 hours. A.) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
A.) Dextromethorphan B.) Colestipol
B.) Nalbuphine C.) Niacin
C.) Methadone D.) Probucol
D.) Codeine E.) All of the above
E.) Naltrexone
100. Drugs used in the treatment of gout include
94. This drug is free of analgesic and addictive the following EXCEPT
properties and only rarely causes constipation. It A.) Indomethacin
is an effective antitussive. B.) Allopurinol
A.) Dextromethorphan C.) Colchicines
B.) Nalbuphine D.) Probenecid
C.) Methadone E.) Aspirin
D.) Codeine
E.) Naltrexone 101. All of the following are hormones EXCEPT
A.) Bromocriptine
95. This drug is a full antagonist at opioid B.) Somatotropin
receptors. It has analgesic activity equivalent to C.) Thyrotropin
that of morphine, but its actions are more D.) Vasopressin
prolonged. Withdrawal signs on abrupt E.) Somatomedin
discontinuance are milder than those with 102. Important drugs used in the treatment of
morphine. thyrotoxicosis include all of the following
A.) Dextromethorphan EXCEPT
B.) Nalbuphine A.) PTU
C.) Methadone B.)KI
D.) Codeine C.) Thyroglobulin
E.) Naltrexone D.) Radioactive iodine
E.) Methimazole
96. Activation of plasminogen to plasmin
A.) Is brought about by heparin 103. All of the following act by a similar
B.) Is brought about by warfarin mechanism EXCEPT
C.) Is brought about by anistreplase A.) Tolbutamide
D.) Is used preoperatively and during surgery in B.) Tolazamide
patients at risk of deep vein thromboses C.) Chlorpropamide
E.) Can be reversed by administration of Vitamin D.) Glipizide
K1 oxide E.) Metformin

97. Aspirin should be used cautiously in a 104. All of the following antimicrobial agents are
patient receiving heparin because aspirin inhibitors of protein synthesis EXCEPT
A.) Inhibits Vitamin K absorption A.) Clindamycin
B.) Has antithrombin activity B.) Tetracycline
C.) Inhibits heparin metabolism C.) Vancomycin
D.) Inhibits platelet aggregation D.) Stretomycin
E.) All of the above E.) Chloramphenicol

98. Increased levels of which of the following 105. The mechanism of antibacterial action of
may be associated with a decreased risk of cephalosporins involves
atherosclerosis? A.) Inhibition of peptide synthesis
A.) VLDL B.) Interference with the synthesis of ergosterol
B.) LDL C.) Inhibition of transpeptidase enzymes
C.) IDL D.) Inhibition of beta-lactamases
D.) HDL E.) Inhibiton of DNA gyrase
E.) Cholesterol

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106. The mechanism of antibacterial action of accomplished by the use of which of the
tetracycline involves following agents?
A.) Inhibition of the conversion of lanosterol to A.) Praziquantei
ergosterol B.) Diethylcarbamazine
B.) Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA C.) Niclosamide
polymerase D.) Albendazole
C.) Blockade of binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to E.) Metronidazole
bacterial ribosomes
D.) Selective inhibition of ribosomal 112. Which of the following antineosplastic
peptidyltransferases agents is considered as cell cycle phase-specific
E.) None of the above agent in terms of its action on cancer cells?
A.) Dactinomycin
107. All of the following statements about B.) Daunorubucin
aminoglycosides are accurate EXCEPT C.) Vincristine
A.) They exert synergistic effects with beta- D.) Cisplastin
lactam antibiotics against selected organisms E.) Mechlorethamine
B.) They are bactericidal
C.) Their antibacterial action involves binding to 113. Which of the following is (are) important
the 50s ribosomal subunit and subsequent adjuvants in cancer chemotheraphy involving
inhibition of peptidyltransferase cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide to prevent
D.) Clinical resistance occurs through plasmid- urotoxicity?
mediated formation of group transferase- A.) MESNA
inactivating enzymes B.) Acrolein
E.) Staphylococci resistant to methicillin are C.) Sodium 2-sulfanylthanesulfate
usually resistant to aminoglycosides D.) A and B
E.) A and C
108. The primary reason for the use of drug
combinations in the treatment of TB is to 114. Which of the following is true about the
A.) Prolong the plasma half-life of each drug drug Pritor ®?
B.) Lower the incidence of adverse effects A.) It is of the same therapeutic class and
C.) Enhance the activity against metabolically indication as Hypace® and Diovan ®
inactive mycobacteria B.) It is used to treat essential hypertension
D.) Delay the emergence of resistance C.) It is associated with tachycardia,
E.) All of the above bradycardia, hypotension, and edema
D.) A and B
109. Which ONE of the following anticancer E.) B and C
drugs is cell cycle nonspecific?
A.) Vinblastine 115. Which of the following is not present in
B.) Etoposide Cluviscol® tablets?
C.) Cytarabine A.) Vitamin D2 400 IU
D.) Daunorubucin B.) Calcium 120mg
E.) All of the above C.) Ferrous fumarate 15mg
D.) Vitamin C 150mg
110. Which of the following is not a proton-pump E.) Cobalt 3mg
inhibitor?
A.) Omeprazole 116. Which of the following is true regarding N-
B.) Metronidazole acetylcysteine?
C.) Pantoprazole A.) Intravenously, it is indicated for the treatment
D.) Lansoprazole of paracetamol poisoning
E.) None of the above B.) It is used as a mucolytic agent
C.) It is marketed as Acetadote®, Fluimucil®
111. Filariasis, an infection which can lead to and Hidonac®
lymphatic obstructive disease, is caused by D.) A and B only
Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malay. E.) A, B and C
Eradication of the microfilaria can be

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117. Which of the following is true regarding 124. Propylthiouracil is used for the same
Cellcept®? indication as
A.) It contains a prodrug that is converted to the A.) Fluororacil
active drug in the liver. B.) Danazol
B.) It inhibits inosine monophosphate C.) Omeprazole
dehydrogenase D.) Pramipexole
C.) It decreases B cell proliferation E.) Methimazole
D.) A and B only
E.) A, B and C 125. Which of the following is an indication of
Ergotamine?
118. Xalatan® can best be described as a(n) A.) Partial seizures
A.) Cholinesterase inhibitor B.) Arthritic pain
B.) Osmotic diuretic C.) Tachycardia
C.) Beta-adrenergic blocking agent D.) Psoriasis
D.) Prodrug E.) Migraine headaches
E.) Prostaglandin agonist
126. At clinical doses, anti-Parkinson’s Disease
119. As an antiarrythmic drug, Tonocard® is Eldepryl® is a (n):
most similar in mechanism of action to which A.) MAO-A inhibitor
one of the following agents? B.) MAO-B inhibitor
A.) Amiodarone C.) COMT
B.) Propranolol D.) Anticholinergic
C.) Flecainide E.) All of the above
D.) Verapamil
E.) Mexiletine
127. Which hypoglycemic agent is most similar
120. Which of the following antiarrythmic drugs in pharmacological action in miglitol?
is (are) associated with an adverse effect of A.) Glipizide
cinchonism? B.) Lispro insulin
A.) Acebutolol C.) Proglitazone
B.) Moricizine D.) Replaganide
C.) Quinidine E.) Acarbose
D.) Lidocaine
E.) Disopyramide 128. Statement 1: Simeco® contains 25mg of
simethicone.
121. Colestipol can be classified as a(n) Statement 2: It is used for the
A.) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor sympotomatic relief of hyperacidity and
B.) Vasopressor flatulence.
C.) Potassium-sparing diuretic A.) If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is
D.) ACE inhibitor incorrect
E.) Bile acid sequestrant B.) If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is
incorrect
122. Valium® appear to act as anxiolytic by C.) If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
A.) Altering the Na ion influx into the CNS D.) If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
B.) Potentiating the effects of GABA E.) All of the above
C.) Altering the Ca ion influx into the CNS
D.) Interfering with amine pump 129. Statement 1: Ceporex®is a trade name for
E.) Inhibiting the action of MAO cefalexin
Statement 2: cefaclor belong to the same
123. Clavunalic acid in Timentin® generation of cephalosporins as cephalexin.
A.) Inhibits beta-lactamases A.) If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is
B.) Prevents the urinary excretion of ticarcillin incorrect
C.) Prevents first pass metabolism of ticarcillin B.) If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is
D.) Is a buffer incorrect
E.) Is an antiprotozoal agent C.) If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D.) If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

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 lOMoARcPSD|17634467
E.) None of the above
130. Statement 1: Somatotropin is secreted by
the posterior pituitary.
Statement 2: Alpha-hypophamine is
secreted by the posterior pituitary
A.) If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is
incorrect
B.) If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is
incorrect
C.) If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D.) If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E.) None of the above
131. Statement 1: Inhalation of cannabis may
cause the decreased pulse rate, perceptual
changes and vascular congestion of the eye
Statement 2: The active component in
cannabis is 9-tetrahydocannabinol.
A.) If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is
incorrect
B.) If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is
incorrect
C.) If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D.) If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E.) None of the above
132. Statement 1: Warfarin therapy is monitored
by INR
Statement 2: It is important to maintain the
INR between 2 to 3.
A.) If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is
incorrect
B.) If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is
incorrect
C.) If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D.) If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E.) All of the above
133. Statement 1: Ridaura® is a gold-cointaining
DMARD
Statement 2: It is indicated in the treatment
of rheumatoid arthritis and multiple sclerosis.
A.) If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is
incorrect
B.) If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is
incorrect
C.) If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D.) If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E.) None of the above
134. Statement 1: Lescol® and Lipitor® inhibit
the formation of mevalonate by the HMG-CoA
reductase
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Statement 2: Lescol® is contraindicated for
use in patients who are pregnant
A.) If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is
incorrect
B.) If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is
incorrect
C.) If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D.) If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E.) None of the above
135. Statement 1: Scopolamine is available in a
transdermal form for the prevention of motion
sickness
Statement 2: It acts by blocking muscarinic
acethylcholine receptors.
A.) If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is
incorrect
B.) If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is
incorrect
C.) If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D.) If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E.) All of the above
136. Statement 1: Haloperidol is not an
antipsychotic while chlorpromazine is an
antipsychotic used clinically
Statement 2: Haloperidol does not
produced extrapyramidal effects in contrast to
chlorpromazine
A.) If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is
incorrect
B.) If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is
incorrect
C.) If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D.) If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E.) All of the above
137. Statement 1: The “first-dose” effect is
characterized by marked hypotension on taking
the first few doses of medication
Statement 2: This effect is seen with the use
of doxazosin
A.) If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is
incorrect
B.) If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is
incorrect
C.) If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D.) If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E.) None of the above
138. Statement 1: Dilantin® blocks voltage-
gated Ca ion channel in the neuron.
 lOMoARcPSD|17634467

Statement 2: Its use is associated with 143. Which of the following is (are) used as an
adverse effects such as gingival hyperplasia, anti-fungal agent?
hirsutism and ataxia. I. Cycloserine
II. Mafenide
A.) If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is III. Terbinafine
incorrect A.)I only
B.) If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is B.)III only
incorrect C.) I and II only
C.) If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D.) II and III only
D.) If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect E.) I, II and III only
E.) All of the above
144. Which of the following is (are) blockers of
139. Statement 1: Accutane® is a vitamin A H1 receptors?
derivative that is under pregnancy category X I. Diphenhydramine
Statement 2: It is used for the treatment of II. Hydroxyzine
patients Psoriasis and alopecia. III. Ranitidine
A.)I only
A.) If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is B.)III only
incorrect C.) I and II only
B.) If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is D.) II and III only
incorrect E.) I, II and III only
C.) If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D.) If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect 145. Which of the following is (are) false about
E.) All of the above milrinone lactate?
A.)It may be administered Orally or parenterally
140. Which of the following is(are) dopaminergic B.)It produces positive inotropic action
anti-parkinsons agents C.)Altering the Ca ion influx into the CNS
I. Ropinerole D.) It inhibits phosphodiesterase 3, thereby
II. Pergolide increasing cAMP levels
III. procyclidine E.)Both A and D
A.)I only 146. The following statements about alteplase
B.)III only are true except:
C.) I and II only
D.) I,II and III A. It is produce by recombinant DNA technology
E.)NOTA B. It is a tissue plasminogen activator
141. Which of the following is protease inhibitors C. It is administered parenterally
I. Cidofovir D. It stimulate RBC production
II. Acyclovir E. NOTA
III. Nelfinavir 147. The following statements about Zocor®
are true except:
A.)I only A. Inhibit the HMG-CoA reductase.
B.)III only B. It is an antiviral drug
C.) I and II only C. It is contraindicated to pregnant patient
D.) II and III only D. It requires to be taken at right
E.) I, II and III only E. NOTA
148. Which of the following is (are) true about
142. Which of the following are aminopenicillins dobutamine?
I. Bacampicillin A. It is clinically use as an antidepressant and
II. Amoxicillin antihypertensive agent.
III. Ampicillin B. It is only given parentally
A.)I only C. It is stumulate beta-1 receptor
B.)III only D. A and B
C.) I and II only E. B and C
D.) II and III only 149. Which of the following is true about
E.) I, II and III only fentanyl?
A. It is vailable as a transdermal system

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B. It may be use as a cough suppressant 155. A type of dose response relationship which
C. It is use as local anesthetic describe the response of an individual or
D. Both A and C organism to varying doses of chemical.
E. Both A and B A. individual dose-response relationship
150. reserpine, an alkaloid from rauwolfia can B. quantal dose-response relationship
lower the blood pressure and depress the CNS. C. graded dose-response relationship
What enzyme or part of the biosynthetic D. both A and B
pathway is inhibited by reserpine to bring about E. both A and C
these effect? 156. A type of dose response relationship which
A. DOPA decarboxylase characterized the distribution of response to
B. Storage of catecholamines in the presynaptic different doses in a population of individual
vesicle organism.
C. Release of norepinephrine from presynaptic A. individual dose-response relationship
terminals B. quantal dose-response relationship
D. MAO enzymr C. graded dose-response relationship
E. Uptake- 1 mechnism D. both A and B
151. Which of the following areas of toxicology E. both A and C
focuses on the primarily on the medico legal 157. A dose U- shaped dose response curved
aspects of the harmful effects of chemical in the which result with some xenobiotics that imparts
human and animals beneficial or stimulatory effects at low doses but
A. Environmental toxicology adverse effects at higher doses.
B. Clinical toxicology A. hormesis
C. Forensic toxicology B. threshold
D. Developmental toxicology C. individual dose response curve
E. Reproductive toxicology D. graded response curve
152. A type of antagonism that occurs when two E. none of the above
chemicals counterbalance each other by 158. It is defined as the ratio of the dose
producing opposite effect on the same required to produce a toxic effect and the dose
physiological function. need to illicit desire therapeutic response.
A. receptor ntagonism A. ED50
B. functional antagonism B. threshold
C. chemical antagonism C. therapeutic index
D. dispositional antagonism D. LD50
E. none of the above E. none of the above
153. When a chemical A and B administered 159. Areas of toxicology that focuses on the
simultaneously, their combine effects are far impact of chemical pollutants in the environment
greater than the sum of their effects when given on biological organism, specilly studying the
alone. The chemical interaction between impacts of chemicals on nonhuman organism
chemicals A and B can be described as which of A. forensic toxicology
the following? B. clinical toxicology
A. Potentiative C. developmental toxicology
B. Additive D. reproductive toxicology
C. Antagonistic E. environmental toxicology
D. functionally antagonistic synergistic
154. A type of antagonism that occurs when the 160. The dose required o result in a response in
absorption, biotransformation, distribution, or 50 percent of population.
excretion of chemical is altered so that the A. median dose
concentration and duration at the target of B. ceiling dose
diminished. C. potency
A. receptor antagonism D. LD50
B. functional antagonism E. ED50
C. chemical antagonism 161. Place the following mechanism of toxin
D. dispositional antagonism delivery in order from most effective to least
E. none of the above effective. 1: intravenous 2:subcutaneous 3: oral
4: inhalation 5: dermal
A. 1,5,2,4,3

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B. 4,1,2,3,5
C. 1,4,2,3,5 169. Which of the following statements
D. 4,2,1,5,3 regarding benzene is false?
E. 1,4,3,2,5 A. High level exposure to benzene could result
162. It is the primary rout of exposure of in acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)
benzene in industrial setting. B. Gasoline vapour emissions and auto-
A. inhalation exhauted are the two main contributors to
B. subcutaneous benzene inhalation.
C. oral C. Benzene is used as an ingredient in unleaded
D. dermal poisoning.
E. intravenous D. Benzene metabolites covalently bind DNA,
163. Toxic substance present in paints, lacquer, RNA and protein and interfere with their normal
thinners, cleaning agent and glues. functioning
A. benzene E. Reactive oxygen species can be delivered
B. ethanol from benzene
C. toluene
D. chloroform 170. Which of the following is NOT associated
E. carbon tetrachloride with glycol ether toxicity?
164. It is use primarily in the production of the A. Hematotoxicity
refrigerant chlorodifluoromethane. B. Craniofacial malformation
A. toluene C. Seminiferous tubule atrophy
B. carbon tetrachloride D. Irreversible spermatotoxicity
C. ethanol E. Cleft lip
D. bezene
E. chloroform 171. A major constituent of antifreeze, hydraulic
165. Metabolite of phosgene which damage fluids and drying agents.
membranes and other intracellular structures A. Methanol
leading to necrosis and tumor formation. B. Glycol ethers
A. tetrachloethylene C. Propylene glycol
B. phosgene D. Ethylene glycol
C. methylene chloride E. Ethanol
D. ethylbenzene 172. It is also known as quick silver.
E. none of the above A. Ag
166. Enzyme catalyses oxidation of ethanol to B. Hg
acetaldehyde C. Mg
A. aldehyde dehydrogenase D. Sb
B. catalase E. As
C. alcohol dehydrogenase
D. both A and C 173. Contact dermatitis is the most common
E. none of the above adverse effect of which of the following metals?
167 . Ingestion of these substance may cause A. Nickel
visual disturbance ranging from mild B. Copper
photophobia and blurred vision to markedly C. Arsenic
reduced acuity and complete blindness D. Lead
A. Ethanol E. Cadmium
B. Chloroform
C. Ethylene glycol 174. Wilson’s disease is an autosomal genetic
D. Methanol disorder caused by which of the following
E. Carbon tetrachloride metals?
168. Which of the following is NOT an important A. Aluminium
enzyme in ethanol metabolism? B. Copper
A. Alcohol dehydrogenase C. Arsenic
B. Formaldehyde decarboxylase D. Cadmium
C. CYP2E1 E. Lead
D. Catalase
E. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase 175. Essential chemicals EXCEPT?

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A. Iron
B. Copper 182. Minamata Disease is caused by
C. Zinc A. Lead
D. Both A & B only B. Cadmium
E. All of the above C. Mercury
D. Silver
176. Metals related to medicinal therapy E. arsenic
A. Aluminium
B. Lithium 183. In japan, Itai-itai disease is caused by
C. Platinum consumption of rice contaminated by
D. Both A & B only A. Lead
E. All of the above B. Cadmium
C. Mercury
177. The following pesticides are correctly D. Silver
matched EXCEPT: E. Arsenic
A. Rodenticides –rats
B. Molluscides –snails 184. Chronic exposure to this metal result to
C. Pediculocides – lice hyperpigmentation and hyperkeratosis of the
D. Fungicides –molds palm and soles.
E. Acaricies –insects A. Lead
B. Cadmium
178. Insecticidesm first developed from the C. Mercury
extracts from the flower heads of D. Silver
chrysanthemum cinerariaefolium E. Arsenic
A. DDT
B. Rotenoids 185. It is also known as dimercaprol
C. Pyrethrins A. Succimer
D. Aldrin B. Unithol
E. Endrin C. Deferoxamine
D. BAL
179. Which of the following drugs may induce E. Penicillamine
visual system abnormalities such as decreased
vision, flickering scotomas and altered color 186. It is mixture of copper and arsenic salt that
vision. is used to control insects in 1800’s
A. Digoxin A. Bordeaux
B. Metoprolol B. Rotenone
C. Colchicine C. DDT
D. Rifampicin D. Paris green
E. Lidocaine E. Pyrethrin

180. A drug that is used to ameliorate nausea 187. A natural compound derived from Urginea
and vomiting in pregnancy but results to maritime and is effective in controlling rodents.
malformations of Amelia and various degree of A. Pyretrin
phocomelia. B. Red squill
A. Diethylstilbestrol C. Paris Green
B. Thalidomine D. Bordeaux mixture
C. Ethanol E. Rotenone
D. Nicotine
E. Retinoids 188. It is the antidote for warfarin toxicity.
181. The main target for lead toxicity especially A. Vitamin K
in developing fetus and young children. B. Vitamin C
A. Bone marrow C. Vitamin E
B. Kidneys D. Pyridoxime
C. Gastrointestinal tract E. Thiamine
D. Reproductive organs
E. Central nervous system 189. Toxins found in peanuts

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A. Saxitoxin 196. Laboratory test used to monitor therapy

B. Cigutoxin with unfractionated heparin.
C. Scrombroid A. aPTT
D. Aflatoxin B. Creatine kinase
E. Tetrodotoxin C. AST
D. PT
190. Toxins found in several species of E. ALT
Alexandrium dinoflagellates
A. Saxitoxin 197. Laboratory test used to monitor therapy
B. Cigutoxin with warfarin.
C. Scrombroid A. Aptt
D. Aflatoxin B. Creatine kinase
E. Tetrodotoxin C. AST
D. PT
191. Toxin produced by puffer fish. E. ALT
A. Saxitoxin
B. Tetrodotoxin 198. The following are clotting factors inhibited
C. Scromboid by warfarin and its analogs EXCEPT
D. Aflatoxin A. III
E. ciguatoxin B. X
C. IX
192. The most prevalent polycyclic aromatic D. VII
hydrocarbon found in cigarette smoke. E. II
A. scromboid
B. Benzopyrene 199. Which of the following type of anemia is
C. Ciguatoxin properly paired with its cause?
D. Anthracene A. Megaloblastic anemia- lead poisoning
E. Nicotine B. Aplastic anemia-ethanol
C. Sideroblastic anemia-vitamin B12 deficiency
193. This naturally occurring furan is produced D. Megaloblastic anemia-folate supplementation
by the mold Fusarium solani that infects sweet E. Iron deficiency anemia-blood loss
potatoes.
A. Ciguatoxin 200. The inability to synthesize the porphyrin
B. Monocratolin ring of haemoglobin will most likely to result in
C. Ipomeanol which of the following?
D. Anthracene A. Iron deficiency anemia
E. Benzopyrene B. Inability to synthesize thymidine,
C. Improper RBC mitosis
194. Exposure to this vitamin can cause D. Bone marroe hyperplasia
malformation of the face, limbs, heart, CNS and E. Accumulation of iron within erythroblast
skeleton of the developing fetus.
A. Vitamin A 201. the normal erythrocyte has metabolic
B. Vitamin D mechanism for reducing heme iron to ferrous
C. Vitamin C state. Failure of these control mechanism may
D. Vitamin K lead to which of the following?
E. Vitamin B complex A. Aplastic anemia
195. The following drugs and chemicals are B. Megaloblastic anemia
associated with the development of aplastic C. Methemoglobinemia
anemia EXCEPT D. Iron deficiency anemia
A. Tetracycline E. Sideroblastic anemia
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Carbamazepine 202. This type of anemia is characterized by
D. Indomethacin peripheral blood pancytopenia,
E. Nitric oxide reticulocytopenia, and bone marrow hypoplasia.
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia

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C. Iron deficiency anemia E. Botulinum toxin

D. Sideroblastic anemia 210. A growth promoter in animals that is no
E. Methemoglobinemia longer use because of the discovery that tumor
of genital organ have developed in the offspring
203. It is used to treat APAP toxicity; its primary of mothers who had taken this during pregnancy
action is to enhance hepatocyte synthesis of in large dose for medical purposes.
glutathione. A. Diethylstilbestrol
A. Vitamin K B. Testosterone
B. Fomepizole C. Progesterone
C. Disulfiram D. Estradiol.
D. N-acetylcysteine E. Somatotropin
E. None of the above
211. The following side effects may be
204. Which of the following metals is NOT experience upon exposure to an
nephrotoxic? organophosphate and carbamate insecticides
A. Cadmium EXCEPT
B. Lead A. Diarrhea
C. Mercury B. Bronchoconstriction
D. Platinum C. Involuntary urination
E. None of the above D. Mydriasis
E. Salivation
205. Shaver’s disease is caused by
A. Ammonia 212. Metabolite of tetrafluoroethylene that is the
B. Cadmium oxide penultimate nephrotoxicant.
C. Hydrogen fluoride A. Cysteine
D. Bauxite fumes B. Phosgene
E. Kaolin C. Cysteine-S-conjugate
D. Glutathione
206. Chemotherapeutic agent that causes E. Diglutathione conjugate of hydroquinone
pulmonary fibrosis.
A. Vincristine 213. Metabolite of bromobenzene that is
B. Doxorubicin approximately thousand fold more potent than
C. Bleomycin bromobenzene in producing nephrotoxicity.
D. Vinblastine A. Cystein
E. Azathioprine B. Phosgene
C. Cysteine-S-conjufate
207. Mycotoxin found in claviceps purpurea. D. Glutathione
A. Aflatoxin E. Diglutathione conjugate of hydroquinone
B. Saxitoxin
C. Ciquatoxin 214. It is the toxic metabolite of methanol that
D. Ergot mediates the metabolic acidosis as well as
E. Tetrodotoxin retinal toxicity.
A. Formic acid
208. The most toxic type of aflatoxin. B. Acetaldehyde
A. B1 C. Acetic acid
B. B2 D. Phosgene
C. G1 E. Chloroquine
D. G2
E. None of the above 215. Anti-tubercular agent that may cause optic
neuropathy
209. Neurotoxin found in improperly canned A. Rifampicin
foods. B. Isoniazid
A. Aflatoxin C. Pyrazinamide
B. Ciguatoxin D. Ethambutol
C. Saxitoxin e. Streptomycin
D. Tetrodotoxin

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216. A deficiency of which of the following A. Prothrombin deficiency

vitamins can result in degeneration of optic B. Epileptiform seizure
nerve fibers? C. Acute renal failure
A. Vitamin A D. Photosensitivity
B. Vitamin B3 E. Parasympathetic overactivation
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin B 12 223.The compound found in red pepper is
E. Vitamin E A. Anthracenones
B. Capsaisin
217. High exposure to this metal cause “black C. Hyoscyamin
foot disease” which is circulatory disorder D. Atropine
reflecting endothelial cell damage. E. Scopolamine
A. Lead
B. Cadmium 224. Alkaloid found in Datura stramonium
C. Arsenic A. Capsaisin
D. Mercury B. Antracenones
E. Silver C. Red squill
D. Scopolamine
218. Which of the following drugs/chemical may E. All of the above
cause hyperpigmentation of the skin?
A. Phenolic germicides 225. Which of the following is NOT commonly
B. BHT caused by tick envenomation?
C. Hydroquinone A. Cat scratch disease
D. Mercaptoamines B. Ehrlichiosis
E. Amiodarone C. Lyme disease
D. Rocky mountain spotted fever
219. Which of the following drugs/chemical may E. Q-fever
cause hypopigmentation of the skin?
A. Chloroquine 226. Neurotoxin found in black widow spiders.
B. Amiodarone A. Serotoxin
C. Bleomycin B. Loxosceles
D. Hydroquinone C. Latrotoxin
E. Minocycline D. Rotenone
E. Saxitoxine
220. An organic compounds that is
approximately 49% elemental mercury by weight 227.A species of which of the following animals
and has been widely used as preservative since produces a venom that contains 60% formic
1930’s in contact lens solution, biologics, and acid?
vaccine particularly those in multi-dose A.Snakes
container. B. Lizards
A. Thimerosal C. Ants
B. Merthiolate D. Scorpions
C. Mercurothiolate E. spiders
D. Sodium ethylmercuriethiosalisylate
E. all of the above 228. Which of the following is NOT characteristic
of Lepidoptera envenomation?
221. Which of the following drugs is/are often A.Decreased plasminogen levels
associated with phototoxic reaction? B. Increased risk of haemorrhaging
A. Tetracycline C. Decreased partial thromboplastin time
B. Sulphonamides D. Increased in prothrombin time
C. Sulfonylureas E. Decreased fibrinogen levels
D. Phenothiazine
E. All of the above 229. Food Poisoning with which of the following
bacteria occurs when meat has been
222. Dicumarol is fungal metabolite that causes contaminated with intestinal contents of
which of the following?

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slaughters and then roasted and inadequately B. Narcan

stored. C. Revex
A.C. perfringerns D. Depade
B. R. Ricketsii E. Either A and B
C. S. Aureus
D. C. botulinum 236. which of the following is the effects of
E. E. coli digoxin to atrial muscles at toxic dose?
A.Extrasystoles
230. This includes the chemical, biochemical, B. Fibrillation
and molecular events that lead to deleterious C. Arrhythmia
effects on development. D. Tachycardia
A.Mutagenesis E. All of the above
B. Teratogenesis
C. Carcinogenesis 237. Notorious plant poison found in Aconitum
D. Behavioral toxicology species
E. None of the above A. Mandrake
B. Monkshood
231. it is highly irritating and oxidizing gas that is C. Aconite
formed by photochemical action of UV light on D.A and B
nitrogen dioxide smog. E. B and C only
A.Nitrogen oxide
B.Carbon monoxide 238. Notorious plant that can be found Conium
C. Ozone maculatum
D. Volatile organic compounds A.Poison hemlock
E. None of the above B. Henbane
C. mandrake
232. It is known as the “bad ozone” that occurs D. Aconite
from 0 to 10 miles above the earth’s surface. E. opium
A.Tropospheric ozone 239.Notorious plant poison that can be found in
B. stratospheric ozone Veratrum Album
C. Volatile organic hydrocarbons A. Poison hemlock
D. Either A and B B. Henbane
E. None of the above C. mandrake
D. Aconite
233. Follic acid supplementation should be E. Hellebore
provided to patient chronically using
A.Phenytoin 240.Commercial preparations of universal
B. Propranolol antidote is composed of
C. Levodopa + carbidopa A. 1 part tannic acid, 2 parts magnesium oxide.
D.Sulindac 1 part activated charcoal
E. Tetracycline B. 2 parts tannic acid, 1 part magnesium oxide,
2 parts activated charcoal
234.Dermopathy, an erythematous C. 1 part tannic acid, 1 part magnesium oxide, 1
desquamation of the palms and soles also called part activated charcoal
as hand-foot syndrome is seen after extended D. 1 part tannic acid, 1 part magnesium oxide, 2
infusion of which of the chemotherapeutic parts activated charcoal
agents? E. None of the above
A.Doxorubicin
B. Cytarabin 241. Tartar emetic had a long history of use of
C. 5-FU an emetic, as well as sedative, expectorant,
D. Methotrexate cathartic and diaphoretic. The chemical name
E.None of the above for tartar emetic is
A. Potassium bipthalate
235. The drug used to antagonize the effects of B. Potassium antimony tartrate
opioid toxicity. C. Potassium antimony bitartrate
A.Nubain

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D. Potassium antimony bipthalate D. Fomepizole is low-cost

E. None of the above E. Both C and D

242. Metabolic acidosis with an anion gap is a 248. An alkaloid found in Strychnos nux vomica
hallmark of toxic alcohol poisoning. Which of the A. Strychnine
following is the primary cause of metabolic B.Aconite
acidosis in ethylene glycol poisoning? C. Nicotine
A. Formic acid D. Muscarine
B. Glycolic acid E. Carnitine
C. Acetone
D. Acetic acid 249.This drug is used together with atropine in
E. all of the above the management of patient poisoned by organic
243. Metabolic acidosis with an anion gap is a phosphorous and carbamate pesticides. Its
hallmark of toxic alcohol poisoning. Which of the primary mechanism is to reactivate the enzyme
following is the primary cause of metabolic cholinesterase
acidosis in methanol poisoning? A. 2-PAM
A. Formic acid B.Disulfiram
B. Glycolic acid C. Pralidoxime
C. Acetone D. Both A and B
D. Acetic acid E. Both A and C
E. all of the above
250.Glycine acts as a post synaptic inhibitory
neurotransmitter in the spinal cord and lower
244. The most prominent end organ effect of brainstem. Which of the following substance is
ethylene glycol is classified as glycine antagonist?
A. Nephrotoxicity A. Ethanol
B. Hepatotoxicity B.Picrotoxin
C. Hemorrhagic gastritis C. Clozapine
D. Visual impairment to total blindness D. Propofol
E. None of the above E. D-serine

245. In the pathway of ethylene glycol

metabolism which of the following substance/s 251. Which of the following is classified as
enhances the formation non-toxic metabolites. glycine re-uptake inhibitor?
A. Fomepizole A. Ethanol
B. Thiamine B.Picrotoxin
C. Pyridoxine C. Clozapine
D. A and B D. Propofol
E. B and C only E. D-serine

246. Disulfiram therapy is indicated in the 252.Which of the following causes metabolic
following alcohol toxicity EXCEPT alkalosis?
A. Methanol A. Administration of diuretics
B. Ethylalcohol B. Administration of sodium bicarbonate
C. Isopropanol C. Vomiting
D. Both A and B D. Magnesium deficiency
E. Both B and C E. All of the above

247. The following are advantages of using 253. Which of the following substance causes
fomepizole over ethanol in the treatment of hypercalcemia?
ethylene glycol toxicity EXCEPT A. Aminoglycosides
A. Fomepizole does not cause CNS depression B. Furosemide
B. Fomepizole does not require serum C. Ethanol
concentration monitoring D. Bisphosphonates
C. Fomepizole is readily available E. Lithuim

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254. Which of the following substance causes distress, abdominal distention, green stools and
hypocalcemia? cyanosis. This is syndrome is caused by
A. Vitamin A A. Tetracycline
B. Tamoxifen B. Chloramphenicol
C. Androgens C. Erythromycin
D. Calcitonin D. Sulfonamides
E. Glucocorticoids E. Vancomycin

261.The following management/s is done to

255. Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a rare life- patient suspected of overdose of proguanil or
threatening dermatologic emergency and pyrimethamine EXCEPT:
medications are causally implicated in 80%-90% A. Folate supplementation
of cases. Which of the following drugs causes B.administration of methylene blue for
toxic epidermal necrolysis? methemoglobinemia
A. Allopurinol C. administration of cimetidine to prevent the
B. Acetaminophen conversion to a toxic metabolite
C. Picrotoxin D. administration of multiple dose of charcoal to
D. Nickel enhance it elimination
E. None of the above E. All of the above

256. CNS toxin found in Artemisia absinthuim

A. Ephedra 262.Whole bowel irrigation is the most effective
B. Nicotine process for evacuating the intestinal tract in
C. atropine poisoned patients. Which of the following
D. absinthe conditions wherein whole bowel irrigation is
E. Scopolamine contraindicated?
A. GI perforation
B.Volume depletion
257. CNS toxin found in Areca catechu C. GI haemorrhage
A. Ephedra D. Compromised airway
B. atropine E. all of the above
C. absinthe
D. Scopolamine 263.Which of the following is true with dosage of
E. Arecholine syrup of ipecac?
A. For children 1-12 years old the dose is 15ml
258.It is extracted from the fruit of the B.For older children and adult the dose is 30ml
evergreen Myristica fragrans and it is the main C. For children 6-12 mos of age dose should be
active ingredient in myristicin. limited to a maximum single dose of 10ml
A. Nutmeg D. If vomiting does not ensure after the first
B.Pine oil dose, the same dose may be repeated once in
C. Wintergreen 20-30min.
D. Clove E. All of the above
E. Camphor 264.Antibotic that causes aplastic anemia
A. Tetracycline
259.Toxic ingredient found in Bufo gangarizan B. Erythromycin
A. Anthraquinones C. Vancomycin
B.Coumarin D. Chloramphenicol
C. Bufadienolides E. Amikacin
D. Arecholine
E. Amygdalin 265.It is hygroscopic polysaccharide derived
from the bean of the cyamopsis psorabides. It
expands 10-20 fold in the stomach, forming a
260.Classic description of chronic intake of this gelatinous mass that produces the senasation of
antibiotic is the “gray baby syndrome” which is satiety.
characterized by vomiting, anorexia, respiratory A. Guar gum
B. Chitosan

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C. Dinitrophenol unfractionated heparin and for some of the

D. Xenical effects of LMWH.
E. none of the above A.Vitamin K
B.Protamine
C. Hirudin
266.Antidote for APAP toxicity D. Tissue plasminogen activator
A. Activated charcoal E.None of the above
B.NAC
C. PAM
D.Oxime 273. It is polypeptide produced by the salivary
E. Ipecac glands of the medicinal leech, hirudo medicinalis
that reversibly blocks thrombin without the need
267.Which of the following causes a brown- for antithrombin III.
black urine? A. Hirudin
A. Cascara B.Heparin
B.Iron C.Protamine
C. Metyldopa D.Warfarin
D. Senna E.None of the above
E. All of the above
274.Thimerosal is an organic compound that
268. which of the following drugs causes approximately contains 49% by weight of:
cataracts? A. Hg
A. Acetazolamide B. Ag
B.Amiodarone C. S
C. Chlorpromazine D. Al
D. Corticosteroids E. None of the above
E. Cisplatin

269. Which of the following antibiotics causes 275.This drug is known as “soda loading”. It
disulfiram like effects? buffers the lactic acidosis caused by exercise,
A. Cefotetan thereby delaying fatigue and enhancing
B.Metronidazole performance.
C. Co-trimoxazole A. Caffeine
D. Moxalactam B. Calcuim hydroxide
E. all of the above C.Diuretics
D.Amphetamines
270. Methamphetamine is also known as E.Sodium bicarbonate
A. Crack
B. Speed 276.This is used in sports in which the athlete
C. Yaba must achieve a certain weight to complete in
D.Go discrete weight classes. It is used by body
E.All of the above builders to give their skin a greater definition as
this causes the skin to draw tightly around the
271. Food interaction occur when muscles.
pharmacologically active dietary monoamines A. Amphetamine
such as tyramine is ingested by patients taking B. Sodium carbonate
MAOIs. Which of the following foods has the C. Diuretics
highest tyramine effect? D. Caffeine
A. Yogurt E. None of the above
B. Avocados
C. Redwines 277. This vitamin reduces iron from ferric to the
D.Aged, mature cheese ferrous state, thereby increasing intestinal
E.Smoked meats or fish absorption of iron.
A. Vitamin A
272. It is rapidly acting antidote used for B. Vitamin B
reversing the anticoagulant effects of C. Vitamin C

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D. Vitamin D B. Methemoglobinemia when ferrous state of

E. Vitamin E iron is transformed into the ferric state.
C. Methemoglobinemia is normally present in
278. it is cololess, oily liquid with a faint aromatic the body at high concentration
odor that Is commonly added to pharmaceutical D. Both A and B
products as a bacteriostatic agent. It causes E. Both B and C
“gasping syndrome” in infants which is the
characteristized by hypotension bradycardia, 284. It is used in the treatment of aniline induced
gasping respiration seizures, cardiovascular Methemoglobinemia
collapsed and death. A. Methylene blue
A. Chlorobutanol B. Glucagon
B. PEG C. Oximes
C. Propylene glycol D. PAM
D. Ethylene glycol E. EDTA
E. Benzyl alcohol
285. The following are example of chemical
279. Patient taking rifampicin in combination asphyxiants EXCEPT
with isoniazid develops what type of toxicity? A. Carbon monoxide
A. Nephrotoxicity B. Carbon dioxide
B. Ototoxicity C. Hydrogen sulphide
C. Neurotoxicity D. Oxides of nitrogen
D. Hepatotoxicity E. Hydrogen cyanide
E. None of the above
286. Toxic combustion product that exert a
280. Which of the following drugs causes “red space-occupying effect simply displacing
man red neck syndrome”? oxygen.
A. Sulfonamides A. Chemical asphyxiants
B. amphotericin B B. Simple asphyxiants
C. Vancomycin C. irritant
D. Erythromycin D. A and B
E. None of the above E. All of the above

281. An Antimycobacterial agent that is 287. Q fever occurs naturally as a self limited
classified as congener of INH and have the febrile, zoonotic disease contracted from
same mechanism of action with INH. domestic livestock. Q fever I classified as
A. Capreomycin biological warfare agent and is now known to
B. Ethionamide caused by
C. Para-aminosalicylic acid A. Coxiella burnetti
D. Isoniazid B. Brucalla melitensis
E. Pyrazinamide C. Baciilus anthracis
D. Yersinia pestis
282. Pyridoxine is a water soluble vitamin that is E. None of the above
used as antidote for which of the following
poisoning?
A. INH 288. It is anti-muscarinic compound that was
B. Ethylene glycol developed as an incapacitating chemical warfare
C. PZA agent. It is 25-fold more potent centrally than
D. A and B atropine.
E. A and C A. BZ
B. QNB
C. #-quinuclidinyl benzilate
283. Which of the following statements is D. A and B only
CORRECT about methemoglobinemia? E. All of the above
A. Methemoglobinemia occurs when the iron
atom in haemomoglobin loses 2 electron to an 289. Vesicants are agents that cause blistering
oxidant of skin and mucous membrane. Which of the

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following is classified as vesicants but does not A. Acute dystonia

cause vesiculation of the skin? B. Akathisia
A. Sulphur mustard C. Parkinsonism
B. Lewisite D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
C. Phosgene oxime E. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Cyanide
E. None of the above 296.It is hydantoin derivative and structurally
similar to local anesthetics that is used for the
290. BAL should be administered through treatment of malignant hyperthermia.
A. IV A. Phenytoin
B. IM B. Diazepam
C. SQ C. Dantrolene
D. Oral D. Phenobarbital
E. A and B only E. Tensilon
291. What specific element is present in
dimercaprol? 297. It is the drug of choice for beta adrenergic
A. Magnesium antagonist poisoning
B. Sulfur A. Propranolol
C. Iron B. Atropine
D. manganese C. Glucagon
E. None of the above D. Ethanol
E. Valium
292. It is active substance in the Chinese plant
Ma-huang has been used for the treatment of 298.Ipecac is derived from rhizome and roots of
asthma. plants found in brazil belonging to the family
A. Khat Rubiaceae. Which of the following substance
B. Cathionone is/are responsible for the production of nausea
C. Methcathinone and vomiting of ipecac syrup?
D. Ephedrine A. Cephaelin
E. None of the above B. Emetine
C. Scopolamine
293. An extrapyrimidal syndrome that occurs 3 D. A and B only
months to years after taking an anti-psychotic E. B and C only
drug it is characterized by involuntary choreiform
movements like buccolinguomasticatory 299. Contraindicated of syrup of ipecac
movements A. The patient is younger than 6 month of age
A. Acute dystonia B. Ingestion of caustic poison
B. Akathisia C. Ingestion of a foreign body such as a drug
C. Parkinsonism packet or sharp item
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome D. The patient does not meet the criteria for
E. Tardive dyskinesia gastric emptying
E. All of the above
294. It is one of the extrapyrimadal syndromes
characterized by restlessness and inability to sit 300. Gastric emptying may be indicated if
still A. Significant spontaneous emesis has occured
A. Acute dystonia B. The ingested poison has a high efficient
B. Akathisia antidote
C. Parkinsonism C. the patient presents many hours post
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome ingestion
E. Tardive dyskinesia D. The ingested poison is well adsorbed
activated charcoal
E. None of the above
295. It is one of the extrapyramidal syndromes
characterized by sustained, involuntary muscle
contraction, torticollis, including blephaospasm
and oculogyric crisis.

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