CFY-2327_PH-4_IITJEE

CFY-2327_PT-4_A-LOT_IITJEE Pattern
FIITJEE - PHASE TEST

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
PH-4 IITJEE PATTERN CFY-2327
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 255
 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
 You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
BATCHES – CFY 2327 PH-4
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. SECTION-I is Physics, SECTION -II is Chemistry and SECTION -III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & C in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each
character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the
designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.
(i) PART–A (01–07) contains 7 Multiple Choice Questions which have One or More Correct answer.
For each question in the group Q. 01 – 07 of PART – A you will be awarded
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: 1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will result
in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result in 1
mark, as a wrong option is also darkened.
(ii) Part-A (08-14) – Contains seven (07) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.
(iii) Part-A (15-18) - This section contains Two paragraphs. Based on each table, there are Two multiple choice
questions. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for the correct answer.
There is no negative marking.
(iv) Part-A (19-20) – This section contains Two (02) List-Match Sets, each List-Match set has One (01) Multiple
Choice Questions. Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II. FOUR options are given in each
Multiple Choice Question based On List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the
condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question. Each question carries +3 Marks for correct combination
chosen and -1 mark for wrong options chosen.
(v) Part-C (01-06) contains six (06) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals and round off the value to Two decimal places. (e.g., 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -
.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative
marking.
Name of the Candidate:__________________________________________________
Batch:________________________ Date of Examination:______________________
Enrolment Number:_____________________________________________________
FIITJEE Patna Centre, 2nd floor, Saday Bhawan, Marwari Awas Complex, Fraser Road, Patna, Ph. : 9534599992, 9534699992
e-mail – info.patna@fiitjee.com , website: www.fiitjee.com
SECTION – I (PHYSICS)
PART – A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
1. A wave of frequency 1000 Hz travels between X and Y, a distance of 600 m in 2 seconds.
The number of wavelengths and speed of wave in distance XY:
(A) 300 (B) 2000 (C) 300 ms-1 (D) 2000 ms-1
2. Which of the following are of some use for human being?

(A) LASER (B) SONAR (C) sonic boom (D) reverberation
3. The transverse wave moving to right at certain moment is as shown in figure, then
Q
P
R S
(A) acceleration of P is negative and velocity is negative.

(B) acceleration of Q is negative and velocity is positive.
(C) acceleration of R is positive and velocity is positive.
(D) acceleration of S is positive and velocity is negative.
4. If wind blows along the line joining a stationary sounding object and a stationary listener, then
the apparent frequency n’ and actual frequency are not related as
(A) n’  n (B) n’ < n (C) n’ = n (D) n’ >n
5. The velocity time graph of a particle starting from v (m/s)

4
rest from a point P is shown here. Particle will reach
P again, after staring from P in what time and with 2
what speed?
(A) 4 m/s t (s)
P 6 8
(B) 8 m/s
(C) 12s
(D) 16s
space for rough work
6. The value of acceleration at certain distance from the surface of earth is g/4. The distance
could be (where R is radius of earth)
(A) R (B) 2R (C) 3R/4 (D) 4R
7. An object weighs 10 N in air. When fully immersed in water, it weighs only 8 N. The weight of
the liquid displaced by the object cannot be :
(A) 2N (B) 8 N (C) 10 N (D) 12 N
(Single Correct Choice Type)

and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
8. A tuning fork sends sound waves in air, if the temperature of the air increases, which of the
following parameters will change
(A) Displacement amplitude (B) Frequency
(C) Wavelength (D) Time period
9. The given wave form represents a transverse wave produced by vibrating one end of taut
string. The time period of string is 0.5 sec. The speed of wave is
Displacement
0.2 m
distance
– 0.2 m
5m
(A) 1 m/s (B) 2 m/s (C) 4m/s (D) 3 m/s
10. A person standing between two vertical cliffs produces a sound. Two successive echoes are
heard at 4s and 6s. The speed of sound is 320 m/s. Then the distance between the two cliffs
is
(A) 1200 m (B) 1000 m (C) 800 m (D) 1600 m
11. The intensity of sound from a point source is 1.0  10 8 W / m2 at a distance of 5.0 m from the
source. The intensity at 25 m from the source is
(A) 4  10 10 W / m 2 (B) 20  10 10 W / m 2 (C) 5  108 W / m 2 (D) 25  10 8 W / m 2
12. At t = 0, an arrow is fired vertically upwards with a speed of 100 m/s. A second arrow is fired
vertically upwards with the same speed at t = 5 s. Then (take g = 10 m/s 2)
(A) The two arrows will be at the same height above the ground at t = 5 s.
(B) The two arrows will reach back their starting points at t = 20 s and at t = 25 s.
(C) The ratio of the speeds of the first and second arrows at t = 20 s will be 3 : 1
(D) The maximum height attained by either arrow will be 1000 m.
13. A cycle is going on a horizontal road towards west. The frictional force on the rear wheel of
the vehicle by the road
(A) is towards west if the vehicle is accelerating.
(B) is non-zero if the vehicle is moving with a uniform velocity.
(C) must be towards west.
(D) must be towards east
(Neglect any force by the air)
14. A body of mass m is moving in a straight line at a constant speed v. Its kinetic energy is K and
the magnitude of its momentum is p. which of the following relations are correct ?
2K 2K
(A) v  (B) 2K = pv (C) p = 2mK (D) p 
p m
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, there are 2 questions. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B) , (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for question Nos. 15 to 16
An object of mass 40kg is raised to a height of 10 m above the ground (given g = 10 m/s2)
15. What is the change in its potential energy

(A) 2000J (B) 4000J (C) 1000 J (D) 8000 J
16. Now it is allowed to fall feely. Find its kinetic energy when it is half way down.
(A) 2000J (B) 4000J (C) 1000 J (D) 8000 J
For the wave shown in figure, if its speed is 320 m/sec, then: y
17. Frequency of the wave is, O x

(A)1000 Hz (B)2000 Hz
(C)3000 Hz (D)1500 Hz x = 40 cm
18. Time period is

(A) 5  10 3 sec (B) 5  10 4 sec (C) 3  10 3 sec (D) 2  10 4 sec
PART – A: (MatrixMatch Type)
This section contains TWO (02) Matching List Sets. Each set has TWO Multiple Choice Question.
List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY
ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
19. Column I describes the motion of the object and one or more of the entries of column II may
be the cause of motion described in column I. Match the entries of column I with the entries of
column II.
Column I Column II
An object is moving towards east The net force acting on the object must be
(A) (P)
towards east.
An object is moving towards east At least one force must act towards east
(B) (Q)
with constant acceleration
An object is moving towards west No force may act towards east
(C) (R)
with varying accelerating
An object if moving towards east No force may act on the object
(D) (S)
with constant velocity
(A) ARS, BPQ, CR, DRS (B) APQ, BRS, CR, DRS
(C) AR, BPQ, CRS, DRS (D) ARS, BRS, CR, DPQ
20. Match the following

COLUMN – I COLUMN – II
(A) Longitudinal sound wave (P) Crest & trough
(B) Transverse wave (Q) Compressions & rarefactions

(C) Mechanical wave (R) Can travel through vacuum
(D) Light wave (S) Requires material medium for propagation
(A) APS,BQS,CPQS,DPR (B) AQS,BPR,CPQS,DPR
(C) APQS,BPS,CQS,DPR (D) APR,BPS,CPQS,DQS
Numerical Answer Type

Part-C (01-06) contains six (06) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries
+4 marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.
1. A man fired a bullet against a wall and hears an echo after 2s. he walks 80 m towards the wall
and fired bullet, such that he hears echo after 1s. If the distance from wall to the second fired
place is 80 × y, then find y
2. Intensity of a sound is I  10 12 W / m 2 then sound intensity in decibels is _____________.
3. The frequency of a transverse wave is 25 kHz its speed in air and oil are 500 m/s and 1500
m/s respectively. Ratio of its wavelength in oil and the air is?
4. Distance between two adjacent particles which are in the opposite phase in a progressive
wave in 20 cm. Determine the velocity of the wave in ms-1, if its frequency is 10 Hz
5. A sound wave has a frequency of 15000 Hz and a wavelength of 9.8 cm. Find the time taken
by it (in second) to cover 8.82 km.
6. The area of cross section of the two arms of a hydraulic press are 3cm2 and 9cm2
respectively. A force of 3N is applied on the water on 3 cm 2 arm. What force should be applied
on water on 9 cm2 arm so that water may remains in equilibrium?
SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)
PART – A
1. Which of the following electron configuration(s) follow the Pauli’s exclusion principle?
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p7 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 (C) 1s2 2s2 (D) 1s2 2s2 2p4 3s3.
2. According to Bohr’s model,

(A) Energy of an electron is discrete not continuous
(B) an electron revolves in a fixed orbit and does not loses energy during revolution
(C) angular momentum of an electron is quantized
(D) when an electron jumps from a higher orbit to lower orbit, energy equal to the energy of
higher orbit is released in the form of photons.
3. Which of the following elements has half filled ‘p’ subshell?

(A) Nitrogen (B) Potassium (C) Phosphorous (D) Argon
4. Choose the correct statement(s)

235 231
(A) 92 Uand 90 Th is a pair of isodiaphers
39 40
(B) 19 K and 20 Ca is a pair of isotones
(C) NH3 and CH4 are iso-electronic species
(D) Isobars have similar chemical properties but different physical properties.
5. Rate of evaporation
(A) increases with increase in temperature (B) increases with increase in surface area
(C) decrease with increase in humidity (D) decrease with increase in wind speed
6. Which of the following match is/are correct

(A) Maximum number of electrons in a principal shell (n) → 2n2 rule.
(B) Maximum number of orbitals of orbital in a shell → n2 rule
(C) Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom → 2  +1 rule
(D) Total number of subshells in a principal shell → 2n2 rule
7. Isotones (s) of 76
32 Ge is (are)
(A) 78
34 Se
(B) 77
33 As
(C) 77
34 Se
(D) 77
32 Ge
8. Which of the following pairs of ions have the same electronic configuration :
(A) Cr3+ , Fe3+ (B) Fe3+ , Mn2+ (C) Fe3+ , Co3+ (D) Sc3+ , Cr3+
9. Two elements X and Y have 6 & 2 electrons in their M-shell and L-shell respectively. Find the
ratio of atomic number of X & Y
(A) 3:4 (B) 1:4 (C) 4:1 (D) 6:7
10. Isotopes exhibit same chemical properties because

(A) They contain same number of protons
(B) they have same number of neutrons
(C) they have same number of electrons in outermost orbit
(D) they have different number of electrons
11. The quantum number of electrons of an element are given below:

n=2, I=0, m=0, s=+1/2 for which element this is not possible
(A) Hydrogen (B) Lithium (C) Beryllium (D) Boron
12. Which of the following transitions will have the minimum wavelength?
(A) n 4  n1 (B) n 2  n1 (C) n4  n2 (D) n3  n1
13. Splitting of spectral lines under the influence of magnetic field is called
(A) Zeeman effect (B) Stark effect
(C) Photoelectric effect (D) None of these
14. Atomic weight of Ne is 20.2 Ne is a mixture of Ne20 and Ne22. Relative abundance of heavier
isotope is
(A) 90 (B) 20 (C) 40 (D) 10
Paragraph Type
Solubility of a substance is defined as the amount of the solute which can be dissolved in a particular
amount of solvent at a given temperature
amount of solute
Solubility   100
amount of solvent
15. 5g of a solute dissolved in 25g of water to form a saturated solution at 25°C. Calculate the
solubility of the solute
(A) 15g (B) 20g (C) 13g (D) 10g
16. A China dish weighs 25 g when empty. When a saturated solution of potassium chloride is
poured into it at 40°C, the weight of the dish is 63g. When the solution is totally evaporated,
the china dish along with the crystals weighs 40g. Find the solubility of potassium chloride at
40°C.
(A) 35 (B) 65.2 (C) 39.5 (D) 7.5
An electron in an atom can be completely designated with the help of four quantum numbers. Out of
these, the first three i.e. principal (n), azimuthal (I) and magnetic (m) quantum numbers are obtained
from the solution of Schrodinger wave equation while the spin (s) quantum number arises from the
spin of the electron around its axis clockwise or anticlockwise. Out of these principal quantum
numbers tells about the size. Azimuthal quantum numbers about the shape and magnetic quantum
signifies the orientation of the electron orbital
17. The maximum number of electrons in a subshell having the same value of spin quantum
number is given by
(A) I+2 (B) 2I+1 (C)4l+2 (D) I I  1
18. For magnetic quantum number m=0, 1, 2 the value of the principle shell is
(A) n=2 (B) n=4 (C) n=3 (D) n=5

19. Match the following
List-I List-II
I Na P Valence electron in 3rd orbit
II P Q Valence electron in 2nd orbit
III Li R Half filled subshell
IV Mg S One unpaired electron
T Zero unpaired electron
(A) I  PRS, II  PS, III  QRS, IV  PT

(B) I  PS, II  PR, III  QRS, IV  PT
(C) I  PR, II  PS, III  QS, IV  PT
(D) I  PRS, II  PS, III  RS, IV  PT
20. Match the column
Column – I (Principle) Column – II (Discover)

(A) Exclusion Principle (P) Hund
(Q
(B) Multiplicity rule Heisenberg
(C) Uncertainty Principle (R) Pauli
(D) Quantum Theory (S) Planck
(A) AR,BP,CQ,DS (B) AP,BR,CQ,DS

(C) AQ,BP,CR,DS (D) AS,BP,CQ,DR

1. Numbers of moles of O3 in its 5.6 L is ‘X’ at STP. The value of 12X is
2. Calculate the value of Y for a photon when the wave length is 10–8m & frequency is
Y×1016sec–1.
3. Beryllium atom has 4 protons, 5 neutrons, and 4 electrons. What is the mass number of this
atom?
1
4. In an atom with 2K, 8L, 11M & 2N electrons, the no. of electron with m=0, s= are
2
5. The no. of unpaired e– in Ni++ ions is.
6. Total number of orbitals associated with third shell will be
SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)

PART – A
1. A circus tent is in the form of a right circular cone above it. The diameter and the height of the
right cylindrical part of the tent are 24 m and 5 m respectively. The total height of tent is 14
cm. If cost of canvas is Rs. 7 per square metre then which of the following is/are correct ?
(A) Slant height of the cone is 13 cm (B) Curved surface area of the cone is 180 m2
(C) Total cost of tent is Rs. 6600. (D) Total surface area is equal to 400  m2.
2. If length and breadth of a cuboid are increased by 10% and height is decreased by 20% then
(A) percentage increase in surface area is 20%
(B) percentage increase in surface area is 7.28%
(C) percentage increase in volume is 0%
(D) percentage decrease in volume is 3.2%
3. A cone, a hemisphere & a cylinder stand on equal bases and have the same height. Then
(A) their volumes are equal
(B) their volumes are in ratio 1 : 2 : 3
(C) their lateral surface areas are equal
(D) their lateral surface areas are in the ratio 1: 2 : 2
4. In a class of 30 students,some student play football while some other play hockey. One of the
students was selected randomly, what is the probability that the student play hockey?
5 1
(A) (B) (C) 0 (D) 1
6 2
5. Three points A, B and C are on the circumference of a circle of radius 10 m and the three
points are at equal distances on the circumference of the circle. Find the length of AB.
30
(A) (B) 10 3 (C) 30 (D) Both A and B
3
6. 5 coins are tossed simultaneously by a 3 years old boy and no record was found for the
respective outcomes. Which of the following may be the probability of getting 2 heads only?
3 5 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) all
4 36 7
1 1
7. The probability of occurrence of two events A and B are and respectively. The probability
4 2
7
of simultaneous occurrence is . Find the probability that either A or B must occur
50
61 29 39 56
(A) (B) (C) (D)
100 100 100 99

8. Construction of a triangle is not possible if :

(A) AB + BC < AC (B) AB + BC = AC (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) AB + BC > AC
9. If I is the incentre of ABC, ABC  65 and ACB  55, then BlC is
(A) 110° ` (B) 120° (C) 130° (D) 140°
10. Quadrilateral formed by the interior angle bisectors of any quadrilateral is

(A) Cyclic (B) collinear (C) non collinear (D) none
11. If x + y = 1, kx + y = 2 has no solution then the value of k – 1 is

(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) 24
1 1 1 1
12. The value of     .........to 99 terms is
1 2 2 3 2 3 3 4
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 99  1 (D) 1  99
13. Find the remainder when x100 is divided by x 2  3x  2

(A)  2100  1 x   2100  2  (B) 2100  1 x  2100  2    
(C)  2 100
 
1 x  2 100
2  (D)  2 100
 
2 x 2 100

1
14. In a rhombus ABCD, diagonal AC and BD interest each other at point O and AC is inclined to
AB by an angle of 300. The length of perpendicular drawn to diagonal AC is 2nd perfect square
number. The area of the rhombus is
(A) 64 3 (B) 128 3 (C) 32 3 (D) none of these
Paragraph Type
A die is thrown once, then answer the question given below :
15. Find the probability of getting a prime number

1 1
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) 0
6 2
16. Find the probability of getting a number lying between 2 and 6.

1 1
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) 0
6 2
Paragraph for Questions 17 to 18
A function p  x  of the form

p  x   a0  a1x  a2 x 2  a3 x 3    an x n is known as a polynomial where a0 , a1, a2 ,    an are real
numbers and ‘n’ is a positive integer. A quadratic polynomial of the form ax 2  bx  c has two roots,
say α and β, then
b
  
a
c
 
a
Conversely if α & β are two roots given, then
p  x    x    x   
17. Which of the following is a polynomial

1
1 1
(A) Numbers from -∞ to +∞ (B) x 100  x 99  x2
2 5 5

1  7 
(C) x  (D)  
x2  50 
x
1 1
18. For a quadratic polynomial 3 x 2  5 x  9, find  where α and β are the roots for the
 2  2
given polynomial.
7 5 5 7
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
9 9 27 3

19. Match the following with respect to their volumes:

LIST – I LIST – II
(I) A cylinder with r = 20 cm, h = 12 cm (P) 3 cones with r = 10 cm, h = 48 cm
(II) 3 cones with r = 40 cm, h = 3 cm (Q) A cone with r = 10 cm, h = 5 cm

(III) A sphere with radius 5 cm (R) A hemisphere with r = 6 cm
400 cylinders with r = 2 cm, h = 3
(IV) 2 cylinder with r = 6 cm, h = 2 cm (S)
cm
(A) IPS, IIPS, IIIQ, IVR (B) IR, IIPS, IIIQ, IVPS
(C) IQ, IIPS, IIIPS, IVR (D) IPS, IIPS, IIIR, IVQ
20. Match the following:-
LIST – I LIST – II
log4  x  1  log4  x  8 
(I) If 3 (P) 4
 , then value(s)of x is / are
2
 9
(II) If x  x  5  6 and x < 0, then  x   is equal to (Q) 2
 2 
The remainder when 2 x 5  x 3  1 is divided by
(III) 16k  15 (R) 0
 2x  1 is k. Then is equal to
16
The value of the expression
(IV) (S) 1
x 4  8 x 3  18 x 2  8 x  2;when x  2  3
(A) IPS, IIPS, IIIQ, IVR (B) IR, IIS, IIIQ, IVP
(C) IR, IIP, IIIQ, IVS (D) IPS, IIPS, IIIR, IVQ

1. In figure, M is the mid-point of arc APB. O is the centre of the circle. If BOA = K (BAM)
then K =
2. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle and diameter AB bisects the chord CD at a
point E such that CE = ED = 8 cm and EB = 4 cm. The radius of the circle is r. The value of
r/2 is
O
A E B
3. The value of 4
81  8 3 216
15 5 32  225  ________
1 1
4. The value of log7+log +log 72 +log 2 is
7 7
5. Chords AB and CD are on the same side of the centre of a circle (0, 10) having their lengths
12 cm and 16 cm. The distance between the two chords is
4
6. A hemispherical tank full of water is emptied by pipe at the rate of 3 litres per second. How
7
much time will it take to make the tank half empty, if the tank is 3 m in diameter. If the time
taken is 16.5x minutes, then value of x is
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

BATCH: Four Year CRP (2327) A LOT
PHASE – IV
IIT-JEE LEVEL
ANSWER KEY
SECTION-I PHYSICS SECTION-II CHEMISTRY SECTION-III MATHEMATICS
Sl. No.
Part-A Part-A Part-A
1. BC P09000603 BC C09000404 BC M09100203
2. ABD P09000605 ABC C09000403 D M09150201
3. ABCD P09000606 AC C09000404 BD M09100203
4. BD P09000603 ABC C0900405 AB M09100203
5. AC P09000106 ABC C09000105 D M09000701
6. AC P09000301 AB C09000404 D M09100702
7. BCD P09000404 AB C09000311 A M09100701
8. C P09000601 B C09000404 C M09000601
9. B P09000603 C C09000303 B M09000601
10. D P09000602 C C09000311 A M09000702
11. A P09000604 A C09000409 B M09000501
12. B P09000104 A C09000407 A M09000104
13. A P09000207 A C09000407 A M09000101
14. C P09000504 D C09000305 A M09000702
15. B P09000503 B C09000205 B M09000701
16. A P09000503 B C09000205 B M09000701
17. B P09000603 B C09000409 A M09000202
18. B P09000603 C C09000409 C M09000202
19. A P09000203 A C09000404 A M09100201
20. B P09000601 A C09000404 C M09000105
PART – C
NUMERICAL BASED
1. 1 P09000602 3 C09000304 4 M09000901
2. 0 P09000604 3 C09000407 5 M09000901
3. 3 P09000603 9 C09000303 0 M09000101
4. 4 P09000603 7 C09000409 0 M09000105
5. 5 P09000603 2 C09000404 2 M09000901
6. 9 P09000401 9 C09000404 1 M09100203
Solution
Physics
1. BC
600m
Sol:- Speed   300ms1
2s
300 600
  No. of wavelength   1000  2000
1000 300
2. ABD
Sol:- Sonic loom is created by objects moving at speed higher than that of sound.
3. ABCD
Sol:- A restoring force acts on each particle and shape trades to right.
4. BD
 
Sol:- n '   apparent 
V
 apparent 
5. AC
Sol:- Area of graph = 0
1 2 1
     t  8
2
2 8 2
t  128
speed  4 ms1
6. AC
g g
2 
Sol:-  above surface 
4  d
1  R 
 
dR
g  d
and  g 1  
4  R
3R
d
4
7. BCD
Sol:- Weight of Displaced
Water = 10 N – 8 N = 2 N
8. C
Sol:- Temperature change causes speed change, this changes the wavelength.
9. B
Sol:- 5m  5    1m
v  .f  1 2  2ms1
10. D
Cliff 1 Cliff 2
S
X Y
Sol:-
2x
4 ... 1
320
2y
6 ....  2 
320
4 6
 x  y  320    
2 2
 1600 m
11. A
I2 r12 52
Sol:-   I2  10 8  2  4  1010 w / m2
I1 r2 25
12. B
Sol:- Time of flight for each arrow = 20 s Hence they will reach ground at t = 20 s and t = 25 s
13. A
Sol:- Frictional force provides acceleration.
14. C
2
1  mv  P2
Sol:- K  mv 2      P  2mK
2  2m  2m
15. B
Sol:- mgh  40  10  10  4000 J
16. A
Sol:- V 2  2gh  2  10  5  100
1 1
mv 2   40  100  2000 J
2 2
17. B
40 C.M
Sol:-     16 CM
2.5
320
f  2000 Hz
0.16
18. B
1 1
Sol:- T    5  10 4 sec
f 2000
19. A
Sol:- A  R,S
B  P,Q
CR
D  R,S
20. B
Sol:- A  Q,S
B  P,R
C  P,Q,R
D  P,R
1. 1
2x
Sol:-  2
v
2x  160
1
v
 v  160 ms1 speed of sound
80    80  1  y  1
2. 0
1012
Sol:- 10 log  10 log1  6  0 db
1012
3. 3
1500
Sol:- 3
500
4. 4

Sol:-  20 cm
2
  40 cm  0.4 m
V  10  0.4  4 ms1
5. 6
8.82  103
Sol:- t  6
15000  9.8  102
6. 9
Sol:- P  F / A
F  3  3 N  9N

CFY-2327_PH-4_IITJEE

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FIITJEE - PHASE TEST

Name of the Candidate:__________________________________________________

Batch:________________________ Date of Examination:______________________

2. Which of the following are of some use for human being?

(A) acceleration of P is negative and velocity is negative.

5. The velocity time graph of a particle starting from v (m/s)

space for rough work

(Single Correct Choice Type)

(A) 1 m/s (B) 2 m/s (C) 4m/s (D) 3 m/s

Paragraph for question Nos. 15 to 16

15. What is the change in its potential energy

Paragraph for question Nos. 17 to 18

17. Frequency of the wave is, O x

18. Time period is

space for rough work

20. Match the following

(A) Longitudinal sound wave (P) Crest & trough

(B) Transverse wave (Q) Compressions & rarefactions

Numerical Answer Type

2. Intensity of a sound is I  10 12 W / m 2 then sound intensity in decibels is _____________.

space for rough work

2. According to Bohr’s model,

3. Which of the following elements has half filled ‘p’ subshell?

4. Choose the correct statement(s)

6. Which of the following match is/are correct

10. Isotopes exhibit same chemical properties because

11. The quantum number of electrons of an element are given below:

Paragraph for question Nos. 17 to 18

PART – A: (MatrixMatch Type)

19. Match the following

(A) I  PRS, II  PS, III  QRS, IV  PT

20. Match the column

Column – I (Principle) Column – II (Discover)

(C) Uncertainty Principle (R) Pauli

(D) Quantum Theory (S) Planck

(A) AR,BP,CQ,DS (B) AP,BR,CQ,DS

Numerical Answer Type

1. Numbers of moles of O3 in its 5.6 L is ‘X’ at STP. The value of 12X is

5. The no. of unpaired e– in Ni++ ions is.

6. Total number of orbitals associated with third shell will be

space for rough work

SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)

(Single Correct Choice Type)

8. Construction of a triangle is not possible if :

10. Quadrilateral formed by the interior angle bisectors of any quadrilateral is

11. If x + y = 1, kx + y = 2 has no solution then the value of k – 1 is

13. Find the remainder when x100 is divided by x 2  3x  2

Paragraph for question Nos. 15 to 16

A die is thrown once, then answer the question given below :

15. Find the probability of getting a prime number

16. Find the probability of getting a number lying between 2 and 6.

Paragraph for Questions 17 to 18

A function p  x  of the form

17. Which of the following is a polynomial

space for rough work

PART – A: (MatrixMatch Type)

19. Match the following with respect to their volumes:

(I) A cylinder with r = 20 cm, h = 12 cm (P) 3 cones with r = 10 cm, h = 48 cm

(II) 3 cones with r = 40 cm, h = 3 cm (Q) A cone with r = 10 cm, h = 5 cm

20. Match the following:-

Numerical Answer Type

space for rough work

FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Batch:__ Date of Examination: