TEST YOURSELF 3

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TEST YOURSELF 3

SECTION A: LISTENING (5.0 pts)


Hướng dẫn thí sinh:
- Phần thi nghe gồm 3 bài. Thí sinh được nghe mỗi bài 2 lần liên tiếp.
- Thí sinh đọc kĩ yêu cầu của từng bài trước khi nghe.
- Hướng dẫn chi tiết bằng Tiếng Anh đã có trong đĩa nghe. Bắt đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín
hiệu nhạc.
Part I: You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For question 1 - 8, choose
the best answer A, B or C. (1.6 pts)
1. You hear part of an interview with a pop singer. How does she feel about what happened?
A. embarrassed by her mistake B. angry with her tour manager
C. confused about what happened
2. You hear part of a radio programme for young people. What advice does the speaker give?
A. try to discuss the matter with your friends B. pay no attention to the people who laugh at you
C. encourage other people to be like you
3. You hear a radio presenter talking about a book.
What does the presenter say about the book?
A. some of the writers have already had their work published
B. it contains work that was entered for a competiton
C. it is very well organized
4. You hear someone talking on the phone. What is the speaker’s purpose?
A. to resolve a disagreement B. to make a threat C. to apologise for previous behaviour
5. You hear someone talking to an assistant at a box office. What is the situation?
A. The man has lost his tickets B. The man was sent the wrong tickets
C. The man wants to return the tickets
6. You hear someone talking about her personality. What is the speaker doing?
A. admitting something B. explaining something C. promising something
7. You hear two people talking. What is the relationship between them?
What is the relationship between them?
A. They are members of the same club. B. They live in the same building.
C. They are studying on the same course
8. You hear a local radio presenter talking about a competion. Which of the following is true of
the competition?
A. The first part does not involve any cooking
B. The second part involves ten people cooking on their own
C. The final part takes place at a different restaurant.
Your answers:
1. _____ 2. _____ 3. _____ 4. _____ 5. _____ 6. _____ 7. _____ 8. _____
Part II: Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each blank. (2.0 pts)
Paradise Wildlife Park
Project Life Lion is connected with diseases spread by 9_____________
The Park has created its own 10__________ system, and other organisations use it.
A wide variety of 11 Paradise Wildlife Park events (e.g. barbecues) are held at the Park.
For charity events, the Park will provide cheap tickets and 12_____________
The Park’s sister company gives people a chance to be a 13_____________ .
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People paying to adopt an animal get a 14_____________ , a photograph, information about the
animal and a free ticket for two people.
People who visit the Park 15____________ in a year benefit from having a season ticket.
When the weather is cold, visitors can still enjoy using the 16_____________
One of the Experience Days involves being an 17_____________ for a day.
The Park is looking for people to do customer service and 18_____________ work.

9. __________ 10. __________ 11. __________ 12. __________ 13. __________


14. __________ 15. __________ 16. __________ 17. __________ 18. __________

Part III: You will hear an interview with someone who works in the film industry. For
questions 19-25, choose the best answer (A, B or C). (1.4 pts)
19.What does Jackie say about Olivia’s role in Annie?
A. Olivia had difficulty learning such a big role.
B. Olivia had always wanted to have such a big role.
C. Olivia hadn’t expected to get such a big role.
20. Jackie says that Olivia’s performance in Annie
A. did not surprise other members of her family.
B. was helped by advice from an agent.
C. contrasted with her normal personality.
21. When Olivia tried to get a part in Mary Poppins, she
A. did not really expect to get the part. B. was extremely upset not to get the part.
C. was immediately rejected for the part.
22. What happened at the first auditions for The Sound of Music?
A. Jackie’s children were told they would have to come back the next day.
B. The family arrived later than they had been told to arrive.
C. There were so many people that the family considered leaving.
23. For the second audition, both girls
A. decided to wear similar clothes. B. were required to sing two songs.
C. felt they had to improve.
24. At the final audition,
A. neither of the girls appeared to be nervous.
B. Jackie told them they looked right for the parts.
C. both girls made jokes about the event.
25. How have the girls reacted to getting the parts?
A. They are a bit concerned that their lives will change.
B. The achievement has made them more self-confident.
C. Their behaviour has remained the same as it was before.
SECTION B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (2.0 pts)
Part I. Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer questions. Write your
answers in the box provided. (1.0 pt)
1. Can you please tell me ………………
A. What time arrives the next bus. B. when arrives the next bus.
C. What time the next bus arrives D. when arrives the bus.
2. I think you should …………………………
A. have your hair be cut B. cut your hair.
C. have your hair cut D. have your hair been cut.
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3. He wanted to win the race . He ran ……………..
A. faster than he can B. as fast as he could.
C. fast as he could. D. so fast as he can.
4. Does any body know………………. on the ground
A. how long this plane will be B. how long will be this plane .
C. how long will this plane be. D. that how long this plane would be.
5. "A: I don't like your attitude" - B:"I don't care ……………."
A. if or not you like it B. whether you like it or not .
C. do you like it or not D. you like it or not
6. "What do you think about Maria?" - "………………………………"
A. I forget all about her. B. She's sweet and gentle.
C. She went to York D. No, I don't.
7.Not only…. beautiful but she is graceful as well.
A. did she B. she was C. is she D. she is
8.Neither Mary nor her friends……….going to the party.
A. is B. are C. was D. a or b
9. Many parents find it difficult to communicate….their teenage children.
A. of B. by C. through D. with
10. Which TV programme …. at 9p.m tomorrow?
A. did you watch B. will you watch C. will you be watching D. will you watching
Your answers:
1. ___ 2. ___ 3. ___ 4. ___ 5. ___ 6. ___ 7. ___ 8. ___ 9. ___ 10. ___
Part II. Use the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the box
provided. (1.0 pt)
The (0)original Olympic Games began in Ancient Greece in 776 BC in ORIGIN
Olympia. The Games were very popular and were held (1)__ every four REGULAR
years until AD 393 when they were stopped by the Roman Emperor.
The (2)__ games were started again in Athens in 1896. The Games MODERNIZE
have become the World’s most important international athletics
(3) ____________, in which the best athletes spend years training in COMPETE
(4)___________ for this great event. Sports range from basketball to PREPARE
horse riding. Perhaps the most (5)___________ track and field event is CHALLENGE
the decathlon. Athletes take part in ten (6)______ running, jumping and DIFFER
throwing events.
Almost every nation sends a team to the Olympic Games and one of the FRIEND
ideas is that the Games encourage (7)_____ between countries.
(8)_____ sports lovers travel thousands of miles to watch the Games DEDICATE
and most (9)____ athletes want the chance of winning an Olympic AMBITION
medal. Such an (10)__can make them known throughout the world. ACHIEVE
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

SECTION C: READING (5.0 pts)

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Part I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. Put
a circle on the letter indicating the correct answer. Write your answers in the boxes
provided. (1,0 pt).
It’s always worth preparing well for an interview. Don’t just hope (1) … the best. Here are
a (2) … tips. Practise how you say things, as well as what you (3) …… to say. If you don’t own a
video camera, perhaps a friend of (4) … does. Borrow it and make a video tape of yourself. Find
(5) …to watch it with you and give you a (6) … of advice on how you appear and behave. Before
the interview, plan what to wear. Find out how the company expects its (7) … to dress. At the
interview, believe (8) …… yourself and be honest, open and friendly. (9) …… attention and keep
your answers to the point. The interviewer doesn’t want to waste time and (10) ………… do you.
1.A against B. for C. to D. at
2.A little B. several C. few D. lot
3.A intend B. consider C. imagine D. think
4.A his B yours C. mine D. ours
5.A anybody B nobody C. everybody D. somebody
6.A number B slice C. plenty D. bit
7.A colleagues B employees C. customers D. employers
8.A in B of C. with D. by
9.A attract B give C. turn D. pay
10A so B either C. neither D. or
Your answers:
1. ___ 2. ___ 3. ___ 4. ___ 5. ___ 6. ___ 7. ___ 8. ___ 9. ___ 10. ___

Part II. Read the passage and answer the questions. Write your answers in the boxes
provided. (2,0 pts)
HUNGRY POP STARS
Valerie Jones runs a company called Peanuts whose job is to look after pop stars and pop
groups when they go on tour. She is the person who feeds the stars and she’s been doing it for the
past ten years.
When the stars are playing at a festival, Valerie may have to cook for up to a thousand
people which includes all the crew and the people who work backstage. She erects a marquee-a
huge tent-and the food is served buffet style from a central serving area. She has to cater for
different tastes, so there are normally four or more choices of menu. She also has to look after
people who may be on special diet or some singers don’t eat dairy food before a concert.
She drives an enormous truck full of kitchen equipment and hires at least three walk-in
refrigerators, a dishwashing unit and portable cabins which act as storerooms and office.
All the bands have to queue up to be served and everyone has to have a meal ticket. The
stars are usually more relaxed when they are eating as no one is bothering them for autographs,
although Valerie says that sometimes the security men and the stars’ managers are more trouble
than the stars themselves.
There are certain things which she always has to keep in stock like herbal teas and her own
particular mixture of honey, lemon and ginger which singers like to keep in flasks on stage with
them when they are singing. Years ago bands used to drink quite a lot of alcohol, but these days
they’re much healthier. Most bands drink fresh fruit juice and prefer to eat salads.
A lot of people in the bands are quite young and they’re not used to very expensive food,
so Valerie prepares plain food unless a band sends her a “rider”. This is a list of special
requirements. When people are tired, unwell or homesick they like to have familiar” comfort”
food so she keeps a stock of people’s requirements just in case. As a result of all this Valerie
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says she has become an expert shopper and in less than an hour in a supermarket she can spend
£1000.
A lot of bands won’t eat before a concert because they’re too nervous, so Valerie and her
staff can end up working very long hours as they have to be around to provide what people want
at two or three in the morning. One thing Valerie has noticed is that the more mad a band is on
stage, the more normal they are when they are off it. She says she is amazed at the change in
behaviour. A really wild singer can turn out to be really quiet and polite off stage.
1. Peanuts is the name of …….
A. a pop band B. a pop star C. a pop concert D. a company
2. Valerie has to provide a range of food because
A. people are very fussy about what they eat B. people are used to eating in restaurants
C. there is such a wide variety of preferences D.there is such a demand for special menus
3. The singers are less nervous when they are eating because
A. their security men are with them B. there are no fans hanging around
C. their managers fuss over them D. the bands enjoy eating together.
4. Why does Valerie have to keep a supply of certain drinks?
A. the bands really rely on a special recipe B. the bands like to drink alcohol
C. the bands prefer herbal tea to coffee D. the bands take fruit juice on stage
5. What do most bands like best to eat?
A. rich food B. cheap food C. junk food D. simple food
6. What does “just in case” in paragraph 5 refer to?
A. Valerie’s supply of more expensive food B. Valerie’s list of “riders” from the different bands
C. Valerie’s supply of special food for various people
D. Valerie’s understanding of people feeling sick
7. Why do you think Valerie has become an “expert shopper”?
A. She has a lot of money to spend each week B. She has learnt to find what individuals want
C. she has to buy as much as possible for £ 1000
D. She has to shop very quickly in a supermarket
8. Why is a band likely to be hungry after playing?
A. They feel more relaxed after the concert B. They work long hours with little food
C. They only have a snack before a concert D. They like to wait until they eat together
9. What does Valerie think about the singers?
A. They are completely crazy on and off stage. B. They behave differently on and off stage
C. They are less rude when they are off stage D. They are normally more noisy on stage
10. How does Valerie feel about the behaviour of the singers
A. surprised B. angry C. uncomfortable D. pleased
Your answers:
1. ___ 2. ___ 3. ___ 4. ___ 5. ___ 6. ___ 7. ___ 8. ___ 9. ___ 10. ___

Part III. Read the following text and do the tasks that follow. (2.0 pts)
A. After hours of driving south in the pitch-black darkness of the Nevada desert, a dome of hazy
gold suddenly appears on the horizon. Soon, a road sign confirms the obvious: Las Vegas 30
miles. Looking skyward, you notice that the Big Dipper is harder to find than it was an hour ago.
B. Light pollution - the artificial light that illuminates more than its intended target area-has
become a problem of increasing concern across the country over the past 15 years in the suburbs,
where over-lit shopping mall parking lots are the norm, only 200 of the Milky Way's 2,500 stars
are visible on a clear night. Even fewer can be seen from large cities. In almost every town, big
and small, street lights beam just as much light up and out as they do down, illuminating much
more than just the street. Almost 50 percent of the light emanating from street lamps misses its

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intended target, and billboards, shopping centres private homes and skyscrapers are similarly
over-illuminated
C. America has become so bright that in a satellite image of the United States at night, the outline
of the country is visible from its lights alone. The major cities are all there, in bright clusters:
New York Boston Miami Houston, Los Angeles. Seattle, Chicago, and, of course, Las Vegas
Mark Adams, superintendent of the McDonald Observatory in west Texas, says that the very fact
that city lights are visible from on high is proof of their wastefulness. When you’ re up in an
airplane, all that light you see on the ground from the city is wasted. It's going up into the night
sky. That's why you can see it
D. But don't we need all those lights to ensure our safety? The answer from light engineers, light
pollution control advocates and astronomes is an emphatic no. Elizabeth Alvarez of the
International Dark Sky Association (IDA), a non-profit organization in Tucson, Arizona, says that
overly bright security lights can actually force neighbours to dose the shutters, which means that
if any criminal activity does occur on the street, no one will see it. And the old assumption that
bright lights deter crime appears to have been a false one: A new Department of Justice report
concludes that there is no documented correlation between the level of lighting and the level of
crime in an area. And contrary to popular belief, more crimes occur in broad daylight than at
night.
E. For drivers, light can actually create a safety hazard. Glaring lights can temporarily blind
drivers, increasing the likelihood of an accident. To help prevent such accidents, some cities and
states prohibit the use of lights that impair night-time vision. For instance, New Hampshire law
forbids the use of any light along a highway so positioned as to blind or dazzle the vision of
travellers on the adjacent highway."
F. Badly designed lighting can pose a threat to wildlife as well as people. Newly hatched turtles
in Florida move toward beach lights instead of the more muted silver shimmer of the ocean.
Migrating birds, confused by lights on skyscrapers, broadcast towers and lighthouses, are injured,
sometimes fatally, after colliding with high. lighted structures. And light pollution harms air
quality as well. Because most of the country's power plants are still powered by fossil fuels, more
light means more air pollution
Questions 1 - 6: The first six paragraphs of reading passage are lettered A-F. Choose the
most suitable headings for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below.
(There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.)

Paragraphs Lists of Headings


1. Paragraph A i. The environmental dangers
2. Paragraph B ii. People at risk from bright lights
3. Paragraph C iii. Illuminating space
4. Paragraph D iv. A problem lights do not solve
5. Paragraph E v. Seen from above
6. Paragraph F vi. More light than is necessary
vii. Approaching the city
Your answers:
1. ______ 2. ______ 3. ______ 4. ______ 5. ______ 6. ______

Questions 7-10: Complete each of the following statements with words taken from the
passage. Write ONE or TWO WORDS for each answer.
7. According to a recent study, well-lit streets do not ...... or make neighbourhoods safer to live in.
8. Inefficient lighting increases ........... because most electricity is produced from coal, gas or oil.

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9. Efficient lights .......................... from going into areas where it is not needed.
10. In dealing with light pollution .......................... is at least as important as passing new laws.
Your answers:
7. ______________ 8. ______________ 9. ______________ 10. _____________
D: WRITING (5.0 pts)
I. Write an email of about 150 words: (2.0 pts)
Recently, Peter- your friend has played computer games too much. Write an email to give
him some advice on his problem.
Your email:
Dear Peter,
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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With love,
Jane
II. Paragraph writing: (3.0 pts)
In 120-150 words, write a passage about “the importance of learning English and
suggest some effective ways that help us learn English well”.
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……….The end…………….

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SPEAKING
Test 1:
Part 1: Describe the picture

Part 2:
Do you like festivals? Talk about a festival you like

Test 2:
Part 1: Describe the picture

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Part 2: Do you prefer to live in the city or the countryside? Explain why

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