GROUP 1-BOARD EXAM TRIAL ON CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

Prepared by: Prof. Kimberly Dayagro, 2nd Placer, August 2023 CLE
July-August 2024 Criminologist Licensure Examination

Instructions: Read carefully. Choose the best answer for each question. Shade the correct letter in the separate
shading sheet provided. Do not forget to write your name and the subject of your test questionnaire in your shading
sheet.

CA1 -INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTIONS 7. A facility or a place of confinement for inmates

1. It is the study and practice of a systematic coming from a city or clustered municipalities that are
management of jails or prisons and other institutions waiting or undergoing trial or serving a sentence of one
concerned with the custody, treatment, and (1) day to three (3) years.
rehabilitation of criminal offenders. a. City Jail
a. Correctional Administration b. District Jail
b. Penology c. Municipal Jail
c. institutional Correction d. Provincial Jail
d. Non- Institutional Correction
8. It refers to the commission of other crimes during
2. Long, low, narrow, single-decked ships propelled by the service of sentence of penalty imposed for another
sails usually rowed by criminals. A type of ship used for previous offense.
transportation of criminals in the 16th century. a. Habitual Delinquency
a. galleys b. Reiteration
b. hulks c. Quasi Recidivism
c. gaols d. Recidivism
d Benefit of clergy
9. Is a group created as a backup force equipped with
teargas and gas grenades.
3. A person who is sentenced to serve imprisonment a. 1st group
for not more than six months. b. 2nd group
a. Municipal prisoner c. 3rd group
b. City prisoner d. 4th group
c. Insular prisoner
d. Provincial Prisoner 10. A warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and
the signature of a judge, directing the jail or prison
4. When retribution is imposed upon a person who has authorities to receive inmates for custody or service of
committed a crime, the discomfort inflicted will sentence imposed is called.
dissuade the offender (and others) from repeating the a. Court order
crime. b. Commitment order
a. Deterrence c. Mittimus order
b. Special deterrence d. Confinement order
c. General deterrence
d. Retributive Justice 11. The Bureau of Correction has an admission
program for newly committed offenders to remain in
5. A body search of this type pats the subject’s body the reception and diagnostic center for a period of.
over the clothing in a more thorough manner where a. 30 days
the genital, buttocks, and breasts are carefully b. 20 days
searched for the presence of contraband. c. 45 days
a. Strip Search d. 60 days
b. Pat - Frisk or Pat
c. Cavity Search 12. The person responsible for the processing of
d. Rub Search inmates release, verification of data on Inmate’s
Carpeta to that of the Release Order and routing of
6. It is an elite tactical unit trained to perform high-risk release papers to the proper signatories are none other
operations that fall outside the operational abilities of than:
the regular BJMP personnel and is equipped with a. Property Custodian
specialized skills and sophisticated firearms and b. Records /Admin Officer
equipment. c. Desk Officer
a. SWAT d. Jail Warden
b. STAR
c. Emergency Response Team
d. BJMP Quick Response Team

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13. Refers to assigning or to grouping of inmates a. 25 days
according to their respective penalty, gender, age, b. 30 days
nationality, health, criminal records, etc. c. 35 days
a. Diversification d. 60 days
b. Segregation
c. Classification 21. A written order of the court, or any other agency
d. Commitment authorized by law to issue, entrusting an inmate to a
jail for the purpose of safekeeping during the pendency
14. Refers to the temporary custody of a person for of his/her case.
his/her own protection from the community he or she a. Commitment Order
comes from. b. Mittimus Order
a. Rehabilitation c. Carpeta
b. Custody d. Warrant of arrest
c. Confinement
d. Safekeeping 22. Are those inmates who are physically or mentally
weak for a prolonged period specifically caused by age
15. If the detention prisoner does not agree to abide or illness.
by the same disciplinary rules imposed upon convicted a. Infirmed Inmates
prisoners, he shall be credited in the service of his b. Inmates with disabilities
sentence with ---- of the time during which he has c. Sickly Inmates
undergone preventive imprisonment. d. Physically incapable inmates
a. Fulltime
b. Three-Fourths 23. A sentence of imprisonment for the maximum
c. Four-Fifths period define by law subject to the termination by the
d. One half parole board at any time after service of the minimum
period.
16. Aims to eliminate in all BJMP manned facilities any a. Determinate sentence
form of contraband that could have adverse b. Indefinite sentence
implications on the overall administration of the c. Definite sentence
facilities and ultimately order in all jails, promote d. Indeterminate sentence
operational efficiency, and encourage adherence to
prescribed operating policies. 24. The escape from jail by more than two (2) inmates
a. STAR Team- Special tactics and response team by the use of force, threat, violence, or deceit.
b. Shakedown Force a. Jailbreak
c. Greyhound Force b. Jail escape
d. Operations Group c. Jump Jail
d. Jail Slip
17. Are prisoners who cannot be trusted in open
conditions and pose less danger to society if they 25. Refers to the visit by the wife for a short period,
escape. usually an hour, more or less, to her incarcerated
a. Medium security prisoner husband during which they are allowed privacy and are
b. Minimum security prisoner generally understood to have sexual contact.
c. Maximum Security prisoner a. Marital visit
d. None of the above b. Sexual visit
c. Conjugal visit
18. Those considered as highly dangerous or with high d. None of these
probability of escaping or being rescued because of the
gravity of the crimes they are accused of or have a 26. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National
propensity for being troublemakers Penitentiary in the Philippines under the BUCOR is
a. Maximum Security Prisoner located in_____.
b. Super Maximum-Security Prisoner
c. High Risk Inmates a. Palawan
d. High Profile Inmates b. Davao
c. Zamboanga
19. Are those that may not be classified as illegal under d. Occ. Mindoro
the Philippine laws but are forbidden by jail rules i.e.
cellphone, money or other commodities of exchange 27. National prisoners are convicted offenders who are
such as jewelry, appliances and gadgets, sentenced to serve a prison term of _____.
a. Contraband A. Six months to three years
b. Illegal Contraband B. Less than six months
c. Legal Contraband C. Six years and below
d. Nuisance Contraband D. Three years and above

20. An inmate who is about to be released shall be

proceeded to the separation and placement center for
how many days before his actual release.

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28. When a jailbreak, escape or riot is in progress or d. Willful waste of food.
has just been perpetrated in the jail, the officer at the
control centers shall immediately. 36. Jose, while inside the prison, discreetly encourages
a. sound the alarm and marks his cellmates with tattoos as a sign of gang
b. notify the nearest police precinct membership and keeping paraphernalia used in
c. locked prisoners in their respective cells tattooing. What kind of offense does Jose commit?
d. call the warden or Director a. minor offense
b. major offense
29. If the Warden is taken as a hostage he ceases to c. grave offense
exercise authority and the next in command or the d. less grave offense
officer present shall assume the command.
a. Veteran 37. Roi is making frivolous or groundless complaints
b. assistant about other inmates due to jealousy.
c. most senior a. minor offense
d. custodial b. major offense
c. grave offense
d. less grave offense
30. The Penalty imposed for offenders must be
certain, This means that? 38. On rules to be followed when transporting inmates.
a. the guilty one must be the one to be punished, no Long-distance transport of one (1) or more inmates
proxy. shall be escorted by:
b. no one must escape its effect a. minimum of three (3) escort personnel and a backup
c. it must be equal to all person vehicle, if available;
d. the consequences must be in accordance with the b. minimum of four (4) escort personnel and a backup
law vehicle, if available;
c. minimum of five (5) escort personnel and a backup
31. In the history of Correction, thinkers during the vehicle, if available;
reformatory movement were the major influence on d. minimum of two (2) escort personnel and a backup
today’s correctional system, Alexander Moonachie was vehicle, if available;
the one who introduced the:
a. Solitary system
b. Marked system 39. A search, which involves the inspection of the anus
c. Irish system and/or vaginal area, generally requiring the subject to
d. Congregate system bend over and spread the cheeks of the buttocks; to
squat and/or otherwise expose body cavity orifices.
32. It is a modern form of punishment either instead a. Strip Search
of imprisonment or limited to an alien, who may be b. Pat - Frisk or Pat - Down Search
returned to their country of origin or of current c. Visual body cavity search -
citizenship. d. Rub Search
a. extradition
b. deportation 40. It is the escalating level of force commencing from
c. destierro no force, to non-deadly force and ultimately, to deadly
d. Incarceration force.
a. Excessive Force
33. It means “produce the body” of a detained person b. Reasonable force
a. corpus delicti c. Force Continuum
b habeas corpus d. Force Majure
c. habeas data
d. writ of amparo 41. A dynamic stand-alone client application software
is used in the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
34. Components of chemicals used in Lethal Injection (BJMP) Jails nationwide to automate the inmates’
that are capable of stopping heartbeat within seconds records.
and this is commonly used in Heart-by-pass operations. a. AFIS -
a. sodium thiopental – a sleep-inducing barbiturate, b. NIMS- National Inmate Monitoring System
b. pancuronium bromide – a drug capable of paralyzing c. registration book
the muscles; d. Mugshots
c. potassium chloride
d. sodium chloride 42. In the BJMP manning level, the PDL and
Reformation officer has the ratio of?
a. 1:7
35. the following are minor offenses: EXCEPT: b. 1:24
a. Making frivolous or groundless complaints; c. 2:1
b. Swearing, cursing, or using profane or defamatory d. 1:3
language directed at other persons;
c. Reporting late for inmate formation and inmate 43. In the BJMP manning level, the PDL and Custodial
headcount without justifiable reasons; and officer have a ratio of?

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a. 1:7 51. Pedro stayed in the confinement facility even if the
b. 1:24 earthquake shattered and damaged some of the prison
c. 2:1 walls. What special time allowance of loyalty can be
d. 1:3 granted to him given that he is a prisoner?
a. A deduction of two-fifths (2/5) of the period of his
sentence shall be granted
44. An agency under the Department of Justice (DOJ), b. A deduction of one-fifth (1/5) of the period of his
tasked to effectively rehabilitate and safe keep national sentence shall be granted
prisoners sentenced to more than three (3) years, c. A deduction of four-fifths (4/5) of the period of his
sentence shall be granted
a. BUCOR d. A deduction of three-fifths (3/5) of the period of his
b. BJMP sentence shall be granted
c. TCMP
d. BPP
52. The mandate of the BUCOR shall include decent
45. refers to information concerning an. inmate's provision of quarters, food, water, and clothing in
personal circumstances, the offense he. committed, compliance with established United Nations standards.
sentenced imposed, criminal case number. a. Reformation
b. Rehabilitation
a. Carpeta c. Safekeeping
b. Mittimus Order d. Commitment
c. Commitment Order
d. Prison Record 53. A suffering inflicted on an individual for the
transgression of law.
46. The following is all the information a registration a. Penalty
book shall contain; except: b. Punishment
b. Reason for commitment and the authority therefor; c. Imprisonment
c. Sentence; d. Incarceration
d. Date and hour of commission of the crime
e. Date and hour of discharge or transfer and basis 54. This prison system was considered more
therefor. advantageous because it has been observed that
prisoners finish more articles when they work in groups
47. Close confinement in a cell in BJMP shall be for a rather than working alone in their individual cells.
period between in any calendar month, provided that a. Auburn System
this disciplinary action is imposed only when other b. Pennsylvania System
disciplinary measures have been proven ineffective. c. Irish Prison System
a. 22 hours to 15 days d. Mamertime prison system
b. 1 to 7 days
c. 1 to 2 months 55. He or she checks the credentials of the person
d 5 to 6 days bringing the inmate/the committing officer to
determine his/her identity and authority.
a. Gater
48. Kent is a newly arrived inmate, what is his b. Records Unit
classification according to entitlement to privileges c. Health Unit
a. Detainee d. Desk Officer
b. Third Class inmate
c. Colonist. 56. It is one of the earliest devices for softening brutal
d. Second Class inmate the severity of punishment through a compromise with
the church.
49. Letters passed by censors shall bear the censor's a. Benefit of the clergy
stamp at --- and on the envelope and the letter shall b. Benefit of the
be placed in the same envelope and sealed is one of c. Benefit of the clergy doubts prisoner
the guidelines on censorship of mail matter. d. Good behavior benefit

a. at the top of each page 57. Means entrusting for the confinement of an inmate
b. on the reverse side to a jail by a competent court or authority, for
c. on the left side safekeeping during the pendency of his/her case.
d. at the bottom top of each page a. Detention
b. Commitment
50. A classification of dormitory with 101 to 500 inmate c. Classification
capacity and lot area of 1.5 hectares. d. Imprisonment
a. Type A Dormitory
b. Type B Dormitory 58. Orients the newly committed inmates on jail rules
c. Type C Dormitory and regulations using the Inmate’s Orientation Sheet.
d. Type D Dormitory a. Assistant Warden or Officer of the Day
b. Jail Warden

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c. Desk Officer cases brought before them within --- from the date of
d. Paralegal Officer receipt of the case.
a. 24 hours
59. An inmate who requires less supervision than b. 48 hours
others. Although assigned by special tasks but have no c. 72 hours
special privileges and cannot exercise authority over d. 12 hours
other inmates.
a. Jail volunteer 67. Headcount of inmates in BJMP shall be conducted
b. Jail guard regularly at least --- within 24 hours and strictly
c. Jail Aide implement the established procedures in counting
d. Jail Supervisor inmates.
a. 3 to 4 times
60. Correctional activities that take place in the b. 2 to 3 times
community that directly address the offender and are c.5 to 6 times
aimed at helping him to become a law-abiding citizen. d. 4 times
a. Non- Institutional Correction
b. Institutional Correction 68. The color of the uniform of an inmate for medium
c. Board of Pardons and Parole security shall be:
d. Therapeutic Community Modality a. tangerine
b. brown
c. blue
61. An in-depth interview with the newly admitted d. gray
inmate by the social worker that considers "who the
inmate is" from birth up to the present. 69. For an inmate to become a colonist, he shall serve
a. disciplinary board his imprisonment with good conduct for a period
b. Health unit equivalent to----- of the maximum term of his prison
c. Case Management sentence.
d. Social Case Study a. 1/4
b. 3/4
62. It is the process of monitoring the response of the c. 4/5
prisoner to the treatment program and conducting a d. 1/5
review of the previous findings compared to new
information available. 70. Who may revoke the grant of colonist status with
a. execution of treatment program the approval of the Director?
b. re-classification a. Superintendent
c. diagnosis b. Warden
d. treatment planning c. Undersecretary
d. Chief
63. An inmate may be released through EXCEPT
a. Service of sentence; 71. How many hours should the inmate be allowed to
b. Order of the Court; view the deceased relative in the place where the
c. Parole; remains lie in state?
d. Serious medical reason a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 3 hours
64. In Jail settings, he is the person who reports to d. 4 hours
other concerned agencies/persons about the release of
inmates for aftercare programs. 72. The convicted able-bodied inmate may be required
a. Jail Warden to work at least how many hours a day, except on
b. Desk Officer Sundays and legal Holidays.
c. Property Custodian a. 12 hours
d. Records/Admin Officer b. 7 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 9 hours
65. Is the hierarchical listing by rank of all uniformed
police personnel based on dates of promotion, 73. Jose is a person deprived of liberty and is now 58
appointment, and other established parameters in years old. Can he be excused for the mandatory prison
BJMP. labor?
a. Seniority Lineal List a. Yes, because he is considered a senior citizen
b. Jail Management List already
c. Officers list b. Yes, because he cannot perform works an able-
d. Personnel accounting list bodied man can do.
c. No, because he is not yet on the age of 60 years old
66. The Disciplinary Board shall hold sessions as often d. No, because he is not privileged enough.
as necessary in a room and shall hear and decide all

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74. All offender who demonstrates good behavior shall 82. BJMP is created under the --- of RA 6975 as one of
earn one telephone call to an authorized individual the tri-bureaus under DILG.
every how many days? a. Section 13
a. 30 b. Section 60
b. 50 c. Section 23
c. 70 d. Section 66
d. 90
83. In any case the maximum penalty is Destiero, the
person under preventive imprisonment shall be
75. A detainee is required to work in prison at least released after ---
eight (8) hours a day, except on Sundays and legal a. 7 days
holidays, in and about the prison, public buildings, b. 60 days
grounds, roads, and other public works of the national c. 25 days
government. In the interest of the service, however, d. 30 days
they may be required to work on excepted days.
a. True 84. High-risk inmates can have a maximum visitor of -
b. False --- with the duration of -----
c. Partially true a. 3 visitors, 40 mins to 1 hour
d. Partially false b. 5 visitors, 20 mins to 1 hour
c. 2 visitors, 30 mins to 1 hour
76. An act of a Jail officer or an inmate attempting to d. 4 visitors, 50 mins to 1 hour
hinder or persuade another PDL to change their
religious beliefs or way of living is called.
a. Outlawry 85. Type B jail has a population of --- persons deprived
b. Ostracism of liberty.
c. Proselytizing a. above 500
d. Conversion b. 1 to 100
c. 101 to 500
77. In a correctional facility, a head count of inmates d. above 1,000
shall be conducted --- a day or as often as necessary
to ensure that all inmates are duly accounted for. 86. What is the mandatory document to be signed by
a. 1 the detainee if he/she agrees to abide by the
b. 2 disciplinary measures similar to the convicted inmates?
c. 3 a. Records logbook
d. 4 b. Detainees Manifestation
c. Preventive imprisonment
78. Who shall issue the necessary anti-riot equipment d. Institutional Jacket
and firearms during riots and disturbances
a. Armorer 87. It is the pecuniary amount given as compensation
b. Superintendent for the criminal act.
c. Senior Correctional Officer a. fine
d. Assistant Superintendent b. bond
c. bail
79. The Director shall not order or allow an inmate to d. Recognizance
leave prison within ---- an election except for valid or
legal reasons. 88. In the new law of GCTA, Pedro was granted Good
a. 30 days before and 50 days after Conduct and Time Allowance and has been serving his
b. 60 days before and 30 days after prison sentence of 7 years. How many days per month
c. 50 days before and 30 days after was deducted from him given the fact of his 7 years
d.30 days before and 60 days after serving?
a. 20 days per month
80. Who is the appointing authority on the Assistant b. 23 days per month
Regional Director’s position of the BJMP? c. 25 days per month
a. President d. 30 days per month
b. DILG Secretary
c. Chief BJMP 89. Where is the exact location of the Reception and
d. Regional Director Diagnostic Center in the New Bilibid Prison?
a. Camp Sampaguita
81. How many days does the visitation for the Death b. Camp Bukangliwayway
convict be allowed before the date of his execution? c. Maximum Security
a. 7 days d. Minimum security
b. 15 days
c. 30 days 90. Which of the following is one of BJMP's Major
d. 12 days Programs?
a. Educational Program
b. Health Service program

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c. Decongestion Program d. 1/3
d. Provision of basic needs Program
100. The Board of Discipline shall be established by the
91. Lino is a uniformed personnel with the rank of Chief Director and must be presided over by the -----
Superintendent, who is the appointing authority? a. Superintendent
a. President b. Assistant Superintendent
b. Chief BJMP c. Director
c. DILG secretary d. Deputy Director
d. Regional Director
CA 2- NON-INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTIONS
92. Governor Luke E. Wright suggested the 1. It refers to the correction of sentenced offenders
construction of this penal institution and it was which the direct involvement to the community is said
established in 1904 through Governor Forbes. to be the key for rehabilitation and reformation.
a. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm a. institutional correction
b. Davao Penal Colony b. Community-based correction
c. Iwahig Penal Colony c. therapeutic community
d. Sablayan Prison d. Incarceration

93. An early prison where the prisoner is attached to 2. A privilege granted by the State under which a
the workbenches and forced to do hard labor. defendant, after conviction and sentence, is released
a. Maison de force subject to conditions imposed by the Trial Court and to
b. Walnut Street the supervision of a Probation Officer.
c. Elmira Reformatory a. Probation
d. Ergastulum b. Parole
c. pardon
94. A juridical condition which suggests that the d. Amnesty
punishment for different crimes must be punished by
different penalties. 3. Board of Pardons and Parole is headed by the
a. Productive of suffering chairman with the rank of?
b. Commensurate with the offense a. Secretary
c. Exemplarity b. Assistant Secretary
d. Correctional c. Undersecretary
d. Associate Secretary
95. The law that prohibits the imposition of the Death
Penalty in the Philippines. 4. Jose wants probation but he has been previously
a. RA 7659 convicted by final judgment of an offense punished by
b. RA 8177 imprisonment for 5 months and a fine of 800 pesos. Is
c. RA 8551 he qualified for probation?
d. RA 9361 a. No, because he has been previously convicted
b. Yes, because the first conviction is not more than 6
96. A code where the punishment is sanctioned months and 1 day.
according to the offender's social class. c. False
a. Code of Hammurabi d. True
b. Burgundian Code
c. Code of Urnamu 5. The application for probation shall be filed by the
d. Code of Draco petitioner to the—
a. Trial court that has the jurisdiction of the case.
97. The transfer of inmates to a provincial jail and vice b. Appellate court that has the jurisdiction of the case.
versa must be directed by the Director upon the c. Directly at the Parole and Probation office.
recommendation of the Superintendent. d. Supreme Court
a. False
b. True 6. The petitioner shall file his/her application with the
c. Yes Court at any time after conviction and sentence but
d. No within --- from the promulgation of judgment or within
the period of perfecting his/her appeal.
98. Which of the following is not a right of an inmate? a. 30 days
a. To be credited GCTA b. 15 days
b. To receive compensation for labor c. 7 days
c. To receive preferred visitors d. 5 days
d. To receive mail matters
7. Jay and Aiza were both convicted with the penalty
99. An inmate may withdraw his compensation but of 5 years. Jay doesn’t want the judgment and refers
must not exceed the ---- of his total earnings. to the higher court for appeal. On the other hand, Aiza
a. 1/4 wants to apply for probation and accordingly approved.
b. 1/5 In instances that Jay was acquitted on the appeal
c. 1/2 made, how does it affect Aiza’s Probation?

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a. Aiza shall continue her probation. 15. Is a disposition of the President to show mercy,
b. Aiza shall be acquitted too and shall stop serving her especially toward an offender or an enemy.
probation. a. Executive clemencies
c. Aiza shall appeal too and win the trial by herself. b. Probation
d. Aiza shall still be convicted. c. Parole
d. Incarceration
8. The Trial Court shall notify the concerned
Prosecuting Officer of the filing of the application at a 16. An order created by the court as a grant for the
reasonable time. The prosecutor shall submit his petitioner who applies and qualified for probation.
comment within --- from the receipt of the notification. a. Probation order
a. 10 days b. Release Document
b. 30 days c. Discharge Document
c. 7 days d. Order of Arrest and Recommitment
d. 5 days
17. If the penalty imposed is not more than one year,
9. Is the security given for the release of a person in the probation period must not be more than six years.
custody of the law, furnished by him or a bondsman, a. No
to guarantee his appearance before any court as b. Yes
required under the conditions hereinafter specified. c. False
a. Bail d. True
b fine
c. Bond 18. One of the mandatory conditions in Probation is to
d. Recognizance present himself/herself to the Probation Officer for
supervision within ---- hours from receipt of said order
10. The information that must be gathered from those a. 24 hours
persons who have direct personal knowledge of the b. 48 hours
petitioner such as the offended party, family members, c. 72 hours
and/or their relatives, including barangay officials and d. 3 hours
disinterested persons.
a. Intelligence 19. Payment can be effected directly to the victim, and
b. collateral Information the acknowledgment receipt shall be filed in the
c. technical Information supervision case file of the probationer at the Probation
d. Confidential Information Office.
a. Yes
11. The probation officer shall submit to the court the b. No
post-sentence investigation report on a defendant not c. True
later than ----- from receipt of the order of said court d. False
to conduct the investigation.
a. 50 days 20. This person of authority may authorize a
b. 30 days probationer to travel outside his area of
c. 60 days operational/territorial jurisdiction for a period of not
d. 70 days more than 10 days.
a. Probation Officer
12. The criminal must serve the entire ruled sentence. b. CPPO
The date of release remains objective and cannot be c. Trial Court
divided into minimum, medium, and maximum penalty. d. President
a. Determinate Sentence
b. Indeterminate Sentence 21. A criminal will serve a range of years as determined
c. Reclusion Perpetua by the judge. The penalty is divisible or has a minimum,
d. Reclusion Temporal medium, and maximum.
a. Indeterminate Sentence
13. Parole and Probation Administration is headed by? b. Determinate Sentence
a. Secretary c. Reclusion Perpetua
b. Assistant Administrator d. Reclusion Temporal
c. Undersecretary
d. Administrator 22. This person of authority may authorize a
probationer to travel outside his area of
14. Who grants parole and recommends to the operational/territorial jurisdiction if it exceeds 10 days
President the grant of any form of executive clemency but not more than thirty (30) days.
to deserving prisoners or individuals? a. Probation Officer
a. Board of Pardons and Parole b. Chief Parole and Probation Officer
b. Parole and Probation Administration c. Trial Court
c. President d. Offended Party
d. Court

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23. If the requested outside travel is for more than 30. It is an act of grace proceeding from the power
thirty (30) days said request shall be recommended by entrusted with the execution of the laws which
the CPPO and submitted to the ---- for approval. exempts the individual on whom it is bestowed from
a. Probation Officer the punishment that the law inflicts for a crime he has
b. Chief Parole and Probation Officer committed.
c. Trial Court a. Probation
d. Offended Party b. Parole
c. pardon
24. Outside travel for a cumulative duration of more d. Amnesty
than thirty (30) days within a period of six (6) months
shall be considered as a -----. 31. Refers to the exemption of an individual, within
a. Full Blown Supervision certain limits or conditions, from the punishment which
b. Partial Supervision the law inflicts for the offense he had committed
c. Courtesy Supervision resulting in the partial extinction of his criminal liability.
d. Requested Supervision a. Probation
b. absolute Pardon
25. A probationer who has not reported for initial c. Conditional pardon
supervision within the seventy-two (72) hours from d. Amnesty
receipt of the probation order and could not be found,
despite due diligence within five (5) days shall be 32. Committed a crime of Serious Physical Injuries,
declared by the proper Office as an ---- Less Serious Physical Injury, Estafa, Robbery,
a. Absconding Probationer Falsification and theft for the third time within 10
b. Absconding Petitioner years.
c. Absconding Pardonee a. Recidivism
d. Absconding Parolee b. Quasi-Recidivism
c. Habitual Delinquency
d. Reiteration
26. The Order of the court granting or denying
probation shall be appealable. 33. Refers to the total extinction of the criminal liability
a. Yes of the individual to whom it is granted without any
b. No condition.
c. True a. Probation
d. False b. absolute Pardon
c. Conditional pardon
27. The Supervision Officer shall to immediately d. Amnesty
conduct a --- investigation on any alleged or reported
violation of probation condition(s) to determine the 34. An executive clemency changing a heavier
veracity and truthfulness of the allegation. sentence to a less serious one, or a longer prison term
a. Surveying to a shorter one.
b. Fact-Finding a. Pardon
c. clockwise b. Amnesty
d. Serious c. Reprieved
d. Commutation of service
28. After the completion of the investigation on the
alleged violation, the probation Officer shall prepare a 35. Refers to the deferment of the implementation of
-------- thereon containing his/her findings and the sentence for an interval of time; it does not annul
recommendations and submit the same to the CPPO the sentence but merely postpones or suspends its
for review and approval. execution.
a. Report on the case a. Pardon
b. Informant Report b. Amnesty
c. Violation Report c. Reprieved
d. Police Report d. Commutation of service

29. An act of the sovereign power granting oblivion or 36. VOLUNTEER PROBATION ASSISTANTS shall
general pardon for a past offense usually granted in supervise Eighty Percent (80%) of the clients.
favor of certain classes of persons who have committed According to the new law the maximum caseload of
crimes of a political character, such as treason, sedition each VPA shall be -----
or rebellion. a. 3 clients
a. Pardon b. 10 clients
b. Amnesty c. 5 clients
c. Reprieved d. 2 clients
d. Commutation of service
37. An Executive Clemency that can be availed of
before, during and after the trial of the case, even after
conviction.
a. Pardon

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b. Amnesty 46. Marjorie once availed and completed the probation
c. Reprieved for the crime with the sentence of 7 months. Recently,
d. Commutation of service she committed another crime sentenced with 6 months
and 1 day. Can she avail probation?
38. The Board of Pardons and Parole chairman shall a. Yes, because the sentence imposed for second
serve a term of? offense id 6 months and 1 day
a. 6 years b. No, because probation in once in a lifetime
b. 10 years c. Yes, because she completed her previous probation
c. 4 years peacefully
d. 3 years d. No, because the court will detain her to CIW

39.The Indeterminate Sentence law of 1933 47. Vico committed the crime of treason. Can he avail
a. ACT. 4103 probation?
b. ACT. 4013 a. Yes, if he applied probation in the court
c. ACT. 4301 b. No, because he committed crime against national
d. ACT. 4113 security
c. Yes, because he’s a first time offender
40. Refers to a person who is released if he has served d. none of the above
the minimum of his sentence in prison until he is
qualified for such community based correction. 48. It is highly political in nature and is usually granted
a. Pardonee in response to popular clamor or to aid in the return to
b. Probationer normalcy of political situation that might effect the
c. Parolee country if not addressed.
d. PDL a. Probation
b. Amnesty
41. Allows a prisoner to serve part of their sentence of c. Parole
imprisonment in the community. A prisoner will be d. Pardon
subject to conditions and under supervision.
a. Probation 49. Under PRC, pardon violator upon conviction will be
b. Parole liable for imprisonment of?
c. pardon a. Prision Correctional
d. Amnesty b. Prision Mayor
c. Reclusion Temporal
42. The Probation Office shall submit to the Trial Court d. Reclusion Perpetua
a Probation Officer's Final Report five (5) days before
the expiration of the period of probation. 50. Granted amnesty to those who collaborated with
a. Yes the Japanese during WWII
b. No a. RA 4103
c. True b. Proclamation no. 51
d. False c. Proclamation no. 76
d. RA 10575
43. A written authorization authorizing the PPA and/or
the Probation Office to secure any and all information 51. Camille was convicted and has 9 years sentenced.
on the petitioner, shall be duly executed and signed by She appealed her case to the higher court but once
him/her is called? have been found guilty but for the lesser penalty of 5
a. Waiver to permit information years. Can she apply now for probation?
b. Waiver cum Authorization a. No, because she appealed her case to the higher
c. Waiver to illicit Information court.
d. Waiver to Communication b. No, because the second sentence is non-
probationable.
44. The only Executive Clemency that needs the c. Yes, because the first sentence is non-probationable
concurrence of the congress. and upon her appeal it became probationable.
a. Pardon d. Yes, because she appealed.
b. Amnesty
c. Reprieved 52. It is an investigation from another city or provincial
d. Commutation of service PPO which request for a complete post-sentence
investigation report on petition for probation.
45. Non-Applicability of the Probation Law for Drug a. Full blown courtesy Investigation*
Traffickers and Pushers, is found on what section b. Partial Courtery Investigation
under RA 9165 c. Post-investigation
a. Sec. 34 d. Probation Investigation
b. sec. 24
c. Sec. 54 53. It is the effect of grant of probation to the sentence
d. Sec. 14 of probationer.
a. Total extinction of sentence
b. Suspension of sentence

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c. Partial extinction of sentence
d. None of the above
54. Cloe, a probationer, after a thorough investigation
and summary hearing have been found out that she
violated the probation condition and it was duly
revoked. What will happen to Cloe upon revocation.
a. Serve the remaining sentence inside the prison
b. Continue her probation upon appeal approval.
c. Serve the original sentence imposed to her before
probation was granted
d. Leave the country
b. During investigation only.
c. Before conviction
d. Upon probation order is finalized only.
62. The following are the probationers that may be
recommended for early termination; Except
a. Already served 1/3 of period of supervision but it
should not be less than 6 months.
b. Suffering in serious disability
c. To travel abroad for job provided fully paid in civil
liabilities
d. Committed a violation in condition.

55. The probation order is defined as a mere privileges 63. Which of the following is not a qualification to
but becomes a statutory right once ---- become a Volunteer Probation Assistant?
a. Applied a. Citizen of good repute and probity
b. Investigated b. 26 years and above
c. Recommended c. Resident of the same community
d. Granted d. No criminal conviction

56. It is defined as a relation between probationer and 64. Which of the following is an ex officio member in
the probation officer. the BPP
a. Supervision a. Former Jury
b. Amicus curiae b. Bar Member
c. Guardianship c. Educator
d. Client d. Administrator

57. Gian was once convicted for a crime sentenced with 65. Once petition for parole was approved, the Board
5 years and 1 day as a minimum term. He subsequently will issue ----
applied for probation and granted accordingly. 7 years a. Discharge order
later he committed a crime of Carnapping and would b. Release Document
like to apply for probation. Is he qualified? c. Parole Order
a. Yes, upon the discretion of the court where he filed d. Termination on Parole
his application
b. Yes, if it has found that he successfully finished his 66. Report submitted by the PPO on violations of
first probation without any issue conditions of his release on parole/conditional pardon
c. No, because he once applied for probation under supervision.
d. No, because it was still in the application process a. Infraction Report
b. Violation report
58. Angelo was convicted with the crime of ---- and is c. Progress report
sentenced with the penalty of Prision Mayor. Is he d. Termination report
qualified for probation?
a. No 67. The Board may consider the case of the
b. Yes recommitted parolee for grant of new parole if he shall
c. Upon discretion of the court served the --- of unserved portion of the maximum
d. Maybe sentence.
a. 1/3
59. Aina was convicted to a crime and sentenced with b. ¼
prision Correctional. Can her application for probation c. 1/5
prosper base on the penalty imposed? d. 1/2
a. No, it is non-probationable
b. Yes, it is probationable 68. Upon receipt of an infraction report, the board may
c. No, she should be refered to CIW issue ---- against the client
d. Yes, her sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day. a. Release Document
b. Discharge on parole
60. One of the condition for probation is to report in c. Order of Arrest and Recommitment
the Probation officer. How many times should a d. Termination Rep
probationer report?
a. Once a week 69. Lisa was sentenced with the imprisonment of 9
b. Once a month months. She applied for probation and was granted
c. Once a year thereof. How many years is her prescribed period of
d. Thrice a month probation?
a. Not more than 1 year
61. Modification of the probation conditions can be b. Not more than 6 years
made --- c. Not more than 2 years
a. At anytime during supervision d. Not more than 3 years

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 c. BPP
70. inquiry that thoroughly investigates offender's d. PPA
character, antecedents, environment, mental and
physical condition before decided by the trial court for 78. How many days from the receipt of courts referral
the grant of probation. shall the CPPO shall conduct the initial Interview of
a. Full blown Investigation petitioner.
b. Post-sentence investigation a. Within 3 working days
c. Partial Investigation b. Within 5 working days
d. None of the above c. Within 6 working days
d. Within 4 working days
71. Post- sentence investigation must answer the
following matters in order for the trial court to whether 79. What is the nature in hearing the violation of the
grant or not grant probation; except violation
a. Whether or not the offender is in need for a. Summary
correctional treatment b. Persuasive
b. Whether or not the offender will be fit for c. Assertive
socialization d. None of the above
c. Whether or not there's an undue risk of committing
another crime 80. Payment for civil liabilities shall be done using the
d. Whether or not the probation will depreciate the following modes except:
seriousness of the crime committed a. Payment on clerk of court
b. Payment is deposited to the victim bank account
72. Can the PSIR be submitted after 60 days? c. Payment id handled to the probation officer and
a. No, it is beyond the 60 days prescribed period. remitted to the victim.
b. No, it will not be accepted by the court. d. Pay directly to the victim with receipts
c. Yes, it was be still valid
d. None of the above 81. Is a person while serving or prior to serving his
sentence committed another crime considered as
felony.
73. The Investigation Report must be Privilege and a. Recidivism
shall not be disclosed directly/ indirectly to anyone. The b. Quasi-Recidivism
following are the authorized person to know the report; c. Habitual Delinquency
except d. Reiteration
a. Investigation Officer
b. PPA 82. Parole and Probation week is celebrated every ----
c. Court Concerned a. June 18-24 of every year
d. None of the above b. May 18-24 of every year
c. August 18-24 of every year
74. The parolee may not transfer residence stated in d. July 18-24 of every year
the release document except the petition for transfer
or residence is approved by the ---- 83. Petition of grant of Executive Clemency and parole
a. Regional Director shall be endorse to Board by -- if the crime is
b. BPP committed by an alien.
c. CPPO a. DND
d. Probation officer b. COMELEC
c. DFA
75. The one who, at the time of his trial for one crime, d. None of the Above
shall have been previously convicted by final judgment
of another crime embraced in the same title of RPC. 84. After the expiration of the maximum sentence of
a. Recidivism the client the board shall issue this document statins
b. Quasi-Recidivism that the client substantially complied all conditions of
c. Habitual Delinquency parole/pardon.
d. Reiteration a. Probation order
b. Certificate of final release and Discharge
c. Termination order
76. CPPO may authorize outside travel of the parolee d. Release Document
in his area of jurisdiction within the period of---
a. Not more than 30 days 85. In parole and Pardon, Certificate of Final Release
b. Entire duration of travel and Discharge is issue for the completion of conditions.
c. Not more than 10 days What is it's counterpart in Probation?
d. More than 30 days a. Probation order
b. Certificate of final release and Discharge
77. If the travel is more than 30 days, it shall be c. Termination order
approved by the --- d. Release Document
a. CPPO
b. Regional Director 86. Which agency exercise supervision over parolees.

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a. PPA 95. The Director General of Prison shall submit to Board
b. BPP its consolidations of pertinent records ,from different
c. Court jail facilities, within --- after receipt of Documents.
d. Parole officer a. 5 days
b. 6 days
87. Who is the Ex-officio chairperson of the BPP? c. 15 days
a. Administrator d. 30 days
b. Bar member
c. Undersecretary 96. Death sentence shall be suspended for following
d. Former Jury cases: Except:
a. Person 69 years of age
88. The Municipal, district, city and Provincial Jail b. Woman, while pregnant
warden has the obligation to transmit to the Director c. Convicted prisoner become insane
General of BUCOR all pertinent records within ---- d. Within one year after delivery.
before the expiration of such inmate minimum
sentence. 97. Amnesty is also known as
a.30 days a. Conditional Pardon
b. 15 days b. General Pardon
c. 7 days c. Absolute Pardon
d. 5 days d. special pardon

89. Who are the common beneficiaries of amnesty? 98. Which community-based correction can be given
a. Old person before, and after conviction?
b. Pregnant women a. Pardon
c. Political offenders b. Amnesty
d. Recidivists c. Reprieve
d. Commutation of sentence
90. This document is required and first to procure
before the issuance of Certificate of Release and 99. A person who served previous crime but committed
Discharge. Must be prepared by the Parole officer. another which has an equal or greater penalty than the
a. Summary report previous one or two or more crime which has a lesser
b. Termination report penalty.
c. Release Report a. Recidivism
d. Infraction report b. Quasi-Recidivism
c. Habitual Delinquency
91. In case the petitioners case is in violation of d. Reiteration
Election Code, No pardon, parole and suspension of
sentence may be granted without the recommendation 100. The Volunteer Probation Assistant shall be
from ---- appointed by the Probation Administrator or through
a. DND the recommendation of the Regional Director endorsed
b. COMELEC by the CPPO/OIC within their respective areas of
c. DFA jurisdiction.
d. DSWD a. Yes
b. No
92. It is the report made within 15 days when the c. True
parolee has reported for supervision. d. False
a. Termination report
b. Summary report CA 3-THERAPEUTIC MODALITIES
c. Discharge Report 1. Is a program of activity directed to restore a PDL
d. Arrival Report self-respect and sense of responsibility to the
community, there making him/her a law-abiding citizen
93. This portion of sentence must be served by the after serving his/her sentence.
offender before being eligible for Commutation of a. Reincarceration
Service. b. Remodification
a. 1/3 of the minimum of indeterminate sentence c. Rehabilitation
b. 1/2 of the minimum of indeterminate sentence d. Reformation
c. 1/5 of the minimum of indeterminate sentence
d. 1/4 of the minimum of indeterminate sentence 2. Is a self-help social learning treatment model which
utilizes the community as the primary therapeutic
94. To whom does the application of Parole be filed? vehicle to foster behavioral and attitudinal change.
a. Court of origin a. TCLP
b. CPPO b. TCMP
c. Administrator of PPA c. TPMC
d. Chairman of BPP d. TCM

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3. Is an environment that helps people get help while c. Interfaith Program
helping others. d. Enhancement Program
a. Health Services
b. Rehabilitation 12.To make the PDL as competitive as other potential
c. Therapeutic Community job seekers, the skills trainings preferred are those
d. Enhancement Program accredited by the ----
a. DepEd
4. Is mandated to direct, supervise and control the b. CHED
administration and operation of all district, city and c. DSWD
municipal jails nationwide with pronged tasks of d. TESDA
safekeeping and development of PDL.
a. BJMP 13. Through this program, PDL experience some sense
b. BUCOR of social normalcy through the communal celebrations
c. DSWD of socio-cultural events like birthdays, Valentine’s Day,
d. CIW Mothers’ and Fathers’ Day etc.
a. Cultural and Sports Program
5. All a BJMP Major Programs, except; b. Modification Program
a. PDL custody, security and control program c. Paralegal Program
b. PDL welfare and development program d. E-Dalaw
c. Decongestion program
d. Provisions of Basic Needs 14. Online or e-marketing of PDL products is also run
by the --- .
6. It is also known as the historical perspective and has a. DSWD
its roots with Sigmund Freud, who believed there were b. CHED
unconscious forces that drive behavior. c. TESDA
a. PSYCHOANALYTIC APPROACH d. Jail unit Welfare and Development Office
b. COGNITIVE APPROACH
c. HUMANISTIC APPROACH 15. Is our belief in the client’s ability to make
d. CONTEMPORARY APPROACH appropriate decisions and deal appropriately with his
or her life situation. It is often showed best by not
7. PDL consists of interventions towards the offering advice or cheap comfort.
prevention, promotion, treatment of illnesses and a. Empathy
rehabilitation. All PDL undergo medical assessment b. Respect
upon admission c. Congruence
a. Educational Program d. Warmth
b. Enhancement Program
c. Health Services 16. PDL are provided with the opportunity to practice
d. Provisions of Basic Needs their faith while under custody without discrimination.
Interfaith Program
8. Aim to provide opportunities for PDL to achieve a. Livelihood Program
mandatory education. b. Modification Program
a. Educational Program c. Interfaith Program
b. Enhancement Program d. Enhancement Program
c. Health Services
d. Provisions of Basic Needs 17. Presents income-generating activities to PDL
during their confinement where they are able to earn
9. In jails where there are no personnel trained to for their personal upkeep and for financial support to
handle ALS classes, the ALS teachers would be coming their families.
from the ---- a. Livelihood Program
a. DepEd b. Modification Program
b. CHED c. Interfaith Program
c. DSWD d. Enhancement Program
d. TESDA
18. To address the overcrowding in jail facilities, the
10. Time Allowance for Teaching, Studying and PDL are assisted in availing of the different early modes
Mentoring (TASTM) pursuant to RA 10592. of release.
a. 7 days per month a. Cultural and Sports Program
b. 15 days per month b. Modification Program
c. 10 days per month c. Paralegal Program
d. 5 days per month d. E-Dalaw

11. Equip the PDL with technical/vocational skills which
they can use in seeking employment or starting their
own business after release from confinement.
a. Livelihood Program
b. Modification Program
19. To cater to PDL whose family members cannot go
to the jail for actual visit because of the long distance
to the jail from the residence or workplace of the family
members.
a. Cultural and Sports Program

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b. Modification Program
c. Paralegal Program
d. E-Dalaw 28. At this phase, the resident is expected to have
proven his ability to take on more responsibility hence
20. Is an outright correction done by any member of needs lesser supervision. He is considered a role model
the TC community to another member who has done a in the TC community.
minor infraction but is not aware of it. a. Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase
a. TALK TO b. Phase III – Pre Re-Entry
b. DEALT WITH c. Phase IV- Re-entry
c. PULL-UP d. Phase V- Aftercare
d. HAIRCUT
29.The inmate is now preparing for his life outside of
jail and is focused on making himself a productive
21. Cardinal rules in TC are the following, Except; citizen.
a. No Sex or sexual acting out a. Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase
b. No Stealing b. Phase III – Pre Re-Entry
c. No Cellphone c. Phase IV- Re-entry
d. No Violence or threat of violence d. Phase V- Aftercare

22. At this phase, the resident is handled gently and is 30. Is an outpatient program that requires clients to
expected to commit mistakes in the process of learning report twice a week to an outreach center.
the program. a. Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase
a. Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase b. Phase III – Pre Re-Entry
b. Phase II- Primary Treatment c. Phase IV- Re-entry
c. Phase IV- Re-entry d. Phase V- Aftercare
d. Phase V- Aftercare
31. Introduces the concept and mechanics of the
23. It is a sort of “home” group who provides support various shaping tools to include Morning Meeting in
for one another and to the new members of the order to facilitate the management of and shape the
community. behavior of the residents.
a. WOMEN’S GROUP a. Behavior Management;
b. EXTENDED GROUP b. Emotional and Psychological;
c. STATIC GROUP c. Intellectual and Spiritual; and
d. MEN’S GROUP d. Vocational and Survival Skills.

24. This counseling theory focuses on how people’s 32. It refers to a word or saying that will serve as a
thinking can change feeling and behaviors. guide for the community to ponder upon in relation to
a. PSYCHOANALYTIC APPROACH their day-to-day interactions and behaviors.
b. COGNITIVE APPROACH a. TALK TO
c. HUMANISTIC APPROACH b. LEARNING EXPERIENCE
d. CONTEMPORARY APPROACH c. Behavior Shaping Tools (BST)
d. THEME/CONCEPT OF THE DAY
25. He becomes a part of the community starting as a
crew member of the housekeeping department until he 33. Is employed to strengthen the learning process and
gradually ascends in the hierarchy. the practice of more adaptive behaviors within the
a. Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase social learning environment.
b. Phase II- Primary Treatment a. TALK TO
c. Phase IV- Re-entry b. LEARNING EXPERIENCE
d. Phase V- Aftercare c. Behavior Shaping Tools (BST)
d. THEME/CONCEPT OF THE DAY
26. The resident is now ready to undergo the treatment
proper. 34. Is a means of amending or improving by changing
a. Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase an inmate’s behavior or removing his or her faults or
b. Phase II- Primary Treatment abuse and removing or correcting an abuse of a wrong
c. Phase IV- Re-entry or error.
d. Phase V- Aftercare a. Reincarceration
b. Remodification
27. Managing own feelings and learning how to c. Rehabilitation
express self appropriately, learning how to follow the d. Reformation
rules and norms of the community and to maximize
participation in activities that are appropriate to the 35. This is done when the violator is unknown and must
resident’s need for growth. be validated first prior to bringing up in the Morning
a. Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase Meeting.
b. Phase II- Primary Treatment a. TALK TO
c. Phase IV- Re-entry b. DEALT WITH
d. Phase V- Aftercare c. PULL-UP

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d. HAIRCUT d. COUNSELING

36. A panel of three (3) composed of a senior resident, 44. It holds that people have within themselves all the
peer and a friend are tasked to deliver a serious and resources they need to live healthy and functional lives.
stern reprimand to the subjected resident. a. PSYCHOANALYTIC APPROACH
a. TALK TO b. COGNITIVE APPROACH
b. DEALT WITH c. HUMANISTIC APPROACH
c. PULL-UP d. CONTEMPORARY APPROACH
d. HAIRCUT
45.An older member of the community tasked to
37. Is done when negative behaviors or infractions to provide guidance to the newly committed residents.
the House Rules/Norms in same offense are done for a. SECRETS
the third time or more or for first time grave offenses. b. PEER
a. TALK TO c. STATIC GROUP
b. DEALT WITH d. BIG BROTHER
c. PULL-UP
d. HAIRCUT 46. All PDL under custody are provided with three (3)
meals (breakfast, lunch and supper). Adequate supply
38. Is an action or activity given to a resident who was of potable water is made available to them at all times.
subjected to Haircut or General Meeting who did an a. Educational Program
infraction to correct or modify a behavior. b. Enhancement Program
a. LEARNING EXPERIENCE c. Health Services
b. BANS d. Provisions of Basic Needs
c. EXPULSION
d. GENERAL MEETING 47. It is merely “putting oneself in the client’s shoes”.
When the client feels understood, a sense of trust or
39. Are sanctions to members who commit repeatedly “rapport” is developed.
infractions or violation to the Cardinal Rules by a. Empathy
prohibiting, disallowing or limiting an activity or b. Respect
affiliation to a group. c. Congruence
a. LEARNING EXPERIENCE d. Warmth
b. BANS
c. EXPULSION 48. Also called “unconditional positive regard”. It
d. GENERAL MEETING involves accepting and caring about the client as a
person
40. A repeated breach to the Cardinal Rules a. Empathy
necessitates--- b. Respect
a. LEARNING EXPERIENCE c. Congruence
b. BANS d. Warmth
c. EXPULSION
d. GENERAL MEETING 49. Through the program, PDL are trained on socially
acceptable ways of behaving and relating with their
41. When a resident is incorrigible and becomes a fellow PDL and with personnel and visitors.
threat to the community, the Director with the a. Livelihood Program
recommendation of the Disciplinary Board may transfer b. Modification Program
him/her to the nearest jail facility with an appropriate c. Interfaith Program
Court Order. d. Enhancement Program
a. LEARNING EXPERIENCE
b. BANS 50. It is a forum for members of the community to
c. EXPULSION verbally express pent-up or negative emotions within a
d. GENERAL MEETING structured and safe environment. Serves as a “safety
valve” within the community.
42. BJMP residents who are detained are basically a. WOMEN’S GROUP
psychologically and emotionally challenged. b. EXTENDED GROUP
a. Behavior Management; c. ENCOUNTER GROUPS
b. Emotional and Psychological; d. MEN’S GROUP
c. Intellectual and Spiritual; and
d. Vocational and Survival Skills. 51. It is held as a recreational event purposely to instill
fun, humor and entertainment after an intense and
43. Is defined as a professional activity of helping hectic week.
individuals, groups or communities enhance or restore a. Saturday Night Activities
their capacity for psychological, emotional and social b. Grab bag
functioning. c. Debate
a. GO BAG d. Meditation
b. SECRETS
c. MEDITATION

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52. The group of peers and the staff makes up the d. PPA and LGU' s
community itself serve as a primary ---
a. Client 62. Aftercare is an outpatient program that requires
b. Therapist client to report ---- to an outreach center
c. Resident a. Twice a week
d. Community b. Once a week
c. Twice a month
53. Job functions are included under the ----- aspect d. None of the above
a. Spiritual and Intellectual Aspect
b. Psychological and Emotional Aspect 63. Involves one to one relationship between the
c. Behavioral Management counselor and the patient.
d. Vocational and Survival skills a. Group counseling
b. Individual counseling
54. Behavioral shaping tools involving a panel of 3 c. secrets
a. Talk to d. Bans
b. Pull up
c. Dealt with 64. At present TCMP is recognized as ---- of the BJMP
d. Haircut for inmate development program and being
implemented nationwide.
55. He serves as a liaison between the staff and a. Backbone program
resident. b. Supplementary program
a. Department Crew c. Minor program
b. Chief expeditor d. None of the above
c. Correctional officer
d. Coordinator 65. In the British Democratic Maxwell TC, this is where
resident continually confronted with their own image
56. The success of the program is a reflection of how as perceived by others.
one cares for the others. a. Communalism
a. You can't keep it unless you give it away b. Reality Testing
b. Understand rather than be understood c. Democracy
c. You are your brother’s keeper d. Permissiveness

57. These are examples of TC rules. Except: 66. In the British Democratic Maxwell TC, this is where
a. Lights on at 10:00 pm all resident has an equal chance and opportunity to
b. Be on time on all activities participate.
c. No destruction of jail property a. Communalism
d. Maintain good hygiene b. Reality Testing
c. Democracy
58. A group that focuses on the "here and now" but d. Permissiveness
allows deeper exploration of issues that affects new
behavior. 67. This tool does not strictly require a presence of the
a. Encounter group staff to attain its purpose, the staff shall monitor should
b. Extended group monitor to ensure that the panel assigned acted
c. Peer group properly.
d. Static group a. Talk to
b. Haircut
59. A form of Psychotherapy involves one or more c. Pull up
therapist working together with several people at the d. Dealt with
same time.
a. Group counseling 68. Thia aspect is designed to respond inner longing of
b. Individual counseling residents to find greater faith.
c. Secrets a. Spirituality
d. Bans b. Intellectual
c. Survival
60. It is a natural human characteristic of yearning for d. Vocational
knowledge to attain higher level of understanding.
a. Spirituality
b. Vocational aspect 69. Phase of encounter group which involves
c. Intellectual aspect verbalization of concerns or honest disclosure of
d. Survival aspect emotion that has been provoked during interpersonal
interaction with another resident.
61. In aftercare for clients release from jail, they are a. Confrontation
referred to the ------ units to follow up and aftercare. b. Socialization
a. BPP c. Exploration
b. Court d. Management
c. NGO'S

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70. What is the process that helps people identify b. Hang tough
stressors and help them stay calm. For them to handle c. Pride and quality
tense situations and it a positive way. d. Compensation is valid
a. Counseling
b. Anger management 79. The residents will learn how to give and accept
c. Meditation criticism without resentment.
d. Recreational activities a. Responsible love and concern
b. Pride in quality
71. The principal guiding rules observed by all residents c. Trust in your environment
in a TC with heavier corresponding consequences. d. Honesty
a. Theme
b. Word of the day 80. The product of our labor speaks of our attitude
c. Cardinal rules towards life in general.
d. TC philosophies a. Responsible love and concern
b. Pride in quality
72. In thus phase, all feelings that were expressed are c. Trust in your environment
further examined and find out how it could have been d. Honesty
resulted in such a way in order evoke awareness on
the connection of behavior feelings and attitude 81. TC hierarchy that is responsible for carrying out
a. Confrontation task, duties and responsibilities of their concerned
b. Socialization departments.
c. Exploration a. coordinator
d. None of the above b. Therapist
c. Chief expeditor
73. Group of participants are selected by stuff base on d. Department Crew
peers like adults members that admitted on the same
day inside the facility. 82. We usually react impulsively to things around us
a. Big brother because of our feelings. Before we can even think, an
b. Static group action has already been done.
c encounter group a. Guilt kills
d. Peer confrontation group b. Feelings don't think
c. You are your brother’s keeper
74. The philosophy teaches the residents to go with the d. You can’t keep it unless you give it away.
flow as way of compliance and eventually they will
learn to embrace it and behavior becomes natural. 83. One of the therapeutic activities which the resident
a. Act as if is engaged in socio-civic activities such as tree planting
b. No free lunch and agriculture.
c. Trust in your environment a. Psychotherapy
d. Responsible love and concern b. social integration
c. Community work projects
75. There are use to remind resident what are d. Counseling
considered important to them. Consist of slogans and
aphorisms that are verbally given to impart believes 84. It integrates therapeutic Community tools, norms,
and values inside the TC. principles and method with the parole and probation
a. Cardinal rules requirements implemented in progressive
b. Theme steps/phases with non-residential based setting of
c. Word of the day PPA's rehabilitation program.
d. TC unwritten philosophies a. TC
b. TCMP
76. "Change will not come if we will just wait for it to c. TCLP
happen. We have to make it happen" d. None of the above
a. Act as if
b. No free lunch 85. Recommended therapeutic activity of DDB wherein
c. Trust in your environment assisting the patient to become socially and
d. Responsible love and concern economically self-sustaining individual.
a. Family therapy
77. A reward for working hard is well deserve. We got b. Sheltered workshops
what we put into. c. Community work projects
a. Act as if d. Social Reintegration
b. Hang tough
c. Pride and quality 86. TC Philosophy Recital is an activity under ---
d. Compensation is valid a. Intellectual and spiritual Aspect
b. Behavioral Aspect
78. Every problem is a learning experience that would c. Sports and Recreation
make us tougher in dealing with life challenges d. Vocational and Survival aspect
a. Act as if

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87. There will be no change if there is no honesty and
disclosure. Before doing so trust must be established. 96. A department that oversees day to day affairs, in
a. Honesty charge with the attendance and report incidents.
b. To be aware is to be alive a. Business office department
c. Trust in your environment b. Expediting Team
d. Understand rather than be understood c. Maintenance Department
d. Housekeeping Department
88. There will be no change if there is no honesty and
disclosure. Before doing so trust must be established. 97. The hierarchical position for resident which
a. Honesty oversees schedule of the day and managing daily
b. To be aware is to be alive functions.
c. Trust in your environment a. Coordinator
d. Understand rather than be understood b. Coordinator on duty
c. Chief expediter
89. We should learn to reach out for help and admit d. Department head
our weakness
a. You alone can do it but can't do it alone 98. It helps the individual to become less dependent,
b. To be aware is to be alive adopt himself and become more independent in
c. Trust in your environment making positive changes.
d. Understand rather than be understood a. Intellectual and spiritual Aspect
b. Behavioral Management
90. Discovering resident's inner sanctuary and help c. Sport and Recreation
individual established a practice of knowing his d. Vocational and Survival skills
attention within.
a. Meditation 99. A drug treatment modality which views addiction
b. Seminar as a disease and involuntary condition caused by
c. Saturday night activities factors largely outside of person control.
d. Grab bag a. Eclectic approach
b. multi-disciplinary team approach
91. To provide the residents the opportunity to learn c. Hazelden-Minnesota approach
how to reasonably and put together argument in a d. Spiritual approach
logical manner.
a. Meditation 100. A program of the PPA that aimed in generating
b. Seminar maximum, effective and efficient citizen participation
c. Debate and community involvement in the process of client
d. Mind games rehabilitation.
a. Volunteerism
92. Activities in TC that provides intellectual stimulation b. Volunteer Probation Assistant
and seek personal involvement among residents. c. Therapist
a. Meditation d. Therapeutic Community
b. Seminar
c. Debate
d. Mind games

93. A form of seminar that enhance residents insight

about themselves with the use of identification with
inanimate objects.
a. Meditation
b. Seminar
c. Debate
d. Grab bag

94. It is a class of TC community that compose of 1,000

and above population
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

95. It is conducted weekly for the assignment of task.

Tasks that last for 1 week rotation basis within the
department.
a. Morning meeting
b. Departmental meeting
c. General meeting
d. Schedule meeting

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