DROPPER NEET

MRNY/403 Milestone Test-03 Phase-3 & 4

DURATION: 200 Minutes DATE: 05/11/2023 M.MARKS: 720

Code-C
Topic Covered
Physics : Rotational Motion, Motion of System of Particle and COM, Rotational Motion, Gravitation,
Mechanical Properties of Solids & Mechanical Properties of Fluids
Chemistry : Chemical Bonding & Molecular Structure, Chemical Kinetics
Botany : Anatomy of Flowering Plants & Photosynthesis in Higher Plants
Zoology : Neural Control and Coordination & Chemical Coordination and Integration

GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four sections in the Question paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section
- II (Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section-IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and
each subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions all compulsory) and
Section B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry and textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A 4. What is the moment of inertia of a ring of mass M
and radius R about an axis tangent to the
1. At a certain instant of time, two particles of 2 kg and
circumference of the ring and in the plane of ring.
3 kg have position iˆ ˆj 2kˆ and 2iˆ ˆj kˆ . The
(1) MR2 (2) 2 MR2
velocities of the particles are 2iˆ and iˆ 3 ˆj . The 1
velocity of the centre of mass of the system is: (3) 1.5 MR2 (4) MR2
2
2iˆ 3 ˆj 8iˆ ˆj 7 kˆ
(1) (2)
5 5 5. A particle of mass m moves along line PC with
7iˆ 9 ˆj 9iˆ 7 ˆj velocity v as shown. What is the angular momentum
(3) (4) of the particle about P?
5 5

2. Two skaters A and B of masses 60 kg and 80 kg start

pulling each other with the help of a massless rope
as shown in the figure. The meeting point from the
origin is at a distance of

(1) mvL (2) mvl

(3) mvx (4) zero

6. A horizontal force acts on a disc along the velocity

of its centre of mass. The mass and radius of disc is
(1) 5 m (2) 7 m m and R. The coefficient of friction between disc
40 40 and the surface is μ. For what value of maximum
(3) m (4) m
3 7 value of F for which, there would be no slipping is

3. A force F ( 2iˆ 2 ˆj 3kˆ) N acts on a particle

whose coordinates are (–2, –1, 2)m. The magnitude
of torque acting on the particle about the origin is
(1) 12 N m (2) 20 N m (1) μ mg (2) μ mg/2
(3) 29 N m (4) 59 N m (3) 2μ mg (4) 3μ mg
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[2]
7. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc v
(1) 4v (2)
about a tangential axis in the plane of the disc and 4
of a circular ring of the same radius about a v
tangential axis in the plane of the ring is: (3) (4) 2v
2
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 5: 6
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 1: 2 11. A ladder is leaned against a smooth wall and
allowed to slip on a frictionless floor. Which figure
8. Assertion: A solid sphere cannot roll without represents the trace of centre of mass?
slipping on smooth horizontal surface.
Reason: If the sphere is left free on smooth inclined
surface, it cannot roll without slipping.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but (1) (2)
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

9. A particle of mass m has been thrown up with initial (3) (4)

speed u making an angle θ with the horizontal. Find
the torque of its weight about the point of projection
when it just reached the highest point. 12. The linear density of a thin rod of length 1 m varies
(1) mu sinθ cosθ (2) mu2 sinθ cosθ as λ = (1 + 2x), where x is the distance from its one
mu sin 2  mu 2 sin 2  end. Find the distance of its centre of mass from this
(3) (4)
2 2 end.
12 7
(1) (2)
10. Water is flowing through a tube of radius r with a 7 12
speed v. If this tube is joined to another tube of
5 12
r (3) (4)
radius , the speed of water in the second tube is 12 5
2

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[3]
13. A hole is made in the bottom of tank having water. If 17. Assertion: Gravitational force between two masses
total pressure at bottom is 3 atm (1 atm = 105 N m–2) in air is F. If they are immersed in water, force will
then the velocity of water flowing from hole is remain F.
(1) 400 ms–1 (2) 600 ms–1 Reason: Gravitational force does not depend on the
medium between the masses.
(3) 60 ms–1 (4) None of these
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
14. A circular disc A of radius R is made from an iron
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
plate of thickness t and another disc B of radius 4R
Reason is not the correct explanation of
is made from an iron plate of thickness t/4. Then,
Assertion.
the relation between the moment of inertia IA and IB
(3) If Assertion is correct but Reason is correct.
is
(4) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(1) IB = IA (2) IB = 32 IA
(3) IB = 4 IA (4) IB = 64 IA
18. Assertion: The centre of semicircular ring of mass
m and radius R is the origin O. The potential at
15. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R a cube
Gm
of maximum possible volume is cut. The moment of origin is .
R
inertia of cube about an axis passing through its
centre and perpendicular to one of its faces is Reason: The gravitational field strength is towards
Y-axis.
MR 2 MR 2
(1) (2)
32 2 16 2
4 MR 2 4 MR 2
(3) (4)
9 3 3 3

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and

16. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
changes its angular momentum from 3 J0 to 4 J0 in
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
4 s. The magnitude of the torque is
Reason is not the correct explanation of
J0 Assertion.
(1) (2) 4 J0
4 (3) If Assertion is correct but Reason is correct.
(3) J0 (4) 12 J0
(4) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

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[4]
19. When a disc rotates with uniform angular velocity, 23.
choose the incorrect statement.
(1) The sense of rotation remains same.
(2) The orientation of the axis of rotation remains
same.
(3) The speed of rotation is non-zero and remains
same.
(4) The angular acceleration is non-zero and
remains same.
20. A particle is moving in a circular orbit with constant
speed. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1) Its linear momentum is conserved.
24.
(2) Its angular momentum is conserved.
(3) It is moving with variable velocity.
(4) It is moving with variable acceleration.
21. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg-m2 about its
vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm about the
axis. The torque which can stop the wheel's rotation
in 1 min would be:
A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R rotates
about an axis through its centre and perpendicular to
its plane with a constant angular velocity ω. Eight
small spheres, each of mass m (negligible radius)
are kept gently to the opposite ends of four
diameters of the ring. The new angular velocity of
the ring
M
(1) 4ω (2)
4m
( M 4 m) M
(3) (4)
M M 8m
A small mass m is attached to a massless string
whose other end is fixed at P as shown in the figure.
The mass is undergoing circular motion in the xy-
plane with centre at O and constant angular speed ω.
If the angular momentum of the system, calculated
about O and P, is denoted by LO and LP ,
respectively, then

(1) Nm (2) Nm
12 15
2
(3) Nm (4) Nm
18 15
(1) LO and LP do not vary with time.
22. When a ceiling fan is switched off, its angular
velocity falls to half while it makes 36 rotations. (2) LO varies with while LP remains constant.
How many more rotations will it make before (3) LO remains constant while LP varies with
coming to rest?
time.
(1) 12 (2) 18
(4) LO and LP both vary with time.
(3) 24 (4) 36

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25. Which of the following is true about the angular 29. The height at which the acceleration due to gravity
momentum of a cylinder rolling down a slope g
becomes (where g = the acceleration due to
without slipping? 16
(1) Its magnitude changes but the direction gravity at the surface of Earth) in terms of R, the
remains same. radius of the Earth is
(2) Both magnitude and direction change. (1) 3R (2) 4R
(3) 2R (4) R
(3) Only the direction changes.
(4) Neither magnitude nor direction changes.
30. A mass 9 m and a mass m are placed at a distance
‘a’ from each other. Another mass m0 is placed so
26. A uniform disc of mass M and radius R is mounted that the net force on m0 is zero. The distance of m0
on an axle supported in frictionless bearings. A light from 9 m is
cord is wrapped around the rim of the disc and a a
(1) (2) 2a
steady downwards pull T is exerted on the cord. The 4
angular acceleration of the disc is 3a
(3) 3a (4)
T MR 4
(1) (2)
MR T
2T MR 31. If the radius of Earth were to shrink by 1%, its mass
(3) (4) remaining the same, then the percentage change in
MR 2T
acceleration due to gravity on the Earth surface
would be
27. Calculate the MOI of a square plate of mass 5 kg (1) 1% (2) 2%
and L = 6 m about an axis passing through centre (3) 0.5% (4) 4%
and perpendicular to the plane of square plate?
(1) 30 kgm2 (2) 20 kgm2 32. Which of the following statement is true in case
(3) 10 kgm2 (4) 50 kgm2 when two water drops coalesce and make a bigger drop?
(1) Energy is released.
28. Average density of Earth (2) Energy is absorbed.
(3) The surface area of the bigger drop is greater
(1) is a complex function of g.
than the sum of the surface areas of both the
(2) does not depend on g. drops.
(3) is inversely proportional to g. (4) The surface area of the bigger drop is same that
(4) is directly proportional to g. of the sum of the surface areas of both the drops.

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[6]
33. A particle of mass m is placed at the centre of a 37. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are placed at a
uniform spherical shell of mass m and radius R. The distance r. The gravitational potential at a point on
gravitational potential on the surface of shell is the line joining them where the gravitational field is
Gm 2Gm zero is
(1) (2)
R R 4Gm 6Gm
3Gm (1) (2)
(3) (4) zero r r
R
9Gm
(3) zero (4)
34. Three particles of mass m are placed at the vertices r
of an equilateral triangle of side l. The work required 38. The Earth revolves around the Sun in 1 year. If the
in placing the particles at the vertices of an distance between them becomes double, the new
equilateral triangle of side 2l is: time period of revolution of Earth is
Gm2 Gm2 (1) 4 2 year (2) 2 2 year
(1) (2)
2l l
(3) 4 year (4) 8 year
3Gm 2 2Gm 2
(3) (4)
2l l 39. The escape velocity of a particle of mass m varies as
(1) m–1 (2) m0
35. The kinetic energy needed to project a body of mass
m from the Earth's surface (radius R) to infinity is (3) m (4) m2
mgR
(1) (2) 2mgR
2 40. Assertion: If angle of contact is 90°, then liquid will
mgR neither rise nor fall in a capillary.
(3) (4) mgR
4 Reason: When angle of contact is 90°, surface is
neither convex nor concave inside the capillary. It is
SECTION – B flat.
36. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the Earth's (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
surface, the gain in potential energy of an object of Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
mass m raised from the surface of Earth to a height
equal to the radius R of Earth is (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
1 Reason is not the correct explanation of
(1) mgR (2) 2mgR Assertion.
4
mgR (3) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) (4) mgR (4) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
2

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[7]
41. Assertion: When an ideal fluid flows through a pipe 44. Two rods of different materials having coefficients
of non-uniform cross-section, then pressure is more of thermal expansion α1 and α2 and Young's moduli
at that section, where area is more, if the pipe is Y1 and Y2, respectively, are fixed between two
horizontal.
massive rigid walls. The rods are heated such that
Reason: According to Bernoulli's theorem, speed at
they undergo the same increase in temperature.
broader cross-section will be less.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and There is no bending of the rods. If α1 : α2 = 2 : 3, the
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. thermal stresses developed in the two rods are equal,
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but provided Y1 : Y2 is equal to
Reason is not the correct explanation of (1) 2:3 (2) 1:1
Assertion.
(3) 3:2 (4) 4:9
(3) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
45. When the radius and mass of earth are increased by
42. A body is projected vertically upward from the 0.5%. Which of the following statement is correct at
surface of the Earth with a velocity equal to half the the surface of the earth?
escape velocity. If R is the radius of the Earth, the
maximum height attained by the body is (1) g will decrease.
R R (2) g will increase.
(1) (2)
6 3 (3) Escape velocity varies by 15%.
2 (4) Potential energy varies by 19.99%
(3) R (4) R
3

43. A mass m tied to a string of length l, radius r, having 46. A wire fixed at the upper end stretches by length l
breaking stress of S is whirled in a horizontal circle. by applying a force F. The work done in stretching
The maximum angular velocity will be (in rad s–1): is
r 2S πr 2 S (1)
Fl
(2) 2Fl
(1) (2)
2 ml ml 2

πr 2 S 2πr 2 S Fl 2
(3) (4) (3) (4) 2F2l
4 ml ml 2

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[8]
47. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2 49. Work done in increasing the size of a soap bubble
having densities ρ1 and ρ2, respectively. A solid ball, from a radius of 3 cm to 5 cm is nearly (surface
made of a material of density ρ3, is dropped in the tension of soap solution = 0.03 N m–1)
jar. It comes to equilibrium in the position shown in
(1) 0.2 π mJ (2) 2 π mJ
the figure. Which of the following is true for ρ1, ρ2
and ρ3? (3) 0.4 π mJ (4) 4 π mJ

50. A capillary tube (A) is dipped in water. Another

identical tube (B) is dipped in a soap-water solution.
Which of the following shows the relative nature of
the liquid columns in the two tubes?

(1) ρ1 > ρ3 > ρ2 (2) ρ1 < ρ3 < ρ2

(3) ρ3 < ρ1 < ρ2 (4) ρ1 < ρ2 < ρ3

(1)
48. A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top, floats
in water as shown in the figure. The distance l and h
are shown here. After some-time the coin falls in the
water. Then
(2)

(3)

(1) l decreases and h increases.

(2) l increases and h decreases.
(3) both h and l increases.
(4) both l and h decreases. (4)

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[9]
 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A 55. Which of these overlaps leads to formation of a π-
51. Which combination will give the strongest ionic bond? (If y-axis is considered to be internuclear axis)
bond? (1) pz + pz (2) py + py
– – (3) s + py (4) px + py
(1) Na+ and Cl (2) Mg2+ and Cl
– –
(3) Na+ and O2 (4) Mg2+ and O2
56. Increasing order of bond angle in the following
species is
52. Which of the following possess intramolecular H- CH4 NH3 BCl3
bonding? I II III
(1) II < I < III (2) I < II < III
(3) III < II < I (4) I < III < II
(1) (2)
57. Hybridization of Xe in XeO2F2 is
(1) sp3 (2) sp3d
(3) sp3d2 (4) sp2
(3) (4)
58. Which of the following set of molecules will have
non-zero dipole moment?
53. Which of the following compounds does not contain (1) CH4, CH2Cl2, CCl4, H2O
all bonds of equal bond length? (2) H2O, NH3, PCl5, CH2Cl2
(1) SF6 (2) PCl5 (3) NH3, H2O, PCl3, CH2Cl2

(3) CH4 (4) SO3 (4) CH4, CCl4, H2O, NH3

59. During change of N2 to N2– ion, the electron is

54. Bond order O22− of is
added to which one of the following orbitals?
(1) 1 (2) 1.5
(1)  orbital (2) * orbital
(3) 2 (4) 2.5 (3) π orbital (4) π* orbital

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60. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding is generally 66. The variation of the boiling points of the hydrogen
absent in halides is in the order HF > HI > HBr > HCl.
(1) H2O (2) HF What explains the higher boiling point of hydrogen
fluoride?
(1) The bond energy of HF molecules is greater
(3) (4) than in other hydrogen halides
(2) The effect of nuclear shielding is much
reduced in fluorine which polarises the HF
molecule
61. The molecule with minimum ionic character is (3) The electronegativity of fluorine is much
(1) LiF (2) NaF
higher than for other elements in the group.
(3) KF (4) CsF
(4) There is strong hydrogen bonding between HF
62. π bond is formed: molecules
(1) By overlapping of hybridised orbitals
(2) Overlapping of s - s orbitals 67. The paramagnetic property of the oxygen molecule
(3) Head on overlapping of p - p orbitals is due to the presence of unpaired electrons present
(4) By p - p collateral overlapping in:
(1) (σ2px)1 and (σ*2px)1
63. The percent s-character in CH4 is:
(1) 100% (2) 45% (2) (σ2px)1 and (π2py)1
(3) 75% (4) 25% (3) (π*2py)1 and (π*2px)1
(4) (π*2py)1 and (π2py)1
64. Two nodal planes are present in:
(1) π*2px (2) 2pz
(3) π2px (4) π2py 68. Which of the following possess two lone pair of
electrons on the central atom and square planar
65. The force responsible for dissolution of ionic shape:
compound in water is: (I) SF4 (II) XeO4
(1) Dipole - dipole forces (III) XeF4 (IV) ICl4–
(2) Ion - dipole force
(1) I, III (2) II, IV
(3) Ion - ion force
(4) Hydrogen bond (3) III, IV (4) All

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69. Two elements X and Y have following electronic
configuration:
X : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2
(3)
Y : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
The expected compound formed by combination of
X and Y will be expressed as:
(1) XY2 (2) X5Y2
(3) X2Y5 (4) XY
(4)
70. Resonanting structures can be written for:
(1) O3 (2) NH3
(3) CH4 (4) H2O
72. Which of the following sets of species does not
follow octet rule?
71. For a reaction A → B enthalpy of reaction is –4.2 kJ
(1) CO, PCl5, PCl3, AlCl3
mol–1 and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol–1. The (2) CO, B2H6, NH3, H2O
correct potential energy profile for the reaction is (3) AlCl3, BF3, PCl5, SF6
shown in option. (4) H2O, NH3, CO2, AlCl3

73. The type of bonds present in CuSO4⋅5H2O are:

(1) electrovalent, covalent and coordinate
(1) (2) electrovalent and covalent
(3) electrovalent and coordinate
(4) covalent and coordinate

74. The bond angles of NH3, NH4+ and NH2– are in the
order:
(1) NH2– > NH3 > NH4+
(2)
(2) NH4+ > NH3 > NH2–
(3) NH3 > NH2– > NH4+
(4) NH3 > NH4+ > NH2–

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75. The electronegativity difference between N and F is 79. For zero order and second order reactions units of
greater than that between N and H, yet the dipole rate constant (k) are respectively
moment of NH3(1.5D) is larger than that of NF3 (1) mol L–1s–1 and s–1
(0.2D). This is because: (2) s–1 and mol–1 L s–1
(1) in NH3 as well as in NF3, the atomic dipole and (3) mol L–1 s–1 and mol–1 L s–1
bond dipole are in opposite directions (4) mol–1 L–1 s–1 and s–1
(2) in NH3, the atomic dipole and bond dipole are
in the opposite directions whereas in NF3, these 80. Select the incorrect statement among the following
are in the same direction (1) Acidic hydrolysis of an ester is a pseudo first
order reaction
(3) in NH3 as well as in NF3, the atomic dipole and
1 2.303R
bond dipole are in the same direction (2) A plot of log k against has slope equal to .
T Ea
(4) in NH3, the atomic dipole and bond dipole are
in the same direction whereas in NF3, these are (3) Catalyst alters the rate of reaction without itself
in the opposite directions undergoing any permanent chemical change
(4) Fraction of molecules capable of bringing
effective collisions increases on increasing
76. The bond order of C—O bond for CO32– ion is: temperature.
(1) 1.25 (2) 1.33
(3) 1.5 (4) 1.0 81. For the reaction A + 2B → 3C, if the rate of
disappearance of B at time t is 0.8 × 10–4 mol L–1 S–1
77. The rate of reaction; A + 2B → Products, is given then the rate of appearance of C at time t is
by the equation r = k[A] [B]2. If B is taken in large (1) 0.4 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
excess, the order of the reaction would be (2) 0.8 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1.2 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(4) 1.6 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 1 (4) 0
82. Calculate the order of the reaction w.r.t. A and B:
78. For the reaction A + B → C + D, on doubling the
[A] [B] Rate
concentration of both the reactants A and B, the (mol L ) (mol L ) (mol L–1 S–1)
–1 –1
reaction rate becomes 4 times and on doubling the 0.05 0.05 1.2 × 10–3
concentration of only B the rate of reaction remains
0.10 0.05 2.4 × 10–3
the same. The rate law for the above reaction is
0.05 0.10 1.2 × 10–3
(1) r = k[A]1 [B]1 (2) r = k[A]0 [B]1 (1) 1 and 0 (2) 1 and 1
2 0
(3) r = k[A] [B] (4) r = k[A]0 [B]2 (3) 0 and 1 (4) None

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83. K for a zero order reaction is SECTION – B
2 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1. If the concentration of the 86. Azo isopropane decomposes according to the
reactant after 25s is 0.5M, the initial concentration equation:
must have been.
250− 290ºC
(CH3)2 CHN = NCH(CH3)2(g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ N2(g)
(1) 0.5 M (2) 1.25 M
+ C6H14(g)
(3) 12.5 M (4) 1.0 M
It is found to be a first order reaction. If initial
pressure is Po and pressure of the mixture at time t
84. Which of the following plot is in accordance with
is Pt then rate constant k would be:
the Arrhenius equation:
2.303 Po
(1) k = log
t 2Po − Pt

(1) (2) 2.303 P − Pt

(2) k = log o
t Po

2.303 Po
(3) k = log
t Po − Pt

(3) (4) 2.303 2Po

(4) k = log
t 2Po − Pt

85. The following mechanism has been proposed for the

reaction of NO with Br2 to form NOBr: 87. The rate of a gaseous reaction is given by the
NO(g) + Br2(g) NOBr2(g) expression k[A][B]. If the volume of reaction vessel
is suddenly reduced to one-fourth of the initial
NOBr2(g) + NO(g) → 2NOBr(g)
volume, the reaction rate relative to the original rate
If the second step is the rate determining step, the
will be:
order of the reaction with respect to NO(g) is:
(1) 2 (2) 1 (1) 1/16 (2) 1/8

(3) 0 (4) 3 (3) 8 (4) 16

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88. Graph between concentration of the product 'x' and 89. The number of molecules of the reactants taking part
time 't' for A → B is given ahead: in a single step of the reaction tells about:
(1) molecularity of the reaction
(2) mechanism of the reaction
(3) Pseudo order of reaction
(4) all of the above

90. The rate constant, the activation energy and the

d A
The graph between – and time will be of the Arrhenius parameter of a chemical reaction at 25ºC
dt are 3.0 × 10–4 s–1, 104.4 kJ mol–1 and 6.0 × 1014 s–1
type: respectively. The value of rate constant at T → ∞ is:
(1) 2.0 × 1018 s–1 (2) 6.0 × 1014 s–1
(3) infinity (4) 3.6 × 1030 s–1
(1)
91. The half life period of a first order reaction is 10
minutes. The time required for the concentration of
the reactant to change from 0.08 M to 0.02 M is:
(1) 10 min (2) 20 min
(2) (3) 30 min (4) 40 min

92. Which of the following relation is correct for zero

order reaction?
(1) t 3/4 = 2t1/2 (2) t 3/4 = 1.5t1/2
(3) 1 1
(3) t 3/4 = t1/2 (4) t 3/4 = t1/2
2 3
93. The half life period for a zero order reaction is equal
to:
[A] 0
(1) 2k[A] 0 (2)
(4) 2k
0.693 0.693
(3) (4)
k k[A] 0

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94. Plots showing the variation of the rate constant (k) 97. The plot of concentration of the reactant vs. time for
with temperature (T) are given below. The plot that a reaction is a straight line with a negative slope.
follow Arrhenius equation is The reaction follows a
(1) zero order rate equation

(1) (2) (2) first order rate equation

(3) second order rate equation
(4) third order rate equation

(3) (4)
98. The number and type of bonds in C22− ion in CaC2 are:

(1) One  bond and one π-bond

(2) One  bond and two π-bond
d  NH 3 
95. For the reaction, N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3, if
dt (3) Two  bond and two π-bond
d H2  (4) Two  bond and one π-bond
= 2 × 10–4 mol/L/s, the value of – would be
dt
–4
(1) 4 × 10 mol/L/s (2) 6 × 10–4 mol/L/s
(3) 1 × 10–4 mol/L/s (4) 3 × 10–4 mol/L/s 99. The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every
10ºC rise of temperature. If the temperature is raised
by 50ºC, the rate of the reaction increases by about:
96. In the reaction
BrO3– (aq) + 5Br– + 6H+ → 3Br2 + 3H2O (1) 10 times (2) 24 times
the rate of appearance of bromine is related to the (3) 32 times (4) 64 times
rate of disappearance of bromide ions as

d  Br2   − d  Br2   −
5 d  Br  5 d  Br  100. For a first order reaction t0.75 is 1386 seconds,
(1) =− (2) =
dt 3 dt dt 3 dt therefore, the specific rate constant in sec–1 is
−  −
d  Br2  3 d  Br  d  Br2  3 d  Br  (1) 10–3 (2) 10–2
(3) = (4) =−
dt 5 dt dt 5 dt (3) 10–9 (4) 10–5

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 SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION – A 105. Root differs from stem in having
101. Which among the following is not a lateral (1) Exarch xylem
meristem? (2) Radial vascular bundle
(1) Intrafascicular meristem (3) Parenchymatous hypodermis
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) Cork cambium
(3) Interfascicular meristem
106. In Moll’s half leaf experiment, the part of leaf
(4) Root apical meristem outside the KOH containing bottle
(1) Tested positive for starch due to presence of
102. Xylem is called complex tissue because chlorophyll
(1) It is made up of four types of cells (2) Tested negative for starch due to absence of
chlorophyll
(2) It is responsible for ascent of sap
(3) Tested positive for starch due to presence of
(3) It has thick lignified cell wall sunlight
(4) It provides mechanical support (4) Tested positive for starch due to presence of
carbon dioxide
103. Assertion: Pericycle of monocot roots show dual
functioning. 107. Which of the following elements of vascular tissues
Reason: Pericycle of monocot root helps in helps in maintaining the pressure gradient in sieve
tubes?
formation of lateral roots and secondary growth.
(1) Phloem parenchyma
(1) If both assertion & reason are true & the reason
(2) Xylem fibres
is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Companion cell
(2) If both assertion & reason are true but reason is
(4) Bast fibres
not a correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If assertion is true but the reason is false
108. Which one of the following comprises only simple
(4) If both assertion & reason are false permanent tissue?
(1) Xylem And Phloem
104. Fruit wall of nut is made up of: (2) Parenchyma, Xylem and Phloem
(1) Collenchyma (2) Sclereids (3) Parenchyma, Xylem and Collenchyma
(3) Fibres (4) Parenchyma (4) Parenchyma, Collenchyma and Sclerenchyma

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109. Which of the following is not the part of ground 113. Select the odd one w.r.t. functions of parenchyma
tissue system? tissue.
(1) Photosynthesis
(1) Vascular bundle (2) Pericycle
(2) Storage
(3) Pith (4) Cortex (3) Provide mechanical strength
(4) Secretion

110. Dicot root is different from monocot root as the 114. Carefully observe the figure given below.
former has / shows Which of the following option correctly shows the
(1) Radial arrangement of vascular bundles presence of such vascular tissue system?
(2) Cambium in between xylem and phloem in a
bundle on same radius
(3) Secondary growth
(4) Unicellular root hairs

(1) Dicot stem (2) Dicot leaf

111. Fill in the blank with appropriate option: (3) Dicot root (4) Monocot stem
Trichomes are ______ and Root hair are _____.
115. Which one of the following is the main function of
(1) Unicellular; Multicellular
carotenoids?
(2) Multicellular; Unicellular (1) Not an accessory pigment
(3) Unicellular; Unicellular (2) Prevent photo-oxidation
(3) Helps in respiration
(4) Multicellular; Multicellular
(4) Absorbs light energy and excites an electron

112. In the chloroplast, the stroma lamellae lack the 116. How many ATP and NADPH2 are required
respectively to form five molecules of glucose in
(1) PS I, NADP reductase rice plant?
(2) PS II, PS I (1) 90 NADPH2 and 60 ATP
(2) 90 ATP and 90 NADPH2
(3) NADP reductase enzyme, P700
(3) 60 NADPH2 and 90 ATP
(4) NADP reductase, PS II (4) 150 ATP and 60 NADPH2

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117. Which of the following option correctly satisfies 122. Select the correct match.
the following statement? (1) Cyclic photophos- Involvement of both
“Pericycle is present on the inner side of the phorylation PS I and PS II
endodermis and above the phloem in the form of
(2) Z-scheme Non-cyclic
semi-lunar patches of sclerenchyma.”
photophos-
(1) Dicot root (2) Monocot stem phorylation
(3) Dicot stem (4) Monocot root
(3) Splitting of water Association of PS I
(4) PS II Reaction centre P700
118. In cyclic photophosphorylation which one of the
following is formed
(1) NADP+ & ATP 123. Pericycle
(2) ATP (1) Is the outermost part of stele
(3) NADH.H+ and O2 (2) Is part of pith
(4) NADPH.H+, ATP and O2
(3) Present in monocot stem
(4) Is photosynthetic and stores food material
119. Double CO2 fixation and Kranz anatomy are
features of
(1) Tomato (2) Bell pepper 124. In chromatogram, the chlorophyll 'a' appears
(3) Sugarcane (4) Cactus _______ in colour.
(1) Yellow (2) Blue green
120. Dicot leaf differs from monocot leaf is having: (3) Yellow orange (4) Yellow green
(1) Bulliform cells
(2) Spongy parenchyma 125. Select the option with correct identification of type
(3) Palisade parenchyma of tissue from which the given structure is formed
(4) Protoxylem towards adaxial surface in dicot stem.
Hypodermis Medullary rays
121. In C4 plants, sugar is produced in
(1) Collenchyma Parenchyma
(1) Bundle sheath cells
(2) Parenchyma Parenchyma
(2) Mesophyll cells
(3) Palisade leaf cells (3) Parenchyma Sclerenchyma
(4) Spongy mesophyll (4) Sclerenchyma Collenchyma

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126. Photosynthesis is an oxidation reduction process, 131. Select the mismatched pair:
the materials that is oxidised is: (1) Root hair - Unicellular
(1) CO2 (2) NADP+ (2) Stem hair - Multicellular
(3) H2O (4) PGA (3) Trichomes – Cause water loss
(4) Guard cells – Regulate opening and closing
127. Which of the following statements is correct? of stomata
(1) Angiosperms lack vessels in their xylem
(2) The presence of vessels is a characteristic
132. The common feature between non-cyclic and cyclic
feature of angiosperms
photophosphorylation is:
(3) The cells of vessels are living
(1) Proton gradient formation
(4) Vessel is a round, spherical cell made up of
(2) Release of O2
many vessel members
(3) Formation of NADPH.H+
(4) Photolysis of water
128. Which among the given, transfers electrons
between PS II and cytochrome b6f complex?
(1) Plastoquinone (2) Plastocyanin 133. Match the column and choose the appropriate
option.
(3) Ferredoxin (4) PS I
Column -I Column -II
129. Choose correct option w.r.t spongy mesophyll in (a) Parenchyma (i) Isodiametric cells
dicot leaf. (b) Collenchyma (ii) Lignified cell
(1) Numerous large spaces and air cavities walls
between its cells (c) Sclerenchyma (iii) Living mechanical
(2) A large number of chloroplasts tissue
(3) Present on the adaxial surface (d) Xylem (iv) Conducting tissue
(4) Vertical and parallel arrangement of cells for water
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
130. A Sorghum plant does not have/show (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(1) Kranz anatomy (2) Mesophyll cells (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) C3 cycle (4) Photorespiration (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

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134. Who showed that only green parts of the plant could 138. Find out the correct match from the following
release oxygen? table:
(1) Priestley (2) Sachs Column-
Column-I Column-II
(3) Ingenhousz (4) Moll III
Oxygen
(i) Photochemical Photosystem II
135. The C4 and C3 plants differ from each other in release

(1) Type of pigments involved in photosynthesis Paper Yellow

(ii) Chlorophyll ‘b’
Chromatography orange
(2) The primary acceptor of CO2 during carbon
fixation Red light
(iii) Carotenoids Chief pigment
absorption
(3) Type of end products of photosynthesis
(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii)
(4) Number of NADPH.H+ that are consumed
during the starch synthesis process (3) (iii) only (4) (ii) and (iii)

SECTION – B 139. Choose the correct labelling for given figure:

136. The reaction that is responsible for the primary
fixation of CO2 is catalysed by
(1) RuBP carboxylase
(2) PEP carboxylase
(3) RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase
(4) PGA synthase

137. Photorespiration is favoured by: (1) D-Saturation point, E-Maximum

(1) Low light intensity photosynthesis
(2) Low O2 and high CO2 (2) A-Achieved at high light intensity
(3) Low temperature (3) D-10% of total sunlight, E-Compensation point
(4) High O2 and Low CO2 (4) A-Light saturation at 10% of total sunlight

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140. ATP synthesis in chloroplast and mitochondria is 143. Which of the following is incorrect for secondary
due to proton gradient across the membrane. meristem?
Select correct statement w.r.t ATP formation in (1) They regenerate the part of grass damaged by
chloroplast. grazing animals
(a) Proton accumulates in lumen of thylakoid (2) They are cylindrical meristem
(b) Splitting of water occurs on inner side of membrane (3) They occur in the mature regions of roots and shoots
(c) Proton accumulates in stroma side of chloroplast (4) They appear later than primary meristem in the
(d) NADP reductase is located on stroma side of life of plant
membrane
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct 144. Mark the following statements as true (T) or false
(2) Only (b) and (c) are correct (F) and select the correct option.
A. Regeneration of RuBP is crucial for Calvin
(3) Only (c) and (d) are correct
cycle to continue uninterrupted.
(4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
B. Plants adapted to dry tropical regions are
mostly C3 plants.
141. C3 plants have been used as greenhouse crops for
C. Calvin cycle is common to the C3 and C4 plants.
higher yields because:
A B C A B C
(1) These plants show CO2 saturation at about (1) F T T (2) T T F
360 mlL–1 (3) F T F (4) T F T
(2) Current availability of CO2 levels is limiting to
C3 plants 145. Match the following:
(3) These plants are photosynthetically more Column-I Column-II
efficient than C4 plants Hypodermis in
(4) C3 plants loses less water as compare to C4 plants (a) (i) Absent
dicot stem
Pericycle in
142. Assertion: Indirectly water stress leads to decrease (b) (ii) Parenchymatous
dicot stem
in photosynthesis. Ground tissue in
Reason: Water stress leads to wilt of leaves and (c) (iii) Collenchymatous
monocot stem
minimise their surface area. Phloem
(1) If both assertion & reason are true & the reason (d) parenchyma in (iv) Sclerenchymatous
is a correct explanation of the assertion. monocot stem
(2) If both assertion & reason are true but reason is (1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
not a correct explanation of the assertion (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) If assertion is true but the reason is false (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) If both assertion & reason are false (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

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146. The final electron acceptor in non-cyclic (1) Both A and B are correct
photophosphorylation is (2) Both A and B are incorrect
(1) H2O (2) ADP (3) Only statement A is correct
+
(3) NADP (4) NAD+ (4) Only statement B is correct

147. In cyclic photophosphorylation there is no need of 149. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option.
external source of electrons because (i) Cuticle is absent in a
(1) The electrons removed by PS II is taken up by (ii) In grasses guard cells are b shaped
PS I. a b
(2) Cytochromes involved in the process provide (1) Root Dumb-bell
electrons to PS I. (2) Leaf Dumb-bell
(3) The electrons are circulated within the (3) Leaf Bean
photosystem I (4) Root Bean
(4) NADPH acts as reducing agent.
150. All the given statements are correct for
148. Read the statements given below and select the collenchyma, except
correct option. (1) Occurs in layer below the epidermis in most of
A. Stomata regulates the process of transpiration dicot plants
and gaseous exchange. (2) Deposition of hemicellulose and pectin on cell wall
B. Epidermal cells are parenchymatous cells with (3) It is composed of dead cells
small amount of cytoplasm lining the cell wall (4) Provides mechanical support to the growing parts
and large vacuole.

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION – A 152. In a resting neuron, the axonal membrane is:
(1) Nearly impermeable to K+
151. Find out the correct statement. (2) Permeable to negatively charged proteins
(1) The PNS is the site of information processing present in the axoplasm
and control (3) Comparatively more permeable to K+ than Na+
(2) All the nerves of the body associated with the (4) Comparatively more permeable to Na+ than K+
PNS comprise the CNS
(3) The autonomic neural system relays impulses 153. On application of a stimulus on the axonal membrane.
from the CNS to the involuntary organs of the body (1) There is a rapid influx of K+ at stimulus site
(4) The CNS is divided into two divisions called (2) There is a rapid efflux of Na+ at stimulus site
(3) There is a rapid influx of Na+ at stimulus site
sympathetic neural system and
(4) There is a rapid efflux of K+ at stimulus site
parasympathetic neural system
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154. Association areas are:
(1) Sensory areas found in deeper parts of cerebral cortex
(2) Motor areas found in surface layer of gray
matter of cerebrum
(3) Neither clearly sensory nor motor, found in
gray matter of cerebrum
(4) Hypothalamic neurons which secretes hormones
155. Which part of human brain is connected to the
spinal cord?
(1) Cerebrum (2) Pons
(3) Medulla oblongata (4) Mid brain
156. All of the following statements are incorrect w.r.t
human brain except.
(1) Cerebellum is the largest part of brain
(2) Cerebrum is a structural constituent of brain stem
(3) Amygdala are present in hinbrain
(4) Corpora quadrigemina is present in midbrain
157. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) Electrical synapses are more common in our
neural system than chemical synapses.
(2) The new potential in post-synaptic neuron may
be either excitatory or inhibitory.
(3) Hypothalamus is the major coordination centre
for sensory and motor signaling.
(4) The tracts of muscle fibres that connect two
cerebral hemispheres are called corpus callosum.
158. Based on which of the following, the neurons are
divided into three major types?
(1) Based on the size of neurons
(2) Based on the length of neurons
(3) Based on the number of axons and dendrites
(4) Based on the power of their division
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159. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the
action potential results from the movement of:
(1) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to
intracellular fluid.
(2) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid.
(3) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to
extracellular fluid.
(4) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid.
160. Which of the following terms is not correctly
matched with its feature?
(1) Efferent neurons - Carries signals from CNS to
tissues/organs.
(2) Axon terminal - Possess neurotransmitter
containing vesicle.
(3) Limbic system - Along with the hypothalamus,
it is involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour.
(4) Association areas - Present in cerebellum and
responsible for functions like intersensory
associations, memory and communication.
161. Refer the given figure which shows the axon
terminal and synapse with their parts marked as 1 to
7. Identify the correct parts whose constitution
forms the structure of synapse.
(1) 1, 2, 3 (2) 3, 4, 5
(3) 4, 5, 6 (4) 5, 6, 7
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162. Choose the correct one for each statement. 164. Read the following four statements (A-D).
A. Neurons of cerebral cortex are ________ A. The electrical potential difference across the
B. Neurons in early embryonic stages are ______ resting plasma membrane is called as the
C. Transmission of an impulse across ________ resting membrane potential
synapse is very similar to axon. B. Na+ – K+ pump transports 3Na+ outwards for
D. Inner part of cerebral hemisphere consist 2 K+ into the cell passively
________ C. During depolarised state the outer surface of
A B C D the membrane becomes positively charged
Unipolar Bipolar Myelinated D. Action potential is infact termed as nerve impulse
(1) Electrical
neuron neurons neuron How many of the above statements is/are false?
Bipolar Unipolar Myelinated (1) Three (2) Two
(2) Chemical
neurons neuron neuron (3) Four (4) One
Multipolar Unipolar Myelinated
(3) Electrical
neuron neuron neuron 165. Choose the mismatch.
Non (1) Progesterone - Maintenance of pregnancy
Multipolar Bipolar
(4) Electrical myelinated and development of
neuron neurons
neuron
mammary glands
(2) Erythropoietin - Secreted by bone marrow
163. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the and stimulates erythro-poiesis
correct option. (3) Estrogen - Stimulates growth and
Column-I Column-II activities of secondary sex
Hypersecretion organs in female
a. of GH in i. synthesis of milk (4) Growth factors - Secreted by non-endocrine
middle age tissue and are essential for
b. Prolactin ii. Spermatogenesis repair and regeneration of
FSH and tissues
c. iii. Ovulation
androgens
d. LH iv. Acromegaly 166. The factor responsible for repolarisation of an
v. Gigantism axonal membrane is
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (1) Opening of K+ leaky channels
(2) a(v), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) Opening of voltage gated Na+ channels
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (3) Closure of Na+ leaky channels
(4) a(v), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) Opening of voltage gated K+ channels

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167. Read the statements and answer as directed 170. Match the column I with column II.
thereafter. Column-I Column-II
Statement 1: Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed (A) Thyroxine (i) Hypothalamus
by a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin
(B) PTH (ii) Pituitary
sheath around the axon, and is commonly found in
autonomous and the somatic neural systems. (C) GnRH (iii) Thyroid
Statement 2: Myelinated nerve fibres are found in (D) LH (iv) Parathyroid
spinal and cranial nerves. (1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(1) Both the statements 1 and 2 are incorrect (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(2) Only statement-1 is correct (4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) Only statement-2 is correct
(4) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct 171. Read the following features in a baby and choose
the disorder in which they are well observed?
168. Which of the following will not occur in response (a) Abnormal skin
(b) Low intelligence quotient
to decrease in blood volume and blood pressure? (c) Stunted growth
(1) Secretion of ADH (d) Mental retardation
(2) Secretion of aldosterone (e) Deaf mutism
(3) Secretion of renin (1) Cretinism (2) Graves’ disease
(3) Exophathalmic (4) Simple goiter
(4) Secretion of atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)
goitre

169. Hormone A is a: 172. Select the correct match of a hormone with its
source and function.
Hormone Source Function
Posterior Increases loss of
(1) Vasopressin
pituitary water through urine
Increases heart beat,
Nor- Adrenal
(2) rate of respiration
epinephrine medulla
and alertness.
Beta-cells
Stimulates
(3) Glucagon of Islets of
glycogenolysis
langerhans
Regulates growth
Posterior of mammary glands
(1) Thyroxine (2) Steroid (4) Prolactin
Pituitary and milk formation
(3) Protein (4) Both (1) & (3) in females.

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173. Match the endocrine gland as a source with its Choose the correct option.
respective hormone as well as the function. (1) Both the statements are incorrect
Sourcegland Hormone Function (2) Only statement A is incorrect
Regulates blood (3) Only statement B is incorrect
(1) Thyroid Thyroxine
calcium level (4) Both the statements are correct
Contraction of
Anterior
(2) Oxytocin uterine muscles 176. Which of the following statements are true/false?
pituitary
during child birth A. Calcitonin regulates the metabolism of calcium.
Stimulates B. Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine
reabsorption of
Posterior smooth muscles during birth.
(3) Vasopressin water in the distal
pituitary C. Grave's disease is caused by malfunctioning of
tubules in the
adrenal gland.
nephron
D. ADH stimulates absorption of water and
Corpus Supports
(4) LH increase the urine production.
luteum pregnancy
(1) A and C are true, B and D are false.
174. Select the correct match of a hormone with its (2) A and B are true, C and D are false
source and function. (3) A and D are false, B and C are true
Column-I Column-II Column-III (4) A is only true, B, C and D are false
Interstitial
(1) Progesterone Sexual behaviour 177. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct
cells
option:
Female
Ovarian (a) Adrenaline (i) Myxodema
(2) Estrogen secondary sexual
follicle (b) Hyperparathyroidism (ii) Heart beat
characters
Ovarian Suppressed by a (c) Oxytocin (iii) Salt-water
(3) Androgen balance
follicle neurotransmitter
Corpus Support (d) Hypothyroidism (iv) Child birth
(4) Prolactin (e) Aldosterone (v) Demineralization
luteum pregnancy
(1) a-i b-v c-iv d-ii e-iii
175. Read the following statements. (2) a-ii b-v c-iv d-i e-iii
(A) Invertebrates possess very simple endocrine system. (3) a-ii b-iii c-iv d-i e-v
(B) A large number of chemicals act as hormones (4) a-iv b-iii c-ii d-i e-v
and provide coordination in the vertebrates.
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178. Read the following statements and choose the 181. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
correct option. reproduction, acts on
Statement A: Thyroid hormones influence water
and electrolyte balance in the body. (1) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
Statement B: Thyroid gland secretes secretion of LH and FSH
thyrocalcitonin a protein hormone which regulates (2) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
the blood calcium level.
secretion of oxytocin and FSH
(1) Both A and B statements are correct
(2) Only statement A is correct (3) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
(3) Only statement B is correct secretion of LH and relaxin
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(4) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
179. Which of the following statements are correct? secretion of LH and oxytocin
A. Cortisol suppresses the immune response
B. Thyroxine supports the process of red blood
cell formation 182. Mark T if the statement is True and F if it is false.
C. Glucagon stimulates glycogenesis process I. Efferent nerve fibres transmit impulses from
D. Androgens stimulate muscular growth, CNS to tissues/organs.
aggressiveness, high pitch of voice.
(1) A, B, C are true, but D is false II. The PNS comprises all the nerves of the body
(2) A, B, D are true, but C is false associated with the brain and spinal cord.
(3) D is true, but A, B, C are false
III. The afferent nerve fibres transmit impulses
(4) A, B are true, but C, D are false
from organs to the peripheral nervous system.
180. Which of the following is correct? IV. Sympathetic nervous system and
A. Hypercalcemic hormone is thyrocalcitonin parasympathetic nervous system are a part of
(TCT) hormone
the somatic nervous system.
B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases the Ca+2
levels in the blood I II III IV
C. Thymosin play a major role in the (1) T F F T
differentiation of T-lymphocytes
D. Parathyroid glands are present on back side of (2) F F T F
the thyroid gland (3) T T F F
(1) B, C, D (3) A, C, D
(2) A, B, C (4) A, B, C, D (4) T T T F

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183. Which of the following is/are not correct regarding SECTION - B
synapse? 186. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Pre and Postsynaptic neurons may or may not (i) Somatic nervous system - Conducts impulses
be separated by synaptic cleft. from CNS to skeletal muscles
(ii) Impulse transmission across a chemical (ii) Autonomic nervous system - Conduct
synapse is always faster than that across an impulses from CNS to smooth muscles
electrical synapse. (iii) Central nervous system - Consists of brain and
(iii) Electrical impulse can flow directly from one spinal cord
neuron into the other across the electrical (iv) Peripheral nervous system - Consists of cranial
synapse. and spinal nerves
(iv) Chemical synapses are rare in our system. (1) Only (ii) and (iii)
(2) Only (iii) and (iv)
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii)
(3) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iii)
(4) All of these
184. Which of the following statements is not correct?
187. Select the answer with correct matching of the
(1) Hypothalamus lies at the base of the thalamus.
structure, its location and function.
(2) Hypothalamus contains a number of centres Structure Location Function
which are responsible for complex functions Memory,
like gastric secretion (1) Mid brain Ventral side sexual
(3) Neurosecretory cells are present in the hypothalamus activity
(4) Hypothalamus is also involved in the Controls
regulation of sexual behaviour, excitement, respiration
pleasure and motivation (2) Cerebellum Mid brain
and gastric
secretions
185. Statement 1: The neural system is better organised Controls
in insects, where a brain is present along with a body
number of ganglia and neural tissues. (3) Hypothalamus Fore brain temperature,
Statement 2: Vertebrates have a less developed hunger &
neural system. thirst
(1) Both the statements are correct Outer parts Conduction
(2) Only statement -1 is correct (4) White matter of cerebral of nerve
(3) Only statement -2 is correct hemispheres impulses
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

Space for Rough Work

[29]
188. Select the option in which the part of brain is not
correctly matched with its function?
(1) Association area - Responsible for complex
functions like intersensory association,
memory and communication.
(2) Thalamus - Acts as relay centre of brain and
coordinates sensory and motor signalling.
(3) Mid brain - has a canal called cerebral aqueduct
(4) Limbic system - Regulates sexual behaviour,
emotions and motivation alone, without any
help of other part of brain.
189. The layer which is in contact with the brain tissue is
called as:
(1) Dura mater (2) Arachnoid mater
(3) Pia mater (4) Both (1) and (3)
191. Vasopressin and cortisol are related with following
activities performed inside the body:
A. Vasopressin is secreted from adrenal gland
where cortisol from anterior pituitary gland.
B. Vasopressin stimulates reabsorption of water
by distal tubules and cortisol is related with
maintenance of cardio vascular system.
C. Cortisol is related to RBC formation where
vasopressin reduces loss of water through
urine.
D. Vasopressin is anti diuretic where cortisol is
life saving hormone of endocrine glands.
(1) A and B are true where C and D are false.
(2) A, B, C are true where only D is false.
(3) A is true where B, C, D are false
(4) A is false where B, C, D are true

190. Match the following: 192. Consider the following statements:

Column I Column II A. Catecholamines stimulate the breakdown of
Lipolysis, glycogen into glucose.
(A) Melatonin (i) proteolysis, B. Glucocorticoids produces anti-inflammatory
glyconeogenesis reactions.
Diurnal rhythms, C. LH produce wide ranging actions such as
Parathyroid
(B) (ii) body temperature, development of growing ovarian follicles,
hormone
menstrual cycle stimulation of growth and activities of female
Reabsorption of secondary sex organs.
+2
(C) Glucocorticoids (iii) Ca from renal D. Cortisol is related with mixing of FSH and LH
tubule during embryonic stage.
(D) Vasopressin (iv) Prevents diuresis Choose the correct statement from above:
(1) A (ii), B (iii), C (i), D (iv) (1) A, B are true where C, D are false
(2) A (ii), B (i), C (iii), D (iv) (2) B, C are true where A, D are false
(3) A (i), B (iii), C (ii), D (iv) (3) A, D are true where B, C are false
(4) A (iv), B (iii), C (i), D (ii) (4) A is true where B, C, D are false

Space for Rough Work

[30]
193. Which of the following represent the correct options?
Substance
Name of the gland Function
produced
A Insulin C positively charged.
B Glucagon D
(1) A - Alpha cells, B - Hyperglycemic, C - Beta
cells, D - Hypoglycemic
(2) A - Beta cells, B - Alpha cells, C -
Hypoglycemic, D - Hyperglycemic
(3) A - Alpha cells, B - Hypoglycemic, C - Beta
cells, D - Hyperglycemic
(4) A - Beta cells, B - Alpha cells, C -
Hyperglycemic, D – Hypoglycemic
194. Assertion: Diabetes insipidus is marked by
excessive urination and too much thirst of water.
Reason: Vasopressin (ADH) is released by the
posterior lobe of pituitary gland.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False
195. See the given image and choose the correct option.
Space for Rough Work
Assertion: During depolarisation, The outer
surface of the axonal membrane at site A become
negatively charged and inner side become
Reason: When stimulus is applied at a site A on the
polarized membrane, the membrane at the site A
becomes freely permeable to sodium ions.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False
196. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) The functions of the organs/organ systems in
our body must be coordinated to maintain
homeostasis.
(ii) The vertebrates have a more developed neural
system.
(iii) The cell body contains cytoplasm with typical
cell organelles and certain granular bodies
called Nissl's granules.
(iv) The axon is a long fibre, the distal end of which
is branched.
(v) Each branch of axon terminates as a bulb-like
structure called synaptic knob which possess
synaptic vesicles containing chemicals called
neurotransmitters.
(1) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) Only (ii) and (iii)
(3) Only (v)
(4) All of them
[31]
197. Cerebral cortex is often called as gray mater. 200. Read the following statements and identify them as
The greyish appearance is observed due to high true (T) or false (F)
concentration of _______ in this region.
I. Coordination is the process through which two
(1) Myelinated nerve fibres
(2) Neuronal cell bodies or more organs interact and complement the
(3) Non – myelinated nerve fibres functions of one another.
(4) Both (1) and (2)
II. When we do physical exercises, the energy
198. Statement I: Somatostatin is produced in demand is decreased for maintaining an
hypothalamus and inhibits the release of growth increased muscular activity.
hormone from pituitary gland
III. When we do physical exercises, the supply of
Statement II: Acromegaly is result of
hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults. oxygen is also increased.
(1) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false IV. The increased supply of oxygen necessitates an
(2) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true increase in the rate of respiration, heart beat
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are false and therefore, decreased blood flow via blood
vessels
199. The cerebrum wraps around a structure called I II III IV
__________, which is a major coordinating centre
(1) T F T F
for sensory and motor signaling.
Fill in the blank with correct option. (2) T T T T
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Thalamus (3) F T T F
(3) Amygdala (4) Limbic system
(4) F T T T

Space for Rough Work

[32]
 Milestone-03_Phase-3 & 4
(Answer Key)
Milestone Test - 03 (Dropper NEET)

1. (3) 41. (3) 81. (3) 121. (1) 161. (3)

2. (4) 42. (2) 82. (1) 122. (2) 162. (3)
3. (3) 43. (2) 83. (4) 123. (1) 163. (3)
4. (3) 44. (3) 84. (3) 124. (2) 164. (2)
5. (4) 45. (1) 85. (1) 125. (1) 165. (2)
6. (4) 46. (1) 86. (1) 126. (3) 166. (4)
7. (2) 47. (2) 87. (4) 127. (2) 167. (4)
8. (4) 48. (4) 88. (3) 128. (1) 168. (4)
9. (2) 49. (3) 89. (1) 129. (1) 169. (3)
10. (1) 50. (3) 90. (2) 130. (4) 170. (1)
11. (2) 51. (4) 91. (2) 131. (3) 171. (1)
12. (2) 52. (4) 92. (2) 132. (1) 172. (2)
13. (1) 53. (2) 93. (2) 133. (3 173. (3)
14. (4) 54. (1) 94. (1) 134. (3) 174. (2)
15. (3) 55. (1) 95. (4) 135. (2) 175. (4)
16. (1) 56. (1) 96. (4) 136. (3) 176. (2)
17. (1) 57. (2) 97. (1) 137. (4) 177. (2)
18. (2) 58. (3) 98. (2) 138. (1) 178. (1)
19. (4) 59. (4) 99. (3) 139. (1) 179. (4)
20. (1) 60. (4) 100. (1) 140. (4) 180. (1)
21. (2) 61. (1) 101. (4) 141. (2) 181. (1)
22. (1) 62. (4) 102. (1) 142. (1) 182. (3)
23. (4) 63. (4) 103. (4) 143. (1) 183. (3)
24. (3) 64. (1) 104. (2) 144. (4) 184. (2)
25. (1) 65. (2) 105. (4) 145. (3) 185. (2)
26. (3) 66. (4) 106. (4) 146. (3) 186. (4)
27. (1) 67. (3) 107. (3) 147. (3) 187. (3)
28. (4) 68. (3) 108. (4) 148. (1) 188. (4)
29. (1) 69. (1) 109. (1) 149. (1) 189. (3)
30. (4) 70. (1) 110. (3) 150. (3) 190. (1)
31. (2) 71. (2) 111. (2) 151. (3) 191. (4)
32. (1) 72. (3) 112. (4) 152. (3) 192. (1)
33. (2) 73. (1) 113. (3) 153. (3) 193. (2)
34. (3) 74. (2) 114. (3) 154. (3) 194. (2)
35. (4) 75. (4) 115. (2) 155. (3) 195. (1)
36. (3) 76. (2) 116. (3) 156. (4) 196. (4)
37. (4) 77. (3) 117. (3) 157. (2) 197. (2)
38. (2) 78. (3) 118. (2) 158. (3) 198. (3)
39. (2) 79. (3) 119. (3) 159. (1) 199. (2)
40. (2) 80. (2) 120. (3) 160. (4) 200. (1)
 (HINTS & SOLUTIONS)
Milestone Test - 03 (Dropper NEET)

1. (3)
The position vector of centre of mass is

2(𝑖ˆ + 𝑗ˆ + 2𝑘ˆ ) + 3(2𝑖ˆ − 𝑗ˆ + 𝑘ˆ ) 8𝑖ˆ − 𝑗ˆ + 7𝑘ˆ

=
2+3 5

The velocity of centre of mass is

2(2𝑖ˆ) + 3(𝑖ˆ − 3𝑗ˆ) 7𝑖ˆ − 9𝑗ˆ

=
2+3 5

2. (4)
If we consider the two skaters as a system, then the forces they exert on each other are internal forces. Net external
force on the system is zero and therefore the centre of mass will not shift during the activity. Hence, they will meet at
the centre of mass:
𝑚1 𝑥1 + 𝑚2 𝑥2 60 × 0 + 80 × 10 40
𝑥C = = = m
𝑚1 + 𝑚2 60 + 80 7

3. (3)
Here, we have

𝐹⃗ = (−2𝑖ˆ + 3𝑗ˆ + 3𝑘ˆ )N

𝑟⃗ = (−2𝑖ˆ + 𝑗ˆ + 2𝑘ˆ )m

Using 𝜏⃗ = 𝑟⃗ × 𝐹⃗ , we get

𝑖ˆ 𝑗ˆ 𝑘ˆ 1 2 −2 2 −2 1
𝜏⃗ = |−2 1 2| = 𝑖ˆ | | − 𝑗ˆ | | + 𝑘ˆ | |
3 3 −2 3 −2 3
−2 3 3
= −3𝑖ˆ + 2𝑗ˆ − 4𝑘ˆ

The magnitude of the torque is

𝜏 = √(−3)2 + (2)2 + (−4)2 = √29 N m

4. (3)
1
The moment of inertia about 𝑛𝑛′ is 2 𝑀𝑅 2 .

Applying parallel axis theorem, we have

 1 3
𝐼mm′ = 𝐼nn′ + 𝑀𝑅 2 = 𝑀𝑅 2 + 𝑀𝑅 2 = 𝑀𝑅 2
2 2

5. (4)
Angular momentum = Linear momentum × Perpendicular distance of the line of action of momentum from the axis
of rotation. Therefore, the angular momentum is
mv × r = mv × 0 = 0
(Here r = 0, because line of action of momentum passes through the axis of rotation)

6. (4)
Let 𝑓 be the frictional force between the disc and the surface.
If 𝑎 is the acceleration of centre of mass then

𝐹 − 𝑓 = 𝑚𝑎

Also, 𝜏 = 𝐼𝛼 = 𝑓 × 𝑅
𝐼𝛼 𝐼 𝑎
Therefore, 𝑓 = = × (thus, for rolling 𝑎 = 𝑅𝛼 )
𝑅 𝑅 𝑅
𝐼𝑎 1 𝑎 1
Hence, 𝑓 = = ( 𝑀𝑅 2 ) 2 = 𝑚𝑎
𝑅2 2 𝑅 2
From Eqs. (1) and (2), we get

2𝑓
𝐹−𝑓 =𝑚× = 2𝑓
𝑚
𝐹
⇒ 𝐹 = 3𝑓 or 𝑓 =
3

However,

𝑓 ≤ 𝜇𝑚𝑔
𝐹
⇒ ≤ 𝜇𝑚𝑔
3
⇒ 𝐹 ≤ 3𝜇𝑚𝑔

7. (2)

𝐼
𝐾=√
𝑀
5
𝐾1 𝐼1 4
𝑀2 5
√
=√ = 3 =√
𝐾2 𝐼2 𝑀2 6
2
8. (4)
Sphere can roll without slipping on surface, if v = rω on an inclined plane. It is friction which creates rotation of
sphere. So, smooth surface cannot create rotation.

9. (2)

R
Torque = Force × perpendicular distance from the reference point 𝜏 = mg ( )
2
𝑢2
𝜏 = 𝑚𝑔 ( sin 2𝜃)
2𝑔
𝜏 = 𝑚𝑢2 sin 𝜃cos 𝜃

10. (1)
The speed of water in the second tube is calculated as follows:

𝑟12 𝑣1 = 𝑟22 𝑣2
𝑟1 2 𝑟 2
⇒ 𝑣2 = ( ) 𝑣1 = ( ) 𝑣 = 4𝑣
𝑟2 𝑟/2

11. (2)
Let O be the origin and l be the length of the rod. Let (x, y) be the coordinates of the centre of mass of the ladder at
certain instant when the ladder is making angle θ with the horizontal.
Here,
 𝑙
𝑥 = cos 𝜃
2
𝑙
𝑦 = sin 𝜃
2
𝑙2
𝑥2 + 𝑦2 =
4

Therefore,

𝑙2
𝑥2 + 𝑦2 =
4

which is the equation of a circle.

12. (_)
Let the 𝑋-axis be along the length of the rod and origin at one of its end as shown in figure.

As, rod is along 𝑋-axis, for all points on it 𝑌 and 𝑍 will be zero, so 𝑦CM = 0 and 𝑧CM = 0, i.e. centre of mass will be
on the rod. Now, consider an element of rod of length 𝑑𝑥 at a distance 𝑥 from the origin.
Mass of this element, 𝑑𝑚 = 𝜆𝑑𝑥 = (1 + 2𝑥)𝑑𝑥
1
∫ 𝑥𝑑𝑚 ∫0 𝑥(1 + 2𝑥)𝑑𝑥
𝑥CM = = 1
∫ 𝑑𝑚 ∫ (1 + 2𝑥)𝑑𝑥
0
1
𝑥2 2𝑥 3
[2 + 3 ]
0
=
[𝑥 + 𝑥 2 ]10
(1)2 2(1)3 1 2
2
+ 3 − 0 − 0] +3 7
2
= [ ] = = m
1 + (1)2 − 0 − 0 2 12

13. (1)
We have

Δ𝑃 = Change in pressure
= 3 atm − 1 atm = 2 atm ≈ 2 × 105 Pa
 Δ𝑃
Therefore, 𝑣 = √2𝑔ℎ = √2𝑔 ×
𝜌𝑔

2 × Δ𝑃 2 × (3 − 1) × 105
⇒𝑣=√ =√ = √400 m s−1
𝜌 103

14. (4)
The moment of inertia of the disc A is

1 1
𝐼A = 𝑀𝑅 2 = 𝜌(𝜋𝑅 2 )𝑡 × 𝑅 2
2 2

and the moment of inertia of the disc B is

1 𝑡
𝐼B = 𝜌[𝜋(4𝑅)2 ] × (4𝑅)2
2 4

Therefore, the relation between the moment of inertia between both discs A and B is

𝐼B
= 4 × 42 = 64
𝐼A
⇒ 𝐼B = 64𝐼A

15. (3)
The following figure depicts the given situation about the cube:

Now,
√3𝑎 = 2𝑅

The moment of inertia of the cube about the axis NN ′ is

𝑚𝑎2 𝑚 2𝑅 2 4𝑚𝑅 2 2𝑚𝑅 2

𝐼NN′ = = ×( ) = =
6 6 √3 6×3 9

Mass 𝑀 𝑚 3𝑀𝑎 3
Now, Volume
= 4 = 𝑎3 ⇒ 𝑚 = 4𝜋𝑅3
( 𝜋𝑅3 )
3
The required moment of inertia of the cube about the axis NN′ is
 3𝑀𝑎3 𝑅2 2𝑀 3
𝐼NN′ = 2×( 3 ) × = 𝑎
4𝜋𝑅 9 12𝜋𝑅
2𝑀 2𝑅 3 2 × 8𝑀𝑅 2 4𝑀𝑅 2
= ( ) = =
12𝜋𝑅 √3 12𝜋 × 3√3 9√3𝜋

16. (1)
The magnitude of the torque in the given case is

𝐿⃗⃗f − 𝐿⃗⃗i 4𝐽0 − 3𝐽0 𝐽0

𝜏⃗ = = =
𝑡 4 4

17. (_)

18. (_)

19. (4)
As, angular acceleration,
𝑑𝜔
𝛼=
𝑑𝑡

where, 𝜔 is angular velocity of the disc.

Given, 𝜔 = constant

𝑑𝜔 0
⇒ 𝛼= = =0
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡

Hence, angular acceleration is zero.

20. (1)
Direction of linear velocity always keeps on changing in circular orbit. Hence, linear momentum is varying.

21. (2)
The torque which can stop the given wheel's rotation in 1 min is
60
𝜔f − 𝜔i 0 − [2𝜋 (60)] 4𝜋 𝜋
𝜏 = 𝐼𝛼 = 𝐼 ( ) = 2{ }=− =
𝑡 60 60 15

22. (1)
We have the following two cases:
• Case 1: We have 2𝛼𝜃 = 𝜔2 − 𝜔02
𝜔 2
⇒ 2𝛼 × (36 × 2𝜋) = 𝜔2 − ( )
2

• Case 2: We have
𝜔 2
2𝛼𝜃 = ( ) − 0
2

Dividing Eqs. (1) and (2), we get

 2 𝜔2
36 × 2𝜋 (𝜔 − 4 )
= 𝜔2
=3
𝜃 ( ) 4
⇒ 𝜃 = 24𝜋 or 12 revolutions

23. (4)
The new angular velocity of the ring is obtained as follows:

𝐼1 𝜔1 = 𝐼2 𝜔2
⇒ 𝑀𝑅 2 𝜔 = (𝑀 + 8𝑚)𝑅 2 𝜔2
𝑀𝜔
⇒ 𝜔2 =
𝑀 + 8𝑚

24. (3)
Here, 𝐿⃗⃗𝑂 remains constant in magnitude and direction. Now, [𝐿⃗⃗0 ] = 𝑚𝑣𝑟 and the direction of the string is as shown
in the following figures:

25. (1)
As the velocity of centre of mass of the cylinder is increasing, the magnitude changes. Since the direction of rotation
and the direction of velocity of centre of mass are unchanged, the direction of angular momentum is constant.

26. (3)
Torque exerted on the disc 𝜏 = TR
Now 𝜏 = I𝛼
𝜏 TR 2TR 2T
Or 𝛼 = I = 1 = MR2 = MR
MR2
2

27. (1)

𝑀𝐿2
𝐼=
6
(6)2
=5×
6
𝐼 = 30kgm2

𝑀𝑅2
Here, 𝐼 = 2
.

28. (4)
4
We have 𝑔 = 3 𝜋𝜌𝐺𝑅; hence, the average density is directly proportional to 𝑔.
29. (1)
We have

ℎ −2
𝑔h = 𝑔 (1 + )
𝑅
𝑔 ℎ −2
⇒ = 𝑔 (1 + )
16 𝑅
ℎ
⇒ 1+ =4
𝑅
⇒ ℎ = 3𝑅

30. (4)
𝑚0 should be placed on the line joining the two masses. Let 𝑚0 be placed at a distance 𝑥 from 6 m, then
𝐹1 = 𝐹2
𝐺9𝑚 × 𝑚0 𝐺𝑚 × 𝑚0
⇒ =
𝑥2 (𝑎 − 𝑥)2
3 1
⇒ =
𝑥 𝑎−𝑥
3𝑎
⇒𝑥=
4

31. (2)
𝐺𝑀
We have 𝑔 = 𝑅2

Therefore, the percentage change in acceleration due to gravity on the Earth surface is
𝑑𝑔 𝑑𝑅
× 100 = 2 ( × 100) = 2%
𝑔 𝑅

32. (1)
Energy is released in process of coalescing of water drops.

33. (2)
Gravitational potential is a scalar quantity and it can be added using normal algebraic addition.

𝐺𝑚 𝐺𝑚 −2𝐺𝑚
𝑉 = 𝑉1 + 𝑉2 = − − =
𝑟 𝑟 𝑟

34. (3)
We have the following:
Work = Change in potential energy
𝑊 = 𝑈final − 𝑈initial
𝐺𝑚𝑚 𝐺𝑚𝑚 𝐺𝑚𝑚 𝐺𝑚𝑚 𝐺𝑚𝑚 𝐺𝑚𝑚
= [− − − ] − [− − − ]
2𝑙 2𝑙 2𝑙 𝑙 𝑙 𝑙
3𝐺𝑚2 3𝐺𝑚2 3𝐺𝑚2 1 3𝐺𝑚2
= − + = [1 − ] =
2𝑙 𝑙 𝑙 2 2𝑙

35. (4)
The kinetic energy needed to project the body is

1 1
K.E. = 𝑚𝑣e2 = 𝑚[√2𝑔𝑅]2 = 𝑚𝑔𝑅 (𝑣e = √2𝑔𝑅)
2 2
36. (3)
The required gain in potential energy is

𝐺𝑀𝑚 𝐺𝑀𝑚
𝑈final − 𝑈initial =− − (− )
2𝑅 𝑅
𝐺𝑀𝑚 𝑚𝑔𝑅 𝐺𝑀
= = ( as 𝑔 = 2 )
2𝑅 2 𝑅

37. (4)
Let 𝐸g be zero at 𝑃 distant 𝑥 function. For 𝐸g to be zero at 𝑃.

|𝐸𝑔1 | = |𝐸𝑔2 |
𝐺(4𝑚) 𝐺(𝑚)
2
=
𝑥 (𝑟 − 𝑥)2
2(𝑟 − 𝑥) = 𝑥
2𝑟
⇒ 𝑥=
3

Now, the gravitational potential at point P, on the line joining them where the gravitational field is zero, is

𝐺(4𝑚) 𝐺(𝑚) 9𝐺𝑚

𝑉g = 𝑉1 + 𝑉2 = − − =−
2𝑟/3 𝑟/3 𝑟

38. (2)
After the distance between the Earth and Sun becomes double, the new time period of oscillation is

39. (2)
ve  m0, where m is mass of particle being projected. That is, mass of the body does not exist here; hence, the escape
velocity is independent of the mass of the particle.

40. (2)
2𝑇cos 𝜃
ℎ= 𝑟𝑝𝑔
⇒ ℎ ∝ cos 𝜃 ⇒ ℎ = 0, when 𝜃 = 90∘ Also, when angle of contact is 90∘ , then surface is flat.

41. (3)
According to Bernoull’s theorem and equation of continuity.

42. (2)
The maximum height attained by the given body determined as follows:
 1 𝑣e 2 𝐺𝑀𝑚 𝐺𝑀𝑚
𝑚( ) − =−
2 2 𝑅 𝑅+ℎ
1 2𝐺𝑀 𝐺𝑀𝑚 𝐺𝑀𝑚
𝑚 − =−
2 𝑅×4 𝑅 𝑅+ℎ
1 1 1
− =−
4𝑅 𝑅 𝑅+ℎ
1−4 1
=−
4𝑅 𝑅+ℎ
3 1
=
4𝑅 𝑅+ℎ
⇒ 3𝑅 + 3ℎ = 4𝑅
⇒ ℎ = 𝑅/3

43. (2)
𝑇
Here, tension 𝑇 should provide the necessary centripetal force. Further, 𝐴 > 𝑆 otherwise, the string will break.
𝑚𝑙𝜔2
⇒ >𝑆
𝐴
𝐴𝑆 𝜋𝑟 2 𝑆
𝜔>√ =√
𝑚𝑙 𝑚𝑙

44. (3)
We have
Δ𝑙 = 𝑙𝛼Δ𝑇 (thermal expansion of length)
Δ𝑙
⇒ 𝑙
= 𝛼Δ𝑇
Also, Stress = 𝑌 × Strain
Therefore, Stress = 𝑌𝛼Δ𝑇
• For first rod: Stress = 𝑌1 𝛼1 Δ𝑇
• For second rod: Stress = 𝑌2 𝛼2 Δ𝑇
Stress in both rods is equal; hence,
𝑌 𝛼 3
𝑌1 𝛼1 Δ𝑇 = 𝑌2 𝛼2 Δ𝑇 ⇒ 𝑌1 = 𝛼2 = 2
2 1
45. (1)
𝐺𝑀 2𝐺𝑀
As we know that, 𝑔 = 𝑅2
, 𝑣𝑒 =√ 𝑅
and
−𝐺𝑀𝑚
𝑈=
𝑅

𝑀 𝑀 𝑀
∴ 𝑔∝ 2
, 𝑣𝑒 ∝ √ and 𝑈 ∝
𝑅 𝑅 𝑅

If both mass and radius are increased by 0.5%, then escape velocity and potential energy remains unchanged, whereas
𝑔 decreases by 0.5%.
Thus, option (1) is correct but rest are incorrect.

46. (1)
The work done is stored as elastic potential energy in the wire:
1
𝑊 = 𝑈 = 𝐹𝑙
2
47. (2)
The lighter liquid floats over the heavier liquid; therefore, ρ1 < ρ2. Further, ρ3 < ρ2; otherwise, ball would have sunk
to the bottom of jar.
Also, ρ3 > ρ1; otherwise, the ball would have floated on liquid 1. Therefore,
ρ1 < ρ 3 < ρ 2

48. (4)
When the coil fall in water l must decrease (the block moves up). This is because now the weight of floating body has
decreased. Therefore, the buoyant force required is less. Further, h will also decrease. When the coin is in the water,
it will displace water of volume equal to that of its own. But when the coin was on the block, it displaced more volume
as compared to its own because the density of coin is greater than that of water.

49. (3)
We have W = S × Change in surface area
⇒ W = (2S) × [4π(5)2 – 4π(3)2] × 10–4
= (2S) × (4π) (25 – 9) × 10–4
= 0.4π × 10–3 J
= 0.4π mJ

50. (3)
We know that
2𝑆cos 𝜃
ℎ= (𝑆soap solution < 𝑆water )
𝑟𝜌𝑔

The meniscus shape is concave upwards in both cases.

101. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 85, Paragraph 2

102. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 87, Paragraph 1

103. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 91, Paragraph 2

104. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 87, Paragraph 1

105. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 87 (Para. 4), Page No. 90 (Para. 1)

106. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 207, Paragraph 1

107. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 88, Paragraph 1

108. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 86, Paragraph 2,3,4

109. (1)
 NCERT Class XI, Page No. 89, Paragraph 3

110. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 91, Paragraph 1

111. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 89, Paragraph 2

112. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 213, Paragraph 2

113. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 86, Paragraph 2

114. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 90, Fig. 6.5

115. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 211, Paragraph 1

116. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 218, Paragraph 1

117. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 93, Paragraph 1

118. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 213, Paragraph 2

119. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 218, Paragraph 7

120. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 93, Paragraph 3

121. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 219, Paragraph 5

122. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 212, Paragraph 1

123. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 91, Paragraph 1

124. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 210, Paragraph 1

125. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 92, Paragraph 1

126. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 208, Paragraph 5
127. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 87, Paragraph 3

128. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 214, Fig. 13.7

129. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 93, Paragraph 3

130. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 220, Paragraph 6

131. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 89, Paragraph 2

132. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 213 and 214, logical

133. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 86 (Para. 2,3,4), 87 (Para. 1)

134. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 207, Paragraph 5

135. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 216, Paragraph 1

136. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 216 (Para. 6), 219 (Para. 2)

137. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 220, Paragraph 2

138. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 212, Paragraph 2

139. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 222, Fig. 13.10

140. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 213 (Para. 5), 214 (Para. 6,7)

141. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 223, Paragraph 3

142. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 223, Paragraph 7

143. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 85, Paragraph 2
144. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 217 (Para. 2), 218 (Para. 1), 219 (Para. 5)

145. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 92(Para. 1), 93(Para. 1,2)

146. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 214, Fig. 13.7

147. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 213, Paragraph 2

148. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 89, Paragraph 1

149. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 89, Paragraph 1

150. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 86, Paragraph 3

151. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 316

152. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 317

153. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 318

154. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 321

155. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 321

156. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 321

157. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 319, 321

158. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 317

159. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 318

160. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 321

161. (3)
 NCERT Class XI, Page No. 319

162. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 317

163. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 333, 334

164. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 317

165. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 338, 339

166. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 317

167. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 317

168. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 324

169. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 340

170. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 335

171. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 335

172. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 334

173. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 335, 339

174. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 338

175. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 331

176. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 335, 337

177. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 334, 336

178. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 334, 335
179. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 337

180. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 335

181. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 332, 333

182. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 316

183. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 319

184. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 321

185. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 316

186. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 316

187. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 321, 325

188. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 321

189. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 320

190. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 337

191. (4)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 337

192. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 336

193. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 337

194. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 333, 334
195. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 318

196. (4)
 NCERT Class XI, Page No. 315, 316 & 317

197. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 321

198. (3)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 332

199. (2)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 321

200. (1)
NCERT Class XI, Page No. 316