TEST YOURSELF 5

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TEST YOURSELF 05

SECTION A: LISTENING (5.0 pts)


Hướng dẫn thí sinh:
- Phần thi nghe gồm 3 bài. Thí sinh được nghe mỗi bài 2 lần liên tiếp.
- Thí sinh đọc kĩ yêu cầu của từng bài trước khi nghe.
- Hướng dẫn chi tiết bằng Tiếng Anh có trong đĩa nghe. Bắt đầu và kết thúc bài có tín hiệu nhạc.
Part I: You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For question 1 - 8, choose the
best answer A, B, C or D. (1,6pts)
1. When is the plane scheduled to take off?
A. In 20 minutes. B. In 15 minutes. C. In 10 minutes.
2. What does the speaker remind those who are planning outdoor activities on Saturday to do?
A. Prepare for rain. B. Stay indoors. C.Wear heavy coats.
3. What does the speaker mention is the cause of the delay?
A. The late arrival of the opposing team. B. The bad weather. C. A lack of ticket sales
4. What does the speaker ask the listener to do?
A. Call the other members. . B. Pick up the president at the airport.
C. Get in touch with the secretary
5. What did the thieves steal?
A. the TV B. the chest of drawers. C. the CD player.
6. What present will they take?
A. a jug and a DVD. B. a jug and some glasses. C. a DVD and some glasses
7. What will the woman eat tonight?
A. some sandwiches B. a pizza. C. some burgers and chips.
8. How much will the girl’s ticket cost?
A. £12.65 B. £10.45 C. £10.15
Your answers:
1. _____ 2. _____ 3. _____ 4. _____ 5. _____ 6. _____ 7. _____ 8. _____
Part II: Complete the notes below. Write one word and/ or a number for each blank. (2,0pts)
OPENING A BANK ACCOUNT
Type of current account: The select account
Full name of applicant: (9) ____________________Henes
Date of birth: (10) ____________________
Joint account holder(s): No
Current address: (11) _______________________Riverside Exeter
Time at current address: (12) two ___________________
Previous address: Rielsdorf 2, Utrecht, Holland
Telephone:
work (13) ____________________home 796431

Occupation: (14) ______________________


Identity (security): Name of his (15) ___________________ Siti
Opening sum: (16) €______________________________
to be transferred from Fransen dank, Utrecht
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Statements: Every (17) ____________________________
Requests
Supply information about the bank’s (18) __________ service
Your answers:
9. __________ 10. __________ 11. __________ 12. __________ 13. __________
14. __________ 15. __________ 16. __________ 17. __________ 18. __________

Part III: You are going to hear a conversation with a woman who wants to join an
international social club. Listen and choose the best answer A, B or C. (1,4pts)
19. According to Don, what might be a problem for Jenny?
A. her accent B. talking to her colleagues C. understanding local people
20. How many members does the club have now?
A. 30 B. 50 C. 80
21. How often does the club meet?
A. once a week B. once every two weeks C. once a month
22. The next meeting will be______
A. today B. next weekend C. next Thursday
23. What is the club’s most frequent type of activity?
A. a talk B. a visit C. a meal
24. The main purpose of the club is to help members to
A. meet Australians B. learn about life in Australia. C. enjoy themselves together.
25. Jenny is really looking forward to_____
A. the first friend. B. the first working day C. the first meeting
Your answers:
20. _____ 20. _____ 21. _____ 22. _____ 23. _____ 24. _____ 25. _____
SECTION B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (2.0 pts)
Part I. Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer questions. Write your
answers in the box provided. (1.0 pt)
1. My mother used to_____________research in this library when she was a student.
A.make B. making C. do D. doing
2. If everyone of our country________the traffic rules, the road will be much safer.
A. obey B. obeys C. obeyed D. will obey
3. Many people trust her__________she always tells lie.
A. because B. due to C. even though D. despite
4. Her parents are old and She doesn’t want to rely __________
A. on B. for C. to D. with
5. Our firend won a big prize when he took part in_________ on TV last week.
A. games show B. news C. weather forecast D.music program
6. Don’t worry. It is _______ to travel to that village.
A. unsafe B. safe C. inconvenient D. difficult
7. The man askes me where______ the previous day.
A. had I gone B. I had go C. I go D. I had gone
8.- “Happy birthday! This is a small present for you.
- “__________”.
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A.What a pity! B. How beautiful it is! Thanks.
C. Have a good time. D. How terrible!
9.Working hours will fail to under 35 a week,__________?
A. will they B. won’t they C. won’t it D. will it
10. Using music,codes or sings to communicate is called______ communication.
A. verbal B. public C. non-public D. non-verbal
Your answers:
1. ___ 2. ___ 3. ___ 4. ___ 5. ___ 6. ___ 7. ___ 8. ___ 9. ___ 10. ___
Part II. Use the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the box
provided. (1.0 pt)
At a meeting held in Oxwell last Thursday evening a wide (1- VARY) ____ of opinions was
expressed on plans to build a large supermarket in the town. A (2-DIRECT) ___of the supermarket
group stated that the supermarket would benefit the (3- INHABIT) ________ of Oxwell as it would
give people more (4- CHOOSE) ________ when shopping and would lead to a (5- GROW)
_________ in the number of jobs available in the town, which has a high rate of (6- EMPLOY)
_______.Although there was (7- AGREE) _______on the need for new jobs, some of the those
present claimed that the supermarket would lead to a (8- LOSE) _______ of jobs as small shops, (9-
ABLE) _________ to compete with supermarket prices, would be forced to close. The final (10-
DECIDE) ______on whether or not to build the supermarket will be made next month.
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
SECTION C: READING (5.0 pts)
Part I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. Put a
circle on the letter indicating the correct answer. Write your answers in the boxes provided.
(1,0 pt).
The tourist industry is (1) ____ to be the largest industry. Before 1950 one million people traveled
abroad each year but by the 1900s the figure (2) ___ to 400 million every year. (3) ___ large
numbers of tourists, however, are beginning to cause problems. For example, in the Alps the skiers
are destroying the mountains they came to enjoy. Even parts of Mount Everest in the Himalayas are
reported to be covered (4)___old tins, tents, and food that have been (5) __away. But at a time when
we have greater freedom to travel (6)______ ever before, more and more people are asking how
they can enjoy their holidays apart (7)___causing problems – by spoiling the countryside. Now there
is a new holiday (8)___ called “Holidays That Don’t Cost The Earth”. It tells you (9)___ you can
help the tourist industry by asking your travel agent the right questions (10)___ you go on holiday.
1. A. considered B. seen C. regarded D.figured
2. A.were rising B. has risen C. had risen D. rose
3. A. such B. there C. those D. the
4. A. under B. beneath C. with D. by
5. A.launched B. thrown C. disposed D. littered

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6. A. than B. when C. while D. then
7. A. from B. instead C. hardly D. without
8. A. guide B. instruction C. direction D. guidance
9. A. when B.what C. how D. where
10. A. soon B. before C. after D. when
Your answers:
1. ___ 2. ___ 3. ___ 4. ___ 5. ___ 6. ___ 7. ___ 8. ___ 9. ___ 10. ___
Part II. Read the passage and answer the questions. Write your answers in the boxes provided.
(2,0 pts)
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season.
Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat,
like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a
French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And
in the 1850’s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving
milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860’s, but supplies
remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned
stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food
could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their
daily diets. Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers
to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship
perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s, northern
city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously
available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of
iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy means of producing ice commercially had
been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice
plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and
remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920’s and 1930’s.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly
foods that were heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat.
Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and
dairy products to achieve more varied fare.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage. B. Commercial production of ice.
C. Population movements in the nineteenth century.
D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet.
2. The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to
A. a particular time of year B. an official schedule
C. a method of flavoring D. a kind of weather
3. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use
A. before 1860 B. before 1890 C. after 1900 D. after 1920
4. During the 1860’s, canned food products were
A. unavailable in rural areas. B. available in limited quantities.
C. shipped in refrigerator cars. D. a staple part of the American diet.

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5. The word” them” in line 13 refers to
A. refrigerator cars. B. growers C. perishables D. distances.
6. The word” fixture” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. commonplace object B. substance C. luxury item D. mechanical device
7. The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice
A. increased in cost B. occurred only in the summer
C. decreased in number D. were on an irregular schedule
8. The word “Nevertheless” in line 21 is closest meaning to
A. because B. however C. therefore D. occasionally
9. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Chemical additives B. Drying C. Cold storage D. Canning
10. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
B. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.
C. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
D. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners.
Your answers:
1. ___ 2. ___ 3. ___ 4. ___ 5. ___ 6. ___ 7. ___ 8. ___ 9. ___ 10. ___
Part III. Read the following text and do the tasks that follow. (2.0 pts)
Questions 1 - 6: The first six paragraphs of reading passage are lettered A-F. Choose the most
suitable headings for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below.
(There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.)
Trees in Trouble Reading Answers

A. Big trees are incredibly important ecologically. For a start, they sustain countless other species.
They provide shelter for many animals, and their trunks and branches can become gardens, hung
with green ferns, orchids and bromeliads, coated with mosses and draped with vines. With their
tall canopies* basking in the sun, they capture vast amounts of energy. This allows them to
produce massive crops of fruit, flowers and foliage that sustain much of the animal life in the
forest.
B. Only a small number of tree species have the genetic capacity to grow really big. The mightiest
are native to North America, but big trees grow all over the globe, from the tropics to the boreal
forests of the high latitudes. To achieve giant stature, a tree needs three things: the right place to
establish its seedling, good growing conditions and lots of time with low adult mortality*.
Disrupt any of these, and you can lose your biggest trees.
C. In some parts of the world, populations of big trees are dwindling because their seedlings cannot
survive or grow. In southern India, for instance, an aggressive non-native shrub, Lantana camara,
is invading the floor of many forests. Lantana grows so thickly that young trees often fail to take
root. With no young trees to replace them, it is only a matter of time before most of the big trees
disappear. Across much of northern Australia, gamba grass from Africa is overrunning native
savannah woodlands. The grass grows up to four metres tall and burns fiercely, creating super
hot fires that cause catastrophic tree mortality.
D. Without the right growing conditions trees cannot get really big, and there is some evidence to
suggest tree growth could slow in a warmer world, particularly in environments that are already
warm. Having worked for decades at La Selva Biological Station in Puerto Viejo de Sarapiqui,
Costa Rica, David and Deborah Clark and colleagues have shown that tree growth there declines
markedly in warmer years. “During the day, their photosynthesis* shuts down when it gets too
warm, and at night they consume more energy because their metabolic rate increases, much as a
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reptile’s would when it gets warmer,” explains David Clark. With less energy produced in
warmer years and more being consumed just to survive, there is even less energy available for
growth.
E. The Clarks’ hypothesis, if correct, means tropical forests would shrink over time. The largest,
oldest trees would progressively die off and tend not to be replaced. According to the Clarks, this
might trigger a destabilisation of the climate; as older trees die, forests would release some of
their stored carbon into the atmosphere, prompting a vicious cycle of further warming, forest
shrinkage and carbon emissions.
F. Big trees face threats from elsewhere. The most serious is increasing mortality, especially of
mature trees. Across much of the planet, forests of slow-growing ancient trees have been cleared
for human use. In western North America, most have been replaced by monocultures of fast-
growing conifers. Siberia’s forests are being logged at an incredible rate. Logging in tropical
forests is selective but the timber cutters usually prioritise the biggest and oldest trees. In the
Amazon, my colleagues and I found the mortality rate for the biggest trees had tripled in small
patches of rainforest surrounded by pasture land. This happens for two reasons. First, as they
grow taller, big trees become thicker and less flexible: when winds blow across the surrounding
cleared land, there is nothing to stop their acceleration. When they hit the trees, the impact can
snap them in half. Second, rainforest fragments dry out when surrounded by dry, hot pastures
and the resulting drought can have devastating consequences: one four-year study has shown that
death rates will double for smaller trees but will increase 4.5 times for bigger trees.
G. Particular enemies to large trees are insects and disease. Across vast areas of western North
America, increasingly mild winters are causing massive outbreaks of bark beetle. These tiny
creatures can kill entire forests as they tunnel their way through the inside of trees. In both North
America and Europe, fungus-causing diseases such as Dutch elm disease have killed off millions
of stately trees that once gave beauty to forests and cities. As a result of human activity, such
enemies reach even the remotest corners of the world, threatening to make the ancient giants a
thing of the past.

Questions 1 - 6: The first six paragraphs of reading passage are lettered A-F. Choose the
most suitable headings for paragraphs A-H from the list of headings below.
Paragraphs Lists of Headings
Ex: paragraph A:iv
1. Paragraph B i How higher temperatures slow the rate of tree
2. Paragraph C growth
ii Which big treessupport the most diverse species
3. Paragraph D
iii Risk from pests and infection
4. Paragraph E iv How wildlife benefits from big trees
5. Paragraph F v Way in which industry uses big trees products
vi How other plants can cause harm
6. Paragraph G
vii Impact of big tree loss on the wider environment
viii How deforestation harms isolated trees
x Factors that enable trees to grow to significant height
Your answers:
1. ______ 2. ______ 3. ______ 4. ______ 5. ______ 6. ______

Questions 7-10: Complete each of the following statements with words taken from the
passage. Write ONE or TWO WORDS for each answer.
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The biggest trees in the world can be found in (7)__________. Some tress in the Northern Australia
die because of (8)____________ made worse by gamba grass. The Clarks believe that the release of
(9)_________ from dead trees could lead to the death of more trees. Strong (10)__________ are
capable of damaging tall tress in the Amazon.
Your answers:
7. ______________ 8. ______________ 9. ______________ 10. _____________
SECTION D: WRITING (5.0 pts)
I. Write an email of about 150 words: (2.0 pts)
Tet is the most important holiday in ourr country. Write a letter to your pen pal to tell
him/her about it. You should use the following information in your letter.
-Time of the holiday
- Activities people do before Tet
- Activities people do during Tet
- The things you enjoy most about the holiday
-…
Begin and end your letter as follows
Dear Jane,
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Love,
Lena

II. Paragraph writing: (3.0 pts)


Write a paragraph of about 150 words on th following topic:
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More and more people are migrating to cities in search of a better life, but city life can be
extremely difficult. Explain some of the difficilties of living in a city.
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_______The end_______

SPEAKING (3.0 pts)


Section 1: Picture describing (1.0 pt)

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Section 2: Topic “ Talk about how to protect the environment in your school” (2.0 pts)
Section 1: Picture describing (1.0 pt)

Section 2: Topic “ What is the most serious type of pollution in your hometown?
What are its effctts on people’s lives? ” (2.0 pts)

SPEAKING (3.0 pts)


1. Picture discription (1 point)
* Task Completion (0.5 points)
- Entire talk relevant to the picture.
- Ideas fully developed basing on the overview and striking features of the picture.
- Natural & easy to follow.
- Hesitations are not stressful to the listener.
* Accuracy (0.5 points)
- Range of appropriate grammar tenses .
- Use of some complex sentence structures.
- Range of appropriate vocabulary.
- Mistakes do not obscure message meaning.
- Correct use of cohesive words to link ideas.
* Pronunciation (0.5 points)
- Being able to use English pronunciation features like stress and intonation
naturally.
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- Not causing the examiner any problem in understanding what the student is
saying.
2. Topic presentation (2.0 points)
* Task Completion (1.0 points)
- Entire talk relevant to the topic.
- Ideas fully developed and interesting.
- Well-organised talk to maintain the audience’s attention.
- Natural & easy to follow.
- Hesitations are not stressful to the listener.
* Accuracy (0.5 points)
- Range of appropriate grammar tenses .
- Use of some complex sentence structures.
- Range of appropriate vocabulary.
- Mistakes do not obscure message meaning.
- Correct use of cohesive words to link ideas.
* Pronunciation (0.5 points)
- Being able to use English pronunciation features like stress and intonation
naturally.
- Not causing the examiner any problem in understanding what the student is
saying.

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