1. Which of the following certifications is 5.

How many exams must you pass to

the de facto requirement for entrance into become CompTIA A+ certified?
the PC industry?
A. One
A. Certified Cisco Network Associate
B. Two
B. CompTIA A+
C. Three
C. CompTIA Network+
D. Four
D. Microsoft Certified Solutions Expert
6. How much practical IT experience do
2. John loves the Internet and wants a you need to become CompTIA A+ certified?
career working on the machines that make
A. Six months
the Internet work. He has completed both
CompTIA A+ and CompTIA Network+ B. One year
certifications. Which of the following
certifications would make a good next step? C. Two years

A. Cisco Certified Network Associate D. None

B. Certified Cisco Network Professional 7. How many questions should you expect
on the 220-901 exam?
C. CompTIA Security+
A. 25
D. Microsoft Certified Solutions Expert
B. 50
3. Which of the following exams focuses
on installing, configuring, and maintaining all C. 90
the standard hardware technology involved D. The number of questions varies
in a personal computer? because the exams are adaptive.
A. Certified Cisco Network Associate 8. The CompTIA A+ certification covers
B. CompTIA A+ 220-901 which of the following operating systems?
(Select three.)
C. CompTIA A+ 220-902
A. Linux
D. Microsoft Certified Solutions Expert
B. Mac OS X
4. At which of the following Web sites can
you register to take the CompTIA A+ C. Windows XP Media Center
certification exams? D. Windows 7
A. www.comptia.org 9. What percentage of questions should
B. www.microsoft.com you expect on Windows operating systems
in the 220-902 exam?
C. www.totalsem.com
A. 12%
D. www.vue.com
B. 22%
C. 24%
D. 29%
10. What percentage of questions should D. Never
you expect on networking in the 220-901
1. You become CompTIA A+ certified by
exam?
passing the CompTIA A+ 220-901 and
A. 34% CompTIA A+ 220-902 exams.
B. 17% 2. A(n)
____Certification______________ gives
C. 28%
clients and employers a level of confidence
D. 21% that you can do what you say you can do.

11. How much does it cost to take each 3. A term for a person who builds and
exam (at the time of this book’s maintains computers is __PC
publication)? Tech________________.

A. $100 each 4. The ___Pearson

VUE_______________ company
B. $138 each administers the CompTIA A+ certification
C. $194 each exams.

D. $150 each 5. You can use a(n)

____Voucher______________ when you
12. What percentage of questions should schedule your exam to save some money.
you expect on Windows 10 in the 220-902
exam? 6. Persons desiring to work in Windows-
based networking should pursue
A. 10% ___Microsoft Certified Solution Expert
(MCSE)_______________ certification after
B. 13%
completing their CompTIA certifications.
C. 20%
7. You can find the latest information about
D. 0% the CompTIA A+ certification exams here:
______www.comptia.org____________.
13. The 220-901 exam will not test you on
which of the following computer 8. Typically, techs who attain CompTIA A+
components? certification then pursue ____CompTIA A+
certification______________ to add to
A. Biometric devices their computer credentials.
B. Keyboards 9. A grouping of computers that enables
C. Printers people to share resources is called a(n)
_____network_____________.
D. Zip drives
1. Always place an expansion card or
14. If you skip the continuing education other computer part into a(n) ____Anti-
path to recertify, how often do you need to static bag______________ when it’s not in
take the CompTIA A+ exams to retain your use to protect against electrostatic
status as a CompTIA A+ certified discharge.
technician?
2. A few screwdrivers and an antistatic
A. Every year wrist strap should be in your tech tool
kit____________.
B. Every three years

C. Every ten years

3. An effective use of _assertive
communication_________________
means clearly stating a problem without
accusing the user of creating that problem.
4. Accomplished computer techs should
treat anything said to them as a personal
confidence, not to be repeated to coworkers
or bosses. A tech brings
__integrity________________ to the job.
5. You should avoid learning
___passwords_______________ to other
folks’ computers so you don’t get blamed if
something happens to those computers.
6. A magnetic field interfering with
electronics is ____Electromagnetic
Interference (EMI)______________.
7. To begin troubleshooting a computer
problem, start by talking to the customer
and allowing the customer to explain the
problem fully. Actively listen; then ask
follow-up questions. This process is called
__Eliciting Answers________________.
8. A customer complains that he can hear
music coming from his computer speakers,
even though the computer is not playing any
music. This is most likely caused by
___Radio Frequency Interference
(RFI)_______________.
9. Once you have determined the problem
with the machine and come up with
probable causes, you should __test the
theory________________.
10. Once you have successfully repaired
the machine, it is important to
__verify________________ with the user
that everything is working correctly.
1. While troubleshooting a fairly routine
printing problem, the customer explains in
great detail precisely what he was trying to
do, what happened when he tried to print,
and what he had attempted as a fix for the
problem. At what point should you interrupt
him?
A. After he describes the first problem
B. As soon as you understand the problem
C. As soon as you have a solution
D. Never
2. While manning the help desk, you get a
call from a distraught user who says she
has a blank screen. What would be a useful
follow-up question? (Select two.)
A. Is the computer turned on?
B. Is the monitor turned on?
C. Did you reboot?
D. What did you do?
3. Al in marketing calls in for tech support,
complaining that he has a dead PC. What is
a good first question or set of questions to
begin troubleshooting the problem?
A. Did the computer ever work?
B. When did the computer last work?
C. When you say “dead,” what do you
mean? What happens when you press
the power button?
D. What did you do?
4. While manning the help desk, you get a
call from Bryce in sales complaining that he
can’t print and every time he clicks on the
shared network drive, his computer stops
and freezes. He says he thinks it’s his hard
driver. What would be a good follow-up
question or statement?
A. Bryce, you’re an idiot. Don’t touch
anything. I’ll be there in five minutes.
B. Okay, let’s take this one step at a
time. You seem to have two problems,
one with printing and the second with
the shared network drive, right?
C. First, it’s not a hard driver; it’s a hard
drive. It doesn’t have anything to do with the
shared network drive or printing, so that’s
just not right.
D. When could you last print?
5. When troubleshooting a software
problem on Phoebe’s computer and
listening to her describe the problem, you
get a text message on your phone. It’s your
boss. What would be an acceptable action
for you to take?
A. Excuse yourself, walk out of the cube,
and text your boss.
B. Pick up Phoebe’s phone and dial your
boss’s number.
C. Wait until Phoebe finishes her
description and then ask to use her phone
to call your boss.
D. Wait until Phoebe finishes her
description, run through any simple
fixes, and then explain that you need to
call your boss on your cell phone.
6. While fixing a printing problem on Paul’s
computer, you check his e-mail out of
curiosity to see if there are any interesting
messages there. You find several personal
e-mails he has sent. Using the company
computer for personal e-mail is against
regulations, so what should you do?
A. Leave the e-mail on the computer and
notify your boss.
B. Delete the e-mails from the computer
and notify your boss.
C. Delete the e-mails from the computer
and remind Paul of the workplace
regulations.
D. You shouldn’t be looking in his e-
mail folders at all as it compromises
your integrity.
7. You are solving a problem on Kate’s
computer that requires you to reboot several
times. Upon each reboot, the logon screen
appears and prompts you for a username
and password before you can continue
working. Kate has gone to another office to
continue her work on another computer.
How do you proceed?
A. Call Kate, ask her for her password,
type it in, and continue working on the
problem.
B. Insist that Kate stay with you and have
her type the password each time it is
needed.
C. Call Kate and have her come in to type
the password each time it is needed.
D. Have Kate temporarily change her
password for you to use as you work;
then have her change it back when you
are through.
8. You are working in a customer’s home
and his five-year-old child continues to
scream and kick the back of your chair.
What do you do?
A. Ignore the child and finish your work as
quickly as you can.
B. Discipline the child as you see fit.
C. Politely ask your client to remove the
child from your work area.
D. Tell your client you refuse to work under
such conditions and leave the premises with
the job half done.
9. After replacing a keyboard a user has
spilled coffee on for the fifth time, what
should you say to the user?
A. I can’t guarantee the new keyboard
will work if it gets dirty.
B. I can’t guarantee the new keyboard will
work if you continue to spill coffee on it.
C. These keyboards are expensive. Next
time we replace one because you spilled
coffee, it’s coming out of your paycheck.
D. You need to be more careful with your
coffee.
10. When is it appropriate to yell at a user?
A. When he screws up the second time
B. When he interrupts your troubleshooting
C. When he screws up the fifth time
D. Never
11. What’s the best practice when working
inside a system unit removing and installing
components?
A. Wear an antistatic wrist strap.
B. Touch a doorknob to ground yourself
before going into the case.
C. Place components on the motherboard
to keep them grounded.
D. Use plastic tools.
12. Which of the following tools would you
find in a typical PC tech’s toolkit? (Select
two.)
A. Phillips-head screwdriver
B. Torx wrench
C. Hammer
D. File
13. What term describes the flow of a
static electrical charge from a person to the
inside of the PC?
A. EMI
B. ESD
C. HDMI
D. TTFN
14. At what point during a repair should
you escalate the problem?
A. After the user describes the first
problem
B. As soon as you understand the problem
C. As soon as you have a solution
D. When you have tried all your theories
and still can’t resolve the problem
15. You have been working all afternoon
on a user’s workstation and you have finally
fixed the user’s problem. What should you
do next?
A. Tell the user the computer is fixed and
leave.
B. Invite the user to sit down and use
the computer to make sure the problem
is completely gone from the user’s
perspective.
C. Tell the user the machine is fixed, go
back to your office, and document the
problem.
D. As you leave for the tenth time,
complain to the user that you are tired of
always fixing his computer.
1. The term _User 1. What is the standard main screen/user
Interface______________ refers to the interface used in all versions of Windows?
software parts of the operating system with
A. Control Panel
which you can interact.
B. Dock
2. Computers work through three basic
stages, what’s called the ___Computing C. Taskbar
Process____________.
D. Desktop
3. You can access frequently used
applications in Mac OS X by clicking their 2. How do you open an application in
icons on the ____Dock___________. Windows?

4. Windows 8’s tile-based interface is A. Left-click its icon.

called the Metro/Modern UI or _Start B. Right-click its icon.
Screen______________.
C. Left double-click its icon.
5. Move the cursor to the top or bottom
right corner of the screen in Windows 8 to D. Right double-click its icon.
access one of the tools called a(n)
3. Which of the following operating
___Charms Bar____________.
systems has a Sidebar?
6. The ___Mission
A. Windows Vista
Control.____________ utility in Mac OS X
enables you to switch easily among B. Windows 7
applications, windows, and Spaces.
C. Windows 8.1
7. You can use __File
Explorer_____________ in Windows 8.1 to D. Mac OS X
access files and folders. 4. Which version of Windows introduced
8. The ___Control Panel____________ the Metro UI?
enables a tech to perform most of the A. Windows 7
maintenance, upgrade, and configuration
aspects of Windows. B. Windows 8

9. __Administrative C. Windows 8.1

Tools_____________ enables you to set
D. Windows 10
up hard drives, manage devices, test
system performance, and much more. 5. Which Windows 8 feature did Microsoft
not include in Windows 10?
10. You can access the ___System
Preferences_____________ tool from the A. Metro/Modern UI
permanent Apple menu to administer a
Mac. B. Start button
C. Control Panel
D. Charms bar
6. Which Windows 7 feature—that’s not in 11. 32-bit programs are installed into which
Windows 8—did Microsoft bring back in folder by default in a 64-bit edition of
Windows 10? Windows?
A. Sidebar A. C:\Program Files
B. Charms bar B. C:\Program Files (x32)
C. Start menu C. C:\Program Files\Wins\Old
D. Start button D. C:\Program Files (x86)

7. What Mac OS X feature is essentially 12. Which Mac OS X feature is functionally

multiple desktops? equivalent to Windows File Explorer?
A. Charms A. Finder
B. Desktop B. Dock
C. Mission Control C. Quartz
D. Spaces D. File Manager
8. Which of the following is a well-known 13. Which of the following paths would
Linux distribution? open Administrative Tools in Windows 8.1?
A. Ubuntu A. Right-click on the taskbar and select
Administrative Tools from the context menu.
B. Brownstone
B. Right-click on the Start button and
C. Trinidad select Administrative Tools from the
D. Haswell context menu. C. Right-click anywhere on
the desktop and select Administrative Tools
9. What is the default Ubuntu Desktop from the context menu.
Environment?
D. Press the WINDOWS LOGO KEY + L
A. Metro UI combination to open Administrative Tools.
B. Unity 14. What feature of Mac OS X is the
C. KDE equivalent of the command-line interface in
Windows?
D. GNOME 3
A. Dock
10. The user, Mike, has downloaded files
with his Web browser. Where will they be B. Spaces
stored by default? C. Terminal
A. C:\Downloads D. Unity
B. C:\Mike\Desktop\Downloads 15. What Windows app in Windows 10
C. C:\Users\Mike\Downloads combines many utilities into a unified tool?

D. C:\Users\Mike\Desktop\Downloads A. Settings
B. Control
C. Command Center
D. Control Center
1. All of the machine language commands
that the CPU understands make up the
CPU’s __instruction
set________________.
2. By lifting the arm on the ___zero
insertion force (ZIF)
sockets_______________, you can easily
remove a PGA CPU.
3. Computers use __Dynamic RAM
(DRAM)________________ for main
system memory.
4. Computers use the
______binary____________ numbering
system.
5. Areas inside the CPU where it
temporarily stores internal commands and
data while it is processing them are called
_____registers_____________.
6. Divided into L1, L2, and L3, the
______cache, ____________ consists of a
small amount of static RAM (SRAM) that
serves as a holding area. This provides data
to the CPU
faster than getting it from regular memory or
when RAM is unavailable because of
refreshes.
7. A CPU with a(n) __integrated memory
controller (IMC)________________ can
handle RAM directly.
8. If a stock heat-sink and fan assembly
can’t handle an overclocked CPU, a solution
based on ____liquid
coolking______________ might do the
trick.
9. In a process known as
___throttling_______________, a CPU
can slow itself down in lowdemand times or
if it gets too hot.
10. Use of the ___NX
Bit_______________ technology enables a
processor to protect certain sections of
memory.
1. What device enables a PC to retrieve a
specific row of data from system memory
and place it on the external data bus?
A. Advanced micro device
B. Arithmetic logic unit
C. Floating point processor
D. Memory controller chip
2. Which of the following statements is
true?
A. The address bus enables the CPU to
communicate with the MCC.
B. The external data bus enables the CPU
to communicate with the MCC.
C. The address bus enables the CPU to
communicate with the hard drive.
D. The system bus enables the CPU to
communicate with the memory.
3. What do 64-bit processors expand
beyond what 32-bit processors have?
A. System bus
B. Frontside bus
C. Address bus
D. Registers
4. What is the first stage in a typical four-
stage CPU pipeline?
A. Decode
B. Execute
C. Fetch
D. Write
5. Which of the following terms are
measures of CPU speed?
A. Megahertz and gigahertz
B. Megabytes and gigabytes
C. Megahertz and gigabytes
D. Frontside bus, backside bus
6. Which of the following statements is
true?
A. If you have an AMD-compatible
motherboard, you can install a Celeron
processor.
B. You should always overclock your CPU.
C. As the size of the address bus
increases, the amount of RAM the CPU can
use decreases.
D. You can upgrade your CPU if you
make sure that a new CPU will fit into the
socket on your motherboard.
7. Which CPU feature enables the
microprocessor to support running multiple
operating systems at the same time?
A. Clock multiplying
B. Caching
C. Pipelining
D. Virtualization support
8. Into which socket could you place an
AMD A-Series CPU?
A. Socket LGA 775
B. Socket LGA 2011
C. Socket FM2+
D. Socket AM3+
9. Joey has a motherboard that advertises
support for x64 processors. Which CPU will
definitely work in that motherboard?
A. AMD A-Series
B. Intel Core i3
C. Intel Core i7
D. There’s not enough information to
answer the question.
10. Which feature enables a single-core
CPU to function like two CPUs?
A. Hyper-Threading
B. SpeedStep
C. Virtualization
D. x64
11. What feature differentiates an AMD FX
CPU from an AMD A-Series CPU?
A. The FX has an integrated memory
controller.
B. The FX has an integrated graphics
controller.
C. The A-Series has an integrated memory
controller.
D. The A-Series has an integrated
graphics controller.
12. What improvement have CPU
manufacturers put into processors to deal
with pipeline stalls?
A. Added multiple pipelines
B. Increased the speed of the SRAM
C. Created new die sizes with more pins
D. Bundled better fans with their retail
CPUs
13. What steps do you need to take to
install a Core i5 CPU into an FM2
motherboard?
A. Lift the ZIF socket arm; place the CPU
according to the orientation markings; snap
on the heat-sink and fan assembly.
B. Lift the ZIF socket arm; place the CPU
according to the orientation markings; add a
dash of thermal paste; snap on the heat-
sink and fan assembly.
C. Lift the ZIF socket arm; place the CPU
according to the orientation markings; snap
on the heat-sink and fan assembly; plug in
the fan.
D. Take all of the steps you want to take
because it’s not going to work.
14. A client calls to complain that his
computer starts up, but crashes when
Windows starts to load. After a brief set of
questions, you find out that his nephew
upgraded his RAM for him over the
weekend and couldn’t get the computer to
work right afterward. What could be the
problem?
A. Thermal paste degradation
B. Disconnected CPU fan
C. Bad CPU cache
D. There’s nothing wrong. It usually takes
a couple of days for RAM to acclimate to the
new system.
15. Sam has installed a new CPU in a
client’s computer, but nothing happens
when he pushes the power button on the
case. The LED on the motherboard is lit up,
so he knows the system has power. What
could the problem be?
A. He forgot to disconnect the CPU fan.
B. He forgot to apply thermal paste
between the CPU and the heat-sink and
fan assembly.
C. He used an AMD CPU in an Intel
motherboard.
D. He used an Intel CPU in an AMD
motherboard.
1. How does an NMI manifest on a Mac
OS X system?
A. Blue Screen of Death
B. Pinwheel of death
C. Interrupt of death
D. NMIs only happen on Windows
systems.
2. Silas has an AMD-based motherboard
with two sticks of DDR2 RAM installed in
two of the three RAM slots, for a total of 2
GB of system memory. When he runs CPU-
Z to test the system, he notices that the
software claims he’s running single-channel
memory. What could be the problem?
(Select the best answer.)
A. His motherboard only supports single-
channel memory.
B. His motherboard only supports dual-
channel memory with DDR RAM, not DDR2.
C. He needs to install a third RAM stick to
enable dual-channel memory.
D. He needs to move one of the
installed sticks to a different slot to
activate dual-channel memory.
3. If you upgrade your memory but notice
that the RAM count does not reflect the
additional memory, what should you do?
A. Remove the RAM and try to reinstall
it.
B. Restart the computer.
C. Return the memory because it’s
probably bad.
D. Go to Setup and configure the memory
to reflect the new amount.
4. What does a non-maskable interrupt 9. What package does DDR3 SDRAM use
cause the CPU to produce? for desktop PCs?
A. The Blue Screen of Death A. 30-pin
B. A parity error B. 168-pin
C. Excessive heat C. 172-pin
D. An incorrect memory count D. 240-pin
5. What does the CPU use to access the 10. Which of the following is a valid
system’s RAM? package size for DDR4 DIMMs?
A. The system bus A. 172-pin
B. ReadyBoost B. 184-pin
C. The address bus C. 240-pin
D. The expansion bus D. 288-pin
6. What is the best way to determine the 11. What happens if you mix RAM sticks of
total capacity and specific type of RAM your different speeds?
system can handle?
A. Your computer will work fine as long as
A. Check the motherboard book. it uses dual-channel architecture.
B. Open the case and inspect the RAM B. Your computer may slow down.
slots.
C. Your computer will work fine if all the
C. Check the Device Manager. memory sticks are slower than the speed of
the motherboard.
D. Check the System utility in the Control
Panel. D. Your computer may lock up every
few seconds or provide corrupted data.
7. Which of the following PC speed ratings
matches up with DDR3-1600 RAM? 12. Why is SDRAM faster than regular
DRAM?
A. PC3-6400
A. It makes two processes per clock cycle.
B. PC3-8500
B. It runs synchronously with the
C. PC3-10600 system clock.
D. PC3-12800
C. It uses dual-channel architecture.
8. Which of the following is a valid package
D. It has fewer pins, resulting in fewer
size for DDR2 DIMMs?
corrupt bits.
A. 168-pin
13. What is true about a double-sided
B. 172-pin DIMM?

C. 184-pin A. It has memory chips on the front and

back.
D. 240-pin
B. It can be installed forward or backward.
C. It is twice as fast as a single-sided
DIMM.
D. It has half the capacity of a quad-sided
DIMM.
14. What is the minimum requirement for
RAM for Windows 7?
A. 128 MB
B. 256 MB
C. 512 MB
D. 1 GB
15. What happens if you add two RAM
sticks to your PC, and one has a bad SPD?
A. When your system boots, it will
recognize both RAM sticks but will not
register any special features (such as ECC)
of the stick with the bad SPD.
B. When your system boots, it will only
register the presence of the RAM stick with
the good SPD.
C. When your system boots, it won’t
register the presence of the RAM stick with
the bad SPD until you configure the RAM
settings by using the Setup utility.
D. When you try to boot the system,
you will get a POST error message and
the system will not boot.
1. The lowest voltage version of DDR3 is
__DDR3U (1.25v)________________.
2. If the LED for your hard drive stays on
most of the time, your computer is suffering
from __Disk thrashing________________,
a sure sign you need to add more memory.
3. A special kind of memory stick for
laptops is called a(n) __Small-outline
DIMM (SO-DIMM)________________.
4. Memory that makes two data accesses
during each clock tick is called ____ DDR
SDRAM ______________.
5. A(n) ___Non-maskable interrupt
(NMI)_______________ is an interruption
the CPU cannot ignore.
6. Unlike regular DRAM, ECC RAM
enables error checking and correcting.
7. The time lag between when the memory
controller starts to fetch a line of data from
RAM and when the RAM actually starts to
deliver the data is known as
______Latency____________.
8. Systems automatically detect new RAM
by polling the module’s ____Serial
Presence Detect (SPD)______________
chip.
9. ___Virtual Memory_______________
uses a portion of the HDD or SSD as an
extension of your physical RAM.
10. Memory chips are soldered to a small
circuit board called a(n)
______Stick____________ or a(n)
___module_______________.
1. A user calls first thing Monday morning
saying she has an error message at boot-up
that says her case was opened. She’s
looked at the computer, but it seems
normal. What does this tell you about her
computer?
A. Her computer has TPM enabled in the
CMOS.
B. Her computer has fan monitoring
enabled in CMOS and the fan stopped over
the weekend.
C. Her computer case has chassis
intrusion detection/notification and the
feature is enabled in CMOS.
D. It doesn’t tell you anything about the
computer, only that the user has a problem.
2. To which of the following can a PC
boot?
A. Hard drive
B. DVD-ROM
C. USB drive
D. All of the above
3. When you turn on your computer, what
is accessed first?
A. The CPU
B. The setup program
C. The POST
D. The CMOS chip
4. What does BIOS provide for the
computer? (Choose the best answer.)
A. BIOS provides the physical interface for
various devices such as USB, FireWire, and
Thunderbolt ports.
B. BIOS provides the programming that
enables the CPU to communicate with other
hardware.
C. BIOS provides memory space for
applications to load into from the hard
drive.
D. BIOS provides memory space for
applications to load into from the main
system RAM.
5. Which of the following will most likely
result in a POST beep code message?
A. The system is overheating.
B. The video card is not seated
properly.
C. The keyboard is unplugged.
D. The hard drive has crashed.
6. Which of the following statements is true
about CMOS?
A. CMOS is a configuration program that
runs from the hard drive during booting.
B. CMOS is a low-energy chip that
draws power from a battery while the
computer is turned off.
C. CMOS includes the power-on self test
(POST) routines.
D. CMOS is the Southbridge chip that
controls input and output devices.
7. How can you access the system setup
utility from within Windows 8.1?
A. Through the Setup applet in the Control
Panel.
B. Through the Boot applet in the Control
Panel.
C. Through the Settings charm in the
Charms bar.
D. You can’t. You need to reboot the
system and access the system settings by
pressing the appropriate key or key
combination.
8. Which of the following most typically
enables you to upgrade a flash ROM chip?
A. Remove the chip and replace it with a
different one.
B. Reboot the computer.
C. Install a different operating system.
D. Plug in a USB drive containing a new
BIOS file and run the updating utility in
CMOS.
9. After a sudden power outage, Morgan’s
PC rebooted, but nothing appeared on the
screen. The PC just beeps at him, over and
over and over. What’s most likely the
problem?
A. The power outage toasted his RAM.
B. The power outage toasted his video
card.
C. The power outage toasted his hard
drive.
D. The power outage toasted his CPU.
10. Henry bought a new card for capturing
television on his computer. When he
finished going through the packaging,
though, he found no driver disc, only an
application disc for setting up the TV
capture software. After installing the card
and software, it all works flawlessly. What’s
the most likely explanation?
A. The device doesn’t need BIOS, so
there’s no need for a driver disc.
B. The device has an option ROM that
loads BIOS, so there’s no need for a
driver disc.
C. Windows supports TV capture cards out
of the box, so there’s no need for a driver
disc.
D. The manufacturer made a mistake and
didn’t include everything needed to set up
the device.
11. Mohinder finds that a disgruntled
former employee decided to sabotage her
computer when she left by putting a
password in CMOS that stops the computer
from booting. What can Mohinder do to
solve this problem?
A. Mohinder should boot the computer
while holding the left SHIFT key. This will
clear the CMOS information.
B. Mohinder should try various
combinations of the former employee’s
name. The vast majority of people use their
name or initials for CMOS passwords.
C. Mohinder should find the CMOS
clear jumper on the motherboard. He can
move the shunt on the jumper to clear
the CMOS information.
D. Mohinder should find a replacement
motherboard. Unless he knows the CMOS
password, there’s nothing he can do.
12. In classic systems, which chip does the
CPU use to communicate with high-speed
devices such as video cards or RAM?
A. Complementary metal-oxide
semiconductor
B. Northbridge
C. Southbridge
D. Scan code
13. When your computer boots and you
press the appropriate key to enter the
CMOS setup utility, a small program loads,
allowing you to specify settings for various
hardware devices. Where is this small
program permanently stored?
A. In the ROM
B. In CMOS
C. On the hard drive
D. In RAM
14. When you enter the CMOS setup utility
(as in the previous question) and make
changes, where are your settings stored?
A. In the BIOS
B. In CMOS
C. On the hard drive
D. In RAM
15. Jill boots an older Intel-based system
that has been the cause of several user
complaints at the office. The system powers
up and starts to run through POST but then
stops. The screen displays a “CMOS
configuration mismatch” error. Of the
following list, what is the most likely cause
of this error?
A. Dying CMOS battery
B. Bad CPU
C. Bad RAM
D. Corrupt system BIOS
1. Loaded when the system boots, a(n)
____Device driver______________ is a
file that contains instructions to support a
hardware device.
2. If the computer appears dead, with no
beeps or screen responses, you can insert
a(n) _____Post Card_____________ in an
expansion slot to diagnose what is wrong.
3. The combination of a specific
Northbridge and a specific
_____Southbridge_____________ is
collectively referred to as the
_____chipset_____________.
4. If a disk contains the operating system
files necessary to start the computer, it is
called a(n) _Bootable
disk_________________.
5. You can reprogram a(n) __Flash
ROM(read only
memory)________________ chip without
removing the chip.
6. Unlike RAM, which loses all data when
the computer is shut down, a ROM chip is
____nonvolatile______________,
retaining the information even when the
power is off.
7. The hundreds of programs in the system
ROM chip are collectively called the
___Basic input/ output services
(BIOS)_______________.
8. A(n) __Pre Boot execution
environment (PXE)________________
enables a PC to boot to an OS stored on a
server over a network.
9. The low-energy chip that holds
configuration information and keeps track of
date and time is called the
__Complementary metal oxide
semiconductor
(CMOS)________________ chip.
10. Used in modern systems, ____Unified
Extensible Firmware Interface
(UEFI)______________ supports file
systems that enable booting to drives larger
than 2.2 TB, supports 32-bit or 64-bit
booting, and handles all boot-loading duties.
1. Which of the following are part of the
ATX form factor?
A. Mini-ITX
B. macroATX
C. microATX
D. picoATX
2. Which of the following form factors
dominates the PC market?
A. AT
B. ATX
C. Mini-ITX
D. Pico-ITX
3. Which of the following slots features
serial data transfers?
A. AGP
B. PCI
C. PCIe
D. PCI-X
4. A client brought in an old computer that
won’t boot. He wants to see if any data can
be recovered from the hard drive. When the
tech opened the case, he noted that two
expansion cards were plugged into some
kind of circuit board that plugged into the
motherboard. The expansion cards were
parallel with the motherboard, in other
words, rather than perpendicular. Into what
kind of circuit board did the expansion cards
most likely connect? (Select two.)
A. Daughter board
B. Expansion board
C. Riser card
D. Southbridge
5. Julie installed a new TV tuner card in a
client’s computer. The card fit perfectly in a
PCIe ×1 slot and clipped down to the case
properly. What’s her next step?
A. Research the card
B. Install drivers
C. Verify functionality
D. Troubleshoot
6. In a routine check of a system newly
built by her latest intern, Sarah discovers
that everything works except the hard drive
and power LEDs on the front of the case.
What could be the problem? (Select two.)
A. The intern forgot to connect the LED
leads to the motherboard.
B. The intern reversed the LED leads to
the motherboard.
C. There is no power to the motherboard.
D. There is no activity on the hard drive.
7. Robert installed a new motherboard,
CPU, and RAM into his old case. After he
attached the power correctly and pressed
the power button, not only did the system
not boot up, but he smelled ozone and
realized the motherboard had shorted out.
What could have been the cause?
A. Robert installed an ATX motherboard
into an ITX case.
B. Robert installed an ITX motherboard
into an ATX case.
C. Robert used an ITX power supply on an
ATX motherboard.
D. Robert left a standoff in the wrong
place under the motherboard.
8. Which of the following enables you to
access the Add Hardware Wizard in
Windows 7 or Windows 8.1?
A. addhdware.exe
B. hdware.exe
C. hdwwiz.exe
D. addhwiz.exe
9. Brian bought a new motherboard that
advertised support for eight USB ports.
When he pulled the motherboard out of the
box, though, he found that it only had four
USB ports. What’s likely the issue here?
A. The extra four USB ports will connect
to the front of the case or via a dongle to
an expansion slot.
B. The extra four USB ports require an
add-on expansion card.
C. The FireWire port will have a splitter
that makes it four USB ports.
D. The motherboard chipset might support
eight USB ports, but the manufacturer only
included four ports.
10. Martin bought a new motherboard to
replace his older ATX motherboard. As he
left the shop, the tech on duty called after
him, “Check your standoffs!” What could the
tech have meant?
A. Standoffs are the connectors on the
motherboard for the front panel buttons,
such as the on/off switch and reset button.
B. Standoffs are the metal edges on some
cases that aren’t rolled.
C. Standoffs are the metal connectors
that attach the motherboard to the case.
D. Standoffs are the dongles that enable a
motherboard to support more than four USB
ports.
11. Amanda bought a new system that,
right in the middle of an important
presentation, gave her a Blue Screen of
Death. Now her system won’t boot at all, not
even to CMOS. After extensive
troubleshooting, she determined that the
motherboard was at fault and replaced it.
Now the system runs fine. What was the
most likely cause of the problem?
A. Burn-in failure
B. Electrostatic discharge
C. Component failure
D. Power supply failure
12. Solon has a very buggy computer that
keeps locking up at odd moments and
rebooting spontaneously. He suspects the
motherboard. How should he test it?
A. Check settings and verify good
components.
B. Verify good components and document
all testing.
C. Replace the motherboard first to see if
the problems disappear.
D. Check settings, verify good
components, replace components, and
document all testing.
13. Which of the following companies
makes chipsets?
A. AMI
B. GIGABYTE
C. MSI
D. AMD
14. What purpose does the Super I/O chip
serve?
A. The Super I/O chip handles the
communication with RAM.
B. The Super I/O chip handles the
communication with video.
C. The Super I/O chip handles the
communication with legacy devices.
D. The Super I/O chip handles the
communication between the Northbridge
and Southbridge chips.
15. What should you do before installing
an expansion card? (Select two.)
A. Attach an anti-static wrist strap
B. Install the drivers
C. Plug the PC into a grounded outlet
D. Unplug the PC
1. The _____chipset_____________
defines the type of processor and RAM
required for the motherboard and
determines to a degree the built-in devices
supported by a motherboard, including the
expansion slots.
2. The ___Form Factor_______________
determines the physical size of the
motherboard as well as the general location
of components and ports.
3. The smallest common ATX motherboard
form factor is the _____Micro
ATX_____________.
4. The most common small non-ATX
motherboard form factor is _____Mini-
ITX_____________.
5. The most popular expansion bus in use
today, with speeds up to 16 GBps, is
______PCI Express (PCIe)____________.
6. The ____Motherboard
book______________ is your primary
source for all of the critical information about
the motherboard.
7. The motherboard mounts to the case via
small connectors called
_______Standoffs___________ that slide
into keyed slots or screw into the bottom of
the case.
8. You can add features to a system by
adding a device to a(n) ___Expansion
slots_______________.
9. A phenomenon known as _Distended
capacitors_________________ caused
great damage to early motherboards as the
result of incorrectly formulated electronic
components that store and release energy.
10. Microsoft truly wants your computer to
work, so they provide an excellent and
rigorous testing program for hardware
manufacturers called the _______Windows
Hardware Certification
Program___________.
1. Which of the following ATX12V features
was introduced as part of the EPS12V
standard?
A. The P4 motherboard power connector
B. Voltage rails
C. The 6-pin AUX connector
D. Soft power
2. Which kind of fire extinguisher should
you use for computer equipment?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
3. Under what conditions should a PC
technician work inside the power supply?
A. Only when it is unplugged.
B. Only when the technician is wearing an
anti-static wrist strap.
C. Anytime, because the power supply
only has low-energy DC electricity that will
not hurt the technician.
D. Never, because the power supply
has capacitors that hold electrical
charges that may harm the technician.
4. What should you check first if a
computer will not start and the fan in the
power supply will not turn?
A. The voltages coming out of the
power supply
B. The motherboard power connector
C. The power coming into the power
supply
D. The power switch
5. When you test voltage with a
multimeter, you can assume the outlet or
connector is functioning properly if the
reading is within a certain percentage of the
expected number. What is that maximum
percentage by which the reading can vary?
A. 5 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 20 percent
D. 25 percent
6. What voltage does an ATX12V P4
connector provide for motherboards?
A. 3.3 V
B. 3.3 V, 5 V
C. 5 V
D. 12 V
7. When testing an AC outlet, what voltage
should the multimeter show between the
neutral and ground wires?
A. 120 V
B. 60 V
C. 0 V
D. –120 V
8. What sort of power connector does a
traditional hard drive typically use?
A. Molex
B. Mini
C. Sub-mini
D. Micro
9. Arthur installed a new motherboard in
his case and connected the ATX power, but
his system would not turn on. He sees an
extra 4-wire port on the motherboard.
What’s he missing?
A. He needs to plug in the P2 connector
for powering auxiliary components.
B. He needs to plug in the P3 connector to
power the case fans.
C. He needs to plug in the P4 connector
to power the processor.
D. He needs to plug in the Aux connector
to connect to a secondary power supply.
10. What is the effect of exceeding the
wattage capabilities of a power supply by
inserting too many devices?
A. The system will boot normally, but some
of the devices will not function properly.
B. The system will boot normally and all of
the devices will work, but only for a limited
time. After an hour or so, the system will
spontaneously shut down.
C. The system will not boot or turn on
at all.
D. The system will try to boot, but the
overloaded power supply will fail, burning up
delicate internal capacitors.
11. Where do you put the multimeter leads
when you test a Molex connector?
A. The red lead should always touch the
red wire; the black lead should touch a
black ground wire.
B. The red lead should always touch the
black ground wire; the black lead should
always touch the red hot wire.
C. The red lead should always touch the
yellow hot wire; the black lead should touch
the red hot wire.
D. The red lead should touch either the red
or yellow hot wire; the black lead should
touch a black ground wire.
12. Which of the following problems points
to a dying power supply?
A. Intermittent lockups at bootup
B. A power supply fan that does not turn
C. A multimeter reading of 11 V for the 12-
V power line
D. A computer that won’t start by shorting
the soft power jumpers
13. What is the minimum PSU required for
an ATX system that requires Molex, mini,
and SATA connectors?
A. ATX
B. ATX12V 1.3
C. ATX12V 2.0
D. EPS12V
14. Which of the following is not a PSU
form factor?
A. TFX12V
B. SFX12V
C. CFX12V
D. LPX12V
15. Which statement is true?
A. Removing the expansion slot covers on
the back of your case will improve cooling
by allowing hot air to escape.
B. Shop around when purchasing a case;
you will often find good deals that include a
powerful PSU.
C. Always keep the power supply plugged
in to the wall outlet when working on the
inside of a computer, as this helps to ground
it.
D. If your power supply fails, don’t try
to repair it; buy a new one.
1. The old floppy drive used the
_________mini connector_________ from
the power supply.
2. The electric company provides
___alternating current
(AC)_______________ power that the
power supply converts to ___direct current
(DC)_______________ for use by the
computer components.
3. If the ____slot covers______________
are left off the expansion slots, the
computer may overheat.
4. An ATX form factor power supply
attaches to the motherboard with a(n)
______P1 power connector____________
and a P4 connector, and supplies 5 V to the
motherboard at all times.
5. Be sure your surge suppressor has a(n)
__________joule________ rating of at
least 2000.
6. The measurement unit for the amount of
electrons flowing past a certain point on a
wire is ___amperes (amps or
A)_______________.
7. The _______power supply
fan___________ provides the basic cooling
for the PC.
8. Be sure the _____wattage (watts or
W)_____________ rating for your power
supply is greater than the minimum required
by all devices in the computer.
9. The ability to split voltage supplies into
separate ______rails____________
ensures that no device will hog all of the
available power.
10. A spare part that a tech typically
carries to replace a failed component in the
field is called a(n) ___field replaceable
unit (FRU)_______________.
1. Jane replaced two 5400-RPM drives
with a pair of 10,000-RPM drives, but now
her system crashes under heavy use. What
can she do to address this problem?
A. Install drive bay fans to cool the new
drives.
B. Enable AHCI in the CMOS setup utility.
C. Enable NCQ in the CMOS setup utility.
D. There’s nothing she can do; additional
crashes are the trade-off with faster drives.
2. Which of the following SSD form factors
might you expect to find in a portable
device?
A. 3.5-inch
B. mSATA
C. SATAm
D. eSATA
3. Josephine discovers an old PATA drive 6. Alex discovered a bunch of SATA drives
sitting in the closet and wants to view the in a box at the office and needs to check the
contents. What does she need to make that contents. What can he do so that Windows
possible? automatically recognizes each new drive?
A. AHCI controller, ribbon cable, Molex A. He needs to enable AHCI in CMOS
power connector setup.
B. ATA controller, ribbon cable, PCIe B. He needs to enable NCQ in CMOS
power connector setup.
C. ATA controller, ribbon cable, Molex C. He needs to disable HBA in CMOS
power connector setup.
D. NCQ controller, ribbon cable, Molex D. He needs to disable RAID in CMOS
power connector setup.
4. André wants to install the fastest SATA 7. Of the following RAID types, which
drive he can into his new system. The clerk offers the best redundancy with the fewest
at the office store threw a bunch of numbers number of drives?
and letters at him. Given such a scenario,
A. RAID 0
which should he choose?
B. RAID 1
A. 3 Gbps
C. RAID 5
B. 6 Gbps
D. RAID 10
C. NVMe
8. Which level of RAID is disk striping?
D. SATAe
A. RAID 0
5. Jill wants to add an additional drive to
her portable computer. She has a spare 1- B. RAID 1
TB SATA HDD. Given such scenario, what
would enable her to accomplish her goal? C. RAID 5

A. Put the drive into an external enclosure D. RAID 6

and plug it into a SATAe socket on the back 9. Which of the following techniques
of the portable. provides redundancy by using two disks and
B. Put the drive into an external enclosure two controllers?
and plug it into an eSATA socket on the A. Disk mirroring
back of the portable.
B. Disk duplexing
C. Put the drive into an external enclosure
and plug it into an AHCI socket on the back C. Disk striping
of the portable.
D. Disk striping with parity
D. It can’t be done. She needs to purchase
an external SSD.
10. Which of the following can SSDs use 14. John wants to install two drives in a
to retain data integrity when a system loses new system, a small SSD and a large HDD.
power or is turned off? How should he install the drives to prep the
system to use the SSD for Windows and the
A. DRAM
HDD for other applications and storage?
B. RAM drive
A. Set the jumper on the SSD to master
C. NAND and the jumper on the HDD to slave.

D. SDRAM B. Connect the SSD to channel 1 and the

11. Jeff installs a pair of 250-GB SSDs into
his computer and wants to run them in a
fast RAID array to speed up his gaming
experience. The motherboard SATA
controller supports RAID 1, 2, and 5. When
he boots his computer, however, Windows
sees the drives as individual 250-GB drives.
What’s up?
A. Jeff needs to install a RAID controller
card. The RAID built into motherboards is
always inferior.
B. Jeff needs to change the HBA from
AHCI to RAID.
C. Jeff needs to change the HBA from
AHCI to SATA.
D. Jeff needs to change the HBA from
SATA to AHCI.
12. Which tool in Windows enables you to
implement RAID?
A. Disk Management
B. Disk Duplicator
C. RAID Management
D. System Tools
13. Which version of Windows enables you
to set up software RAID 0+1? Select the
best answer.
A. Windows 7 and later.
B. Windows 8 and later.
C. Only Windows 10.
HDD to channel 2.
C. In CMOS setup, set the SSD to Boot
device and the HDD to Storage device.
D. It doesn’t matter. Windows always
installs on the faster drive by default.
15. Which of the following represent
common solid-state drive form factors?
A. AT, ATX, and BTX
B. 8-inch, 2.5-inch, and 5.25-inch
C. 1.8-inch, 2.5-inch, and 3.5-inch
D. IEEE 1394, USB, and SCSI
1. Traditional hard drives with spinning
metal disks are known as magnetic hard
drives
2. Traditional hard drives run at a set
spindle speed, measured in RPM.
3. A(n) solid state drive (SSD) offers
substantial performance benefits over an
HDD.
4. A(n) M.2 form factor drive installs into a
special slot on motherboards.
5. The older PATA drives send data in
parallel; current SATA (serial ATA) drives
send data in serial.
6. Windows supports Hybrid Hard Drives
(HDDs) drives that combine flash memory
and spinning platters to provide fast and
reliable storage.

D. Windows does not support RAID 0+1. 7. Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting
Technology (S.M.A.R.T) is an internal drive
program that tracks errors and error
conditions within a drive.
8. The Non-Volatile Memory Express
(NVMe) specification supports a
communication connection between the
operating system and the SSD directly
through a PCIe bus lane, reducing latency
and taking full advantage of the wicked-fast
speeds of high-end SSDs.
9. Seen in RAID 5, disk striping with parity
uses at least three drives and combines the
best features of disk mirroring and disk
striping.
10. RAID 10 features both nesting and
striping and requires at least four drives.
1. What is the default file system in
Windows?
A. exFAT
B. ext4
C. HFS+
D. NTFS
2. What is the default file system in Mac
OS X?
A. exFAT
B. ext4
C. HFS+
D. NTFS
3. What is the default file system in most
current Linux distros?
A. exFAT
B. ext4
C. HFS+
D. NTFS
4. You receive an “Invalid media” error
when trying to access a hard drive. What is
the most likely cause of the error?
A. The drive has not been partitioned.
B. The drive has not been set to active.
C. The drive has not been formatted.
D. The drive has died.
5. What does NTFS use to provide security
for individual files and folders?
A. Dynamic disks
B. ECC
C. Access Control List
D. MFT
6. What graphical program does Microsoft
include with Windows to partition and format
a drive?
A. Format
B. Disk Management console
C. Disk Administrator console
D. System Commander
7. Which of the following statements apply
to MBR drives? (Select two.)
A. Maximum partition size of 2.2 TB
B. Unlimited number of partitions
C. Cannot span partitions across multiple
drives
D. Can stripe partitions across multiple
drives
8. How can you effectively expand the
capacity of an NTFS drive?
A. Create an extended partition to extend
the capacity.
B. Install a second drive and mount it to a
folder on the original smaller NTFS drive.
C. Convert the drive to a dynamic disk and
create a mirrored set.
D. Format the drive with the Quick Format 13. Which two terms identify a bootable
option. partition?
9. Which storage option in Windows 8 or A. Master, FAT
later offers the best mix of resiliency and
B. Slave, FAT
performance with two drives?
C. Primary, Active
A. Simple space
D. Primary, NTFS
B. Two-way mirror space
14. For what purpose can you use disk
C. Three-way mirror space
quotas?
D. Parity space
A. Limit users to a specific drive
10. Jaime wishes to check her hard drive
B. Extend the capacity of a volume
for errors. What tool should she use?
C. Manage dual-boot environments
A. FDISK
D. Limit users’ space on a drive
B. Format
15. Martha the tech adds a new hard drive
C. Disk Manager
to a user’s system for extra storage. She’s
D. Error checking installed the drive and it shows up in the
System Setup utility. When she opens File
11. To make your files unreadable by
Explorer, naturally the drive does not
others, what should you use?
appear. What’s her next step?
A. Clustering
A. Run Disk Management and format the
B. Compression drive.

C. Disk quotas B. Run Disk Management and initialize the

D. Encryption
12. Martha the tech gets a frantic call from
a junior engineer who says he seems to be
losing files and thinks maybe his hard drive
is bad. After some discussion, it turns out
the engineer’s system runs Ubuntu Linux. In
such a scenario, which tool should Martha
run (or have the engineer run) to scan his
hard drive for errors?
A. chkdsk
B. Disk Management
C. Error checking
drive.
C. Run Disk Management and partition the
drive.
D. Reboot the computer. Windows will
prepare the drive automatically.
1. The MBR checks the partition table to
find the active partition or bootable partition.
2. If a file is not stored in contiguous
clusters, you can improve hard drive
performance by using a tool to defragment
the drive.

D. fsck 3. Instead of using a FAT, NTFS uses a(n)

Master file table (MFT) with a backup copy
placed in the middle of the disk for better
security.
4. On modern versions of Windows, the 3. Which of the following is a high-speed
best file system to choose is NTFS alternative to existing technologies such as
USB, FireWire, and DisplayPort?
5. The Windows tool that attempts to fix
invalid filenames, erases lost clusters, and A. Lightning
seals off bad clusters is called Error-
B. eMMC
checking (or chkdsk).
C. USB 3.1
6. The GPT partitioning scheme enables
you to create more than four primary D. Thunderbolt
partitions without needing to use dynamic
disks. 4. What do digitizers enable people to do
on a PC?
7. A logical drive must be created inside
a(n) Extended partition. A. Capture video

8. Only a single Primary Partition may be B. Draw, paint, and write

set to active on one drive. C. Secure using fingerprints
9. The Disk cleanup utility is useful for D. Switch between multiple computers
purging your system of unnecessary using the same keyboard, mouse, and
temporary files. monitor
10. A(n) Mirrored volume requires exactly 5. Which FireWire standard is properly
two volumes and is extremely fault tolerant matched with its speed?
A. IEEE 1394a, 400 Mbps
1. How many devices can a single USB B. IEEE 1394a, 480 Mbps
host controller support?
C. IEEE 1394b, 400 Mbps
A. 2
D. IEEE 1394b, 480 Mbps
B. 4
6. FireWire supports a maximum of how
C. 63 many devices?
D. 127 A. 2
2. What is the maximum USB cable length B. 4
as defined by the USB 2.0 specification?
C. 63
A. 4.5 feet
D. 127
B. 4.5 meters
7. What icon does Windows Device
C. 5 feet Manager display over disabled devices?
D. 5 meters A. Yellow triangle
B. Down-pointing arrow
C. Blue I
D. Green D
8. When triggered, which of the following 13. Which of the following lists the
sends a signal to the computer to start technologies in order from slowest to
recording? fastest?
A. Smart Card A. SuperSpeed USB, Full-Speed USB, Hi-
Speed USB, IEEE 1394a, IEEE 1394b
B. Motion sensor
B. Full-Speed USB, IEEE 1394a, Hi-Speed
C. KVM switch
USB, IEEE 1394b, SuperSpeed USB
D. Digitizer
C. Full-Speed USB, SuperSpeed USB, Hi-
9. To what does the .1 in 5.1 or 2.1 refer? Speed USB, IEEE 1394a, IEEE 1394b

A. Volumetric sound positioning D. Low-Speed USB, SuperSpeed USB,

IEEE 1394a, Hi-Speed USB, IEEE 1394b
B. Subwoofer
14. In Windows 8.1, which Control Panel
C. Subchannels applet enables you to configure a game
D. Reverb positional matrices controller, such as a joystick or gamepad?

10. Which device is a biometric device? A. Devices and Printers

A. Bar code reader B. Joysticks and Gamepads

B. Optical mouse C. Input Devices

C. Retinal scanner D. Game controllers are only configured

D. Flatbed scanner
11. John’s boss tasks him to buy a set of
four SD cards for a new video project, two
for each camera. The video will be captured
in high definition, so the files will be huge.
Given such a scenario, what type of card
will John have to buy to support 128-GB
capacity for each card?
A. SD
B. SDHC
C. SDXC
D. xD
12. Which Blu-ray Disc format enables you
write and erase the media several times?
A. BD-ROM
within a PC game.
15. While testing a newly installed KVM
switch, you can’t display the second
connected system while tapping the scroll
lock key. What is most likely the problem?
A. Incorrect KVM UPC code
B. Crossed video cable
C. Locked scroll lock key
D. Active KVM
1. A(n) Full-speed USB or USB 1.1 device
transfers data at up to 12 Mbps on the
universal serial bus.
2. A(n) IEEE 1394b FireWire device
transfers data at up to 800 Mbps.

B. BD-R 3. The Thunderbolt standard connects

computing devices with a Mini DisplayPort
C. BD-RE connector.
D. BD-RW
 4. A(n) Smart Card reader scans the chip
embedded in such devices as ID badges to
enhance access and security.
5. A(n) Touch Screen is a monitor with
some type of sensing device across its face
that detects the location and duration of
contact, usually by a finger or stylus.
6. Bar code readers read standard
Universal Product code bar codes, primarily
to track inventory.
7. A(n) Digital camera captures digital
images on removable media; a(n) Webcam
transmits digital images across the Internet
for video communication.
8. Unlike recorded sounds, Musical
Instrument Digital Interface uses specialized
text files that tell the sound card which
sounds to play.
9. A series of instructions telling a computer
how to read a compressed file is called a(n)
Codec
10. While a CD-ROM disc holds about 650
MB of data, a(n) Digital Versatile Disk stores
from 4.37 GB to 15.9 GB, depending on the
number of sides and layers used.
1. What is a thin client?
A. computer with a 32-bit-wide address
bus
B. A portable computer
C. A system designed to handle only very
basic applications with the minimum
hardware required by the operating system
D. A computer in a narrow, small form-
factor case
2. What three functions does a home
server PC provide? (Select three.)
A. Media streaming
B. File sharing
C. Web hosting
D. Print sharing
3. What’s a good guide to use when
deciding on hardware for a basic thick
client?
A. Buy whatever is on sale.
B. Always start with the most expensive
hardware.
C. Check the recommended requirements
for the OS you want to use.
D. Check the MSDS for the OS you want
to use.
4. How do you share a printer in Windows?
A. Open Device Manager, right-click on the
printer, select Properties, and select Share
this printer.
B. You have to install special drivers for
your printer.
C. Open the Devices and Printers applet in
the Control Panel, right-click on the printer,
select Printer properties, and then check the
Share this printer checkbox on the Sharing
tab.
D. You have to have Windows Home
Server in order to share printers.
5. What program that comes with some
versions of Windows turns your PC into a
home theater PC?
A. Kodi
B. Windows Media Center
C. Plex
D. Windows Home Theater
6. What is the most important component
for building a virtualization workstation?
A. CPU
B. Power supply
C. RAM
D. Large monitor
7. What three things does a video editing
workstation benefit from? (Select three.)
A. High-end motherboard
B. Fast, multicore CPU
C. Lots of RAM
D. Professional-level GPU
8. Which of the following are Microsoft
compatibility tools that enable you to scan
your current hardware to see if it can handle
upgrading to a new version of Windows?
(Select two.)
A. Windows Upgrade Advisor
B. Hardware Compatibility Upgrader
(HCU)
C. Upgrade Assistant
D. Hardware State Migration Tool (HSMT)
9. What is the most common boot method
for installing Windows 8?
A. Boot to a Windows DVD
B. Boot to a Windows CD-ROM
C. Boot to a PXE drive
D. Boot to a recovery partition
10. When you install an operating system
alongside an existing operating system,
what do you create?
A. A clean installation
B. An upgrade installation
C. A multiboot installation
D. A network installation
11. If you do not complete the activation
process for Windows 7, what will happen to
your computer?
A. Nothing. Activation is optional.
B. The computer will work fine for 30 days
and then Windows will be disabled.
C. Microsoft will not know how to contact
you to provide upgrade information.
D. It will work if you check the “I promise to
pay for Windows later” box.
12. If Windows locks up during the
installation, how can you determine at what
point it locked up?
A. Reboot and start the installation
process. Pay attention to the text in the
lower third of the screen and write down the
error message revealed.
B. Push the Reset button to restart the
installation process. Pay attention to the text
in the lower third of the screen and write
down the error message revealed.
C. Reboot and start the installation
process. After it starts, press the ESC key to
cancel the installation process and show the
previous installation notes.
D. Review the setuperr.log files to track
any errors discovered.
13. Which term describes a combination of
many updates and fixes in Windows
Vista/7?
A. Hot fix
B. Hot pack
C. Service pack
D. Service release
14. Your boss has tasked you to load
identical images onto a series of Mac OS X
workstations to get the classroom ready for
the new group of students. In such a
scenario, what’s the best tool to use?
A. MultiBoot
B. NetBoot
C. OS Push
D. User State Migration Tool
15. Your boss has decided to retire several 8. During the Windows installation, you will
systems and tasks you to make absolutely need to agree to a legal document called
sure the data on the drives is obliterated. In the End User License Agreement (EULA)
such a scenario, how could you best
9. Windows tracks the installation progress
demonstrate that you have fulfilled the task?
with a set of text files called log files
A. Run a software utility to wipe the drives.
10. Windows uses the Windows Easy
Show the boss the empty drives.
Transfer (WET) tool for migrating user files
B. Partition and format the drives. Show and settings.
the boss the empty drives.
C. Take the drives to a professional hard
1. Which of the following tabs is not found
drive disposal service and request
in the Task Manager?
incineration.
A. Users
D. Take the drives to a professional hard
drive disposal service and insist on a B. Processes
certificate of destruction when they finish
the job. C. Services
D. Objects

1. A(n) thin client is a system designed to 2. Which of the following root keys
handle only very basic applications with an contains the data for a system’s non-user-
absolute minimum amount of hardware specific configurations?
required by the operating system. A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
2. A(n) audio interface is a box that you B. HKEY_USERS
hook up to your PC with inputs that enable
you to connect professional microphones C. HKEY_CURRENT_USER
and instruments.
D. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
3. (HTPC) Home Theater PC cases are
3. Tim needs to register an important DLL
used to make your computer blend in with
file as a command component in the
the rest of your home theater equipment.
Registry. What command-line tool should he
4. If you want to share files and printers use?
over your home network, you can set up
A. regedt64
a(n) Home Server PC
B. regedt32
5. If you have a new hard drive with
nothing on it, you will likely choose to do C. regsvr32
a(n) clean installation
D. regmgr64
6. A(n) patch is a fix for a single problem
with the OS, while a(n) service pack is a 4. What is the name of the command-line
combination of fixes. command for killing tasks?

7. If you wish to have only one OS and A. kill

keep the applications and configuration of B. taskkill
the current system, you should choose to do
a(n) upgrade installation of the new OS. C. processkill
D. appkill
5. With what is every application and D. notepad
service in Windows associated?
10. Which of the following statements
A. An object about booting in Windows is true?
B. A counter A. BIOS does not use bootmgr.
C. A component B. UEFI looks for the MBR, which finds the
boot code that launches bootmgr.
D. A process
C. BIOS looks for the MBR, which finds the
6. Which of the following are organized
boot code that launches bootmgr.
inside the Registry’s root keys? (Select
two.) D. UEFI does not use bootmgr.
A. Subkeys 11. Which task moved from the System
Configuration utility to the Task Manager
B. Subfolders
beginning with Windows 8?
C. Values
A. Controlling Windows boot mode and
D. Objects options

7. When using Performance Monitor, B. Managing Windows services

which settings are defined to track resource
usage? (Select two.)
A. Processes
B. Objects
C. Counters
D. Values
8. Which of the following options are
available when you right-click on a process
in the Windows 7 Task Manager’s
Processes tab? (Select two.)
C. Controlling which processes start when
Windows loads
D. Access to a variety of Windows tools
12. What is the name of the coding
standard that enables programmers to write
databases and applications that interact
independently of the operating system
used?
A. Open Database Connectivity
B. Data Collector Sets

A. Start Service C. Component Services

B. Go to Service(s) D. Reliability and Performance Monitor

C. Go To Process 13. How do you open the Registry Editor

from the command prompt?
D. Set Priority
A. regedit
9. Mark needs to edit the Registry on
Mary’s Windows 8 box. Which tool enables B. regsvr32
manual editing of the Registry from a
C. regeditor
command prompt?
D. bcdedit
A. reg
14. Which file does the boot manager
B. tasklist
check to determine the operating systems
C. bootmgr installed at boot-up?
A. BCD 1. What process determines the identity of
a user?
B. bootmgr
A. Authentication
C. ODBC
B. Authorization
D. HKEY_CURRENT_OS
C. Identification
15. Which of the following key
combinations opens the Task Manager? D. Indemnification
A. CTRL-ALT-SHIFT 2. Which of the following user account
types can create other user accounts?
B. SHIFT-F5
A. Administrator
C. CTRL-SHIFT-ESC
B. Limited user
D. WINDOWS LOGO-PAUSE/BREAK
C. Restricted user
D. Standard user
1. The Startup tab in Task Manager shows
applications that will run on boot. 3. Which of the following groups enables
someone who does not have an account on
2. Tasklist is a command-line version of the
the system to log on? Assume the group is
Task Manager.
enabled.
3. The Performance tab in the Task
A. Administrators
Manager displays overall CPU and memory
usage. B. Power Users
4. The Performance Monitor requires a(n) C. Standard Users
Counter and a(n) Object to create logs
D. Guests
about resource usage.
4. Which utility enables you to add users
5. When you open the Registry Editor, you
and groups in Windows 7 Professional?
will see the five Root keys on the left side of
the window. A. User Account Control
6. You can right-click on a user in the B. User Accounts applet
Users tab of the Task Manager to
disconnect them. C. Users and Groups applet

7. Windows 8.1 uses Boot mgr to boot the D. Local Users and Groups
OS. 5. Which of the following is the strongest
8. The Registry tracks everything about password?
your computer, from file types to user A. 5551212
preferences.
B. Spot01
9. You can open the Task manager directly
by pressing CTRL-SHIFT-ESC. C. 43*xv

10. When programmers need to use D. 479love*

objects across multiple applications, they
turn to Component Services
6. Marjorie has files of a delicate nature
that she doesn’t want other users on a
shared Windows system to access. What
must she use to secure these files, even
from administrators?
A. Secure Boot.
B. Encryption.
C. SecurePassword.
D. She can’t. Administrators can access
anything using Take Ownership permission.
7. Which of the following groups can you
assign a user to in Windows Vista Home
Premium? (Select two.)
A. Administrators
B. Power Users
10. As a member of the accounting group,
John has Write permission to the Database
folder; as a member of the technicians
group, John has Read permission to the
Database folder. What permission or
permissions does John have to the
Database folder?
A. Read only
B. Write only
C. Read and Write
D. Full Control
11. When you copy a file from one folder
on the C: drive to another folder on the C:
drive, by default what permissions will the
copy of that file have if the C: drive is
formatted with NTFS?

C. Replicators A. The copy will retain the permissions the

original file has.
D. Users
B. The copy will inherit the permissions of
8. Which tool in Windows enables an the new location.
administrator to create a log that shows all
of the applications a user runs or attempts C. The copy will lose all permissions.
to run?
D. You can’t do that.
A. Create Log
12. Which of the following commands is
B. NTFS used to change file permissions in Linux?

C. Parental Controls A. chmod

D. User Account Control B. chown

9. Which of the following is not a standard C. users

NTFS permission?
D. pwn
A. Copy
13. John needs to perform many changes
B. Full Control and updates to a Windows 8.1 system. How
does he turn UAC off?
C. Modify
A. Select User Account Control settings in
D. Read & Execute the User Accounts Control Panel applet,
change the slider to Never notify.
B. In the User Accounts Control Panel
applet, check the box next to Disable User
Account Control and click OK.
C. Access User Account Control options in
the System Tools and select Disable User
Account Control.
D. You can’t turn UAC off in Windows 8 or
later.
14. Which tool in certain Windows editions
enables you to encrypt the contents of a
drive, including folders of users other than
you?
A. BitLocker
B. Drive Encryptor
C. Encrypting File System
D. TrueCrypt
15. In Windows 7 and later, how do the
two middle levels of UAC security differ?
A. One creates a prompt for verified
programs; the other creates a prompt for
unverified programs.
B. One uses a consent prompt that blocks
all other actions; the other uses a consent
prompt that does not block other actions.
C. One creates a prompt that requires a
password; the other creates a prompt that
does not require a password.
D. One uses a prompt for standard users
only; the other uses a prompt for all users.
1. The User Account applet enables you to
manage user accounts in Windows.
2. To log on to a standalone Windows PC,
you need a(n) local user account
3. The process that defines what
resources an authenticated user may
access and what he or she may do with
those resources is called authorization
4. When you create a new file or folder on
an NTFS partition, you become the Owner
of that file or folder.
5. A(n) Group is a collection of user
accounts that share the same access
capabilities.
6. User Account Control (UAC) enables
standard users to perform common tasks
and provides a permissions dialog box
when standard users and administrators do
certain things that could potentially harm the
computer.
7. By default, any file you drop into a folder
on an NTFS drive gets the same
permissions as those assigned to the folder,
a feature called Inheritance.
8. The chown command enables you to
change the owner and the group with which
a file or folder is associated in Linux and
Mac OS X.
9. BitLocker Drive requires a special
Trusted Platform Module (TPM) on the
motherboard to verify on boot that the
computer has not changed.
10. The Encryption enables you to
scramble a file or folder and thus hide the
contents from anyone, even an
administrator.
1. What tool enables you to modify which
programs start when Windows 8.1 starts?
A. msstartup
B. msinfo32
C. msconfig
D. Task Manager
2. Mark loaded a new video card on his
system, but now everything looks very bad.
What should he do first?
A. Go to Event Viewer and check the log.
B. Go to Device Manager.
C. Go to the printed manual.
D. Call tech support.
3. Marsha the tech has been tasked to
support a set of Mac OS X computers. Upon
examining the first few, she realizes the
core operating system on the machines is
two generations out-of-date. Given such as
scenario, what should she do?
A. Open System Preferences and select
Update from the options.
B. Open System Preferences and select
Software Updater from the options.
C. Open System Preferences and select
the App Store pane.
D. She needs a physical disc to update the
core operating system in Mac OS X
machines.
4. What tool enables you to correct a
corrupted Windows operating system by
reverting your computer to a previous state?
A. Windows Restore
B. Restore State Manager
C. Time Machine
D. System Restore
5. Which of the following backup features
does Windows 7 not support?
A. System Restore
B. Backup and Restore
C. Tape Backup
D. Setting differential vs. incremental
backups
6. What program can you use to keep your
systems patched and up to date?
A. Windows Dispatcher
B. Windows Patcher
C. Windows Update
D. Windows Upgrade
7. What tool is used in Mac OS X to
perform full system backups?
A. AppleBack
B. Users and Groups
C. Time Machine
D. Backups
8. What tool is used in Ubuntu Linux to
perform full system backups?
A. AppleBack
B. Users and Groups
C. Time Machine
D. Backups
9. Diane complains that her system seems
sluggish and she keeps running out of hard
drive space. What Microsoft Windows–
based tool can she use to get rid of
unnecessary files and compress older files?
Select the best answer.
A. Disk Cleanup
B. Disk Doctor
C. CCleaner
D. Registry Cleaner
10. Alberto installs a video card into a
Windows 8 computer and it seems to work
just fine until he tries to run a game. Then
he gets low-end graphics and it just doesn’t
look right. What might he try to fix the
problem? Select the best answer.
A. Check the video card manufacturer’s
Web site and download updated drivers.
B. Check the video card manufacturer’s
Web site and download the FAQ.
C. Run the Driver Update utility.
D. Reinstall Windows.
11. What feature included in Windows 8,
8.1, and 10 allows you to regularly back up
your important files and folders?
A. System Configuration
B. Backup and Restore
C. AutoPlay
D. File History
12. Which of the following commands
opens the System Information tool?
A. msconfig
B. msinfo
C. msinfo32
D. mscnfg32
13. Mary wants to create a custom tool for
maintaining her Windows clients. What tool
enables her to accomplish this goal?
A. MMC
B. msconfig
C. msinfo32
D. MCC
14. Chuck wants to run Disk Defragmenter
on his Windows 7 machine once every
week. Which tool enables him to set
Windows to do this automatically?
A. msconfig
B. Defragment later
C. Error checking
D. Task Scheduler
15. Joan recently bought a new gamepad
and used the Add a Device wizard to install
it, but it still won’t work. What should she do
next? (Select two.)
A. Check the manufacturer’s Web site for
updated drivers.
B. Run the Automated System Recovery
tool to return the PC to a functioning state.
C. Use a restore point in System Restore
to return the PC to a functioning state.
D. Use Device Manager to automatically
search for new drivers.
1. In Windows, you use the Program and
Features applet to uninstall, change, or
repair programs.
2. In Mac OS X, you access updates
through the App store pane in System
Preferences.
3. To change which programs and services
start with Windows 8/8.1/10, you would use
the task manager.
4. If installing a new driver causes
problems in your system, device manager
enables you to roll back the driver to a
previously installed version.
5. In Windows Vista and 7, Microsoft
occasionally packaged several updates for
Windows together into a(n) service pack
6. You can use performance options to
disable certain graphical flourishes, such as
animations, transparencies, and more.
7. Mac OS X uses launch hd and most
Linux distributions use cron to run all sorts
of tasks automatically in the background.
8. The process of keeping software
updated in a safe and timely fashion is
known as patch management
9. When you insert an optical disc into your
PC, Windows uses the autorun and
autoplay features to start the disc
automatically.
10. The system restore tool enables you to
create a restore point, a snapshot of your
computer’s configuration at a specific point
in time
Chapter 16 Working With The Command-
Line Interface
1. The __________________ tells you
it’s ready to receive commands by
displaying a specific set of
characters called a(n)
__________________. –command-
line interface, prompt
2. Extra text you type after a
command to modify its operation is
called a(n) __________________. -
switch
3. The copy command is to move in
Windows as cp is to
__________________ in Linux. -mv
4. The Terminal __________________
command enables you to delete a
file. –rm
5. Your system knows what program is
associated with a particular file by
that file’s ____________. -
extension
6. The __________________
command enables you to restart a computer
remotely from the command line. -
shutdown
7. Type _____ or ______ before a
Terminal command to get root privileges. –
su, sudo
8. The asterisk is a special character
called a(n) __________________ that you
can use in place of part of a filename when
executing a command-line command. -
wildcard
9. The ____________ command is
used by Linux systems to copy entire block
volumes. - dd
10. The _________ command is used
in Mac OS X to change a password. –
psswd
1. Which command pauses after
displaying a screen’s worth of
directory contents? - ls |
more" and "dir /p
2. Which of the following commands
will delete all of the files in a
directory in Terminal? –rm*
3. Which command can you use to
determine an exact folder location or
path in Terminal? –pwd
4. Which Windows command is
functionally equivalent to the Linux ls
command? -dir
5. What can you type before a
Terminal command to access help
for that command? –man
6. What command can you type in the
Search box to access the command-
line interface in Windows? -cmd
7. Which of the following Linux
commands will show detailed
information about the contents of a
folder? –ls -l
8. The Windows xcopy command was
superseded by the faster and more
efficient ________ command. –
robocopy
9. What command, identical in both
Windows and Linux, will tell you the
name of a computer? - hostname
10. Of the following, which best
describes the function of the
Windows gpresult command? –list
the group policies applied to a
user
11. Which of the following commands
will show you any line that has the
string “fred” in it? –ls –r l grep fred
12. How do you run a command at the
Windows command prompt with
elevated or administrative
privileges? - Right click a
command prompt shortcut and
then select Run as administrator.
13. Which of the following commands
will shut down a Linux system
immediately without restarting it? –
shutdown now
14. What Terminal command will display
a workstation’s IP address? -
ifconfig
15. Which Terminal command enables
you to search through text files or
command output to find specific
information? -grep
CHAPTER 17 Troubleshooting
Operating Systems
1. The __________________ tool
enables you to view and modify
the BCD store. –bcdedit
2. Use the __________________
to check and replace any
corrupted critical Windows files,
such as DLLs. – System File
Checker
3. If Windows 7 fails to boot but you
have not logged on, you can
select __________________ to
restore the computer to the way
it was the last time a user logged
on. -Last Known Good
Configuration
4. To start Windows using only the
most basic and essential drivers
and services, use
__________________. -Safe
Mode
5. The __________________,
accessed by pressing CTRL-
SHIFT-ESC once, enables you
to see all processes and services
currently running or to close a
process that has stopped
working. -Task Manager
6. Use the __________________
in Windows 8 to see an
aggregation of event messages,
warnings, maintenance
messages, and quick access to
security and maintenance tools. -
Action Center
7. In Windows Vista and Windows
7, you can use the
__________________ feature to
recover previous versions of
corrupted or deleted files. -
System Protection

8. To run a program written for
Windows XP in a Windows 7
computer, use
__________________ if you
encounter problems. -Windows
XP Mode
9. The __________________
applet provides a relative feel for
how your computer stacks up
against other systems using the
Windows Experience Index. -
Performance Information and
Tools
10. Current versions of Windows
include a set of repair tools
known as the
__________________. -
Windows Recovery
Environment (Win RE)
1. Which utility is useful in identifying a
program that is hogging the
processor? -Task Manager
2. Which Windows utility uses points in
time that allow you to return your
system to a previous date and state?
-System Restore
3. Scott’s Windows 8.1 computer isn’t
performing as well as it once did.
What option can he use to reset his
system without deleting any
personal files or changing any
settings? -Refresh your PC
4. What can device drivers and failing
hardware in Mac OS X and Linux
cause? -Kernel panic
5.
6. You’ve just installed a software
update, rebooted, and now your
system experiences random
crashes. Which too in Windows 8.1
enables you to see various event
messages and warnings that might
give you a better sense of what is
causing problems? -Action Center
7. John’s computer has an error that
says bootmgr is corrupted. What tool
can he use to fix this problem? –
bcdedit
8. What does Microsoft call the 32- or
64-bit installation environment in
Windows 7? –WinPE
9. Ralph suspects a bad RAM stick is
causing Windows to fail to boot.
What default Windows tool can he
use to check the RAM? -Windows
Memory Diagnostic Tool
10. Which of the following commands
will repair a damaged master boot
record in a Windows 8.1 PC? -
bootrec / fixmbr
11. Ellen tries to boot into Windows 7,
but the computer crashes at the
logon screen. What tool should she
use first to try to fix the problem? -
Reboot the PC, press F8 to open
the Advanced Startup Options
menu, and select Safe Mode
12. Which feature in Windows 7 enables
you to right-click a file or folder and
restore previous versions of that file
or folder? -System Protection
13. Which of the following can cause a
computer to lock up or unexpectedly
shut down? (Select two.) - Bad
RAM, Poorly written application
 14. Bob is concerned that his new PCIe
video capture card device driver is
causing startup problems. Which
utility enables him to see if Windows
recognizes the driver? -Device
Manager
15. Tom notices after his system starts
up that a critical service has not
started, even though it is configured
to do so. Given such a scenario,
where should he look first to see
why it failed to start. -Event Viewer
16. Which of the following problems
would most likely cause a Blue
Screen of Death in Windows 8.1?
(Select two.) -Bad RAM,
Incompatible device driver
CHAPTER 18 Virtualization
Key term
1. A(n) _______________ is a
complete environment for a guest
operating system to function as
though that operating system was
installed on its own computer. -
virtual machine (VM)
2. A program that runs multiple
operating systems simultaneously is
called a(n) _______________. -
Hypervisor
3. John’s hypervisor enables all five of
the virtual machines on his system
to communicate with each other
through the _______________
without going outside the host
system.- Virtual Switch
4. You can create a(n)
_______________ or
_______________ as a restore point
for a virtual machine. - Snapshot,
checkpoint
5. You can use basic
_____________________________
______ to create and run virtual
machines on a local system. -
Client-side virtualization
6. A(n) __________________
translates commands issued by
software in order to run it on
hardware it wasn’t designed to run
on. - Emulator
7. A(n) _______________ is a virtual
machine running on a hypervisor. -
guest
8. Cloud computing companies provide
_________________________ that
bills users for only what they use. -
measured service
9. Virtual machines perform better on
CPUs with
_____________________________
___. - hardware virtualization
support
10. A machine running a hypervisor is
a(n) ___________. – Host
1. Tom is installing a Windows 10
virtual machine onto a VMware
Workstation. Which of the following
does he need? - A valid copy of
Windows 10 installation media
2. The number of running virtual
machines on a single host is limited
by what factor? - Physical RAM

3. When a virtual machine is not
running, how is it stored? – Files
4. The boss flies into your office yelling
that malware has replaced every
icon on his desktop with purple
dinosaurs. Given that he uses a thin
client to access a virtual desktop,
which of the following would be the
quickest ways to fix the problem?
(Select two.) - Restore from
backup, Load a new copy of the
department-specific virtual
machine
5. Powerful hypervisors like ESXi are
often booted from
_______________. - Flash
memory]
6. A _______________ is a computer
running multiple virtual machines. –
Host
7. Which virtual networking technology
would you use to enable multiple
virtual machines to communicate
with each other? - Virtual router
8. Tom has a great idea for a new
photo-sharing service for real
pictures of Bigfoot, but he doesn’t
own any servers. Where can he
quickly create a new server to build
his dream? - Public cloud
9. Ford logs into a site that continually
selects and plays music for him
based on how he has rated past
selections. What is this type of
service called? - Software as a
Service
10. After the unforeseen failure of his
Bigfoot-picture-sharing
service,bgFootr—which got hacked
when he failed to stay on top of his
security updates—Tom has a great
new idea for a new service to report
UFO sightings. What service would
help keep him from having to play
system administrator? - Network as
a Service
11. BigCorp is a successful Bigfoot-
tracking company with an internal
service to manage all of its
automated Bigfoot surveillance
stations. A Bigfoot migration has
caused a massive increase in the
amount of audio and video sent back
from their stations. In order to add
short-term capacity, they can create
new servers in the public cloud.
What model of cloud computing
does this describe? - Private cloud
12. Which is a term for a computer with
minimal hardware that is augmented
by more powerful remote servers? -
Thin client
13. A network of hospitals wants to
create a centralized records service
but has to observe serious
governmental regulations on patient
privacy. Which two of the following
would best meet the network’s
needs? - Community cloud,
Private cloud
14. A _______________ hypervisor
improves the performance of
virtualization by removing the
underlying operating system. - Bare-
metal
 15. Which of the following are
advantages of a virtual machine over
a physical machine? (Select two.) -
Capability to quickly add and
remove hardware, Consolidation
of multiple physical machines
CHAPTER 19 DISPLAY TECHNOLOGIES
8. Apple Macs primarily use the
________________________
display connector type. –Display
Port
9. A(n) __________________ handles
the video processing chores in
modern systems. -GPU

KEY TERM QUIZ 10. The size of the projected image at a

1. To provide the optimal display for an
LCD monitor, always set it to its
__________________. –Native
resolution
specific distance from the screen is
defined as the projector’s
__________________. –Throw

2. The traditional D-subminiature

1. If one of the colors is missing on the
connector on a video card is called a
monitor and you cannot fix the
VGA connector or
problem by adjusting the front
__________________. –HD15
controls, you should then check for
__________________.- A broken
3. DirectX is a(n)
cable or bent pins
__________________, a program
that translates instructions for the
2. Which of the following resolutions
video device driver. -API
will produce the best quality picture
on the monitor (assuming the
4. Using an aspect ratio of 16:10, the
monitor is capable of displaying the
__________________ refers to the
resolutions well)? - 1280 × 1024
number of horizontal pixels times the
number of vertical pixels. -
3. Which of the following problems
Resolution
would make it impossible to repair
an LCD monitor? - A broken LCD
5. The __________________ bus is
panel
the most common expansion slot for
video cards. –PCI express
4. What do we call the time it takes for
all of the sub-pixels on the panel to
6. Two common projector technologies
go from pure black to pure white and
are LCD and
back again? - Response rate
__________________.-DLP

7. The time it takes to redraw the entire

5. Dudley wants to connect his new
screen is called the
MacBook Pro to an LCD monitor that
__________________.- Refresh
has a Digital Visual Interface. What
Rate
type of adapter should he use? -
Thunderbolt to DVI
 6. What is 1080p resolution? - 1920 ×
1080
7. What is the processor on a video
card called?- GPU
8. Which projector produces the
brightest image?- One with the
highest lumen rating
9. A customer calls complaining that
his TV looks awful when he
connects it to his laptop. What could
cause this problem? - The second
monitor (the TV) is a PDP.
10. What is the most popular API used
by 3-D game developers? – DirectX
11. Which of the following may have an
integrated GPU built in? (Select
two.) – CPU, Northbridge chip
12. Which two technologies are used for
backlights in LCD monitors? - CCFL
and LED
13. What tool enables you to test 3-D
video in a modern PC? – NVIDIA
14. Which Control Panel applet in
Windows enables you to change the
Windows theme and settings that
determine the colors of boxes and
other visual items? –
Personalization
15. A client calls complaining that his
new LCD monitor is flickering. What
is most likely the problem? - he
CCFL backlight is failing.
CHAPTER 20
KEY TERM QUIZ
2. Ethernet cables typically use a(n) RJ-45
connector.
3. The most common Ethernet topology is
Star bus.
4. Most Ethernet networks use copper UTP
wiring, but a(n) Fiber optic cable
enables much greater distance between
two hosts.
5. Most Ethernet networks have a central
box called a(n) Switch.
6. All NICs have a unique identifier called
a(n) Mac address.
7. Routers enable multiple LANs to connect
into a(n) Broadcast domain.
8. All the cabling from individual work areas
runs via Horizontal cabling to a central
location.
9. The central location that all cabling runs
to is called the Work area.
10. A single piece of installed horizontal
cabling is called a(n) Run.
1. How many bits are in a MAC address?
A. 24
B. 36
C. 48
D. 64

1. The 100BaseT version of Ethernet runs

at 100 Mbps.
2. What is the minimum CAT level cable D. IP addresses
required for a 100BaseT network?

A. CAT 1
7. What is a remote computer providing
B. CAT 5 resources called?

C. CAT 5e A. Web browser

D. CAT 6 B. DNS

C. Server

3. A typical CAT 6 cable uses which D. Router

connector?

A. RJ-11
8. What is the total amount of data that a
B. RJ-45 network can handle called?

C. Plenum A. Protocol

D. PVC B. Broadcast

C. Bandwidth

4. Why would you use STP over UTP D. Client

cabling?

A. Cheaper.
9. What do you call the discrete “chunks” of
B. Easier to install. data that networks transmit?

C. Better to avoid interference. A. Frames

D. They’re interchangeable terms. B. Stacks

C. LANs

5. What kind of frame gets received by all D. Workgroups

NICs in a LAN?
10. John’s boss asks for a recommendation
A. Ethernet for connecting the company network to a
small satellite building about 1 km from the
B. Broadcast
main campus. The company owns the
C. WAN verdant land in between. Given such a
scenario, what network technology
D. DNS implementation should John suggest?
6. Internet Explorer, Mozilla Firefox, and A. Ethernet over UTP
Google Chrome are all examples of what?
B. Ethernet over STP
A. Web servers
C. Ethernet over multimode fiber
B. DNS
D. Ethernet over single-mode fiber
C. Web browsers
11. Erin is stuck. She needs data from a 14. What is the structured cabling name for
friend’s laptop to work on her desktop, but the end user’s office space where network
neither of them brought a thumb drive. She computers are set up?
has any number of Ethernet cables at her
A. Backbone
disposal, but the last port on the switch is
taken. What’s her best option, given such a B. Building entrance
scenario?
C. Cable drop
A. Connect the two computers directly using
a patch cable. D. Work area

B. Connect the two computers directly

using a crossover cable. 15. Which of the follow unit designations is
C. Connect the two computers directly using used for rack-mounted equipment?
an STP cable. A. A
D. Run to the store, buy a thumb drive, get B. P
back to the lab, and physically move the
data. C. T

D. U

12. Eddard hands Will a cable. Will hands it CHAPTER 21

back and says, meaningfully, “That’s a nice
F-type connector you’ve got there.” What
kind of cable does Eddard have? KEY TERM QUIZ

A. Coaxial 1. HTTP and SSH are both examples of

special sharing functions called TCP/IP
B. Fiber optic services.
C. STP

D. UTP 2. The command-line utility called ping

enables one machine to check whether it can
communicate with another machine.
13. When connecting a cable run onto a
patch panel, which tool should you use?

A. 110-punchdown tool 3. A NIC uses a value called the Subnet

mask to distinguish which part of the IP
B. Crimper address identifies the network ID and which
C. TDR part of the address identifies the host.

D. Tone generator
4. A computer on a(n) IPV4 network gets a
32-bit address.
5. A computer on a(n) IPV6 network gets a
128-bit address.
6. A(n) Router is a device that has at least
two IP addresses: one that connects to your
LAN’s switch and one that connects to the
“next network.”
7. Special computers, called DNS servers,
keep databases of IP addresses and their
corresponding names.
8. A(n) DHCP server enables computers to
obtain IP addresses automatically.
9. When troubleshooting a NIC, you’ll need
to crawl behind your computer and look for a
Llnk light which should be on or blinking.
11. To test a possibly broken Ethernet port,
plug in a(n) Loopback plug.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Everything worked fine on your
1000BaseT network yesterday, but today no
one can connect to the server. The server
seems to be in good running order. Which of
the following is the most likely problem?
A. Someone changed all of the passwords
for server access.
B. A switch is malfunctioning.
C. Someone’s T connector has come loose
on the bus.
D. The server’s cable is wired as TIA/EIA
568A and all of the others are wired as
TIA/EIA 568B.
2. Simon’s system can’t contact a DHCP
server to obtain an IP address automatically,
but he can still communicate with other
systems on his subnet. What feature of
Windows makes this possible?
A. Subnet masking
B. Default gateway
C. APIPA
D. Client for Microsoft Networks
3. Which of the following is the correct net
syntax for discovering which network shares
on a particular server are mapped on your
computer?
A. net view \\fileserver
B. net \\fileserver
C. net map \\fileserver
D. net share \\fileserver
4. A small device that enables you to test a
NIC’s circuitry is called?
A. Loopback plug
B. Port tester
C. Multimeter
D. Integrated network and logic probe
5. Steven’s Windows system can’t connect
to the Internet, and he comes to you, his PC
tech, for help. You figure out that it’s a DHCP
problem. What program should you run to
troubleshoot his DHCP problem from the
client side?
A. ipconfig
B. ifconfig
C. config
D. dhcp /review
6. You are down under your desk organizing 10. Which of the following is a legitimate
some wires when you notice that the activity IPv6 address?
light on your NIC is blinking erratically. Is
A. 192.168.1.25
there a problem?
B. FEDC::CF:0:BA98:1234
A. Yes, the activity light should be on
steadily when the computer is running. C. FEDC::CF:0BA98:1234

B. Yes, the activity light should be blinking
steadily, not randomly.
C. No, the light blinks when there is
network traffic.
D. No, the light blinks to show bus activity.
D. FEDC::CF:0:BA98:12345
11 You are trying to locate which patch
cable in the main switch traces back to a
particular computer. Which tool should you
use?
A. Tone probe

B. Cable tester
7. What is a common symptom of a bad
network cable? C. Punchdown tool
A. Rapidly blinking link lights D. Butt set
B. No link lights

C. Solid on link lights 12. Which of the following describes an IPv4

address? (Select three.)
D. Steady blinking link lights
A. Uses decimal, not hexadecimal
numbers
8. What command-line utility would you run
B. Uses periods, not colons, as
to show a list of network computers?
separators
A. net send
C. Uses four octets
B. show net_servers
D. Uses eight sets of characters
C. net use

D. net view
13. Which tool in Linux enables you to
determine exactly what information the DNS
server is giving you about a specific host
9. What Windows-based command would
name?
you use to view the path taken by a TCP/IP
packet? A. ipconfig

A. ping B. ifconfig

B. traceroute C. nslookup

C. tracert D. ping

D. nslookup
14. What benefit does full-duplex offer?
A. It enables NICs to send and receive
signals at the same time.
B. It enables NICs to send data twice as
fast.
C. It enables NICs to receive data twice as
fast.
D. It enables a switch to connect to both
coaxial and fiber optic cables.
15. What do most techs call a toner or tone
generator?
A. TDR
B. UTP
C. UDP
D. Fox and Hound
CHAPTER 22
KEY TERM QUIZ
1. A technology for setting up wireless PANs
and connecting to some peripherals is called
Bluetooth.
2. Establishing a unique SSID or network
name helps ensure that only wireless
network devices configured similarly are
permitted access to the network.
3. The wireless Ethernet standard that
operates at a maximum of 54 Mbps on the
2.4-GHz frequency is 802.11g.
4. Computers are in Ad hoc mode when
they connect directly together without using
a WAP.
5. The 802.11 protocol is more commonly
known as Wi-Fi.
6. Of the three common wireless encryption
protocols, WEP is the least secure.
7. The wireless Ethernet standard that runs
at speeds up to 54 Mbps but has limited
range because it uses the 5-GHz frequency
is 802.11a.
8. If you need to share an Internet
connection or connect to a wired network
through your wireless network, you would
use Infrastructure Mode.
9. The MIMO feature enables devices on
802.11n networks to make multiple
simultaneous connections, allowing for a
theoretical throughput of 600 Mbps.
10. 802.11 implements CSMA/CA which
proactively avoids network packet collisions
rather than simply detecting them when they
occur.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Chapter 22
1. Two wireless nodes that are
communicating directly with each other,
without any intermediary systems or
hardware, are using what wireless mode?
A. Ad hoc
B. Bluetooth D. WEP

C. Infrastructure

D. 802.11ac 6. Which wireless standard combines the

longest range with the most throughput?

A. 802.11ac
2. What device centrally connects wireless
network nodes in the same way that a hub or B. 802.11b
switch connects wired Ethernet PCs?
C. 802.11g
A. Bluetooth adapter
D. 802.11n
B. Wireless NIC

C. SSID
7. Personal area networks are created by
D. WAP what wireless technology?

3. What is the approximate range of an A. Bluetooth

802.11b/g network?
B. IrDA
A. ~1000 ft
C. Wi-Fi
B. ~300 ft
D. Cellular wireless
C. ~150 ft

D. ~500 ft
8. What is the best technology if you need
Internet access from anywhere in the
country?
4. Which encryption method used on
wireless networks is the most secure? A. Bluetooth

A. WEP B. IrDA

B. Wi-Fi C. Wi-Fi

C. MU-MIMO D. Cellular wireless

D. WPA2

9. What standard gained a speed boost in

its second version with Enhanced Data Rate
5. What can limit wireless connectivity to a
technology?
list of accepted users based on the hard-
wired address of their wireless NIC? A. Bluetooth

A. Encryption B. IrDA

B. MAC filtering C. Wi-Fi

C. MIMO D. Cellular wireless

10. Which of these Wi-Fi security protocols 14. Which of the following 802.11 standards
is the least secure and is easily hacked? can make use of both the 2.4- and 5-GHz
bands?
A. WEP
A. 802.11a
B. WAP
B. 802.11b
C. AES
C. 802.11g
D. WPA2
D. 802.11n

11. What is a cheap and easy way to extend

the range of a WAP? 15. Which of the following can extend a PoE
connection up to 100 meters?
A. Upgrade the antenna.
A. MU-MIMO extender
B. Buy a WAP that advertises a longer
range. B. Power over Ethernet injector

C. You can’t easily boost range. C. Wi-Fi analyzer

D. Upgrade the wireless NICs. D. Advanced Encryption Standard

12. What is the technical name of a wireless CHAPTER 23

network?
KEY TERM QUIZ
A. SSID
1.You can access the Internet by leasing a
B. BSSID connection from a(n) Internet service
provider.
C. SSD

D. PoE
2. The time it takes for a packet to travel to
its destination and back is called latency.
13. Which of the following uses
beamforming antenna technology to
optimize 802.11ac wireless connections? 3. Internet Explorer is a(n) web browser.

A. CSMA/CD

B. CSMA/CA 4. The most common method used to

encrypt information, such as credit card
C. MU-MIMO
numbers, on the Internet is HTTPS.
D. NU-NEMO

5. A(n) proxy server is software that

enables multiple connections to go to the
Internet through one protected PC.
6. By using an anonymous logon, file D. SSH session
transfer protocol allows you to send and
receive files from a public site.
3. Which of the following Internet connection
methods limit the distance you can be from a
7. The service that provides the structure for central office? (Select two.)
the World Wide Web, allowing documents to
A. DSL
be sent across the Web, is HTTP.
B. Satellite

8. Apple developed the Apple Filing

Protocol (AFP) to support file sharing C. Cable
between Macintosh computers on early
LANs. D. ISDN

9. A(n) Virtual Private Network enables 4. What port does POP3 use?
you to access a remote network over the A. 22
Internet securely.
B. 110

C. 548
10. Using UDP port 161, Simple Network
Management Protocol (SNMP) enables D. 3389
remote management of network devices.

5. Liz can receive her e-mail, but she cannot

MULTIPLE CHOICE send e-mail. Which of the following is most
likely causing her problem?
1. What is the name for the router that your
PC uses to connect to your Internet service A. POP3
provider? B. SMTP
A. Loopback address C. IMAP
B. Backbone D. UART
C. IP address

D. Default gateway 6. What is the name for the extremely fast

networking connections through which
Internet transmissions take place?
2. A Virtual Private Network creates a(n)
_______________ through the Internet. A. Gateways

A. Tunnel B. Tier 1 providers

B. BRI C. Backbones

C. NAT connection D. ISPs

7. Which technology enables you to make
voice calls over your computer network?
A. Internet Voice Protocol
B. Voice over IP
C. Digital Telephony Subscriber Service
D. Universal Asynchronous Receiver
Transmitter
10. Where would you go first if you needed
to configure a small Linksys router to use a
static IP address?
A. The Router Configuration applet in the
Control Panel.
B. The router’s configuration Web page.
C. Network and Sharing Center | Router
Configuration.

D. There is no way to give the router a static

8. A user on Windows 8.1 has asked you to IP.
teach her how to use a feature of Microsoft
Word. What tool should you use?
11. Which of the following cellular data
A. Remote Assistance
technologies is considered 4G?
B. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol
A. EDGE
C. Telnet
B. UMTS
D. Secure Shell (SSH)
C. LTE

D. CDMA
9. John tried going to www.totalsem.com
with his Web browser, but the Web site
wouldn’t load. He opened a command-line 12. Mandy wants to connect to another
window and typed ping www.totalsem.com. computer using a safe-from-hackers
He received a message that the ping request command-line utility Which should she use?
couldn’t find www.totalsem.com. What is the
A. FTP
most likely reason John received this
message? B. PPP
A. Bad default gateway C. SSH
B. DNS failure D. Telnet
C. Corrupted NIC driver

D. Too many applications using the Internet 13. Which port number(s) is/are used with
connection simultaneously IMAP4?

A. 25

B. 110

C. 143

D. 23, 24
14. A new client lives in a rural area, outside
the connectivity radius of the local cable
company and definitely more than 20,000
feet away from the nearest switching center
for the phone company. Which Internet
option offers the client the best performance?
A. Cable
B. Dial-up
5. The GPS enables a mobile device to
determine where you are on a map.
6. When you want to buy software for an
Android device, you buy from Google Play.
7. A wearable device that counts your
steps or measures your heart rate is called
a(n) Fitness Monitor.

C. DSL 8. The Enhanced 911 (E911) can send

a(n) emergency notification such as an
D. Satellite AMBER alert to devices in the relevant
area.

15. Percy’s office features five users and a
single cable Internet connection. What
feature should be enabled on the router to
ensure certain users, applications, or
services are prioritized when there isn’t
enough bandwidth to go around by limiting
the bandwidth for certain types of data?
A. DUN
9. App developers use a mobile operating
system’s SDK(software development kit)
to build apps for devices running the OS.
10. Swiping your finger across the screen
on a mobile device to switch the screen to
the next item, such as the next page in an
e-book, is one example of the role
Gestures play in the user interface.

B. NAT
1. Which operating system powers an Apple
C. QoS
mobile device?
D. VoIP
A. Android

B. iOS
Chapter 24
C. macOS
1. All mobile operating systems have a(n)
GUI that enables users to interact with the
D. Windows Mobile
device.
2. Which feature of some mobile devices
2. Many Apple mobile devices use the
allows you to place phone calls over an
proprietary Lightning cable for recharging
802.11 network?
and connectivity.
A. Roaming
3. The feature that enables a user to rotate
a tablet and have the screen rotate with the
B. Airplane mode
device is called a(n) accelerometer.
C. Mobile hotspot
4. A(n) E-Reader is a standalone device
designed to be easier to use for the purpose
D. Wi-Fi calling
of reading.
3. John has a high-resolution image on his
iPad of his 2-year-old son and the family
dog. The image initially displays smaller
than the screen, so he wants to zoom in to
get the details of his son’s expression. What
gesture can he use to accomplish this task?
A. Click the mouse in the middle of the
picture to select it, then use the scroll wheel
on the mouse to zoom in.
B. Tap the picture with his index finger on
his son’s face.
C. Long-press on the image and select
zoom from the pop-up menu.
D. Touch his son’s face on the screen
with his thumb and finger, then pinch
outward to scroll in.
4. Which mobile device screen technology
uses no backlight?
A. CCFL
B. LCD
C. LED
D. OLED (organic light-emitting diode)
5. What can a government use to
determine your location at a specific time as
long as you’re using your mobile device?
A. Angry Birds
B. Geotracking
C. Google Earth
D. Gyroscope
6. What are the steps involved in pairing a
Bluetooth device with a tablet?
A. Enable Bluetooth on the tablet; turn
on the Bluetooth device; use the tablet to
discover and select the Bluetooth device
for pairing; enter a PIN code or other
pairing sequence.
B. Turn on the Bluetooth device; find the
device with the tablet; enter a PIN code or
other pairing sequence.
C. Search for a Bluetooth device from the
tablet; select pair from the options to enable
the device.
D. Enable Bluetooth on the tablet; turn on
the Bluetooth device; find the device with
the tablet; select pair from the options to
enable the device.
7. Which of the following is a 15-digit
number used to uniquely identify a mobile
device that connects to a cellular network?
A. IMEI ( International Mobile
Equipment Identity)
B. GSM
C. ICCID
D. IMSI
8. Which of the following connectors are
not keyed, allowing them to be inserted in
two orientations instead of just one? (Select
two.)
A. Lightning
B. Micro-USB
C. Mini-USB
D. USB Type-C
9. What is the primary feature that
separates a smartphone from a tablet?
A. iTunes
B. OLED screen

C. Touchscreen
D. Capability to make telephone calls
10. What information do you need to
connect an Android-based tablet to an IMAP
account?
A. POP3 server DNS name
B. User name and password
C. User name, password, sending and
receiving server addresses
D. Exchange server name, user name, and
password
11. Tim wants to listen to music on his
iPad (classic). Which of the following are
connectivity options for his headset? (Select
two.)
A. Infrared
B. 802.11
C. Bluetooth
D. 3.5-mm audio jack
12. Jill returned from a cruise to the
Bahamas and got a bill from her cell phone
company (Sprint) that was over $1000.
What could have happened?
A. Jill connected to the Internet with her
smartphone using the cruise ship
company’s Wi-Fi.
B. Jill’s smartphone connected to the
Internet in the Bahamas via a cell
provider that wasn’t Sprint.
C. Jill used her smartphone to do Internet
gambling, and Sprint frowns on that activity.
D. Bills after international trips are always
reported in the currency of the country
visited. When translated from Bahamian
dollars to U.S. dollars, the amount is the
same she normally pays.
13. Galina has an application that tracks
her location for people she invites via the
application to know her whereabouts. She’s
coming into town a few days early for a
friend’s surprise birthday party but doesn’t
want the friend to notice she’s in town. What
is the best course of action?
A. Turn off the GPS.
B. Uninstall the application.
C. Turn off location services.
D. Leave her phone at home.
14. Placing your phone in a basic
protective case will not protect the phone
from:
A. Scratches
B. Impact
C. A few drops of water
D. Immersion in water
15. Which mobile OS enables developers
to customize the user experience without
restrictions?
A. Android
B. BlackBerry
C. iOS
D. Windows Phone
Chapter 25
1. Much like a reboot on a regular
computer, a(n) soft reset restarts a device.
2. In order to protect against password
guessing, system lockout may occur after
too many failed attempts to unlock the lock
screen.
3. A factory reset is also known as a(n)
hard reset or a(n) _ reset to factory
defaults .
4. Knowledge, possession, and inherence
are the primary elements of multifactor
authentication.
5. A(n) Bring Your Own Device (BYOD)
policy enables individual employees to use
personal mobile devices at work.
6. A fingerprint lock is an example of
biometric authentication.
7. Android devices can use force stop to
terminate a single running application and
all of its services or background processes.
8. Protect your data from access by putting
a good screen lock on the device, which
requires you to enter a series of letters,
numbers, or motion patterns to unlock the
mobile device each time you press the
power button.
9. You can remotely wipe a stolen device
in order to remove any confidential
documents before the thief has a chance to
break into the device.
10. Rooting, Jailbreaking, and
Unlocking are processes for removing
restrictions and gaining elevated access to
Android and iOS devices.
1. After five minutes of struggling with a
painfully sluggish device, you finally
manage to close the offending application.
What’s the best next step?
A. Reopen the application and hope it
doesn’t freeze again.
B. Uninstall the application and look for a
replacement.
C. Perform a soft reset and see if the
app runs smoothly afterward.
D. Close all open applications and attempt
to reopen the application to see if it freezes
again.
2. What is the difference between a hard
reset, a factory reset, and a reset to factory
default?
A. A hard reset merely requires holding
down a few buttons as directed by the
manufacturer, while both factory resets are
the same and require mailing the device to
the manufacturer.
B. A hard reset involves removing or
disconnecting the battery for 20 seconds,
but factory resets are performed by holding
down a few buttons as directed by the
manufacturer.
C. Both of the above.
D. None of the above.
3. What are the first two things you should
try with a device that has an unresponsive
touchscreen? (Select two.)
A. Make sure you aren’t accidentally
triggering the touch sensor.
B. Check whether the device can receive
calls or texts.
C. Wipe the screen down with a
microfiber cloth to remove any
fingerprints, dust, dirt, or grease.
D. See if the device has a touchscreen
diagnostic to confirm whether the
touchscreen is damaged.
4. Your cousin Eric called to tell you he’d
be in the Macy’s Thanksgiving Day Parade
and asked you to text when his float was on
TV. You did, but he didn’t get the message
until hours later. You ask if his signal was
okay, thinking the tall buildings might have
interfered, but he insists his phone had
three or more bars every time he checked.
What might have happened?
A. All of the texts he was receiving from
friends and family exceeded his carrier’s
texts-per-hour rate and the extra messages
were queued for later delivery.
B. Electromagnetic interference from the
generators animating nearby floats kept his
phone from receiving messages.
C. The wire framing in parade floats is
notorious for interfering with cellular
reception.
D. The huge crowd may have
overloaded the nearby cell towers.
5. What is the first step to managing
battery life well?
A. Turn down the display brightness
setting.
B. Keep the device in airplane mode while
you sleep.
C. Use a dark theme in any apps that
support one.
D. Make sure the device’s battery life
exceeds the user’s needs to start with.
6. When a device is exhibiting strange
symptoms such as creaks, pops, heat, gaps
between the frame and screen, and
wobbling when laid on a flat surface, which
should you urgently confirm or rule out?
A. Swelling caused by water damage
B. Incorrectly installed protective cover
C. A swollen battery
D. Frame damage caused by dropping the
device
7. What is a good reason to avoid saving
user names and passwords for services like
corporate e-mail or VPN?
A. Users who save their credentials are
more likely to forget them, wasting your time
with avoidable password resets.
B. Because user name and password are
both the same authentication factor
(knowledge), it isn’t safe to store them
together.
C. Devices with saved credentials may
attempt to sign in repeatedly if the service is
unreachable, overloading the network.
D. If the device is lost or stolen,
whoever holds it can use the device to
access and abuse these services.
8. A client calls and is upset that he’s
misplaced his iPad. The mobile device has
literally thousands of client records,
including business addresses, e-mail
addresses, phone numbers, and, in some
cases, credit card information. What is the
first thing he should do?
A. There’s nothing he can do.
B. He should call his ISP and have them
track his iPad.
C. He should access his iCloud account
and reset his iPad to erase all personal
data.
D. He should purchase another iPad and
sync with his iTunes account. This
automatically erases the information on the
old tablet.
9. Which of the following authentication
schemes uses three factors?
A. A door lock requiring a PIN code, an ID
badge, and a key
B. A Web application login process
requiring your user name, password, Social
Security number, and date of birth
C. A door lock requiring a fingerprint scan,
a speech sample, and an ID badge
D. A door lock requiring a fingerprint
scan, a PIN code, and an ID badge
10. What is the first step toward preventing
unintended wireless connections?
A. Configure devices not to
automatically connect.
B. Get a protective cover that blocks the
USB ports.
C. Set up a geofence to block signals from
outside the building.
D. Use a Wi-Fi analyzer to spot suspicious
access points.
11. What do app scanners do?
A. Scan QR codes and barcodes for
hidden codes
B. Analyze the traffic into and out of an
application for suspicious behavior
C. Analyze the permissions used by
installed applications to highlight
security risks
D. Analyze Wi-Fi signals to identify evil-
twin WAPs
12. What can cause a device to be unable
to decrypt e-mail? (Select two.)
A. The e-mail application doesn’t
support the encryption method used or
is misconfigured.
B. The device doesn’t have the other
user’s key to decrypt the e-mail with.
C. The device is over its data transmission
limit. While it can still download e-mail, you
can’t decrypt it; you’ll need to increase the
plan size or wait for the next billing period.
D. You can only send and receive
encrypted e-mail if the entire device has
been encrypted first.
13. If used regularly, which of the following
gives you the best chance of realizing a
Stingray or similar device has been
deployed near your company’s
headquarters?
A. Geofencing
B. App scanner
C. Cell tower analyzer
D. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
14. Which of the following is not a risk
when you root or jailbreak a mobile device?
A. Voiding the manufacturer warranty
B. Being denied access to a corporate
network
C. Bricking the device
D. System lockout
15. What is geofencing used for?
A. Preventing smartphones from
accidentally connecting to cell towers in a
neighboring country
B. Tracking smartphones that enter or
exit an area
C. Blocking smartphones smuggled into a
prison from making calls
D. Preventing applications from installing
or running in a country that has banned
them.
CHAPTER 26
1.A printer that creates an image on paper
by physically striking an ink ribbon against
the paper’s surface is known as a(n) Impact
printer.
2. Laser printers use lasers to create the
print image on a(n) Imaging drum, which is
also known as a(n) photosensitive drum.
3. The Fuser assembly on a standard
laser printer contains a pressure roller and a
heated roller.
4. Adobe Systems’ Postscript is a device-
independent printer language capable of
high-resolution graphics and scalable fonts.
5. Windows uses the graphical device
interface GDI component of the operating
system to handle print functions.
6. The resolution of a printer is measured
in dots per inch (dpi) .
7. A printer’s speed is rated in pages per
minute (ppm) .
8. The Erase lamp is responsible for
cleaning the photosensitive drum of
electrical charge.
9. A(n) Flatbed scanner is useful when
scanning a page from a book.
10. A scanner’s ability to produce color,
hue, and shade is defined by its color
depth.
1. Which part of a laser printer applies a
positive charge to the paper that attracts the
toner particles to it?
A. Erase lamp
B. Transfer roller
C. Laser
D. Primary corona
2. Janet just bought a new computer. She
wants to install her three-year-old inkjet
printer on the new system but has lost the
driver disc. She can’t get on the Internet to
download the latest drivers. What should
she do for drivers?
A. Install a driver for a similar printer.
B. She’s stuck until she can get on the
Internet.
C. She can use the Mac drivers.
D. She can install the printer without
drivers.
3. John just installed a second printer on
his system. When he prints in Microsoft
Word, the job goes to the wrong printer.
What does he need to do to get print jobs
always to go to one printer or the other?
A. He needs to set the primary printer.
B. He needs to set the main printer.
C. He needs to set the default printer.
D. He needs to set the system printer.
4. Frank’s color inkjet printer no longer
prints the color yellow, though it prints all
the other colors just fine. The printer worked
fine last month, the last time he printed in
color. Which of the following is the most
likely problem?
A. He turned off the yellow nozzle.
B. He has run out of yellow ink.
C. He has a corrupt printer driver.
D. His printer is set to monochrome mode.
5. Beth’s laser printer is printing tiny
specks on the paper. What should she do
first?
A. Wipe the paper with bleach.
B. Run the printer maintenance program.
C. Clean the nozzles.
D. Vacuum the printer.
6. Ursula’s laser printer has stopped
working and is displaying this error
message: “Error 81 – Service.” What should
she do first?
A. Update the printer’s firmware.
B. Reinstall the printer driver.
C. Try to find the error in the user’s
guide or maintenance program or online.
D. Turn off the printer and call the
manufacturer’s help line.
7. Kevin’s inkjet printer isn’t printing blue
(cyan). He checks the ink levels and sees
that there’s plenty of ink. What should he
consider next?
A. A printhead is jammed.
B. A laser is blocked.
C. A nozzle is clogged.
D. An ink cartridge is missing.
8. The output from Diane’s laser printer is
fading evenly. What should she suspect
first?
A. A laser is blocked.
B. The printer is out of toner.
C. A nozzle is clogged.
D. Her printer is dirty.
9. The dye-sublimation printing technique
is an example of what method of color
printing?
A. CMYK
B. Thermal wax transfer
C. RGB
D. Direct thermal
10. The output from your inkjet printer
appears much darker than what you see on
your screen. What is the problem?
A. You are using a weight of paper that is
not supported in the MSDS.
B. The printer and monitor need to be
calibrated.
C. The color ink cartridges are almost
empty.
D. The black ink cartridge is almost empty.
11. What is the best way to make a printer
available to everyone on your network and
maintain the highest level of availability?
A. Use a FireWire printer connected to a
user’s PC and share that printer on the
network.
B. Use a USB printer connected to a user’s
PC and share that printer on the network.
C. Use a network printer connected
directly to the network.
D. Use a mechanical switch box with the
printer.
12. Sheila in accounting needs to print
receipts in duplicate. The white copy stays
with accounting and the pink copy goes to
the customer. What type of printer should
you install?
A. Inkjet
B. Impact
C. Laser
D. Thermal wax transfer
13. Your multifunction device fails to print
your print jobs and instead displays a MEM
OVERFLOW error. What can you do to
rectify the problem? (Select two.)
A. Install more RAM in the printer.
B. Install more RAM in the computer.
C. Upgrade the RIP.
D. Disable RET.
14. What is the proper order of the laser
printer imaging process?
A. Process, clean, charge, expose,
develop, transfer, and fuse
B. Process, charge, expose, develop,
transfer, fuse, and clean
C. Clean, expose, develop, transfer, fuse,
process, and charge
D. Clean, charge, expose, develop,
process, fuse, and transfer
15. The number that defines how many
shades of gray per dot a scanner can save
is referred to as what?
A. Resolution
B. dpi
C. Color depth
D. Grayscale depth
CHAPTER 27
1.Mary’s company routinely labels data
according to its sensitivity or potential
danger to the company if someone outside
accesses the data. This is an example of
data classification.
2. A(n) Trojan masquerades as a
legitimate program, yet does something
different than what is expected when
executed.
3. Antivirus software uses updatable
definition files to identify a virus by its
signature.
4. Enable object access auditing to
create Event Viewer entries when a specific
file is accessed.
5. Although not all unauthorized access
is malicious, it can lead to data destruction.
6. Most attacks on computer data are
accomplished through social engineering
7. A(n) firewall protects against
unauthorized access from the Internet.
8. Many companies authenticate access to
secure rooms using an ownership factor
such as a(n) smartcard hardware token, or
security token.
9. Before making a credit card purchase
on the Internet, be sure the Web site uses
the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol
(that replaced the older SSL protocol),
which you can verify by checking for the
HTTPS protocol in the address bar.
10. A virus that changes its signature to
prevent detection is called a(n) polymorph
1. What is the process of using or
manipulating people to gain access to
network resources?
A. Cracking
B. Hacking
C. Network engineering
D. Social engineering
2. Which of the following might offer good
hardware authentication?
A. Strong password
B. Encrypted password
C. NTFS
D. Smart card
3. Which of the following tools would
enable you to stop a user from logging on to
a local machine but still enable him to log on
to the domain?
A. AD Policy Filter
B. Group Policy Auditing
C. Local Security Policy
D. User Settings
4. Which hardware firewall feature enables
incoming traffic on a specific port to reach
an IP address on the LAN?
A. Port forwarding
B. NAT
C. DMZ
D. Multifactor authentication
5. Zander downloaded a game off the
Internet and installed it, but as soon as he
started to play he got a Blue Screen of
Death. Upon rebooting, he discovered that
his Documents folder had been erased.
What happened?
A. He installed spyware.
B. He installed a Trojan horse.
C. He broke the Group Policy.
D. He broke the Local Security Policy.
6. Which of the following should Mary set
up on her Wi-Fi router to make it the most
secure?
A. NTFS
B. WEP
C. WPA
D. WPA2
7. A user account is a member of several
groups, and the groups have conflicting
rights and permissions to several network
resources. The culminating permissions that
ultimately affect the user’s access are
referred to as what?
A. Effective permissions
B. Culminating rights
C. Last rights
D. Persistent permissions
8. What is true about virus shields?
A. They automatically scan e-mails,
downloads, and running programs.
B. They protect against spyware and
adware.
C. They are effective in stopping pop-ups.
D. They can reduce the amount of spam
by 97 percent.
9. What does Windows use to encrypt the
user authentication process over a LAN?
A. PAP
B. TPM
C. HTTPS
D. Kerberos
10. Which threats are categorized as
social engineering? (Select all that apply.)
A. Telephone scams
B. Phishing
C. Trojan horses
D. Spyware
11. A user calls to complain that his
computer seems awfully sluggish. All he’s
done so far is open his e-mail. What should
the tech do first?
A. Educate the user about the dangers of
opening e-mail.
B. Quarantine the computer so the
suspected malware does not spread.
C. Run anti-malware software on the
computer.
D. Remediate the infected system.
12. Which of the following are good
examples of remediation? (Select two.)
A. Boot to Safe Mode and run System
Restore.
B. Boot to the Windows Recovery
Environment and run System Restore.
C. Boot to a safe environment and run
antivirus software.
D. Remove a computer suspected of
having malware from the network,
effectively quarantining the computer.
13. A user calls and complains that the
technician who fixed his computer removed
some software he used to download movies
and music on the Internet. A check of
approved software does not include the
uTorrent application. What should you do?
A. Applaud the technician for proper
compliance.
B. Educate the user about the legal issues
involved with movie and music downloads.
C. Add the uTorrent application to the
approved software list and make the
technician apologize and reinstall the
software.
D. Check with the user’s supervisor about
adding uTorrent to the approved software
list.
14. Mike hands the hard drive containing
suspicious content to the head of IT security
at Bayland Widgets Co. The security guy
requests a record of everyone who has
been in possession of the hard drive. Given
such a scenario, what document should
Mike give the IT security chief?
A. Chain of custody
B. Definition file
C. Entry control roster
D. Trusted root CA
15. Cindy wants to put a policy in place at
her company with regard to malware
prevention or at least limitation. What
policies would offer the best solution?
A. Install anti-malware software on every
computer. Instruct users on how to run it.
B. Install anti-malware software on every
computer. Set up the software to scan
regularly.
C. Install anti-malware software on every
computer. Set up the software to update the
definitions and engine automatically. Set up
the software to scan regularly.
D. Install anti-malware software on
every computer. Set up the software to
update the definitions and engine
automatically. Set up the software to
scan regularly. Educate the users about
what sites and downloads to avoid.
CHAPTER 28
KEY TERM QUIZ
1. Mary’s company routinely labels data
according to its sensitivity or potential danger
to the company if someone outside accesses
the data. This is an example of data
classification.
2. A(n) Trojan masquerades as a legitimate
program, yet does something different than
what is expected when executed.
3. Antivirus software uses updatable
definition files to identify a virus by its
signature.
4. Enable object access auditing to create
Event Viewer entries when a specific file is
accessed.
5. Although not all unauthorized access is
malicious, it can lead to data destruction.
6. Most attacks on computer data are
accomplished through social engineering.
7. A(n) firewall protects against
unauthorized access from the Internet.
8. Many companies authenticate access to
secure rooms using an ownership factor
such as a(n) smartcard.
9. Before making a credit card purchase on
the Internet, be sure the Web site uses the
Secure Sockets Layer(SSL) protocol (that
replaced the older SSL protocol), which you
can verify by checking for the HTTPS
protocol in the address bar.
10. A virus that changes its signature to D. Multifactor authentication
prevent detection is called a(n) polymorph
viruses.
5. Zander downloaded a game off the
Internet and installed it, but as soon as he
MULTIPLE CHOICE started to play he got a Blue Screen of Death.
Upon rebooting, he discovered that his
1. What is the process of using or
Documents folder had been erased. What
manipulating people to gain access to
happened?
network resources?
A. He installed spyware.
A. Cracking
B. He installed a Trojan horse.
B. Hacking
C. Network engineering
C. He broke the Group Policy.
D. Social engineering
D. He broke the Local Security Policy.

2. Which of the following might offer good

hardware authentication? 6. Which of the following should Mary set up
on her Wi-Fi router to make it the most
A. Strong password
secure?
B. Encrypted password
A. NTFS
C. NTFS
B. WEP
D. Smart card
C. WPA
D. WPA2
3. Which of the following tools would enable
you to stop a user from logging on to a local
machine but still enable him to log on to the 7. A user account is a member of several
domain? groups, and the groups have conflicting
rights and permissions to several network
A. AD Policy Filter
resources. The culminating permissions that
B. Group Policy Auditing ultimately affect the user’s access are
referred to as what?
C. Local Security Policy
A. Effective permissions
D. User Settings
B. Culminating rights
C. Last rights
4. Which hardware firewall feature enables
incoming traffic on a specific port to reach an D. Persistent permissions
IP address on the LAN?
A. Port forwarding
8. What is true about virus shields?
B. NAT A. They automatically scan e-mails,
C. DMZ downloads, and running programs.
B. They protect against spyware and 12. Which of the following are good
adware. examples of remediation? (Select two.)
C. They are effective in stopping pop-ups. A. Boot to Safe Mode and run System
Restore.
D. They can reduce the amount of spam by
97 percent. B. Boot to the Windows Recovery
Environment and run System Restore.
C. Boot to a safe environment and run
9. What does Windows use to encrypt the
antivirus software.
user authentication process over a LAN?
D. Remove a computer suspected of having
A. PAP
malware from the network, effectively
B. TPM quarantining the computer.

C. HTTPS
D. Kerberos 13. A user calls and complains that the
technician who fixed his computer removed
some software he used to download movies
10. Which threats are categorized as social and music on the Internet. A check of
engineering? (Select all that apply.) approved software does not include the
uTorrent application. What should you do?
A. Telephone scams
A. Applaud the technician for proper
compliance.
B. Phishing B. Educate the user about the legal issues
involved with movie and music downloads.
C. Trojan horses
C. Add the uTorrent application to the
D. Spyware
approved software list and make the
technician apologize and reinstall the
software.
11. A user calls to complain that his
computer seems awfully sluggish. All he’s
done so far is open his e-mail. What should
D. Check with the user’s supervisor about
the tech do first?
adding uTorrent to the approved software
A. Educate the user about the dangers of list.
opening e-mail.
B. Quarantine the computer so the
14. Mike hands the hard drive containing
suspected malware does not spread.
suspicious content to the head of IT security
C. Run anti-malware software on at Bayland Widgets Co. The security guy
thecomputer. requests a record of everyone who has been
in possession of the hard drive. Given such a
D. Remediate the infected system. scenario, what document should Mike give
the IT security chief?
A. Chain of custody
B. Definition file
C. Entry control roster
D. Trusted root CA

15. Cindy wants to put a policy in place at

her company with regard to malware
prevention or at least limitation. What policies
would offer the best solution?
A. Install anti-malware software on every
computer. Instruct users on how to run it.
B. Install anti-malware software on every
computer. Set up the software to scan
regularly.
C. Install anti-malware software on every
computer. Set up the software to update
the definitions and engine automatically.
Set up the software to scan regularly.
D. Install anti-malware software on every
computer. Set up the software to update the
definitions and engine automatically. Set up
the software to scan regularly. Educate the
users about what sites and downloads to
avoid.