Subject Code: 20UIT4CC7A

JAMAL MOHAMED COLLEGE (Autonomous)

TIRUCHIRAPPALLI – 620 020
Objective Type Questions
Department of Computer Science
Semester: IV UG / PG: B.Sc.(IT)
Title of the Paper: CORE-VII (a) – RDBMS

UNIT I
1. The description of the data is known as the _________
(a) file (b) system data (c) data model (d) meta data
2. _______ is a property that describes some aspect of the object that wish to record.
(a) Tuple (b) Relationship (c) Domain of the attribute (d) Attribute
3. Some subset of the database is called_______
(a) view (b) conceptual (c) Entity (d) entity set
4. A file is simply a collection of _________
(a) attributes (b) records (c) information (d) data
5. DBMS allows users to define the database, by ________
(a) DML (b) DCL (c) DDL (d) embedded SQL
6. The structure of the database is called_______
(a) schema (b) sub-schema (c) file (d) internal data
7. DBMS allows user to insert, update, delete and retrieve data from the database, by______
(a) DML (b) DCL (c) DDL. (d) embedded SQL
8. The central controller of database is called ______
(a) naïve users (b) DBA (c) DDA (d) specialized users
9. _________ means that they do not need to know anything about the database.
(a) naive users (b) DBA (c) sophisticated user (d) specialized users
10. ________ is concerned with identifying the data and the constraints on the data is to be
stored in the database.
(a) Physical database designer (b) Logical database designer
(c) Database Administrator (d) Application developer
11. Which one of the following is an advantage of database management system approach?
(a) Reduced security (b) Increased duplication of data
(c) Programs are independent of the data format (d) Data inconsistency
12. The user views called _______
(a) schema (b) sub-schema (c) file (d) internal data
13. The way users perceive the data is called the ______
(a) internal level (b) conceptual level (c) physical level (d) external level
14. The part of a DML that involves data retrieval is called ________
(a) query language (b) data directory (c) embedded language (d) 4GL
15. _______ languages specify how the output of a DML statement is to be obtained.
(a) Query (b) Procedural (c) embedded (d) Non-procedural
16. ________ is a facility for producing a program that interfaces with database.
(a) Graphics generator (b) Language-oriented report generator
(c) Application generator (d) visually oriented report generator
17. ______allows the users to create scatter charts.
(a) Graphics generator (b) Language-oriented report generator
(c) Application generator (d) visually oriented report generator
18. An external data model, to represent each user’s view of the organization, called ____
(a) structural part (b) manipulative part (c) Universe of Discourse (d) disclosure
19. The hierarchical model allows a node to have only ______
(a) two parent (b) no parent (c) one child (d) one parent
20. Network and hierarchical systems adopt a __________ approach.
(a) navigational (b) declarative (c) describing (d) manipulating
21. _________ systems adopt a declarative approach to database processing.
(a) Network (b) Hierarchical (c) Relational (d) Physical
22. ________data model describes record structure and access path.
(a) Network (b) Hierarchical (c) Relational (d) Physical
23. The data in the database at any particular point in time is called a ________
(a) intension of the database (b) database instance
(c) data independence (d) domain of the database
24. The programs that provide the required functionality for the end-users is the responsibility
of the _____________
(a) Physical database designer (b) Application developer
(c) Database Administrator (d) Logical database designer
25. Relationship is an association between ______
(a) attributes (b) cardinalities (c) entities (d) files
26. __________ means having multiple copies of same data in the database.
(a) Data redundancy (b) Data isolation (c) Concurrency (d) Consistency
27. Set of tables stored in special files collectively called __________
(a) embedded files (b) system catalog (c) list (d) system files

28. The records are organized as generalized graph structure with records appearing as _____
(a) sets (b) domain (c) nodes (d) tuples
29. ____________ means to hide certain details of how data is stored and maintain.
(a) Data Abstraction (b) Data Integrity (c) Data Isolation (d) Naive user
30. Which one of the following is not a back-end tool?
(a) SQL-server (b) MYSQL (c) MS-access (d) MS-outlook
UNIT II
31. The number of tuples is called ______
(a) degree (b) sets (c) list (d) cardinality
32. A relation with three attributes is called ______
(a) unary (b) binary (c) cardinality (d) ternary
33. A key consists of more than one attribute is called ________
(a) superkey (b) primary key (c) composite key (d) secondary key
34. A relation has no duplicate tuples, by using _______
(a) superkey (b) primary key (c) composite key (d) secondary key
35. The foreign key is placed in:
(a) specifying parent and child tables (b) the parent table
(c) the child table (d) either the parent table or the child table
36. The elements of a relation are _______ in the table.
(a) tuple (b) degree (c) intension (d) domain
37. A view is a _______ relation
(a) base (b) derived (c) described (d) intension
38. How many Primary keys can have in a table?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Depends on no of Columns (d) exactly 2
39. Updates are not allowed through views involving _________ operation.
(a) join (b) insert (c) delete (d) aggregate
40. The selection operation is ________operation.
(a) unary (b) binary (c) ternary (d) closure
41. Which of the following is used to denote the selection operation in relational algebra?
(a) Pi (Greek) (b) Sigma (Greek) (c) Lambda (Greek) (d) Omega (Greek)

42. Which of the following is NOT a type of relational operation?

(a) Select Operation (b) Set Difference (c) Set Update (d)Cartesian Product
43. If E1 and E2 are relational algebra expressions, then which of the following is NOT a
relational algebra expression?
(a) E1 ∪ E2 (b) E1 / E2 (c) E1 - E2 (d) E1 x E2
44. The operation of a relation X, produces Y, such that Y contains only selected attributes of
X. Such an operation is ____
(a) Projection (b) Intersection (c) Union (d) Difference
45. Using Relational Algebra, the query that finds customers, who have a balance of over
1000 is _____________________
(a) Π Customer_name (σ balance >1000(Deposit))
(b) σ Customer_name (Π balance >1000(Deposit))
(c) Π Customer_name (σ balance >1000(Borrow))
(d) σ Customer_name (Π balance >1000(Borrow))

46. The ___________ operation, denoted by -, allows us to find tuples that are in one relation
but are not in another.
(a) Union (b) Set-difference (c) Difference (d) Intersection
47. Cartesian product in relational algebra is a_____
(a) unary operator (b) binary operator
(c) ternary operator (d) Boolean operator
48. The DIVISION operation can be applied to two relations A and B such as R(A) ÷ R(B)
where as
(a) A does not belong to B (b) A must be added to B
(c) A belongs or equal to B (d) A must be subtracted from B
49. Which of the following is not valid unary operation in the relational algebra?
(a) select (b) min (c) project (d) rename
50. Relational algebra is:
(a) Data Definition Language (b) Meta Language
(c) Procedural query language (d) Non procedural language
51. Each uniquely identifiable object of an entity type is referred to as _________
(a) an entity occurrence (b) relationship occurrence
(c) complex occurrence (d) recursive relationship
52. _________ is a set of associations between one or more participating entity type.
(a) recursive relationship (b) relationship type
(c) degree type (d) an entity occurrence
53. Which is not an example of a strong entity type?
(a) Course (b) Department (c) Student_Id (d) Student
54. An entity type whose existence depends on another entity type is called _________ entity
(a) Strong (b) Weak (c) Dependent (d) Variant
55. An example of a multi-valued attribute might be ______
(a) Student_Address (b) College_Degree (c) Student_GPA (d) ID_Number

56. Date is the type of attribute:

(a) Simple (b) Composite (c) Single values (d) Multi-valued
57. A _____ attribute need not be physically stored within the database
(a) Single valued (b) Derived (c) Multi valued (d) Composite
58. If an entity can exist apart from one or more related entities it is said to be ______
independent.
(a) Existence (b) Relationship (c) Business (d) Weak
59. __________function performs a calculation on a set of values, and returns a single value
(a) Recursive (b) Cursor (c) Trigger (4) Aggregate
60. ___________ is an equijoin of the two relations R and S over all common attributes x.
(a) Outer join (b) Natural join (c) Self-join (d) Semi-join

UNIT – III
61. Which of the following is the right syntax for the assertion?
(a) CREATE ASSERTION [ assertion_name] CHECK ([ condition]);
(b) CREATE ASSERTION CHECK ([ condition]);
(c) CREATE ASSERTION [ assertion_name];
(d) CREATE ASSERTION CHECK clause;
62. A table is in 3NF if it is in 2NF and if it has no ____________
(a) Functional Dependencies (b) Transitive Dependencies
(c) Trivial Functional Dependency (d) Multivalued Dependencies
63. A function that has no partial functional dependencies is in _______ form:
(a) 3NF (b) 2NF (c) 4NF (d) BCNF
64. BCNF is stronger than _________
(a) 3NF (b) 2NF
(c) 4NF (d) 1NF
65. If every non-key attribute is functionally dependent on the primary key, then the relation
will be in:
(a) 1NF (b) 2NF
(c) 3NF (d) 4NF
66. If a table has been normalized so that all determinants are candidate keys, then that table
is in:
(a) 1NF (b) 2NF
(c) 3NF (d) BCNF
67. Functional Dependencies are the types of constraints that are based on______
(a) Key (b) Key revisited
(c) Superset key (d) non key attributes
68. The attribute on the left-hand side of the arrow in a functional dependency is _____.
(a) Candidate key (b) Determinant
(c) Foreign key (d) Primary key
69. Which of the following is not Armstrong’s Axiom?
(a) Reflexivity rule (b) Transitivity rule
(c) Pseudo-transitivity rule (d) Augmentation rule
70. There are two functional dependencies with the same set of attributes on the left side of
the arrow: A->BC , A->B This can be combined as
(a) A->BC (b) A->B
(c) B->C (d) AB -> C
71. If X --> Y is a functional dependency and X and Y are sets of attributes, what is the
relationship between X and Y?
(a) One-to-Many (b) Many-to-One
(c) One-to-One (d) Many-to-Many
72. For a functional dependency X --> Y, it is said to be _________ if Y is the subset X.
(a) Total (b) Trivial
(c) Non-trivial (d) Partial
73. If X --> YZ then X --> Y and X --> Z is
(a) Composition Rule (b) Reflexivity Rule
(c) Union Rule (d) Decomposition Rule
74. If X is {E, G, H, M} and Y is {G, M} then X --> Y is
(a) Augmentation Rule (b) Reflexivity Rule
(c) Union Rule (d) Pseudo-transitivity Rule
75. The FD A → B, DB → C implies
(a) DA → C (b) A → C
(c) B → A (d) DB → A
76. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding normalization?
(a) It do not reduce update anomalies (b) It increases insertion anomalies
(c) It minimizes redundancy (d) There in no zero normal form relations
77. Third normal form is inadequate in situation where the relation
(a) Has multiple candidate keys (b) Has candidate keys that are composite
(c) Has overlapped candidate keys (d) Single candidate key
78. If a relation scheme is in BCNF, then it is also in
(a) First normal form (b) Second normal form
(c) Third normal form (d). Fourth normal form
79. A table that contains one or more repeating groups is in which normal form?
(a) 1NF (b) 2NF
(c) 3NF (d) Unnormalized Form
80. In ______ normal forms, any multivalued attributes have been removed.
(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth
81. In the process of decomposition is called as
(a) Normalization (b) Generalization
(c) Aggregation (d) Specialization
82. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
(a). A relation is in 3NF it is also in BCNF
(b) A relation is in BCNF it is also in 3NF
(c) No Relation can be in both BCNF and 3NF
(d) BCNF is in Trivial dependency
83. In transitive rule, if a→b and b→c. Then it will also hold?
(a) a→c (b) a→a (c) a→b (d) b→b
84. What is trivial functional dependency?
(a) If A→B holds where B is not subset of A.
(b) If A→B holds where B is subset of A.
(c) If A→B holds where B is not intersection of A.
(d) If A→B holds where B is intersection of A.
85. Functional Dependency represents by symbol?
(a) ← (b) →
(c) ↑ (d) ↓
86. Right attribute in functional dependency is??
(a) Dependent (b) Generator
(c) Determent (d) Determinant
87. According to argumentation rule, if X → Y holds and A is set of attributes, then it also
holds?
(a) XA → Y (b) X → YA
(c) XA → YA (d) XA → XE
88. For a relation R (A, B, C), if A → B and A → C holds, then A → BC also holds. Which
of the following rule ensures this?
(a) Augmentation rule (b) Union rule
(c) Decomposition rule (d) Reflexivity rule
89. Domain constraints, functional dependency and referential integrity are special forms of
_________
(a) Foreign key (b) Primary key
(c) Assertion (d) Referential constraint
90. Which of the following is not an integrity constraint?
(a) Not null (b) Positive
(c) Unique (d) Check predicate

UNIT IV
91. What is the use of the symbol '*' in select statement?
(a) display all attributes in a relation (b) display all row in a relation
(c) display based on condition (d) display specific column
92. The ______condition allows a general predicate over the relations being joined.
(a) having (b) set (c) case (d) on
93. In SQL, testing whether a subquery is empty is done using
(a) DISTINCT (b) UNIQUE (c) NULL (d) EXISTS
94. By default, the order by clause lists items in ______ order.
(a) Descending (b) Any (c) Same (d) Ascending
95. For like predicate which of the following is true.
i) % matches zero of more characters.
ii) _ _ matches one or more character.
(a) i-only (b) ii-only (c) i and ii (d) both are false
96. In SQL, to save typing effort by _______
(a) Subqueries (b) variable
(c) like operator (d) tuple variable

97. Choose the correct SQL query

(a) select avg(salary) form emp; (b) select ename from avg(balance)
(c) select avg(balance) from emp; (d) select avg(balance)from emp
98. ______ matches any values that start with “J" and ends with “y"

(a) J%Y (b) %JY%

(c) %_J_Y (d) %JY

99. Which of the following join is also called as an inner join?

(a) self-join (b) cross join
(c) equi join (d) natural join

100. The FROM clause is used to ____

(a) Specify what table we are selecting (b) Specify the column to be selected
(c) specify range for search condition (d) specific values

101. ______ operation does not eliminate duplicate values.

(a) union (b) union all

(c) intersect (d) except all

102. To list all cities whose humidity is 89, Which one of the following query is correct?
(a) SELECT city WHERE humidity = 89;
(b) SELECT city FROM weather WHERE humidity = 89;
(c) SELECT* FROM weather WHERE humidity='89'
(d) SELECT humidity = 89 FROM weather;
103. Which operator is used to compare a value to a specified list of values?
(a) ANY (b) BETWEEN
(c) ALL (d) IN
104. In which of the following cases a DML statement is not executed?
(a) When existing rows are modified (b) When a table is deleted
(c) When some rows are deleted (d) When use case statement
105. Which of the following is true about the HAVING clause?
(a) Similar to the WHERE clause but is used for columns rather than groups
(b) Similar to WHERE clause but is used for rows rather than columns
(c) Similar to WHERE clause but is used for groups rather than rows
(d) Acts exactly like a WHERE clause
106. A CASE SQL statement is ________?
(a) to establish a loop in SQL (b) a way to establish an IF-THEN-ELSE in SQL
(c) to establish a data in SQL (d) a way to establish an WHILE-DO in SQL
107. Which of the following is not a valid SQL type?
(a) DECIMAL (b) NUMERIC
(c) FLOAT (d) CHARACTER
108. The COUNT function in SQL returns the number of ______________
(a) Values (b) Distinct values
(c) Group by (d) Columns
109. Which of the following is not Constraint in SQL?
(a) Primary Key (b) Not Null
(c) Check (d) Union
110. The SQL keyword(s) ________ is used with wildcards.
(a) LIKE only (b) IN only
(c) NOT IN only (d) IN and NOT IN
111. The SQL -92 wildcards are ____ and ____.
(a) asterisk (*); percent sign (%) (b) percent sign (%); underscore (_)
(c) underscore (_); question mark (?) (d) question mark (?); asterisk (*)
112. To remove duplicate rows from the results of an SQL SELECT statement, the ________
qualifier specified must be included.
(a) ONLY (b) UNIQUE
(c) DISTINCT (d) SINGLE
113. The SQL keyword BETWEEN is used:
(a) for ranges (b) to limit the columns displayed
(c) as a wildcard (d) None of the above is correct
114. SQL Views are also known as
(a) Simple tables (b) Virtual tables
(c) Complex tables (d) Actual Tables
115. If we have not specified ASC or DESC after a SQL ORDER BY clause, the following is
used by default
(a) DESC (b) ASC
(c) There is no default value (d) ASCE
116. Which type of JOIN is used to returns rows that do not have matching values?
(a) Natural JOIN (b) Outer JOIN
(c) EQUI JOIN (d) Self-JOIN
117. Which of the following is the correct order of a SQL statement?
(a) SELECT, GROUP BY, WHERE, HAVING
(b) SELECT, WHERE, GROUP BY, HAVING
(c) SELECT, HAVING, WHERE, GROUP BY
(d) SELECT, WHERE, HAVING, GROUP BY
118. Which statement is used to get all data from the student table whose name starts with p?
(a) SELECT * FROM student WHERE name LIKE '%p%';
(b) SELECT * FROM student WHERE name LIKE 'p%';
(c) SELECT * FROM student WHERE name LIKE '_p%';
(d) SELECT * FROM student WHERE name LIKE '%p';
119. Given relations r(w, x) and s(y, z), the result of
SELECT DISTINCT w, x FROM r, s is guaranteed to be same as r, provided
(a) r has no duplicates and s is non-empty (b) r and s have no duplicates
(c) s has no duplicates and r is non-empty (d) r and s have the same number of tuples
120. Consider the relations r1(P, Q, R) and r2(R, S, T) with primary keys P and R respectively.
The relation r1 contains 2000 tuples and r2 contains 2500 tuples. The maximum size of
the join r1⋈ r2 is :
(a) 2000 (b) 2500
(c) 4500 (d) 5000
UNIT V
121. To get the server output result and display it into the screen, you need to write −
(a) set serveroutput on (b)set server output on
(c) set dbmsoutput on (d) set dbms output on
122. Which of the following is the correct syntax for creating an explicit cursor?
(a) CURSOR cursor_name IS select_statement;
(b) CREATE CURSOR cursor_name IS select_statement;
(c) CREATE CURSOR cursor_name AS select_statement;
(d) CURSOR cursor_name AS select_statement;
123. We use _________name PL/SQL programs and objects
(a) Literals (b) identifiers
(c) lexical (d) literals
124. _________ cannot be used to initialize a column
(a) %rowtype (b) %columntype
(c) %found (d) %isopen
125. _____is useful when declaring variables that will hold values of a table column
(a) %not found (b) %row type
(c) %type (d) %isopen
126. if DML statement fails then ________ is TRUE
(a) SQL%FOUND (b) SQL%NOT FOUND
(c) %FOUND (d) %NOT FOUND
127. _______ returns the total number of rows affect by an insert, update, delete
(a) %ROWTYPE (b) %FOUND
(c) SQL%FOUND (d) SQL%ROWCOUNT
128. ______ have a return clause
(a) Function (b) Procedure
(c) Trigger (d) package
129. What is wrong in the following assignment statement?
(a) b = b*2 (b) c: = 20
(c) c: = c + d; (d) c==d
130. Which of the following is correct syntax for fetch statement?
(a) fetch <variable> into <cursor-name> (b) fetch <cursor-name> into <variables>
(c) fetch into <cursor-name> (d)fetch <variable>
131. ______procedure produce the output on the screen
(a)dbms_output_line() (b) dbms_output.put_line()
(c) dbms_output-put.lin (d) dbms_output_put_line
132. PL/SQL function can be called only in PL/SQL block and not in ______
(a) Procedure (b) Cursor
(c) SQL (d) MYSQL
133. Which attributes return null?
(a) %ISOPEN (b) %NOTFOUND
(c) %ROWCOUNT (d) %FOUND
134. _______ allows to access individual rows of data instead of working with entire set of
rows which are returned using a select statement.
(a) cursor (b) fetch
(c) %open (d) declare
135. A PL/SQL block without a name is an _________________
(a)function (b) oracle database
(c) anonymous block (d) trigger
136. _______ returns the total number of rows affect by an insert, update, delete
(a) %ROWTYPE (b) %FOUND 0
(c) SQL%FOUND (d) SQL%ROWCOUNT
137. PL/SQL doesn't support the ___commands
a) DCL (b) DDL
(c) DML (d) Embedded
138. Which of the following may cause an infinite loop to occur in a simple loop?
(a) if then (b) exit
(c) loop (d) end loop
139. What is the correct sequence of commands to process a set of records on using explicit
cursors?
(a) CURSOR FETCH CLOSE (b) CURSOR, GET, FETCH, CLOSE
(c) OPEN, FETCH, CLOSE (d) CURSOR OPEN FETCH
140. _____ statement breaks the flow of execution of an endless loop.
(a) end loop (b) exit- when
(c) exit (d) exit-out
141. ______ command in every session that you connect to the database in order to show the
message using dbms_output.put_line
(a) SET SERVEROUT ON (b) SET SERVEROUTPUT ON
(c) SET OUTPUT ON (d) SET SERVER_OUTPUT ON
142. Which of the following is correct PL/SQL statement?
(a) t column-name%type; (b) t table-name.column-name%type
(c) t table-name column-name%type (d) t table-name.column-name;%type
143. Which isn't the characteristics of a cursor FOR loop?
(a) Record type declaration. (b) Requires exit condition to be defined
(c) Opening and parsing of SQL statements (d) Fetches records from cursor.
144. The command used to open a CURSOR FOR loop is
(a) parse (b) open
(c) fetch (d)cursor for loops handle cursor opening implicitly
145. Which of the following code will open a cursor named cur_employee?
(a) FETCH cur_employee; (b) OPEN cur_employee;
(c) OPEN CURSOR cur_employee; (d) Begin cursor
146. Which of the following attribute returns NULL?
(a) %FOUND (b) %NOTFOUND
(c) %ISOPEN (d) %ROWCOUNT
147. _____ is NOT VALID in PL/SQL?
(a) Update (b) Delete
(c) Create (d) Insert
148. Which is a simple or compound symbol that has a special meaning to PL/SQL?
(a) Delimiter (b) Identifiers
(c) Literals (d) Comments
149. Which of the following correctly defines a cursor?
(a) A cursor is a pointer to a temporary work area created in the system memory
(b) A cursor is a pointer to a permanent work area created in the system memory
(c) A cursor is a pointer to a temporary area DDL statement.
(d) A cursor is a pointer to a permanent work area created in DDL statement.
150. What is the name of the cursor written and maintained by a database user?
(a) User cursor (b) Explicit cursor
(c) Implicit cursor (d) User-defined cursor
UNIT I
1. (d) meta data
2. (d) Attribute
3. (a) view
4. (b) records
5. (c) DDL
6. (a) schema
7. (a) DML
8. (b) DBA
9. (a) naive users
10. (b) Logical database designer
11. (c) Programs are independent of the data format
12. (b) sub-schema
13. (d) external level
14. (a) query language
15. (b) Procedural
16. (c) Application generator
17. (a) Graphics generator
18. (c) Universe of Discourse
19. (d) one parent
20. (a) navigational
21. (c) Relational
22. (d) Physical
23. (b) database instance
24. (b) Application developer
25. (c) entities
26. (a) Data redundancy
27. (b) system catalog
28. (c) nodes
29. (a) Data Abstraction
30. (d) MS-outlook
UNIT II
31. (d) cardinality
32. (d) ternary
33. (c) composite key
34. (b) primary key
35. (c) the child table
36. (a) tuple
37. (b) derived
38. (a) Only 1
39. (d) aggregate
40. (a) unary
41. (b) Sigma (Greek)
42. (c) Set Update
43. (b) E1 / E2
44. (a) Projection
45. (a) Π Customer_name (σ balance >1000(Deposit))
46. (b) Set-difference
47. (b) binary operator
48. (c) A belongs or equal to B
49. (b) min
50. (c) Procedural query language
51. (a) an entity occurrence
52. (b) relationship type
53. (c) Student_Id
54. (b) Weak
55. (b) College_Degree
56. (b) Composite
57. (b) Derived
58. (a) Existence
59. (d) Aggregate
60. (b) Natural join
UNIT – III
61. (a) CREATE ASSERTION [ assertion_name] CHECK ([ condition]);
62. (b) Transitive Dependencies
63. (b) 2NF
64. (a) 3NF
65. (b) 2NF
66. (d) BCNF
67. (a) Key
68. (b) Determinant
69. (c) Pseudo-transitivity rule
70. (a) A->BC
71. (c) One-to-One
72. (b) Trivial
73. (b) Reflexivity Rule
74. (a) Augmentation Rule
75. (a) DA → C
76. (c) It minimizes redundancy.
77. (a) Has multiple candidate keys
78. (c) Third normal form
79. (d) Unnormalized Form
80. (a) First
81. (a) Normalization
82. (b). A relation is in BCNF it is also in 3NF
83. (a) a→c
84. (b) If A→B holds where B is subset of A.
85. (b) →
86. (a) Dependent
87. (c) XA → YA
88. (b) Union rule
89. (c) Assertion
90. (b) Positive
UNIT IV
91. (a) display all attributes in a relation
92. (a) having
93. (d) EXISTS
94. (d) Ascending
95. (a) i-only
96. (d) tuple variable
97. (a) select avg(salary) form emp;
98. (a) J%Y

99. (c) equi join

100. (a) Specify what table we are selecting
101. (b) union all

102. (b) SELECT city FROM weather WHERE humidity = 89;

103. (d) IN
104. (b) When a table is deleted
105. (c) Similar to WHERE clause but is used for groups rather than rows.
106. (b) a way to establish an IF-THEN-ELSE in SQL
107. (a) DECIMAL
108. (a) Values
109. (d) Union
110. (a) LIKE only
111. (b) percent sign (%); underscore (_)
112. (c) DISTINCT
113. (a) for ranges.
114. (b) Virtual tables
115. (b) ASC
116. (b) Outer JOIN
117. (b) SELECT, WHERE, GROUP BY, HAVING
118. (b) SELECT * FROM student WHERE name LIKE 'p%';
119. (b) r and s have no duplicates
120. (a) 2000
UNIT V
121. (a) set serveroutput on
122. (a) CURSOR cursor_name IS select_statement;
123. (b) identifiers
124. (a) %rowtype
125. (c) %type
126. (b) SQL%NOT FOUND
127. (d) SQL%ROWCOUNT
128. (a) Function
129. (d) c==d
130. (b) fetch <cursor-name> into <variables>
131. (b) dbms_output.put_line()
132. (c) SQL
133. (d) %FOUND
134. (a) cursor
135. (c) anonymous block
136. (d) SQL%ROWCOUNT
137. (b) DDL
138. (d) end loop
139. (c) OPEN FETCH CLOSE
140. (c) exit
141. (b) SET SERVEROUTPUT ON
142. (d) t table-name.column-name;%type
143. (c) Opening and parsing of SQL statements
144. (d)cursor for loops handle cursor opening implicitly
145. (b) OPEN cur_employee;
146. (a) %FOUND
147. (c) Create
148. (a) Delimiters
149. (a) A cursor is a pointer to a temporary work area created in the system memory
150. (c) Implicit cursor