TG2WT-0203_Key & Explanations_EM_CivicCentre_38061999_2024_07_05_12_11

9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
30
29
28
27
26
25
24
23
22
21
20
19
18
17
16
15
14
13
12
11
10
Q No
1
4
4
4
2
1
2
1
4
2
4
4
4
2
1
2
4
1
2
4
2
3
1
4
1
2
4
4
2
4
Option
60
59
58
57
56
55
54
53
52
51
50
49
48
47
46
45
44
43
42
41
40
39
38
37
36
35
34
33
32
31
Q No
4
3
4
4
2
1
3
1
1
4
4
4
1
4
4
4
3
3
3
3
1
3
1
3
4
1
1
2
3
2
Option
90
89
88
87
86
85
84
83
82
81
80
79
78
77
76
75
74
73
72
71
70
69
68
67
66
65
64
63
62
61
Q No
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4
3
4
4
3
1
4
4
2
3
1
3
4
1
4
2
3
1
1
3
2
3
4
3
4
4
2
1
1
4
Option
Key and Explanations
99
98
97
96
95
94
93
92
91
120
119
118
117
116
115
114
113
112
111
110
109
108
107
106
105
104
103
102
101
100
Q No
1
1
4
4
1
3
4
4
4
2
2
1
3
2
4
3
3
1
3
1
3
1
4
1
3
1
3
3
4
2
Option
150
149
148
147
146
145
144
143
142
141
140
139
138
137
136
135
134
133
132
131
130
129
128
127
126
125
124
123
122
121
TSPSC | Group-II | Test Series – 2024 | 45 Days Plan | TG2WT-0203
Q No
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4
3
4
1
1
4
4
4
2
1
1
2
1
4
1
1
4
1
1
4
2
1
4
1
2
1
1
3
3
4
Option
1
Detailed Explanations
1. Correct Answer: Option (4) contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights.
▪ Article 35 lays down that the power to make ▪ Article 131 deals about Original Jurisdiction of
laws, to give effect to certain specified Supreme Court.
fundamental rights shall vest only in the ▪ Article 136 deals about Appellate Jurisdiction of
Parliament and not in the state legislatures. Supreme Court.
▪ This provision ensures that there is uniformity ▪ Article 227 pertains to the High Courts'
throughout India with regard to the nature of supervisory jurisdiction over lower courts and
those fundamental rights and punishment for tribunals.
their infringement. 3. Correct Answer: Option (4)
▪ Article 35 contains the following provisions: ▪ The rule of equality before law is not absolute
• The Parliament shall have power to make and there are constitutional and other
laws with respect to the following matters: exceptions to it. These are mentioned below:
1. Prescribing residence as a condition for • The President of India and the Governor of
certain employments or appointments States enjoy some immunities under Article
in a state or union territory or local 361.
authority or other authority (Article 16). • No person shall be liable to any civil or
2. Empowering courts other than the criminal proceedings in any court in respect
Supreme Court and the high courts to of the publication in a newspaper (or by radio
issue directions, orders and writs of all or television) of a substantially true report of
kinds for the enforcement of any proceedings of either House of
fundamental rights (Article 32). Parliament or either House of the Legislature
3. Restricting or abrogating the of a State (Article 361-A).
application of Fundamental Rights to • No Member of Parliament shall be liable to
members of armed forces, police any proceedings in any court in respect of
forces, etc. (Article 33). (d) anything said or any vote given by him in
Indemnifying any government servant Parliament or any committee thereof (Article
or any other person for any act done 105).
during the operation of martial law in • No member of the Legislature of a state shall
any area (Article 34). be liable to any proceedings in any court in
• Parliament shall have powers to make laws respect of anything said or any vote given by
for prescribing punishment for those acts him in the Legislature or any committee
that are declared to be offences under the thereof (Article 194).
fundamental rights. These include the • Article 31-C is an exception to Article 14. It
following: provides that the laws made by the state for
1. Untouchability (Article 17) implementing the Directive Principles
2. Traffic in human beings and forced contained in clause (b) or clause (c) of Article
labour (Article 23) 39 cannot be challenged on the ground that
2. Correct Answer: Option (2) they are violative of Article 14.
▪ Article 13 declares that all laws that are • The foreign sovereigns (rulers), ambassadors
inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the and diplomats enjoy immunity from criminal
fundamental rights shall be void. and civil proceedings.
• In other words, it expressively provides for • The UNO and its agencies enjoy the
the doctrine of judicial review. diplomatic immunity.
▪ This power has been conferred on the Supreme 4. Correct Answer: Option (4)
Court through Article 32 and the High courts ▪ Freedom of Speech and Expression under Article
through Article 226 that can declare a law 19(1) (a) implies that every citizen has the right
unconstitutional and invalid on the ground of to express his views, opinions, belief and
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convictions freely by word of mouth, writing, ▪ The framers of the Constitution made the
printing, picturing or in any other manner. Directive Principles non-justiciable and legally
▪ The Supreme Court held that the freedom of non-enforceable because:
speech and expression includes the following: • The country did not possess sufficient
Right to propagate Right to telecast financial resources to implement them.
one’s views as well as (government has no • The presence of vast diversity and
views of others monopoly on backwardness in the country would stand in
electronic media)
the way of their implementation.
Freedom of the press Right against bandh
called by a political • The newly born independent Indian State
party or organisation with its many preoccupations might be
Freedom of Right to know about crushed under the burden unless it was free
commercial government activities to decide the order, the time, the place and
advertisements the mode of fulfilling them.
Right against tapping Freedom of silence ▪ The issue of concerns about potential conflicts
of telephonic
with Fundamental Rights was not considered by
conversation
the makers of the Constitution.
Right against Right to demonstration
• It was aroused later and Supreme Court
imposition of pre- or picketing but not the
censorship on a right to strike finally in Minerva Mill Case (1980) clarified
newspaper that FRs and DPSPs are complementary and
▪ Article 19(1) (e) guarantees every citizen the should be interpreted harmoniously.
right to reside and settle in any part of the • If a conflict arises, the court must prioritize
territory of India. FRs over DPSPs.
• This is one of the six freedoms granted • The Parliament can amend the Fundamental
under Article 19, ensuring the free Rights for implementing the Directive
movement and settlement of citizens Principles, so long as the amendment does
within the country. not damage or destroy the basic structure of
5. Correct Answer: Option (2) the Constitution.
▪ The Directive Principles of State Policy are 7. Correct Answer: Option (4)
enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Distinction between Fundamental Rights and
Articles 36 to 51. Directive Principles:
▪ The framers of the Constitution borrowed this Fundamental Rights Directive Principles
idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which These are negative as These are positive as
had copied it from the Spanish Constitution. they prohibit the State they require the State
▪ Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described these principles as from doing certain to do certain things.
things.
‘novel features’ of the Indian Constitution.
These are justiciable, These are non-
▪ The Directive Principles resemble the that is, they are legally justiciable, that is, they
‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the enforceable by the are not legally
Government of India Act of 1935. courts in case of their enforceable by the
▪ In the words of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, ‘the violation. courts for their
Directive Principles are like the instrument of violation.
instructions, which were issued to the They aim at establishing They aim at establishing
political democracy in social and economic
Governor-General and to the Governors of the
the country. democracy in the
colonies of India by the British Government country.
under the Government of India Act of 1935. These have legal These have moral and
• The only difference is that DPSPs are sanctions. political sanctions.
instructions to the legislature and the They promote the They promote the
executive. welfare of the welfare of the
6. Correct Answer: Option (1) individual. Hence, they community. Hence,

are personal and they are societarian and founded on the bedrock of the balance between
individualistic. socialistic. the Fundamental Rights and the Directive
Most of the rights do They require legislation Principles.
not require any for their
• They together constitute the core of
legislation for their implementation. They
commitment to social revolution.
implementation. They are not automatically
are automatically enforced. • They are like two wheels of a chariot, one no
enforced. less than the other.
The courts are bound to The courts cannot • To give absolute primacy to one over the
declare a law violative declare a law violative other is to disturb the harmony of the
of any of the of any of the Directive Constitution.
Fundamental Rights as Principles as
• This harmony and balance between the two
unconstitutional and unconstitutional and
invalid. invalid. However, they is an essential feature of the basic structure
can uphold the validity of the Constitution.
of a law on the ground • The goals set out by the Directive Principles
that it was enacted to have to be achieved without the abrogation
give effect to a of the means provided by the Fundamental
directive.
Rights.
8. Correct Answer: Option (1)
▪ Therefore, the present position is that the
▪ Apart from the Directives included in Part IV,
Fundamental Rights enjoy supremacy over the
there are some other Directives contained in
Directive Principles.
other Parts of the Constitution. They are:
• Yet, this does not mean that the Directive
• Claims of SCs and STs to Services: The
Principles cannot be implemented.
claims of the members of the Scheduled
• The Parliament can amend the Fundamental
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be
Rights for implementing the Directive
taken into consideration, consistently with
Principles, so long as the amendment does
the maintenance of efficiency of
not damage or destroy the basic structure of
administration, in the making of
the Constitution.
appointments to services and posts in
connection with the affairs of the Union or
▪ Article 43 of the Indian Constitution provides for
a State (Article 335 in Part XVI).
the State to secure a living wage, a decent
• Instruction in mother tongue: It shall be the
standard of life and social and cultural
endeavour of every state and every local
opportunities for all workers.
authority within the state to provide
▪ This principle reflects the ideology of socialism.
adequate facilities for instruction in the
▪ In this Article, ‘Living wage’ is different from
mother tongue at the primary stage of
‘minimum wage’.
education to children belonging to linguistic
• Minimum wage includes the bare needs of
minority groups (Article 350-A in Part XVII).
life like food, shelter and clothing.
• Development of the Hindi Language: It
• In addition to these bare needs, a ‘living
shall be the duty of the Union to promote
wage’ includes education, health, insurance,
the spread of the Hindi language and to
etc.
develop it so that it may serve as a medium
• A ‘fair wage’ is a mean between ‘living wage’
of expression for all the elements of the
and ‘minimum wage’.
composite culture of India (Article 351 in
Part XVII).
▪ Promotion of co-operative societies is Article Fundamental Duty
51A
mentioned in Article 43B under Part IV.
9. Correct Answer: Option (3) To abide by the Constitution and
▪ In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme (a) respect its ideals and institutions, the
Court held that the Indian Constitution is National Flag and the National Anthem.

To cherish and follow the noble ideals ▪ Unlike some of the Fundamental Rights which
(b) which inspired our national struggle for extend to all persons whether citizens or
freedom. foreigners, the Fundamental Duties are confined
To uphold and protect the sovereignty, to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners.
(c)
unity, and integrity of India. ▪ Like the Directive Principles, the fundamental
To defend the country and render duties are also non-justiciable.
(d) national service when called upon to do ▪ The Constitution does not provide for their direct
so. enforcement by the courts.
To promote harmony and the spirit of • There is not legal sanction against their
common brotherhood amongst all the violation.
people of India transcending religious, • However, the Parliament is free to enforce
(e)
linguistic, and regional or sectional them by suitable legislation.
diversities; to renounce practices 13. Correct Answer: Option (1)
derogatory to the dignity of women. ▪ The Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of
To value and preserve the rich heritage the Citizens (1999) identified the existence of
(f)
of our composite culture. legal provisions for the implementation of some
To protect and improve the natural of the Fundamental Duties. They are mentioned
environment including forests, lakes, below:
(g)
rivers, and wildlife, and to have • The Prevention of Insults to National Honour
compassion for living creatures. Act (1971) prevents disrespect to the
To develop the scientific temper, Constitution of India, the National Flag and
(h) humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and the National Anthem.
reform. • The various criminal laws in force provide for
To safeguard public property and to punishments for encouraging enmity
(i)
abjure violence. between different sections of people on
To strive towards excellence in all grounds of language, race, place of birth,
spheres of individual and collective religion and so on.
(j) activity so that the nation constantly • The Protection of Civil Rights Act (1955)
rises to higher levels of endeavour and provides for punishments for offences
achievement. related to caste and religion.
Who is a parent or guardian to provide • The Indian Penal Code (IPC) declares the
opportunities for education to his child imputations and assertions prejudicial to
(k)
or, as the case may be, ward between national integration as punishable offences.
the age of six and fourteen years. • The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act of
12. Correct Answer: Option (2) 1967 provides for the declaration of a
Characteristics of Fundamental duties: communal organisation as an unlawful
▪ Some of them are moral duties while others are association.
civic duties. • The Representation of People Act (1951)
• Ex: Cherishing noble ideals of freedom provides for the disqualification of members
struggle is a moral precept and respecting of the Parliament or a state legislature for
the Constitution, National Flag and National indulging in corrupt practice that is, soliciting
Anthem is a civic duty. votes on the ground of religion or promoting
▪ They refer to such values which have been a enmity between different sections of people
part of the Indian tradition, mythology, religions on grounds of caste, race, language, religion
and practices. and so on.
• In other words, they essentially contain just • The Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972
a codification of tasks integral to the Indian prohibits trade in rare and endangered
way of life. species.

• The Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980 • This list has at present 98 subjects (originally
checks indiscriminate deforestation and 97 subjects) like defence, banking, foreign
diversion of forest land for non-forest affairs, currency, atomic energy, insurance,
purposes. communication, inter-state trade and
▪ Protection of Women from Domestic Violence commerce, census, audit and so on.
Act, 2005, aims to protect women from ▪ The state legislature has “in normal
domestic violence and provides them with civil circumstances” exclusive powers to make laws
remedies. with respect to any of the matters enumerated in
• It supports the Fundamental Right to the State List.
Equality and the Right to Life with Dignity. • This has at present 59 subjects (originally 66
14. Correct Answer: Option (4) subjects) like public order, police, public
▪ The Constitution places certain restrictions on health and sanitation, agriculture, prisons,
the plenary territorial jurisdiction of the local government, fisheries, markets,
Parliament. theatres, gambling and so on.
▪ In other words, the laws of Parliament are not ▪ Both, the Parliament and state legislature can
applicable in the following areas: make laws with respect to any of the matters
• The President can make regulations for the enumerated in the Concurrent List.
peace, progress and good government of • This list has at present 52 subjects (originally
the five Union Territories– the Andaman 47 subjects) like criminal law and procedure,
and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra civil procedure, marriage and divorce,
and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu and population control and family planning,
Ladakh. A regulation so made has the same electricity, labour welfare, economic and
force and effect as an act of Parliament. It social planning, drugs, newspapers, books
may also repeal or amend any act of and printing press, and others.
Parliament in relation to these union ▪ The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred
territories. five subjects to Concurrent List from State List,
• The governor is empowered to direct that that is,
an act of Parliament does not apply to a • Education
scheduled area in the state or apply with • Forests
specified modifications and exceptions. • Weights and measures
• The Governor of Assam may likewise direct • Protection of wild animals and birds
that an act of Parliament does not apply to • Administration of justice
a tribal area (autonomous district) in the • Constitution and organisation of all courts
state or apply with specified modifications except the Supreme Court and the high
and exceptions. The President enjoys the courts
same power with respect to tribal areas 16. Correct Answer: Option (1)
(autonomous districts) in Meghalaya, ▪ The name, voice, signature, images or any other
Tripura and Mizoram. feature easily identified by the public are
15. Correct Answer: Option (2) markers of a celebrity’s personality and are
▪ The Constitution provides for a three-fold referred loosely as “personality rights.”
distribution of legislative subjects between the • These could include a pose, a mannerism or
Centre and the states, viz., List-I (the Union List), any aspect of their personality.
List-II (the State List) and List-III (the Concurrent ▪ Personality rights or their protection are not
List) in the Seventh Schedule. expressly mentioned in a statute in India but are
▪ The Parliament has exclusive powers to make traced to fall under the right to privacy and the
laws with respect to any of the matters right to property.
enumerated in the Union List.

• Even as the Delhi High Court and the • Telangana reported 119 cases in 2022
Madras High Court have passed interim against 91 in 2021, an increase in 31%.
orders, the law is at a nascent stage in India. 18. Correct Answer: Option (4)
▪ The Right against Exploitation is a fundamental ▪ Amid consistent rise in deaths of pedestrians and
right guaranteed by the Constitution of India, cyclists, Punjab has taken the lead among the
primarily aimed at protecting individuals from states and UTs to implement the ‘right to walk’ in
various forms of exploitation, including forced 2023 by making it mandatory for all road-owning
labour, human trafficking, and child labour. agencies, including the NHAI, to provide footpath
• It doesn’t have any link to Personality and cycle tracks in all future expansion of roads
Rights. and construction of new ones.
• This right is enshrined in Articles 23 and 24 ▪ Several PILs were filed in Punjab and Haryana
of the Indian Constitution. high courts seeking the “Right to Walk under
17. Correct Answer: Option (2) Article 21” by ensuring safe facilities for
▪ The Indian Constitution, under Article 19, pedestrians.
guarantees freedom of speech and expression ▪ To be able to move freely throughout the
but does not explicitly define hate speech. territory of India is a right under Article 19 (1) (d)
▪ There is no specific legal definition of ‘hate of Indian Constitution.
speech’. ▪ Right to Walk loosely comes under Article 21 and
▪ The Law Commission of India, in its 267th Article 19 (1) (d), but nowhere is it explicitly
Report, says: mentioned.
• “Hate speech generally is an incitement to 19. Correct Answer: Option (4)
hatred primarily against a group of persons ▪ The Constitution contains the following
defined in terms of race, ethnicity, gender, provisions to secure cooperation and
sexual orientation, religious belief and the coordination between the Centre and the states:
like ... • The Parliament can provide for the
▪ Thus, hate speech is any word written or adjudication of any dispute or complaint with
spoken, signs, visible representations within the respect to the use, distribution and control of
hearing or sight of a person with the intention waters of any inter-state river and river valley
to cause fear or alarm, or incitement to (Article 262).
violence. • The President can establish (under Article
▪ Sections 153A and 505 of the Indian Penal Code 263) an Inter-State Council to investigate and
are generally taken to be the main penal discuss subject of common interest between
provisions that deal with inflammatory the Centre and the states. Such a council was
speeches and expressions that seek to punish set up in 1990.
‘hate speech’. • Full faith and credit is to be given throughout
▪ The latest NCRB report on crime for 2022 the territory of India to public acts, records
reveals a 45% increase in cases of hate speech and judicial proceedings of the Centre and
and acts promoting enmity between groups every state (Article 261).
based on religion, race, language, and place of • The Parliament can appoint an appropriate
birth in India. authority to carry out the purposes of the
• Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Maharashtra constitutional provisions relating to the
had the highest number of cases in 2022. interstate freedom of trade, commerce and
• Manipur, Sikkim, Arunachal, and Telangana intercourse (Article 307). But no such
had the highest rates of such crimes. MP, authority has been appointed so far.
Rajasthan, Telangana, Chhattisgarh, and 20. Correct Answer: Option (4)
Mizoram saw a significant rise in hate Aspect Fundamen DPSPs Fundamen
speech cases during the elections of 2023. tal Rights tal Duties
Education Right to Article 45 promoting
Education directs education
(Article the state al Broadcasting;
21A) to provide opportunit States
ensures free and ies for Dr. Rajendra Prasad Food &
free and compulso children
Agriculture
compulsor ry between
y education age of 6 to Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Education
education for all 14 Dr. John Mathai Railways &
for children Transport
children. until they R.K. Shanmugham Chetty Finance
complete Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Law
age of 14.
Jagjivan Ram Labour
Environm Right to Article Citizens
ent clean 48A have a Sardar Baldev Singh Defence
environme directs duty to Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur Health
nt (implicit the state protect C.H. Bhabha Commerce
in Article to protect and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai Communication
21 - Right and improve
Dr. Shayama Prasad Mukherji Industries &
to Life). improve the natural
the environme Supplies
environm nt V.N. Gadgil Works, Mines &
ent and including Power
safeguard forests, 22. Correct Answer: Option (4)
forests lakes, ▪ The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting
and rivers, and
on December 9, 1946.
wildlife. wildlife
▪ The Muslim League boycotted the meeting and
Healthcar Right to Article 47 Citizens
e Life directs have a insisted on a separate state of Pakistan.
(Article 21) the state duty to ▪ The meeting was, thus, attended by only 211
can be to raise strive members. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest
interprete the level towards member, was elected as the temporary President
d to of excellence of the Assembly, following the French practice.
include nutrition in all
▪ Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the
the right and the spheres of
to health standard individual President of the Assembly. Similarly, both H.C.
and of living and Mukherjee and V.T. Krishnamachari were elected
medical and to collective as the Vice-Presidents of the Assembly.
care. improve activity, ▪ In other words, the Assembly had two Vice-
public which can Presidents.
health. include ▪ M.K Gandhi and M.A Jinnah were not the part of
promoting
the constituent assembly.
public
health 23. Correct Answer: Option (1)
21. Correct Answer: Option (2) ▪ The Indian Independence Act of 1947 made the
First Cabinet of Free India (1947) following three changes in the position of the
Members Portfolios Held Assembly:
Jawaharlal Nehru Prime Minister; • The Assembly was made a fully sovereign
External Affairs body, which could frame any Constitution it
& pleased. The act empowered the Assembly
Commonwealth to abrogate or alter any law made by the
Relations; British Parliament in relation to India.
Scientific • The Assembly also became a legislative body.
Research In other words, two separate functions were
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Home, assigned to the Assembly that is, making of
Information & the Constitution for free India and enacting

of ordinary laws for the country. These two Beohar Illuminated, beautified and
tasks were to be performed on separate Rammanohar ornamented the original
days. Thus, the Assembly became the first Sinha Preamble
Parliament of free India (Dominion Vasant Calligraphy of the Hindi version
Legislature). Krishan of the original Constitution
• The Muslim League members (hailing from Vaidya
the areas included in the Pakistan) 26. Correct Answer: Option (2)
withdrew from the Constituent Assembly Flexibility of Indian constitution:
for India. Consequently, the total strength ▪ Different Procedures for Different Amendments
of the Assembly came down to 299 as (Article 368)-Simple Majority: Certain provisions,
against 389 originally fixed in 1946 under like those related to administrative matters, can
the Cabinet Mission Plan. be amended by a simple majority of both houses
24. Correct Answer: Option (2) of Parliament.
▪ The Constitution as adopted on November 26, ▪ The judicial interpretation flexibility allows the
1949, contained a Preamble, 395 Articles and 8 Constitution to adapt to evolving notions of
Schedules. The Preamble was enacted after the individual rights and social justice.
entire Constitution was already enacted. • Landmark judgments have recognized the
▪ Some provisions of the Constitution pertaining Right to Privacy, Right to Education, and
to citizenship, elections, provisional parliament, Right to Livelihood as implicit in the Right to
temporary and transitional provisions, and Life (Article 21).
short title contained in Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 60, ▪ Written Constitution: It exhibit rigidity of the
324, 366, 367, 379, 380, 388, 391, 392 and 393 Constitution.
came into force on November 26, 1949, itself. ▪ The Indian Constitution exhibits rigidity in several
▪ The remaining provisions (the major part) of the ways - Ratification by State Legislatures:
Constitution came into force on January 26, Amending provisions related to federalism
1950. This day is referred to in the Constitution requires ratification by at least half of the state
as the ‘date of its commencement’, and legislatures. This ensures states have a say in
celebrated as the Republic Day. changes that might affect their powers or the
25. Correct Answer: Option (1) rights of citizens.
Members Posts Held in Constituent 27. Correct Answer: Option (4)
Assembly ▪ Even though the Indian parliamentary system is
Sir B.N. Rau Constitutional advisor largely based on the British pattern, there are
(Legal advisor) to the some fundamental differences between the two.
Constituent Assembly ▪ For example, the Indian Parliament is not a
H.V.R. Secretary to the Constituent sovereign body like the British Parliament (i.e. In
Iyengar Assembly India there is no parliamentary sovereignty, it is
S.N. Chief draftsman of the limited).
Mukherjee constitution ▪ Further, the Indian State has an elected head
Prem Behari Calligrapher of the Indian (republic) while the British State has hereditary
Narain Constitution head (monarchy).
Raizada ▪ In a parliamentary system whether in India or
Nand Lal Beautified and decorated the Britain, the role of the Prime Minister has
Bose and Indian Constitution become so significant and crucial that the
Beohar political scientists like to call it a ‘Prime
Rammanohar Ministerial Government’.
Sinha 28. Correct Answer: Option (4)

▪ Due Process of Law primarily ensures that all The Preamble secures to all citizens of India ▪
legal proceedings are conducted with fairness, liberty of belief, faith and worship.
equity, and respect for individuals' legal rights. ▪ The State shall not deny to any person equality
▪ The principle of Natural justice refers to the before the law or equal protection of the laws
basic principles of fairness, equity, and equality. (Article 14).
It includes the right to a fair hearing, the rule ▪ The State shall not discriminate against any
against bias, and ensuring that decisions are citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
made impartially. ▪ Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters
▪ The procedure established by law refers to the of public employment (Article 16).
formal procedures and rules that are set out by ▪ All persons are equally entitled to freedom of
law. It's more about following the legal process conscience and the right to freely profess,
as prescribed, regardless of fairness or justice. practice and propagate any religion (Article 25).
▪ Fair application of law focuses on applying the ▪ Every religious denomination or any of its section
law in a fair manner, ensuring that laws are shall have the right to manage its religious affairs
enforced without discrimination or bias. It's (Article 26).
related to but not the complete essence of due ▪ No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for
process. the promotion of a particular religion (Article 27).
▪ Equality before law, principle means that all ▪ No religious instruction shall be provided in any
individuals are treated equally under the law, educational institution maintained by the State
without any discrimination. It's a crucial aspect (Article 28).
of justice but is more about the application of ▪ Any section of the citizens shall have the right to
law rather than the process itself. conserve its distinct language, script or culture
29. Correct Answer: Option (4) (Article 29).
▪ The Constitution of India has made various ▪ All minorities shall have the right to establish and
provisions to ensure the independence of administer educational institutions of their
judiciary by: choice (Article 30).
• Security of tenure of the judges ▪ The State shall endeavour to secure for all the
• Fixed service conditions for the judges citizens a Uniform Civil Code (Article 44).
• All the expenses of the Supreme Court 31. Correct Answer: Option (2)
charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. ▪ The Constitution is essentially the Government of
• Prohibition on discussion on the conduct of India Act of 1935 with only adult franchise added.
judges in the legislatures ▪ The Indian Constitution adopts universal adult
• Ban on practice after retirement franchise as a basis of elections to the Lok Sabha
• Power to punish for its contempt vested in and the state legislative assemblies.
the Supreme Court ▪ Every citizen who is not less than 18 years of age
• Separation of the judiciary from the has a right to vote without any discrimination of
executive. caste, race, religion, sex, literacy, wealth and so
▪ Article 50: Separation of judiciary from on.
executive. ▪ The voting age was reduced to 18 years from 21
▪ Article 124: Establishment and constitution of years in 1989 by the 61st Constitutional
Supreme Court. Amendment Act of 1988.
▪ Article 125: Salaries, etc., of Judges 32. Correct Answer: Option (3)
30. Correct Answer: Option (1) ▪ The Indian Constitution contains elaborate
▪ The following provisions of the Constitution emergency provisions to enable the President to
reveal the secular character of the Indian State: meet any extraordinary situation effectively.
▪ The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble ▪ The rationality behind the incorporation of these
of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd provisions is to safeguard the sovereignty, unity,
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. integrity and security of the country, the
democratic political system and the Constitution.
33. Correct Answer: Option (2) ▪ Public Service Commissions
▪ The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 ▪ Emergency provisions
gave a constitutional status and protection to ▪ Administrative details
co-operative societies. In this context, it made Irish ▪ Directive Principles of State
the following three changes in the Constitution: Constitution Policy
▪ It made the right to form co-operative societies ▪ Nomination of members to
a fundamental right (Article 19). Rajya Sabha
▪ It included a new Directive Principle of State ▪ Method of election of
Policy on promotion of co-operative societies President
(Article 43-B). Australian • Concurrent List
▪ It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution Constitution • Freedom of trade
which is entitled as “The Co-operative • Commerce and inter-course
Societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT). • Joint sitting of the two
34. Correct Answer: Option (1) Houses of Parliament
▪ Article 31B along with the Ninth Schedule was US Constitution • Fundamental rights
added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment • Independence of judiciary
Act of 1951.
• Judicial review
▪ However, in a significant judgement delivered
• Impeachment of the
in I.R. Coelho case (2007), the Supreme Court
president
ruled that there could not be any blanket
• Removal of Supreme Court
immunity from judicial review of laws included
and high court judges
in the Ninth Schedule.
• Post of Vice-President
▪ The court held that judicial review is a ‘basic
Japanese • Procedure established by
feature’ of the constitution and it could not be
Constitution Law
taken away by putting a law under the Ninth
Schedule.
▪ Eighth Schedule: Languages recognized by the
Constitution.
▪ Originally, it had 14 languages but presently
there are 22 languages.
▪ Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by
the 71st Amendment Act of 1992.
▪ In terms of the Constitution provisions, there
are two objectives behind the specification of
the regional languages in the Eighth Schedule:
• The members of these languages are to be
given representation in the Official
Language Commission.
• The forms, style and expression of these
languages are to be used for the
enrichment of the Hindi language.
▪ Sources of the Indian Constitution
Sources Features Borrowed
Government of ▪ Federal Scheme
India Act of ▪ Office of governor
1935 ▪ Judiciary

▪ The words Socialist and secular were added to ▪ Article 23 - Prohibition of traffic in human beings
the constitution by the 42nd amendment act of and forced labour.
1976. ▪ Article 24 - Prohibition of employment of
38. Correct Answer: Option (1) children in factories etc.
▪ Fundamental duties and the ideal of justice ▪ Article 25 - Freedom of conscience and free
(social, economic and political) in the Preamble profession, practice and propagation of religion.
was borrowed from the Soviet Constitution ▪ Article 26 - Freedom to manage religious affairs.
(USSR, now Russia). ▪ Article 27 - Freedom from payment of taxes for
Sources Features Borrowed promotion of any religion.
Government of ▪ Federal Scheme ▪ Article 28 - Freedom from attending religious
India Act of ▪ Office of governor instruction or worship in certain educational
1935 ▪ Judiciary institutions.
▪ Public Service Commissions 40. Correct Answer: Option (1)
▪ Emergency provisions ▪ Fundamental Rights can be suspended during the
▪ Administrative details operation of a National Emergency except the
Irish ▪ Directive Principles of State rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21.
Constitution Policy ▪ Further, the six rights guaranteed by Article 19
▪ Nomination of members to can be suspended only when emergency is
Rajya Sabha declared on the grounds of war or external
▪ Method of election of aggression (i.e., external emergency) and not on
President the ground of armed rebellion (i.e., internal
Australian • Concurrent List emergency).
Constitution • Freedom of trade 41. Correct Answer: Option (3)
• Commerce and inter-course ▪ The idea of Residue powers are taken from
• Joint sitting of the two Canadian constitution.
Houses of Parliament ▪ The Constitution of India adopted this principle
US Constitution • Fundamental rights and incorporated it into Article 248.
▪ The Constitution divided the powers between
• Independence of judiciary
the Centre and the states in terms of the Union
• Judicial review
List, State List and Concurrent List in the Seventh
• Impeachment of the
Schedule.
president
▪ The Union List consists of 98 subjects (originally
• Removal of Supreme Court
97), the State List 59 subjects (originally 66) and
and high court judges
the Concurrent List 52 subjects (originally 47).
• Post of Vice-President
▪ Both the Centre and the states can make laws on
Japanese • Procedure established by
the subjects of the concurrent list, but in case of
Constitution Law
a conflict, the Central law prevails.
▪ The residuary subjects (ie, which are not
Fundamental Rights (FR) available to both citizens mentioned in any of the three lists) are given to
and foreigners (except enemy aliens) are: the Centre.
▪ Article 14 - Equality before law and equal
• Cyber Laws: The development and regulation
protection of laws.
of cyber laws fall under residuary powers
▪ Article 20 - Protection in respect of conviction
because the Constitution does not explicitly
for offences.
mention the internet or digital activities.
▪ Article 21 - Protection of life and personal
• Space Exploration: Laws related to outer
liberty.
space and space exploration are also
▪ Article 21A - Right to elementary education.
considered residuary subjects as they are not
▪ Article 22 - Protection against arrest and
enumerated in any of the lists.
detention in certain cases.
• Atomic Energy: While energy production in conferring this power on the President is two-
general is listed, specific regulations and fold–
developments regarding atomic energy and • To prevent hasty and ill-considered
its use are covered under residuary powers. legislation by the Parliament.
42. Correct Answer: Option (3) • To prevent a legislation which may be
▪ Articles 256 to 263 in Part XI of the Constitution unconstitutional.
deal with the administrative relations between ▪ The veto power enjoyed by the executive in
the Centre and the states. modern states can be classified into the following
▪ The Constitution has placed two restrictions on four types:
the executive power of the states to ensure that • Absolute veto that is withholding of assent to
the Centre can exercise its executive power the bill passed by the legislature.
without any limitations. These restrictions are: • Qualified veto, which can be overridden by
• The executive power of every state must be the legislature with a higher majority.
used in a way that ensures compliance with • Suspensive veto, which can be overridden by
the laws made by Parliament and any the legislature with an ordinary majority.
existing laws that apply in the state. • Pocket veto that is, taking no action on the
• The executive power of the states must not bill passed by the legislature.
obstruct or hinder the exercise of the ▪ Of the above four, the President of India is vested
Centre's executive power within the state. with three– absolute veto, suspensive veto and
▪ Article 365 says that if a state does not follow pocket veto.
the directions given by the central government, ▪ A qualified veto is a legislative mechanism where
the President can decide that the state the executive (often a president or governor) has
government is not working according to the the power to veto a bill passed by the legislature,
Constitution. This means the President can then but this veto can be overridden by the legislature
impose President’s rule in the state under if they muster a higher majority than what was
Article 356. initially required to pass the bill.
▪ The Centre is empowered to give directions to ▪ There is no qualified veto in the case of Indian
the states with regard to the exercise of their President.
executive power in the following matters: 44. Correct Answer: Option (3)
• The construction and maintenance of ▪ The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed, and
means of communication(declared to be of he holds office during the pleasure of the
national or military importance) by the President.
state; ▪ However, this does not mean that the President
• The measures to be taken for the protection can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time.
of the railways within the state. ▪ As long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority
• The provision of adequate facilities for support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed
instruction in the mother tongue at the by the President. If he loses the confidence of the
primary stage of education to children Lok Sabha, he must resign, or the President can
belonging to linguistic minority groups in dismiss him.
the state. ▪ The Prime Minister stands at the head of the
• The drawing up and execution of the council of ministers, the other ministers cannot
specified schemes for the welfare of the function when the Prime Minister resigns or dies.
Scheduled Tribes in the state. ▪ In other words, the resignation or death of an
43. Correct Answer: Option (3) incumbent Prime Minister automatically
▪ The President has the veto power over the bills dissolves the council of ministers and thereby
passed by the Parliament, that is, he can generates a vacuum.
withhold his assent to the bills. The object of ▪ The resignation or death of any other minister,
on the other hand, merely creates a vacancy

which the Prime Minister may or may not like to ▪ Articles 245 to 255 in Part XI of the Constitution
fill. deal with the legislative relations between the
45. Correct Answer: Option (4) Centre and the states.
Centre state relations during Emergencies: ▪ The Indian Constitution divides the legislative
• During the operation of a national powers between the Centre and the states with
emergency (under Article 352), the Centre respect to both the territory and the subjects of
becomes entitled to give executive legislation.
directions to a state on ‘any’ matter. Thus, ▪ Further, the Constitution provides for the
the state governments are brought under parliamentary legislation in the state field under
the complete control of the Centre, though five extraordinary situations as well as the
they are not suspended. centre’s control overstate legislation in certain
• When the President’s Rule is imposed in a cases. Thus, there are four aspects in the Centre-
state (under Article356), the President can states legislative relations, viz.,
assume to himself the functions of the state • Territorial extent of Central and state
government and powers vested in the legislation
Governor or any other executive authority • Distribution of legislative subjects
in the state. • Parliamentary legislation in the state field
• During the operation of a financial • Centre’s control over state legislation
emergency (under Article 360), the Centre Extraordinary situations:
can direct the states to observe canons of ▪ Rajya Sabha Resolution (Article 249): By a two-
financial propriety and can give other thirds majority, the Rajya Sabha can declare it
necessary directions including the necessary for Parliament to make laws on a State
reduction of salaries of persons serving in List subject in the national interest.
the state. ▪ Implementing International Agreements (Article
46. Correct Answer: Option (4) 253): Parliament can legislate on State List
▪ The Constitution contains the following other subjects to fulfil international obligations.
provisions which enable the Centre to exercise ▪ Request from State Legislatures (Article 252): If
control over the state administration: legislatures of two or more states request a law
▪ Article 355 imposes two duties on the Centre: on a State List subject, Parliament can enact one
• To protect every state against external for those states.
aggression and internal disturbance. ▪ President's Rule (Article 356): During President's
• To ensure that the government of every Rule in a state, Parliament can legislate on any
state is carried on in accordance with the subject.
provisions of the Constitution. ▪ National Emergencies (Article 352): Parliament
▪ The governor of a state is appointed by the can make laws on State List subjects during a
President. national emergency.
▪ He holds office during the pleasure of the 48. Correct Answer: Option (1)
President. ▪ The Constitution provides for a three-fold
▪ In addition to the Constitutional head of the distribution of legislative subjects between the
state, the governor acts as an agent of the Centre and the states, viz., List-I (the Union List),
Centre in the state. List-II (the State List) and List-III (the Concurrent
▪ He submits periodical reports to the Centre List) in the Seventh Schedule.
about the administrative affairs of the state. ▪ The Constitution expressly secures the
▪ The state election commissioner, though predominance of the Union List over the State
appointed by the governor of the state, can be List and the Concurrent List and that of the
removed only by the President. Concurrent List over the State List.
47. Correct Answer: Option (4) ▪ Thus, in case of overlapping between the Union
List and the State List, the former should prevail.

▪ In case of overlapping between the Union List 50. Correct Answer: Option (4)
and the Concurrent List, it is again the former ▪ The Constitution (101st) Amendment Act, 2016
which should prevail. Where there is a conflict allows both the centre and states to levy the
between the Concurrent List and the State List, Goods and Services Tax (GST).
it is the former that should prevail. ▪ Before the 2016 amendment, taxation powers
▪ In case of a conflict between the Central law were divided between the centre and states.
and the state law on a subject enumerated in ▪ For example, while the centre exclusively taxed
the Concurrent List, the Central law prevails services, the states exclusively taxed goods at the
over the state law. time of sale.
• But, there is an exception. If the state law ▪ The 2016 amendment replaces various central
has been reserved for the consideration of and state taxes such as excise duty, service tax,
the president and has received his assent, sales tax, entry tax and entertainment tax with
then the state law prevails in that state. GST.
• But, it would still be competent for the ▪ While most goods and services will be covered
Parliament to override such a law by under GST, alcohol for human consumption will
subsequently making a law on the same remain outside its purview.
matter. ▪ Petroleum products are initially outside its
49. Correct Answer: Option (4) purview but may be brought under GST if the GST
Extra-Constitutional Devices for Centre-State Council so decides.
Cooperation: ▪ Under the GST framework: (i) the centre will levy
Non-Constitutional Advisory Bodies: and collect the Central GST, (ii) the states will levy
• NITI Aayog: Successor to the Planning and collect the State GST, on supply of goods and
Commission services within a state.
• National Integration Council ▪ The centre will levy the Integrated GST (IGST) on
• Central Council of Health and Family inter-state supply of goods and services, and
Welfare apportion the state’s share of tax to the state
• Central Council of Local Government where the good or service is consumed.
• Zonal Councils ▪ The 2016 Act requires Parliament to compensate
• North-Eastern Council states for any revenue loss owing to the
• Central Council of Indian Medicine implementation of GST.
▪ The 2016 Constitutional amendment creates a
• Central Council of Homoeopathy
GST Council consisting of the Union Finance
• Transport Development Council
Minister and representatives from all states to
• University Grants Commission
implement GST.
▪ Important Conferences:
▪ The Council decide upon subjects including:
• Governors’ Conference: Presided over by
• GST rates
the President.
• Taxes to be subsumed under GST
• Chief Ministers’ Conference: Presided over
• Goods and services to be covered under GST
by the Prime Minister.
• Model laws to be passed by Parliament and
• Chief Secretaries’ Conference: Presided
state assemblies
over by the Cabinet Secretary.
• Apportionment of IGST
• Conference of Inspector-General of Police
• Special provisions for the North-Eastern or
• Chief Justices’ Conference: Presided over by
Himalayan states
the Chief Justice of India.
• Conference of Vice-Chancellors
Issues creating tensions and conflicts between the
• Home Ministers’ Conference: Presided over
centre and states:
by the Central Home Minister.
• Law Ministers’ Conference: Presided over
by the Central Law Minister.
• The mode of appointment and dismissal of ▪ Impeachment is a quasi-judicial process in
governors has created tensions between Parliament.
the centre and states. ▪ Notably, nominated members of Parliament can
• The discriminatory and partisan role of participate in the impeachment process, despite
governors has led to conflicts between the not participating in the President's election.
centre and states. ▪ Conversely, elected members of state legislative
• The imposition of President’s Rule for assemblies and Union Territories (Delhi and
partisan interests has been a source of Puducherry) do not participate in the
contention. impeachment, although they do in the election.
• The deployment of central forces in the ▪ To date, no Indian President has been
states to maintain law and order has caused impeached.
disputes. 53. Correct Answer: Option (1)
• The reservation of state bills for the ▪ The Vice-President, like the President, is elected
consideration of the President has led to not directly by the people but by a method of
friction. indirect election.
• There is perceived discrimination in ▪ He is elected by the members of an electoral
financial allocations to the states. college consisting of the members of both
• The role of the Planning Commission in Houses of Parliament.
approving state projects has been ▪ Thus, this electoral college is different from the
contentious. electoral college for the election of the President
• The management of All-India Services (IAS, in the following two respects:
IPS, and IFS) has been a point of conflict. • It consists of both elected and nominated
• The use of electronic media for political members of the Parliament (in the case of
purposes has created tensions. the President, only elected members).
• The appointment of enquiry commissions • It does not include the members of the state
against chief ministers has led to disputes. legislative assemblies (in the case of the
• The sharing of finances between the centre President, the elected members of the state
and states has been contentious. legislative assemblies are included).
▪ All doubts and disputes in connection with
• Encroachment by the centre on the state
election of the Vice- President are inquired into
list has created conflicts.
and decided by the Supreme Court whose
decision is final.
▪ The President of India can be removed from
office through an impeachment process for
▪ All doubts and disputes in connection with
violation of the Constitution although the
election of the President are inquired into and
Constitution does not define this term.
decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is
▪ Impeachment charges can be initiated by either
final.
House of Parliament, requiring signatures from
▪ The election of a person as President cannot be
one-fourth of its members and a 14-day notice
challenged on the ground that the Electoral
to the President.
College was incomplete (i.e., existence of any
▪ The initiating House must pass the resolution
vacancy among the members of Electoral
with a two-thirds majority, after which it is sent
College).
to the other House for investigation.
▪ If the election of a person as President is declared
▪ The President is allowed to appear and be
void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him
represented during this investigation.
before the date of such declaration of the
▪ If the second House also passes the resolution
Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue
with a two-thirds majority, the President is
to remain in force.
removed from office from the date of passage.

Collective Responsibility: Manipur Sushri Anusuiya Uikye
▪ The principle of collective responsibility, Meghalaya Phagu Chauhan
fundamental to India's parliamentary system as Mizoram Kambhampati Haribabu
per Article 75, ensures that the Council of Nagaland La. Ganesan
Odisha Raghubar Das
Ministers is collectively accountable to the Lok
Punjab Banwarilal Purohit
Sabha.
Rajasthan Kalraj Mishra
▪ All ministers share joint responsibility for their Sikkim Lakshman Prasad Acharya
actions. Tamil Nadu R. N. Ravi
▪ If a no-confidence motion passes, the entire Telangana C.P. Radhakrishnan (Addl.
council will dissolve. Charge)
▪ Cabinet decisions bind all ministers, who must Tripura Indra Sena Reddy Nallu
support them publicly or resign, exemplified by Uttar Pradesh Anandiben Patel
historical resignations like those of Dr. B.R. Uttarakhand Gurmit Singh
West Bengal C.V. Ananda Bose
Ambedkar and C.D. Deshmukh.
Individual Responsibility:
▪ A governor possesses executive, legislative,
▪ Article 75 also establishes individual
financial and judicial powers more or less
responsibility, where ministers hold office at
analogous to the President of India.
the President's pleasure but can be removed on
▪ However, he has no diplomatic, military or
the Prime Minister's advice.
emergency powers like the president.
▪ This allows the Prime Minister to ensure
▪ The powers and functions of the governor can be
collective responsibility by asking dissenting
studied under the following heads:
ministers to resign or recommending their
Executive Powers:
dismissal.
▪ The governor appoints the chief minister and
Legal Responsibility:
other ministers, holding office at his pleasure.
▪ India's Constitution does not require
▪ Recommends the imposition of constitutional
presidential orders to be countersigned by
emergency in a state to the president
ministers, and courts cannot scrutinize the
Legislative Powers:
advice given to the President.
▪ The governor can summon, prorogue, and
▪ Unlike Britain, where ministers are legally
dissolve the state legislature.
responsible for their actions, India's system
▪ Decides on the question of disqualification of
lacks such legal accountability.
members of the state legislature in consultation
with the Election Commission
State Governor
Financial Powers:
Andhra Pradesh S. Abdul Nazeer
Arunachal Kaiwalya Trivikram Parnaik ▪ The governor ensures the Annual Financial
Pradesh Statement (state budget) is laid before the state
Assam Gulab Chand Kataria legislature.
Bihar Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar ▪ Money bills can only be introduced in the state
Chhattisgarh Biswa Bhusan Harichandan legislature with his prior recommendation.
Goa P.S. Sreedharan Pillai Judicial Powers:
Gujarat Acharya Dev Vrat ▪ The governor can grant pardons, reprieves,
Haryana Bandaru Dattatraya
respites, and remissions of punishment.
Himachal Shiv Pratap Shukla
▪ He is consulted by the President regarding the
Pradesh
Jharkhand C.P. Radhakrishnan appointment of judges to the concerned state
Karnataka Thaawarchand Gehlot High Court.
Kerala Arif Mohammed Khan 58. Correct Answer: Option (4)
Madhya Pradesh Mangubhai Chhaganbhai
Patel
Maharashtra Ramesh Bais

President Governor ▪ This mutual delegation of administrative
Can pardon, reprieve, Can pardon, reprieve, functions may be conditional or unconditional.
respite, remit, suspend, respite, remit, Delegation by Legislation
or commute the suspend, or commute ▪ The Constitution also makes provision for the
punishment or sentence the punishment or
entrustment of the executive functions of the
of any person convicted sentence of any
of any offense against a person convicted of Centre to a state without the consent of that
Central law any offense against a state.
state law ▪ In this case, the delegation is by the Parliament
Can pardon, reprieve, Cannot pardon a and not by the President.
respite, remit, suspend, death sentence. Can ▪ Thus, a law made by the Parliament on a subject
or commute a death suspend, remit, or of the Union List can:
sentence. Sole authority commute a death
to pardon a death sentence, but ultimate • Confer powers and impose duties on a state.
sentence. power lies with the • Authorize the conferring of powers and
President for pardon. imposition of duties by the Centre upon a
Can grant pardon, Does not possess any state (irrespective of the consent of the state
reprieve, respite,such power concerned).
suspension, remission, Constraints on State Legislature
or commutation in
▪ Notably, the state legislature cannot perform the
respect to punishment
or sentence by a court- same type of delegation.
martial (military court) ▪ From the above, it is clear that the mutual
59. Correct Answer: Option (3) delegation of functions between the Centre and
▪ The distribution of legislative powers between the state can take place either under an
the Centre and the states is rigid. agreement or by legislation.
▪ Consequently, the Centre cannot delegate its ▪ While the Centre can use both methods, a state
legislative powers to the states, and a single can only use the first method.
state cannot request the Parliament to make a 60. Correct Answer: Option (4)
law on a state subject. ▪ The Constitution does not specify the size of the
▪ The distribution of executive power generally state council of ministers or the ranking of
follows the distribution of legislative powers. ministers.
However, this rigid division in the executive ▪ They are determined by the chief minister
sphere may lead to occasional conflicts according to the exigencies of the time and
between the two. requirements of the situation.
▪ To mitigate rigidity and avoid a deadlock ▪ The cabinet ministers head the important
situation, the Constitution provides for departments of the state government like home,
intergovernmental delegation of executive education, finance, agriculture and so forth.
functions. ▪ The term ‘ministry’ or ‘ministries’ is used only in
Intergovernmental Delegation of Executive the centre and not in the states.
Functions: ▪ In other words, the state government is divided
Delegation by Agreement into departments and not ministries.
▪ President to State Government: The President 61. Correct Answer: Option (4)
may, with the consent of the state government, ▪ The procedure for the amendment of the
entrust any of the executive functions of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is as
Centre to that government. follows:
▪ Governor to Central Government: Conversely, ▪ An amendment of the Constitution can be
the Governor of a state may, with the consent initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the
of the Central government, entrust any of the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in
executive functions of the state to the Centre. the state legislatures.

▪ The bill can be introduced either by a minister ▪ Extent of the executive power of the Union and
or by a private member and does not require the states.
prior permission of the president. ▪ Supreme Court and high courts.
▪ The bill must be passed in each House by a ▪ Distribution of legislative powers between the
special majority, that is, a majority of the total Union and the states.
membership of the House and a majority of ▪ Goods and Services Tax Council.
two-thirds of the members of the House ▪ Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
present and voting. ▪ Representation of states in Parliament.
▪ Each House must pass the bill separately. In ▪ Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
case of a disagreement between the two and its procedure (Article 368 itself).
Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint 63. Correct Answer: Option (1)
sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of ▪ The power to initiate an amendment to the
deliberation and passage of the bill. Constitution of India lies with the Parliament.
▪ If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions ▪ Hence, unlike in USA, the state legislatures
of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by cannot initiate any bill or proposal for amending
the legislatures of half of the states by a simple the Constitution except in one case that is,
majority, that is, a majority of the members of passing a resolution requesting the Parliament
the House present and voting. for the creation or abolition of legislative councils
▪ After duly passed by both the Houses of in the states.
Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, ▪ Major part of the Constitution can be amended
where necessary, the bill is presented to the by the Parliament alone either by a special
president for assent. majority or by a simple majority.
▪ The president must give his assent to the bill. He ▪ Only in few cases, the consent of the state
can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor legislatures is required and that too, only half of
return the bill for reconsideration of the them, while in USA, it is three-fourths of the
Parliament. states.
▪ After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an 64. Correct Answer: Option (2)
Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) and ▪ Part VII (dealing with Part-B states) was deleted
the Constitution stands amended in accordance by the 7th Amendment Act (1956).
with the terms of the Act. ▪ Part IV-A (Fundamental Duties) and Part XIV-A
62. Correct Answer: Option (1) (Tribunals) were added by the 42nd Amendment
Amendment by Simple Majority of Parliament: Act (1976).
▪ Admission or establishment of new states ▪ Part IX-A (The Municipalities) was added by the
▪ Formation of new states and alteration of areas, 74th Amendment Act (1992).
boundaries or names of existing states ▪ Part IX-B (The Co-operative Societies) was added
▪ Abolition or creation of legislative councils in by the 97th Amendment Act (2011).
states 65. Correct Answer: Option (4)
▪ Second Schedule ▪ In Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) Supreme
▪ Fifth Schedule Court held that the Preamble can be amended,
▪ Sixth Schedule subject to the condition that no amendment is
▪ Citizenship–acquisition and termination done to the basic features.
▪ Elections to Parliament and state legislatures ▪ In the Berubari Union (1960) case Supreme Court
Amendment by Special Majority of Parliament: held that preamble was not the part of the
▪ Fundamental Rights constitution but it was opined wrong in
▪ Directive Principles of State Policy Kesavananda Bharathi case.
Amendment by Special Majority of Parliament and ▪ As Rule of law is the basic element of the
Ratification of States: constitution. So it cannot be amended by the
▪ Election of the President and its manner. Parliament.

▪ Fundamental Rights, which are ‘sacrosanct’ in Article 26 - Every religious denomination or any ▪
nature. of its section shall have the right to manage its
• Therefore, Fundamental Rights cannot be religious affairs.
amended for the implementation of the ▪ The rights under Article 26 are subject to public
Directive Principles. order, morality and health but not subject to
• Article 44 mentions Uniform Civil Code for other provisions relating to the Fundamental
the citizens. Which is the part of DPSP, so Rights.
FRs cannot be amended to implement 69. Correct Answer: Option (3)
Uniform Civil Code. ▪ 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 has added a new
66. Correct Answer: Option (4) Part-IX to the Constitution of India.
Key changes between 2008 Bill and Bill introduced ▪ This part is entitled as ‘The Panchayats’ and
in 2023 consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O.
Bill introduced in Bill ▪ In addition, the act has also added a new
2008 as passed by introduced Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution.
Rajya Sabha in 2023 ▪ This schedule contains 29 functional items of the
Reservatio One-third of Lok One-third panchayats. It deals with Article 243-G.
n in Lok Sabha seats in each seats to be ▪ These principles are based on Gandhian
Sabha state/UT to be reserved ideology.
reserved for women for women ▪ The act has given a practical shape to Article 40
in Lok of the Constitution which says that, “The State
Sabha and shall take steps to organise village panchayats
State and endow them with such powers and authority
Assemblies as may be necessary to enable them to function
Rotation of Reserved seats to be Reserved as units of self-government.”
Seats rotated after every seats to be ▪ This article forms a part of the Directive
general election to rotated Principles of State Policy.
Parliament/legislativ after every 70. Correct Answer: Option (2)
e assembly delimitatio ▪ Lord Ripon’s Resolution of 1882 has been hailed
n exercise as the ‘Magna Carta’ of local self-government.
67. Correct Answer: Option (3) ▪ The resolution stated that all existing boards will
▪ Sixth Schedule deals with the provisions relating have 2/3rd majority of non-officials who had to
to the administration of tribal areas in the be elected and the chairman of these bodies had
states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and to be from amongst elected non-officials.
Mizoram. ▪ He is called as the father of local self-government
▪ The Governor is empowered to organise and re- in India.
organise the autonomous districts. 71. Correct Answer: Option (3)
▪ Thus, he can increase or decrease their areas or Wards Committees
change their names or define their boundaries ▪ There shall be constituted a wards committee,
and so on. consisting of one or more wards, within the
▪ If there are different tribes in an autonomous territorial area of a municipality having
district, the Governor can divide the district into population of three lakh or more.
several autonomous regions. ▪ The state legislature may make provision with
▪ Sixth Schedule of the Constitution can be respect to the composition and the territorial
amended by a simple majority (majority of area of a wards committee and the manner in
more than 50% of the members present and which the seats in a wards committee shall be
voting in the House) of the two Houses of filled.
Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. 72. Correct Answer: Option (1)
68. Correct Answer: Option (4) ▪ 74th Amendment Act of 1992 provides for a five-
year term of office for every municipality.
▪ However, it can be dissolved before the Under Article 323 B, the Parliament and the state ▪
completion of its term. legislatures are authorised to provide for the
▪ Further, the fresh elections to constitute a establishment of tribunals for the adjudication of
municipality shall be completed disputes relating to elections to Parliament and
• Before the expiry of its duration of five state legislatures and other matters.
years; or 75. Correct Answer: Option (2)
• In case of dissolution, before the expiry of a ▪ Chief Electoral Officer (CEO): The CEO of a state/
period of six months from the date of its Union Territory is authorised to supervise the
dissolution. election work in the state/Union Territory
▪ But, where the remainder of the period (for subject to the overall superintendence, direction
which the dissolved municipality would have and control of the Election Commission.
continued) is less than six months, it shall not be ▪ Returning Officer (RO): The RO of a
necessary to hold any election for constituting Parliamentary or assembly constituency is
the new municipality for such period. responsible for the conduct of elections in the
▪ If the municipality is dissolved before the Parliamentary or assembly constituency
completion of its term, the next elected concerned.
municipality will serve for the remaining term. ▪ Electoral Registration Officer (ERO): The ERO is
73. Correct Answer: Option (1) responsible for the preparation of electoral rolls
▪ A notified area committee is created for the for a Parliamentary / assembly constituency.
administration of two types of areas ▪ The Presiding Officer with the assistance of
• A fast-developing town due to polling officers conducts the poll at a polling
industrialisation station.
• A town which does not yet fulfil all the ▪ The District Election Officer appoints the
conditions necessary for the constitution of Presiding Officers and the Polling Officers. In the
a municipality, but which otherwise is case of Union Territories, such appointments are
considered important by the state made by the Returning Officers.
government. 76. Correct Answer: Option (4)
▪ Since it is established by a notification in the ▪ A five-judge constitution Bench in 2006, in the
government gazette, it is called as notified area case of Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India held that
committee. the right to vote (or the right to elect as it was
▪ Unlike the municipality, it is an entirely called) is “pure and simple, a statutory right”.
nominated body, that is, all the members of a This means that voting is not a fundamental right
notified area committee including the chairman and can be repealed.
are nominated by the state government. ▪ Section 62 of the Representation of Peoples Act
• Thus, it is neither an elected body nor a provides a series of restrictions on the right to
statutory body. vote including sub-clause (5) which states in
74. Correct Answer: Option (3) broad terms “No person shall vote at any election
Election Petitions: if he is confined in a prison, whether under a
▪ Any elector or candidate can file an election sentence of imprisonment or transportation or
petition if he or she thinks there has been otherwise, or is in the lawful custody of the
malpractice during the election. police”.
▪ An election petition is not an ordinary civil suit,77. Correct Answer: Option (1)
but treated as a contest in which the whole ▪ The model code lays down broad guidelines as to
constituency is involved. how the political parties and candidates should
▪ Election petitions are tried by the High Court of conduct themselves during the election
the state involved, and if upheld can even lead campaign.
to the restaging of the election in that ▪ It is intended to maintain the election campaign
constituency. on healthy lines, avoid clashes and conflicts
between political parties or their supporters and
to ensure peace and order during the campaign ▪ This mechanism aims to foster a cohesive judicial
period and thereafter, until the results are system that operates uniformly across the
declared. country, ensuring consistency and high standards
▪ The Model Code of Conduct was agreed to by in the judiciary.
all the political parties in 1968. Legislative Provisions and Processes:
▪ The Election Commission first effectively put to ▪ Creation by Parliament: The Parliament holds the
use the Model Code of Conduct in the year 1991 authority to establish new all-India services if the
to ensure fair elections and a level playing field. Rajya Sabha, by a two-thirds majority of those
▪ MCC is moral binding not legally binding to the present and voting, passes a resolution stating
political parties and the candidates. that such a service is necessary in the national
78. Correct Answer: Option (4) interest. This procedural requirement
The Representation of the People Act, 1951 underscores the significance of national
contains provisions relating to the following consensus, especially given India's federal
electoral matters: structure where states retain significant judicial
▪ Qualifications and disqualifications for powers.
membership of Parliament and State ▪ Though the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 made
Legislatures the provision for the creation of all India judicial
▪ Notification of general elections service, no such law has been made so far.
▪ Administrative machinery for the conduct of ▪ The Indian Forest Service was added to the list of
elections All-India Services through the 42nd Amendment
▪ Registration of political parties Act of 1976.
▪ Conduct of elections • This amendment played a significant role in
▪ Free supply of certain material to candidates of enhancing the structure of All-India Services
recognised political parties by incorporating the Indian Forest Service,
▪ Disputes regarding elections thus extending the reach of all-India services
▪ Corrupt practices and electoral offences to the management and conservation of
▪ Powers of Election Commission in connection India's forest resources.
with inquiries as to disqualifications of 81. Correct Answer: Option (3)
members. ▪ The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act gave
▪ Bye-elections and time limit for filling vacancies. practical shape to Article 40 of the Directive
▪ Miscellaneous provisions relating to elections. Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
▪ Barring the jurisdiction of civil courts. ▪ Article 40 mandates the State to organize village
79. Correct Answer: Option (3) panchayats and endow them with such powers
▪ Articles 82 and 170 of the Constitution of India and authority to enable them to function as units
provide for readjustment and the division of of self-government.
each State into territorial constituencies ▪ This amendment established a uniform structure
(Parliamentary constituencies and Assembly of Panchayati Raj institutions across the country,
constituencies) on the basis of the 2001 census promoting local self-governance at the
by such authority and in such manner as grassroots level.
Parliament may, by law, determine. ▪ The ideology behind this amendment is rooted in
▪ The present delimitation of Parliamentary and Gandhian principles, which advocate for
Assembly constituencies is based on the 1971 decentralized governance and the
census. empowerment of rural communities.
80. Correct Answer: Option (1) ▪ Mahatma Gandhi envisioned village panchayats
▪ The concept of All-India Judicial Services (AIJS) as fundamental units of administration, capable
is rooted in Article 312 of the Indian of self-management and addressing local issues
Constitution, which provides the framework for effectively.
creating new all-India services, including an all-
India judicial service.
▪ The 73rd Amendment aligns with this vision by This amendment aimed to streamline and unify ▪
ensuring that panchayats have the authority the indirect tax system in India.
and resources to implement development ▪ The following articles were amended or inserted
programs and enhance socio-economic through this Act:
conditions in rural areas. New Articles Inserted:
82. Correct Answer: Option (2) ▪ Article 246A: Grants concurrent powers to the
▪ The subject of ‘Local Government’ is mentioned Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws
in the State List under the Seventh Schedule of with respect to GST.
the Constitution. ▪ Article 269A: Specifies the levy and collection of
▪ Specifically, it falls under Entry 5 of the State GST on inter-state trade or commerce.
List, which includes the administration of local ▪ Article 279A: Establishes the GST Council,
bodies such as municipalities and panchayats. responsible for making recommendations on key
▪ This placement reflects the federal structure of GST-related issues to the Union and State
India, where states are empowered to legislate Governments.
on matters concerning local governance. Amended Articles:
▪ By placing local government in the State List, ▪ Article 248: Amended to exclude GST from the
the Constitution grants state legislatures the residuary powers of legislation.
authority to make laws and regulations ▪ Article 250: Allows Parliament to legislate with
pertaining to local bodies. respect to GST during a national emergency.
▪ This decentralization is crucial for tailoring ▪ Article 268: Altered to abolish taxes on the sale
governance to the specific needs and conditions or purchase of goods and services.
of different states. ▪ Article 270: Modified to include the
▪ The states have the autonomy to create and apportionment of GST between the Union and
manage panchayats and municipalities, the States.
ensuring that local governance structures are ▪ Article 366: Added definitions for GST-related
responsive to regional requirements. terms.
83. Correct Answer: Option (4) ▪ Article 279: Amended to include provisions for
▪ The 73rd Amendment Act empowers the calculation and distribution of GST revenue.
Panchayati Raj institutions at the village level.85. Correct Answer: Option (1)
However, the act itself doesn't provide a ▪ The Supreme Court of India currently has a
specific definition of a "village." sanctioned bench strength of 34 judges,
• Section 243A (g) of the Act states: “village" including the Chief Justice of India.
means a village specified by the Governor ▪ Any increase in the bench strength of the
by public notification to be a village for the Supreme Court requires an amendment to the
purposes of this Part and includes a group Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956.
of villages so specified. ▪ The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed
▪ Here, the Governor of each state holds the by the President.
authority to define what constitutes a village ▪ The chief justice is appointed by the president
under the act through a public notification. after consultation with such judges of the
▪ This flexibility allows states to consider factors Supreme Court and high courts as he deems
like geographical conditions and administrative necessary.
structures when designating villages. ▪ The other judges are appointed by President
84. Correct Answer: Option (4) after consultation with the chief justice and such
▪ The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, other judges of the Supreme Court and the high
enacted in 2016, is a significant reform in the courts as he deems necessary.
Indian taxation system, introducing the Goods ▪ The consultation with the chief justice is
and Services Tax (GST). obligatory in the case of appointment of a judge
other than Chief justice.
▪ The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, ▪ Giving representation to the chairpersons of the
enacted in 1992, aimed to strengthen the village panchayats in the intermediate
Panchayati Raj system in India, enhancing local panchayats or in the case of a state not having
self-governance in rural areas. intermediate panchayats, in the district
▪ This amendment introduced a three-tier panchayats.
structure of Panchayati Raj institutions (PRIs) at ▪ Giving representation to the chairpersons of the
the village, intermediate and district levels. intermediate panchayats in the district
Recommendations for the Three-Tier Structure: panchayats.
▪ Balwantrai Mehta Committee (1957): The ▪ Giving representation to members of the
Balwantrai Mehta Committee is often credited Parliament (both the Houses) and the state
with conceptualizing the three-tier Panchayati legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats
Raj system. at different levels falling within their
▪ The committee recommended the constituencies.
establishment of: ▪ Providing reservation of seats (both members
• Gram Panchayat at the village level and chairpersons) for backward classes in
• Panchayat Samiti at the block level panchayats at any level.
• Zila Parishad at the district level ▪ Granting powers and authority to the panchayats
▪ Ashok Mehta Committee (1978): The Ashok to enable them to function as institutions of self-
Mehta Committee further reinforced the need government (in brief, making them autonomous
for a robust three-tier structure but suggested bodies).
a two-tier system with: ▪ Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon
• Mandal Panchayat at the intermediate panchayats to prepare plans for economic
level. development and social justice; and to perform
• Zila Parishad at the district level. some or all of the 29 functions listed in the
• Though it recommended a two-tier system, Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution.
its emphasis on district-level governance ▪ Granting financial powers to the panchayats, that
influenced the final structure. is, authorizing them to levy, collect and
▪ G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985): The G.V.K. Rao appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.
Committee stressed strengthening the three- ▪ Assigning to a panchayat the taxes, duties, tolls
tier structure by recommending measures to and fees levied and collected by the state
empower and provide autonomy to PRIs, government.
ensuring better resource allocation and ▪ Making the grants-in-aid to the panchayats from
administrative control at the local levels. the consolidated fund of the state.
▪ L.M. Singhvi Committee (1986): The L.M. ▪ Providing for constitution of funds for crediting
Singhvi Committee underscored the need for all moneys of the panchayats.
constitutional recognition of PRIs, leading to the 88. Correct Answer: Option (4)
73rd Amendment. It recommended: ▪ At present, ten states of India have scheduled
• Constitutional status for PRIs. areas.
• Regular elections and financial provisions to ▪ These are: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,
ensure effective functioning. Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal
87. Correct Answer: Option (4) Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha
Voluntary Provisions under 73rd Constitutional and Rajasthan.
Amendment: ▪ Presently, there are a total of ten tribal areas
▪ Endowing the Gram Sabha with powers and (autonomous districts) in the four states of
functions at the village level. Assam (3), Meghalaya (3), Tripura (1) and
▪ Determining the manner of election of the Mizoram (3).
chairperson of the village panchayat. 89. Correct Answer: Option (3)
Lowering of Voting Age:

▪ The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 • Domicile or residency requirement of a
reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years. candidate contesting an election to the Rajya
▪ This reform aimed to provide the Sabha was removed. Prior to this, a
unrepresented youth of the country an candidate had to be an elector in the state
opportunity to express their views and become from where he was to be elected. Now, it
an active part of the political process. would be sufficient if he is an elector in any
▪ By lowering the voting age, a larger segment of parliamentary constituency in the country.
the population was empowered to participate • Introducing open ballot system, instead of
in elections, thereby strengthening democratic secret ballot system, for elections to the
engagement. Rajya Sabha. This was done to curb cross-
Electronic Voting Machines: voting and to wipe out the role of money
▪ EVMs were first used experimentally in selected power during Rajya Sabha elections. Under
constituencies during the 1998 Assembly the new system, an elector belonging to a
elections in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and political party has to show the ballot paper
Delhi. after marking his vote to a nominated agent
▪ Their first full deployment in a general election of that political party.
occurred in the 1999 Assembly elections in Goa. 91. Correct Answer: Option (2)
▪ The use of EVMs has significantly enhanced the ▪ The provision for NOTA has been made since
efficiency and reliability of the voting process. General Election to State Legislative Assemblies
Elector’s Photo Identity Card (EPIC) of Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Mizoram, NCT
▪ In 1993, the Election Commission decided to of Delhi and Rajasthan in 2013 and continued in
issue Elector’s Photo Identity Cards (EPIC) to all the General Election to State Legislative
registered voters to curb bogus voting and Assemblies of Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal
impersonation. Pradesh, Odisha and Sikkim in 2014 along with
▪ The electoral roll, which is updated annually the General Elections to the Sixteenth Lok Sabha
with January 1 as the qualifying date, serves as (2014).
the basis for issuing EPICs. ▪ The voters polled against the NOTA option are
▪ This ongoing initiative ensures that eligible not taken into account for calculating the total
voters are provided with identity cards, thereby valid voters polled by the contesting candidates
simplifying and securing the voting process. for the purpose of return of security deposits to
Voting through Postal Ballot: candidates.
▪ A provision for voting by postal ballot was ▪ Even if the number of electors opting for NOTA
introduced in 1999, enabling certain classes of options is more than the number of votes polled
voters to cast their votes remotely. by any of the candidates, the candidate who
▪ This measure allows the Election Commission, secures the largest number of votes has to be
in consultation with the government, to notify declared elected.
specific classes of persons eligible to vote by 92. Correct Answer: Option (4)
postal ballot. ▪ In 2018, the central government notified the
▪ This reform ensures that voters who are unable Electoral Bond Scheme.
to physically attend polling stations can still ▪ This scheme was announced in the 2017 budget.
participate in the electoral process, thereby ▪ It is touted as an alternative to cash donations
increasing voter turnout and inclusivity. made to the political parties.
90. Correct Answer: Option (4) ▪ It is aimed at bringing clean money and
Changes in Rajya Sabha Elections: substantial transparency into the system of
▪ In 2003, the following two changes were political funding.
introduced with respect to elections to the ▪ The salient features of the scheme are:
Rajya Sabha: • The electoral bond means a bond issued in
the nature of promissory note which is a

bearer banking instrument and does not The spending limits have been increased over the ▪
carry the name of the buyer or payee. years, including from 2019, when these were Rs.
• The electoral bonds may be purchased by a 70 lakh for Lok Sabha candidates and Rs.28 lakh
citizen of India or entities incorporated or for Assembly contenders.
established in India. 95. Correct Answer: Option (1)
• The electoral bonds can be used for making ▪ The 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, introduced
donations to only those registered political significant changes to the Indian Constitution
parties which have secured not less than aimed at addressing political defections.
one per cent of the votes polled in the last ▪ This amendment is popularly known for
general election to the Lok Sabha or the instituting the anti-defection law.
State legislative Assembly. Key Changes:
• The electoral bonds can be encashed by an ▪ Addition of the Tenth Schedule: The most
eligible political party only through a bank notable change was the insertion of the Tenth
account with the authorized bank. Schedule, which laid down the process for
• The electoral bonds are issued in the disqualification of members on grounds of
denomination of ₹1000, ₹10000, ₹100000, defection.
₹1000000 and ₹10000000. ▪ This schedule provides detailed provisions on
• The information furnished by the buyer is when a Member of Parliament or state
treated confidential by the authorized bank legislature is deemed to have defected from their
and is not to be disclosed to any authority party.
for any purposes, except when demanded ▪ Amendment of Article 102: The amendment
by a competent court or upon registration modified Article 102, which deals with
of criminal case by any law enforcement disqualification for membership of either House
agency. of Parliament. It included provisions to disqualify
93. Correct Answer: Option (3) members on the grounds of defection as outlined
▪ In 2018 budget, the receiving of foreign funds in the Tenth Schedule.
by the political parties has been allowed. ▪ Amendment of Article 191: Similarly, Article 191,
▪ In other words, the political parties can now which pertains to disqualification for
receive funds from the foreign companies. membership of state legislatures, was amended
▪ Accordingly, the Foreign Contribution to incorporate the anti-defection measures
(Regulation) Act, 2010, has been amended. specified in the Tenth Schedule.
▪ Under this amendment, the definition of a 96. Correct Answer: Option (3)
foreign company has been modified. Anti-Defection Law: Exceptional Cases
94. Correct Answer: Option (3) Merger of Political Parties:
▪ With the general elections underway, among ▪ The anti-defection law, outlined in the Tenth
the Election Commission’s (EC) key Schedule of the Indian Constitution, does not
responsibilities is monitoring poll expenditure, apply when a merger occurs.
both by parties and individual candidates, ▪ Specifically, if two-thirds or more members of a
through its own observers and state and central legislative party decide to merge with another
enforcement agencies. party, they are exempt from disqualification.
▪ While there is no cap on how much parties can ▪ This provision aims to allow genuine party
spend, candidates are limited to Rs.95 lakh for reorganizations while preventing frivolous
Lok Sabha constituencies and Rs.40 lakh for defections.
Assembly seats. Role of the Speaker or Chairman:
▪ In some smaller states and Union Territories, ▪ The law grants the Speaker or Chairman of the
the cap is Rs.75 lakh and Rs.28 lakh for the Lok legislative house the authority to decide on
Sabha and Assemblies, respectively. disqualification cases.
▪ However, their decisions can be subjected to
judicial review, which means the law might not
apply if the Speaker or Chairman’s decision is • Prior to six months of filing nomination,
challenged and overturned by the judiciary. whether the candidate is accused in any
Protection for Presiding Officers pending case, of any offence punishable with
▪ Presiding officers such as the Speaker, imprisonment for two years or more, and in
Chairman, and Deputy Chairman of legislative which charges were framed or cognizance
bodies are protected from disqualification was taken by a court; if so, the details thereof
under the anti-defection law. • The assets (immovable, movable, bank
▪ This exemption ensures the neutrality and balances, etc.) of a candidate and his/ her
independent functioning of these officers. spouse and that of dependents
97. Correct Answer: Option (1) • Liabilities, if any, particularly whether there
▪ Political Party Switching: A common instance of are any dues of any public financial
defection in India involves politicians switching institution or government dues
parties, often seen during elections or • The educational qualifications of the
significant parliamentary votes. candidate furnishing of any false information
▪ Legislative Voting: Another example is when in the affidavit is now an electoral offence
elected representatives vote against their punishable with imprisonment up to six
party's directives. The Anti-Defection Law, as months or fine or both.
per the Tenth Schedule of the Indian 99. Correct Answer: Option (1)
Constitution, penalizes such actions. This law ▪ In the Mandal case judgement (1992), the
was invoked during the 2020 Rajasthan political Supreme Court directed the central government
crisis, where some Congress MLAs were to constitute a permanent statutory body to
accused of defying the party's whip. examine the complaints of under inclusion,
▪ Publicly Disagreeing with Party Leadership: overinclusion or non-inclusion of any class of
While dissent within a party is not uncommon, citizens in the list of backward classes.
it does not necessarily constitute defection ▪ Accordingly, the National Commission for
unless it leads to actions like voting against the Backward Classes (NCBC) was set up in 1993.
party's directives. ▪ Later, the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018
▪ Failing to Attend Party Meetings Regularly: conferred a constitutional status on the
Non-attendance in party meetings may indicate Commission.
a lack of commitment but does not amount to ▪ For this purpose, the amendment inserted a new
defection unless it leads to actions against party Article 338-B in the constitution.
interests. ▪ Hence, the Commission ceased to be a statutory
▪ Voting Based on Personal Gain rather Than body and became a constitutional body.
Party Ideology: While this behaviour is 100. Correct Answer: Option (3)
detrimental to ethical governance, it falls under ▪ Originally, the Constitution of India did not make
corruption laws rather than anti-defection laws any provision with respect to the Special Officer
unless it involves voting against party lines. for Linguistic Minorities.
98. Correct Answer: Option (4) ▪ Later, the States Reorganisation Commission
▪ In 2003, the election Commission issued an (1953–55) made a recommendation in this
order directing every candidate seeking regard.
election to the Parliament or a State Legislature ▪ Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional
to furnish on his nomination paper the Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article
information on the following matters. 350- B in Part XVII of the Constitution which deals
• Whether the candidate has been convicted with Special Officer for linguistic minorities.
or acquitted or discharged in any criminal 101. Correct Answer: Option (1)
offence in the past? Whether he/she was ▪ In pursuance of the provision of Article 350-B of
imprisoned or fined? the Constitution, the office of the Special Officer
for Linguistic Minorities was created in 1957.

▪ He is designated as the Commissioner for 104. Correct Answer: Option (3)
Linguistic Minorities. ▪ The Chairperson and members of National
▪ The Commissioner has his headquarters at Human Rights Commission (NHRC) hold office for
Allahabad (Uttar Pradesh). a term of three years or until they attain the age
▪ He has three regional offices at Belgaum of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
(Karnataka), Chennai (Tamil Nadu) and Kolkata ▪ They are eligible for re-appointment but after
(West Bengal). their tenure, the chairperson and members are
• Each is headed by an Assistant not eligible for further employment under the
Commissioner. Central or a state government.
102. Correct Answer: Option (3) ▪ The president can remove the chairperson or any
The objectives of the Special Officer for Linguistic member from the office under the following
Minorities are: circumstances:
▪ To provide equal opportunities to the linguistic • If he is adjudged an insolvent.
minorities for inclusive development and • If he engages, during his term of office, in any
national integration paid employment outside the duties of his
▪ To spread awareness amongst the linguistic office.
minorities about the safeguards available to • If he is unfit to continue in office by reason of
them. infirmity of mind or body
▪ To ensure effective implementation of the • If he is of unsound mind and stand so
safeguards provided for the linguistic minorities declared by a competent court.
in the Constitution and other safeguards, which • If he is convicted and sentenced to
are agreed to by the states / U.T.s imprisonment for an offence.
▪ To handle the representations for redress of 105. Correct Answer: Option (3)
grievances related to the safeguards for The functions of the National Human Rights
linguistic minorities. Commission (NHRC) are:
103. Correct Answer: Option (1) ▪ To inquire into any violation of human rights or
▪ The National Human Rights Commission is a negligence in the prevention of such violation by
statutory (and not a constitutional) body. a public servant, either suo motu or on a petition
▪ It was established in 1993 under a legislation presented to it or on an order of a court.
enacted by the Parliament, namely, the ▪ To intervene in any proceeding involving
Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. allegation of violation of human rights pending
▪ The commission is a multi-member body before a court.
consisting of a chairperson and five members. ▪ To visit jails and detention places to study the
▪ The chairperson should be a retired chief justice living conditions of inmates and make
of India or a judge of the Supreme Court and recommendation thereon.
members should be a serving or retired judge of ▪ To review the constitutional and other legal
the Supreme Court, a serving or retired chief safeguards for the protection of human rights
justice of a high court and three persons (out of and recommend measures for their effective
which at least one should be a woman) having implementation.
knowledge or practical experience with respect ▪ To review the factors including acts of terrorism
to human rights. that inhibit the enjoyment of human rights and
▪ The chairperson and members are appointed by recommend remedial measures.
the president on the recommendations of a six- ▪ To study treaties and other international
member committee consisting of the prime instruments on human rights and make
minister as its head, the Speaker of the Lok recommendations for their effective
Sabha, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, implementation.
leaders of the Opposition in both the Houses of ▪ To undertake and promote research in the field
Parliament and the Central home minister. of human rights.

▪ To spread human rights literacy among the Commission, then the State Human Rights
people and promote awareness of the Commission does not inquire into that case.
safeguards available for the protection of these 108. Correct Answer: Option (3)
rights. Human Rights Courts:
▪ To encourage the efforts of nongovernmental ▪ The Protection of Human Rights Act (1993) also
organisations (NGOs) working in the field of provides for the establishment of Human Rights
human rights. Court in every district for the speedy trial of
▪ To undertake such other functions as it may violation of human rights.
consider necessary for the promotion of human ▪ These courts can be set up by the state
rights. government only with the concurrence of the
106. Correct Answer: Option (4) Chief Justice of the High Court of that state.
The various human rights issues taken up by the ▪ For every Human Rights Court, the state
National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) are as government specifies a public prosecutor or
follows: appoints an advocate (who has practiced for
▪ Abolition of Bonded Labour seven years) as a special public prosecutor.
▪ Functioning of the Mental Hospitals at Ranchi, 109. Correct Answer: Option (1)
Agra and Gwalior ▪ The National Foundation for Communal
▪ Functioning of the Government Protective Harmony (NFCH) is an autonomous organization
Home (Women), Agra under the Ministry of Home Affairs, established
▪ Issues Concerning Right to Food in 1992.
▪ Review of the Child Marriage Restraint Act, ▪ It works to promote communal harmony and
1929 national integration in India.
▪ Abolition of Child Labour Aim:
▪ Trafficking in Women and Children: Manual for ▪ Providing assistance to the children of families
the Judiciary for Gender Sensitisation affected by communal, caste, ethnic, or terrorist
▪ Maternal Anaemia and Human Rights violence which fractures social harmony, as may
▪ Rehabilitation of Destitute Women in be decided by the Governing Council from time
Vrindavan to time, in particular for their care, education,
▪ Combating Sexual Harassment of Women at the and training.
Work Place ▪ Promoting communal harmony and national
▪ Harassment of Women Passengers in Trains integration, through scholarships, fellowships,
▪ Abolition of Manual Scavenging and studies which will highlight and strengthen
▪ Rights of the Disabled Persons the bonds of unity and affinity amongst different
▪ Issues Related to Right to Health religious and social groups in the country.
▪ Rights of Persons Affected by HIV / AIDS Objectives:
▪ Relief Work for the Victims of 1999 Orissa ▪ Conferring awards to individuals as well as
Cyclone organizations for outstanding contributions to
▪ Monitoring of Relief Measures undertaken after the cause of communal, caste, ethnic harmony,
Gujarat Earthquake (2001). Etc. and national integration.
107. Correct Answer: Option (2) ▪ Seeking cooperation of the Central
▪ A State Human Rights Commission can inquire Government/State Governments/Union
into violation of human rights only in respect of Territories/Public Sector Undertakings/Industrial
subjects mentioned in the State List (List-II) and & commercial organizations/voluntary and other
the Concurrent List (List-III) of the Seventh organizations for the promotion of the objectives
Schedule of the Constitution. of the Foundation.
▪ However, if any such case is already being ▪ Providing information services, setting up
inquired into by the National Human Rights libraries, bringing out journals, books, or other
Commission or any other Statutory forms of literature to promote the objectives of
the Foundation.
110. Correct Answer: Option (2) surveillance, government
▪ The demand for linguistic states emerged from counter- intelligence,
the desire for administrative convenience and terrorism countering
cultural coherence. within India foreign
influence
▪ The movement gained momentum with the
Legal Operates Operates
agitation led by Potti Sriramulu, a Gandhian Framework based on through
activist who undertook a hunger strike executive executive
demanding a separate state for Telugu- orders, no mandates, no
speaking people. formal formal
Formation of Andhra Pradesh legislative legislative
framework framework
▪ Following Potti Sriramulu's death during his fast
Public Guardian of Front line of
in December 1952, widespread protests and
Perception internal defense
civil unrest compelled the Indian government to security, against
act. criticized for external
▪ The then Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, political threats,
announced the formation of Andhra state on surveillance accused of
October 1, 1953, bifurcating the Telugu- interfering in
neighbors'
speaking regions from the Madras State.
affairs
Controversies Infringement Allegations of
Aspect Intelligence Research and on civil meddling in
Bureau (IB) Analysis Wing liberties, Pakistan and
(RAW) political bias other South
Scope Internal External Asian nations
intelligence intelligence 112. Correct Answer: Option (4)
and security and
National Investigation Agency (NIA):
international
Establishment and Mandate:
security
Purpose Domestic Foreign ▪ Enacted on December 31, 2008, the NIA emerged
threats, intelligence, as a response to the pressing need for a robust
counter- espionage, counterterrorism agency in India.
terrorism, covert ▪ Established under the NIA Act, 2008 it addresses
counter- operations the rising threats of cross-border terrorism and
espionage,
related criminal activities, as recommended by
internal
expert committees and governmental bodies.
insurgencies
Historical Established in Established in Role and Jurisdiction:
Context 1887; handled 1968 after the ▪ NIA operates as India's primary Central Counter
both internal 1962 Sino- Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency, empowered
and external Indian War to investigate and prosecute terrorism-related
intelligence offenses nationwide.
until 1968
▪ With concurrent jurisdiction, it tackles cases
Affiliation Ministry of Cabinet
involving complex inter-State and international
Home Affairs Secretariat,
reporting to linkages, including arms smuggling, drug
the Prime trafficking, counterfeit currency circulation, and
Minister infiltration.
Leadership Director of Secretary Functions and Achievements:
Intelligence (Research) in ▪ NIA excels in thorough investigations, evidence
Bureau (DIB) the Cabinet
collection, and prosecution of terrorist entities.
Secretariat
▪ Its proactive stance and collaborative efforts
Operational Domestic International
Focus security issues, espionage, have led to the dismantling of terrorist networks
political foreign and successful convictions.
▪ Through partnerships with state police, • Collection, analysis and dissemination of
intelligence agencies, and international information on cyber incidents.
counterparts, NIA continually strengthens its • Forecast and alerts of cyber security
capabilities to combat evolving threats. incidents
113. Correct Answer: Option (4) • Emergency measures for handling cyber
Historical Roots: security incidents
▪ The MNF traces its origins to the Mizo National • Coordination of cyber incident response
Famine Front (MNFF), established in 1959 by Pu activities.
Laldenga in response to the devastating • Issue guidelines, advisories, vulnerability
Mautam famine. notes and whitepapers relating to
▪ Originally focused on famine relief efforts, the information security practices, procedures,
MNFF garnered widespread support among prevention, response and reporting of cyber
Mizos, particularly youth, due to its grassroots incidents.
approach to addressing the crisis. • Such other functions relating to cyber
Rebellion and Transition: security as may be prescribed.
▪ The MNFF's discontent with the Indian central 115. Correct Answer: Option (3)
government's handling of the famine escalated ▪ Operation Blue Star was a significant event in the
into rebellion in 1966, marking the beginning of history of India that took place in June 1984.
years of armed conflict and illicit activities. ▪ It refers to the military operation ordered by the
▪ However, in 1986, the Government of India and Indian government to remove Sikh militants who
the MNF signed the Mizoram Accord, signalling had fortified themselves inside the Golden
a shift towards peaceful coexistence. Temple complex in Amritsar, Punjab.
▪ The accord pledged the MNF to abandon armed ▪ The operation resulted in a violent confrontation
conflict and pursue political means for between the Indian Army and the militants led by
achieving its goals. Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale.
Political Ascendancy: ▪ The Golden Temple, a sacred Sikh shrine, was
▪ Following the Mizoram Accord, the MNF significantly damaged during the operation, and
transitioned into a political party, contesting casualties were reported on both sides.
elections in Mizoram. ▪ Bhindranwale died in the operation on June 6,
▪ Over the years, it has secured victories in state 1984.
elections, with its president assuming the role 116. Correct Answer: Option (1)
of Mizoram's Chief Minister. ▪ The Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) was a
▪ The MNF's governance has seen both militant organization based in Sri Lanka.
challenges and achievements, reflecting its ▪ It was formed in 1976, its primary objective was
journey from rebellion to responsible state to establish an independent Tamil state in the
leadership. northern and eastern regions of Sri Lanka, known
114. Correct Answer: Option (4) as Tamil Eelam.
▪ CERT-In is operational since January 2004. The ▪ LTTE's tactics included guerrilla warfare, suicide
constituency of CERT-In is the Indian Cyber bombings, and political assassinations.
Community. ▪ LTTE emerged in response to perceived
▪ CERT-In is the national nodal agency for discrimination against Tamils by the Sri Lankan
responding to computer security incidents as government.
and when they occur. ▪ It was founded by Velupillai Prabhakaran, who
▪ In the Information Technology Amendment Act led the organization until his death in 2009.
2008, CERT-In has been designated to serve as ▪ LTTE's armed struggle intensified over the years,
the national agency to perform the following leading to a brutal civil war that lasted until 2009
functions in the area of cyber security: when the Sri Lankan military defeated the LTTE,
ending its insurgency.

117. Correct Answer: Option (4) 119. Correct Answer: Option (1)
▪ The purported objective of the National ▪ Lingua Franca: a language that is adopted as a
Socialist Council of Nagaland-Isak-Muivah common language between speakers whose
(NSCN-IM) is the establishment of a Nagalim native languages are different.
(Greater Nagaland). ▪ The Constitution imposes a duty upon the Centre
▪ It consisting of all the Naga-inhabited areas of to promote the spread and development of the
neighbouring Assam, Manipur, Arunachal Hindi language so that it may become the lingua
Pradesh and some portions Myanmar, which it franca of the composite culture of India.
considers to be the rightful homeland of the ▪ The enactment of the Official Language Act
Nagas. (1963) making Hindi as the Official Language of
▪ The proposed Nagalim spreads over the Union led to the rise of anti-Hindi agitation in
approximately 120000 sq. km. in contrast to the South India and West Bengal.
present State of Nagaland that has an area of ▪ Then, the Central government assured that
16,527 sq. km. English would continue as an ‘associate ‘official
▪ The NSCN-IM maintains that at present Nagalim language so long as the non-Hindi speaking
has been subdivided by the Government of states desire it.
India into four different administrative units: ▪ Moreover, the three-language formula (English,
Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Hindi and a regional language) for school system
Nagaland. is still not being implemented in Tamil Nadu.
▪ Likewise, Myanmar too has claimed parts of ▪ Consequently, Hindi could not emerge as the
Nagalim and has divided it under two lingua franca of the composite culture of India as
administrative units of Kachin State and Sagaing desired by the framers of the Constitution.
division. 120. Correct Answer: Option (1)
118. Correct Answer: Option (4) ▪ The position of the Governor is envisaged as an
▪ 73 amendment act gives a constitutional
rd
apolitical head who must act on the advice of the
status to the Panchayati raj institutions. Council of Ministers of the state.
▪ It has brought them under the purview of the ▪ However, the Governor enjoys certain powers
justiciable part of the Constitution. under the Constitution — such as giving or
▪ In other words, the state governments are withholding assent to a Bill passed by the state
under constitutional obligation to adopt the legislature; determining the time needed for a
new Panchayati raj system in accordance with party to prove its majority in the state Assembly;
the provisions of the act. or, in cases such as a hung verdict in an election,
▪ Consequently, neither the formation of which party must be called first to prove its
panchayats nor the holding of elections at majority — which make his position very
regular intervals depend on the will of the state significant.
government any more. ▪ Over the decades, Governors have been seen as
▪ The provisions of the act can be grouped into acting on the behest of the central government
two categories–compulsory and voluntary. in power at the time, and have been accused by
▪ The compulsory (mandatory or obligatory) state governments, especially those in
provisions of the act have to be included in the opposition, as acting as “agents of the Centre”.
state laws creating the new Panchayati raj ▪ Also, the Constitution lays down no provisions for
system. the manner in which the Governor and the state
▪ The voluntary provisions, on the other hand, must engage publicly when there is a difference
may be included at the discretion of the states. of opinion.
▪ Thus the voluntary provisions of the act ensures ▪ This has traditionally been guided by respect for
the right of the states to take local factors like each other’s boundaries.
geographical, politico-administrative and ▪ Article 156: “the Governor shall hold office
others, into consideration while adopting the during the pleasure of the President”.
new Panchayati raj system. 121. Correct Answer: Option (4)
▪ The Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial
integrated judicial system with the Supreme system.
Court at the top and the high courts below it. 123. Correct Answer: Option (3)
• Under a high court (and below the state ▪ Articles 124 to 147 in Part V of the Constitution
level), there is a hierarchy of subordinate deal with the organisation, independence,
courts, that is, district courts and other jurisdiction, powers, procedures and so on of the
lower courts. Supreme Court.
▪ This single system of courts, adopted from the ▪ The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on
Government of India Act of 1935, enforces both January 28, 1950.
Central laws as well as the state laws. ▪ It succeeded the Federal Court of India,
▪ In USA, on the other hand, the federal laws are established under the Government of India Act of
enforced by the federal judiciary and the state 1935.
laws are enforced by the state judiciary. ▪ However, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
▪ There is thus a double system of courts in USA– is greater than that of its predecessor.
one for the centre and the other for the states. • This is because, the Supreme Court has
122. Correct Answer: Option (3) replaced the British Privy Council as the
Comparing Indian and American Supreme Courts: highest court of appeal.
Indian Supreme Court American Supreme ▪ Before 1950, the British Privy Council had the
Court jurisdiction to hear appeals from India.
Its original jurisdiction Its original jurisdiction 124. Correct Answer: Option (1)
is confined to federal covers not only federal ▪ As per the Article 124(3) of the Constitution of
cases. cases but also cases India, a person to be appointed as a judge of the
relating to naval forces,
Supreme Court should have the following
maritime activities,
ambassadors, etc. qualifications:
Its appellate Its appellate Requirement Details
jurisdiction covers jurisdiction is confined Citizenship He should be a citizen
constitutional, civil, to constitutional cases of India.
and criminal cases. only. Qualifications ▪ He should have
It has a very wide It has no such plenary been a judge of a
discretion to grant power. High Court (or High
special leave to appeal Courts in
in any matter against succession) for five
the judgement of any years; or
court or tribunal ▪ He should have
(except military). been an advocate
It has advisory It has no advisory of a High Court (or
jurisdiction. jurisdiction. High Courts in
Its scope of judicial Its scope of judicial succession) for ten
review is limited. review is very wide. years; or
It defends rights of the It defends rights of the ▪ He should be a
citizen according to the citizen according to the distinguished jurist
‘procedure established ‘due process of law’. in the opinion of
by law’. the president.
Its jurisdiction and Its jurisdiction and ▪ From the above, it is clear that the Constitution
powers can be powers are limited to has not prescribed a minimum age for
enlarged by that conferred by the appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Parliament. Constitution. 125. Correct Answer: Option (1)
It has power of judicial It has no such power ▪ As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has two
superintendence and due to double (or powers:
control over state high separated) judicial
• The judgements, proceedings and acts of the
courts due to system.
Supreme Court are recorded for perpetual

memory and testimony. These records are Doctrine of pith and To determine the true
admitted to be of evidentiary value and substance nature or essence of a
cannot be questioned when produced legislation when there
before any court. They are recognised as is a question of
legislative competence
legal precedents and legal references.
or conflict between
• It has power to punish for contempt of different legislative
court, either with simple imprisonment for lists
a term up to six months or with fine up to Doctrine of precedent The lower courts are
₹2,000 or with both. In 1991, the Supreme bound by the decisions
Court has ruled that it has power to punish of the higher courts
Doctrine of incidental Recognizes that
for contempt not only of itself but also of
and ancillary powers legislative bodies
high courts, subordinate courts and possess certain implied
tribunals functioning in the entire country. powers necessary to
▪ Contempt of court may be civil or criminal. carry out their express
▪ Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to powers
any judgement, order, writ or other process of Doctrine of implied Implies powers to the
a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given powers legislative and other
governmental
to a court.
branches that are not
▪ Criminal contempt means the publication of explicitly stated in the
any matter or doing an act which: constitution
• scandalises or lowers the authority of a Doctrine of colourable Prevents legislative
court; or legislation bodies from passing
• prejudices or interferes with the due course laws that are outside
of a judicial proceeding; or their constitutional
authority but are
• interferes or obstructs the administration
disguised as being
of justice in any other manner. within their authority
• However, innocent publication and 127. Correct Answer: Option (1)
distribution of some matter, fair and Judicial review:
accurate report of judicial proceedings, fair ▪ Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to
and reasonable criticism of judicial acts and examine the constitutionality of legislative
comment on the administrative side of the enactments and executive orders of both the
judiciary do not amount to contempt of Central and State governments.
court. ▪ It was originated and developed in the USA.
126. Correct Answer: Option (2) ▪ In India, the Constitution itself confers the power
Doctrines of Purpose of judicial review on the judiciary of both the
Constitutional Supreme Court as well as High Courts.
Interpretation ▪ Further, the Supreme Court has declared the
Doctrine of To resolve the problem
power of judicial review as a basic feature of the
severability of the validity of laws
which are declared as Constitution or an element of the basic structure
unconstitutional of the Constitution.
Doctrine of eclipse Deals with the pre- ▪ Article 32 of the Constitution grants the Supreme
constitution laws and Court the power of judicial review, allowing it to
declares that all such issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental
laws are void to the rights.
extent to which they
▪ Similarly, Article 226 confers this power upon
are inconsistent with
the Fundamental High Courts, empowering them to issue writs for
Rights the enforcement of fundamental rights as well as

for other purposes within their territorial authority concerned or not. It is not expected
jurisdiction. to go into the question of its reasonableness,
▪ Other than these, some other Articles that suitability or policy implications.
provide for judicial review include: 130. Correct Answer: Option (2)
• Articles – 131, 132, 133, 134, 134-A, 135, Number of Acts and Regulations Included in the
136, 143, 227, 245, 246. Ninth Schedule:
▪ Subordinate Courts do not possess direct Amendment Number (Year) Number of Acts
authority for judicial review as granted to the and Regulations
Supreme Court and High Courts. Included in the
Ninth Schedule
▪ Therefore, the power of judicial review is vested
First Amendment (1951) 13 (1 to 13)
in the higher judiciary, namely the Supreme
Fourth Amendment (1955) 7 (14 to 20)
Court and the High Courts. Seventh Amendment (1964) 44 (21 to 64)
128. Correct Answer: Option (4) Twenty-Ninth Amendment 2 (65 to 66)
▪ The constitutional validity of a legislative (1972)
enactment or an executive order can be Thirty-Fourth Amendment 20 (67 to 86)
challenged in the Supreme Court or in the High (1974)
Courts on the following three grounds: Thirty-Ninth Amendment 38 (87 to 124)
(1975)
• If it infringes the Fundamental Rights (Part
Fortieth Amendment (1976) 64 (125 to 188)
III),
Forty-Seventh Amendment 14 (189 to 202)
• If it is outside the competence of the (1984)
authority which has framed it, and Sixty-Sixth Amendment (1990) 55 (203 to 257)
• If it is repugnant to the constitutional Seventy-Sixth Amendment 1 (257A)
provisions. (1994)
▪ From the above, it is clear that the scope of Seventy-Eighth Amendment 27 (258 to 284)
(1995)
judicial review in India is narrower than what
exists in the USA.
▪ Upendra Baxi, an eminent jurist, has delineated
• This is because, the American Constitution
the following typology of social / human rights
provides for ‘due process of law’ against
activists who activated judicial activism:
that of ‘procedure established by law’
Activist Group Focus Area
which is contained in the Indian
Civil Rights Civil and political rights issues
Constitution. Activists
129. Correct Answer: Option (1) People Rights Social and economic rights
▪ The American Constitution provides for ‘due Activists within the context of state
process of law’ against that of ‘procedure repression
established by law’ which is contained in the Consumer Consumer rights within the
Indian Constitution. Rights Groups framework of accountability
Bonded Annihilation of wage slavery
▪ The difference between the two is:
Labour
• The due process of law gives wide scope to Groups
the Supreme Court to grant protection to Citizens for Combating environmental
the rights of its citizens. It can declare laws Environmental degradation and pollution
violative of these rights void not only on Action
substantive grounds of being unlawful, but Citizen Groups Opposition to mega irrigation
also on procedural grounds of being against Large projects
Irrigation
unreasonable.
Projects
• Indian Supreme Court, while determining Rights of Child Child labour, literacy, juveniles in
the constitutionality of a law, however Groups custodial institutions, rights of
examines only the substantive question i.e., children born to sex workers
whether the law is within the powers of the

Custodial Social action for prisoners’ ▪ The last HC that was formed in India was Andhra
Rights Groups rights, women under state Pradesh HC.
custody, persons under ▪ The High Court for the State of Andhra Pradesh,
preventive detention came into existence by an order dated
Poverty Rights Draught and famine relief, urban
26.12.2018.
Groups poverty
Indigenous Issues of forest dwellers, citizens • It started functioning, with its principal seat
People’s of the Fifth and Sixth Schedules at Amaravati, from 01.01.2019 with 14
Rights Groups of the Indian Constitution, Hon’ble Judges.
identity rights 134. Correct Answer: Option (4)
Women’s Gender equality, gender-based ▪ Every high court (whether exclusive or common)
Rights Groups violence and harassment, rape, consists of a chief justice and such other judges
dowry murders
as the president may from time to time deem
Bar-based Autonomy and accountability of
Groups the Indian judiciary necessary to appoint.
Media Autonomy and accountability of ▪ The Constitution does not specify the strength of
Autonomy the press and state-owned mass a high court and leaves it to the discretion of the
Groups media president.
Assorted Various causes advocated by ▪ Accordingly, as per Article 216, the President
Lawyer-Based influential lawyers’ groups determines the strength of a high court from
Groups
time to time depending upon its workload.
Assorted Freelance activist individuals
Individual ▪ The strength of the High Court is fixed by the
Petitioners President in consultation with the Chief Justice of
132. Correct Answer: Option (1) the High Court and the Governor of the
▪ Articles 214 to 231 in Part VI of the Constitution respective state.
deal with the organisation, independence, 135. Correct Answer: Option (1)
jurisdiction, powers, procedures and so on of ▪ The writ jurisdiction of the high court (under
the high courts Article 226) is not exclusive but concurrent with
▪ In the Indian single integrated judicial system, the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (under
the high court operates below the Supreme Article 32).
Court but above the subordinate courts. ▪ It means, when the fundamental rights of a
▪ The institution of high court originated in India citizen are violated, the aggrieved party has the
in 1862 when the high courts were set up at option of moving either the high court or the
Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. Supreme Court directly.
▪ In 1866, a fourth high court was established at ▪ However, the writ jurisdiction of the high court is
Allahabad. wider than that of the Supreme Court.
▪ In the course of time, each province in British • This is because, the Supreme Court can issue
India came to have its own high court. writs only for the enforcement of
▪ After 1950, a high court existing in a province fundamental rights and not for any other
became the high court for the corresponding purpose, that is, it does not extend to a case
state. where the breach of an ordinary legal right is
133. Correct Answer: Option (1) alleged.
▪ The Constitution of India provides for a high ▪ The phrase "any other purpose" in Article 226
court for each state, but the Seventh significantly broadens the jurisdiction of High
Amendment Act of 1956 authorised the Courts.
Parliament to establish a common high court 136. Correct Answer: Option (1)
for two or more states or for two or more states ▪ As a court of record, a high court has two powers:
and a union territory. • The judgements, proceedings and acts of the
▪ At present (May, 2024), there are 25 high courts high courts are recorded for perpetual
in the country. memory and testimony.

• It has power to punish for contempt of 139. Correct Answer: Option (2)
court, either with simple imprisonment or National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs):
with fine or with both. ▪ As per Article 338 of the Indian Constitution, the
▪ As a court of record, a high court also has the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs)
power to review and correct its own judgement has to investigate all matters relating to the
or order or decision, even though no specific constitutional and other legal safeguards for the
power of review is conferred on it by the Anglo-Indian Community and report to the
Constitution. President upon their working.
▪ The Supreme Court, on the other hand, has ▪ Till 2018, the commission was also required to
been specifically conferred with the power of discharge similar functions with regard to the
review by the constitution. other backward classes (OBCs).
137. Correct Answer: Option (4) • It was relieved from this responsibility by the
▪ A statutory body is a body set up by an act of 102nd Amendment Act of 2018.
Parliamentary that is authorised to implement • Accordingly, National Commission for
certain legislation. Backward Classes (NCBC) was formed.
▪ The Constitutional bodies are those that are 140. Correct Answer: Option (1)
established by Constitution itself. Functions performed by National Commission
▪ The National Commission for Scheduled Castes for Scheduled Tribes
(SCs) is a constitutional body in the sense that it To investigate and To inquire into specific
is directly established by Article 338 of the monitor all matters complaints with respect
relating to the to the deprivation of
Constitution.
constitutional and rights and safeguards of
Bodies Established By other legal safeguards the STs
National Commission Article 338 of the for the STs and to
for Scheduled Castes Constitution, evaluate their working
(NCSC) (Constitutional Body) To participate and To present to the
National Commission National Commission advise on the planning President, annually and
for Women for Women Act, 1990 process of socio- at such other times as it
National Commission Commissions for economic development may deem fit, reports
for Protection of Child Protection of Child of the STs and to upon the working of
Rights Rights Act, 2005 evaluate the progress those safeguards it
National Commission National Commission of their development provides to STs
for Minorities for Minorities Act, under the Union or a
1992 state
138. Correct Answer: Option (1) To make To discharge such other
▪ The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of recommendations as to functions in relation to
20036 bifurcated the combined National the measures that the protection, welfare
Commission for SCs and STs into two separate should be taken by the and development and
bodies, namely, National Commission for Union or a state for the advancement of the STs
effective as the President may
Scheduled Castes (under Article 338) and
implementation of specify
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes those safeguards and
(under Article 338-A). other measures for the
▪ National Commission for Scheduled Castes protection, welfare and
(SCs) consists of a chairperson, a vice- socio-economic
chairperson and three other members. development of the STs
▪ The NCST does not have the authority to
• They are appointed by the President by
adjudicate disputes or pass binding judgments on
warrant under his hand and seal.
specific cases related to STs.
• Their conditions of service and tenure of
▪ Instead, it serves in an advisory and consultative
office are also determined by the President.
capacity to the government on matters related to
• Under the Rules, they hold office for a term
of three years.
the welfare and development of Scheduled Godavari Water Maharashtra, Karnataka,
Tribes. Disputes Tribunal Andhra Pradesh,
141. Correct Answer: Option (1) Madhya Pradesh and
The various provisions or features of the Odisha
Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, Narmada Water Rajasthan, Gujarat,
2019, are as follows: Disputes Tribunal Madhya Pradesh and
▪ It provided that a person who has been a judge Maharashtra
of the Supreme Court is also made eligible to be Ravi and Beas Water Punjab, Haryana and
appointed as Chairperson of the National Disputes Tribunal Rajasthan
Human Rights Commission (in addition to the Cauvery Water Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil
person who has been the Chief Justice of India). Disputes Tribunal Nadu and Puducherry
▪ It increased the number of members of the Krishna Water Maharashtra, Karnataka
National Human Rights Commission (who are to Disputes Tribunal-II and Andhra Pradesh
be appointed from amongst persons having Vansadhara Water Odisha and Andhra
knowledge or practical experience with respect Disputes Tribunal Pradesh
to human rights) from two to three out of which Mahadayi Water Goa, Karnataka and
at least one has to be a woman. Disputes Tribunal Maharashtra
▪ It made the chairpersons of the National Mahanadi Water Odisha and Chhattisgarh
Commission for BCs and the National Disputes Tribunal
Commission for Protection of Child Rights as 144. Correct Answer: Option (4)
well as the Chief Commissioner for Persons with ▪ Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an
Disabilities as the ex-officio members of the Inter-State Council to effect coordination
National Human Rights Commission. between the states and between Centre and
142. Correct Answer: Option (2) states.
▪ The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 ▪ Thus, the President can establish such a council if
provides for the creation of not only the at any time it appears to him that the public
National Human Rights Commission but also a interest would be served by its establishment.
State Human Rights Commission at the state ▪ Under the provisions of Article 263, the President
level. has established the following councils to make
▪ Accordingly, twenty-six states have constituted recommendations for the better coordination of
the State Human Rights Commissions through policy and action in the related subjects:
Official Gazette Notifications. • Central Council of Health and Family
▪ These are: Assam, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana Welfare.
(combined Commission for Andhra Pradesh and
• Central Council of Local Government
Telangana), Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Goa,
• Four Regional Councils for Sales Tax for the
Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Kerala,
Northern, Eastern, Western and Southern
Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra,
Zones
Manipur, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil
Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Jharkhand,
▪ The Inter-State Council was established under
Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Haryana, Tripura and
Article 263 of the Constitution of India through a
Meghalaya.
Presidential Order dated 28th May 1990.
The Council consists of:-
▪ Inter-State Water Dispute Tribunals Set-up So
▪ Prime Minister – Chairman
Far
▪ Chief Ministers of all States – Members
Name States involved
▪ Chief Ministers of Union Territories having a
Krishna Water Maharashtra, Karnataka Legislative Assembly and Administrators of UTs
Disputes Tribunal-I and Andhra Pradesh not having a Legislative Assembly – Members

▪ Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Union country as a whole. There is also sub regionalism,
Council of Ministers to be nominated by the that is, love for a particular region in preference
Prime Minister – Members. to the state of which the region forms a part.
146. Correct Answer: Option (1) ▪ Communalism means love for one’s religious
▪ The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not community in preference to the nation and a
the constitutional) bodies. tendency to promote the communal interest at
▪ They are established by an Act of the the cost of the interest of other religious
Parliament, that is, States Reorganisation Act of communities. It has its roots in the British rule
1956. where the 1909, 1919 and 1935 Acts had
▪ The act divided the country into five zones introduced communal representation for the
(Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Muslims, Sikhs and others.
Southern) and provided a zonal council for each ▪ Casteism implies love for one’s own caste-group
zone. in preference to the general national interest. It
▪ Each zonal council consists of the following is mainly an outcome of the politicisation of
members: caste.
• Home minister of Central government ▪ Linguism means love for one’s language and
• Chief Ministers of all the States in the zone. hatred towards other language-speaking people.
• Two other ministers from each state in the The phenomena of linguism, like that of
zone. regionalism, communalism or casteism, is also a
• Administrator of each union territory in the consequence of political process.
zone. 149. Correct Answer: Option (3)
147. Correct Answer: Option (1) ▪ Communalism means love for one’s religious
Zonal Councils at a Glance community in preference to the nation and a
Zonal Member States Headquar tendency to promote the communal interest at
Council ters the cost of the interest of other religious
Northern Himachal Pradesh, New Delhi communities. It has its roots in the British rule
Zonal Haryana, Punjab, where the 1909, 1919 and 1935 Acts had
Council Rajasthan, Delhi, introduced communal representation for the
Chandigarh, Jammu and Muslims, Sikhs and others.
Kashmir, Ladakh ▪ The communalism got accentuated with the
Central Uttar Pradesh, Allahabad politicisation of religion. Its various
Zonal Uttarakhand, manifestations are:
Council Chhattisgarh, Madhya • Formation of political parties based on
Pradesh religion
Eastern Bihar, Jharkhand, West Kolkata • Emergence of pressure groups
Zonal Bengal, Odisha • Communal riots
Council • Dispute over religious structures
Western Gujarat, Maharashtra, Mumbai ▪ Communism is a socio-economic and political
Zonal Goa, Dadra and Nagar ideology that advocates for a classless society
Council Haveli, Daman and Diu where the means of production are owned and
Southern Andhra Pradesh, Chennai controlled by the community as a whole.
Zonal Telangana, Karnataka, ▪ It aims for a stateless and egalitarian society,
Council Tamil Nadu, Kerala, where resources are distributed according to
Puducherry need, rather than through the market
148. Correct Answer: Option (4) mechanisms of capitalism.
▪ Regionalism refers to sub-nationalism and sub- 150. Correct Answer: Option (4)
territorial loyalty. It implies the love for a ▪ In April 2010, the United Progressive Alliance
particular region or state in preference to the (UPA) Government again reconstituted the

▪
▪
▪
Legislatures.
Manmohan Singh.
women’s organisations.
casteism and regionalism.

The NIC has 147 members, including Union
commissions, eminent journalists, public

National Integration Council (NIC) under the
It is chiefly aimed at suggesting means and ways

political parties, chairpersons of national
Ministers, Leaders of the Opposition in the Lok
to combat the menace of communalism,

Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, the Chief Ministers
It also includes leaders of national and regional

of all states and union territories with
chairmanship of the Prime Minister,
figures, and representatives of business and
Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in

39

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casteism and regionalism.

commissions, eminent journalists, public

It is chiefly aimed at suggesting means and ways

to combat the menace of communalism,

It also includes leaders of national and regional

figures, and representatives of business and

Every Question is framed based on the Reverse Engineering Technique | www.civiccentre.in

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