College of Medicine 1

POST UTME QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
2010 to 2020 (exception of 2016)

JAMB Subject combination chart included
COLLEGE OF MEDICAL SCIENCES
INFORMATION ABOUT RSU
USE OF ENGLISH
MATHEMATICS
BIOLOGY
CHEMISTRY
PHYSICS
CURRENT AFAIRS
DEPARTMENTS
➢ Medicine & Surgery
➢ Human Anatomy
➢ Human Physiology
➢ Nursing
OUR SERVICES
➢ We give the latest information needed for Students to achieve Success
➢ Process POST UTME Form for Rivers State University
➢ Check admission Status
➢ Pay Acceptance Fees, School Fees and other fees for Rivers State University
➢ Process Course Registration and Scholarships
➢ Sell CURRENT PAST QUESTIONS and ANSWERS of all Faculties
Our Address
➢ Meet us at Shop.67 Shopping Complex, Rivers State University, Port Harcourt
➢ We advise that you Call before coming
CALL
➢ CHARLEY ICT HUB - 070256582
For free POST UTME updates text “aspirant + name + phone number + faculty” to 07025658228
...Study to Show thyself approved…
wishing you Success in your Exam
Compiled by: CHARLEY ICT HUB
1
JAMB Subject combination
COLLEGE OF MEDICAL SCIENCES

JAMB Subject combination chart for RSU
Course UTME Combination O level Requirement
Five (5) credit passes
Medicine & Surgery Use of English, Chemistry, Including English
Biology, Physics language. Mathematics,
physics, chemistry,
Biology
Human Anatomy Use of English, Chemistry, Including English
physics, chemistry,
Biology
Human Physiology Use of English, Chemistry, Including English

physics, chemistry,
Biology
Nursing Use of English, Chemistry, Including English
physics, chemistry,
Biology
2
About Rivers state University
ABOUT RIVERS STATE UNIVERSITY B. False
QUESTION NO: 1 The correct answer is option [B]

Choose the correct option.
•
The fee paid by a student who appeals for the QUESTION NO: 4
reassessment of examination record in the Rivers State Choose the correct option.
University is refundable only if the appeal results in .
In exception to students in the first year, students who

A. a change in score above 50%
maintain a CGPA of 1.00 or above, who have not failed
more than 50% of the courses registered during an
B. a change in score above 60% academic session, earn themselves .
C. a change in grade A. a dismissal
D. an upward change of grade B. a period of probation for one session
The correct answer is option [D]

C. a suspension for one session
•
QUESTION NO: 2 D. a deferment for a year
The correct answer is option [B]
Following the request of a student or the Head of
Department for the reassessment of a student's quality of •
work, the faculty is expected to meet the request within a QUESTION NO: 5
period of . Choose the correct option.
A. two weeks Ideally, a student in a five-year degree programme in the

Rivers State University should complete his programme
B. three weeks in semesters.
C. one week A. 12
D. four weeks B. 10
The correct answer is option [D] C. 14
•
QUESTION NO: 3
D. 15

The reassessment of a student's quality of work is final
when approval is given by the Faculty Board and the •
Vice-Chancellor. QUESTION NO: 6
A. True
Ideally, a student in a five-year degree programme in the
Rivers State University should complete his programme C. he maintains a CGPA of at least 1.00 and passes
ineight semesters. However, an exception may occur at least 80% of all his courses
where .
D. he maintains a CGPA of at least 1.00 and
A. he will be allowed to complete the programme passes at least 60% of all his courses
in 10 semesters, provided he maintains a CGPA of 1.00
and above The correct answer is option [B]
B. he will be allowed to complete the programme •

in 12 semesters, provided he maintains a CGPA of 1.00 QUESTION NO: 9
and above
A transfer from one department to another will involve all

C. he will be allowed to complete the programme of the following, except the .
and above
A. Committee of Deans
D. he will be allowed to complete the programme B. Senate

and above
C. Pro-Chancellor and Chairman of Council
The correct answer is option [C]
D. Registrar
•
QUESTION NO: 7
When a student repeats a course, he shall be credited •

with the new grade which shall be substituted with the QUESTION NO: 10
initial F-grade. Choose the correct option.
A. True Which of these statements is false?
B. False
A. All students are expected to satisfy a 75%
attendance requirement of scheduled classes in lectures,
The correct answer is option [A] tutorials, practical workshops, and fieldwork.
• B. Any absence from lectures should be with

QUESTION NO: 8
permission obtained in writing from the lecturer(s) in
charge.
A student is said to be on clear standing when .

C. Failing to satisfy the expected attendance
requirements of scheduled classes can lead to a student's
A. he maintains a CGPA of at least 1.00 and passes
inability to take examinations.
at least 70% of all his courses
B. he maintains a CGPA of at least 1.00 and passes

D. None of the above.
all his courses

teaching, research and community service, and its

provision of practical solutions to social, cultural and
economic problems
•
QUESTION NO: 11
Choose the correct option. B. to be a world class unique and uncommon
university that will be structurally and philosophically
The classification of second class degree holders of the oriented to solve the practical and peculiar challenging
Rivers State University consists of graduates with CGPAs problems of the region
ranging from to .
C. to be ranked amongst the best universities in

A. 2.50 to 3.49 Africa, renowned for its teaching, research, creativity and
innovation
B. 2.39 to 4.49
D. to become a reference world-class citadel of
learning, training and research; where men and women
C. 2.40 to 4.49 of all descent may draw first-class inspiration and service
for the good of the global community
D. 2.49 to 4.50

•
QUESTION NO: 14
• Choose the correct option.
QUESTION NO: 12
Choose the correct option. The Rivers State University was established under the
administration of of the old Rivers state.
Which of these is a wrong classification of the Cumulative
Grade Point Average (CGPA) as adopted by the Rivers
State University? A. Alfred Diete-Spiff
A. 3.50 - 4.49 (Second Class Upper) B. Rufus Ada-George
B. 4.00 - 5.00 (First Class) C. Melford Obiene Okilo
C. 2.40 - 3.49 (Second Class Lower) D. Fidelis Oyakhilome

D. 1.50 - 2.39 (Third Class)

•
QUESTION NO: 15
•
QUESTION NO: 13 The is not a principal officer of the Rivers State
Choose the correct option. University.
The vision of the Rivers State University is .

A. Registrar
A. a top rated university in Africa, that is, the

technological flagship of the West African sub-region, as B. Librarian
evidenced by its application of modern technology to

C. Deans of Faculties
A student may withdraw from the Rivers State University
with the permission of the Faculty Board and Senate, but
D. Pro-Chancellor
may apply for registration within one year of the
withdrawal.
• A. True
QUESTION NO: 16
Choose the correct option. B. False
Which of these statements is false?

The correct answer is option [A]
A. The booking and payment system is used for •

the process of accommodation. QUESTION NO: 19
B. Students are mandated to preview and approve
their ID cards for printing.
What is the likely punishment mete on a student who
exchanges a script containing answers to questions
C. Verification during physical clearance is during an examination?
ensured by the Admissions Officers and the Registrar.
A. Suspension
D. The online PIN shop is used to purchase PINs
for payment of Acceptance fee, Portal Access, and School
fees. B. Dismissal
The correct answer is option [C] C. F grade
•
D. Demotion
QUESTION NO: 17
Fresh students pay all of the following fees as returning
students, except fee. •
QUESTION NO: 20
A. caution
B. development comes late to the examination hall by more than half an
hour after the commencement of the examination?
C. equipment/maintenance
A. Demotion
D. bench
B. F grade

C. Suspension
QUESTION NO: 18
D. Dismissal
A. They are of the rank of Senior Lecturers and
above.
B. They constitute the departmental or faculty

• board of examiners.
QUESTION NO: 21
C. They sign examination cards for records of
What is the likely punishment mete on a student who lectures attended by registered students if satisfactory.
abuses or physically attacks an invigilator or is rude to
him in the course of performing his duties?
D. They submit grades, answer scripts, marking
schemes and copies of their question papers to the Chief
A. Demotion Examiner for storage.
B. F grade The correct answer is option [A]
•
C. Dismissal
QUESTION NO: 24
D. Suspension
The responsibilities of the Examination Committee set up
by the department includes all of the following, except
.
•
QUESTION NO: 22 A. to collate all cases of examination malpractice
Choose the correct option. for the attention of the Dean
The is the Chief Examiner in each department.

B. to prepare the results of examinations in the
faculty
A. Time table officer
C. to ensure the official stamps of academic office
B. Dean of the Faculty and that of the faculty are on all examination answer
booklets
C. Head of Department
D. to examine all final year student's projects, as
well as interview them
D. Exam officer

•
• QUESTION NO: 25
QUESTION NO: 23 Choose the correct option.
Who takes responsibility for the leakage of examination
Which of these statements is not true about internal questions and results where the production of such is
examiners in the Rivers State University? concerned?
A. The Head of Department

Teaching staff of the university may do all the following,

B. The Chief Invigilator except .
C. The Director of the Institute A. continue in their areas of specialisation at

higher levels
D. A and C
B. submit the semester results one month after
The correct answer is option [D] examinations
• C. delegate the supervision of examinations to

QUESTION NO: 26 non-academic staff
Where the Chief Examiner is absent at the end of an D. observe copyright laws and acknowledge
examination, the answer booklets or scripts must be students whenever their works are used
deposited with the .
A. Head of Department
•
QUESTION NO: 29
B. Senate Choose the correct option.
All lecturers must make available office addresses and

C. Chief Invigilator
contact time to their students.
D. Departmental Examination Officer

A. True
B. False
•
QUESTION NO: 27 The correct answer is option [A]
•
In the higher institution, students can dress whichever
QUESTION NO: 30
way they please, whether indecent, provocative, or
offensive, provided they do not dress that way to
examination halls. The is expected to conduct unscheduled visits
occasionally to faculties, institutions, and other units to
A. True ensure compliance at all levels.
B. False A. Vice-Chancellor
The correct answer is option [B] B. Registrar
• C. Deputy Vice-Chancellor
QUESTION NO: 28
D. All of the above
begining of the examination, and to the end of the

examination.
•
QUESTION NO: 31 A. 10minutes; 10minutes
The ban of the compulsory sale of handouts, course-

B. 15minutes; 10minutes
based textbooks and practical manuals by the Senate was

a decision considered and reached at the regular C. 10minutes; 15minutes
meeting held.
D. 15minutes; 5minutes
A. 104th and 107th The correct answer is option [D]
•
B. 100th and 104th
QUESTION NO: 34
C. 103rd and 105th
examination, he is expected to be present for at the

D. 105th and 107th
•
QUESTION NO: 32
Choose the correct option
To ensure the proper registration of students at the end

of the academic session, teaching staff must submit the
semester results after examinations.
A. 3 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 2 weeks
D. any time not more than 3 weeks
•
QUESTION NO: 33
Where it is not possible for the internal examiner to be

the chief invigilator or one of the invigilators during an
On completion of the attendance

and score sheets foreach class, one
copy of each is retained by the for
every examination.
A. Internal Examiner
B. Head of Department
C. Faculty Examination Officer
D. All of the above
•
QUESTION NO: 35
All examination scripts are to be

marked and submittedto the Head of
Department normally within of a given
examination.
A. 4 days
B. 2 days
C. 3 days
D. one week
A. Dean's office
B. Head of Department's office

•
QUESTION NO: 36
Choose the correct option. C. Departmental Examination Officer
The Head of Department compiles all final results of all

students and for all courses in a department within D. Faculty Examination Officer
days.
A. 15 •
QUESTION NO: 39
B. 10 Choose the correct option.
All results of final year undergraduates and sub-degree

C. 12 programmes approved by the Faculty Board are
submitted to the Senate Business Committee for
approval.
D. 10 to 15
The correct answer is option [B] A. True
• B. False
QUESTION NO: 37
•
The students' results considered and approved by the
QUESTION NO: 40
Faculty Board of Examiners are presented to the .
A. Faculty Board Faculties and Institutes that offer service courses are
responsible for setting and moderating examination
questions in their courses.
B. Dean of the Faculty
C. Departmental Board
A. True
D. Director of the Institute
B. False

•
QUESTION NO: 38
Immediately results are approved by the Faculty Board, QUESTION NO: 41

they are published for the information of students by the Choose the correct option
.
All students of the Rivers State University are expected to

be at their examination halls to the commencementof
all examinations. A. 2 semesters; pass degree
A. 20 minutes
B. 2 semesters; classified degree
B. 15 minutes C. 4 semesters; pass degree
C. 30 minutes D. 4 semesters; classified degree

D. 10 minutes
•
The correct answer is option [C] QUESTION NO: 44
When is a student in the Rivers State University of

QUESTION NO: 42 Science and Technology eligible for a pass degree?
One week after the publication of results, Abere appealed

A. When his CGPA is between 1.00 and 1.49.
for the reassessment of his performance in English
Language. The faculty has reassessed the quality of his B. When he is unable to complete his academic
work which has earned him a change in score from 41% programme in the 12 or 14 semesters granted him, and is
to 45%. What is the likely outcome of this change? further granted an addition of 2 semesters.
A. He will not be refunded the reassessment fee C. A and B.

he paid.
D. None of the above.

B. His grade point in English Language will be 3.

C. His assessment in English Language will be
'satisfactory'. •
QUESTION NO: 45
D. All of the above.
If any, what consideration is given to a student who is

The correct answer is option [C] withdrawn for academic failure from a programme of
study in the Rivers State University?
•
QUESTION NO: 43
A. To continue the programme, but be demoted
by two levels.
A student in a five-year degree programme in the Rivers B. To be granted an additional two years of study
State University who is unable to complete his in the university, but be eligible for a pass degree.
programme in 14 semesters maybe allowed an additional
semesters, but shall be eligible to a degree.
C. 100
C. To be transferred on request to another
programme within the university for which he has
requisite qualifications. D. 70
D. No consideration is given. The correct answer is option [B]
The correct answer is option [C] •

QUESTION NO: 49
QUESTION NO: 46
For a five-year programme in the Rivers State University,
a CCE student is expected to earn a minimum of
credit units.
The Senate of the Rivers State University is otherwise

referred to as the 'Committee of Deans'. A. 160
A. True B. 190
B. False
C. 130

D. 100
•
•
All students are expected to satisfy a 70% attendance QUESTION NO: 50
requirement of scheduled classes in lectures, tutorials, Choose the correct option.
practical workshops, and fieldwork.
is the motto of the Rivers State University.
A. True
A. Excellence and integrity
B. False
B. Excellence and creativity
C. Excellence and prudence

•
QUESTION NO: 48
Choose the correct option. D. Excellence and dignity
For a five-year programme in the Rivers State University, The correct answer is option [B]
a regular student for Direct Entry into year two is
expected to earn a minimum of credit units. •
QUESTION NO: 51
A. 160
The Rivers State University was established from the

B. 130 .
D. Faculty of Agriculture
A. College of Science and Technology (established

1980)
•
B. College of Science and Technology (established
1972) QUESTION NO: 54
C. College of Science and Technology (established
Fresh students who are science inclined pay all of the
1976) following fees as those who are not science inclined,
except fee.
D. College of Science and Technology (established
1973) A. development

B. information technology
•
QUESTION NO: 52
C. caution
The Rivers State University was established under the D. bench

administration of of the old Rivers state.

A. Alfred Diete-Spiff
•
QUESTION NO: 55
B. Rufus Ada-George
C. Melford Obiene Okilo According to the grading system adopted by the Rivers
State University, all of the following are correct, except
.
D. Fidelis Oyakhilome
The correct answer is option [C] A. 40% - 49%: D (Satisfactory): 2points
• B. 0% - 39%: F (Very Poor/Fail): 0point

QUESTION NO: 53
C. 60% - 69%: B (Good): 4points
All, but one of these is a faculty found in the Rivers State
University. Identify the one.
D. 50% - 59%: C (Average): 3points
A. Faculty of Technical and Science Education The correct answer is option [A]
•
B. Faculty of Arts
QUESTION NO: 56
C. Faculty of Environmental Sciences
What is the likely punishment mete on a student who is
caught impersonating during an examination?
A. Suspension •
QUESTION NO: 59
B. F grade
What is the likely punishment mete on a student smoking

C. Demotion in the hall during an examination?
D. Dismissal A. Dismissal
The correct answer is option [D] B. Demotion
•
QUESTION NO: 57
C. Suspension

D. F grade
What is the likely punishment mete on a student who is
found on a seat designated for another student during
an examination without the permission of the
invigilators?
QUESTION NO: 60
A. Demotion
Which of these statements is false
B. F grade
A. Under no condition can examinations for
service courses be conducted outside the Faculty or
C. Dismissal
Institutute offering the course.
D. Suspension
B. Faculties and Institutes that offer service
courses are responsible for setting and moderating
The correct answer is option [B] examination questions in their courses.
•
C. Faculties and Institutes offering service courses
QUESTION NO: 58
are responsible for producing adequate number of
question papers for examinations in their courses.
fails to sit down while invigilators are retrieving scripts D. Examination questions for service courses are
from students at the end of an examination? brought to the examination halls by the Head of
Department or Director of Institute thirty minutes before
start of exams.
A. F grade

B. Suspension
C. Dismissal QUESTION NO: 61

D. Demotion
An external examiner may be reappointed by the Senate
QUESTION NO: 64
after an interval of .
A. 2 months Students are expected to report lecturers who do not

come to lecture for consecutive times.
B. 4 semesters
A. 3
C. 3 years
B. 2
D. 2 tenures
C. 4

D. 3 to 4
•
Who stores answer booklets and marked scripts of

•
QUESTION NO: 65
students before they are disposed?
A. The Examination Officer All ethnic groups that participate in cultural activities
during the Students' Union Week are expected to do so
B. The Dean of the Faculty within the provided.
C. The Head of Department
D. The Chief Invigilator

A. four days B. two weeks
C. six days
QUESTION NO: 63
D. one week
Which of these statements is false?
A. A student is expected to respect the statutory

rights of staff and fellow students. •
QUESTION NO: 66
B. A student may sell textbooks and handouts on Choose the correct option.
behalf of a lecturer provided he is the course
The ban of the compulsory sale of handouts, course-
representativ C. A student must not sell or lease based textbooks and practical manuals by the Senate was
hostel accommodation to any individual. a decision considered and reached at the regular
meeting held.
D. A student must not use property of the
university such as classrooms and hostels for
unauthorized meetings. A. 104th and 107th
The correct answer is option [B] B. 100th and 104th

C. 103rd and 105th B. duplicate
D. 105th and 107th C. quadruplicate

D. no specific number of copies
•
QUESTION NO: 67
•
It is recommended that the internal examiner be the chief QUESTION NO: 70
invigilator or one of the invigilators during an Choose the correct option.
examination where possible.
Names of internal examiners who default in the
submission of results when due are forwarded to the
A. True for disciplinary action.
B. False
A. Registrar

B. Vice-Chancellor
•
QUESTION NO: 68 C. Head of Department
Each examination hall is expected to have a minimum of D. Chief Examination Officer

invigilators present.
A. 3 •
QUESTION NO: 71
B. 2 Choose the correct option.
The Faculty Board of Examiners considers and approves

C. 1 all students' results in the faculty for any examination
within two (2) weeks of the last date of the examination.
D. 4
A. True
B. False
•
The attendance and score sheets for each class are •

always prepared in for every examination. QUESTION NO: 72
A. triplicate

The students' results considered and approved by the
Faculty Board of Examiners are presented to the .
QUESTION NO: 75
A. Faculty Board
Service courses are core departmental courses handled
B. Dean of the Faculty by teaching staff in a given department.
C. Departmental Board A. True
D. Director of the Institute B. False
The correct answer is option [A] The correct answer is option [B]
•
QUESTION NO: 73
All results, excluding those of final year undergraduates

and sub-degree programmes, approved by the Faculty
Board are submitted to the for approval.
A. Senate Business Committee
B. Senate Committee of Assessment and

Graduation Requirements
C. Deans of Faculties Committee
D. None of the above
•
QUESTION NO: 74
All results, excluding those of final year undergraduates

and sub-degree programmes, approved by the Faculty
Board are submitted to the Senate Business Committee
for approval.
A. True
B. False
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
B. West African Society

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
QUESTION NO: 1 C. Mr. & Mrs. Baker
INDEPENDENCE : Choose the correct answer.
D. King Olav's son
Tayo felt that Christine was more interested in Nigerian
authors because .
A. it was important for her to be accepted by QUESTION NO: 4

other Nigerians INDEPENDENCE : Choose the correct answer.
B. other Nigerians earned her respect and held

her in high esteem
The two Nigerians Tayo met on board the ship to
Liverpool were .
C. only the Nigerian poets mattered in her study
of Modern Languages
D. she was born and bred in England but knew so A. both students at Oxford University
much about Nigeria
B. Mr. Olajide and Mr. Mohammed
C. Mr. Ike and Mr. Bolaji

QUESTION NO: 2
D. his cousin Tunde and Vanessa
As a way of contributing the discussion about Literature
at the Baker's, Tayo felt it was safer to . The correct answer is option [B]
QUESTION NO: 5
A. be defensive
B. feign ignorance Tayo felt comfortable with Bakers because they reminded
him of .
C. ask the questions

A. Mr. Fairchild
D. mention Okadigbo
B. his parents
C. his headmaster
QUESTION NO: 3
D. colonial masters
Tayo first met Christine at a party hosted by the
. The correct answer is option [B]
A. British Army Colonel QUESTION NO: 6
19
Compiled by: Sucex De-Tech Integrated Services - 08132641763
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
INDEPENDENCE : Choose the correct answer. D. the first female Nigerian in the West African
Society
One of the strange things Tayo was quick to learn about
his new environment was that . The correct answer is option [A]
A. the people of Oxford were very cordial to QUESTION NO: 9

strangers at 5:30pm Read the passage carefully and answer the question.
Chike must have passed the house five times, yet he was
B. the people's temperament was as warmer at still not sure. Was this the house he had visited so often
the 5:30pm set in the past? The house he used to visit was a bungalow,
but this house was also a bungalow. The old house was
situated between two-storey buildings; this one too was
C. sunset at 5:30pm was an important part of
so situated. But in spite of this feeling of certainty, Chike
open discussions
had a vague suspicion that the house he had passed so
often that day might be the wrong house after all. Could
D. the sun set at 5:30pm and would even set an absence of two years have blurred his memory so
earlier in months to come badly? After a few moments of hesitation, Chike began to
move towards the house and then stopped as if held
The correct answer is option [D] back by an invisible hand. His attention had been
distracted by a girl of about twenty-four, who was
tripping along the pavement to his right. He turned and
QUESTION NO: 7
advanced towards her, and was about to call her by what
he felt was her name when he discovered that he had
According to Tayo's opinion, Oxford was an impressive made a mistake in respect of her identity.
institution because of the presence of . Just as Chike turned from the girl to continue his
quest, he heard voices shouting 'thief! thief!' and
saw a crowd materialise in seconds. At the head of
A. many important persons this justice-impelled rabble was a ludicrously fat
woman who inspite of her size, bounced along
B. the sons of important royalties with the agility of a prize athlete. This barrel
bellowed loudest and clapped her hands
vigorously to punctuate her outburst. And as she
C. men of the West African society did so, the surplus flesh on her podgy arms
quivered. 'They are all the same!' the woman
screamed, addressing nobody in particular. 'They
D. King Olav's son from Norway
dress gorgeously, but underneath they are
rogues'. Again, she clapped her hands and again,
there was a quivering of loose flesh. Chike was so
busily occupied with watching the antics of this
QUESTION NO: 8 woman that he did not notice at first that the
INDEPENDENCE : Choose the correct answer. object of her venom was the girl that he had seen
earlier. It was this girl that was now surrounded
Christine, the only Nigerian woman at Oxford, was a
by the crowd, with many people groaning, sighing
.
and hissing in unison. Chike relaxed and prepared
to watch the drama unfolding before him.
A. a third year student of Modern Languages
Chike left the girl alone because he .
B. the only beautiful Igbo student in Oxford

A. discovered that she was a thief
C. an impressive student of Nigerian literature
B. was afraid of the fat woman
20
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
C. did not know her D. students
D. did not like her E. comrades
The correct answer is option [C]. The correct answer is option [B].
QUESTION NO: 11
Read the passage carefully and answer the question.
QUESTION NO: 10
Read the passage carefully and answer the question. Undergraduate students in psychology and education
come to their first course in statistics with diverse
The training camp is one place where people (ordinary expectations of and backgrounds in mathematics. Some
people), mere civilians, are stretched into soldiers have considerable formal training and quantitative
(WARRIORS). The soldier is taught many physical stuff to aptitude and look forward to learning statistics. Others -
keep him fit and prepared for war. After which, he is perhaps the majority, including some of those who aspire
taught how to use his map and compass. He is thereafter to postgraduate studies - are less confident in their
taught 'THE RULES OF ENGAGEMENT': how to deal with quantitative skills. They regard a course in statistics as a
civilians, what to do with POW (Prisoners of War), what to necessary evil for the understanding or carrying out of
do with a COMRADE if he sustains an injury in the battle research in their chosen fields, but an evil nonetheless.
ground, etc. This picture is the same for the soldiers of This third edition, like its predecessor is directed
the cross. The difference is that the soldiers of the cross primarily at the latter audience. It was written
are enlisted by Jesus Christ, the Captain of the Host of with the conviction that the statistical concepts
Heaven and not by them joining of their own volition ('Ye can be described simply without loss of accuracy
did not choose me, I chose you'). and that they are within the context of their
One thing that is very common about the soldiers application to concrete data rather than as pure
of the cross is the attitude and aptitude of not abstractions. Further, its contents are limited to
wanting to submit to the various rigours the those statistical techniques that are widely used in
training provides. As a result of this, the literature of psychology and to the principles
unpreparedness sets in. Our unpreparedness and underlying them. The changes that have been
unyieldedness to training exposes us to all manner made in this edition reject both the results of our
of attacks from the enemy. Because we fail to teaching experience and the increasing
train, we miss the RULES OF ENGAGEMENT which prominence being given by statisticians to certain
ought to let us know how to battle, who to battle, topics. Thus our discussion of some procedures,
and what to battle with. We also mishandle the particularly those in the realm of descriptive
map and the compass that would have directed us statistics, which students grasp easily, have been
to victory or out of the hands of the foes. We even shortened or rearranged. The treatment of other
end up not knowing what to do with a wounded topics has been expanded. Greater emphasis has
comrade. What a tragedy! The clarion call to us been placed on sampling theory, hypothesis,
today is to go back to the manual of the RULES OF testing and the notion of statistical power.
ENGAGEMENT (The Holy Bible). It can be inferred from the passage that the book
(Adapted from Peculiar Truth, 2002). was written by .
From the passage, the phrase 'soldiers of the

cross' can be passed for _.
A. an educational psychologist.
A. heavenly hosts
B. more than one author
B. Christians
C. a prominent statistician
C. Muslims
21
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
chance, and a third group, which competed with him in

D. a professor of statistics the business of staying alive.
In the primitive situation, man was therefore
The correct answer is Option [B] basically against nature but as conscience crept in,
he became aware of his responsibility and a
QUESTION NO: 12 failure to meet it, produced feelings of guilt.
Read the passage carefully and answer the question. Hence, in recent times, people who live in cities
and do not see the need to battle against nature
As the stranger approached, Shola noticed that he was are nowadays most actively for nature. About a
handsome and her excitement increased. It was of such a thousand kinds of animals (vertebrate animals)
man she had dreamt. He had a fine, arrogant carriage, are said to be in danger of extinction. A few of
like a soldier or someone in authority. When he reached them have been reduced to this precarious
the end of the pier, he addressed them in a rich, deep position by extensive killing but the majority are
voice that disturbed her as the voluptuous rising of the disappearing only as fast as people of a particular
tide had done. 'You're Tunde Onu, I'm told,' he said to country need them for existence itself are
her father. 'That's right,' said her father. 'The bus disappearing; and all this at the hands of man.
conductor told me you take people to the islands,' the
man continued.' I'd like to go there if you can take me.' For example, the future survival of three species of
Her father examined the man from head to foot, the turtle being is threatened by the demand for
shrewdly measuring his capacity to pay. Then he said: turtle soup, which would hardly justify the
'When were you thinking of going?' 'Right away.' 'That's a extermination of a giant reptile whose family has
different story, for my boatman is gone to Badagry and existed for two hundred million years. Leopards
won't be back before nightfall. 'Oh! said the stranger,' are in jeopardy because of the need of their skins
That's too bad. You couldn't get someone else instead of in the fashion world as they are used to make
him?' 'I would have to think hard', he said gloomily,' for bags, winter coats, etc. As they get rarer, the cost
it's not everyone that would do for the job of going with for their skins rises and, as leopard skin coats
me beyond the bay to the islands at this time of the year.' become more expensive, the demand increases.
Shola understood her father's manoeuvre and felt Also, the crocodiles, the longest surviving reptiles,
ashamed. are now dwindling alarmingly due to the same
Which of the following is true of the passage? reasons.
The human population explosion spreads across
A. The stranger could not afford to miss the boat the land surfaces of the earth at an alarming rate.
ride because he had come from a very far place. make. There will be twice as many of us before most of
us are dead. Does this mean no room for wild
animals? Of course not! With ingenuity and
B. Though the stranger had a rich deep voice,
forethought, a place can be kept for them. To
Shola's father was more outspoken than him. destroy their habitat is as unnecessary as it would
be to pull down a great cathedral in order to grow
C. Shola and her father were idle when the potatoes on the site. A campaign to save what
stranger approached them. remains is the concern of a new kind of Noah's Ark
- The World Wildlife Fund. It does not believe that
all is lost.
D. Shola's father sized the stranger's capability to
pay. Which of the following statements is true
according to the passage?
The correct answer is option [D].
A. Man kills animals only when he can afford to
QUESTION NO: 13 do so.
Read the passage carefully and answer the question.
B. Man cannot spare those animals that eat his
When man evolved a conscience, his basic relationship kind.

with the other animals began to change. Until then, they
were broadly divided into those who ate him when they
got the chance; those which he ate when he got the
C. Man eats all categories of animals.
22
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
QUESTION NO: 16
D. Man poses the greatest threat to nature. Fill in the blank space with the correct option.
The correct answer is option [D]. At eighteen, Bose is to take good care of her
sisters.
QUESTION NO: 14
Fill in the blank space with the correct option. A. enough old
It is pretty difficult to choose the three boys.

B. too old
A. between
C. older enough
B. over
D. old enough
C. against
D. among This expresses completeness or sufficiency. In this

case, at eighteen, one is sufficiently equipped to
E. from take good care of his/her younger sibling.
The correct answer is option [D]. QUESTION NO: 17

Fill in the blank space with the correct option.
QUESTION NO: 15
Fill in the blank space with the correct option. He is a very brilliant student so it is not surprising that he
got a .
She asked for .
A. first class result worthy
A. two white pairs of canvas tennis shoes
B. worthy first class result
B. two pairs of canvas tennis white shoes
C. first class worthy result

C. two pairs of tennis white canvas shoes
D. result worthy first class

D. two pairs of white canvas tennis shoes
The correct answer is option [B].
The result is being qualified and other words that
First identify which noun is being qualified - qualify it is worthy, first class. It is a rule that
Shoes. adjective of size comes before that of colour, shape
or age.
Also determine the other words that qualify the
noun - white, tennis, canvas.(one colour, two
nouns). Note: colours should come before a noun- QUESTION NO: 18
adjective. Fill in the blank space with the correct option.
The rule of O,P,S,H,A,C,O,N will be useful - opinion, I didn't know when the coin dropped the well.
shape, age, colour, origin, noun.
23
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
A. above D. Who
B. towards E. Who'd
C. under The correct answer is Option [D].
QUESTION NO: 21
D. into
E. over the owner of that dog?

A. Who's
QUESTION NO: 19
Fill in the blank space with the correct option. B. Whose
In the personal pronoun type, the "second person" refers

to . C. Whom
A. the person, thing or idea that is spoken about D. Which is

or that is being discussed
E. Whos
B. the person, thing or idea that is spoken to or
being addressed The correct answer is Option [A].
C. the person speaking or reporting an event QUESTION NO: 22

D. any person passing by during the discussion Aggrieved persons are free to seek in the court of
law.
E. the female between or among the people

discussing A. reparation

B. redress
QUESTION NO: 20
Fill in the blank space with the correct option. C. consolation
kept the bicycle in the rain?

D. acquittal
A. Whose
E. conviction
B. Who's The correct answer is option [B].
C. Whom [A] Reparation means making amends or

compensation for war victims. [B] Redress means
readjust or set straight again; remedy or rectify (a
24
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
wrong or grievance). [C] Consolation means being

consoled or comforted. [D] Acquittal means
declared not guilty. A. a preposition
QUESTION NO: 23
B. a coordinating conjunction

C. a subordinating conjunction
Our economic programme is commitment to
Nigeria's economic growth.
D. an indefinite pronoun
A. deeply rooted in
E. a relative pronoun
B. root in deep
C. rooted in a deep QUESTION NO: 26

D. deeply rooted to We will the meeting when the boss comes.
E. deeply rooted on A. round off

B. round up
QUESTION NO: 24 C. round on

On his of office, the new president announced some

D. round of
drastic measures.
E. round out
A. assumption
B. ascension
QUESTION NO: 27
C. acceptance Choose the correct option.
Have you heard that Mrs. Andrews from the board of

D. appointment directors?
E. resumption A. departed
The correct answer is option [A].

B. abandoned
QUESTION NO: 25
Choose the correct option. C. deserted
In the sentence "I would like to take Shakespeare OR

Milton", the capitalised word is an example of . D. resigned
25
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
B. time and order

E. embarked
The correct answer is option [D] C. number
QUESTION NO: 28 D. attitude

In the sentence "We WILL attend the seminar together", E. location

the capitalized word is classified as verb.
The correct answer is option [E]
A. an intransitive
QUESTION NO: 31
z B. a transitive
Nana Sawara is a queen and demands to be treated .
C. a linking
A. like that
D. an auxiliary
B. like so
E. a main
C. as such

D. that much
QUESTION NO: 29
E. as so
Which of the following sentences is in the passive voice?
The correct answer is option [C]. This intensifier
emphasises the fact that Nana Sawara needs to be
A. They have not considered that option.
treated as a queen, such as is befitting.
B. All options have been considered. QUESTION NO: 32

C. All options are possible.

What Ade told us true after all.
D. We kept them in the storehouse.

A. must not be
E. Shola played the guitar everyday. B. may not be

C. shall not be
QUESTION NO: 30
Choose the correct option. D. should not be
The prefix 'inter' can be grouped as a prefix of .

E. ought not
A. degree
26
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
The correct answer is option [B]. 'May not be' expresses

probability, i.e. something that may/may not be possible.
A. a
QUESTION NO: 33
Choose the correct option. B. any
Identify the sentence in which the subject and verb do

not agree. C. the
A. Not the robbers, but the policeman was D. some

responsible for the theft.
E. a few
B. Chemistry, as well as Physics is compulsory.
C. Bread and butter is delicious.

QUESTION NO: 36
From the words lettered A-E, choose the word that
D. Neither the chairman nor his councillors has a best competes the sentence.
sense of direction.
The junior officer the secret to the police.
E. Everyone, but you is happy.

A. channelled
B. divulged
QUESTION NO: 34
Choose from the options lettered A-E, the option that
most appropriately completes the sentence. C. opened
A good mother always her children's food.

D. showed
A. cook E. diluted
B. cooked The correct answer is option [B]
C. cooks QUESTION NO: 37

From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that
has the SAME MEANING as the words written in
D. has cooked capital letters.
I want you to KEEP AN EYE ON that child.

E. cooking
The correct answer is option [C] A. To discipline the child.
QUESTION NO: 35 B. To keep the child busy all the time.

Choose from the options lettered A-E, the option that
most appropriately completes the sentence.
C. To punish the child if he misbehaves.
Please put milk in my tea.
27
ENGLISH LANGUAGE

D. To watch the child all the time. best completes the sentence.
Why are you always jealous other people?

E. To keep off the child.
The correct answer is option A. of
QUESTION NO: 38 B. at
After the sentence, a list of possible interpretations is
given. Choose the interpretation that you consider
most appropriate for the sentence. C. about
The friendship between Celina and Kate has turned sour.

This means that Celina and Kate are .
D. with
E. off
A. better friends now

B. trying to understand each other
C. no longer friends QUESTION NO: 41

Choose from the options lettered A -E, the one that
best completes the sentence.
D. still good friends
John and his brother Peter are always fighting .
E. now spoilt
A. another
B. both themselves
QUESTION NO: 39
From the options lettered A-E, choose the word that
best completes the sentence. C. each other
My daughter, Jane, has now come age.

D. themselves
A. with
E. theirselves
B. for The correct answer is option [C]
C. of QUESTION NO: 42
has the same vowel sound as the one represented by
D. from the letter(s) underlined.
cut
E. in
The correct answer is option [C] A. song
QUESTION NO: 40
28
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
B. pull D. chart
C. tongue E. chandelier
D. lock The correct answer is option [D]
QUESTION NO: 45
E. put
From the options lettered A to D, choose the one that
has the correct stress pattern.
parochial
QUESTION NO: 43
A. PA-ro-chi-al
has the same consonant sound(s) as the one
represented by the letter(s) underlined.
B. pa-RO-chi-al
tea
C. pa-ro-CHI-al
A. secret
D. pa-ro-chi-AL
B. depot

C. ballet
QUESTION NO: 46
D. match
All the following words except have the same stress
E. bouquet pattern.
The correct answer is option [A] A. recite
QUESTION NO: 44
B. reckon
has the same consonant sound(s) as the one
represented by the letter(s) underlined. C. receipt
D. response
crunch
A. chef QUESTION NO: 47

has the same vowel sound as the sound represented
B. chemist
by the underlined letter.
C. champagne
29
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
drip D. recite
A. breath E. dictate
B. cream The correct answer is option [D]
QUESTION NO: 50
C. deed From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that
has the same consonant sound as the sound
D. flick represented by the underlined letters.
rich
E. entice

A. chief
QUESTION NO: 48 B. chasm

Choose from the options lettered A - E, the one that
C. chef
represented by the underlined letter.
met D. posture
A. heaped E. nonchalant
B. motion The correct answer is option [A]
QUESTION NO: 51
C. national
D. ratio All of the following words have the same stress pattern
except .
E. dumb
A. away

B. apart
QUESTION NO: 49
C. behind
rhymes with the word given.
invite D. river
A. advice E. nature
B. preside The correct answer is option [D]
QUESTION NO: 52
C. provide
30
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
From the options lettered A to E, choose the word B. rostrum

that has the sound represented by the given phonetic
symbol. C. novel
/ɜ/
D. modest
A. port
E. from
B. cord
C. sort
QUESTION NO: 55
From the options lettered A to E, choose the word
D. work that rhymes with the given word.
flow
E. war
A. bow
QUESTION NO: 53 B. woe

that has the sound represented by the given phonetic C. knew
symbol.
/m/ D. through
A. ink
E. vow
B. jammed
C. tunnel QUESTION NO: 56

Choose from the options lettered A to E, the one that
has the sound represented by the given phonetic
D. uncle
symbol.
E. break /ʒ/

A. extension
QUESTION NO: 54
Choose from the options lettered A to E, the one that B. vision
has the sound represented by the given phonetic
symbol.
C. caution
/ oʊ /
D. mission
A. rover
E. impossible
31
ENGLISH LANGUAGE

A. although
QUESTION NO: 57
Choose the word that has the same vowel sound as
the one represented by the underlined letter. B. father
wolf
C. thatch
A. wood
D. there
B. golf
E. smooth
C. woe
D. dove
QUESTION NO: 60
E. dive has the same vowel sound as the sound represented
The correct answer is option [A] know
QUESTION NO: 58
A. grew

represented by the underlined letter. B. foe
too
C. sew
A. listen
D. pew
B. snuff
E. hew
C. soften
D. sophistry
QUESTION NO: 61
E. through has the same vowel sound as the sound represented
The correct answer is option [C] cruise
QUESTION NO: 59
A. choice
that has the sound represented by the given phonetic

symbol. B. coast
/θ/
C. crude
32
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
The word written in capital letters has an EMPHATIC

D. quick STRESS. Choose the option that best fits the sentence.
The principal started his annual leave EARLY last month.

E. mud
The correct answer is option [C] A. Did the principal end his annual leave early last
month?
QUESTION NO: 62
From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that B. Did the principal start his annual leave early last
has the same vowel sound as the sound represented year?
deal C. Did the principal start his annual leave late last
month?
A. clear
D. Did the teacher start his annual leave early last
month?
B. health
E. Did the teacher start his annual leave early last

C. pill
year?
D. screen The correct answer is option [C]
QUESTION NO: 65
E. ship
From the options lettered A - E, choose the word that
is NEAREST IN MEANING to the word written in
The correct answer is option [D] capital letters.
QUESTION NO: 63 Though corruption is very prevalent in the society, there

Choose the correct option. are still some VIRTUOUS men around.
The word that has a different stress pattern from the

others is . A. intelligent
A. justice
B. clever
B. lady C. devious
C. lagoon D. loquacious
D. pallid E. upright
E. river The correct answer is option [E].
VIRTUOUS means to have or show good and high

moral standards.
QUESTION NO: 64 INTELLIGENT means to have high level of
33
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
knowledge and skills.
34
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
CLEVER means being talented, skillful and quick D. unnecessary

to understand .
DEVIOUS means not being straight forward. E. harmful
LOQUACIOUS means being talkative.

The correct answer is option [E].
UPRIGHT means to behave in a moral and
honourable manner. Innocuous means innocent, harmless, inoffensive,
safe or mild.
QUESTION NO: 66 Polite means to be refined, respectful, civil, well-
From the options lettered A - E, choose the word that mannered or courteous.
is NEAREST IN MEANING to the word written in
capital letters. Inappropriate means not suitable or not proper.
Soon after the accident, the driver came out of the

Antagonistic means being aggressive, hostile or
unfriendly.
wreckage of the car UNSCATHED.
Unnecessary means needless, pointless avoidable,
or redundant .
A. unconscious
Harmful refers to ability to cause damage or
B. frightened injury.
C. slightly injured QUESTION NO: 68

From the options lettered A - E, fill in the blank space
with the word OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the
D. bleeding capitalised word.
Osemudiamen complained that while his colleagues were

E. unhurt
ELEVATED, he was .

A. interdicted
UNSCATHED means to be without suffering injury,
harm, damage; unhurt . B. prompted
QUESTION NO: 67 C. suspended

From the options lettered A - E, fill in the blank space
with the word OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the
capitalised word. D. dismissed
I thought that the comments made by the secretary were

quite INNOCUOUS, but the chairman considered them
E. demoted
.
The correct answer is option [E]. Elevated means being
exalted in rank.
A. polite
Interdicted deals with a prohibited action.
B. inappropriate
Prompted means incited or urged.
To suspend means to debar temporarily from an
C. antagonistic
office or a function.
35
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Choose the word OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the word

Dismissed means sent away or terminated from
in capital letters.
ones employment.
Demoted means being reduced in rank or status; The birthday party took place on a DULL day.
given a lesser responsibility or office.
QUESTION NO: 69 A. cloudy

From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that is
OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the word written in capital
letters. B. unusual
The journalist's write-up contained a PLETHORA of

details.
C. bright
A. lack
D. gloomy
B. simplicity E. lengthy

C. complexity
QUESTION NO: 72
D. spectrum Choose the correct option.
education is a form of education people get when

E. excess they learn from parents, relations, society, etc.

A. Formal
QUESTION NO: 70
From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that is B. Informal
letters.
C. Civic
As these boys never act in public, the police are now
worried about their COVERT activities. D. Social
A. ignoble E. Civil
B. evil The correct answer is Option [B].
There are mainly two types of education namely:

C. open
formal and informal education.
D. cryptic
QUESTION NO: 73
Choose the option OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the
E. secret word written in capital letters.
If you are really keen on immediate results you just have

to adopt this PRAGMATIC approach.
QUESTION NO: 71
36
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
B. got married
A. practical
C. ascended the altar
B. unbalistic
D. could be at the altar
C. opportunistic
E. left the altar
D. sensible
E. realistic QUESTION NO: 76

Choose from the options lettered A -E, the one that is
The correct answer is option [C]. nearest in meaning to the words written in italics in
the sentence below.
QUESTION NO: 74
The organization has embarked on frequent media
From the options lettered A-E, choose the word that
campaigns to sensitise the public.
is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined
word and will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap
in the sentence. A. annual
B. regular
The preacher stressed that the righteous shall
be perpetually happy but the wicked may have
moments of peace.
C. deliberate
A. continual
D. occasional
B. fleeting E. spontaneous
QUESTION NO: 77
C. momentous From the options lettered A-E, choose the word that
is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined
D. periodical word and will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap
in the sentence.
E. habitual The now famous park was until recently even in

the neighbourhood.
A. anonymous
QUESTION NO: 75
Choose from the options lettered A -E, the one that is
the most appropriate interpretation for the B. obscure
underlined expression.
C. hidden
The two young couple took to the altar yesterday. This
means the two .
D. infamous
A. climbed the altar
37
ENGLISH LANGUAGE

E. known NEAREST IN MEANING to the word written in capital
letters.
QUESTION NO: 78
Choose the option NEAREST IN MEANING to the We need an expert to DECIPHER the code.
word written in capital letters.
Some religious people PURIFY themselves by performing

A. understand
ablutions.
B. survey
A. cleanse
C. arrange
B. edify
D. normalise
C. wash
E. interpret
D. empower
E. soak
QUESTION NO: 79
letters.
My eldest brother is now faced with the VICISSITUDES of

married life.
A. uncertainties
B. progression
C. Amiability
D. stability
E. Instability
VICISSITUDES means changes (especially of

Fortune).
QUESTION NO: 80
38
Mathematics
D. x = -34/27, y = 73/27
MATHEMATICS
The correct answer is option [D]. 2x + 5y = 11.......
(i)
QUESTION NO: 1 7x + 4y = 2 ......... (ii)
Choose the correct option. Multiply (i) by the coefficient
of x in (ii) and (iii) by the the coefficient of x in (i)
The minimum value of y in the equation y = x2 -
14x + 35y = 77 ......... (iii)
6x + 8 is .
14x + 8y = 4 ............. (iv)
Subtract (iv) from (iii) to get:
A. 8 27y = 73;
y = 73/27
B. 3 Substitute for x in (i) to get:
2x + 5(73/27) = 11 (multiplying through gives ..)
54x + 365 = 297
C. 0
54x = 297 - 365 = - 68
x = - 68/54 = -34/27
D. -1 y = 73/27, x = -34/27
The correct answer is option [C]. QUESTION NO: 3

y = x2 - 6x + 8 Choose the correct option.
i.e. x2 - 6x + 8 = 0
If 1 is added to both the numerator and
x2 - 4x - 2(x - 4) = 0
denominator of a fraction, the fraction
x(x - 4) - 2(x - 4) = 0
becomes 1/2. If 8 is added to both, the fraction
(x - 2)(x - 4) = 0
becomes 2/3. What is the fraction?
x = 2 or x = 4
Substitute the value of x in y = x2 - 6x + 8
When x = 2: y = (2)2 - 6(2) + 8 A. 7/15
= 4 - 12 + 8 = 0
When x = 4: y = (4)2 - 6(4) + 8 B. 21/7
= 16 - 24 + 8 = 0
y = 0 is the minimum value in the equation. C. 11/15
QUESTION NO: 2
Choose the correct option. D. 22/7
Solve the simultaneous linear equations The correct answer is option [A]. Solution: Let
the numerator be x and denominator be y;
x + 1/
y + 1 = /2--------- [i];
1
2x + 5y = 11 ------------- (i)
x + 8/
y + 8 = /3-----------[ii]
2
7x + 4y = 2 --------------- (ii)
® 2x + 2 = y + 1 ® 2x - y = -1 ----- [iii];
A. x = - 8, y = 1 3x + 24 = 2y + 16 ® 3x - 2y = -8 ----- [iv]
® from equation [iii] make y subject and
substitute into equation [iv]
B. x = -2, y = 4
® y = 2x + 1 ---- [v];
3x - 2[2x + 1] = -8; 3x - 4x - 1 = -8; -x = -7; x =
C. x = 2, y = -3
39
Mathematics
7,substitute the value of x into equation [v] B. -2;1

® y = 2[7] + 1 = 15. The fraction is x/y = 7/15.
C. 2;1
QUESTION NO: 4
D. 2;-1
In a two-digit number, the sum of the digits is 8.
The difference between this number and the The correct answer is option [D]. Solution:
number with the digits reversed is 54. What is 4x2 - y2 = 15 -----[i];
the number? 2x - y = 5 ---- [ii]
by factors of two square equation [i] is factorized
A. 71 [2x - y][2x + y] =15 ---- [i];
2x - y = 5 ---- [ii]
from equation [ii] substitute the value into
B. 17
equation [i]
5[2x + y] = 15;
C. 35 2x + y =3 ---- [iii]
2x - y = 5 ---- [ii];
D. 53 2x + y = 3 ---- [iii]
subtract equation [iii] from equation [ii]
-2y = 2;
The correct answer is option [A]. Solution:
y = -1 substitute the value into equation [iii]
Let the digits number be xy;
2x + [-1] = 3;
x + y = 8 ---- [i];
2x = 4
10x + y - [10y + x] = 54;
then x = 2
10x + y - 10y - x = 54;
The answer = 2;-1.
9x - 9y = 54;
x - y = 6 ---- [ii]
From equation [i] make x subject;
QUESTION NO: 6
x = 8 - y ---- [iii] and substitute into equation [ii]
8 - y - y = 6;
-2y = -2; A line graph is drawn on the same axis to
y=1 intersect another graph, y = 2x2 - 7x - 3. the
Substitute the value of y into equation [iii] intersection gives the solution to an equation
x=8-y=8-1=7 2x2 - 8x - 9 = 0. find the line graph drawn.
Since the digits number is xy the final answer =
71.
A. y = -15x - 12
QUESTION NO: 5
Choose the correct option. B. y = x + 6
Solve for x and y in the equation given:

C. y = 5x - 4
4x2 - y2 = 15
2x - y = 5. D. y = x - 6
A. -2;-1 The correct answer is option [B].
40
Mathematics
QUESTION NO: 7
F = 9C/5 + 32, make C the subject of formula.
A. C = [5(F - 32)]/9
B. C = [9(F - 32)]/5
C. C = [5(F + 32)]/9 The mark in percentage of four students in a test

are shown on the pie chart drawn. Calculate the
angle of the sector obtained by Tayo.
D. C = [9(F + 32)]/5
A. 43.8°
The correct answer is option [A]. Solution: F
= 9C/5 + 32; F - 32 = 9C/5; 9C = 5[F - 32]; C = 5[F -
32]/ .
9
B. 150.4°
QUESTION NO: 8 C. 127.5°

Given that A = Ö[12/C - B/3], make C the subject D. 85.5°

of formula.
The correct answer is option [C]. Solution: Hint
A. C = [3A2
+ B]/36 [Add all the percentages together and find the
angle obtained by Tayo's percentage]. Tayo's
percentage
B. C = 36/[3A2 + B] /Total percentages ´ 360o.
C. C = [36B]/[3A2] QUESTION NO: 10

D. C = [3A3 - B]/36 What is the length of the intercept which the line
3x - 4y - 6 = 0?
The correct answer is option [B]. Solution: A
= Ö[12/C - B/3]; A2 = 12/C - B/3 = [36 - BC]/3C; 3CA2 = A. -11/2
36 - BC; 36 = 3CA2 + BC; 36 = C[3A2 + B]; C
= 36/[3A2 + B].
B. 2/3
C. 11/2
QUESTION NO: 9
Choose the correct option. D. 4/7

Equation of line = 3x - 4y - 6 = 0; Rewriting the
equation 3x - 4y = 6; when x = 0 then 3[0] = 0 -
4y = 6. Therefore, y = -3/2 = -11/2.
41
Mathematics
QUESTION NO: 11 B. 72o

C. 54o
D. 28o
QUESTION NO: 13
Find the area of the given trapezium drawn.
Solve 9x(x + 1) = 4.
A. 612cm2
B. 126cm2 A. -1/3 or 4/3
B. -1/3 or -4/3
C. 216cm2
C. 1/3 or -4/3
D. 162cm2
D. 1/3 or 4/3
The correct answer is option [C]. Solution: Area
of trapezium = 1/2 ´ [a + b] ´ h, where a = AD =
25cm, b = BC = 11cm, h = CE = 12cm. Substitute The correct answer is option [C]
the values into the equation. 9x(x + 1) = 4
=> 9x2 + 9x - 4 = 0
QUESTION NO: 12 Sum of roots = +9x
Use the diagram to answer the question. Product of roots = -36x2
Two numbers that meet these requirement are
+12x and -3x
9x2 + 9x - 4 = 9x2 - 3x + 12x - 4
Pairing;
(9x2 - 3x)(12x - 4)
3x(3x - 1) + 4(3x - 1)
(3x + 4)(3x - 1)
Factorizing;
3x + 4 = 0 ; 3x = -4 ; x = -4/3
3x - 1 = 0 ; 3x = 1 ; x = 1/3
The solution is x = 1/3 or -4/3
QUESTION NO: 14
In the diagram, GI is a tangent to the circle at H.
If EF//GI, calculate the size of ÐEHF.
Arrange 21/3, 25/12, 29/25, 214/37 in ascending
A. 126o order.
42
Mathematics
D. 57°
A. 2 /3, 2 /12, 2 /25, 2 /37
1 5 9 14
B. 214/37, 29/25, 25/12, 21/3
C. 21/3, 29/25, 2114/37, 25/12
D. 29/25, 25/12, 21/3, 214/37
QUESTION NO: 15
QUESTION NO: 17
Choose the correct answer.
Find the radius of the parallel of the following

latitudes, given that R = 6,400 km.
(a) 50°N
(b) 36°N
A. 5/8
A. 5113.92km, 4178km
B. 5/2
B. 3713.92km, 5178km
C. 5/4
C. 4113.92km, 5178km
D. 5/16
D. 2213.92km, 4782km
QUESTION NO: 16
Find the difference in longitude between P(60°N,

18°W) and Q(60°N, 93°W).
A. 111°
B. 75°
C. 60°
43
Mathematics
QUESTION NO: 18 where q = 360 - 160 = 200;

200/
360´p14 = 342.08cm ;
2 2
Area of triangle = 1/2ab´sin q
In the figure shown, a solid consists of a where a = 14cm, b = 14cm, q = 160o;
1/ ´14´14´sin 160o = 33.52cm2
hemisphere surmounted by a right circular cone, 2
with radius 3.0 cm and height 6.0 cm. Find the Area of major segment = 342.08 - 33.52 =
volume of the solid. 308.56cm2.
QUESTION NO: 20
A. 18p cm3
B. 36p cm3 James and Daniel owners of J. D. chemicals

shared their end of the year profit in the ratio of
C. 54p cm3 4:6. If Daniel [D] got ₦ 4,000 more than James [J],
also how much did James [J] get as total?
D. 108p cm3
A. ₦ 8,000
The correct answer is option [C].

B. ₦ 6,000
Volume of a cone = (1/3)pr2h
Volume of a sphere = (4/3)pr3
Volume of the solid (hemisphere + circular cone) C. ₦ 9,000
= (1/3)pr2h + (4/3)pr3 where r = 3 cm, h = 6
cm, p = 22/7
( (1/3)p(3)2(6) + (4/3) p3)3 = (1/3)(54p) + (4/3)(27p) D. ₦ 7,000
= 18p + 36 = 54p cm3
₦20,000 - ₦4,000 = ₦16,000. Therefore,
QUESTION NO: 19 ₦16,000/2 = ₦8,000.
QUESTION NO: 21
A chord subtends an angle of 160o at the centre Choose the correct option.
of a circle of radius 14cm. Calculate the area of
the major segment of the circle. Johnson spent 1/12 of his monthly salary on food,
and 1/4 on transport. How much is his monthly
salary if ₦ 180 is left.
A. 308.56cm2.
B. 325.33cm2. A. ₦ 262.00
B. ₦ 400.00
C. 68.41cm2.
C. ₦ 850.00
D. 101.93cm2.
D. ₦ 1,200.00
Area of major segment = Area of major sector -
Area of triangle; The correct answer is option [A]. Solution:
Area of major segment = q/360´p´r2; Monthly Salary = x; Food = x/12;
44
Mathematics
Remaining x - x/12 = 11x/12; Transport = 1/4 of The correct answer is option [D]. Solution: 1/(4x +
4) + /(6x + 6) = /(24x2 + 48x + 24) = (10x +
1 (6x + 6) + (4x + 4)
11x/ = 11x/ . Total money spent
12 48
/(x + 2x + 1) =
10) 2 10(x + 1)
/(x + 1)(x + 1) = 10/(x + 1).
= x/12 + 11x/48 = 15x/48;
Remainder = x - 15x/48 = 48x - 15x/48 ® 33x/48 = 180.
Therefore, 33x = 180 ´ 48; x = 180 ´ 48/33 = ₦ QUESTION NO: 24
262.00. Choose the correct option.
Ose and Bola pulled resources to a total of ₦

QUESTION NO: 22
18,000 to carry out a business venture. The
venture was sold to Segun for ₦ 54,000. The
profit was shared using 3:4 ratio. Calculate the
A casting is made of copper and zinc 65% of the difference in amount of profit received by Ose
casting is copper and there are 147g of zinc. and Bola at the end of the deal.
What is the mass of the casting?
A. ₦ 6,225.00
A. 21g
B. ₦ 4,000.00
B. 273g
C. ₦ 5,142.86
C. 350g
D. ₦ 12,000.80
D. 420g
The correct answer is option [C]. Total money
invested = ₦ 18,000, Sold to Segun at ₦ 54,000.
The correct answer is option [D]. Solution: The
Profit made = ₦ 54,000 - ₦ 18,000 = ₦ 36,000
percentage of the zinc is 35%.
profit ratio 3:4; 3 + 4 = 7.
Let the mass of the casting be x; 35% of x =
Ose got 3/7 ´ 36,000 = ₦ 15,428.57, Bola
147g ® 0.35x = 147; x = 147/0.35 = 420g.
got 4/7 ´ 36,000 = ₦ 20,571.43.
Therefore, the difference in profit
QUESTION NO: 23
shared/received = ₦ 20,571.43 - ₦ 15,428.57 = ₦
5,142.86.
Evaluate 1/(4x + 4) + 1/(6x + 6).
QUESTION NO: 25
A.
Find the equation obtained when 3x4 - x3 + x -
24 is divided by x - 2.
B.
A. 5x3 - 3x2 - 11
C.
B. 3x3 + 5x2 + 11
D. 10/(x + 1)
C. 3x3 - 5x2 - 11
D. 5x3 + 3x2 - 11
45
Mathematics
The correct answer is option [A]. => 0.06 x 0.09

= 6 x 10-2 x 9 x 10-2
= 54 x 10-4
= 5.4 x 10-3
QUESTION NO: 28
While doing his Physics practical, Idowu

recorded a reading as 1.12cm instead of 1.21cm.
QUESTION NO: 26 Calculate his percentage error.
If ₦225.00 yields ₦27.00 in X years simple A. 1.17%

interest at the rate of 4% per annum, find X.
B. 6.38%
A. 3
C. 7.44%
B. 4
D. 8.05%
C. 12
D. 27
QUESTION NO: 29
where P = ₦225.00, R = 4%, S.I = ₦27.00, X = ?
The range of 4, 3, 11, 9, 6, 15, 19, 23, 27, 24, 21
Note: Simple Interest = P ´ R ´ T/100,
and 16 is
where P = Principal = ₦225.00, R = 4%, Interest
= ₦27.00,
T = ?; T = I ´ 100/P ´ T = 27 ´ 100/225 ´ 4 = 3 years. A. 24
QUESTION NO: 27 B. 23
C. 21
Express the product of 0.06 and 0.09 in standard
form.
D. 16

A. 5.4 x 10-3 The range is the difference between the highest
and lowest numbers.
B. 5.4 x 10-2 => 27 - 3 = 24
C. 5.4 x 10-1
QUESTION NO: 30
D. 5.4 x 102 Choose the correct option.
46
Mathematics
A. 3.7%, 2.2%
B. 4.8%, 3.2%
C. 4.1%, 2.3%
A. 356
B. 756 D. 2.2%, 4.7%

C. 456
(a) Area of measurement done in error;
(40 ´ 35)m2 = 1, 400m2
D. 726 Area of correct measurement;
= (42.5 ´ 34.2)m2 = 1,435.5m2
The correct answer is option [A]. Therefore, absolute error = (1,453.5 - 1,400)m2
= 53.5m2
% error = /1453.5 ´ 100 = 3.7%
53.5
QUESTION NO: 31 (b) Perimeter of measurement done in error =

Choose the correct option. 2(40 + 35) = 150m
Perimeter of actual measurement = 2(42.5 +
An employee earns ₦450,000.00 per annum out 34.2) = 153.4m
of which he spends 12% on house rent. How Absolute error = (153.4 - 150) = 3.4m
much is left for other expenses? % error = 3.4/153.4 x 100
= 2.2%
A. ₦45,000.00
QUESTION NO: 33
B. ₦54,000.00 Choose the correct option.
Find the remainder when x3 + 3x - 6 is divided

C. ₦396,000.00 by 2x + 3.
D. ₦499,912.00 A. 71/8.
The correct answer is option [C]. B. 67/8.
QUESTION NO: 32 C. 51/8.

The length and breadth of a rectangle was D. -71/8.

mistakenly measured as 40m and 35m instead of
42.5m and 34.2m respectively. Find the
percentage error in
(a) the area

(b) the perimeter.
47
Mathematics
There are 7 green, 6 white and 8 yellow shirts in

a box. Ayo picks two shirts, from question, if Ayo
picks the two shirts from the box without
replacement, what is the probability of picking
two shirts of the same colour?
A. 32/105
35
B. /59
25
C. /115
37
D. /471
The correct answer is option [A]. Solution: Hint

[without] GG + WW + YY
= [7/21 ´ 6/20] + [6/21 ´ 5/21] + [8/21 ´ 7/20]
= 1/10 + 1/14 + 2/15
QUESTION NO: 34 = [21 + 15 + 28]/210, therefore, P[2 shirts]
Choose the correct option. = 64/210 = 32/105
QUESTION NO: 36
Obtaining a score of 6 when two dice are Choose the correct option.
thrown. From the information given, what is the
probability of obtaining a total score of 11 and The square of a certain number is 22 less than 13
12? times the original number. Find the number.
A. 1/3 A. 2 or 11
B. 4/9 B. 11 or 3
C. 6/11 C. 4 or 9
D. 1/648 D. 2 or 9
The correct answer is option [D]. Solution: The correct answer is option [A]. Solution:
P[score of 11 and 12], P[score of 11] = [5,6], [6,5] Let the number be x;
= 2/36 = 1/18. x2 = 13x - 22;
P[score of 12] = [6,6] = 1/36, x2 - 13x + 22 = 0;
therefore, P[score of 11 and 12] x2 - 11x - 2x + 22 = 0
= 1/18 ´ 1/36 = 1/648. ® x[x - 11] - 2[x - 11] = 0
® [x - 2][x - 11]; x = 2 or 11.
QUESTION NO: 35
Choose the correct option. QUESTION NO: 37
48
Mathematics
Choose the correct option. of item B will occupy if a pie chart is drawn.
A. 128.3o
B. 218.3o
C. 281.3o
D. 123.3o
The correct answer is option [D]. Solution: Hint

From the diagram, what is AÇB? [Sum the quantity of items].
115+202+88+65+74+46 = 590. Item B = 202.
Therefore, the angle item B will occupy
A. [3, 2, 1] = 202/590 ´ 360 = 123.3o.
B. [4, 8] QUESTION NO: 39

C. [6, 2]
Evaluate Ö32 + 3Ö8.
D. [5, 9, 11]
A. 4Ö2
The correct answer is option [B]. Solution: AÇB = B. 10Ö2

[4, 8] as shown from the diagram.
C. 2Ö8
QUESTION NO: 38
D. 5Ö6
QUESTION NO: 40
An accountant cross checked his stock of six a varies inversely as the cube of b, a = 9
items and tabulated it as shown, find the angle when b = 3, find a when b = 1.5.
49
Mathematics
QUESTION NO: 43
A. 38
Make R the subject from the equation E = [W(R - r)]/[2RP].
B. 36
A. R = Wr/[W - 2PE]
C. 72
B. R = Wr /[W - 2PE]
2 2
D. 88
C. R = 2PE/[Wr - W ] 2
The
a µ 1correct
/b3; a = answer
/b , findisthe
k 3 option [C].
value ofSolution:
k from the
[Wr - 2PE]
equation. Then a = 243/ 3

= 72. D. R= /WE
1.5 The correct answer is option [C].
QUESTION NO: 41
Find the value of x in 0.5x + 2.6 = 5x + 0.35.
A. 0.5
B. 2
C. 2.6
D. 5
QUESTION NO: 42
The angle of depression of a tree when compared to the

length of its shadow on the level ground is 28o and the
length of its shadow is 9.78m. What is the height of the
tree?
A. 6.64m
B. 5.50m
C. 5.20m
D. 4.20m
50
Mathematics

Solution: E = [W(R - r)]/[2RP]; 2RPE = W[R - r]
= WR - Wr; WR - 2RPE = Wr; R[W -
2PE]
= Wr; R = Wr/[W - 2PE].
QUESTION NO: 44
Find y from the diagram drawn.
A. 35°
B. 85°
C. 55°
D. 25°

Solution: ÐABD = ÐCDB[Angles at the
circumference are equal] = 35°.
Therefore,ACD = 90 - 35 = 55°.
51
Mathematics
QUESTION NO: 47
QUESTION NO: 45
Calculate the value of each interior angle of a 15 sided The turning point of the curve y = 8 - 5x - x2 occurs at
regular polygon. .
A. 160° A. [-21/2, 141/4]
B. 145° B. [3, 15]
C. 156° C. -15, 3]
D. 85° D. [6, 11]
The correct answer is option [C]. Solution: Each interior The correct answer is option [A]. Solution: Hint [Use
angle, where n = 15 = [(2 ´ 15) - 4]90/n ; [(2 ´ 15) - 4]90/15 = 156°. differentiation]; dy/dx = 0 at turning point. Then, dy/dx = -5 -
2x; x = -21/2, when x = -21/2, y = 8 - 5x - x2 = 8 - [5 ´ -21/2] -
QUESTION NO: 46 [-21/2]2 = 8 - 121/2 - 61/4 = 141/4. Therefore, the turning
Choose the correct option. point exist at [-21/2,141/4]
75 = 255o.
The bearing of city A from city B is 075o. What is the

bearing of city B from city A?
A. 245o
B. 265o
C. 260o
D. 255o
The correct answer is option [D]. Solution: Bearing of city

A from city B = 75o. Bearing of city B from city A = 180 +
52
Mathematics
QUESTION NO: 48
Use the diagram to answer the question.
In the diagram, the tangent MN

makes an angle of 55o with the
chord PS. If O is the centre of
the circle, find ÐRPS.
A. 55o
B. 45o
C. 35o
D. 25o
53
Mathematics
QUESTION NO: 51
•
Use the diagram to answer the question.
QUESTION NO: 49
Calculate the value of y to 3 significant places in the

diagram drawn.
A. 13.00cm
Find the minimum value of the graph drawn.
B. 11.00cm
A. -21/2
C. 10.95cm
B. 1
D. 10.9cm
C. -1
D. -11/2
QUESTION NO: 52
The correct answer is option [B]. Solution: A line is drawn
that extends to the y - axis from the curve.
QUESTION NO: 50
How much more than 7 is the sum of 32¤5 and 31¤6?
A. 1317¤30
A.
B. 617¤30 B.
C. 4529¤30 C.
D. 13
¤30
D.
The correct answer is option [A]. Solution: 7 + [32/5 + 31/6]
= 7 + 617/30 = 1317/30.
54
Mathematics
D. 4669 km, 9945 km
QUESTION NO: 53
Find the parallel of latitude along which a journey of

166km makes a change of 4o in longitude.
[Take 2πR = 40000km]
A. 89.76o.
B. 68.07.
QUESTION NO: 56
C. 88.51o. Choose the correct option.
D. 7.58o.
The correct answer is option [B]. Solution:

166 = q/360 ´ 2 ´ p ´ R ´ cos j
where j = ?, q = 4o, 2pR = 40000km;
166 = 4/360 ´ 40000 ´ cos j
® j = cos-1[166 ´ 360/4 ´ 40000] = 68.07o.
QUESTION NO: 55
X and Y are two locations on latitude 62°S and their Find the value of l in the frustum shown.
longitudes are 13°W and 102°W respectively. Calculate
the distance between X and Y measured along :
(a) the parallel of latitude
A. 5cm
(b) a great circle.
(Take p = 3.142, R = 6400 km).
B. 6cm
A. 8936 km, 6434 km

C. 7cm
B. 4689 km, 6442km

D. 8cm
C. 3799 km, 8432 km
55
Mathematics
B. 1,250
C. 3,000
D. 1,500
The correct answer is option [D]. Solution: Amount

invested = ₦ 30,000.
Selling price = ₦ 10.00. Buying price = ₦ 20.00.
Therefore, number of shares bought = 30000/20 = 1,500.
QUESTION NO: 59
Simplify 6[a2 - 2a - 3] - 3a[2a - 5].
A. 3[a + 6]
QUESTION NO: 57 B. 3[a - 6]

The average of Peters marks in 5 courses was 65%. A C. 3[2a + 6]

sixth course was added that made the average 68%, find
his score in the sixth course.
D. 3[a - 2]
A. 88%
The correct answer is option [B]. Solution: 6[a2 - 2a - 3] -
3a[2a - 5] = 6a2 - 12a - 18 - 6a2 + 15a = 3a - 18 = 3[a - 6].
B. 83%
QUESTION NO: 60
C. 75%
Find the difference of the percentages of 4/5 and 3/7.
D. 55%
A. 43%
The correct answer is option [B]. Solution: Average in 5
courses = 65%. Total mark = 65 ´ 5 = 325; Average mark B. 44%
in 6 courses = 83%. Total mark = 68 ´6 = 408. Score in
the sixth course = 408 - 325 = 83.
C. 37%
QUESTION NO: 58
D. 38%
Mr. Dele invested ₦ 30,000 in ₦ 10.00 ordinary shares of
Zenith bank. He bought the shares at ₦ 20.00 each. How The correct answer is option [C]. Solution: Hint
many shares did he buy? [Convert 4/5 and 3/7 to percentages]. 300/7 = 43% and 400/5 =
80%. Therefore, the difference in percentages is 80% -
43% = 37%.
A. 1,200
QUESTION NO: 61
56
Mathematics
Find the value of y given the equation 16-1 + 23y + 2 = 32. A. 3.18km
A. 3. B. 3.45km
B. 4. C. 8.62km
C. 51/2. D. 3.80km

D. 21/3.
QUESTION NO: 64
The correct answer is option [D]. Solution: Choose the correct answer.
16-1 + 23y + 2 = 32;
24(-1) + 23y + 2 = 25; Calculate the percentage error in this situation. The
-4 + 3y + 2 = 5 distance between two towns is 60km to the nearest km.
®-2 + 3y = 5
® 3y = 5 + 2
therefore, y = 7/3 = 21/3.
A. 3.03%
QUESTION NO: 62 B. 6.0%

Two binary operations x and # are defined as m x n = mn C. 0.5%

- n - 1 and m # n = mn + n - 2 for all real numbers m,n.
Find the value of 3 # (4 x 5).
D. 0.83%
A. 60 The correct answer is option [D]

The range of actual measurement is between 59.5km and
B. 57 60.5km
Absolute error = ±0.5km
% error = ±0.5km/60km x 100% = 0.83%
C. 54
QUESTION NO: 65
D. 42 Choose the correct answer.

4x5 = 4(5) - 5 - 1 = 14
3 #(4x5) = 3 #14 = 3(14) + 14 - 2 = 42 + 12 = 54.
QUESTION NO: 63
The distance between two points is measured to be Find the value of x in the figure drawn and state what
3.62km. If this is more than the actual distance and the type of triangle it is.
percentage error is calculated to be 5, what is the actual
distance?
A. 55° and it is a scalene triangle
57
Mathematics
D. 2, -2.
B. 75° and it is an equilateral triangle
The correct answer is option [C]. Solution:

C. 25° and it is an isosceles triangle a + 2x + 2x2 + bx3
x + 1 is a factor
D. 20° and it is an obtuse triangle thus x = -1
a-2+2-b=0
a-b=0
a=b
x + 3 as the divisor is also a factor
thus x = -3
a - 6 + 18 - 27b = 64 (recall that remainder = 64)
a - 27b = 52
b - 27b = 52
b = -52/26 = -2
a = b = -2
-2, -2.
QUESTION NO: 68
QUESTION NO: 66
What is the remainder when x2 + x + 2 is divided by x - 1.
A. -4.
B. x + 2. A. 49
C. 2. B. 121
D. 4. C. 25

D. 64
QUESTION NO: 67
Choose the correct option. The correct answer is option [B]
The mode refers to the score with the highest frequency
(x + 1) is a factor of a + 2x + 2x2 + bx3 and the remainder, hence from the table the modal score is 11,
when this expression is divided by x + 3, is 64. Find the the square of the mode = 112 = 121
values of a and b.
QUESTION NO: 69
A. -2, 2.
Ade tossed an unbiased coin and a fair die. What is the
B. 2, 2. probability of him obtaining a tail on the coin and an odd
number?
C. -2, -2.
A. 1
/3
58
Mathematics
ar2 = 6/7 .........................(ii)

B. 1
/4 dividing equation (ii) by (i) gives r = 6/7 x 2/3= 4/7
from (i), a = x = 3/2 x 1/r = 3/2 x 7/4 = 21/8
y is the fourth term of the G.P: y = ar4 - 1 = ar3
C. 1
/5
y = 21/8 x 4/7 x 4/7 x 4/7 = 24/49
xy = 21/8 x 24/49 = 9/7
D. 1
/6
QUESTION NO: 72
The correct answer is option [B]. Solution: Hint [ An
unbiased coin has two sides or faces while a fair die has
A box contains 10 blue balls, 6 red balls, and 4 white
six faces or sides]. P[Obtaining a tail] =1/2, P[Obtaining an
balls. Two balls are selected from the box with
odd number] = 3/6 = 1/2. P[A tail and odd number]
replacement. Find the probability of two blue or two red
= 1/ 2 ´ 1/ 2 = 1/ 4.
balls.
QUESTION NO: 70
Choose the correct option. A. 22
/49
A fair die is tossed once, what is the probability of

obtaining both even number and odd number?
B. 17
/50
A. 1
¤4 C. 25
/61
B. 1
¤3 D. 41
/67
The correct answer is option [B]. Solution: Hint: With

C. 1
¤6
replacement, there is no decrease in blue balls = 10,
red balls = 6 and white balls = 4. The total number of
D. 1 balls = 20. P [two blue balls]
= BB ® [10 ´ 10]/[20×20] = 1/4. P [two red balls] ® RR
= [6 ´ 6]/[20 ´ 20] = 9/100.
The correct answer is option [A]. Solution: P[Number of
P [BB or RR] ®1/4 + 9/100 ® [25 + 9]/100 = 34/100 = 17/50.
outcome] = [1,2,3,4,5,6]. P[even number] = [2,4,6]
= 3/6 = 1/2. P[Both even and odd number] =1/2 ´ 1/2 = 1/4.
QUESTION NO: 73
QUESTION NO: 71
Choose the correct option. The probability that a man passes his MBA examination
is 1/4 and he took four examinations, what is the
Find the product of xy if x, 3/2, 6/7, y are in G. P.
probability that he failed all the four examinations?
A. 24
/49
A. 81
/256
B. 4
/7
B. 75
/316
C. 9
/7
C. 11
/411
D. 7
/4
D. 88
/143

The correct answer is option [A]. Solution: P [passing]
The general form of a G.P. is a, ar, ar2, arn- 1.
= 1/ 4,
ar = 3/2 ........... (i)
59
Mathematics
Therefore, the P[Multiple of either 3 or 5]

and P [failing] = 1 - 1/4 = 3/4. P [failing all four exams]
= 1/9 + 1/25 = 34/225.
= 3/4 ´ 3/4 ´ 3/4 ´ 3/4 = 81/256.
QUESTION NO: 74 QUESTION NO: 76

Choose the correct option. Choose the correct answer.
Find the nth term for the sequence 3, 12, 27, 48, 75, Evaluate 7Ö3 - Ö75.
............
A. 2n2 A. 2Ö3
B. 4n B. 5Ö3
C. 2n3 C. 7Ö3
= 1/3 ´ 1/3 = 1/9 and having a [Multiple of 5] = 1/5 ´ 1/5 = 1/25.

D. 3n2

T1 = 3
T2 = 12
T3 = 27, etc
The common factor is 3, hence the nth term = 3n2.
QUESTION NO: 75
Given U = [x : x is an integer and 1 £ x £ 30]. A = [x : x is a

multiple of 4], B = [x : x is a multiple of 5], C = [x : x is a
multiple of 3], an integer is picked at a random, find the
probability that it is a multiple of 5 and 4. From the
information given, if two integers are chosen find the
probability that they are either multiple of 3 or 5.
A. 1
¤15
B. 2
¤15
C. 34
¤225
D. 2
¤45
The correct answer is option [C]. Solution: The probability

of having either a multiple of 3 or 5 when two integers
are chosen is P[Multiple of either a 3 or 5]
= [Multiple of 3] = 1/3 and [Multiple of 5] = 1/5.
Choosing two integers having [Multiple of 3]
60
Mathematics
D. 9Ö3
QUESTION NO: 77
Simplify 6/2Ö2 - 1
A. 12Ö2 + 7
/6
B. 2Ö12 + 6
/7
C. 12Ö2 + 6
/7
D. 2Ö12 + 7
/6
61
Mathematics
Therefore, A = 49 ´ 5/7 = 5. Use the equation A

2
= kB /C = 5 ´ 36/9 = 20.
2
QUESTION NO: 80
F µ Q/T . When Q = 32, T = 4 and F = 20. Find F when Q =

2
49 and T = 7.
A. 7
QUESTION NO: 78
B. 10

C. 14
M varies directly as the square of E and T, if E = 3 when
M = 90 and T = 5. Find the value of M when E = 7 and T
= 10. D. 49
A. 290
B. 920
C. 980
D. 890
The correct answer is option [C]. Solution: M µ E2T M =

kE2T, find k ® from the equation k = M/E T = 90/3 ´ 5 = 2.
2 2
Therefore, M = kE2T = 2 ´ 72 ´ 10 = 980.
QUESTION NO: 79
A varies directly as the square of B and inversely as C. If A

= 49, when B = 7 and C = 5, find A when B = 6 and C = 9.
A. 30
B. 20
C. 40
D. 45
The correct answer is option [B]. Solution: A µ B2/C, A =

k.B2/C, k = AC/B2 = 49/7 ´ 5; k = 5.
2
62
BIOLOGY
B. biotic community
BIOLOGY
QUESTION NO: 1 C. population
Which of the following accurately represents an D. habitat

aquatic food chain?
A. Paramecium -- phytoplankton -- prawn -- •

water flea -- tilapia -- shark. QUESTION NO: 4
B. Water flea -- Paramecium -- phytoplankton - In heredity, controls growth and development in

- prawn -- tilapia -- shark. every living thing.
C. Phytoplankton -- water flea -- Paramecium --

prawn -- shark -- tilapia. A. RNA
D. Phytoplankton -- Paramecium -- water flea -- B. genes

prawn -- tilapia -- shark.
C. DNA
• D. cytoplasm
QUESTION NO: 2
Choose the correct option The correct answer is option [C].
Which of the following is used for the collection of •

small insects from soil, leaf litter and crevices? QUESTION NO: 5
A. Pooter Which of the following is a sex-linked character?
B. Quadrant
A. Sickle-cell anaemia
C. Sweep net
B. Tongue rolling
D. Drag net
C. Skin colour

D. Colour blindness
•
QUESTION NO: 3 The correct answer is option [D]
•
A group of interacting populations in a particular QUESTION NO: 6
habitat is referred to as . Choose the correct option.
The mitochondria contains enzymes and .

A. ecological niche
63
BIOLOGY
The stages of life for all living things are .

A. RNA
B. DNA A. birth -- growth -- reproduction -- decline
C. Proteins B. birth -- growth -- maturity -- decline -- death
D. ATP C. death -- nutrition -- birth -- reproduction

D. movement -- nutrition -- reproduction --
respiration -- growth
•
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of these is a mollusc? •

QUESTION NO: 10
A. Octopus What is metabolism?
B. Ragworm
A. It is change in a cell that leads to the increase
in the height and width of the organism.
C. Planaria
B. It is the conversion of non-living materials

D. Liverfluke
into cellular components.

C. It is the breakdown of food and fluid
substances in the body to produce waste.
•
QUESTION NO: 8
Choose the correct option. D. It is the decomposition of inorganic matter.
Spiders, mites, scorpions and ticks are examples of

.
•
QUESTION NO: 11
A. Insecta Choose the correct option.
The following are found in both plants and

B. Arachnida
animals except .
C. Crustaceans
A. cytoplasm
D. Myriapoda
B. vacuole
C. golgi body
•
QUESTION NO: 9
Choose the correct option. D. centrioles
64
BIOLOGY
The correct answer is option [D] A. Flame cell
• B. Worm
QUESTION NO: 12
Choose the correct opti
C. Spirogyra
Which one of the following is a type of adaptation
possessed by organisms? D. Euglena
The correct Answer is option [A].

A. Counter shading
•
B. Warning QUESTION NO: 15
C. Mimicry In voluntary action, sensory nerves send impulses to the

spinal cord and then to the .
D. All of the above
The correct answer is option [D]. A. brain
• B. thalamus
QUESTION NO: 13
C. cranium
Which of the following fruits is a schizocarp?
D. pons varolli
A. Groundnut The correct answer is option [A].
B. Desmodium •
QUESTION NO: 16
C. Crotalaria
The nervous system is divided into parts.
D. Cashew
The correct answer is option [B] A. 3

A schizocarp is a many-seeded simple true fruit that
develops from a syncarpous ovary. B. 4
•
QUESTION NO: 14
C. 2
Look at the diagram carefully and answer the
question that follows. D. 6
The correct Answer is option [C].
•
What is the
QUESTION NO: 17
name of this structure shown below?
65
BIOLOGY

Which of the following is not correct about a living cell?
In Paramecium, the action of the cilia moves the whole
organism.
A. The basic unit of a living organism is the cell.

•
QUESTION NO: 20
B. All living organisms are either single or groups Choose the correct option.
of cell(s).
The second level of organization in mammals is .
C. All the cells in an organism are the same.
A. cells
D. There is no life apart from the life in cells.
B. organs
• C. tissues
QUESTION NO: 18
Choose the correct option. D. systems
The main similarity between unicellular and

multicellular organisms is that both .
•
QUESTION NO: 21
A. perform all life activities
B. exist as filaments The formation of fats and oils from fatty acids and
glycerol is an example of process.
C. are plants
A. photolytic
D. exist as colonies
B. anabolic
• C. catabolic
QUESTION NO: 19
Choose the correct option. D. metebolism
The cilia in Paramecium are used for .

The correct Answer is option [B].
•
A. respiration
QUESTION NO: 22
B. locomotion
In the test for starch, the leaf is first placed in boiling
water in order to .
C. protection
D. producing food A. remove the chlorophyll
B. dissolve the waxy cuticle
66
BIOLOGY
C. kill and make the leaf permeable B. Sunlight
D. turn it blue-black C. Chlophyll

D. Water
•
QUESTION NO: 23 The correct answer is option [A].
•
Which of the following is not an importance of calcium? QUESTION NO: 26
Cellular respiration is also called respiration.

A. It is involved in cell wall formation.
B. It is necessary for protein formation. A. tissue
C. It is vital for enzyme activation. B. external
D. It helps give rigidity to plants. C. aerobic

D. none of the above.
•
QUESTION NO: 24
•
The role of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) include QUESTION NO: 27
all except . Choose the correct option.
Reproduction involving one parent is called

reproduction.
A. chemical energy production
B. transmission of nerve impulses A. sexual
C. alcohol production in aerobic respiration B. monosexual
D. water production in aerobic respiration C. asexual

D. none of the above
•
QUESTION NO: 25 The correct answer is option [C].
•
Which of the following factors is not responsible for QUESTION NO: 28
photosynthesis? Choose the correct option.
Enzymes are .
A. Soil
67
BIOLOGY
•
A. inorganic catalysts
QUESTION NO: 31
B. organic catalysts
Which of the following taste receptors is not correctly

C. stepping catalyst matched with the taste it perceives?
D. working catalyst
A. Tip-sweet
B. Back-bitter
•
QUESTION NO: 29
Choose the correct option. C. Back-sour
Gaseous exchange takes place in the .

D. Side-sour

A. bronchioles
•
B. nostrils QUESTION NO: 32
C. fingers When a plant shoot is placed in a dye solution, under

which of the following physical conditions will the dye
move up the stem better?
D. alveoli
The correct Answer is option [D].

A. High temperature and low humidity
•
QUESTION NO: 30 B. Low temperature and high humidity
When reporting a scientific investigation, which of the C. Low temperature and low humidity
following option is correct?
D. High temperature and high humidity
A. Observation ---> Control ---> Theory ---> The correct answer is option [A]
Inference ---> Data
•
B. Observation ---> Inference --->Measurement QUESTION NO: 33
---> Identification ---> Hypothesis ---> Experiment --->
theory
When a plant looses more water than it gains and
becomes weak, it is said to be .
C. Collection ---> Aim ---> Objective --->
Method ---> Experiment ---> Conclusion
A. osmotic
D. Observation ---> Hypothesis ---> Experiment
---> Result ---> Analysis ---> Conclusion B. isotonic
68
BIOLOGY
C. turgid
D. flaccid A. Cytoplasm, water, urea
The correct Answer is option [D]. B. Cell sap, latex, urine
• C. Cell sap, blood, lymph

QUESTION NO: 34
D. Lymph, blood, skin

increases the speed at which molecules move.
•
QUESTION NO: 37
A. Temperature
In an adult mammalian blood, the cells which lack
B. Light nuclei are the .
C. Darkness
A. erythrocytes
D. Water
B. granulocytes

C. leucocytes
•
QUESTION NO: 35 D. agranulocytes

Metabolic wastes such as ammonia leaves the body of
some aquatic animals into the surrounding water by
simple . •
QUESTION NO: 38
A. expulsion
A person's finger print when taken by the police is stored
in a .
B. defecation
C. regurgitation A. finger bank
D. diffusion B. storage bank
The correct answer is option [D]. C. prints bank
• D. memory bank
QUESTION NO: 36
Which of the following are basic mediums of
transportation in living organisms? •
69
BIOLOGY
QUESTION NO: 39 D. Ribose

Agglutination occurs in blood transfusion when the
.
•
QUESTION NO: 42
A. antigen and antibody from the donor and
recipient reacts Omnivorous animals feed on both and .
B. same antibodies from donor and recipient fuse

together to form a lump A. fresh, live animals
C. donor and recipient belong to different races B. plants, leaves
D. recipient is not a universal recipient but a C. plants, animals

universal donor
D. milk, animals
The Correct Answer is option [C].

•
QUESTION NO: 40
•
QUESTION NO: 43
The boomerang shaped beaks of flamingoes have slits
adapted for .
A. scooping mud and sieving it Ptyalin is an enzyme that acts on .
B. picking seeds and worms

A. protein
C. grasping slippery water animals

B. fats and oils
D. sucking nectar from flowers

C. cooked starch

D. peptones
QUESTION NO: 41
Choose the correct option. The correct answer is option [C].
Which of the following is not an example of a

monosaccharide?
•
QUESTION NO: 44
A. Glucose Which of the following takes place when a person's

body temperature rises above 370C?
B. Lactose
A. Sweating and vasoconstriction

C. Fructose
70
BIOLOGY
QUESTION NO: 47
B. Panting and vasoconstriction Choose the correct option.
Which of the following instruments is not used in

C. Sweating and vasodilation
measuring abiotic factors in any habitat?
D. Panting and vasodilation

A. Microscope
As sweat evaporates, heat from the body is used up,
thus coolng the body. While vasodilation causes a
B. Thermometer
large volume of blood to flow near the surface of the

skin so that heat is lost to the surroundings via C. Hygrometer
conduction, convection and radation.
•
D. Wind vane
QUESTION NO: 45
Choose the correct option. The correct answer is option [A]
Which of the following instrument is used to measure •

the speed of a stream? QUESTION NO: 48
In a food chain, each succeeding level in a forward

A. Simple float
direction represents .
B. Secchi disc
A. an increase in the number of individuals

C. Quadrant frame
B. a decrease in the number of individuals

D. Rain gauge
C. an increase in the biomass of individuals

•
D. a gain in the total energy being transferred
QUESTION NO: 46
is a plant which grows on another plant •

without apparent harm to the host plant. QUESTION NO: 49
A pair of genes which control a trait is described as

A. A parasite
.
B. An epiphyte
A. dominant
C. A saprophyte
B. recessive
D. A predator
C. allele
D. variant
•
71
BIOLOGY

Linear structures are formed in organisms.

•
QUESTION NO: 50
A. colonial
DNA is made up of two chains of small chemical units
called . B. filamentous
A. nucleus
C. single
B. RNA
D. all of the above

C. nucleotides
•
D. none of the above QUESTION NO: 53
What does a chromosome contain?
•
QUESTION NO: 51
Choose the correct option. A. It contains DNA.
B. It contains blood only.
C. It contains digestive enzyme.
D. It contains a membrane.
•
What is the function QUESTION NO: 54
of the part labelled 3? Choose the correct option.
Who was the first man to discover the honey comb

A. For sight structure of the cell?
B. Osmoregulation
A. Felix Dujardin
C. Movement
B. Robert Hooke
D. Reproduction
C. Charles Darwin

D. Diki Asawo
•
QUESTION NO: 52 The correct Answer is option [B].
72
BIOLOGY
• A. weakest
QUESTION NO: 55
Choose the correct option. B. most populous species
Everything in the world can be classified into and

. C. youngest
A. living things, dead things D. fittest
B. living things, non-living things The correct answer is option [D]

Charles Darwin deduced that in a population, those
that tend to survive and reproduce are the individuals
C. animate things, living things whose variations give them competitive advantage
over the rest.
D. inanimate things, non-living things

•
The correct answer is option [B] QUESTION NO: 58
•
Animals living in dry places develop on their skin
QUESTION NO: 56
to prevent water loss from their body
Look at the diagram carefully and answer the
question correctly.
A. feathers
B. hairs
C. scales
D. pores
What is the name of the part labelled 1? The correct answer is option [C].
•
A. Eye QUESTION NO: 59
B. Nostrils Identical twins inherit their genes from .
C. Gills
A. the same ovum and different sperms
D. Mouth
B. the same sperm and different ova

C. different sperms and many ova
•
QUESTION NO: 57
D. the same ovum and the same sperm

According to Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution,
natural selection involves the survival of the .
73
BIOLOGY
• C. spine
QUESTION NO: 60
D. senses
The feeding mechanism of an ant is .

A. biting and sucking •

QUESTION NO: 63
B. sucking
Axons are referred to as .
C. biting and chewing
A. nerve fibres
D. squeezing and swallowing
The correct answer is option [C]. B. muscle fibres
• C. skeletal cells
QUESTION NO: 61
D. hormones
The is the centre for controlling body
temperature in the brain. The correct Answer is option [A].
•
A. cerebrum QUESTION NO: 64
B. cerebellum
detects stimuli from the external and internal
environment.
C. medulla
D. hypothalamus A. Sensory givers
The correct answer is option [D] B. Sensory banners

The hypothalamus acts as a link between the nervous
system and the endocrine system. It controls endocrine
C. Sensory receptors
secretions by monitoring the metabolites and hormone
levels in blood.
D. sensory organelles
•
QUESTION NO: 62 The correct Answer is option [C].
•
The forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain are parts of the QUESTION NO: 65
. Choose the correct option.
The nervous system of vertebrates consist of the

A. cord .
B. brain
74
BIOLOGY
•
A. central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral
QUESTION NO: 68
nervous system (PNS) Choose the correct option.
B. centre nervous system and upper nervous An example of an animal made up of tissues only is
.
system
C. terestial nervous systems and aquatic

nervous system A. Amoeba
D. sensory nervous system and motor nervous B. Paramecium

system
C. Hydra
• D. Euglena
QUESTION NO: 66
Choose the correct option The correct answer is option [C]
Sensory receptors also acts as . •

QUESTION NO: 69
A. information
B. information collectors
is the pigment that gives the skin its colour.
C. informal collections
A. Melanin
D. collectors
B. Tannin
C. Cyanin
•
QUESTION NO: 67
Choose the correct option. D. Haem
is a disadvantage of complexity in higher The correct answer is option [A].

organisms.
•
QUESTION NO: 70
A. High energy requirement Choose the correct option.
Drinking excess alcohol can cause .

B. Functional efficiency
C. Low energy requirement A. drunkeness
D. Increase in size B. diarrhoea
The correct answer is option [A] C. diuresis
75
BIOLOGY
QUESTION NO: 73
D. appendicitis Choose the correct option.
The correct answer is option [C]. The nose senses smell by means of .
•
QUESTION NO: 71 A. olfactory chemoreceptors
Which of the following conditions are necessary for B. nociceptors

seeds to germinate?
C. photoreceptors
A. Uric acid, very cold temperature, nitrogen and D. thermoreceptors

fruits.
B. Urine, hot temperature, oxygen and viable
seeds. •
QUESTION NO: 74
C. Water, suitable temperature, stones and viable
seeds. The taste of delicious food is detected by the of
the tongue.
D. Water, suitable temperature, oxygen and
viable seeds.
A. mechanoreceptors

B. photoreceptors
•
QUESTION NO: 72
C. chemoreceptors
If an insect cell is left in distilled water for two hours, it is D. thermoreceptors

likely to .
A. lose some of its water to the surrounding

•
water QUESTION NO: 75
B. lose all of its water to the surrounding water
What is plasmolysis?
C. reproduce by binary fission
A. It is the shrinkage of the protoplasm away

D. become more turgid from the cell wall due to water loss through osmosis.
The correct answer is option [D] B. It is the uptake of liquid materials into the
Since the distilled water is hypotonic to the contents of protoplasm of a living cell throught the process of
the cell, there would be a net movement of water osmosis.
molecules into the cell, causing it to swell and become
turgid.
76
BIOLOGY
C. It is the release of liquid materials from the

cell cytoplasm of animal cells leading to the splitting of Centrum is a bone found in the .
the cell.
A. facial bone
D. All of the above
The correct Answer is option [A]. B. cervical vertebrae
• C. vetebral column
QUESTION NO: 76
D. atlas vetebra
Turgidity can also be referred to as .
A. diffusion gradient •
QUESTION NO: 79
B. turgor pressure
Molting is also known as .
C. osmotic potential
A. ecdysis
D. osmotic pressure
The correct Answer is option [B]. B. mating
• C. movement
QUESTION NO: 77
D. camouflage
Which of the following structures is capable of
producing more tissues in the stem of herbaceous The correct Answer is option [A].
plants?
•
QUESTION NO: 80
A. Epidermis Choose the correct option.
is the liquid component of the blood.

B. Pericycle
C. Xylem A. Plasma
D. Cambium B. Hormonal secretion
The correct answer is option [D] C. Leucoyte

In dicots, the cambium is responsible for secondary
growth.
D. Cell sap
•
QUESTION NO: 78
77
CHEMISTRY
B. [i], [ii] and [iii] only.

CHEMISTRY
QUESTION NO: 1 C. [i] and [ii] only.
The following statements explains D. [iv] only.

burning except
A. burning is a oxidation process.

•
QUESTION NO: 4
B. burning must involve iron. Choose the correct option.
How many moles are there in 20g of ammonium

C. burning gives out large amount of heat.
trioxocarbonate [iv]?
D. burning is an active rapid process.

A. 0.213 moles.

B. 0.260 moles.
•
QUESTION NO: 2 C. 0.208 moles.
What increases the luminosity of a flame? D. 0.280 moles.

A. Increase in supply of oxygen.
Solution: Number of moles of substance = mass of

B. Increase in temperature of solid particles. substance
/molar mass
where mass of ammonium trioxocarbonate =
20g, molar mass of ammonium tiroxocarbonate
C. Increase in temperature or pressure of
= [N]2 → 14 x 2 = 28
oxygen. [H4]2 → 1 x 4 x 2 = 8
C = 12 x 1 = 12
D. Increase in temperature or pressure of O3 → 16 x 3 = 48
burning gases. 28 + 8 + 12 + 48 = 96g/mol
therefore, number of moles = 20/96 = 0.208 moles.
The correct answer is option [D]. •
QUESTION NO: 5
QUESTION NO: 3
Choose the correct option. How many atoms are contained in 1 mole of hydrogen
molecule?
An ionic bond is often formed when .
[i] the combining atoms need to lose electrons in order A. 18.09 × 1023atoms.
to attain a noble gas configuration
[ii] the combining atoms both need to gain electrons in B. 12.06 × 1023atoms.
order to attain a noble gas configuration
[iii] two non-metallic elements react together
[iv] a metallic element combines with a non-metallic C. 6.02 × 1023atoms.
element.
D. 6.02 × 1023molecules.
A. [i] only.
78
CHEMISTRY
The correct answer is option [C]. D. rock and soil.
Since the amount of atoms is required your The correct answer is option [D].
answer is in atoms.
•
•
QUESTION NO: 9
QUESTION NO: 6
The following options are constituents of the earth
Atoms take part in bond formation to
with the exception of .
A. neutralize their charge. A. lithosphere
B. increase their energy. B. atmosphere
C. increase their charge density. C. hydrosphere
D. attain a stable electronic configuration. D. galaxy

•
•
QUESTION NO: 10
QUESTION NO: 7
The major raw materials in a plastic industry is
The heating of bituminous coal to very high
temperatures in the absence of air forms
A. ethanol.
A. coal.
B. sulphur.
B. coke.
C. methylethanoate.
C. soot.
D. ethene.
D. charcoal.
•
QUESTION NO: 11
•
QUESTION NO: 8
When chlorine water is exposed to sunlight, the
products formed are
The outermost part of the lithosphere is called
A. atmosphere.
A. hydrochloric acid and oxygen.
B. crust. B. chlorine gas and oxochlorate (I) acid.
C. hydrosphere. C. oxygen and oxochlorate (I) acid.
79
CHEMISTRY
C. third law.
D. hydrogen and oxygen.
The correct answer is option [A]. D. second law.
• The correct answer is option [A].

QUESTION NO: 12
Choose the correct option. •
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following chlorides is insoluble in water? Choose the correct option.
increases as the vapour pressure increases.

A. AgCl.
B. KCl.
A. Condensation
C. NH4Cl. B. Evaporation
D. ZnCl2. C. Melting
The correct answer is option [A]. D. Boiling
• The correct answer is option [A].

QUESTION NO: 13
•
QUESTION NO: 16
Which of the following statements is not correct about
the electrolysis of CuSO4(aq) using copper cathode and
platinum anode?
The ideal gas equation is mathematically expressed as

A. Copper is deposited at the cathode.
B. Oxygen is liberated at the anode. A. PV

⁄T.
C. It is used for the purification of copper. B. PV

⁄nT.
D. The solution becomes acidic. C. PVT.

D. PT
⁄nV.
•
QUESTION NO: 14
Solution: The ideal gas equation states that the
The thermodynamics law that states that energy may pressure and volume of a given mass of gas is
be converted from one form to another but it cannot directly proportional to the temperature and
be created or destroyed is known as the number of moles of the gas . It is mathematically
expressed as PV α nT, therefore, PV = nRT,
where R is the gas constant.
A. first law.
•
QUESTION NO: 17
B. fourth law.
80
CHEMISTRY
Which of the ammonium salts decomposes on heating

By definition isomers have the same molecular
to produce nitrogen and water?
formula but different structural formulas. The
compounds in option [A] have the same
molecular formula but the -OH group is located
A. Ammonium chloride. on the first or second carbon atom.
•
B. Ammonium dioxonitrate (III). QUESTION NO: 20
C. Ammonium trioxonitrate (V).
Catalytic hydrogenation of oil results in the production
of
D. Ammonium trioxocarbonate (IV).
A. soaps.
B. detergents.
•
QUESTION NO: 18
Choose the correct option. C. margarine.
Which of the following is a water pollutant?

D. buffers.
A. Fertilizer.
B. Human waste. •
QUESTION NO: 21
C. Industrial waste.
Dehydration of ethanol produces a gas X which has a

D. All of the above. general molecular formular,
The correct answer is option [D]. A. (CH2)n.
•
QUESTION NO: 19
B. CnH2n.

C. CnH2n - 2 .
Which compounds in the options below are isomers?

D. CnH2n + 1.
A. 1-propanol and 2-propanol.

B. Methanoic acid and ethanoic acid. •

QUESTION NO: 22
C. Methanol and methanal. Choose the correct option.
The carbon atoms in ethane are

D. Ethane and ethanol.
A. sp3 hybridized.
E. Ethane and ethene.
B. sp hybridized.
C. sp2 hybridized.
81
CHEMISTRY
B. Groups 1 and 2.
D. not hybridized.
The correct answer is option [C]. C. Group 3.
• D. Group 3 to 7.
QUESTION NO: 23
The reaction below is the laboratory preparation of

hydrogen peroxide; •
QUESTION NO: 26
H2SO4(aq) + A → B + H2O 2(aq)
What is the value of A

From the diagram drawn, the most reactive metallic
and non-metallic elements are
A. BaO(s)
A. A and Q.
B. BaO2(s)
B. L and Q.
C. BaSO3(s)
C. A, K, and Q.
D. BaSO4(s)
D. A, L and Q.
•
QUESTION NO: 24 •
The periodic table is an arrangement of the elements in
increasing order of their The following are electromagnetic waves except
A. atomic weights. A. gamma-rays.
B. atomic numbers.
B. x-rays.
C. mass numbers.
C. beta-rays.
D. neutron/proton ratios.
D. infra-red rays.
The correct answer is option [B]. The correct answer is option [C].
• •
Choose the correct option. Choose the correct option.
S-block elements of the periodic table are made up of
Which of the following is used in detecting radiation?

A. Groups 1, 2 and 3.
82
CHEMISTRY
D. crystallization.
A.Geiger-Muller counter, diffusion cloud
chamber and scintillation chamber. The correct answer is option [C].
B. Geiger-Muller counter, stereoscope and •

diffusion cloud chamber. QUESTION NO: 31
C. Scintillation chamber, Geiger-Muller counter

and electroscope.
A solution of sodium trioxocarbonate (IV) contains
10.6g in 250 cm3 of solution. Calculate the
D. Diffusion cloud chamber, scintillation concentration of the solution.
chamber and periscope. [Na2CO3 = 106.0]

A. 0.4 mol dm-3.
•
QUESTION NO: 29 B. 1.0mol dm-3.
C. 10.6mol dm-3.
10g of a radioactive substance of half-life 30 mins is
left in a cupboard at 8.00 a.m. 2.5 g of it will remain at
D. 25.0mol dm-3.

A. 10.30 a.m.
•
B. 10.00 a.m.
QUESTION NO: 32
C. 9.30 a.m.
The balanced chemical equation for the reaction of
nitrogen (N2) and hydrogen (H2) to form ammonia
D. 9.00 a.m. (NH3) is given below;
N2+ 3H2 → 2NH3

Solution: Using the equations t / = 0.693/λ, where t / = 30
1
2
1
2
how many grams of hydrogen would be required to
mins and N = Noe-λt, where N = 2.5 g, No = 10 g, t = ?, λ
react with 14.0 g of nitrogen?
= 0.693/30 = 0.0231 mins-1; In 2.5/10 = -0.231t; t = 1.3863/0.0231 =
60.013 mins ≈ 60 mins = 1 hr. Therefore the time 2.5 g
will remain is 8.00 + 1.00 = 9.00 a.m. A. 1.0 g
• B. 6.0 g
QUESTION NO: 30
C. 27.0 g
The technique that can be used to separate lead (II)
chloride from water is .
D. 2.0g
A. chromatography.
B. distillation. •
QUESTION NO: 33
C. sieving.
83
CHEMISTRY
3Cu + pHNO3 → 3Cu(NO3)2 + 4H2O + xNO B. sp2.
In the equation above, the values of p and x C. sp3.

respectively are and
D. sp3d.
A. 6, 2.

B. 1, 3.
•
QUESTION NO: 36
C. 8, 2.
D. 2, 3. Sulphur reacts with soft rubber to harden it by
The correct answer is option [C]. A. direct linkage.
• B. polymerization.
QUESTION NO: 34
C. cross linkage.
The empirical formula of an organic compound is
CH2O. Its molar mass is 60.0 g mol-1 What is its
molecular formula?
D. smoking.
[Atomic mass, g mol-1: C = 12.0 ; H = 1.0; O = 16.0]

A. CH2O.
•
QUESTION NO: 37
B. C2H4O2. Choose the correct option.
The property of sulphur used in its extraction by the

C. C3H6O3. Frasch process is its
D. C4H8O4. A. low melting point.
The correct answer is option [B]. B. unstable nature.
(C + 2H + O)n = 60
C. allotropic nature.
(12 + 2 + 16)n = 60
30n = 60 D. non-metallic nature.
n=2
(CH2O)2 = C2H4O2
• •
Choose the correct option. Choose the correct option.
Identify the hybrid orbital that would contain an The feature developed when sulphur is heated
electron with the highest energy. gradually and in limited supply of air at 200oC is
A. sp. A. a brown vapour.
84
CHEMISTRY
B. a floral pattern.
A. a strong acid.
C. highly viscous.
B. an oxidizing agent.
D. an amber-coloured liquid.
C. a good solvent.
D. a dehydrating agent.
•
QUESTION NO: 39
Choose the correct option. The correct answer is option [B].
Fe(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Fe2+(aq) + Cu(s) •

QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following options can be inferred from Choose the correct option.
the reaction above?
Which of the following are physical properties of an
acid?
A. Fe is an oxidizing agent
[i] It will have a sour taste.
B. Fe is reduced [ii] An acid ionizes in solution to produce H+ ions.
[iii] It is corrosive to the skin.
[iv] It changes the colour of wet litmus paper from red
C. Cu2+ loses electrons to blue.
D. Cu2+ is the oxidizing agent A. [i] and [iv].

B. [i], [ii] and [iv].
•
QUESTION NO: 40 C. [i], [ii], [iii] and [iv].
The solubility of alcohols in water is due to D. [i], [ii] and [iii].

A. their covalent nature.
Acid changes wet litmus paper from blue to red.

B. hydrogen bonding.
•
QUESTION NO: 43
C. their low boiling point. Choose the correct option.
Which of the following are physical properties of

D. their ionic character.
alkalis?
The correct answer is option [B]. [i] Alkalis have a bitter taste.
[ii] Alkalis are soapy to the touch.
[iii] Alkalis turn red litmus blue.
QUESTION NO: 41 [iv] Concentrated forms of the two caustic alkalis,
Choose the correct option. sodium hydroxide and potassium hydroxide, are
corrosive.
NaCl(s) + H2SO4(l) → HCl(g) + NaHSO4(s).
In the reaction given above, H2SO4 behaves as

A. [i] and [ii].
85
CHEMISTRY

B. [i], [ii], [iii].
•
C. [i], [ii], [iii], [iv]. QUESTION NO: 46
D. [i], [ii], [iv]. Which of the following electronic configuration is

correct for sulphur with atomic number of 16?
A. 1s22s22p4.
•
QUESTION NO: 44
B. 1s22s22p63s23p4.
C. 1s22s22p63s23p6.
D. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d4.
•
QUESTION NO: 47
From the diagram drawn, the part labelled D is
x
In the atomic notation yA,
A. fused calcium oxide.
A. x is the atomic number of the element.
B. anhydrous calcium chloride.
B. y is the atomic number of the element.
C. anhydrous calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI).
C. x is the number of protons in the element.
D. fused calcium hydroxide.
D. x is the number of electrons in the element.
•
QUESTION NO: 45 •
The number of protons of an atom is the same as the
Which of the following processes are used to improve

A. mass number. the yield and quality of petrol?
(I) Cracking
B. atomic weight.
(II) Catalytic reforming
(III) Use of additives
C. atomic number. (IV) Fractional distillation
D. weight number. A. I & II
86
CHEMISTRY
B. III & IV
A. 8
C. I, II & III
B. 16
D. I, II, III & IV
C. 15
D. 20
•
QUESTION NO: 49
Choose the correct option. The correct answer is option [B]
Two boys steadily balanced in a sea-saw game is an •

example of QUESTION NO: 52
A. static equilibrium. Halogens are strong
B. dynamic equilibrium.
A. acids.
C. homogeneous equilibrium.
B. bases.
D. mutual equilibrium.
C. electrons donors.

D. oxidising agents.
•
QUESTION NO: 50 The correct answer is option [D].
•
Calculate the hydroxide ion concentration of a solution QUESTION NO: 53
whose pH is 2.4. Choose the correct option.
What are the products of the electrolysis of

A. 2.5 × 10-2. concentrated calcium chloride solution?
B. 2.5 × 10-21. A. Ca, Cl2.
C. 2.5 × 10-12. B. Ca, O2.
D. 2.5 × 10-10. C. H2, Cl2.

D. Ca, H2, Cl2.
Solution: pOH = - log [OH-]
where pOH = 14 - pH = 14 - 2.4 = 11.6; OH- = anti-log
[-11.6] = 2.5 × 10-12. The correct answer is option [C].
• •
Choose the correct answer. Choose the correct option.
How many moons does Jupiter have?

87
CHEMISTRY
D. -2.1V.
The following is a list of symbols of some of the
elements in order of an activity series: The correct answer is option [A].
Solution: The difference in the electrode potentials is
K, Mg, Al, Zn, Fe, H, Cu, Ag. expressed as the same expressed in find the energy
change of a reaction which is product - reactant; +1.33
Which of these elements does not react with water?
- [+0.77] = +0.56V.
A. Fe, Cu. •
QUESTION NO: 57
B. Ag, Zn.
Reactive substances have

C. Cu, Ag.
A. equal energy bonds.

D. Ag, Fe.
B. no energy bonds.
C. low energy bonds.

•
QUESTION NO: 55
Choose the correct option. D. high energy bonds.
The chemical decomposition of a compound brought

about by a direct current passing through either a
solution of the compound or the molten compound is
called
•
QUESTION NO: 58
A. electrolyte.
Which word would you associate with the phrase
'reaction that gives out heat'?
B. electrolysis.
A. Endothermic.
C. electrolytic cell.
B. Reactive.
D. electrode.
The correct answer is option [B]. C. Fuel.
• D. Exothermic.
QUESTION NO: 56
Choose the correct option. The correct answer is option [D].
Given the electron volt for bromine is +1.33 and iron is

+0.77, the half-cell reaction is Fe(s)|Fe2+(aq)||2Br- (aq)|Br2(g),
•
QUESTION NO: 59
what is the electrode potential of the system?
A. +0.56V. The following except are examples of neutral

oxides.
B. -0.56V.
A. nitrogen (II) oxide.
C. +2.1V.
88
CHEMISTRY
B. carbon (II) oxide.

A. bread.
C. water.
B. ink.
D. nitrogen (I) oxide.
C. pencils.
D. pipes.
•
QUESTION NO: 60
Choose the correct option. The correct answer is option [D].
•
An acid present in protein is called . QUESTION NO: 63
A. lactic acid
1.15g of sodium reacted with oxygen at a high
B. amino acid pressure gives 2.75g of a white powder, sodium
superoxide. What is the empirical formula of the
compound?
C. propanoic acid
A. NaO
D. palmatic acid
B. Na2O
• C. NaO2
QUESTION NO: 61
D. NaO4
Which of the following statements concerning ethene

(C2H4) is correct? The correct answer is option [C]
•
A. It readily dissolves in water .
QUESTION NO: 64
B. It readily undergoes substitution reactions
with bromine. The periodic table is an arrangement of the elements in
increasing order of their
C. It readily undergoes addition reactions with

bromine. A. atomic weights.
D. It is a saturated hydrocarbon. B. atomic numbers.
The correct answer is option [C]. C. mass numbers.
•
D. neutron/proton ratios.
QUESTION NO: 62
Polyvinyl chloride is used to produce
•
89
CHEMISTRY

QUESTION NO: 65
The diagram drawn is a Periodic Table, in this table,
The groups are numbered from to
Lithium and Helium have been put in their right
place. The letters A - H represent elements whose
symbols have not been used. A. 1, 8.
B. 0, 8.
C. 0, 7.
Lithium, Beryllium, Boron, Carbon, Nitrogen, Oxygen,

D. 1, 7.
Fluorine, and Neon are in the same period of the

periodic table, therefore The correct answer is option [C].
•
A. they react alike.
QUESTION NO: 68
B. their oxides are basic.
In the Periodic table, what property decreases along
the period and increases down the group?
C. their chlorides are soluble in water.
A. Atomic number.
D. they behave differently.
The correct answer is option [D]. B. Ionization potential.
• C. Electron affinity.
QUESTION NO: 66
D. Atomic radius.
Which of the following is a property of transition
elements? The correct answer is option [B].
[i] The elements are hard, dense metals with high
melting and boiling points. •
[ii] The elements often have several valencies. QUESTION NO: 69
[iii] Their compounds are often coloured. Choose the correct option.
[iv] The elements and their compounds often show
catalytic properties. Which of the following represents an inert gas
configuration?
A. [i] and [iii] only.

A. 1s2.
B. [i], [ii] and [iii].

B. 1s22s2.
C. [i], [ii], [iii] and [iv].

C. 1s22s22p1.
D. [ii], [iii] and [iv].
D. 1s22s22p2.

•
QUESTION NO: 67
•
90
CHEMISTRY

QUESTION NO: 70
•
The
14 equation
4 given
17 below; QUESTION NO: 73
7N + He → O+1 P Choose the correct option.
2 8 1
represents Which of the following are units of volume?
(a) kJ.
A. nuclear fusion. (b) m3.
(c) atm .
(d) ml .
B. nuclear fission.
A. c & d.
C. artificial radioactivity.
B. b & d.
D. natural radioactivity.

C. a, b & d.
• D. b & c.
QUESTION NO: 71
The bonds in crystalline ammonium chloride are

•
QUESTION NO: 74
A. covalent and dative.
The method of collection of gas depends on it's
B. ionic and covalent.

(I) boiling point.
(II) odour.
C. ionic, covalent and dative.
(III) density.
(IV) solubility.
D. ionic, covalent and hydrogen bond.
A. I & II.
• B. III & IV.

QUESTION NO: 72
Choose the correct option. C. I, II & III.
Pure solvents are obtained by

D. I, II, III & IV.
A. distillation.
B. condensation.
•
QUESTION NO: 75
C. extraction. Choose the correct answer.
On heating 20g sample of hydrated salt, Na2CO3.XH2O,

D. evaporation. strongly, 5.5g of the anhydrous salt was obtained, what
is the value of x in the hydrated salt solved from one of
91
CHEMISTRY
the expressions? C. accepts electrons from reducing agents.
A. 5.5 = 106 D. removes the elements of oxygen from

20 106 + 18X compounds.
B. 20 = 106 The correct answer is option [A].
5.5 106 + 18X

•
QUESTION NO: 78
C. 106 = 5.5 Choose the correct option.
20 106 + 18X
The oxidation number of sulphur in iron (II) sulphide is
D. 106 = 5.5
18X 20
A. +2.
B. -2.
•
QUESTION NO: 76
Choose the correct option. C. -4.
and is involved in the equation of

D. +6.
reaction given below;
2KMnO4(aq) + 5SO2(g) + 2H2O(l) → K2 SO4(aq) + A + B. The correct answer is option [D].

Solution: The chemical equation: FeSO4; Fe = +2, S = ?,
O4 = -2 x 4 = -8; +2 + ? -8 = 0;? - 6 = 0; ? = +6.
A. Sulphur (VI) oxide and tetraoxomanganate
(V).
•
QUESTION NO: 79
B. Sulphur (IV) oxide and tetraoxomanganate
(VI).
C. Sulphur (VI) oxide and tetraoxomanganate

(VII).
D. Sulphur (IV) oxide and tetraoxomanganate

(VII).
•
QUESTION NO: 77
Concentrated tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid is a

dehydrating agent when it
A. removes the elements of hydrogen and

oxygen in the form of water from compounds.
B. donates electrons to oxidizing agents.
92
CHEMISTRY
The diagram drawn is an experiment to
A. treat water.
B. find out that hydrogen burns in air.
C. demonstrate tyndall effect.
D. compare hardness of various samples of

water.
•
QUESTION NO: 80
Hard water contains a number of dissolved salts which

include
A. sodium tetraoxosulphate [VI], magnesium

tetraoxosulphate [VI] and calcium
hydrogentrioxocarbonate [IV].
B. calcium trioxocarbonate [IV], magnesium

tetraoxosulphate [VI] and calcium tetraoxosulphate
[VI].
C. calcium tetraoxosulphate[VI], magnesium

trioxocarbonate [IV] and calcium
D. calcium tetraoxosulphate [VI], magnesium

tetraoxosulphate [VI] and calcium
93
PHYSICS
PHYSICS
A. 2.73mH
QUESTION NO: 1
B. 3.50mH
The capacitive reactance is 15Ω and the resistance is

25Ω. Calculate the overall resistance of the circuit. C. 2.90mH
A. 40Ω. D. 35.00mH
B. √860Ω. The correct answer is option [A].

1
/H = 1/5 + 1/10 + 1/15 = 6 + 3 + 2/30
H = 30/11 = 2.73mH
C. Ö215Ω.
QUESTION NO: 4
D. 35Ω. Choose the correct option.

Hint: Overall resistance = Impedance, Z = Ö[R2+ X C2]
QUESTION NO: 2
A radio station delivers at a frequency of 500Hz and

current used is 0.5mA. If a capacitor 3μF is used, obtain
the voltage value across the capacitor.
A. 0.6V.
The internal resistance of each of the cells in the figure
drawn is 2 ohms. Calculate the total current in the
B. 0.1193V. circuit.
C. 0.1250V. A. 0.8A
B. 0.56A
D. 0.5321V.
The correct answer is option [B]. C. 0.40A

Hint: Voltage, V = IXC
where XC= Capacitor reactance.
D. 0.004A
QUESTION NO: 3
A 120V dry battery sends a current of 0.24A through an

external circuit of resistance 440Ω. What current would
pass if the external resistance were reduced to 240Ω?
Given three inductors inductances 5mH, 10mH and
15mH connected in series, the effective inductance is A. 0.2A.
.
94
PHYSICS
B. 0.3A.
C. 0.4A.
D. 0.5A. QUESTION NO: 8

The correct answer is option [C]. An electric heater of resistance 50Ω was immersed in a
Hint: Use the equation I1 = E/[R + r] and I2 = E/[R + r],
1 2
vessel containing 1.53kg of ice at 0oC. If the heater
where I1 = 0.24A, R1 = 440Ω, and R2 = 240Ω, and I2 = ? draws a current of 16A and all the ice melts after 40s,
calculate the specific latent heat of fusion of ice.
QUESTION NO: 6
A. 2.092 x 104Jkg-1
Find the energy of a lamp marked 200V, 60W that will
be consumed when connected to a 200V source for B. 2.133 x 105JKg-1
1hr.
C. 3.346 x 105JKg-1
A. 30,186J.
B. 216,000J. D. 8.366 x 105JKg-1

C. 32,174J. Using the equation:
I2Rt = mLw
D. 26,815J.
QUESTION NO: 9
Using the equation E = Pt, where E = energy, P = If the force on a charge of 0.2C in an electric field is 4N,
power, t = time, therefore, E = 60 × 1 × 60 × 60 = then the electric field intensity of the field is .
216,000J.
QUESTION NO: 7
A. 0.8 C/N
B. 0.8 N/C
A solid weighs 10.0N in air, 6.0N when totally
immersed in water and 7.0 when totally immersed in a
certain liquid X. calculate the relative density of the C. 20.0 N/C
liquid.
D. 4.2 N/C
A. 5⁄3
Electric field intensity = F/q = 4/0.2 = 20.0 N/C
B. 4⁄3
QUESTION NO: 10
C. 3⁄4
D. 7⁄10
95
PHYSICS
QUESTION NO: 12
The direction of induced current in a straight wire

placed in a magnetic field is determined using .
A. Fleming left hand rule.
B. Fleming right hand rule.
In the given circuit shown, the cell P has an e.m.f of C. Lenz"s law.
1.5V and an unknown internal resistance, r while the
cell Q has an e.m.f. 2.0V and an internal resistance 1. If
the ammeter reads 50mA, then R equals . D. Faraday"s law.

A. 3.0
QUESTION NO: 13
B. 4.0 Choose the correct option.
Free electrons .
C. 5.5
A. can be studied more easily

D. 2.0
B. are free in vacuum/space
C. are deposited on the surface of a non-

conductor as static charge
D. are detached from atoms but are not carried

in conductors

Hint: Free electrons are not deposited on the surface of
QUESTION NO: 11 a non - conductor as static charge.
QUESTION NO: 14
A current of 2000mA flow across a metal for 3mins. The Choose the correct option.
quantity of electricity transmitted is .
An instrument which reacts to the radiation from
radioactive sources is called .
A. 360A
A. x-ray tube
B. 360Coulomb
B. Geiger-Muller tube
C. 6Coulomb
C. cathode discharge tube

D. 6A

D. photoelectric
Hint: Q = It, where Q = quantity of electricity unit

coulomb, I = current, t = time.
96
PHYSICS
The correct answer is option [B]. D. the viscous force of the air is equal to the
sum of the weight and up thrust
QUESTION NO: 15
Absorption line spectra exhibited by atom is due to QUESTION NO: 18

. Choose the correct option.
The density of 400cm3 of palm oil was 0.9gcm-3 before

A. excitation of an electron in the atom
frying. If the density of oil was 0.6gcm-3 after frying,
assuming no loss of oil due to spilling, its new volume
B. transition of an electron from a higher to was .
lower energy level
A. 700cm3
C. instability of the nucleons
B. 600cm3
D. change in the kinetic energy
C. 500cm3
QUESTION NO: 16 D. 400cm3

The volume of a gas at 1000cm3 is collected at 27oC From the assumption, mass is constant
and 700mmHg. Convert this to standard temperature Density  = mass/volume
and pressure. ; D1V1 = m = D2V2
D1V1 = D2V2
V2 = D V /D = 0.9 x 400/0.6 = 600cm3
A. 883.8cm3. 1 1 2
QUESTION NO: 19
B. 838.3cm3. Choose the correct option.
Find the gravitational potential on a body of mass

C. 638cm3.
500kg.
[Mass of the earth = 6.0 x 104kg
D. 683.8cm3. radius of the earth = 6.4 x 106m
G = 6.67 x 10-11Nm-2kg-2 ].

Hint: Use the ideal gas equation noting that at S.T.P. A. 4.89 x 10-6J
where P2 = 760mmHg and T2 = 273K
B. 3.13 x 10-7J
QUESTION NO: 17
C. 3.13 x 10-10J
A parachute attains a terminal velocity when .
D. 3.20 x 10-10J
A. its density is equal to the density of air

B. the viscous force of air and the up thrust Hint:
GMm
completely counteracts its weight Gravitational potential = /r
C. it expands as a result of reduced external QUESTION NO: 20

pressure
97
PHYSICS
Choose the correct option. D. at centre of curvature
A thin wire with heavy weights attached to both ends is The correct answer is option [C].
hung over a block of ice resting on two supports. If the
wire cuts through the ice block while the block remains QUESTION NO: 23
solid behind the wire, the process is called . Choose the correct option.
The north pole of a magnet can never be separated

A. Fusion from the south pole because of a property known as
.
B. Sublimation
A. magnetic monopole
C. Condensation
B. magnetic dipoles
D. Regulation
C. magnetic quadruple
QUESTION NO: 21
D. magnetic octopole

Find the change in velocity that could be produced on
a body of mass 6kg if a constant force of 18N acts on it QUESTION NO: 24
for 2 secs. Choose the correct option.
The tendency of a liquid to rise and fall in a narrow

A. 4m/s. capillary tube is called .
B. 6m/s. A. liquefaction
C. 2.1m/s. B. capillarity
D. 8.21m/s. C. fluidity
The correct answer is option [B]. D. liquid pressure

Hint: Use the equation Ft = m[v - u]; [v - u] = Ft/m = [18 x
2]
/6 = 6m/s.
QUESTION NO: 22
QUESTION NO: 25
When an object is placed at the principal focus of a

The rise of a liquid to some distance in a narrow glass
concave mirror, the location of the image formed is
tube when the tube is dipped into a liquid that wets it
.
is called .
A. beyond principal focus

A. cohesion
B. between principal focus and centre of

B. viscosity
curvature
C. capillarity
C. at infinity
98
PHYSICS
Determine the distance y in the system drawn.

D. adhesion

A. 1.52m.
QUESTION NO: 26 B. 1.53m.

C. 1.5m.
D. 1.2m.

Hint: Equate the clockwise turning moment to the anti-
clockwise turning moment.
QUESTION NO: 28
Use the information to answer the question.
A bullet is fired to attain a maximum range with an

initial velocity 30m/s [g = 10m/s2]. Calculate the angle
of projection when the maximum height reached by
the bullet is 30m.
A. 41.81o.
Determine the moment about A in the diagram drawn.
B. 19.47o.
A. 15Nm. C. 54.74o.
B. 17Nm. D. 35.26o.
C. 12Nm. The correct answer is option [C].

Hint: Using the equation sin2θ = 2gH/u .
2
D. 10Nm. QUESTION NO: 29

Hint: Moment about A = Force × height, h where h = The path taken by an object that moves through space
3cos θ, and θ = 60o. on projection is called .
QUESTION NO: 27 A. projectile

B. projector
C. trajector
D. space explorer
99
PHYSICS
QUESTION NO: 30 D. 50o.

Initially, a camera is focused at some far-distant Hint: The reflected ray must rotate twice.
mountains. It is then adjusted to focus on a nearby
person. To do this, the lens is .
QUESTION NO: 33
A. moved closer to the film
A man standing some distance from the foot of a tall
cliff claps his hands and hears an echo 0.7s later. Find
B. moved farther from the film how far the man is from the cliff, if the speed of sound
is 330m/s.
C. "opened" to larger aperture or larger
opening A. 115.5m.
D. "shut down" to a smaller aperture or smaller B. 11.05m.

opening
The correct answer is option [B] C. 3.32m.
D. 214.6m.
QUESTION NO: 31
Which of the following statements is NOT true of an Hint: Using the equation x = [vt]/2 = [330 x 0.7]/2 = 115.5m.
image in a plane mirror?
The image is .
QUESTION NO: 34
A. the same size as the object
B. laterally inverted
C. virtual
D. magnified
QUESTION NO: 32
The diagram drawn shows the motion of a progressive
wave along a string. The particle motion of the
medium is in the direction .
The angle between a plane mirror and a fixed ray of
light is 20o. The mirror rotates through 30o. How many
degrees does the reflected ray rotates? A. parallel to OX
A. 40o. B. parallel to OY
B. 60o. C. 60o to OX
C. 30o. D. 60o to OY
100
PHYSICS
QUESTION NO: 35
A stream is flowing at 0.75ms-1 and a boat heading

perpendicular for the stream landed at the opposite
bank at an angle of 30o. Find the velocity of the boat. From the wave motion graph shown, find the
wavelength of the graph.
A. 0.65ms-1
A. 0.1.
B. 0.86ms-1
B. 0.2.
C. 1.00ms-1
C. 0.3.
D. 1.50ms-1
D. 0.01.
QUESTION NO: 38
Water ripples are similar to light wave because .
A. they are both longitudinal
B. they travel at different speed
QUESTION NO: 36
Choose the correct option. C. they cannot be reflected
A car has a uniform velocity. What is the acceleration of

the car? D. they can be refracted and diffracted

A. Unknown.
They both obey diffraction and refraction laws.
B. Undefined. QUESTION NO: 39

C. 0m/s2.
A wheel and axle has radii 80cm and 10cm respectively.
If the efficiency of the machine is 0.85, an applied force
D. None of the above. of 1200N to the wheel will raise a load of .
The correct answer is option [C]. A. 8.0N

Hint: Acceleration = Rate of change of velocity.
Therefore, if the velocity is uniform, acceleration must
be zero. B. 6.8N
QUESTION NO: 37 C. 8160N

D. 9600N
101
PHYSICS
A. Northern hemisphere
B. Local area of the hemisphere
QUESTION NO: 40 C. Southern hemisphere

D. Equator of the moon
A catapult used to hold a stone of mass 500g is
extended by 20cm with an applied force F. If the stone
leaves with a velocity of 40ms-1. The value of F is .
QUESTION NO: 43
A. 4.0 x 104N Choose the correct option
The region that has the least developed water power,

B. 4.0 x 103N
but has the world's largest potential of water power
resources is .
C. 2.0 x 103N
A. Canada
D. 4.0 x 10 N
2
B. South America
C. Africa
D. Scandinavia

QUESTION NO: 41
QUESTION NO: 44
The speed of wind is measured with a/an . Choose the correct option
The sun is vertically overhead at the equator days

each year.
A. speedometer
A. 5
B. hygrometer
B. 2
C. thermometer
C. 3
D. anemometer
The correct answer is option [D] D. 7

Choose the correct answer
QUESTION NO: 45
The autumnal equinox occurs on 23rd September in Choose the correct option
the .
How can desert encroachment be best controlled?
102
PHYSICS
A. Erecting barriers
A. Vegetation
B. Overgrazing
B. Water
C. Afforestation
C. Minerals
D. Slopewise cultivation
D. Air
QUESTION NO: 46
Choose the correct option QUESTION NO: 49
The rainforest of South America is often referred to as
. What can we call an environment in which more than
one specie form the common plants?
A. pampas
A. A formation
B. campos
B. A society
C. illanos
C. A habitat
D. selvas
D. An association
QUESTION NO: 47
Choose the correct option QUESTION NO: 50
What is the actual amount of water vapour held in the
air at any particular time? What is a watershed?
A. Vapour pressure A. Volume of load carried by a river.
B. Absolute humidity B. Area drained by the main river and all its
tributaries.
C. Effective precipitation
C. Entire area flooded by a river during the wet
season.
D. Relative humidity
The correct answer is option [B] D. Dividing lines from which two or more rivers
flow in opposite direction.
QUESTION NO: 48
Choose the correct option The correct answer is option [D]
QUESTION NO: 51
Example of a non-renewable resource is . Choose the correct option
103
PHYSICS
Which of the following is the correct sequence in which

denudation occurs?
A. Bororo
A. weathering…………deposition… ........... erosion

B. East African dwarfs
B. erosion…………weathering… .......... deposition

C. Itu
C. weathering…………erosion…........... deposition
D. Zebu
D. deposition…………erosion… ...........weathering

QUESTION NO: 55
QUESTION NO: 52 Choose the correct option
The Aleutian Island is a type of _ island. What differentiates a woodland from forest?
A. individual island A. Woodland is largely made up of scattered

shrubs while forest is made up of dense shrubs.
B. island arc
B. Forest vegetation is mainly made up of dense
C. archipelagoes trees while woodland is less dense in its tree
composition.
D. volcanic island
C. Forest is composed of herbaceous plants
while woodland is composed of pine trees.
QUESTION NO: 53 D. None of the above.

Which factor explains the temperature differences
between Dakar and Quagadougou? QUESTION NO: 56
A. Distance from the sea
What type of soil is matched with the wrong type of
climate in the options below?
B. Vegetation cover
A. Chernozem: temperate desert

C. Latitude
B. Lateritic soils: tropical

D. Altitude
C. Podzol: cool temperate

QUESTION NO: 54 D. Brown soils: warm temperate

The cattle kept by the Masais of the East African
plateau are referred to as QUESTION NO: 57
104
PHYSICS

Which of the processes are drumlins boulder clay and QUESTION NO: 60
terminal moraines associated? Choose the correct option
A. Glacial deposition
B. River erosion
C. Glocial river
The area marked (ii) is known as

D. Wind deposition
A. escarpment
QUESTION NO: 58 B. ridge

C. steep slope
Which of the options best describes an aquifer?
D. gentle slope
A. It is an outlet for ground water stored in

rocks and released to the surface at different points. The correct answer is option [D]
QUESTION NO: 61
B. It is a depression or hollow ground
containing water.
C. It is a bored hole in the hollow ground Why is the Western side of Southern Africa dry?
reaching the water table.
D. It is the permeable rock in which water is A. It is dry because of the absence of

stored. mountains.
The correct answer is option [D] B. It is dry because the main wind blows
offshore.
QUESTION NO: 59
C. It is dry because it enjoys tropical climate.
Which textural class is thus defined; Sand content is

less conspicuous (45% - 50%), clay and silt form an D. It is dry because it has Mediterranean type
almost equal proportion. climate.
A. Clay The correct answer is option [B]
QUESTION NO: 62
B. Sandy - clay
C. Loam Which of the following best accounts for the rural-

urban migration in West Africa?
D. Loamy - sand
A. The universal primary education
105
PHYSICS
B. Limitless job opportunities in urban areas C. Town
C. Lack of job opportunities and social D. Ghetto

amenities
D. Drought
QUESTION NO: 66
The correct answer is option [C] Choose the correct option
Which is an advantage of transcontinental railways in

QUESTION NO: 63
Europe and North America?
Which of the following irrigation methods A. Promotion of industrial activities

is not employed in the Nile or Niger Basins?
B. Political integration
A. Drip method
C. Employment of labour
B. Shaduf method
D. Easy evacuation of mineral products

C. Perennial method
D. Use of pumps
QUESTION NO: 67
What is the busiest shipping route in the world?
QUESTION NO: 64
A. North Atlantic
In which year did Mungo Park sail down the River
Niger?
B. Trans pacific
A. 1900
C. South Atlantic
B. 1897
D. Panama canal
C. 1795 The correct answer is option [A]
•
D. 1905
QUESTION NO: 68
QUESTION NO: 65 How can you calculate the population density of a

Choose the correct option country?
Which of these is the odd one?

A. The size of the country in relation to the
population.
A. City
B. Village
106
PHYSICS
A. Fishing
B. The birth rate and death rate of the
geographical area.
B. Power generation
C. The number of people living in the towns.

C. Mining
D. The rate of population increase in the

country. D. Lumbering
The correct answer is option [A] The correct answer is option [D]

Choose the correct option Choose the correct answer
What is population density? Which of the following is not a remedy for

unfavourable balance of trade?
A. Population density is work per unit area.

A. Import restriction
B. Population density is the number of persons
over a large area. B. Tax relief for young industries
C. Population density is persons per unit area. C. Export restriction
D. Population density is the number of persons D. Exporting semi finished goods

in the Urban areas.
QUESTION NO: 73
Which of these options has the most density of roads
The highest volume of shipping across the Atlantic and rail line networks in the world and which facilitates
ocean is found . its trading activity?
A. between Europe and Africa A. Africa
B. between North America and South America B. Asia
C. between Africa and South America C. Western Europe
D. between Australia and Austria D. South America
The correct answer is option [B] The correct answer is option [C]

Choose the correct answer Choose the correct option
What are the regions of Iceland, Norway and British Which of the following is the most populated City in
Columbia noted for? Ghana?
107
PHYSICS
Which of these towns is not a pre-colonial town?
A. Tomale
A. Enugu
B. Kumasi
B. Ibadan
C. Sekondi
C. Bida
D. Accra
D. Ilorin

QUESTION NO: 75
QUESTION NO: 78
The capital of Kogi state as at 2009 was .
A. Ilorin Which of the following is not a hill found in the

Western highlands of Nigeria?
B. Lokoja
A. Epeme hills
C. Jebba
B. Kukuruku
D. Maiduguri
C. Apata hills
D. Udi hills
QUESTION NO: 76
How can the Niger-Benue trough of Nigeria be best
described? QUESTION NO: 79
A. It occupies the North-Western part of Port Harcourt is a typical example of .

Nigeria.
A. a terminal town
B. It is bounded on the East and West sides by a
strip of low-lying coastal plain.
B. a confluence town
C. It is located North of the scrap lands of

South-Central Nigeria. C. a gap town
D. It is underlain by young sedimentary D. a satellite town

formations with a well-drained surface.
QUESTION NO: 80
Which of the following is not a geographical region in
108
PHYSICS
Nigeria?
A. Niger Delta
B. Tarkwar
C. Eastern highland
D. Southern Coast land
109
MOCK EXAM- Compiled by: Sucex De-Tech Integrated Services - 08132641763
Answer: Calabar
CURRENT AFFAIRS for
Rivers State University #12. What is the capital of Nigeria
POST UTME Now?
#1. Who formed the first political Answer: Abuja
party in Nigeria?
Answer: Herbert Macauly #13. Who is the current Nigerian
Deputy Senate president?
#2. What was the first political Answer: Senator Ovie Omo-Agege
party in Nigeria?
Answer: Nigerian National #14. What is the name of Nigerian
Democratic party (NNDP) senior national team in football?
Answer: Super Eagles
#3. Who is the current president of
Nigeria? #15. When did Nigerian Golden
Answer: Muhammadu Buhari eaglets win the world under-17
FIFA world cup
#4. Who is the current vice Answer: 1985, 1993, 2007, 2013
president of Nigeria?
Answer: Yemi Osibajo #16. Who was the first female vice
chancellor of Nigerian university?
#5. What does the eagle in the Answer: Grace Alele Williams
Nigerian coat of arm represent?
Answer: Strength #17. Who gave Nigeria her name:
Answer: Flora Shaw
#6. What do the two horses on the
Nigerian coat of arm represent? #18. Who designed the Nigerian
Answer: Dignity flag?
Answer: Michael Taiwo
#7. What was the black shield in Akinkunmi
the Nigerian coat of arm stand for?
Answer: Nigerian's fertile soil #19. Who was the first man to buy
a car in Nigeria?
#8. What does the white color in Answer: Bob Jensen
Nigerian flag stand for?
Answer: Peace #20. Who was the first woman to
buy a car in Nigeria?
#9. What does the green color in Answer: Funmilayo Ransome Kuti
Nigerian flag represent?
Answer: Forests and abundant #21. Who was the first woman to
natural wealth of Nigeria drive a car in Nigeria?
Answer: Funmilayo Ransome Kuti
#10. Nigeria is divided into how
many geopolitical zones? #22. What is the first TV station in
Answer: Six (6) geopolitical zones Nigeria?
Answer: Western Nigerian
#11. What was the first capital city Government Broadcasting
in Nigeria?
110
Updated August 2021
Corporation (WNTV) in 1959

#34. Who is the first Nigerian
#23. When was Nigeria formed? president?
Answer: 1914 Answer: Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe
#24. Where was crude oil first #35. Who was Nigerian first
discovered in Nigeria? executive president?
Answer: Oloibiri Oilfield, located Answer: Alhaji Shehu Aliyu
in Oloibiri in Ogbia LGA of Bayelsa Shagari
State
#36. Who was the Nigerian first
#25. Who was the first Nigerian to prime minister?
become a Noble Laureate? Answer: Abubakar Tafawa Balewa
Answer: Wole Soyinka
#37. What is the largest continent
#26. Who is the Nigerian current in the world?
speaker of the house of Assembly? Answer: ASIA with population of
Answer: Femi Gbajabiamila 3,641,000,000 while Australia &
Oceania is the smallest continent
#27. What is the premier
university in Nigeria? #38. What are the five Oceans in
Answer: University of Ibadan the world?
#28. Who is the minister of Answer: Pacific Ocean, Atlantic

education in Nigeria? Ocean, Indian Ocean, Southern
Answer: Adamu Adamu Ocean, Arctic Ocean
#29. Who is the current chief #39. What is the full meaning of
justice of Nigeria? UNICEF?
Answer: Ibrahim Tanko Answer: United Nations
Muhammad International Children’s
Emergency Fund
#30. When did Nigeria have her
independent? #40. Who is the current Senate
Answer: 1st October 1960 President in Nigeria?
Answer: Sen. Ahmed Ibrahim
#31. When did Nigeria become a Lawan
republic?
Answer: 1st October 1963 #41. Which country’s flag is called
the Union Jack?
#32. When was the first military Answer: Great Britain
coup carried out in Nigeria?
Answer: 1966 #42. When did Nigeria become a
Republic?
#33. How many local Government Answer: 1963
do we have in Nigeria?
Answer: 774 #43. What is centenary?
111
Updated August 2021
Answer: 100 years Answer: General Lucky Irabor -

Chief of Defence Staff;
#44. What is Nigeria?
Answer: Nigeria officially the Lt Gen Farouk Yahaya- Chief of
Federal Republic of Nigeria, is a Army Staff;
federal constitutional republic
comprising 36 states and its Rear Admiral Awwal Zubairu
Federal Capital Territory, Abuja. Gambo - Chief of Naval Staff;
Nigeria is located in West Africa
Air Marshal Isiaka Oladayo Amao–
and shares land borders with the
Chief of Air Staff
Republic of Benin in the west,
Chad and Cameroon in the east,
and Niger in the north.
#52. Mention five rivers in Nigeria
#45. Who won the 2015 Nigerian
that share their names with a state.
presidential general election?
Answer: General Muhammadu
Answer: Rivers- Benue, Niger,
Buhari
Osun, Kaduna, Ogun, Sokoto, Cross River,
Imo
#46. Who is the current INEC
chairman? #53. Mention 5 past senate
presidents of Nigeria.
Answer: Mahmud Yakubu
Answer: Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe, Evan
#47. Who is the current NAFDAC Enwerem, Chuba Okadigbo,
Director General? Anyim Pius Anyim, Adolphus
Wabara, Ken Nnamani, David
Answer: Mojisola Christianah Mark
Adeyeye
#54. Who is the current minister of
#48. Who is the current Inspector finance?
General of police?
Answer: Usman Alkali Baba Answer: Zainab Shamsuna Ahmed
#49. Current chairman of the #55. Who is the current minister of

African Union defence?
Answer: Felix- Antoine Tshisekedi Answer: Bashir Salihi Magashi

Tshilombo
#57. Who is the current minister of
#50. Who is the secretary General FCT?
of the United Nations Answer: Muhammadu Musa Bello
Answer: António Guterres
#58. Which country won the last
#51. Mention the new service world cup?
chiefs in Nigeria
Answer: France
112
Updated August 2021
#59. Who is the current CBN 69. When did Nigeria change from
Governor? left hand drive to right hand drive?
Answer: Godwin Emefiele
Answer: April 2nd, 1972
#60. Who is the minister for
petroleum resources in Nigeria? 70. What Geographical area do the
Answer: Timipre Sylva boko-haram insurgents mainly operate in
Nigeria?
#61. When was the Nigerian Naira
introduced? Answer: North East, Nigeria
Answer: 1st January 1973
71. Ken Saro-wiwa the activist of
62. Which is the Richest football oil ogoni was executed in _ _ _ _ _
club? ?
Answer: Real Madrid Answer: 10 November 1995, Port

Harcourt
63. Which club took the English
premier league? 72. Who is the first military Head
of State of Nigeria?
Answer: Manchester city F.C
Answer: Johnson Thomas Aguiyi-
64. Who was the first Military Ironsi (Jan. 16 - July 29, 1966)
Governor of Rivers State?
73. The first civilian president of
Answer: Alfred Diete-Spiff Nigeria?
65. The youngest sovereign Answer: Olusegun Obasanjo

country in world
75. What is the name of the Rivers
Answer: South Sudan State governor that founded Rivers
State University?
66. What is the other name for
Covid-19? Answer: Melford Okilo
Answer: Coronavirus 76. When did Rivers State

University of Science & Technology
67. When was Goodluck Jonathan change its name to Rivers State
elected as president? University?
Answer: 29th May, 2011 Answer: 2017
68. Who is the current vice 77. When was Rivers State
chancellor of Rivers State University? created
Answer: Prof Nlerum Sunday Answer: 27 May 1967

Okogbule
113
Updated August 2021
78. Name of the first female the first elected female head of
state in Africa
president in Africa?
Ellen Johnson Sirleaf
Answer: Ellen Johnson Sirleaf 2006. Liberia
The Nigeria civil War started and
(born 29 October 1938) is a
Ended when?
Liberian politician who served as
Answer: July 6, 1967 – January 15,
the 24th President of Liberia from 1970
2006 to 2018.
ABOUT Football
FIFA Headquarters is located at?
Zürich, Switzerland
ABOUT the First Primary school in
Nigeria 2011 World Best Player
Lionel Mess
The first educational system of
Nigeria as a British colony started Host of FIFA world cup
in Badagry where the first primary Year Host Continent
school was established by the
2010 South Africa Africa
Wesleyan mission (Methodist
Church) in 1843 and named 2014 Brazil South America
Nursery of Infant Church which 2018 Russia Europe
later became St. Thomas’ Anglican 2022 Qatar Asia
Nursery and Primary School,
founded by Rev. Golmer of the
Church Missionary Society (CMS) OLYMPIC Game Host cities
in 1845
1984 - Los Angeles, United States
THE first FEMALE Governor in 1988 - Seoul, South Korea
Nigeria 1992 - Barcelona, Spain
1996 - Atlanta, United States
Dame Virginia Ngozi Etiaba was 2000 - Sydney, Australia
the Governor of Anambra State, a 2004 - Athens, Greece
state in south-east Nigeria, from 2008 - Beijing, China
November 2006 to February 2007. 2012 - London, United Kingdom
She is the first female governor in 2016 - Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
Nigeria's history. Her instatement 2020 - Tokyo, Japan
came as the previous governor,
Peter Obi, was impeached by the Which country hosted the first
state legislature for alleged gross morden Day Olympic?
misconduct. Answer: The first modern Olympic
Games are held in Athens,
The first female president in the Greece.On April 6, 1896
world
WHO is the Current IAAF
Sirimavo Ratwatte Dias chairman?
Bandaranaike, who was elected Answer: Sebastian Coe
Prime Minister of Sri Lanka in 1960
114
Updated August 2021
IAAF--International Association of The flag of Nigeria was designed in

Athletics Federations 1959 and first officially hosted on
1st October 1960.(which is Nigeria
National Independent Day)
The First Civilian Governor of The green bands represent the

Rivers state forests and abundant natural
wealth of Nigeria while the White
Answer: Melford Okilo October band stands for peace.
1979 However, what you should know is
that, the designer of the flag was a
student from IBADAN, Micheal
Fisrt Miletary Governor of Rivers Taiwo Akinkunmi.
state
THE HISTORY AND PAST LEADERS
Answer: Alfred Diete-Spiff 28 May IN NIGERIA.
1967
Nigeria is a country which has the
When was Police established in highest population in Africa
Nigeria continent.
Answer: 1820. Which is proved by the 21st to
25th March, 2006 population
The first person to have the census.
highest rank in all the police is
commissioner general colonel KK. Nigeria’s population was
estimated to be about
In 1879 a 1,200-member armed 140,000,000 people.(One hundred
paramilitary Hausa Constabulary and forty Million)
was formed.
Currently, Nigeria is made up of 36
In 1896 the Lagos Police was STATES and the Federal Capital
established. Territory (FCT).
With 109 senatorial districts,
What is the Biggest River in Africa 360 federal constituencies,
Answer: River Nile 4,258 miles 990 state constituencies,
774 local governments,
This ‘Y’ SYMBOL represent the two 8810 wards.
main rivers flowing through
Nigeria: This are the names of Nigeria
which are the two popular rivers former colonial masters.
known as: They are;
River Niger and River Benue. Sir Frederick Lord Lugard,
who ruled from 1900 to 1919.
The yellow flower at the base of
the Coat of arm are Costus Sir Hugh Clifford,
spectabilis, which is Nigeria’s Who ruled from 1919 to 1925.
national flower.
115
Updated August 2021
Sir Creamer Thompson, CAN – Christian Association of Nigeria

ECOWAS – Economic Community of
Sir Donald Cameroon, West African Countries
ASUU – Academic Staff Union of
Sir Bernard Bourdilion. Universities
ECOMOG – Ecowas Monitoring
Sir Anthony Richard. Group
Who ruled from 1943to 1948.
EFCC – Economic and Financial Crime
Sir John McPherson. Commission
Who ruled from 1948 to 1958.
FAAN – Federal Airports Authority of
Sir James Robertson. Nigeria
Who ruled from 1958 to 1960.
FRSC – Federal Road Safety
The names of those on our Nigeria Commission
Currency Notes.
FBI – Federal Board of Internal
5 Naira - (Alhaji Abubakar Tafawa Revenue
Balewa; dancers)
FCC – Federal Character Commission
10 Naira - (Alvan Ikoku; Nigerian
FEPA – Federal Environmental
women)
Protection Agency
20 Naira - (General M.R. FSP – Family Support Programme
Muhammed; pot maker)
FESTAC – Festival of Art and Culture
50 Naira - (Nigerians; fishermen
with big catch) FIFA – Federation Internationale de
Football Association
100 Naira - (Chief Obafemi
Awolowo; Zuma Rock in Nigeria) FEAP – Family Economic
Advancement Programme
200 Naira- (Sir Ahmadu Bello;
cows; agro produce) GSM – Global System for Mobile
Combinations
000 1000 Naira - (Alhaji Aliyu Mai-
Bornu and Dr Clement Isong, former GATS – General Agreements on Trade
governors of the Central Bank of in Service
Nigeria.)
HIV – Human Immune Deficiency
COMMON ACRONYMS YOU SHOULD Virus
KNOW
116
Updated August 2021
ICPC – Independent National NOA – Nigeria Orientation Agency

Electoral Commissions NIJ – Nigeria Institute of Journalism
IMF – International Monetary Fund NAMA – Nigeria Airspace
ICJ – International Court of Justice Management Agency
ICAN – Institute of Chartered NACA – Nigeria Action Committee of

Accountant of Nigeria Aids’
IOC – International Olympic NGO – Non-Governmental

Committee Organization
JP – Justice of Peace (Jerusalem NDDC – Nigerian Delta Development

Pilgrimage) Commission
NUJ – Nigerian Union of Journalists NANS – National Association of

Nigeria Students
NUT – Nigerian Union of Teachers
NASU – Non- Academic Staff Union
NUC – National University
Commission NUPENG – National Union of
Petroleum and National Gas Workers
NAPEPP – National Poverty
Eradication Programme NHRC – National Human Right
Commissions
NDLEA – National Drug Law
Enforcement Agency NSE – Nigeria Stock Exchange
NATIP – National Trafficking in Person NICON – National Insurance

Cooperation of Nigeria
NIREC – Nigeria Inter-Religious
Council NITEL – Nigeria Telecommunication
Limited
NDA – Nigeria Defence Academy
NSPMC – Nigeria Security Printing
NPF – Nigeria Police Force And Minting Cooperation
NAF – Nigeria Air Force NIPOST – Nigeria Postal Services And

Telecommunication
NA – Nigeria Army
NACCIMA – National Association of
NN – Niger Navy
Chambers of Commerce, Industries
NBA – Nigeria Bar Association Mines and Agriculture
NPA – Nigeria Port Authority NURTW – National Union of Road

And Transport Workers
NLC – Nigeria Labour Congress
117
Updated August 2021
NIIPS – National Institute For PSPLS – Privatization Share Purchase

International Policy And Strategy Loan Scheme
NECO – National Examination Council PRC – Provisional Ruling Council
NIIA – Nigeria Institute of PFN – Pentecostal Fellowship of

International Affairs Nigeria
NLNG – Nigeria Liquefied Natural Gas SAN – Senior Advocate of Nigeria
NAPIMA – National Petroleum SSS – State Security Service

Investment Management Service SEC – Security And Exchange
NGC – Nigeria Gas Company Commission
NSCDC – Nigeria Security and Civil SWAN – Sports Writers Association of

Defence Corps Nigeria
NAFDAC – National Agency For Food SARS – Severe Acute Respiratory

And Drug Administration and Control Syndrome
NCC – Nigeria Communication TMG – Transmission Monitoring

Commission Group
NYSC – Nigeria Youth Service Corps UN – United Nations
NSC – Nigeria Sports Commission UNIDO – United Nations Industrial

Development Organization
NNPC – Nigeria National Petroleum
Commission VOA – Voice of America
OMPADEC – Oil Mineral Producing WOTCLEF – Women Trafficking And

Areas Development Commission Child Labour Eradication Foundation
OPEC – Organization of Petroleum WHO – World Health Organization

Exporting Countries WAEC – West African Examination
PPPRA – Petroleum Product Pricing Council
Regulating Agency WASSCE – West African Senior School
PENGASSAN – Petroleum And Natural Certificate Examination
Gas Senior Staff Association of WWW – World Wide Web
Nigeria
PPMC – Pipeline And Product

Marketing of Nigeria
118
Updated August 2021
119
https://lms.rsu.edu.ng/mod/quiz/
120
121
122
123

College of Medicine 1

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

College of Medicine 1

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

POST UTME QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

2010 to 2020 (exception of 2016)

COLLEGE OF MEDICAL SCIENCES

Human Physiology Use of English, Chemistry, Including English

ABOUT RIVERS STATE UNIVERSITY B. False

QUESTION NO: 1 The correct answer is option [B]

In exception to students in the first year, students who

C. a change in grade A. a dismissal

D. an upward change of grade B. a period of probation for one session

The correct answer is option [D]

A. two weeks Ideally, a student in a five-year degree programme in the

The correct answer is option [D] C. 14

Choose the correct option.

B. he will be allowed to complete the programme •

A transfer from one department to another will involve all

D. he will be allowed to complete the programme B. Senate

When a student repeats a course, he shall be credited •

A. True Which of these statements is false?

• B. Any absence from lectures should be with

A student is said to be on clear standing when .

B. he maintains a CGPA of at least 1.00 and passes

all his courses

teaching, research and community service, and its

C. to be ranked amongst the best universities in

The correct answer is option [C]

A. 3.50 - 4.49 (Second Class Upper) B. Rufus Ada-George

B. 4.00 - 5.00 (First Class) C. Melford Obiene Okilo

C. 2.40 - 3.49 (Second Class Lower) D. Fidelis Oyakhilome

The correct answer is option [C]

The correct answer is option [B]

The vision of the Rivers State University is .

A. a top rated university in Africa, that is, the

Choose the correct option.

Which of these statements is false?

A. The booking and payment system is used for •

The correct answer is option [C] C. F grade

The correct answer is option [A]

B. They constitute the departmental or faculty

B. F grade The correct answer is option [A]

The is the Chief Examiner in each department.

The correct answer is option [D]

A. The Head of Department

Teaching staff of the university may do all the following,

C. The Director of the Institute A. continue in their areas of specialisation at

• C. delegate the supervision of examinations to

All lecturers must make available office addresses and

D. Departmental Examination Officer

The correct answer is option [B] B. Registrar

begining of the examination, and to the end of the

The ban of the compulsory sale of handouts, course-

based textbooks and practical manuals by the Senate was

A. 104th and 107th The correct answer is option [D]

examination, he is expected to be present for at the

The correct answer is option [A]

To ensure the proper registration of students at the end

D. any time not more than 3 weeks

The correct answer is option [B]

Where it is not possible for the internal examiner to be

On completion of the attendance

C. Faculty Examination Officer

D. All of the above

The correct answer is option [D]

All examination scripts are to be

B. Head of Department's office